Health Care > QUESTION PAPER (QP) > CCMA(NHA) Board Certification Practice Exam QUESTIONS ONLY (150 QNS) (All)

CCMA(NHA) Board Certification Practice Exam QUESTIONS ONLY (150 QNS)

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Board Certification Practice Exam Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. ____ 1. The term phlebotomy comes from Greek words that mean _______... ___. a. draw blood c. drain blood b. cut a vein d. dermal cut ____ 2. Most sterilization indicators operate on what principle? a. color change will revert back when an item contaminated b. original color reappear after 6 weeks c. color change indicates the package has been properly sealed d. color change indicates sterilization is complete ____ 3. Hemolysis occurs due to __________. a. allowing alcohol to air dry prior to puncture b. forcing syringe-drawn specimens into evacuated tubes c. gently massaging a dermal puncture site d. mixing the collection tube too slowly ____ 4. In a normal microscopic urine result there can be a. nothing to report b. so many cells they cannot be counted c. only many RBCs d. a few epithelial cells, occasional WBCs, rare RBC ____ 5. The main duty of a phlebotomist is to __________. a. interpret laboratory values c. process blood specimens b. evaluate blood specimens d. collect blood specimens ____ 6. Which of the following procedures are covered by standard precautions? a. change gloves between patients b. dispose of needles in sharps container c. never recap needles d. perform hand hygiene every third time you change gloves ____ 7. Symptoms of dehydration in infants a. are unimportant c. include being energetic and alert b. include dry skin d. include increased urine output ____ 8. What chart is used to measure near vision acuity? a. snellen c. jaeger b. pelli-robson d. ishihara ____ 9. Which of the following is NOT part of informed consent? a. explanation of advantages and risks to the treatment b. what might occur if there is no treatment c. results are guaranteed d. alternatives available to the patient ____ 10. The federal regulations for clinical laboratories specifying guidelines for quality control, qualified personnel and quality assurance is a. OSHA c. CDA b. DEA d. CLIA 1988 ____ 11. The slowly degenerative brain disease that leads to tremor, muscle rigidity, difficulty moving and instability is a. parkinson’s disease c. stroke b. alzheimer’s disease d. glaucoma ____ 12. Which of the following procedures would help diagnose an infection with a blood parasite? a. blood cultures c. bleeding time b. blood smear d. cold agglutinins ____ 13. Bacteria require which of the following to grow? a. disinfectants c. light b. cool temperature d. moisture ____ 14. An illuminated instrument used to examine the ear is an __________. a. ophthalmoscope c. otoscope b. anoscope d. cystoscope ____ 15. A physician’s license may be revoked or suspended for the following reasons __________. a. conviction of a crime c. unprofessional conduct b. fraud d. all of the above ____ 16. The documentation of all clinical laboratory tests and results is important so a. the physician can use the results b. any interested party in the facility can see the results c. results are available for billing purposes d. lab director can monitor the amount of work load ____ 17. The presence of which of the following in urine may signal the onset of diabetes mellitus? a. leukocytes c. ketones b. glucose d. nitrates ____ 18. The rule to calculate a woman’s due date for delivery is __________. a. the rule of nine c. naegle’s rule b. snellen chart d. clark’s rule ____ 19. The causative agent for syphilis is __________. a. treponema pallidum c. staphylococcus aureus b. streptococcus pyogenes d. trichomonas vaginalis ____ 20. During normal heart activity, __________ is the primary pacemaker. a. bundle of his c. AV node b. SA node d. AV junction ____ 21. A plastic red-topped tube contains __________. a. an anticoagulant c. a clot activator b. an antiglycolytic agent d. no additives ____ 22. Which of the following is the usual site for capillary puncture in infants? a. fingertip c. heel b. earlobe d. toe ____ 23. Which of the following is a reason to have an ECG? a. detects myocardial ischemia c. evaluates arrhythmia b. estimates damage from MI d. all of the above ____ 24. To determine the kidney ability to dilute and concentrate urine, one should measure a. glucose c. specific gravity b. ketones d. glucose ____ 25. Civil law is concerned with __________. a. contract law c. administrative law b. tort law d. all of the above ____ 26. The angle used to take a blood smear is __________. a. 10 degrees c. 30 degrees b. 20 degrees d. 45 degrees ____ 27. How long is it necessary to wash hands prior to assisting a new patient? a. 1 minute c. 45 minutes b. 6 minutes d. 2-3 minutes ____ 28. Impaired color vision a. is a factor of age c. is common in females b. is hereditary d. is correctable ____ 29. Which of these is NOT an intentional tort? a. fraud c. assault b. battery d. shoplifting ____ 30. The system of scientific measurement used in medical facilities is a. the english system c. the metric system b. the apothecary system d. the household system ____ 31. The most important step in performing a venipuncture is __________. a. removing the tourniquet before taking the needle out b. drawing the correct amount of blood c. inserting the needle in the vein properly d. identifying the patient ____ 32. Personal protective equipment (PPE) includes all of the following EXCEPT __________. a. eyewash c. gloves b. face shields d. gown ____ 33. The type of wound has edges that are torn in an irregular shape and can cause profuse bleeding and scarring is a a. puncture c. incision b. laceration d. contusion ____ 34. The most common symptom of cardiac dysrhythmias is/are __________. a. low blood pressure c. shortness of breath b. lightheadedness d. palpitations ____ 35. Gloves are required while __________. a. transporting specimen to the lab c. performing a capillary puncture b. performing a venipuncture d. all of the above ____ 36. Testing for occult blood is performed on what type of specimen? a. feces c. serum b. blood d. CSF ____ 37. A postprandial specimen collection should occur __________. a. after a blood transfusion c. early in the morning b. before the next dose of medication d. at a specific time after eating ____ 38. What is the effect of warming the site prior to dermal puncture? a. it may cause hemolysis on the specimen b. it increases blood flow to the area c. it makes the puncture less painful d. it causes hemoconcentration ____ 39. Who decides the equipment and supplies to have stocked on a crash cart? a. medical office manager c. clinical supervisor b. certified medical assistant d. Physician ____ 40. The term asepsis means __________. a. contaminated c. free of pathogens b. needs oxygen d. needs sanitizing ____ 41. Which of the following is NOT a plasma protein? a. albumin c. urea b. prothrombin d. fibrinogen ____ 42. Distinguishing between two similar diseases by comparing their symptoms is called __________. a. physical diagnosis c. laboratory diagnosis b. differential diagnosis d. clinical diagnosis ____ 43. Levels of laboratory testing complexity were established by __________. a. CAP c. CLSI b. CLIA d. COLA ____ 44. If a physician does not follow the proper steps to end the physician-patient contract, he/she may be charged with __________. a. professional liability c. termination of contract b. patient abandonment d. assumption of risk ____ 45. After a gram stain, what color do gram-negative organisms stain? a. blue c. violet b. black d. pink ____ 46. Which of the following is an important part of the patient education when preparing a patient to wear a Holter monitor? a. wear it even in the shower for an accurate reading b. remove the recorder from its case c. keep a diary of the times of all symptomatic activities and emotions d. depress the event marker every hour on the half hour ____ 47. The term parturition refers to __________. a. the duration of pregnancy c. discharge after delivery b. stages of the menstrual cycle d. birth ____ 48. PR segments are commonly described as _________________. a. flat c. asymmetrical b. rounded d. biphasic ____ 49. To produce a rounded drop of blood, finger punctures should be made __________. a. before the alcohol is dry c. along or on the fingerprint b. across the fingerprint d. on the index finger ____ 50. Barrier methods of contraception include all of the following EXCEPT __________. a. condom c. morning-after pill b. diaphragm d. contraceptive sponge ____ 51. HIV is spread mainly by __________. a. sexual intercourse c. sitting on toilet seats b. sharing needles d. both A and B ____ 52. The study of ova and parasites is known as a. cytology c. mycology b. serology d. parasitology ____ 53. Diabetes mellitus type 2 can be controlled by the following __________. a. taking antibiotics c. frequent ECGs b. frequent weight and height evaluation d. diet and exercise ____ 54. Specimens for tests that are ordered STAT must be __________. a. verified with the laboratory manager prior to collection b. collected by the physician c. delivered tot he laboratory immediately d. collected last when drawing several patients ____ 55. The causative agent for scarlet fever and rheumatic fever is a. streptococcus c. neisseria b. staphylococcus d. chlamydia ____ 56. If pulse is taken at the wrist, the artery used is the __________. a. temporal artery c. radial artery b. carotid artery d. popliteal artery ____ 57. When using the microscope, which of the following is correct? a. 10X magnification is used with immersion oil b. lower the stage after removing the slide c. 40X setting is used for high dry power d. only use low with every objective ____ 58. The vein most frequently used for venipuncture is __________. a. cephalic vein c. median cubital vein b. dorsal arch vein d. saphenous vein ____ 59. Normally in a 24 hour period an individual excretes a. 70-100 ml of urine c. 250-2500 ml of urine b. 500-700 ml of urine d. 1000-5000 ml of urine ____ 60. Special blood collection procedures for which most phlebotomist are trained include all of these EXCEPT __________. a. collection of blood cultures b. glucose tolerance collection c. neonatal blood screening collection d. collection of units from blood bank donors ____ 61. A patient with COPD struggling to breath in the sitting position should be changed to which position? a. lithotomy c. semi-fowler’s b. dorsal recumbent d. knee-chest ____ 62. An exam that includes gloves, speculum, three glass slides, fixative, and sterile culture swabs with containers is ready for what type of examination? a. rectal c. gastrointestinal b. pelvic d. neurological ____ 63. An organism that can live with or without oxygen in its environment is a. aerobic c. gram negative b. gram positive d. a facultative anaerobic ____ 64. Normal pulse rate for an adult is __________. a. 40-60 c. 80-100 b. 60-90 d. 90-100 ____ 65. Which of the following is considered a soft skill? a. critical thinking c. labeling an anatomical diagram b. memorizing medical terminology d. keying patient data into a computer ____ 66. To change the magnification to a higher objective you would use a a. diaphragm c. revolving nosepiece b. stage d. Condenser ____ 67. Ear irrigation are performed __________. a. daily b. to remove cerumen and foreign matter c. as part of every physical examination d. to relieve conjunctivitis ____ 68. Hearing loss associated with age is __________. a. myopia c. presbyopia b. myringa d. presbycusis ____ 69. Which of the following tests is NOT required for prenatal testing? a. syphilis c. antibody for rubella b. blood group, Rh factor d. cardiac enzymes ____ 70. What are the three parts of a contract? a. offer, acceptance, renegotiation c. offer, acceptance, consideration b. offer, counteroffer, acceptance d. offer, refusal, consideration ____ 71. Improper care of a spirometer may result in which of the following? a. coronary insufficiency c. coronary embolism b. cross-contamination/infection d. thyroid efficiency ____ 72. A normal 1 year old a. prepared to play alone b. can wave bye-bye and can walk with assistance c. cannot say any words d. prefer to lie in the crib ____ 73. __________ are used to grasp foreign bodies. a. splinter forceps c. sponge forceps b. tissue forceps d. thumb forceps ____ 74. Which of the following best describes how a tube with anticoagulants is identified? a. size of the tube c. test name on label b. tube stopper color d. laboratory use ____ 75. Which of the following is caused by a virus? a. candidiasis c. herpes zoster b. malaria d. gonorrhea ____ 76. An abnormally slow pulse rate is __________. a. extrasystole c. thread pulse b. tachycardia d. bradycardia ____ 77. The test that checks for the susceptibility of an organism to specific antibiotic is the a. culture test c. isolation test b. sensitivity test d. inoculation test ____ 78. Another term for an abrasion is a. avulsion c. laceration b. amputation d. puncture ____ 79. The term used to describe a person who is nearsighted is a. hyperopic c. presbyopic b. myopic d. astigmatic ____ 80. Systolic pressure of 140 or above is referred to as __________. a. bradycardia c. hypertension b. tachycardia d. Hypotension ____ 81. Syncope is another term for a. vomiting c. dizziness b. fainting d. a blood infection ____ 82. To use “counting the small square methods”, you _______________. a. count the number of small squares between the peaks of two consecutive R waves and then compare that to the other R-R intervals b. find an R wave that falls on a bold line and begin counting small squares c. count the number of small squares in a 6-second section of the ECG tracing d. divide by 1500 the number of QRS complexes in each 6-second section of the ECG tracing ____ 83. Infection of the ear involving fluid building behind the ear drum is __________. a. otitis externa c. ossicles b. otitis media d. pruritis ____ 84. Pediatric blood pressure is measured a. at the desertion of the parent b. only in newborns c. only during yearly exam in teens d. yearly after three years or at the discretion of the physician ____ 85. The presence of many RBCs in urine microscopic examination is referred to as a. hematuria c. polyuria b. pyuria d. albuminuria ____ 86. Which type of physical examination will reveal abnormalities of the nervous system? a. urological c. oncological b. neurological d. proctological ____ 87. Vasectomy involves the severing and tying the __________. a. fallopian tubes c. vas deferens b. scrotum d. epididymis ____ 88. The best urine specimen to use for general health assessment is the __________. a. 24-hour collection c. first morning void b. clean-catch specimen d. random void ____ 89. The elderly have __________ acute illness than younger age groups. a. many more c. fewer b. the same number of d. a few more ____ 90. The normal rate of respiration for an adult is __________. a. 6-10 c. 14-20 b. 10-13 d. 18-22 ____ 91. A microhematocrit test is used to screen for __________. a. anemia c. occult blood b. diabetes d. strep infection ____ 92. Bulimia nervosa is an eating disorder that a. affects only males b. is characterized by binging and purging c. is curable with antibiotic medication d. is characterized by extreme weight loss in all patients ____ 93. Where does deoxygenated blood enter the heart? a. pulmonary artery c. right atrium b. pulmonary vein d. right ventricle ____ 94. The T wave represents ___________________. a. ventricular depolarization c. ventricular repolarization b. atrial repolarization d. abnormal electrical activity ____ 95. The practice of medicine within each state is regulated by __________. a. the surgeon general of the united states c. the american medical association b. the State itself d. the U.S. attorney general ____ 96. Double-bagging is __________. a. using a bag inside a bag to transport a specimen b. placing biohazard material in a bag and that bag into another c. placing normal waste in two bags d. none of the above ____ 97. The phlebotomist has the greatest impact on which phase of laboratory testing? a. the postanalytical phase c. has no impact on lab testing b. the preanalytical phase d. result reporting ____ 98. A severe allergic reaction to a substance is known as a. metabolic shock c. hypoallergenic shock b. anaphylactic shock d. neurological shock ____ 99. Hyperthermia occurs when the body temperature reaches a. 105 degrees F c. 109 degrees F b. 95 degrees F d. 103 degrees F ____ 100. Serum differs from plasma because serum does not contain __________. a. electrolytes c. nutrients b. fibrinogen d. water ____ 101. Staphylococcus aureus is a. gram-negative bacilli c. gram-negative diplococci b. gram-positive cocci d. acid-fast bacilli ____ 102. Material for a CSF specimen is collected from what area? a. spinal column c. throat b. mouth d. pharynx ____ 103. Education that occurs after a healthcare professional’s initial certification training is called __________. a. career education c. degreed education b. continuing education d. supplemental education ____ 104. Pregnancy test detects pregnancy by the presence of a. hetrophile antibodies c. febrile agglutination b. human chorionic gonadotrophins d. anti Rh antibodies ____ 105. How many types of white blood cells are there? a. 5 c. 4 b. 1 d. 3 ____ 106. If gray, green, and lavender tubes are needed, the correct order of draw is __________. a. green, lavender, gray c. lavender, gray, green b. gray, lavender, green d. gray, green, lavender ____ 107. A permanent pacemaker is implanted in a surgically created pocket beneath the skin in the patient’s a. abdomen c. neck b. chest d. upper thigh ____ 108. __________ is used to remove tissue for examination and biopsy to detect cancerous cells a. speculum c. punch b. trocar d. Probe ____ 109. An increase in the pulse rate may be caused by __________. a. fever c. rest b. poisons d. mental depression ____ 110. The term used to describe difficult or labored breathing is __________. a. apnea c. orthopnea b. eupnea d. dyspnea ____ 111. The PR interval represents __________. a. repolarization of the ventricles b. depolarization of the heart from the SA node through the atria, AV node, the His-Purkinje system c. depolarization of the atria d. movement of the electrical impulse through the ventricles ____ 112. To open a sterile packet you may do all EXCEPT a. touch the outside with bare hands b. open the sterile packet away from you c. rewrap any unused packets d. touch the outside with sterile gloves only ____ 113. Which of the following answer is a correct safety rule in the laboratory? a. it is unnecessary to supervise new lab personnel b. hands must be thoroughly washed frequently c. eating and drinking are accepted in the lab d. gloves are unnecessary when working with patients samples ____ 114. Which of these is NOT one of the four Ds of negligence? a. duty c. duplicity b. direct cause d. damages ____ 115. Some factors that lead tot he development of heart disease are all of the following EXCEPT __________. a. heredity c. flatus b. obesity d. smoking ____ 116. To measure intraocular pressure the instrument used is __________. a. ophthalmoscope c. probe b. tonometer d. otoscope ____ 117. One common symptom of coronary artery disease is __________. a. dyspnea c. dysphagia b. polydipsia d. digitalis ____ 118. The respiratory rate of an infant a. is lower than that of an adult c. is higher than that of an adult b. is the same as that of an adult d. is measured by the parent ____ 119. Which of the following is an opportunistic infection associated with AIDS? a. cold c. pheumocystis carinii b. measles d. whooping cough ____ 120. What legislative act protects healthcare workers from liability when they provide first aid in an emergency situation? a. good samaritan act c. occupational safety and health act b. patient’s bill of right d. red cross act ____ 121. The standard electrocardiogram shows the heart’s electrical activity from different angles through “leads”. How many leads are recorded? a. 5 c. 10 b. 7 d. 12 ____ 122. How much time without food or drink is considered fasting? a. 4 to 6 hours c. 6 to 7 hours b. 2 to 4 hours d. 8 to 12 hours ____ 123. Conditions of microcephaly or hydrocephaly may be evaluated by a. diameter of the infant chest c. the weight of the infant b. the length of the infant d. the circumference of the infant’s head ____ 124. Which of the following is the lead that records electrical activity between the right arm and the left leg? a. lead I c. AVF b. AVL d. lead II ____ 125. The average infant doubles his/her weight a. at 3 months c. at 1 year b. at 6 months d. at 2 years ____ 126. Which of the following is NEVER considered an outpatient surgery? a. elective c. optional b. urgent d. organ transplant ____ 127. Diabetes mellitus type 2 (NIDDM) is the result of impaired action of what hormone? a. insulin c. adrenaline b. thyroxine d. testosterone ____ 128. Leads __________, __________, __________, are referred to as the standard limb leads a. I, II, and III c. I and II b. aVR, aVL, and aVF d. V1, V2, V3, V4, V5, and V6 ____ 129. To diagnose ventricular hypertrophy, we assess the a. P waves c. QRS complexes b. T waves d. P wave axis ____ 130. Arterial bleeding is a. slow and bright red c. rapid and bright red b. rapid and dark red d. slow and dark red ____ 131. Educating employees about the use of a new piece of equipment is an example of __________. a. audit and evaluation c. competency assessment b. corrective action d. training ____ 132. Which of the following is NOT appropriate dress for the office? a. name tag with “medical assistant” on it c. sandals b. white socks d. short nails ____ 133. If the QRS complexes are close together the heart rate is _____________________. a. slow c. profoundly slow b. normal d. fast ____ 134. Peripheral edema is seen in what conditions? a. gastroenteritis c. pediculosis b. congestive heart failure d. allergic rhinitis ____ 135. On the snellen eye chart, the symbol on the top line can be read by people with normal vision at a distance of __________. a. 100 feet c. 20 feet b. 200 feet d. 150 feet ____ 136. Which of the following blood tests aids in the evaluation of the digestive system? a. albumin c. hemoglobin b. bilirubin d. uric acid ____ 137. Turbidy of urine refers to a. odor c. cloudiness b. color d. specific gravity ____ 138. Which of the following should NOT be brought to an interview? a. photo ID c. children b. proof of certification d. grades received in school ____ 139. Older patients take an average of __________ to __________ different medications and one to two over-thecounter medications daily. a. 2,3 c. 4,5 b. 3,4 d. 3,5 ____ 140. Which of the following would need to be recorded in the Holter monitor activity diary? a. eating meals c. time of sleep b. bowel movement d. all of the above ____ 141. Invasion of the body by any pathogen is called a. contagion c. epidemic b. infection d. pandemic ____ 142. A condition that may cause urinary retention and weak stream of urine in men over age fifty is known as __________. a. syphilis c. renal calculi b. benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH) d. human papillomavirus ____ 143. In which of the following radiology positions is the x-ray beam directed front to back? a. axial c. posteroanterior (PA) b. lateral d. anteroposterior (AP) ____ 144. There are many degrees of felonies. Which is the most serious? a. first c. third b. second d. they are all equal ____ 145. After an interview, which of the following should be done? a. send a thank you letter b. send six copies of your resume c. make a thank you phone call d. inform the workplace of other job offers you have received ____ 146. Cocci occurring in chains are a. micrococci c. streptococci b. diplococci d. staphylococci ____ 147. An irregular rhythm a. is considered normal c. produces a fast heart rate b. is caused only by few conditions d. should be properly investigated ____ 148. Which vaccine guards against whooping cough? a. DTP c. tetanus b. varicella d. CPV ____ 149. Which of the following would NOT be included in the vital signs? a. weight c. temperature b. pulse d. blood pressure ____ 150. To reduce the risk of infection in a pediatric waiting room a. only see well patients on specific days b. make ill patients wait in a hallway c. place ill patients in an examination room at once d. spray room with air freshener [Show More]

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