*NURSING > EXAM REVIEW > NR 302: Health Assessment EXAM REVIEW (2020-2021, REVISED VERSION) Chamberlain College of Nursing (All)

NR 302: Health Assessment EXAM REVIEW (2020-2021, REVISED VERSION) Chamberlain College of Nursing

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NR-302 Health Assessment Health assessment Exam Review 1. Which finding would require immediate reaction from the nurse If found during the physical assessment - Oxygen saturation of 88% 2. Patient ha... s a urinary catheter. Which assessment Should also be done during vital signs? - Observing the color of the output 3. A nurse is evaluating the neurologic system of a patient. Which assessment should be included in the neurologic examination? - 4. A nurse is reviewing a patient's vital signs that have been noted in the patient's chart. The blood pressure measurement is 60/40. What should the nurse do based on reviewing this and the patient's medical record - 5. Which priority of action should the nurse take when performing an initial assessment of the patient's pain who is receiving pain control via patient-controlled analgesia? - 6. Which of the following should the nurse assess first? - 7. The nurse administers an intravenous dose of pain medication. The nurse should assess the patient in - 8. The nursing assistant takes the vital signs of the 12 patients on the unit. Who is responsible for interpreting the results? - 9. The nurse is calling the patient's healthcare provider about a change in condition. Which of the following would be included in the SBAR communication? - 10. What is an advantage of using the Sbar for staff communication? - 11. A nurse is evaluating a newborn for passage of meconium. Which finding is considered abnormal - 12. To assess the rooting reflex of a newborn, the nurse would - 13. Which piece of equipment would the nurse use to elicit a pupillary reflex in a newborn? - 14. Which physical method would the nurse use to determine if a newborn had a inguinal hernia? - 15. The nurse is reviewing information relative to the newborn focusing on the APGAR score results. The nurse understands that the APGAR score - 16. Which approach to a complete physical assessment should be used for an adolescent - 17. To gain trust of a young child, the examiner should - 18. Which assessment would be used to screen a young child for developmental delays? - 19. Which assessment should be performed last and a four-week-old infant? - 20. When assessing a young child, the nurse remembers which of the following about young children - 21. When gathering information relative to a complete health assessment, the nurse should include which of the following in the decision-making process - Select all that apply - 22. Which of the following will help the student nurse improve his or her health assessment techniques? - 23. When performing a health history, the nurse would note immunizations under which category - 24. In what section of the health assessment record with the nurse document "reports usual health ok" with no recent weight changes - 25. A 40-year-old male patient has cellulitis of the left lower extremity and no history of health problems. What findings need further evaluation - 26. The nurse is assessing a patient neck, which of the following is included for this area - 27. The examiner should auscultate for a carotid bruit if the patient is - r 28. During auscultation of breath sounds the examiner should - 29. The examiner is assessing the extraocular muscles. What test would be inappropriate - 30. Why is it important for the nurse to use a routine examination sequence? - 31. Which of the following actions by the student nurse indicates he or she does not know the correct method for assessing the carotid artery? - 32. The jugular venous pressure is an indirect reflection of the - 33. A brute heard while auscultating the carotid artery of a 65-year-old patient is caused by - 34. When auscultating the heart of a newborn within 24 hours after birth the examiner here is a continuous sound that mimics the sound of a machine. This finding most likely indicates - 35. The ability of the heart to contract independently of any signals or stimulation is due to - 36. Which of the following is an appropriate position to have the patient assume When auscultating for extra heart sounds or murmurs? - 37. Which cardiac alterations occurs during pregnancy - 38. Which guidelines may be used to identify which heart sound is S1? - 39. The first heart sound is produced by the - 40. When preparing to complete a thoracic and long assessment of an infant or child the nurse should do what - 41. An increase in the transverse diameter of the chest cage in a pregnant woman is due to - 42. Percussion of the chest is - 43. Stridor is a high pitch inspiratory crowing sound commonly associated with - 44. The gradual loss of intra-alveolar septa and a decreased number of alveoli in lungs of older adults’ cause - 45. Which of the following voice sounds would be a normal finding? - 46. Inspiration is primarily facilitated by which of the following muscles - 47. When auscultating lung sounds it is important for the nurse to do which of the following - 48. Which of the following is a clinical manifestation in a patient with COPD? - 49. Increased tactile fremitus would be evident in an individual who has which condition - 50. What is the major cause of decreased saliva production in older adults? - 51. Which pairs of sinuses are absent at birth, and fairly developed between the age of seven and eight, and fully developed after puberty? - 52. The duct in the parotid gland that opens the mouth opposite of the second molar is - 53. One of the purposes of the paranasal sinuses is to - 54. In addition to Initiating digestion of food, saliva - 55. An enlarged tongue may accompany - 56. An examination of the mouth of an American Indian, Examiner notices the presence of a bifid uvula. How should this finding be interpreted - 57. Which of the following questions with the examiner ask to determine whether an individual has epistaxis? - 58. The examiner and notices a fine tremor when the patient sticks out his or her tongue. What disorder is consistent with this finding - 59. The nasal mucosa of a patient with rhinitis would be - 60. If the tympanic membrane has white dense areas, The examiner suspects - 61. The tympanic membrane of a child with acute otitis media would be - r 62. The position of the tympanic membrane of the neonate is positioned more __________ Making it more difficult to visualize with the otoscope - 63. Which of the following test provides a precise quantitive measure of hearing? - 64. When an otoscope examination was performed on an older adult, the tympanic membrane may be - 65. The labyrinth of the inner ear is responsible for maintaining the body's - 66. The external structure of the year it was identified as the - 67. Which of the following children is at risk for a recurring otitis media? - 68. Which of the following behaviors Demonstrated by an individual may be indicative of hearing loss? - 69. Binaural interaction at the level of brain stem permits - 70. Decreased vision and an older adult patient may be due to which of the following - 71. The normal color of an optic disc is - 72. When inspecting the eyes of an African-American individual Which of the following might the examiner expect to observe - 73. The lens of the eye function as a - 74. Which of the following statements regarding the results obtained from use of the Snellen chart is true? - 75. Which of the following groups of individuals need to be tested for the presence of color blindness? - 76. The location of the brain where optic nerve fibers from the temporal fields of vision cross over is identified as the - 77. A slight protrusion of the eyeballs may be noticed when examining individuals who come from which cultural group - 78. The extraocular muscles consist of four straight or _______ muscles and two slanting or _______ muscles - 79. Which of the following is an expected response to the cover test? - 80. A patient is admitted to the emergency department after a motor vehicle accident. The trachea is deviated to the left side. This finding is a characteristic of - 81. What disease is characterized by flat, expressionless or masklike face. A starring gaze, oily skin and elevated eyebrows - 82. Which of the following statements regarding a headache would warrant an immediate referral? - 83. A severe deficiency of thyroid hormone leading to nonpitting edema, coarse facial features, dry skin, and dry coarse hair is known as - 84. Most facial bones articulate at a suture. Which facial bone articulates at a joint - 85. Which of the following statements related to aggravated symptoms or triggers of headaches include? - 86. Kyphosis of the spine is common with aging. To compensate, older adults - 87. Narrow palpable fissures, epicanthal folds, and mid facial hypoplasia, are characteristics of - 88. Craniosynostosis is a severe deformity caused by - 89. Bleeding in the periosteum during birth is known as - 90. I scooped out shallow depression and the skin is known as - 91. An example of a primary lesion is known as - 92. To determine if a dark skin patient is pale the nurse should assess the color of the - 93. The components of a nail examination include - r 94. Linear skin lesion that runs along a nerve root - 95. Which risk factor increases the risk for skin disease and breakdown among older adults - 96. Functions of the skin include - 97. A flat macular hemorrhage is called - 98. When taking the health history, the patient complains of pruritis. What is a common cause of this symptom? - 99. A student nurse has been assigned to teach fourth graders about hygiene. While preparing she adds information about the sweat glands. What should be included while discussing this topic - 100. Which of the following signs and symptoms would indicate malnutrition? Select all that apply - 101. Which of the following is the most accurate and easy to implement nutritional assessment method? - 102. A comprehensive nutritional assessment always includes - 103. Infants and children up to two years of age should receive whole milk. What component of whole milk is essential for development? - 104. In order for a weight loss program to be affective What fat intake would be considered a low-fat diet - 105. Nutrition status is best determined by - 106. Which of the following is a reason for increase caloric and protein requirements during adolescence? - 107. Obesity in adults is defined as - 108. Which of the following changes an aging adult affects nutritional status? - 109. Tell me more about the pain - 110. Which of the following influences pain sensitivity in women? - 111. What is the source of deep somatic pain? - 112. Neuropathic pain implies an abnormal - 113. What type of pain is short and self-limiting and dissipates after injury heals? - 114. What occurs during transduction - 115. What is the most reliable indicator for chronic pain? - 116. What controls a person’s blood pressure? - 117. Which respiratory rate for an infant with a chronic illness requires further interventions and assessments - 118. The patient's pulse is 3+ or full and bounding - What could be the cause - 119. The tympanic membrane thermometer - 120. The Doppler technique - 121. The nurse is completing a general survey assessment of an older adult I notice is the patient demonstrates wider gait with short uneven steps- The most important action of the nurse is - 122. Physical appearance includes statements that compare appearance with - 123. Endogenous obesity is - 124. Data collection for the general survey begins - 125. A nurse is completing a general survey assessing the level of consciousness of a patient. What is expected for this assessment? - 126. The general survey consists of four distinct areas. These areas include - 127. What should be included as part of the body structure of the general survey - 128. At the end of the examination the examiner showed - 129. Which of the following should be considered when preparing to examine an older adult? - 130. Fine tactile discrimination is best achieved with the - 131. Amplitude is - 132. Deep palpation is used to - 133. To examine a toddler a nurse should - 134. When performing percussion, the examiner - 135. The mental status examination - 136. Mental status assessment documents - 137. Aphasia is best described as - 138. A full mental health examination should be completed if the patient - 139. Which of the following best illustrates an abnormality of thought process? - 140. A healthcare provider must address the four main components during a health history and physical examination. These components include - 141. PQRSTU is a mnemonic that helps a clinician to remember to address characteristics specific to - 142. When recording information for the review of systems the interviewer must document - 143. The ROS in a health history is - 144. The CAGE test is a screening questionnaire to help identify - 145. What information is included in greater detail when taking a health history on an infant - 146. When taking a health history on an adolescent the interviewer should - 147. Areas covered under his self-esteem and self-concept include - 148. Which of the following is included and documenting a history source? - 149. An example of an open-ended question is - 150. Viewing the world from another person’s in a frame of reference is called - 151. The use of euphemisms to avoid reality of hide feelings is known as - 152. When preparing the physical setting for an interview, the interviewer should - 153. Which symptom is greatly influenced by a cultural heritage? - 154. Which theory has been expanded in an attempt to study a degree to which a person’s lifestyle reflects his or her traditional heritage? - 155. What is the yin yang theory? - 156. Which of the following statements regarding language barriers and health care is true? - 157. Hot and cold theory of health - 158. Which of the following actions and behaviors in the critical thinking process is important for the novice nurse to remember? - 159. Which type of database is most important for an individual admitted to a long-term care facility - 160. A complete database is - 161. Subjective data - 162. Objective data - 163. Objective data - 164. What is the most important step in the critical thinking process? - 165. What type of database is most appropriate when rapid collection of data is required and often compiled concurrently with life saving measures? - Show Less [Show More]

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