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CPC Practice Exam. Contains 150 Questions and Answers, Rated A.

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CPC Practice Exam - 150 Questions and Answers Surgical removal - The suffix -ectomy means Magnetic Resonance Imaging - MRI stands for The removal of the fallopian tubes and ovaries - The term "Sal... pingo-Oophorectomy" refers to Freezing - Cryopreservation is a means of preserving something through Paracentesis - Which of the following describes the removal of fluid from a body cavity Gastrotomy - If a surgeon cuts into a patient's stomach he has performed a Muscle - In the medical term myopathy the term pathy means disease. What is diseased? Measles, Mumps, Rubella, and Varicella - The acronym MMRV stands for Outer bone located in the forearm - The Radius is the Hemic and Lymphatic - The spleen belongs to what organ system? The distal portion - The portion of the femur bone that helps makes up the knee cap is considered what? Middle - The Midsagittal plane refers to what portion of the body? Cecum - Which of the following is not part of the small intestine? Teres - One of the six major scapulohumeral muscles Where to esophagus joins the stomach - The cardia fundus is Amputation, arm through humerus; secondary closure or scar revision - The full description of CPT code 24925 is: The condition of the patient justifies the service provided - Medical necessity means what? 45392 - Which of the following codes allows the use of modifier 51?It helps cover outpatient charges - Which of the following statements is not true regarding Medicare Part A External cause codes are only used in the initial encounter. - Which of the following statements is false? Exploration, including enlargement, debridement, removal of foreign body(ies), minor vessel ligation, and repair - Wound exploration codes include the following service (s) : I12.9, N18.3 - What is the correct ICD-10-CM code(s) for malignant hypertension with stage III kidney disease? S51.822A, W07.XXXA, W25.XXXA, Y93.E9, Y92.030 - Lucy was standing on a chair in her apartment's kitchen trying to change a light bulb when she slipped and fell. She struck the glass top stove, which shattered. She presents to the ER with a simple laceration to her left forearm that has embedded glass particles. Which is the correct code(s)? T20.30XA, T24.319A, T22.299A, T31.42, X03.0XXA - Jim was at a bonfire when he tripped and fell into the flames and sustained multiple burns. He came to the emergency room via an ambulance and was treated for second and third degree burns on his face, second degree burns on his upper arms and forearms, and third degree burns on the fronts of his thighs Which is the correct code(s)? O63.0, O09.513, Z37.0 - . A 35 year old woman who is pregnant in her 38th week with her first child is admitted to the hospital. She experiences a prolonged labor during the first stage and eventually births a healthy baby boy. Which is the correct code(s)? S62.632A, Y93.64, W51.XXXA, Y92.320 - Henry was playing baseball at the town's sports field and slid for home base where he collided with another player. He presents to the emergency department complaining of pain in the distal portion of his right middle finger. It is swollen and deformed. The physician orders an x-ray and diagnoses Henry with a displaced tuft fracture. He splints the finger, provides narcotics for pain, and instructs Henry to follow-up with his orthopedist in two weeks. Which is the correct code(s)? F15.20, F10.20, F41.1, F43.10 - A 60 year old male is admitted for detoxification and rehabilitation. He has continuously abused amphetamines to the point that he cannot voluntarily stop on his own and has become dependent upon them. He also has a long documented history of alcohol abuse and alcoholism. He experiences high levels of anxiety due to PTSD, which causes him to use and abuse substances. Which is the correct code(s)? E11.319 - A patient with uncontrolled type II diabetes is experiencing blurred vision and an increase in floaters appearing in her vision. She is diagnosed with diabetic retinopathy. Which is the correct code(s)?Z21 - A patient who is known to be HIV positive but who has no documented symptoms would be assigned code L55.1 - A patient fell asleep on the beach and comes in with blistering on her back. She is diagnosed with second degree solar radiation burns. Which is the correct code(s)? True - Signs and symptoms that are associated routinely with a disease process should not be assigned as additional codes, unless otherwise instructed by classification. A6252, A6219 - A patient has a home health aide come to his home to clean and dress a burn on his lower leg. The aide uses a special absorptive, sterile dressing to cover a 20 sq. cm. area. She also covers a 15sq. cm. area with a self-adhesive sterile gauze pad. Q4010 - A 12 year old arrives in his pediatrician's office after colliding with another player during a soccer game. He is complaining of pain in his right wrist. The physician orders an x-ray and diagnoses him with a hairline fracture of the distal radius. He has a short arm fiberglass cast applied and discharges him with follow up instructions. J9070 - A patient with Hodgkin's disease takes Neosar as part of his chemotherapy regiment. He receives 100 mg once a week through intravenous infusion. Which is the correct code(s)? A5500-A5513 - A patient with diabetes is fitted for custom molded shoes. What is the code range for such a fitting? Which is the correct code(s)? E1222 - A 300lb. paraplegic needs a special sized wheelchair with fixed arm rests and elevating leg rests. Which is the correct code(s)? 99211 - A patient comes into her doctor's office for her weekly blood sugar check. Her blood is drawn by the LPN on staff, the visit takes about 5 minutes total. Which is the correct code(s)? 99234 - A three year old child is brought into the ER after swallowing a penny. A detailed history and exam are taken on the child and medical decision making is of moderate complexity. The child is admitted to observation for three hours and is then discharged home. Which is the correct code(s)? 99471; J80; J18.9 - A 20 month old child is admitted to the hospital with pneumonia and acute respiratory distress. The physician spends 3 minutes intubating the child and spends 90 minutes of Critical Care time stabilizing the patient. Which is the correct code(s)? 99360;99465; 99460 - At the request of a physician who is delivering for a high risk pregnancy, Dr. Smith, a pediatrician, is present in the delivery room to assist the infant ifneeded. After thirty minutes the infant is born, but is not breathing. The delivering physician hands the infant to Dr. Smith who provides chest compressions and resuscitates the infant. The pediatrician then performs the initial evaluation and management and admits the healthy newborn to the nursery. What codes should Dr. Smith submit on a claim? 99397, 99215 - Mr. Johnson is a 79 year old established male patient that is seen by Dr. Anderson for his annual physical exam. During the examination Dr. Anderson notices a suspicious mole on Mr. Johnson's back. The Doctor completes the annual exam and documents a detailed history and exam and the time discussing the patient's need to quit smoking. Dr. Anderson then turns his attention to the mole and does a complete work up. He documents a comprehensive history and examination and medical decision making of moderate complexity. He also called a local dermatologist and made an appointment for Mr. Johnson to see him the next day for an evaluation and biopsy. Which is the correct code(s)? History, Exam, Medical Decision Making, Counseling, Coordination of Care, and Nature of Presenting Problem - An E/M is made up of seven components six of which are used in defining the levels of E/M services. The seven components include History, Exam, Medical Decision Making, Counseling, Coordination of Care, Nature of Presenting Problem, and Time. Which six of these seven parts help define the level of the E/M service? The upper central region of the abdomen - When a patient complains.of epigastric pain. Where is the pain located? 99382-25, 90471, 90710 - A 2 year-old comes in for an initial WCE, Morn doesn't have the child's immunization record. She states the child's last shot was when he was 5 months old. Medical review and documentation of a new patient supports one element of HPI, five-elements of the ROS, and a complete PFSH. The examination was 8+ organ systems. The physician orders the immunizations to be given in the office today. Immunizations given subcutaneously: MMRV. What CPT codes are reported? Musculoskeletal - Which system is given credit in the exam component when the provider documents "range of motion, strength, and stability" are adequate in both legs?" 99285 - A 25 year-old male is brought in by the EMS to the ER for nausea and vomiting. The patient has elevated blood sugars per EMS. EMS and the physician are unable to get a history due to patient's altered mental status. The ED physician performed a comprehensive eight organ system exam and a high level MDM. Patient was transferred to ICU in stable condition. Total critical care time 25 minutes. What CPT code is reported? 00832 - The correct anesthesia code for a ventral hernia repair on a 13 month old child is01829 - A patient is placed under anesthesia to have an exploratory surgery done on her wrist. The surgeon utilizes a small fiber optic scope and investigates the radius, ulna, and surrounding wrist bones. What should the anesthesiologist code for? When the anesthesiologist begins preparing the patient for the induction of anesthesia - When does anesthesia time begin? 00561 - A five month old is brought into the operating room for open heart surgery. The surgeon performs a repair of a small hole that was found in the lining surrounding the patient's heart. Anesthesia was provided as well as the assistance of an oxygenator pump. Which is the correct code(s)? 01714-P3, 99100 - A 72 year old male with a history of severe asthma is placed under anesthesia to have a long tendon in his upper arm repaired. Which is the correct code(s)? Capnography - Which of the following procedures can be coded separately when performed by the anesthesiologist? 00126-P1 - A healthy five year old male is placed under anesthesia to have a biopsy taken from his left ear drum. Which is the correct code(s)? 00851-P5, 99140 - A female who is 17 weeks pregnant is rushed into the OR due to a ruptured tubal pregnancy. She has a severe hemorrhage and has an emergency laparoscopic tubal ligation. Which is the correct code(s)? 12032, 12013-59, S51.802A, S41.001A, S01.81XA - John was in a fight at the local bar and presents to the ER with multiple lacerations. The physician evaluates John and determines that he has a 2.5 cm gash to his left forearm and a 4cm gash on his right shoulder, both which require layered closure. He also has a simple 3cm laceration on his forehead that requires simple closure. What are the correct codes for the laceration repairs? 17273, 17000, 17110 - A patient presents to her dermatologists office with three suspicious looking lesions. The dermatologist evaluates them and determines that the 1.3cm lesion of the scalp is benign and the 1.5cm lesion of the neck is premalignant. The 2.5 cm on the dorsal surface of the patient's hand is also evaluated and is determined to be malignant. The dermatologist chooses to ablate all three lesions using electrosurgery. Which is the correct code(s)? 19000 - An 18 year old female presents with a cyst of her left breast and her physician performs a puncture aspiration. Which is the correct code(s)? 17311, 17315, 17312, 12002 - OPERATIVE REPORT Preoperative Diagnosis: Basal Cell CarcinomaPostoperative Diagnosis: Basal Cell Carcinoma Location: Mid Parietal Scalp Procedure: Prior to each surgical stage, the surgical site was tested for anesthesia and re-anesthetized as needed, after which it was prepped and draped in a sterile fashion. The clinically-apparent tumor was carefully defined and de-bulked prior to the first stage, determining the extent of the surgical excision. With each stage, a thin layer of tumor-laden tissue was excised with a narrow margin of normal appearing skin, using the Mohs fresh tissue technique. A map was prepared to correspond to the area of skin from which it was excised. The tissue was prepared for the cryostat and sectioned. Each section was coded, cut and stained for microscopic examination. The entire base and margins of the excised piece of tissue were examined by the surgeon. Areas noted to be positive on the previous stage (if applicable) were removed with the Mohs technique and processed for analysis. No tumor was identified after the final stage of microscopically controlled surgery. The patient tolerated the procedure well without any complication. After discussion with the patient regarding the various options, the best closure option for each defect was selected for optimal functional and cosmetic results. Preoperative Size: 1.5 x 2.9 cm Postoperative Size: 2.7 x 2.9 cm Closure: Simple Linear Closure, 3.5cm, scalp Total # of Mohs Stages: 2 Stage Sections Positive I 6 1 II 2 0 Which is the correct code(s)? 15120 - A patient with a non-healing burn wound on her right cheek, and is admitted to the OR for surgery. The physician had the patient prepped with a Betadine scrub and draped in the normal sterile fashion. The cheek was anesthetized with 1% Lidocaine with 1:800,000 epinephrine (6 cc), and SeptiCare was applied. A skin graft of the epidermis and a small portion of the dermis was taken with a Goulian Weck blade with a six-thousands-of-an-inch-thick shim on the blade. The 25 sq cm graft was flipped and sewn to the adjacent defect with running 5-0 Vicryl. The wound was then dressed with Xeroform and the patient was taken to recovery. Which is the correct code(s)? 12042-F6, 11740-F7 - A child is brought into the emergency department after having her fingers on her right hand closed in a car door. The physician evaluates the patient and diagnosis her with a 3cm laceration to her second finger and a subungual hematoma to her third finger. The physician then proceeds to cleanse the fingers with an iodine scrub and injects both digits with 2 mL of 1% lidocaine with epinephrine. The wound on the second finger was then irrigated with 500 cc of NS and explored for foreign bodies or structural damage. No foreign bodies were found, tendons and vessels were intact. The wound was then re-approximated. Three 5-0 absorbable mattress sutures were used to close the subcutaneous tissue and six 6-0 nylon interrupted sutures were used to close the epidermis. The finger was then wrapped in sterile gauze and placed in an aluminum finger splint. The physician then check that the digital block performed on the third finger was still effective. After ensuring the patient'sfinger was still numb he then proceeded to take an electronic cautery unit and created a small hole in the nail. Pressing slightly on the nail he evacuated the hematoma. The hole was then irrigated with 500cc of NS and the finger was wrapped in sterile gauze. The patient tolerated both procedures well without complaint. Which is the correct code(s)? Adding together the lesion diameter and the narrowest margins necessary to adequately excise the lesion. - The size of an excision of a benign lesion is determined by: True - A simple, single layered laceration requires extensive cleaning due to being heavily contaminated. The code selected would come from code range 12031-12057. Allograft - A skin graft where the donor skin comes from another human (often a cadaver) is known as a(n) 16035, 16036 x2 - A patient is being treated for third degree burns to his left leg and left arm which cover a total of 18 sq cm. The burns are scrubbed clean, anesthetized, and three incisions are made with a #11 scalpel, through the tough leathery tissue that is dead, in order to expose the fatty tissue below and avoid compartment syndrome. The burns are then re-dressed with sterile gauze. Which is the correct code(s)? 29883 - Medial and lateral meniscus repair performed arthroscopically. Which is the correct code(s)? 99284-57-25, 25605-54-RT, 12031, S52.501B - A patient comes into the emergency department complaining of sever wrist pain after falling onto her out stretched hands. The physician evaluates the patient taking a detailed history, a detailed exam, and medical decision making of moderate complexity. Upon examination the physician notes that there is a small portion of bone protruding through the skin. After ordering x-rays of the forearm and wrist the patient is diagnosed with an open distal radius fracture of the right arm. The physician provides an IV drip of morphine to the patient for pain and reduces the fracture. 5¬0 absorbable sutures were use to close the subcutaneous layer above the fracture and the surface was closed with 6-0 nylon interrupted sutures. Wound length was measured at 2.5 cm. It was then dressed with sterile gauze and the wrist was stabilized with a Spica fiberglass cast. The physician provided the patient with a prescription for Percocet for pain and instructions for her to follow up with her orthopedist in 7 days. Which is the correct code(s)? Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction - A Scapulopexy is found under what heading 20552 - A patient with muscle spasms in her back was seen in her physician's office for treatment. The area over the myofascial spasm was prepped with alcohol utilizing sterile technique. After isolating it between two palpating fingertips a 25-gauge 5" needle was placed in the center of the myofascial spasms and a negative aspiration was performed. Then 4 cc of Marcaine 0.5% was injected into three points in the muscle. The patienttolerated the procedure well without any apparent difficulties or complications. The patient reported feeling full relief by the time the block had set. Which is the correct code(s)? 22554, 63081, 20931, 22845 - OPERATIVE NOTE PREOPERATIVE DIAGNOSIS: myelopathy secondary to very large disc herniations at C4- C5 and C5-C6. POSTOPERATIVE DIAGNOSIS: myelopathy secondary to very large disc herniations at C4-C5 and C5-C6. PROCEDURE PERFORMED: 1. Anterior discectomy, C5-C6. 2. Arthrodesis, C5-C6. 3. Partial corpectomy, C5. 4. Machine bone allograft, C5-C6. 5. Placement of anterior plate with a Zephyr C6. ANESTHESIA: General. ESTIMATED BLOOD LOSS: 60 mL. COMPLICATIONS: None. INDICATIONS: This is a patient who presents with progressive weakness in the left upper extremity as well as imbalance. He has a very large disc herniation that came behind the body at C5 as well and as well as a large disc herniation at C5-C6. Risks and benefits of the surgery including bleeding, infection, neurologic deficit, nonunion, progressive spondylosis, and lack of improvement were all discussed. He understood and wished to proceed. DESCRIPTION OF PROCEDURE: The patient was brought to the operating room and placed in the supine position. Preoperative antibiotics were given. The patient was placed in the supine position with all pressure points noted and well padded. The patient was prepped and draped in standard fashion. An incision was made approximately above the level of the cricoid. Blunt dissection was used to expose the anterior portion of the spine with carotid moved laterally and trachea and esophagus moved medially. I then placed needle into the disc spaces and was found to be at C5-C6. Distracting pins were placed in the body of C6. The disc was then completely removed at C5-C6. There was very significant compression of the cord. This was carefully removed to avoid any type of pressure on the cord. This was very severe and multiple free fragments noted. This was taken down to the level of ligamentum. Both foramen were then also opened. Part of the body of C5 was taken down to assure that all fragments were removed and that there was no additional constriction. The nerve root was then widely decompressed. Machine bone allograft was placed into C5-C6 and then a Zephyr plate was placed in the body C6 with a metal pin placed into the body at [Show More]

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