Pharmacology > EXAM > NR 293 Week 5 Quiz 3 (GRADED A+) Question/Answers Solutions | 100% Guaranteed Pass (All)

NR 293 Week 5 Quiz 3 (GRADED A+) Question/Answers Solutions | 100% Guaranteed Pass

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NR 293 Week 5 Quiz 3 – Question/Answers Chamberlain University Quiz 3 Pharmacology Review 1. Three days after beginning therapy with oral iron tablets, a patient calls the office, saying, “I... ’m very worried because my bowel movements are black!” What will the nurse do? a. Instruct the patient to stop the iron tablets for a week. b. Instruct the patient to take the tablets every other day instead of daily. c. Ask the patient to come into the office for a checkup. d. Explain to the patient that this is an expected effect of the medication. Ch 54 2. Connie, age 58 years, is in the hospital because of extreme weakness. She has a history of chronic re- nal failure, and there is a new order for epoetin alfa (Epogen). What laboratory results are monitored during epoetin therapy, and why? Ans : AHemoglobin level and hematocrit are to be monitored, because if hemoglobin level rise too quickly or above 12 g/dL hypertension or seizure can occur. Ch 22 3. When administering angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors, the nurse keeps in mind that which are possible adverse effects? (Select all that apply.) a. Diarrhea b. Fatigue c. Restlessness d. Headaches e. A dry cough f. Tremors 4. A patient is being treated for a hypertensive emer- gency. The nurse expects which drug to be used? a. Sodium nitroprusside (Nitropress) b. Losartan (Cozaar) c. Captopril (Capoten) d. Prazosin (Minipress) 5. A beta1 blocker is prescribed for a patient with heart failure and hypertension. Which adverse effects, if present, may indicate a serious problem is developing while the patient is taking this medication? (Select all that apply.) a. Edema b. Nightmares c. Shortness of breath d. Nervousness e. Constipation 6. Given the nurse’s knowledge of the side effects of alpha blockers, which instruction should the nurse provide to the patient with a new order for an alpha blocker to treat hypertension? a. Drink plenty of fluids. b. Wear sunscreen outside. c. Change positions slowly. d. Increase intake of potassium-rich foods. 7. Indicate which ACE inhibitor would be best for the following patients. Explain your answers. a. Irene, who has liver dysfunction, has high blood pressure, and is seriously ill Ans: Captopril can be used because it is not a prodrug so it can be used for liver disease patient. b. Kory, who has a history of poor adherence to his medication regimen Ans: Kory can use ACE inhibitors as lisinopril, benazepril. Because it is long half-life medicine. 8.. White and African-American patients are known to respond differently to antihypertensive agents. b. Which antihypertensives are considered more effective in African-American patients than in white patients? Ans: calcium channel blockers and diuretics. 9. . What is the purpose of antianginal drug therapy? a. To increase myocardial oxygen demand b. To increase blood flow to peripheral arteries c. To increase blood flow to ischemic cardiac muscle d. To decrease blood flow to ischemic cardiac muscle Ch 23 10. A patient with coronary artery spasms will be most effectively treated with which type of antianginal medication? a. Beta blockers b. Calcium channel blockers c. Nitrates d. Nitrites 11. During his morning walk, a man begins to experi- ence chest pain. He sits down and takes one nitro- glycerin sublingual tablet. After 5 minutes, the chest pain is worsening. What action would be the priority in this situation? a. Call 911 (emergency medical services) . b. Take another nitroglycerin tablet. c. Take two more nitroglycerin tablets at the same time. d. Sit quietly to wait for the pain to subside. Ch 24 12. As part of treatment for early heart failure, a patient is started on an angiotensin- converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. The nurse will monitor the patient’s labora- tory work for which potential effect? a. Agranulocytosis b. Proteinuria d. Hypoglycemia 13Before giving oral digoxin (Lanoxin), the nurse dis- covers that the patient’s radial pulse is 52 beats/min. What will be the nurse’s next action? a. Give the dose . b. Delay the dose until later. c. Hold the dose and notify the physician . d. Check the apical pulse for 1 minute. 14. Which statement regarding digoxin therapy and potassium levels is correct? a. Low potassium levels increase the chance of digoxin toxicity . b. High potassium levels increase the chance of digoxin toxicity. c. Digoxin reduces the excretion of potassium in the kidneys. d. Digoxin promotes the excretion of potassium in the kidneys 15. While monitoring Mr. F. after oral digoxin (Lanoxin) administration, the nurse notes increased urinary out- put, decreased dyspnea and fatigue, and constipation. Mr. F. complains that if he were allowed to eat bran as often as he used to, he wouldn’t be constipated. What do the nurse’s findings indicate? How will the nurse response to Mr. F.? Ans: Urinary output and decreased dyspnea and fatigue is for therapeutic effect but constipation can be treated. Don’t eat ban because it can make the medicine absorption less. 16. Before giving oral digoxin (Lanoxin), the nurse dis- covers that the patient’s radial pulse is 52 beats/min. What will be the nurse’s next action? a. Give the dose. b. Delay the dose until later . c. Hold the dose and notify the physician. d. Check the apical pulse for 1 minute. 17Mr. K., who has been diagnosed with hypertension, is hospitalized after a myocardial infarction (MI). a. To reduce the risk of sudden cardiac death in Mr. K., the physician prescribes a drug from which class? Why? Class II antidysrhythmic or beta blockers, because they can reduce rghe incidence of sudden cardiac death. b. How would a history of asthma in Mr. K. affect the drug choice? They can choose cardio selective beta blockers. Ch 26 18. Which statement is true regarding enoxaparin (Lovenox) and dalteparin (Fragmin)? a. Their method of action is to interrupt vitamin K–dependent clotting factors. b. They do not require clotting time monitoring. c. They are administered deep IM. d. They have thrombolytic properties. 19. During teaching of a patient who will be taking warfarin sodium (Coumadin) at home, which state- ment by the nurse is correct regarding over-the- counter drug use? a. “Choose nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs as needed for pain relief.” c. “Vitamin E therapy is recommended to improve the effect of warfarin.” d “Mineral oil is the laxative of choice while tak- ing anticoagulants.” 20. A patient is at risk for a stroke. Which drug is rec- ommended to prevent platelet aggregation for stroke prevention by the American Stroke Society? b. Warfarin sodium (Coumadin) c. Heparin d. Alteplase (Activase) 21During thrombolytic therapy, the nurse monitors for bleeding. Which symptoms may indicate a serious bleeding problem? (Select all that apply.) a. Hypertension b. Hypotension c. Decreased level of consciousness d. Increased pulse rate e. Restlessness 22. The nurse is preparing to administer a new order of enoxaparin (Lovenox) to a patient. Upon checking the patient, the nurse notes that the patient has an epidural catheter. What is the priority action of the nurse at this time? Ans: LMWHs can be given 2 hrs after the epidural is removed. Or else it can cause epidural hematoma. Ch27 23. Patients taking cholestyramine (Questran) may expe- rience which adverse effects? a. Blurred vision and photophobia b. Drowsiness and difficulty concentrating c. Diarrhea and abdominal cramps d. Belching and bloating 24. In reviewing the history of a newly admitted cardiac patient, the nurse knows that the patient would have a contraindication to antilipemic therapy if which condition is present? a. Liver disease b. Renal disease c. Coronary artery disease d. Diabetes mellitus 25. A patient who has started taking niacin complains that he “hates the side effects.” Which statement by the nurse is most appropriate? a. “You will soon build up tolerance to these side effects.” b. “You need to take niacin on an empty stomach.” c. “You can take niacin every other day if the side effects are bothersome.” d. “Try taking a small dose of ibuprofen (Advil) 30 minutes before taking niacin 26A patient asks, “What is considered the ‘good cholesterol?’” How will the nurse answer? a. Very low-density lipoprotein (VLDL) b. LDL d. Triglycerides 29A patient taking a statin calls the office to report an increase in muscle pain. Which information takes priority as the nurse communicates with the patient? a. This could be the sign of a serious side effect, stop taking the medication immediately b. You should take a dose of ibuprofen for the next few days c. This is an expected occurrence; continue the dose as prescribed. d. Did you pull a muscle or injure yourself. 30. . The nurse is preparing to administer a newly or- dered statin drug to a patient and is reviewing the patient’s list of current medications. Which medica- tions may cause an interaction with the statin drug? (Select all that apply.) a. Warfarin (Coumadin) b. Metformin (Glucophage) c. Erythromycin (Erythrocin) d. Cyclosporine (Gengraf) e. Gemfibrozil (Lopid) Ch 28 31. Which are indications for the use of diuretics? 12. 13. 14. (Select all that apply.) a. To increase urine output b. To reduce uric acid levels c. To treat hypertension d. To treat open-angle glaucoma e. To treat edema associated with heart failure 32. When providing patient teaching to a patient who is taking a potassium-sparing diuretic such as spirono- lactone (Aldactone), the nurse will include which dietary guidelines? a. There are no dietary restrictions with this medication. b. The patient needs to consume foods high in potassium, such as bananas and orange juice. c. The patient needs to avoid excessive intake of foods high in potassium. d. The patient needs to drink 1 to 2 L of fluid per day 33. When teaching a patient about diuretic therapy, which would the nurse indicate as the best time of day to take these medications? a. Morning b. Midday c. Bedtime 34The greatest volume of diuresis is produced by which class of diuretics? a. Loop b. Thiazide c. Osmotic d. Potassium sparing Ch 30 35. A nurse is administering octreotide (Sandostatin) to a patient who has a metastatic carcinoid tumor. The patient asks about the purpose of this drug. What is the nurse’s best response? a. “This drug helps to reduce the size of your tumor.” b. “This drug works to prevent the spread of your tumor.” c. “This drug helps to control the flushing and diarrhea that you are experiencing.” d. “This drug reduces the nausea and vomiting you are having from the chemotherapy.” 36. The nurse will instruct a patient taking desmopres-acetate as a nasal spray for the treatment of dia- betes insipidus to perform which action to obtain maximum benefit from the drug? a. Clear the nasal passages before spraying the medication. b. Blow his nose after taking the medication. c. Take an over-the-counter preparation to control mucus if nasal congestion occurs. d. Press on the pump once to prime it before delivering the dose. 37When assessing a patient who is receiving octreo- tide (Sandostatin) therapy, the nurse will closely monitor which assessment finding? a. Blood glucose levels b. Pulse c. Weight d. Serum potassium level 38When monitoring for the therapeutic effects of in- tranasal desmopressin (DDAVP) in a patient who has diabetes insipidus, which assessment finding will the nurse look for as an indication that the medication therapy is successful? a. Increased insulin levels b. Decreased diarrhea c. Improved nasal patency d. Decreased urine output Ch 31 A patient who is beginning therapy with levothyrox- ine (Synthroid) asks the nurse when the medication will start working. What is the nurse’s best answer? a. Immediately b. Within a few days c. Within a few weeks d. Within a few months 32. A patient wants to switch brands of levothyroxine (Synthroid). What is the nurse’s best response? a. “If you do this, you should reduce the dosage of your current brand before starting the new one.” b. “Levothyroxine has been standardized, so there is only one brand.” c. “It shouldn’t matter if you switch brands; they are all very much the same.” d. “You should check with your provider before switching brands.” Ch 32 33. When administering insulin, the nurse must keep in mind that which is the most immediate and serious adverse effect of insulin therapy? a. Hyperglycemia b. Hypoglycemia c. Bradycardia d. Orthostatic hypotension 34While monitoring a patient who is receiving insulin therapy, the nurse observes for which signs of hypoglycemia? a. Decreased pulse and respiratory rates and flushed skin b. Increased pulse rate and a fruity, acetone breath odor d. Increased urine output and edema Ch 33 35The nurse is reviewing the use of oral glucocorti- coids. Which of these is the preferred oral glucocorti- coid for antiinflammatory or immunosuppressant purposes? a. Fludrocortisone (Florinef) b. Dexamethasone (generic) c. Prednisone (Deltasone) d. Hydrocortisone (Solu-Cortef) 36. A patient has Cushing’s syndrome. The nurse expects which drug to be used to inhibit the function of the adrenal cortex in the treatment of this syndrome? a. Dexamethasone (generic) b. Aminoglutethimide (Cytadren) c. Hydrocortisone (Solu-Cortef) d. Fludrocortisone (Florinef 37. The nurse would recognize which of the following as a potential side effect of glucocorticoid therapy in young children? a. Arthritis b. Growth suppression c. Constipation d. Iron-deficiency anemia Ch.34 38. What patient teaching is appropriate for a patient taking alendronate (Fosamax)? (Select all that apply.) a. Take with food. b. Take at night just before going to bed. d. Take with a sip of water. e. Take first thing in the morning upon arising. f. Do not lie down for at least 30 minutes after taking. Ch 36 39. A patient asks the nurse about the newer antihista- mines. He wants one that does not cause drowsiness. Which of these drugs is appropriate? a. Loratadine (Claritin) b. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) c. Dimenhydrinate (Dramamine) d. Meclizine (Antivert) 40. Which outcome would the nurse recognize as a posi- tive response to guaifenesin? a. Decreased wheezing b. Increase in respiratory rate c. Increase in sputum production d. Decreased use of accessory muscles for breathing [Show More]

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