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A&P PART A ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY QUIZZES QUIZZES 1-13 (QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED ANSWERS)

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QUIZ 1 The Zone would be best described as A. Glucose homeostasis B. Calcium homeostasis C. Body Fat homeostasis D. pH homeostasis QUESTION 2 Why is potassium able to diffuse easily in and ou... t of cells? A. Because potassium has a greater concentration in the intracellular fluid (ICF) B. Because sodium has a greater concentration in the extracellular fluid (ECF) C. Because the resting plasma membrane is more permeable to potassium D. Because there is an excess of anions inside the cell QUESTION 3 What is the action of calcitonin? A. Increases metabolism B. Decreases metabolism C. Increases serum calcium D. Decreases serum calcium QUESTION 4 Homeostasis can best be described as: A. a constant state maintained by living and nonliving organisms B. a state of relative constancy C. adaptation to external environment D. changes in body temperature QUESTION 5 From smallest to largest, the levels of organization of the body are: A. organism, chemical, tissue, cellular, organ, system, organelle B. chemical, microscopic, cellular, tissue, organ, system, organism C. organism, system, organ, tissue, cellular, organelle, chemical D. chemical, organelle, cellular, tissue, organ, system, organism QUESTION 6 The smallest living units of structure and function in the body are: A. molecules B. cells C. organelles D. atoms QUESTION 1 QUIZ 2 The smallest contractile unit of muscle is made up of: A. CHO's. B. Lipids. C. Proteins. D. Inorganic molecules. QUESTION 2 The chief function of the T-tubules, a unit that is designed to allow action potentials to penetrate into muscle fiber cells and facilitate: A. Flux... movement of nutrients into the muscle fiber cell. B. allow for the protein fibers to move into the muscle fiber cell. C. allow for ion flux... movement of ions into the cell ...thus allowind an electrical signal to move deeper into the cell. D. allow for the generation of new muscle fibers. QUESTION 3 The neurotransmitter(s) secreted at the motor end plates of skeletal muscles is/are: A. proteins. B. peptides. C. polar. D. lipid. QUESTION 4 The ion necessary for binding to troponin and allowing cross-bridging is which divalent cation: A. iron. B. sodium. C. potassium. D. calcium. QUESTION 5 Creatine is a molecule, it is made from an amino acid and it is a repleanishable energy unit when it accepts a phosphate form ATP. This energy store, high energy resivoir is created when a bond is used to bind creatine to phosphate: A. van der Walls. B. ionic. C. polar covalent. D. nonpolar covalent. QUESTION 6 Aerobic respiration as the final electron acceptor: A. uses sulfur. B. uses phosphate. C. uses carbon D. uses oxygen. QUESTION 7 The component of skeletal muscles which are made up of proteins, a sarcomere, would be considered by a biochemist, in the level of complexity: A. quaternary. B. tertiary. C. secondary. D. primary. QUESTION 8 A motor unit is most correctly described as a functional conection between the and system: A. endocrine, neural. B. neural, skeletal. C. neural, muscular. D. muscular, skeletal. QUESTION 9 During a phase of the twitch contraction, there is a triggering of the release of calcium ions into the sarcoplasm and it binds to a protein causing a modulation? A. allosteric B. covalent C. hydrogen D. van der Waals QUESTION 10 All of the following are true characteristics of a steroids interaction with a muscle cell except: A. it is lipid soluable and crosses the cell membrane. B. is lipophylic. C. is hydrophylic. D. activates transcription and translation to increase muscle mass. QUESTION 11 The Zone would be best described as A. Glucose homeostasis B. Calcium homeostasis C. Body Fat homeostasis D. pH homeostasis QUESTION 12 Why is potassium able to diffuse easily in and out of cells? A. Because potassium has a greater concentration in the intracellular fluid (ICF) B. Because sodium has a greater concentration in the extracellular fluid (ECF) C. Because the resting plasma membrane is more permeable to potassium D. Because there is an excess of anions inside the cell QUESTION 13 What is the action of calcitonin? A. Increases metabolism B. Decreases metabolism C. Increases serum calcium D. Decreases serum calcium QUESTION 14 Homeostasis can best be described as: A. a constant state maintained by living and nonliving organisms B. a state of relative constancy C. adaptation to external environment D. changes in body temperature QUESTION 15 From smallest to largest, the levels of organization of the body are: A. organism, chemical, tissue, cellular, organ, system, organelle B. chemical, microscopic, cellular, tissue, organ, system, organism C. organism, system, organ, tissue, cellular, organelle, chemical D. chemical, organelle, cellular, tissue, organ, system, organism QUESTION 16 The smallest living units of structure and function in the body are: A. molecules B. cells C. organelles D. atoms QUESTION 1 QUIZ 3 Which component of the cell produces hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) by using oxygen to remove hydrogen atoms from specific substrates in an oxidative reaction? A. Lysosomes B. Peroxisome C. Ribosomes D. Oxyhydrosomes QUESTION 2 Why is potassium able to diffuse easily in and out of cells? A. Because potassium has a greater concentration in the intracellular fluid (ICF) B. Because sodium has a greater concentration in the extracellular fluid (ECF) C. Because a channel exists that allows K+ which is surrounded by water molecules to move based on its concentration as well as the resting plasma membrane potential ... together this is called the electrochemical potential which determines the overall permeablity for potassium . D. Because there is an excess of anions inside the cell QUESTION 3 Think, Do all embryonic cells have centrioles ... yes. Do all adult cells have centrioles ... ? Thus in the adult which cells, if any, lose their ability to replicate and divide? A. None, all cells have the ability to replicate and divide. B. Epithelial Cells of the lung and intestinal tract cannot replicate and divide. C. Epithelial Cells of the skin cannot replicate and divide. D. Cells of the lens of the eye, brain, cardiac muscle and skeletal muscle cannot replicate and divide. QUESTION 4 Active transport occurs across membranes that: A. have a higher concentration of the solute on the outside of the cell. B. are semipermeable to water and small electrically uncharged molecules. C. have receptors that are capable of binding with the substances to be transported. D. have a cell membrane that is hydrophobic rather than hydrophilic. QUESTION 5 Which type of cell adaptation occurs when normal columnar ciliated epithelial cells of the bronchial lining have been replaced by stratified epithelium like a transitional epithelium, a type of response that is reversible and not considered precancerous? A. Hyperplasia B. Metaplasia C. Dysplasia D. Anaplasia QUESTION 6 What is a consequence of plasma membrane damage to the mitochondria? A. Enzymatic digestion halts DNA synthesis. B. Influx of calcium ions halts the ATP production. C. Reduction in ATP production caused by edema from an influx in sodium. D. Shift of potassium out of the mitochondria, which destroys the infrastructure. QUESTION 7 In hypoxic injury, reduction of the oxygen supplied to the mitochondria, reduces the amount ATP produced; which allows sodium to enter the cell and cause swelling? A. Because the cell membrane permeability increases for sodium during periods of hypoxia B. Because there is insufficient ATP to maintain the pump that keeps sodium out of the cell C. Because the lactic acid produced by the hypoxia binds with sodium within the cell D. Because sodium cannot be transported in the cytosol to the cell membrane during hypoxia QUESTION 8 In an embryo, newborn or child, the proliferation of cells in response to stimulation is called: A. dysplasia. B. metaplasia. C. hyperplasia. D. apoptosis. QUESTION 9 Which is a description of the characteristics of apoptosis? A. A programmed cell death of scattered, single cells B. Characterized by swelling of the nucleus and cytoplasm C. Has unpredictable patterns of cell death D. Results in benign malignancies QUESTION 10 Which of the following are buffers which can work in the body? A. H2SO4 B. Bicarbonate/Carbonic acid (HCO3/H2CO3) C. Phosphate (HPO4/H2PO4) D. Ammonia (NH3/NH4) QUESTION 11 Where are antibodies produced? A. SER B. RER C. RER and Golgi D. In/on the free ribosomes which are coupled with a functional lysosome QUESTION 12 Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) is released to stimulate thyroid hormones and is inhibited when plasma levels of thyroid hormone are adequate. This is an example of what kind of hormone regulation? A. Positive feedback B. Negative feedback C. Neural regulation D. Physiologic regulation QUESTION 13 Hormone receptors for Lipid-soluble compounds are most commonly located: A. Within the plasma membrane and most commonly within the nucleus. B. on the outer surface of the plasma membrane. C. inside the mitochondria. D. on the inner surface of the plasma membrane. QUESTION 14 Which second messenger is stimulated by epinephrine binding to a ß-adrenergic receptor? (Hint ... it is the same one that is stimulated by Glucogon) A. Calcium B. Inositol triphosphate (IP3) C. Diacylglycerol (DAG) D. Cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP) QUESTION 15 Which statement is true about the hormones produced by the islet of Langherhans in the pancreas? A. They are lipophylic. B. They are hydrophylic. C. They activate intracellular receptors which are prodominantly active in the nuculeus. D. Pancreatic proteolytic enzymes are not activated until they enter the duodenum. QUESTION 16 In the metabolism of proteins, which of the following is the primary direction? A. Anabolism B. Catabolism QUESTION 17 In the metabolism of carbohyrates (CHO's), which is the primary direction? A. Anabolism B. Catabolism QUESTION 18 In the metabolism of Fats, which is the primary direction? A. Anabolism B. Catabolism QUESTION 19 Which of the following is/are considered the primary energy supplying foods? A. Fats B. Proteins C. Carbohydrates D. Fats and Proteins E. Fats and Carbohydrates F. Fats, Proteins and Carbohydrates QUESTION 20 Which of the following metabolic pathways, would be the primary method of deriving energy from the substrate Glycogen? A. Glycolysis B. Krebs C. ET QUESTION 21 Which of the following metabolic pathways, would be the primary method of deriving energy from the substrate Glycerol? A. Glycolysis B. Krebs C. ET QUESTION 22 Which of the following metabolic pathways, would be the primary method of deriving energy from the substrate Glucose? A. Glycolysis B. Krebs C. ET QUESTION 23 Which of the following metabolic pathways, would be the primary method of deriving energy from the substrate Galctose? A. Glycolysis B. Krebs C. ET QUESTION 24 Which of the following metabolic pathways, would be the primary method of deriving energy from the substrate Glycine? A. Glycolysis B. Krebs C. ET QUESTION 25 Which of the following metabolic pathways would be the primary method of deriving energy from the substrate Glucagon? A. Glycolysis B. Krebs C. ET QUESTION 26 Which of the following metabolic pathways would be the primary method of deriving energy from the substrate Growth Hormone? A. Glycolysis B. Krebs C. ET QUESTION 1 QUIZ 4 In the metabolism of proteins, which of the following is the primary direction? A. Anabolism B. Catabolism QUESTION 2 In the metabolism of carbohyrates (CHO's), which is the primary direction? A. Anabolism B. Catabolism QUESTION 3 In the metabolism of Fats, which is the primary direction? A. Anabolism B. Catabolism QUESTION 4 Which of the following is/are considered the primary energy supplying foods? A. Fats B. Proteins C. Carbohydrates D. Fats and Proteins E. Fats and Carbohydrates F. Fats, Proteins and Carbohydrates QUESTION 5 Which of the following metabolic pathways, would be the primary method of deriving energy from the substrate Glycogen? A. Glycolysis B. Krebs C. ET QUESTION 6 Which of the following metabolic pathways, would be the primary method of deriving energy from the substrate Glycerol? A. Glycolysis B. Krebs C. ET QUESTION 7 Which of the following metabolic pathways, would be the primary method of deriving energy from the substrate Glucose? A. Glycolysis B. Krebs C. ET QUESTION 8 Which of the following metabolic pathways, would be the primary method of deriving energy from the substrate Galctose? A. Glycolysis B. Krebs C. ET QUESTION 9 Which of the following metabolic pathways, would be the primary method of deriving energy from the substrate Glycine? A. Glycolysis B. Krebs C. ET QUESTION 10 Which of the following metabolic pathways would be the primary method of deriving energy from the substrate Glucagon? A. Glycolysis B. Krebs C. ET QUESTION 11 Which of the following metabolic pathways would be the primary method of deriving energy from the substrate Growth Hormone? A. Glycolysis B. Krebs C. ET QUESTION 12 Which component of the cell produces hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) by using oxygen to remove hydrogen atoms from specific substrates in an oxidative reaction? A. Lysosomes B. Peroxisome C. Ribosomes D. Oxyhydrosomes QUESTION 13 Why is potassium able to diffuse easily in and out of cells? A. Because potassium has a greater concentration in the intracellular fluid (ICF) B. Because sodium has a greater concentration in the extracellular fluid (ECF) C. Because a channel exists that allows K+ which is surrounded by water molecules to move based on its concentration as well as the resting plasma membrane potential ... together this is called the electrochemical potential which determines the overall permeablity for potassium . D. Because there is an excess of anions inside the cell QUESTION 14 Think, Do all embryonic cells have centrioles ... yes. Do all adult cells have centrioles ... ? Thus in the adult which cells, if any, lose their ability to replicate and divide? A. None, all cells have the ability to replicate and divide. B. Epithelial Cells of the lung and intestinal tract cannot replicate and divide. C. Epithelial Cells of the skin cannot replicate and divide. D. Cells of the lens of the eye, brain, cardiac muscle and skeletal muscle cannot replicate and divide. QUESTION 15 Active transport occurs across membranes that: A. have a higher concentration of the solute on the outside of the cell. B. are semipermeable to water and small electrically uncharged molecules. C. have receptors that are capable of binding with the substances to be transported. D. have a cell membrane that is hydrophobic rather than hydrophilic. QUESTION 16 Which type of cell adaptation occurs when normal columnar ciliated epithelial cells of the bronchial lining have been replaced by stratified epithelium like a transitional epithelium, a type of response that is reversiable and not considered precancerous? A. Hyperplasia B. Metaplasia C. Dysplasia D. Anaplasia QUESTION 17 What is a consequence of plasma membrane damage to the mitochondria? A. Enzymatic digestion halts DNA synthesis. B. Influx of calcium ions halts the ATP production. C. Reduction in ATP production caused by edema from an influx in sodium. D. Shift of potassium out of the mitochondria, which destroys the infrastructure. QUESTION 18 In hypoxic injury, reduction of the oxygen supplied to the mitochondria, reduces the amount ATP produced; which allows sodium to enter the cell and cause swelling? A. Because the cell membrane permeability increases for sodium during periods of hypoxia B. Because there is insufficient ATP to maintain the pump that keeps sodium out of the cell C. Because the lactic acid produced by the hypoxia binds with sodium within the cell D. Because sodium cannot be transported in the cytosol to the cell membrane during hypoxia QUESTION 19 In an embryo, newborn or child, the proliferation of cells in response to stimulation is called: A. dysplasia. B. metaplasia. C. hyperplasia. D. apoptosis. QUESTION 20 Which is a description of the characteristics of apoptosis? A. A programmed cell death of scattered, single cells B. Characterized by swelling of the nucleus and cytoplasm C. Has unpredictable patterns of cell death D. Results in benign malignancies QUESTION 21 Which of the following are buffers which can work in the body? A. H2SO4 B. Bicarbonate/Carbonic acid (HCO3/H2CO3) C. Phosphate (HPO4/H2PO4) D. Ammonia (NH3/NH4) QUESTION 22 Where are antibodies produced? A. SER B. RER C. RER and Golgi D. In/on the free ribosomes which are coupled with a functional lysosome QUESTION 23 Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) is released to stimulate thyroid hormones and is inhibited when plasma levels of thyroid hormone are adequate. This is an example of what kind of hormone regulation? A. Positive feedback B. Negative feedback C. Neural regulation D. Physiologic regulation QUESTION 24 Hormone receptors for Lipid-soluble compounds are most commonly located: A. Within the plasma membrane and most commonly within the nucleus. B. on the outer surface of the plasma membrane. C. inside the mitochondria. D. on the inner surface of the plasma membrane. QUESTION 25 Which second messenger is stimulated by epinephrine binding to a ß-adrenergic receptor? (Hint ... it is the same one that is stimulated by Glucogon) A. Calcium B. Inositol triphosphate (IP3) C. Diacylglycerol (DAG) D. Cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP) QUESTION 26 Which statement is true about the hormones produced by the islet of Langherhans in the pancreas? A. They are lipophylic. B. They are hydrophylic. C. They activate intracellular receptors which are prodominantly active in the nuculeus. D. Pancreatic proteolytic enzymes are not activated until they enter the duodenum. QUESTION 27 Cerebrospinal fluid is: A. Selective filtrate of blood B. Selective filtrate of urine. C. Selective filtrate of intracellular water. D. Selective filtrate of Plasma. QUESTION 28 Cerebrospinal fluid allows nutrients/substrate to diffuse into brain cells because of : A. central canals. B. transport proteins. C. lipid solubility of all substances D. Lipophobic characteristics of all substances. QUESTION 29 The part of the brain that can influence the release of hormones or the endocrine system is the: A. thalamus. B. hypothalamus. C. medulla. D. pons. QUESTION 30 The cerebrospinal fluid resides in the: A. ventricles of the brain. B. subarachnoid space. C. central canal of the spinal cord. D. All of the above QUESTION 31 The foramen magnum is the structure that divides the: A. Frontal bone from the sphenoid. B. cranial nerves from the spinal cord C. cranial vault from the spinal cord D. brainstem from the cerebellum. QUESTION 1 QUIZ 5 The integument includes which of the following epithelia A. Simple squamous B. Simple squamous, Simple cuboidal C. Simple squamous, Simple cuboidal, Stratified squamous D. Simple squamous, Simple cuboidal, Stratified squamous and Transitional QUESTION 2 The bladder, which is part to the urinary system includes which of the following epithelia and tissues: A. Simple squamous B. Simple squamous, Smooth muscle, Stratified squamous C. Simple squamous, Smooth muscle, Transitional epithelium D. Simple squamous, Smooth muscle, Transitional and Stratified cuboidal epithelium QUESTION 3 Considering the pathophysiology of osteoporosis, which cytokines and hormones decrease receptor activator of nuclear factor kß ligand (RANKL) expression? A. Interleukin 4 (IL-4) and transforming growth factor-beta (TGF-ß) B. Interleukin 1 (IL-1) and tumor necrosis factor alpha (TNF-mc220-1.jpg) C. Interleukin 11 (IL-11) and glucocorticoids D. Interleukin 17 (IL-17) and parathyroid hormone (PTH) QUESTION 4 Considering the pathophysiology of osteoporosis, what are the effects of extracellular signal regulated kinases (ERKs) and receptor activator of nuclear factor kß ligand (RANKL) on osteoblasts and osteoclasts? A. ERKs increase the life span of osteoclasts and RANKL decreases the life span of osteoblasts. B. ERKs and RANKL increase the life span of osteoclasts and decrease the life span of osteoblasts. C. ERKs and RANKL increase the life span of osteoblasts and decrease the life span of osteoclasts. D. ERKs increase the life span of osteoblasts and RANKL decreases the life span of osteoclasts. QUESTION 5 The major errors in osteogenesis imperfecta lie in the synthesis of: A. collagen. B. cartilage. C. osteoblasts. D. bone cell precursors. QUESTION 6 In scoliosis, curves in the thoracic spine greater than degrees result in decreased pulmonary function. A. 40 B. 50 C. 60 D. 70 QUESTION 7 Which of the following is not one of the primary hormones involved in Calcium homeostasis: A. Parathyroid hormone, PTH B. Thyrocalcitonin, TCT C. Vitamine D3 active D. Thyroxin QUESTION 8 Vitamine D3 is activated A. In the kidney following activation by calcitonin B. In the kidney following activation by parathyroid hormone C. In the liver following activation by calcitonin D. In the liver following activation by parathyroid hormone QUESTION 9 Which organ is not directly utilized in the formation of Vitamine D3 active: A. Parathyroid B. Liver C. Kidney D. Integument QUESTION 10 Activation of osteoclasts follows: A. Increasing blood Ca++ levels B. Decreasing blood Ca++ levels C. Increasing or decreasing blood Ca++ levels D. None of these responses QUESTION 11 Osteoblast production of RANKL stimulates A. Monocyte stem cells B. Osteoclast precursors C. Mature osteoclasts D. An activation cascade that promotes differentiation and activation of Osteoclasts E. All of these responses are true QUESTION 12 Which of the following is caused by bacterial infections A. Osteogenesis imperfecta B. Osteoporosis C. Osteomalacia D. Osteomyelitis QUESTION 13 What is the action of natriuretic peptides? A. They decrease blood pressure and increase sodium and water excretion. B. They increase blood pressure and decrease sodium and water excretion. C. They increase heart rate and decrease potassium excretion D. They decrease heart rate and increase potassium excretion. QUESTION 14 Why do nausea and vomiting occur after radiation therapy to the abdomen? A. Because the patient is receiving chemotherapy at the same time as the radiation therapy B. Because the radiation is metabolized by the liver, which alters the intestinal mucosa C. Because the cancer in the gastrointestinal tract causes these clinical manifestations D. Because the intestinal mucosa is the most radiosensitive tissue and divides rapidly QUESTION 15 Which of the following is a lipid-soluble hormone? A. Cortisol B. Thyroxine (T4) C. Epinephrine D. Growth hormone (GH) QUESTION 16 Lipid-soluble hormone receptors are located: A. within the nuclear membrane in the nucleoplasm. B. on the outer surface of the plasma membrane. C. inside the mitochondria. D. on the inner surface of the plasma membrane. QUESTION 17 Which second messenger is stimulated by epinephrine binding to a ß-adrenergic receptor? A. Calcium B. Inositol triphosphate (IP3) C. Diacylglycerol (DAG) D. Cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP) QUESTION 18 What is the action of calcitonin? A. Increases metabolism B. Decreases metabolism C. Increases serum calcium D. Decreases serum calcium QUESTION 19 What effect does aldosterone have on fluid and electrolyte imbalances? A. It directly increases magnesium reabsorption. B. It directly increases calcium reabsorption. C. It directly increases sodium reabsorption. D. It directly increases water reabsorption. QUESTION 20 Cell surface receptors include all of the following except: A. G-protein–linked. B. ion channel. C. second messenger. D. tyrosine-kinase linked. QUIZ 6 QUESTION 1 The integument includes which of the following epithelia A. Simple squamous B. Simple squamous, Simple cuboidal C. Simple squamous, Simple cuboidal, Stratified squamous D. Simple squamous, Simple cuboidal, Stratified squamous and Transitional QUESTION 2 The bladder, which is part to the urinary system includes which of the following epithelia and tissues: A. Simple squamous B. Simple squamous, Smooth muscle, Stratified squamous C. Simple squamous, Smooth muscle, Transitional epithelium D. Simple squamous, Smooth muscle, Transitional and Stratified cuboidal epithelium QUESTION 3 Considering the pathophysiology of osteoporosis, which cytokines and hormones decrease receptor activator of nuclear factor kß ligand (RANKL) expression? A. Interleukin 4 (IL-4) and transforming growth factor-beta (TGF-ß) B. Interleukin 1 (IL-1) and tumor necrosis factor alpha (TNF-mc220-1.jpg) C. Interleukin 11 (IL-11) and glucocorticoids D. Interleukin 17 (IL-17) and parathyroid hormone (PTH) QUESTION 4 Considering the pathophysiology of osteoporosis, what are the effects of extracellular signal regulated kinases (ERKs) and receptor activator of nuclear factor kß ligand (RANKL) on osteoblasts and osteoclasts? A. ERKs increase the life span of osteoclasts and RANKL decreases the life span of osteoblasts. B. ERKs and RANKL increase the life span of osteoclasts and decrease the life span of osteoblasts. C. ERKs and RANKL increase the life span of osteoblasts and decrease the life span of osteoclasts. D. ERKs increase the life span of osteoblasts and RANKL decreases the life span of osteoclasts. QUESTION 5 The major errors in osteogenesis imperfecta lie in the synthesis of: A. collagen. B. cartilage. C. osteoblasts. D. bone cell precursors. QUESTION 6 In scoliosis, curves in the thoracic spine greater than degrees result in decreased pulmonary function. A. 40 B. 50 C. 60 D. 70 QUESTION 7 Which of the following is not one of the primary hormones involved in Calcium homeostasis: A. Parathyroid hormone, PTH B. Thyrocalcitonin, TCT C. Vitamine D3 active D. Thyroxin QUESTION 8 Vitamine D3 is activated A. In the kidney folowing activation by calcitonin B. In the kidney folowing activation by parathyroid hormone C. In the liver folowing activation by calcitonin D. In the liver folowing activation by parathyroid hormone QUESTION 9 Which organ is not directly utilized in the formation of Vitamine D3 active: A. Parathyroid B. Liver C. Kidney D. Integument QUESTION 10 Activation of osteoclasts follows: A. Increasing blood Ca++ levels B. Decreasing blood Ca++ levels C. Increasing or decreasing blood Ca++ levels D. None of these responses QUESTION 11 Osteoblast production of RANKL stimulates A. Monocyte stem cells B. Osteoclast precursors C. Mature osteoclasts D. An activation cascade that promotes differentiation and activation of Osteoclasts E. All of these responses are true QUESTION 12 Which of the following is caused by bacterial infections A. Osteogenesis imperfecta B. Osteoporosis C. Osteomalacia D. Osteomyelitis QUESTION 13 What is the action of natriuretic peptides? A. They decrease blood pressure and increase sodium and water excretion. B. They increase blood pressure and decrease sodium and water excretion. C. They increase heart rate and decrease potassium excretion D. They decrease heart rate and increase potassium excretion. QUESTION 14 Why do nausea and vomiting occur after radiation therapy to the abdomen? A. Because the patient is receiving chemotherapy at the same time as the radiation therapy B. Because the radiation is metabolized by the liver, which alters the intestinal mucosa C. Because the cancer in the gastrointestinal tract causes these clinical manifestations D. Because the intestinal mucosa is the most radiosensitive tissue and divides rapidly QUESTION 15 Which of the following is a lipid-soluble hormone? A. Cortisol B. Thyroxine (T4) C. Epinephrine D. Growth hormone (GH) QUESTION 16 Lipid-soluble hormone receptors are located: A. within the nuclear membrane in the nucleoplasm. B. on the outer surface of the plasma membrane. C. inside the mitochondria. D. on the inner surface of the plasma membrane. QUESTION 17 Which second messenger is stimulated by epinephrine binding to a ß-adrenergic receptor? A. Calcium B. Inositol triphosphate (IP3) C. Diacylglycerol (DAG) D. Cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP) QUESTION 18 What is the action of calcitonin? A. Increases metabolism B. Decreases metabolism C. Increases serum calcium D. Decreases serum calcium QUESTION 19 What effect does aldosterone have on fluid and electrolyte imbalances? A. It directly increases magnesium reabsorption. B. It directly increases calcium reabsorption. C. It directly increases sodium reabsorption. D. It directly increases water reabsorption. QUESTION 20 Cell surface receptors include all of the following except: A. G-protein–linked. B. ion channel. C. second messenger. D. tyrosine-kinase linked. QUESTION 21 In the classification of exocrine glands, the mammary gland which pinches off a section of the cells cytoplasm is: A. Apocrine B. Holocrine C. Merocrine D. None of these responses QUESTION 22 In the classification of exocrine glands, the sebaceous gland which secrets oil as the cell ruptures completely is: A. Apocrine B. Holocrine C. Merocrine D. None of these responses QUESTION 23 In the classification of exocrine glands, the salivary gland which remains intact and secrets its product directly through the cell membrane is: A. Apocrine B. Holocrine C. Merocrine D. None of these responses QUESTION 1 QUIZ 7 The smallest contractile unit of muscle is a: A. fiber. B. myofibril. C. sarcomere. D. myofilament. QUESTION 2 The chief function of the T-tubules is to: A. provide nutrients to the muscle fiber. B. allow for the fiber to contract. C. allow for electrical signals to move deeper into the cell. D. allow for the generation of new muscle fibers. QUESTION 3 The neurotransmitter(s) secreted at the motor end plates of skeletal muscles is/are: A. dopamine. B. norepinephrine. C. acetylcholine. D. Could be any of the above QUESTION 4 The first event to occur in muscle relaxation is: A. tropomyosin returns to its original position. B. myosin cross-bridges are prevented from binding to actin. C. the sarcoplasmic reticulum begins actively pumping calcium back into its sacs. D. acetylcholine is released QUESTION 5 The ion necessary for cross-bridging is: A. iron. B. sodium. C. potassium. D. calcium. QUESTION 6 The purpose of creatine phosphate in muscle contraction is to: A. carry oxygen. B. store calcium. C. replenish energy supply. QUESTION 7 Aerobic respiration: A. allows the body to avoid the use of oxygen for a short time. B. results in the formation of an incompletely catabolized molecule. C. results in the formation of lactic acid. D. produces the maximum amount of energy available from each glucose molecule. QUESTION 8 Skeletal muscles are innervated by: A. somatic motor neurons. B. autonomic motor neurons. C. both somatic and autonomic motor neurons. D. internal stimulation. QUESTION 9 A motor unit is most correctly described as a: A. sarcomere(s) and a motor neuron. B. myofibril(s) and a motor neuron. C. muscle fiber(s) and a motor neuron. D. filaments(s) and a motor neuron. QUESTION 10 During which phase of the twitch contraction is there a triggering of the release of calcium ions into the sarcoplasm? A. Latent period B. Contraction phase C. Relaxation phase D. None of the above QUESTION 11 All of the following are true characteristics of an isometric contraction except: A. the muscle does not shorten. B. they can produce work by tightening to resist a force. C. movement is produced. D. the tension produced by the myosin cross-bridges cannot overcome the load placed on the muscle. QUIZ 8 QUESTION 1 A third class lever: The fulcrum is between the load and force or pull The load is between the fulcrum and force or pull The force or pull is between the fulcrum and the load None of these responses QUESTION 2 A second class lever: The fulcrum is between the load and force or pull The load is between the fulcrum and force or pull The force or pull is between the fulcrum and the load none of these responses QUESTION 3 1. A first class lever: The fulcrum is between the load and force or pull The load is between the fulcrum and force or pull The force or pull is between the fulcrum and the load none of these responses QUESTION 4 1. The smallest contractile unit of muscle is a: fiber. myofibril. sarcomere. myofilament. QUESTION 5 1. The chief function of the T-tubules is to: provide nutrients to the muscle fiber. allow for the fiber to contract. allow for electrical signals to move deeper into the cell. allow for the generation of new muscle fibers. QUESTION 6 1. The neurotransmitter(s) secreted at the motor end plates of skeletal muscles is/are: dopamine. norepinephrine. acetylcholine. Could be any of the above QUESTION 7 1. The first event to occur in muscle relaxation is: tropomyosin returns to its original position. myosin cross-bridges are prevented from binding to actin. the sarcoplasmic reticulum begins actively pumping calcium back into its sacs. acetylcholine is releaseD. QUESTION 8 1. The ion necessary for cross-bridging is: iron. sodium. potassium. calcium. QUESTION 9 1. The purpose of creatine phosphate in muscle contraction is to: carry oxygen. store calcium. replenish energy supply. rotate the cross-bridges. QUESTION 10 1. Aerobic respiration: allows the body to avoid the use of oxygen for a short time. results in the formation of an incompletely catabolized molecule. results in the formation of lactic acid. produces the maximum amount of energy available from each glucose molecule. QUESTION 11 1. Skeletal muscles are innervated by: somatic motor neurons. autonomic motor neurons. both somatic and autonomic motor neurons. internal stimulation. QUESTION 12 1. A motor unit is most correctly described as a: sarcomere(s) and a motor neuron. myofibril(s) and a motor neuron. muscle fiber(s) and a motor neuron. filaments(s) and a motor neuron. QUESTION 13 1. During which phase of the twitch contraction is there a triggering of the release of calcium ions into the sarcoplasm? Latent period Contraction phase Relaxation phase None of the above QUESTION 14 1. All of the following are true characteristics of an isometric contraction except: the muscle does not shorten. they can produce work by tightening to resist a force. movement is produced. the tension produced by the myosin cross-bridges cannot overcome the load placed on the muscle. Quiz 10 QUESTION 1 1. The main divisions of the central nervous system are the: brain, spinal cord, and autonomic nerves. brain, spinal cord, and peripheral nerves. brain and spinal cord. QUESTION 2 1. Cerebrospinal fluid is found in all except the: subarachnoid space. central canal. third ventricle. subdural space. QUESTION 3 1. Cerebrospinal fluid is formed by filtration of blood in the: central canal. choroid plexuses. subarachnoid space. arachnoid villi. QUESTION 4 1. Nerve fibers of the spinothalamic tract are: sensory. motor. descending. None of the above QUESTION 5 1. The brainstem does not include the: pons. medulla. midbrain . cerebellu m. QUESTION 6 1. Which of the following is not a function of the hypothalamus? Production of hormones "Go between" of the psyche and the soma Appetite center Regulation of motor activity QUESTION 7 1. The cerebellum performs all of the following functions except: coordinates control of muscle action. helps control posture. controls cardiac function. controls skeletal muscles to maintain balance. QUESTION 8 1. The part of the brain that can influence the release of hormones or the endocrine system is the: thalamus. hypothala mus. medulla. pons. QUESTION 9 1. Impulses from which system play a part in arousing or alerting the cerebrum? Reticular activating system Limbic system Cerebral cortex Cerebellar cortex QUESTION 10 1. The cerebrospinal fluid resides in the: ventricles of the brain. subarachnoid space. central canal of the spinal cord. All of the above QUESTION 11 1. The white matter of the cerebellum is called the: arbor vitae. vermis. peduncle. None of the above QUESTION 12 1. The corpus callosum connects the: cerebral hemispheres. hippocampus. mammillary body. central sulcus. QUESTION 13 1. The foramen magnum is the structure that divides the: medulla oblongata from the pons. pons from the midbrain. medulla oblongata from the spinal cord. brainstem from the cerebellum. QUESTION 14 1. Capsaicin /ˌkæpˈseˌɪ.sɪn/ (8-methyl-N-vanillyl-6-nonenamide) is the active component of chilli peppers, which are plants belonging to the genus Capsicum. It is anirritant for mammals, including humans, and produces a sensation of burning in any tissue with which it comes into contact. Capsaicin and several related compounds are called capsaicinoids and are produced as a secondary metabolite by chilli peppers, probably as deterrents against herbivores. Pure capsaicin is ahydrophobic, colorless, odorless, crystalline to waxy compound. Capsaicin is currently used in topical ointments to relieve the pain of peripheral neuropathy such as post-herpetic neuralgia caused by shingles. It may be used in concentrations of between 0.025% and 0.075%. The result appears to be that the nerves are overwhelmed from the burning sensation and are unable to report pain for an extended period of time. With chronic exposure to capsaicin, neurons are depleted of neurotransmitters and it leads to reduction in sensation of pain and blockade of neurogenic inflammation. If capsaicin is removed, the neurons recover. From the above informtioan one should look at the involvement of : Na+ channels K+ channels Cl- channels Ca++ channels QUESTION 15 1. All of the following cranial nerves have a functional classification of motor except: oculomotor. trochlear. vestibulocochl ear. accessory. QUESTION 16 1. The nerve commonly called the vagus nerve is the: ninth cranial. tenth cranial. eleventh cranial. twelfth cranial. QUESTION 17 1. Which of the following cranial nerves is responsible for movements of the tongue? Olfactory Trigemina l Trochlear Hypoglos sal QUESTION 18 1. All of the following cranial nerves are involved in proprioception except: vagus. hypoglos sal. accessory . abducens . QUESTION 19 1. Which of the following is not a plexus of the spinal nerves? Cervic al Brachi al Lumba r Thorac ic QUESTION 20 1. The sensory cranial nerves include only the: (remember that proprioception is a sensory, afferent signal however this quesiton is looking at the special senses...) optic, vestibulocochlear, and vagus. olfactory, optic, and facial. olfactory, optic, and vestibulocochlear. optic, facial, and vestibulocochlear. QUESTION 21 1. The cranial nerve that arises from both the brain and spinal cord is the: abducens. accessory. glossopharyn geal. vagus. QUESTION 22 1. Nerve impulses over the nerve cause increased peristalsis and decreased heart rate. olfactory trigemina l Vagus Hypoglos sal QUESTION 23 1. The spinal nerves are connected to the spinal cord and consist of: 12 pairs. 21 pairs. 31 pairs. 41 pairs. QUESTION 24 1. Which of the following is true about spinal nerves? They are: only sensory fibers. only motor fibers. completely autonomic fibers. motor and sensory fibers. QUESTION 25 1. Damage to the nerve could make the diaphragm unable to function. Phrenic Axillary Radial medial cutaneous QUESTION 26 1. Which is/are the neurotransmitter(s) in a somatic motor pathway? Acetylcholi ne Amines Amino acids Neuropepti des QUESTION 27 1. Which generalization concerning the autonomic nervous system is not true? All of its axons are afferent fibers. It operates without conscious control. It regulates visceral activities. All of its neurons are motor. QUESTION 28 1. Which of the following would not be an effector of the autonomic nervous system? Skeletal muscles Blood vessels Sweat glands Iris of the eye QUESTION 29 1. The autonomic nervous system functions chiefly in the: coordination of muscular activity. innervation of smooth muscle in the viscera. reception of sensory impulses. arousal of alerting mechanism. QUESTION 30 1. Once inside the sympathetic chain ganglion, the preganglionic fiber may: synapse with a sympathetic postganglionic neuron. send ascending and/or descending branches through the sympathetic trunk to synapse with postganglionic neurons in other chain ganglia. pass through one or more ganglia without synapsing. All of the above are correct. QUESTION 31 1. Parasympathetic neuron cell bodies are located in: the white columns of the sacral segments of the spinal cord. the lateral gray columns of thoracic segments of the spinal cord. nuclei of the brainstem and the lateral gray columns of the sacral cord. collateral ganglia QUESTION 32 1. All of the following are examples of parasympathetic stimulation except: contraction of the urinary bladder. relaxation of the sphincters of the digestive tract. increased salivation. increased heart rate. QUESTION 33 1. Norepinephrine is liberated at: the dendrite ending. parasympathetic preganglionic nerve endings. most sympathetic postganglionic nerve endings. sympathetic preganglionic nerve endings. more than one of the above. QUESTION 34 1. Propranolol is an example of: a beta blocker. a drug used to treat irregular heartbeats. a drug used to treat hypertension. All of the above QUESTION 35 1. All of the following are examples of sympathetic stimulation except: decreased secretion in the pancreas. constriction of the urinary sphincters. constriction of the bronchioles. dilation of skeletal muscle blood vessels. Quiz 11 1. Taste buds are both exteroceptors and chemoreceptors. True False QUESTION 2 1. Olfaction requires the chemical response of a dissolved substance for a stimulus. True False QUESTION 3 1. The tip of the tongue reacts best to a salty taste and, to a lesser extent, to a sweet taste. True False QUESTION 4 1. The special senses: are widely distributed throughout the body. enable us to detect pain. are dense in the fingertips. are grouped in the tongue, nose, eye, and ear. QUESTION 5 1. Pain that is perceived as being superficial but actually is caused by an underlying organ is called: phantom pain. referred pain. chronic pain. acute pain. QUESTION 6 1. Visceroceptors are located in which of the following? Skin Tendons Internal organs Skeletal muscles QUESTION 7 1. Chemoreceptors are most likely to be activated by: cold temperatures. noxious odors. pain. carbon dioxide. QUESTION 8 1. The receptors responsible for sensing crude and persistent touch are the: Meissner corpuscles. Krause end bulbs. Ruffini corpuscles. free nerve endings. QUESTION 9 1. Both olfactory receptors and taste buds are: thermorecepto rs. chemorecepto rs. nociceptors. mechanorecep tors. QUESTION 10 1. The organ of Corti is located in the: vestibule. semicircular canal. scala vestibuli. cochlear duct. QUESTION 11 1. Which of the following structures is not a component of the external ear? Auricle Cerumen-secreting glands Eustachian tube External auditory meatus QUESTION 12 1. The sense organs responsible for static equilibrium are located in the: utricle. saccule. semicircular canals. Both A and B. QUESTION 13 1. The major function of the utricle and saccule in the vestibule is: transmitting sound waves through bones. changing sound waves into nerve impulses. detecting the position of the head. conducting sound waves through endolymph. QUESTION 14 1. Presbyopia (remember that your professor commonly refers to this as OFD, you may ask for a translation in class) is a condition resulting from: excessive aqueous humor. opacity of the lens. loss of lens elasticity. irregular curvature of the cornea. QUESTION 15 1. Which of the following is a primary photopigment? Gree n Oran ge White Purpl e QUESTION 16 1. Which of the following is not a structure of the middle ear? Incus Stapes Auditory tube Vestibule QUESTION 17 1. Proprioceptors can be found in: the urinary bladder. the major blood vessels of the body. skeletal muscles. both A and C. QUESTION 18 1. Which of the following is an anatomical variant of Meissner corpuscle? Krause end bulb Pacinian corpuscles Ruffini corpuscle Both A and C QUESTION 19 1. Taste buds can be found: in the lining of the mouth. on the soft palate. on the tongue. All of the above have taste buds. QUESTION 20 1. Which of the following tongue papillae do not have taste buds? Fungiform Filiform Foliate All of the above contain taste buds. QUESTION 21 1. The sequence of auditory ossicles in the middle ear starting at the tympanic membrane and ending at the oval window is: malleus, incus, and stapes. malleus, stapes, and incus. stapes, malleus, and incus. stapes, incus, and malleus. QUESTION 22 1. This question is on the exam/quiz because of its reliance on verbal reasoning, homeostasis and neural reflexes. The Apgar Score is used to determine the wellbeing of a newborn. So, the Apgar scoring method would be used to access which of the following: The intellect of Biology Students The intellect of Chemistry Students Neonates Geriatrics QUESTION 23 1. This question is on the exam/quiz because of its reliance on verbal reasoning, homeostasis and neural reflexes. Which of the following reflexes has not been used to determine the wellness of a baby? Grimmac e Withdra wal Babinski Valsami QUESTION 24 1. In the last few weeks MRSA, Chlamydia, Gonorrhea and Syphilis have come to the forefront as developing strains that are of major concern to the Center for Disease Control. Which of the following statements is/are true for MRSA: Drug resistant On an increased infection rate (number of cases are increasing) Sexually transmitted diseases Secrete a peptide that causes Neutrophils to burst One statement is true. Two statements are true. Three statements are true. Four statements are true. QUESTION 25 1. In the last few weeks MRSA, Chlamydia, Gonorrhea and Syphilis have come to the forefront as developing strains that are of major concern to the Center for Disease Control. Which of the following statements is/are true for Chlamydia: Drug resistant On an increased infection rate (number of cases are increasing) Sexually transmitted diseases Secrete a peptide that causes Neutrophils to burst One statement is true. Two statements are true. Three statements are true. Four statements are true. QUESTION 26 1. All of the following cranial nerves have a functional classification of motor except: oculomotor. trochlear. vestibulocochl ear. accessory. QUESTION 27 1. The nerve commonly called the vagus nerve is the: ninth cranial. tenth cranial. eleventh cranial. twelfth cranial. QUESTION 28 1. Which of the following cranial nerves is responsible for movements of the tongue? Olfactory Trigeminal Trochlear Hypogloss al QUESTION 29 1. All of the following cranial nerves are involved in proprioception except: vagus. hypoglos sal. accessory . abducens . QUESTION 30 1. Which of the following is not a plexus of the spinal nerves? Cervic al Brachi al Lumba r Thorac ic QUESTION 31 1. The sensory cranial nerves include only the: (remember that proprioception is a sensory, afferent signal however this quesiton is looking at the special senses...) optic, vestibulocochlear, and vagus. olfactory, optic, and facial. olfactory, optic, and vestibulocochlear. optic, facial, and vestibulocochlear. QUESTION 32 1. The cranial nerve that arises from both the brain and spinal cord is the: abducens. accessory. glossopharyn geal. vagus. QUESTION 33 1. Nerve impulses over the nerve cause increased peristalsis and decreased heart rate. olfactory trigemin al vagus hypoglos sal QUESTION 34 1. The spinal nerves are connected to the spinal cord and consist of: 12 pairs. 21 pairs. 31 pairs. 41 pairs. QUESTION 35 1. Which of the following is true about spinal nerves? They are: only sensory fibers. only motor fibers. completely autonomic fibers. motor and sensory fibers. QUESTION 36 1. Damage to the nerve could make the diaphragm unable to function. phrenic axillary radial medial cutaneous QUESTION 37 1. Which is/are the neurotransmitter(s) in a somatic motor pathway? Acetylcholi ne Amines Amino acids Neuropepti des QUESTION 38 1. Which generalization concerning the autonomic nervous system is not true? All of its axons are afferent fibers. It operates without conscious control. It regulates visceral activities. All of its neurons are motor. QUESTION 39 1. Which of the following would not be an effector of the autonomic nervous system? Skeletal muscles Blood vessels Sweat glands Iris of the eye QUESTION 40 1. The autonomic nervous system functions chiefly in the: coordination of muscular activity. innervation of smooth muscle in the viscera. reception of sensory impulses. arousal of alerting mechanism. QUESTION 41 1. Once inside the sympathetic chain ganglion, the preganglionic fiber may: synapse with a sympathetic postganglionic neuron. send ascending and/or descending branches through the sympathetic trunk to synapse with postganglionic neurons in other chain ganglia. pass through one or more ganglia without synapsing. All of the above are correct. QUESTION 42 1. Parasympathetic neuron cell bodies are located in: the white columns of the sacral segments of the spinal cord. the lateral gray columns of thoracic segments of the spinal cord. nuclei of the brainstem and the lateral gray columns of the sacral cord. collateral gangliA. QUESTION 43 1. All of the following are examples of parasympathetic stimulation except: contraction of the urinary bladder. relaxation of the sphincters of the digestive tract. increased salivation. increased heart rate. QUESTION 44 1. Norepinephrine is liberated at: the dendrite ending. parasympathetic preganglionic nerve endings. most sympathetic postganglionic nerve endings. sympathetic preganglionic nerve endings. more than one of the above. QUESTION 45 1. Propranolol is an example of: a beta blocker. a drug used to treat irregular heartbeats. a drug used to treat hypertension. All of the above QUESTION 46 1. All of the following are examples of sympathetic stimulation except: decreased secretion in the pancreas. constriction of the urinary sphincters. constriction of the bronchioles. dilation of skeletal muscle blood vessels. QUESTION 47 1. The main divisions of the central nervous system are the: brain, spinal cord, and autonomic nerves. brain, spinal cord, and peripheral nerves. brain and spinal cord. QUESTION 48 1. Cerebrospinal fluid is found in all except the: subarachnoid space. central canal. third ventricle. subdural space. QUESTION 49 1. Cerebrospinal fluid is formed by filtration of blood in the: central canal. choroid plexuses. subarachnoid space. arachnoid villi. QUESTION 50 1. Nerve fibers of the spinothalamic tract are: sensory. motor. descending. None of the above QUESTION 51 1. The brainstem does not include the: pons. medulla. midbrain . cerebellu m. QUESTION 52 1. Which of the following is not a function of the hypothalamus? Production of hormones "Go between" of the psyche and the soma Appetite center Regulation of motor activity QUESTION 53 1. The cerebellum performs all of the following functions except: coordinates control of muscle action. helps control posture. controls cardiac function. controls skeletal muscles to maintain balance. QUESTION 54 1. The part of the brain that can influence the release of hormones or the endocrine system is the: thalamus. hypothala mus. medulla. pons. QUESTION 55 1. Impulses from which system play a part in arousing or alerting the cerebrum? Reticular activating system Limbic system Cerebral cortex Cerebellar cortex QUESTION 56 1. The cerebrospinal fluid resides in the: ventricles of the brain. subarachnoid space. central canal of the spinal cord. All of the above QUESTION 57 1. The white matter of the cerebellum is called the: arbor vitae. vermis. peduncle. None of the above QUESTION 58 1. The corpus callosum connects the: cerebral hemispheres. hippocampus. mammillary body. central sulcus. QUESTION 59 1. The foramen magnum is the structure that divides the: medulla oblongata from the pons. pons from the midbrain. medulla oblongata from the spinal cord. brainstem from the cerebellum. QUESTION 60 1. Capsaicin /ˌkæpˈseˌɪ.sɪn/ (8-methyl-N-vanillyl-6-nonenamide) is the active component of chilli peppers, which are plants belonging to the genus Capsicum. It is anirritant for mammals, including humans, and produces a sensation of burning in any tissue with which it comes into contact. Capsaicin and several related compounds are called capsaicinoids and are produced as a secondary metabolite by chilli peppers, probably as deterrents against herbivores. Pure capsaicin is ahydrophobic, colorless, odorless, crystalline to waxy compound. Capsaicin is currently used in topical ointments to relieve the pain of peripheral neuropathy such as post-herpetic neuralgia caused by shingles. It may be used in concentrations of between 0.025% and 0.075%. The result appears to be that the nerves are overwhelmed from the burning sensation and are unable to report pain for an extended period of time. With chronic exposure to capsaicin, neurons are depleted of neurotransmitters and it leads to reduction in sensation of pain and blockade of neurogenic inflammation. If capsaicin is removed, the neurons recover. From the above informtioan one should look at the involvement of : Na+ channels K+ channels Cl- channels Ca++ channels QUESTION 61 1. All of the following cranial nerves have a functional classification of motor except: oculomotor. trochlear. vestibulocochl ear. accessory. QUESTION 62 1. The nerve commonly called the vagus nerve is the: ninth cranial. tenth cranial. eleventh cranial. twelfth cranial. QUESTION 63 1. Which of the following cranial nerves is responsible for movements of the tongue? Olfactory Trigemina l Trochlear Hypoglos sal QUESTION 64 1. All of the following cranial nerves are involved in proprioception except: vagus. hypoglos sal. accessory . abducens . QUESTION 65 1. Which of the following is not a plexus of the spinal nerves? Cervic al Brachi al Lumba r Thorac ic QUESTION 66 1. The sensory cranial nerves include only the: (remember that proprioception is a sensory, afferent signal however this quesiton is looking at the special senses...) optic, vestibulocochlear, and vagus. olfactory, optic, and facial. olfactory, optic, and vestibulocochlear. optic, facial, and vestibulocochlear. QUESTION 67 1. The cranial nerve that arises from both the brain and spinal cord is the: abducens. accessory. glossopharyn geal. vagus. QUESTION 68 1. Nerve impulses over the nerve cause increased peristalsis and decreased heart rate. olfactory trigemin al Vagus hypoglos sal QUESTION 69 1. The spinal nerves are connected to the spinal cord and consist of: 12 pairs. 21 pairs. 31 pairs. 41 pairs. QUESTION 70 1. Which of the following is true about spinal nerves? They are: only sensory fibers. only motor fibers. completely autonomic fibers. motor and sensory fibers. QUESTION 71 1. Damage to the nerve could make the diaphragm unable to function. Phrenic Axillary Radial medial cutaneous QUESTION 72 1. Which is/are the neurotransmitter(s) in a somatic motor pathway? Acetylcholi ne Amines Amino acids Neuropepti des QUESTION 73 1. Which generalization concerning the autonomic nervous system is not true? All of its axons are afferent fibers. It operates without conscious control. It regulates visceral activities. All of its neurons are motor. QUESTION 74 1. Which of the following would not be an effector of the autonomic nervous system? Skeletal muscles Blood vessels Sweat glands Iris of the eye QUESTION 75 1. The autonomic nervous system functions chiefly in the: coordination of muscular activity. innervation of smooth muscle in the viscera. reception of sensory impulses. arousal of alerting mechanism. QUESTION 76 1. Once inside the sympathetic chain ganglion, the preganglionic fiber may: synapse with a sympathetic postganglionic neuron. send ascending and/or descending branches through the sympathetic trunk to synapse with postganglionic neurons in other chain ganglia. pass through one or more ganglia without synapsing. All of the above are correct. QUESTION 77 1. Parasympathetic neuron cell bodies are located in: the white columns of the sacral segments of the spinal cord. the lateral gray columns of thoracic segments of the spinal cord. nuclei of the brainstem and the lateral gray columns of the sacral cord. collateral ganglia. QUESTION 78 1. All of the following are examples of parasympathetic stimulation except: contraction of the urinary bladder. relaxation of the sphincters of the digestive tract. increased salivation. increased heart rate. Quiz 12 QUESTION 1 1. Endocrine glands may be made up of: glandular epithelium. neurosecretory tissue. ducts to collect interstitial fluid. both A and B. (right answer according to bb) QUESTION 2 1. Hormones may be: steroids. peptides.C. glycoproteins. All of the above QUESTION 3 1. Insulin: tends to lower blood concentrations of glucose, amino acids, and fatty acids. promotes metabolism of glucose by tissue cells. is produced by beta cells. All of the above are true. QUESTION 4 1. Parathyroid hormone increases calcium absorption in the intestines by activating: vitamin A. vitamin C. vitamin D. iron. QUESTION 5 1. Prolactin affects: the adrenal cortex. body growth. skin color. milk secretion. QUESTION 6 1. The compound that is referred to as a tissue hormone is: growth hormone. prostaglandin. adrenocorticotropic hormone. thyroxine. QUESTION 7 1. The first step in the renin-angiotensin mechanism is: angiotensin II circulates to the adrenal cortex, stimulating the secretion of aldosterone. renin causes angiotensinogen to be converted to angiotensin i the juxtaglomerular apparatus secretes renin into the blood in response to a fall in the blood pressure within the kidney. aldosterone causes increased reabsorption of sodium, which causes increased water retention. QUESTION 8 1. The gland that serves in both an exocrine and an endocrine capacity is the: pituitary . pancrea s. adrenal. ovary. QUESTION 9 1. The hormone most likely to cause a shift from glucose catabolism to fat catabolism is: antidiuretic hormone. thyroid-stimulating hormone. adrenocorticotropic hormone. somatotropin. QUESTION 10 1. The hormone that causes ejection of milk into the mammary ducts is: prolactin. estrogen. oxytocin. progestero ne. QUESTION 11 1. The hypothalamus produces: somatotropin. oxytocin. lactogenic hormone. melanocyte-stimulating hormone. QUESTION 12 1. The immediate effect of a steroid hormone on a cell is: the formation of cAMP. the increase of enzyme-controlled intracellular reactions. the transcription of RNa. activation of adenyl cyclase. QUESTION 13 1. The mineralocorticoids of the adrenal cortex regulate or influence: calcium and sodium balance. sodium and chloride balance. sodium, potassium, and hydrogen balance. hydrogen and oxygen balance. QUESTION 14 1. The principal thyroid hormone is: tetraiodothyronine ( or thyroxine). triiodothyronine (). (right answer according to BB) calcitonin. QUESTION 15 1. The production of thyroid hormone is stimulated by another hormone from the: anterior pituitary. posterior pituitary. thyroid gland. parathyroid glanD. QUESTION 16 1. The structure referred to historically as the master gland is the: pituitary. adrenals. hypothala mus. thyroid. QUESTION 17 1. The term "down-regulation" refers to: the decrease in hormone production as we age. the negative-feedback system or hormone regulation. the reduction of the number of hormone receptors in a cell. the movement of regulating hormones from the hypothalamus down to the pituitary gland. QUESTION 18 1. The vascular link between the hypothalamus and the adenohypophysis is called the: circulatory system. hypophyseal portal system. vascular system. releasing-inhibiting connection. QUESTION 19 1. Thymosin is a hormone that plays a role in: the rate of metabolism. body growth. immunity. maintaining early pregnancy. QUESTION 20 1. Which of the following does not act as a second messenger for nonsteroid hormones? Inositol triphosphate Guanosine monophosphate Calcium-calmodulin complex All of the above act as second messengers. QUESTION 21 1. Which of the following endocrine glands is located in the neck? Pineal Pituita 1. ry Thymu s Thyroi d QUESTION 22 Which of the following is not a source of nonsteroid hormones? Cholesterol Protein Protein joined with a carbohydrate Individual amino acids QUESTION 23 1. Which of the following statements is false? Both the nervous system and endocrine system use chemicals to send messages. For the nervous and endocrine systems to function, the receiving cells must have the correct type of receptors. Cells can have receptors for hormones or for neurotransmitters but not for both. The nervous and endocrine systems can be seen as one system-the neuroendocrine system. Quiz 13 QUESTION 1 1. Which type of white blood cells plays a major role in immunity to infectious diseases? Monocytes Eosinophils LymphocytesD. Basophils QUESTION 2 1. The thymus secretes: T3. T4. thymosin. both A and C. QUESTION 3 1. Which of the following is a lymphokinetic factor? Arterial pulsations Postural changes Passive compression of the body soft tissues All of the above QUESTION 4 1. An effect of cortisol is: increased protein catabolism. decreased blood sugar. increased immune response. increased allergic reactions. QUESTION 5 1. Corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH) is released by the in response to stress. adrenal medulla adrenal cortex anterior pituitary hypothalamu s QUESTION 6 1. In response to stress, the adrenal cortex secretes: norepinephrine. norepinephrine and cortisol. cortisol and aldosterone. norepinephrine and aldosterone. QUESTION 7 1. Release of corticotrophin-releasing hormone directly causes: an increase in glucose, which corrects the hypoglycemia. the posterior pituitary gland to release ACTH. the release of cortisol. None of the above QUESTION 8 1. Which region of the antibody binds to the antigen. Fc Fab None of these responses QUESTION 9 1. Which of the immunoglobulins facilitates complement fixation. 1. IgA 2. Ig 3. IgD 4. IgM 5. IgE 1 & 2 2 & 3 3 & 4 None of these responses 4 & 5 QUESTION 10 1. Which of the following is NOT true about interferons. Produced by virus-infected cells Blocks viral replication in host cells Once produced, they can substitute for immunoglobulins. Produced by fibroblasts Produced by leukocytes QUESTION 11 1. Which of the following is NOT a phagocyte Microglia Kupffer cells Histocytes Megakaryoc yte Monocytes QUESTION 12 1. The spirochete, Borrelia burgdorferi, (Bb) is the causative agent in Lyme disease, the most common vector borne disease in the United States. The protein P39, is strongly associated with the pathogenesis of this disease. The protein, P39 is exposed on the outer surface of this bacteria. This protein is highly immunogenic, that is, it stimulates a strong response from the immune system. It has been shown experimentally that as the bacteria is grown (cultured) in vitro (outside the normal host and in suitable culture media), P39 is no longer found on the cell surface and the spirochete becomes noninfective. The protein is still produced; however it remains in the cells cytoplasm. At this time researchers have found only one epitope of P39. In an exposed individual you would expect to find circulating antibodies with . many classes of antibodies with a similar hypervariable region many classes of antibodies with different hypervariable regions one class of antibody with one type of hypervariable region QUESTION 13 1. The HIV virus that causes AIDS is a(n) retrovirus. RNA virus. DNA virus. accute virus. a virus that can only infect humans. [Show More]

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