A Complete Test Bank For Accounting Information Systems, 13th Edition Marshall B. Romney Paul J. Steinbart

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Chapter 1 Accounting Information Systems: An Overview 1.1 Distinguish data from information, discuss the characteristics of useful information, and explain how to determine the value of information... . 1) Which of the following statements below shows the contrast between data and information? A) Data is the output of an AIS. B) Information is the primary output of an AIS. C) Data is more useful in decision making than information. D) Data and information are the same. 2) Information is best described as A) raw facts about transactions. B) data that has been organized and processed so that it is meaningful to the user. C) facts that are useful when processed in a timely manner. D) the same thing as data. 3) The value of information can best be determined by A) its usefulness to decision makers. B) its relevance to decision makers. C) the benefits associated with obtaining the information minus the cost of producing it. D) the extent to which it optimizes the value chain. 4) An accounting information system (AIS) processes to provide users with . A) data; information B) data; transactions C) information; data D) data; benefits 5) information reduces uncertainty, improves decision makers' ability to make predictions, or confirms expectations. A) Timely B) Reliable C) Relevant D) Complete 6) Information that is free from error or bias and accurately represents the events or activities of the organization is A) relevant. B) reliable / Faithful Representation. C) verifiable. D) timely. 7) Information that does not omit important aspects of the underlying events or activities that it measures is A) complete. B) accessible. C) relevant. D) timely. 8) Information is when two knowledgeable people independently produce the same information. A) verifiable B) relevant C) reliable D) complete 9) Data must be converted into information to be considered useful and meaningful for decision making. There are six characteristics that make information both useful and meaningful. If information is free from error or bias and accurately represents the events or activities of the organization, it is representative of the characteristic of A) relevancy. B) timeliness. C) understandability. D) reliability. 10) Inventory information is provided in real time by a firm's accounting information system. The accuracy of this information is questionable, however, since the production manager often reports stock outs of components that the system indicates are in stock. Which of the following characteristics of useful information is absent in the situation described above? A) relevant B) reliable C) complete D) timely E) understandable F) verifiable G) accessible 11) Cheryl Metrejean has been the controller of Downtown Tires for 25 years. Ownership of the firm recently changed hands and the new owners are conducting an audit of the financial records. The audit has been unable to reproduce financial reports that were prepared by Ms. Metrejean. While there is no evidence of wrongdoing, the auditors are concerned that the discrepancies might contribute to poor decisions. Which of the following characteristics of useful information is absent in the situation described above? A) relevant B) reliable C) complete D) timely E) understandable F) verifiable G) accessible Answer: F 12) In 2003, Singh Manufacturing implemented a Web-based information system that allows all employees to access mission-critical information. The intention was to increase production efficiency. Unfortunately, it had the opposite effect, as deliveries fell behind schedule and costs increased. Shaman Gupta, the director of information technology services, asked Ashlee Wells to come in and talk with him about the system. Ashlee is a long-time employee of Singh, and her opinion is valued by her peers and by her supervisor. "So Ashlee, how's it going down there in the shop?" "Not so good, Shaman. Used to be we got a weekly pick list so we knew how to plan production. Now, we got that computer system. Most of us can't figure out how to use it to do our jobs. Is there some way to print out a pick list?" Shaman thought for a while before responding. "Well, Ashlee, to tell you the truth, I'm not so sure how to do it myself, but there must be a way. We'll bring in the consultants that helped us build the system. Maybe they can help." Which of the following characteristics of useful information is absent in the situation described above? A) relevant B) reliable C) complete D) timely E) understandable F) verifiable G) accessible Answer: E 13) Wisconsin Dells, Wisconsin, is a popular tourist destination. During the winter months, the population dwindles to a meager few, but when summer comes, the size of the town surges. Hunter Jackson is the town sanitation engineer. When the size of the town surges, so do his responsibilities. Among them is management of the sewage processing volume. In an interview with the local paper, Hunter complained that a report on tourist population that he uses to adjust processing volume refers to data that was collected four days ago and it takes him a week to make adjustments. Which of the following characteristics of useful information is absent in the situation described above? A) relevant B) reliable C) complete D) timely E) understandable F) verifiable G) accessible 14) A frantic Barney Rubble lost a large sale because he could not access the system to verify the inventory was in stock and ready to be shipped. Which of the following characteristics of useful information is absent in the situation described above? A) relevant B) reliable C) complete D) timely E) understandable F) verifiable G) accessible Answer: G 15) Message left on voicemail: "Hi Nikki! Just landed at the airport. How about dinner this evening if you're available. Call me!" Which of the following characteristics of useful information is absent in the situation described above? A) relevant B) reliable C) complete D) timely E) understandable F) verifiable G) accessible 16) Chopra, Limited, is an Indian company operating in New York state. It offers stylized, boutique public relations services to upscale retailers in quaint New England towns. A major source of revenue is a weekly newsletter that reports on current and projected tourist travel and spending patterns. Preparation of the newsletter requires study and analysis of weather conditions, economic activity, and travel costs. It is available at an annual subscription rate of $299.99. There are currently 190 subscribers. Preparation and distribution of the newsletter costs $12,000 annually. The value of information to subscribers is A) $236.83. B) $44,998.10. C) less than $63.16. D) at least $300.00. 17) Baggins Incorporated identifies new product development and product improvement as the top corporate goals. An employee developed an innovation that will correct a shortcoming in one of the company's products. Although Baggins current Return on Investment (ROI) is 15%, the product innovation is expected to generate ROI of only 12%. As a result, the employee fails to follow up. As a result, awarding bonuses to employees based on ROI resulted in A) goal conflict. B) information overload. C) goal congruence. D) decreased value of information. 18) Which of the following tradeoffs between characteristics of useful information is least objectionable? A) incomplete information received on a timely basis B) irrelevant information received in an understandable format C) unreliable information easily accessible D) verifiable information received in unreadable format 19) Which of the following is not one of the three basic types of data about a specific sales transaction that should be captured by an Accounting Information System? A) name of the employee who completed the sale B) daily sales quota C) product sold D) date 1.2 Explain the decisions an organization makes and the information needed to make them. 1) Paid time-off policies, job descriptions, and procedures manuals are examples of information needed to support key decisions in what business process? A) hire and train employees B) acquire inventory C) sell merchandise D) collect payment from customers 2) Before a firm can identify the information needed to effectively manage a process, the firm must A) understand the process . B) hire programmers. C) purchase computers and/or workstations. D) obtain internet access. 3) Identify the piece of information below that is typically needed to acquire a building. A) job descriptions B) vendor performance C) market coverage D) capacity needs 4) Identify the piece of information below that is typically needed to acquire inventory. A) job descriptions B) vendor performance C) market coverage D) capacity needs 5) Identify the piece of information below that is typically needed to hire and train employees. A) job descriptions B) vendor performance C) market coverage D) capacity needs 6) How can query languages be used to help make better decisions? A) They can suggest a course of action. B) They can gather relevant data for decision making. C) They can help the decision maker to interpret results. D) They can model choose among alternative courses of action. 7) What is a key decision that needs to be made with regards to selling merchandise? A) which credit cards to accept B) which employees to hire C) which public accounting firm to employ D) how much capital to acquire 8) What is a key decision that needs to be made with regards to acquiring inventory? A) which credit cards to accept B) which employees to hire C) which vendors to use D) how much capital to acquire 9) What is a key decision that needs to be made with regards to acquiring equipment? A) the location B) pro forma income statement C) how much capital to acquire D) job descriptions 1.3 Identify the information that passes between internal and external parties and an AIS. 1) One group that relies on both the adequate collection and transformation of data for decision-making purposes for an organization is A) management. B) interested outsiders. C) competitors. D) the government. 2) Who of the following is not a stakeholder with whom an accounting information system typically communicates directly? A) Wall Street industry analyst B) venture capitalist C) company that supplies raw materials D) company that purchases finished goods for resale to consumers 3) In which transaction cycle would customer sales transaction information be most likely to pass between internal and external accounting information systems? A) the revenue cycle B) the expenditure cycle C) the human resources / payroll cycle D) the financing cycle 4) In which transaction cycle would information for inventory purchases be most likely to pass between internal and external accounting information systems? A) the revenue cycle B) the expenditure cycle C) the human resources / payroll cycle D) the financing cycle 5) In which transaction cycle would information for paying employees be most likely to pass between internal and external accounting information systems? A) the revenue cycle B) the expenditure cycle C) the human resources / payroll cycle D) the financing cycle 6) In which transaction cycle would information for paying interest be most likely to pass between internal and external accounting information systems? A) the revenue cycle B) the expenditure cycle C) the human resources / payroll cycle D) the financing cycle 7) In which transaction cycle would information for borrowing money be most likely to pass between internal and external accounting information systems? A) the revenue cycle B) the expenditure cycle C) the human resources / payroll cycle D) the financing cycle 8) In which transaction cycle would information for hiring employees be most likely to pass between internal and external accounting information systems? A) the revenue cycle B) the expenditure cycle C) the human resources / payroll cycle D) the financing cycle 9) Identify the party below that is not external to the firm. A) customer B) vendor C) government agencies D) CEO 10) Identify the party below that is not internal to the firm. A) customer B) management C) employees D) CEO 1.4 Describe the major business processes present in most companies. 1) Obtaining financing from outside investors is part of which cycle? A) the revenue cycle B) the financing cycle C) the production cycle D) the payroll cycle 2) The is not a transaction cycle. A) general ledger and reporting cycle B) expenditure cycle C) revenue cycle D) human resources cycle 3) Identify the false statement below. A) Retail stores do not have a production cycle. B) Financial institutions have installment-loan cycles. C) Every organization should implement every transaction cycle module. D) A service company does not have an inventory system. 4) Transaction cycles can be summarized on a high level as "give-get" transactions. An example of "give-get" in the revenue cycle would be A) give cash, get goods. B) give goods, get cash. C) give cash, get labor. D) give cash, get cash. 5) Groups of related business activities such as the acquisition of merchandise and payment of vendors are called A) transaction cycles. B) economic cycles. C) business events. D) transactions. 6) The transaction cycle that includes the events of hiring employees and paying them is known as the A) revenue cycle. B) expenditure cycle. C) human resources cycle. D) financing cycle. 7) The transaction cycle approach yields efficiencies when processing of a large number of transactions because A) a large number of transactions within a given cycle can be categorized into a relatively small number of distinct types. B) transaction cycles are easier to computerize. C) the transaction cycle approach represents the natural order of business. D) transaction cycles are easy to understand. 8) Paying state payroll taxes is part of which transaction cycle? A) human resources/payroll B) expenditure C) financing D) revenue 9) Who of the following would not be involved in the revenue cycle? A) accounts payable clerk B) customer C) cashier D) credit manager 1.5 Explain what an accounting information system (AIS) is and describe its basic functions. 1) An accounting information system must be able to perform which of the following tasks? A) collect transaction data B) process transaction data C) provide adequate controls D) all of the above 2) Which of the following is not an example of a common activity in an AIS? A) buy and pay for goods and services B) sell goods and services and collect cash C) summarize and report results to interested parties D) record sales calls for marketing purposes 3) Which of the following is not one of the components of an AIS? A) internal controls and security measures B) people C) procedures and instructions D) hardware 4) The primary objective of accounting is to A) implement strong internal controls. B) provide useful information to decision makers. C) prepare financial statements. D) ensure the profitability of an organization. 5) Many modern accounting software packages offer separate transaction cycle modules. What is the reason for this? A) Every organization does not need to implement all of the available transaction cycle modules. B) Most businesses do not need the revenue cycle module as part of their AIS. C) The nature of a given transaction cycle is the same irrespective of the type of organization. D) A properly designed AIS does not use the concept of separate business transaction cycles to process transactions. 1.6 Discuss how an AIS can add value to an organization. 1) The American Institute of Certified Public Accountants (AICPA) has recognized the importance of AIS and the major impact information technology has on the area of accounting. To recognize individual CPAs who have met educational and experiential requirements in this area, the group formally created the designation known as A) the Certified Information Auditor. B) the Certified Internal Auditor. C) the Certified Information Technology Professional. D) the Certified Data Processing Professional. 2) The AIS must include controls to ensure A) safety and availability of data. B) marketing initiatives match corporate goals. C) information produced from data is accurate. D) both A and C 3) An AIS provides value by A) improving products or services through information that increases quality and reduces costs. B) providing timely and reliable information to decision makers. C) creating new products. D) both A and B 4) A good example of how an AIS is used to share knowledge within an organization is A) the use of a corporate database to help staff identify the relevant experts who can help with a particular client. B) the use of tablets to access a network for messaging worldwide. C) the monitoring of production equipment to watch for defects. D) the use of point-of-sale data to determine hot-selling items. 5) When the AIS provides information in a timely and accurate manner, it stands as an example of A) improved decision making. B) improving the quality and reducing the costs of products or services. C) improving efficiency. D) all of the above 6) Accounting information plays major roles in managerial decision making by A) identifying situations requiring management action. B) reducing uncertainty. C) providing a basis for choosing among alternative actions. D) all of the above 7) A well-designed AIS can improve the decision making in an organization. Identify the statement below that describes a situation where an AIS may actually inhibit effective decision making. A) An AIS provides to its users an abundance of information without any filtering or condensing of such information. B) An AIS identifies situations requiring management action. C) An AIS reduces uncertainty, and therefore accounting information can provide a basis for choosing among alternative courses of action. D) An AIS provides information about the results of previous decisions which provides decision makers with feedback that can be used in future decision making. 8) Which of the following is not an example of how an AIS adds value to an organization? A) All employees at a hospital can access and update patient records from any computer terminal in the hospital. B) A customer service representative can find a customer's account data, purchase history, payment history, and salesperson's name while on the phone with the customer, to resolve issues quickly. C) Suppliers are able to access sales data directly from the point-of-sale system of a retailer and deliver inventory automatically when needed. D) Client tax files are encrypted and made available on the CPA firm's network to any employee with an access code. 1.7 Explain how an AIS and corporate strategy affect each other. 1) A change in the AIS that makes information more easily accessible and widely available within an organization is most likely to first influence the A) organizational culture. B) customer base. C) external financial statement users. D) production activity. 2) In Chapter 1, Figure 1-4 shows the factors that influence the design of AIS. The diagram shows a bi-directional arrow between the organizational culture and the AIS. The reason for this two-way interchange between organizational culture and AIS is A) that the AIS should not influence the values of the organizational culture. B) because the organization's culture influences the AIS, and likewise the AIS influences the organization's culture by controlling the flow of information within the organization. C) due to the transfer of managers between the two corporate elements. D) the AIS impacts the organization's key strategies. 3) Which of the following is a true statement? A) Business strategy directly influences AIS, but not information technology. B) Information technology directly influences organizational culture, but not business strategy. C) Organizational culture directly influences business strategy, but not AIS. D) AIS directly influences information technology, but not business strategy. 5) Identify the primary reason that it is important for a firm to identify the AIS improvements likely to yield the greatest return. A) because business strategy directly influences AIS, but not information technology B) because most organizations have limited resources C) because a firm never wants to waste time addressing issues that are not urgent D) because it is expensive to improve accounting information systems 6) An AIS that makes information more easily accessible and more widely available is likely to increase pressure for A) centralization and defined procedures. B) centralization and autonomy. C) decentralization and defined procedures. D) decentralization and autonomy. 7) Identify how firms use predictive analysis. A) to provide an educated guess regarding what is expected to occur in the near future B) to engage in data warehousing C) to engage in a low-cost strategy D) to design the most effective accounting information system 8) Identify a recent technological advance that provides an opportunity to gain a competitive advantage. A) CVVP analysis B) discounted cash flows C) predictive analysis D) economic order quantity (EOQ) 1.8 Explain the role an AIS plays in a company's value chain. 1) The process of creating value for customers is the result of nine activities that form a A) value chain. B) capitalist operation. C) profitable business. D) information system. 2) The value chain concept is composed of two types of activities known as A) primary and support. B) primary and secondary. C) support and value. D) technology and support. 3) Which of the following is a primary activity in the value chain? A) infrastructure B) technology C) purchasing D) marketing and sales 4) Arranging delivery of products to customers constitutes in value chain analysis. A) shipping B) inbound logistics C) outbound logistics D) delivery 5) are examples of activities that constitute inbound logistics A) Activities that transform inputs into final products or services B) Activities that consist of receiving, storing, and distributing the materials used as inputs by the organization to create goods and/or services it sells C) Activities that provide post-sale support to customers D) Activities that help customers to buy the organization's products or services 6) One activity within the value chain is research and development. This activity can be identified as a A) firm infrastructure activity. B) human resources activity. C) technology activity. D) purchasing activity. 7) Clemente Santiago has formed a business that sells carved gourmet coconuts. He has hired five employees. The most senior is Friday, who manages the carving process. Monday is the newest employee. She collects the coconuts. Tuesday takes calls from unhappy customers. Wednesday tosses finished coconuts into the sea, sending them to the wholesaler. Thursday sends smoke signals to the wholesaler extolling the virtues of the latest production run of nuts that are drifting across the bay. Which of the following functions in the value chain is Monday performing? A) Inbound logistics B) Operations C) Outbound logistics D) Marketing and sales E) Service 8) Clemente Santiago has formed a business that sells carved gourmet coconuts. He has hired five employees. The most senior is Friday, who manages the carving process. Monday is the newest employee. She collects the coconuts. Tuesday takes calls from unhappy customers. Wednesday tosses finished coconuts into the sea, sending them to the wholesaler. Thursday sends smoke signals to the wholesaler extolling the virtues of the latest production run of nuts that are drifting across the bay. Which of the following functions in the value chain is Friday performing? A) Inbound logistics B) Operations C) Outbound logistics D) Marketing and sales E) Service 9) Clemente Santiago has formed a business that sells carved gourmet coconuts. He has hired five employees. The most senior is Friday, who manages the carving process. Monday is the newest employee. She collects the coconuts. Tuesday takes calls from unhappy customers. Wednesday tosses finished coconuts into the sea, sending them to the wholesaler. Thursday sends smoke signals to the wholesaler extolling the virtues of the latest production run of nuts that are drifting across the bay. Which of the following functions in the value chain is Wednesday performing? A) Inbound logistics B) Operations C) Outbound logistics D) Marketing and sales E) Service 10) Clemente Santiago has formed a business that sells carved gourmet coconuts. He has hired five employees. The most senior is Friday, who manages the carving process. Monday is the newest employee. She collects the coconuts. Tuesday takes calls from unhappy customers. Wednesday tosses finished coconuts into the sea, sending them to the wholesaler. Thursday sends smoke signals to the wholesaler extolling the virtues of the latest production run of nuts that are drifting across the bay. Which of the following functions in the value chain is Thursday performing? A) Inbound logistics B) Operations C) Outbound logistics D) Marketing and sales E) Service 11) Clemente Santiago has formed a business that sells carved gourmet coconuts. He has hired five employees. The most senior is Friday, who manages the carving process. Monday is the newest employee. She collects the coconuts. Tuesday takes calls from unhappy customers. Wednesday tosses finished coconuts into the sea, sending them to the wholesaler. Thursday sends smoke signals to the wholesaler extolling the virtues of the latest production run of nuts that are drifting across the bay. Which of the following functions in the value chain is Tuesday performing? A) Inbound logistics B) Operations C) Outbound logistics D) Marketing and sales E) Service Answer: E Chapter 2 Overview of Transaction Processing and Enterprise Resource Planning Systems 2.1 Describe the four parts of the data processing cycle and the major activities in each. 1) Which of the following commonly initiates the data input process? A) a business activity B) automatic batch processing C) an accounting department source document D) a trial balance query 2) A typical source document could be A) some type of paper document. B) a computer data entry screen. C) the company's financial statements. D) both A and B 3) Which step below is not considered to be part of the data processing cycle? A) data input B) feedback from external sources C) data storage D) data processing 4) John Pablo works in the accounting department of a multinational manufacturing company. His job includes updating accounts receivable based on sales orders and remittance advices. His responsibilities are part of the company's A) revenue cycle. B) expenditure cycle. C) financing cycle. D) production cycle. 5) John Pablo works in the accounting department of a multinational manufacturing company. His job includes updating accounts payable based on purchase orders and checks. His responsibilities are part of the company's A) revenue cycle. B) expenditure cycle. C) financing cycle. D) production cycle. 6) Many small businesses choose to outsource their payroll activities to firms that specialize in providing payroll services. Dolores Yu operates a payroll processing business in Calabasas, California. When she sends bills out to her clients, her work is part of her firm's A) revenue cycle. B) expenditure cycle. C) financing cycle. D) production cycle. 7) A delivery of inventory from a vendor, with whom a credit line is already established, would be initially recorded in which type of accounting record and as part of what transaction cycle? A) purchases journal; expenditure cycle B) general journal; expenditure cycle C) general ledger; expenditure cycle D) cash disbursements journal; production cycle 9) Identify the four parts of the transaction processing cycle. A) data input, data storage, data processing, information output B) data input, data recall, data processing, information output C) data input, data recall, data transmission, information output D) data input, data recall, data transmission, data storage 10) What is the most frequent revenue cycle transaction? A) purchase of inventory B) receipt of cash C) sale to customer D) billing 12) Identify the item below that is not one of the four different types of data processing activities. A) creating B) reading C) using D) deleting 13) What is the final step in the data processing cycle? A) output B) storage C) processing D) input 2.2 Describe documents and procedures used to collect and process transaction data. 1) The general ledger A) is the initial place to record general expenses. B) is posted in total to the general journal. C) only includes balance sheet accounts. D) summarizes the transactions in journals. 2) For a retail business, a delivery of inventory, from a vendor (with whom there is an established credit relationship) would be initially recorded in which type of accounting record as part of which transaction cycle? A) purchases journal; expenditure cycle B) general journal; expenditure cycle C) general ledger; expenditure cycle D) cash disbursements journal; production cycle 3) Data must be collected about three facets of each business activity. What are they? A) the business activity, the resources it affects, the people who participate B) the business activity, the transactions it creates, the impact on the financial statements C) the inputs, outputs and processes used D) who is involved, what was sold, how much was paid 4) Issuing a purchase order is part of which transaction cycle? A) the revenue cycle B) the expenditure cycle C) the human resources cycle D) the production cycle 5) The collection of employee time sheets is part of which transaction cycle? A) the revenue cycle B) the production cycle C) the human resources cycle D) the expenditure cycle 6) Common source documents for the revenue cycle include all of the following except A) sales order. B) receiving report. C) delivery ticket. D) credit memo. 7) Which of the following documents would be found in the expenditure cycle? A) delivery ticket B) time card C) credit memo D) purchase order 8) Documents that are sent to customers or suppliers and then sent back to the company in the course of a business transaction are known as A) turnaround documents. B) source documents. C) input documents. D) transaction documents. 9) Which of the following is an example of source data automation? A) a utility bill B) POS (point-of-sale) scanners in retail stores C) a bill of lading D) a subsidiary ledger 10) Pre-numbering of source documents helps to verify that A) documents have been used in order. B) company policies were followed. C) all transactions have been recorded. D) source data automation was used to capture data. 11) Source documents generally help to improve accuracy in transaction processing because A) they specify which information to collect. B) logically related data can be grouped in the same area of the document. C) they provide directions and steps for completing the form. D) All of the above are correct. 12) In transaction processing, generally which activity comes first? A) recording data in a journal B) posting items to special journals C) capturing data on source documents D) recording data in a general ledger 13) Which of the following statements is true? A) Batch processing ensures that stored information is always current. B) Batch input is more accurate than on-line data entry. C) On-line batch processing is a combination of real-time and batch processing. D) Batch processing is not frequently used. 14) The data processing method used by FedEx to track packages is an example of A) real-time processing. B) batch processing. C) online batch processing. D) real-time batch processing. 15) Street Smarts (SS) is a retailer located in Naperville, Illinois. During the peak tourist season, it has average daily cash and credit card sales in excess of $7,000. What is the best way for SS to ensure that sales data entry is efficient and accurate? A) well-designed paper forms B) source data automation C) turnaround documents D) sequentially numbered sales invoices 16) In Petaluma, California, electric power is provided to consumers by Pacific Power. Each month Pacific Power mails bills to 86,000 households and then processes payments as they are received. What is the best way for this business to ensure that payment data entry is efficient and accurate? A) well-designed paper forms B) source data automation C) turnaround documents D) sequentially numbered bills 17) Data processing includes all of the following except A) verifying subsidiary ledger balances. B) changing customer addresses. C) removing inventory items no longer offered. D) adding the name of a new vendor. 18) The Cape Fear Rocket Club heads out to the dunes of Cape Fear, Oregon every August to pierce the sky with their fiery projectiles. An enterprising seller of t-shirts has devised a series of designs that capture the spirit of the event in silk-screened splendor. His employees can be found on many of the major intersections selling his products out of the backs of pickup trucks. What is the best way for this business to ensure that sales data entry is efficient and accurate? A) well-designed paper forms B) source data automation C) turnaround documents D) sequentially numbered forms 19) Which of the following statements about data processing methods is true? A) Online real-time processing does not store data in a temporary file. B) Batch processing cannot be used to update a master file. C) Control totals are used to verify accurate processing in both batch and online batch processing. D) Online real-time processing is only possible with source data automation. 22) Source data automation refers to A) using devices to capture transaction data in machine-readable form at the time the transaction is initiated. B) using the internet as the operating platform of an accounting information system. C) using an accounting information system to electronically bill customers. D) using an accounting information system to automate a previously manual transaction process. 23) What is the first step in the data processing cycle? A) input B) output C) storage D) purchasing 24) A purchase requisition is a common source document used to facilitate which business activity? A) customer sale B) receipt of goods C) inventory purchase D) purchase request 2.3 Describe the ways information is stored in computer-based information systems. 1) Identify the statement below that is not true with regards to the accounts receivable subsidiary ledger. A) Every credit sale is entered individually into the subsidiary ledger. B) Debits and credits in the subsidiary ledger must always equal. C) The subsidiary ledgers play an important role in maintaining the accuracy of the data stored in the AIS. D) The total of the subsidiary ledgers must equal the control account. 2) Which of the following is not usually a consideration when designing a coding system? A) government coding regulations B) standardization C) future expansion needs D) ease of reporting 3) Which of the following statements regarding special journals is not true? A) The balances in a special journal must always reconcile to the general ledger. B) Special journals are used to record large numbers of repetitive transactions. C) Special journals are periodically summarized and posted to the general ledger. D) Special journals provide a specialized format for recording similar transactions. 4) A change in an employee's hourly pay would be recorded in A) the payroll master file. B) a payroll transaction file. C) the employee master file. D) the employee transaction file. 5) When the sum of all entries in the subsidiary ledger equals the balance in the corresponding general ledger account, it is assumed that A) the recording processes were accurate. B) all source documents were recorded. C) adjusting entries are not required. D) no errors exist in the subsidiary ledger. 6) The general ledger account that corresponds to a subsidiary ledger account is known as a(n) A) dependent account. B) control account. C) credit account. D) attribute account. 7) Pre-numbered invoices and pre-numbered purchase orders are examples of A) sequence codes. B) block codes. C) group codes. D) mnemonic codes. 8) A chart of accounts is an example of (select all that apply) A) sequence codes. B) block codes. C) group codes. D) mnemonic codes. , C 9) Product items are often coded with (select all that apply) A) sequence codes. B) block codes. C) group codes. D) mnemonic codes. , D 10) Identify the statement below that is false with regards to effective coding practices. A) Codes should allow for growth. B) Codes should be consistent with intended use. C) Codes should be customized for each division of an organization. D) Codes should be as simple as possible. 11) To be effective, the chart of accounts must A) not use alpha-numeric characters. B) contain sufficient detail. C) utilize only one coding technique. D) begin with account 001. 12) The chart of accounts of a movie theater would probably include A) retained earnings. B) a drawing account. C) work-in-process. D) both A and C 13) The efficiency of recording numerous business transactions can be best improved by the use of A) prenumbered source documents. B) specialized journals. C) posting references. D) subsidiary ledgers. 14) A general journal A) would be used to record monthly depreciation entries. B) simplifies the process of recording large numbers of repetitive transactions. C) records all detailed data for any general ledger account that has individual sub-accounts. D) contains summary-level data for every account of the organization. 15) The general ledger A) is used to record infrequent or non-routine transactions. B) simplifies the process of recording large numbers of repetitive transactions. C) records all detailed data for any general ledger account that has individual sub-accounts. D) contains summary-level data for every account of the organization. 16) A subsidiary ledger A) is used to record infrequent or non-routine transactions. B) simplifies the process of recording large numbers of repetitive transactions. C) records all detailed data for any general ledger account that has individual sub-accounts. D) contains summary-level data for every account of the organization. 17) A specialized journal A) is used to record infrequent or non-routine transactions. B) simplifies the process of recording large numbers of repetitive transactions. C) records all detailed data for any general ledger account that has individual sub-accounts. D) contains summary-level data for every account of the organization. 18) Which statement below is true with regards to an audit trail? A) An audit trail begins with the general journal. B) An audit trail provides the means to check the accuracy and validity of ledger postings. C) An audit trail is a summary of recorded transactions. D) An audit trail is automatically created in every computer-based information system. 19) Which of the following statements about a master file is false? A) A master file is conceptually similar to a ledger in a manual AIS. B) A master file's individual records are rarely, if ever, changed. C) A master file exists across fiscal periods. D) A master file stores cumulative information. 20) Which of the following is conceptually similar to a journal in a manual AIS? A) database B) master file C) record D) transaction file 21) Catarina Boards is a skateboard retailer located in Pueblo, New Mexico. Catarina Boards is a sole proprietorship that stocks an inventory of between 30 and 50 different skateboards. Inventory is updated in real time by the AIS. If Catarina wishes to keep detailed information about the purchase price of each skateboard in a place outside of the general ledger, it might use a A) relational ledger. B) transaction file. C) master file. D) specific ledger. 22) Antia Carmie is the largest collector and retailer of Japanese fans in the St. Louis area. Antia uses computer technology to provide superior customer service. The store's database system was designed to make detailed information about each Japanese fan easily accessible to her customers. Accordingly, the fan price and condition are provided for each fan, along with many pictures of each fan. In Antia's database, the price of the Japanese fans is a(n) A) entity. B) attribute. C) field. D) record. 23) Antia Carmie is the largest collector and retailer of Japanese fans in the St. Louis area. Antia uses computer technology to provide superior customer service. The store's database system was designed to make detailed information about each Japanese fan easily accessible to her customers. Accordingly, the fan price and condition are provided for each fan, along with many pictures of each fan. In Antia's database, the data about each Japanese fan represents a(n) A) entity. B) attribute. C) field. D) record. 24) Antia Carmie is the largest collector and retailer of Japanese fans in the St. Louis area. Antia uses computer technology to provide superior customer service. The store's database system was designed to make detailed information about each Japanese fan easily accessible to her customers. Accordingly, the fan price and condition are provided for each fan, along with many pictures of each fan. In Antia's database, the Japanese fans (as a whole) represent a(n) A) entity. B) attribute. C) field. D) record. 25) Antia Carmie is the largest collector and retailer of Japanese fans in the St. Louis area. Antia uses computer technology to provide superior customer service. The store's database system was designed to make detailed information about each Japanese fan easily accessible to her customers. Accordingly, the fan price and condition are provided for each fan, along with many pictures of each fan. In Antia's database, the data about each Japanese fan's price is stored in a(n) A) entity. B) attribute. C) field. D) record. 26) The coding technique most likely used for sales orders is A) block code. B) group code. C) sequence code. D) data code. 27) A specialized journal would be most likely to be used to enter A) sales transactions. B) monthly depreciation adjustments. C) annual closing entries. D) stock issuance transactions. 28) Changing an employee's hourly wage rate would be recorded where? A) employee master file B) employee transaction file C) special journal D) employee update file 29) Which of the following statements is not correct? A) The audit trail is intended to verify the validity and accuracy of transaction recording. B) The audit trail consists of records stored sequentially in an audit file. C) The audit trail provides the means for locating and examining source documents. D) The audit trail is created with document numbers and posting references. 30) Data about which of the following facets of a business activity is most likely to be recorded in a transaction file? A) business activity B) resources affected by the business activity C) people who participate in the business activity D) place the business activity occurs 31) Data about all of the following facets of a business activity are most likely to be recorded in a master file except the A) business activity. B) resources affected by the business activity. C) people who participate in the business activity. D) place the business activity occurs. 2.4 Discuss the types of information that an AIS can provide. 1) Which statement below regarding the AIS is false? A) The AIS must be able to provide managers with detailed and operational information about the organization's performance. B) Both traditional financial measures and operational data are required for proper and complete evaluation of performance. C) The AIS was often just one of the information systems used by an organization to collect and process financial and nonfinancial data. D) Traditionally, most AIS have been designed so that both financial and operational data are stored in a manner that facilitates their integration in reports. 2) The quality assurance department at a large manufacturing business enters data into the AIS that is used to produce a weekly report that summarizes the proportion of defective units in each product line. This is an example of A) internal financial information. B) internal nonfinancial information. C) external financial information. D) external nonfinancial information. 3) Which of the following information would most likely be reviewed by management on an exception report? A) monthly cash budget B) quality control system failures C) unit sales by territory and salesperson D) income statement 4) All of the following situations would likely be communicated in an exception report except A) production stoppages. B) weekly credit and cash sales comparison. C) low inventory level. D) expense variances outside acceptable range. 5) Which statement below regarding the AIS and managerial reports is false? A) The AIS is best utilized for financial data while the management information system is best utilized for operational data. B) The AIS must be able to provide managers with detailed operational information about the organization's performance. C) Both financial and nonfinancial data are required for proper and complete evaluation of organizational performance. D) Most source documents capture both financial and nonfinancial data about business transactions. 7) The existence of multiple systems which provide information can result in all of the following except A) redundancies. B) discrepancies. C) integration issues. D) efficiency. 8) When printed on paper, data output is referred to as A) reports. B) hard copy. C) soft copy. D) financials. 9) When displayed on a monitor, data output is referred to as A) reports. B) hard copy. C) soft copy. D) financials. 10) Identify the output below that an accounting information system can provide. A) income statement B) list of sales returns C) exception reports D) all of the above 2.5 Discuss how organizations use enterprise resource planning (ERP) systems to process transactions and provide information. 1) Which of the following is an example of an ERP system? A) Alexis uses a computerized information system to keep track of all the financial data generated by her bakery. She is considering opening a new bakery on the east side of town. B) Betty has a system that keeps track of the accounts payable and receivable for her plumbing business. At the end of the year, the system helps her to prepare her taxes in just two hours. C) Charlie keeps records of all his business records in a shoe box. Each week he enters all of the data into spreadsheets that automatically generate purchase orders, based on predetermined inventory reorder points. Production quotas for the coming week are also automatically generated based on customer orders. D) Doug is a freelance photographer. He keeps records of all expenses and revenues on his cell phone and then e-mails them to himself every month. The files are stored on his personal computer and backed up to CD quarterly. 2) In an ERP system, the module used to record data about transactions in the revenue cycle is called A) order to cash. B) purchase to pay. C) financial. D) customer relationship management. 3) Implementation of an ERP system requires increased focus on all except which of the following controls? A) segregation of duties between custody, authorization, and recording B) data entry controls on validity and accuracy C) controls over access to data D) appropriate disposal of hard copy reports 5) ERP stands for A) enterprise resource planning. B) enterprise resource program. C) enterprise reporting program. D) none of the above 6) In an ERP system, the module used to record data about transactions in the disbursement cycle is called A) order to cash. B) purchase to pay. C) financial. D) customer relationship management. 7) In an ERP system, the module used to record data about transactions in the production cycle is called A) order to cash. B) purchase to pay. C) manufacturing. D) logistics. 8) In an ERP system, the module used to record marketing data is called A) marketing. B) advertising. C) customer relationship management. D) customer service. 9) All of the following are disadvantages of an ERP system except A) an ERP provides an integrated view of the organization's data. B) ERP software and hardware can cost midsized companies between $10 million and $20 million dollars. C) ERPs frequently cause organizations to change their business processes to standardized ones. D) ERPs are relatively complex. 10) All of the following are advantages of an ERP system except A) in an ERP, data input is captured or keyed once. B) ERPs permit management to gain greater visibility into every area of the enterprise. C) it takes considerable experience and training to use an ERP system effectively. D) ERPs permit manufacturing plants to receive new orders in real time. 11) All of the following are reasons that implementing a new ERP may fail except A) employees may resist using the ERP system. B) ERPs can take years to fully implement. C) employees may refuse to share sensitive information with different departments. D) ERPs may require procedures and reports to be standardized across business units. 12) All of the following are ERP vendors except A) Dell. B) SAP. C) Oracle. D) Microsoft. 13) An ERP system might facilitate the purchase of direct materials by all of the following except A) selecting the best supplier by comparing bids. B) preparing a purchase order when inventory falls to reorder point. C) routing a purchase order to a purchasing agent for approval. D) communicating a purchase order to a supplier. Chapter 5 Computer Fraud 5.1 Explain the threats faced by modern information systems. 1) Perhaps the most striking fact about natural disasters in relation to AIS controls is that A) many companies in one location can be seriously affected at one time by a disaster. B) losses are absolutely unpreventable. C) there are a large number of major disasters every year. D) disaster planning has largely been ignored in the literature. 2) Which of the following is the greatest risk to information systems and causes the greatest dollar losses? A) human errors and omissions B) physical threats such as natural disasters C) dishonest employees D) fraud and embezzlement 3) Identify the threat below that is not one of the four types of threats faced by accounting information systems. A) natural and political disasters B) software errors and equipment malfunctions C) unintentional acts D) system inefficiency 4) A power outage is an example of a(n) threat. A) natural and political disasters B) software errors and equipment malfunctions C) unintentional acts D) system inefficiency 5) Excessive heat is an example of a(n) threat. A) natural and political disasters B) software errors and equipment malfunctions C) unintentional acts D) system inefficiency 6) What was the first known cyber-attack intended to harm a real-world physical target? A) Sasser B) Stuxnet C) Michelangelo D) Doomsday 7) What agency did the United States create to use cyber weapons and to defend against cyber attacks? A) U.S. Cyber Command B) Department of Network Security C) Department of Cyber Defense D) Department of Technology Strategy 8) Which type of threat causes the greatest dollar losses? A) software errors and equipment malfunctions B) unintentional acts C) intentional acts D) system inefficiency 11) Logic errors are an example of which type of threat? A) natural and political disasters B) software errors and equipment malfunctions C) unintentional acts D) system inefficiency 5.2 Define fraud and describe both the different types of fraud and the process one follows to perpetuate a fraud. 1) Seble wants to open a floral shop in a downtown business district. She doesn't have funds enough to purchase inventory and pay six months'' rent up front. Seble approaches a good friend, Zhou, to discuss the possibility of Zhou investing funds and becoming a 25% partner in the business. After a lengthy discussion Zhou agrees to invest. Eight months later, Zhou and Seble have a major argument. In order for Zhou to sue Seble for fraud, all the following must be true except A) Zhou's decision to invest was primarily based on Seble's assertion that she had prior floral retail experience. B) Seble told Zhou she had worked at a floral shop for several years, when in fact she did not have any prior experience in floral retail. C) before Zhou invested, Seble prepared a detailed business plan and sales forecasts, and provided Zhou with copies. D) Zhou's 25% share of the business is worth substantially less than her initial investment. 2) Perpetrators do not typically A) attempt to return or pay back stolen amounts soon after the initial theft, but find they are unable to make full restitution. B) use trickery or lies to gain the confidence and trust of others at the organization they defraud. C) become bolder and more greedy the longer the theft remains undetected. D) begin to rely on stolen amounts as part of their income. 3) "Cooking the books" is typically accomplished by all the following except A) overstating inventory. B) accelerating recognition of revenue. C) inflating accounts payable. D) delaying recording of expenses. 4) SAS No. 99 / Au-C Section 240 requires that auditors A) plan audits based on an analysis of fraud risk. B) detect all material fraud. C) alert the Securities and Exchange Commission of any fraud detected. D) take all of the above actions. 5) Intentional or reckless conduct that results in materially misleading financial statements is called A) financial fraud. B) misstatement fraud. C) fraudulent financial reporting. D) audit failure fraud. 6) Which of the following is not an example of one of the basic types of fraud? A) While straightening the store at the end of the day, a shoe store employee finds and keeps an expensive pair of sunglasses left by a customer. B) An executive devised and implemented a plan to accelerate revenue recognition on a long- term contract, which will allow the company to forestall filing for bankruptcy. The executive does not own any stock, stock options or grants, and will not receive a bonus or perk because of the overstated revenue. C) A purchasing agent places a large order at higher-than-normal unit prices with a vendor that gave the agent tickets to several football games. D) A salesperson approves a large sales discount on an order from a company owned partially by the salesperson's sister. 9) All of the following are required for an act to be legally classified as fraudulent except A) a falsehood is made. B) about a material fact. C) to inflict pain. D) resulting in a financial loss. 10) Misappropriation of assets is a fraudulent act that involves A) dishonest conduct by those in power. B) misrepresenting facts to promote an investment. C) using computer technology to perpetrate. D) theft of company property. 5.3 Discuss who perpetrates fraud and why it occurs, including the pressures, opportunities, and rationalizations that are present in most frauds. 1) Lapping is best described as the process of A) applying cash receipts to a different customer's account in an attempt to conceal previous thefts of cash receipts. B) inflating bank balances by transferring money among different bank accounts. C) stealing small amounts of cash, many times over a period of time. D) increasing expenses to conceal that an asset was stolen. 2) Which of the following is not an example of the fraud triangle characteristic concerned with rationalization? A) revenge against the company B) intent to repay "borrowed" funds in the future C) sense of entitlement as compensation for receiving a lower than -average raise D) belief that the company won't suffer because an insurance company will reimburse losses 3) Insiders are frequently the ones who commit fraud because A) they are more dishonest than outsiders. B) they need money more than outsiders. C) they are less likely to get caught than outsiders. D) they know more about the system and its weaknesses than outsiders. 4) Which of the following is not a management characteristic that increases pressure to commit fraudulent financial reporting? A) close relationship with the current audit engagement partner and manager B) pay for performance incentives based on short-term performance measures C) high management and employee turnover D) highly optimistic earnings projections 5) Researchers have compared the psychological and demographic characteristics of white- collar criminals, violent criminals, and the general public. They found that A) few differences exist between white-collar criminals and the general public. B) white-collar criminals eventually become violent criminals. C) most white-collar criminals invest their illegal income rather than spend it. D) most white-collar criminals are older and not technologically proficient. 6) Identify the opportunity below that could enable an employee to commit fraud. A) An employee's spouse loses her job. B) An employee has a close association with suppliers or customers. C) An employee suddenly acquires lots of credit cards. D) An employee is upset that he was passed over for a promotion. 7) Which of the following is a financial pressure that could cause an employee to commit fraud? A) a feeling of not being appreciated B) failing to receive a deserved promotion C) believing that their pay is too low relative to others around them D) having a spouse injured in a car accident and in the hospital for several weeks 8) Which of the following fraudulent acts generally takes most time and effort? A) lapping accounts receivable B) selling stolen inventory to get cash C) stealing inventory from the warehouse D) creating false journal entries to overstate revenue 9) In many cases of fraud, the takes more time and effort than the . A) concealment; theft B) theft; concealment C) conversion; theft D) conversion; concealment 10) Which of the following is the best way to hide theft of assets? A) creating "cash" through the transfer of money between banks B) conversion of stolen assets into cash C) stealing cash from customer A and then using customer B's balance to pay customer A's accounts receivable D) charging the stolen asset to an expense account 11) Which fraud scheme involves stealing customer receipts and applying subsequent customer cash payments to cover the theft? A) kiting B) laundering C) lapping D) bogus expense 12) One fraudulent scheme covers up a theft by creating cash through the transfer of money between banks. This is known as A) lapping. B) misappropriation of assets. C) kiting. D) concealment. 13) Which characteristic of the fraud triangle often stems from a lack of internal controls within an organization? A) pressure B) opportunity C) rationalization D) concealment 14) Which situation below makes it easy for someone to commit a fraud? A) placing excessive trust in key employees B) inadequate staffing within the organization C) unclear company policies D) All of the above situations make it easy for someone to commit a fraud. 15) What is the most prevalent opportunity within most companies to commit fraud? A) lack of any internal controls B) failure to enforce the internal controls C) loopholes in the design of internal controls D) management's failure to believe employees would commit fraud 16) This component of the fraud triangle explains how perpetrators justify their (illegal) behavior. A) pressure B) rationalization C) concealment D) opportunity 17) The most efficient way to conceal asset misappropriation is to A) write-off a customer receivable as bad debt. B) alter monthly bank statements before reconciliation. C) alter monthly physical inventory counts to reconcile to perpetual inventory records. D) record phony payments to vendors. 5.4 Define computer fraud and discuss the different computer fraud classifications. 1) Which of the following is least likely to result in computer fraud? A) releasing data to unauthorized users B) allowing computer users to test software upgrades C) allowing computer operators full access to the computer room D) storing backup tapes in a location where they can be quickly accessed 2) How does the U.S. Justice Department define computer fraud? A) as any crime in which a computer is used B) as any act in which cash is stolen using a computer C) as an illegal act in which a computer is an integral part of the crime D) as an illegal act in which knowledge of computer technology is essential 3) Why is computer fraud often much more difficult to detect than other types of fraud? A) because massive fraud can be committed in only seconds, leaving little-to-no evidence B) because most perpetrators invest their illegal income rather than spend it, concealing key evidence C) because most computer criminals are older and more cunning than perpetrators of other types of fraud D) because perpetrators usually only steal very small amounts of money at a time, requiring a long period of time to pass before discovery 4) Why is computer fraud often more difficult to detect than other types of fraud? A) Rarely is cash stolen in computer fraud. B) The fraud may leave little or no evidence it ever happened. C) Computers provide more opportunities for fraud. D) Computer fraud perpetrators are just more clever than other types of criminals. 5) Why do many fraud cases go unreported and unprosecuted? A) Major fraud is a public relations nightmare. B) Fraud is difficult, costly, and time-consuming to investigate and prosecute. C) Law enforcement and the courts are often so busy with violent crimes that little time is left for fraud cases. D) all of the above 6) The fraud that requires the least computer knowledge or skill involves A) altering or falsifying source data. B) unauthorized use of computers. C) tampering with or copying software. D) forging documents like paychecks. 7) The simplest and most common way to commit a computer fraud is to A) alter computer input. B) alter computer output. C) modify the processing. D) corrupt the database. 8) Downloading a master list of customers and selling it to a competitor is an example of A) data fraud. B) output theft. C) download fraud. D) fraudulent financial reporting. 5.5 Explain how to prevent and detect computer fraud and abuse. 1) Most frauds are detected by A) external auditors. B) hotline tip. C) internal auditors. D) the police. 2) Which of the following will not reduce the likelihood of an occurrence of fraud? A) encryption of data and programs B) use of forensic accountants C) adequate insurance coverage D) required vacations and rotation of duties 3) On Tuesday morning, Chen Lee, Chief Information Officer at American Trading Corporation (ATC), got some bad news. The hard drive use to store system data backups was lost while it was being transported to an offsite storage location. Chen called a meeting of her technical staff to discuss the implications of the loss. Which of the following is most likely to relieve her concerns over the potential cost of the loss? A) ATC has a comprehensive disaster recovery plan. B) The hard drive was encrypted and password protected. C) The shipper has insurance that will reimburse ATC for the cost of the hard drive. D) ATC has a copy of the hard drive onsite, so a new copy for storage offsite can easily be prepared. 4) is a simple, yet effective, method for catching or preventing many types of employee fraud. A) Requiring all employees to take annual vacations B) Monitoring employee bank accounts and net worth C) Monitoring employee behavior using video cameras D) Explaining that fraud is illegal and will be severely punished to employees 9) Which of the following is not a way to make fraud less likely to occur? A) Adopt an organizational structure that minimizes the likelihood of fraud. B) Create an organizational culture that stresses integrity and commitment to ethical values. C) Create an audit trail so individual transactions can be traced. D) Effectively supervise employees. 10) Which of the following is not a way to reduce fraud losses? A) Conduct periodic external and internal audits. B) Maintain adequate insurance. C) Use software to monitor system activity. D) Store backup copies of program and data files. 11) Which of the following is not a way to improve fraud detection? A) Install fraud detection software. B) Implement a fraud hotline. C) Employ a computer security officer. D) Implement computer-based controls over input, processing, storage, and output activities. Chapter 6 Computer Fraud and Abuse Techniques 6.1 Compare and contrast computer attack and abuse tactics. 1) consists of the unauthorized copying of company data. A) Phishing B) Masquerading C) Data leakage D) Eavesdropping 2) Individuals who use telephone lines to commit fraud and other illegal acts are typically called A) phreakers. B) crackers. C) phishers. D) hackers. 3) What is a denial of service attack? A) A denial of service attack occurs when the perpetrator sends hundreds of messages from randomly generated false addresses, overloading an Internet service provider's e-mail server. B) A denial of service attack occurs when an e-mail message is sent through a re-mailer, who removes the message headers making the message anonymous, then resends the message to selected addresses. C) A denial of service attack occurs when a cracker enters a system through an idle modem, captures the PC attached to the modem, and then gains access to the network to which it is connected. D) A denial of service attack occurs when the perpetrator e-mails the same message to everyone on one or more Usenet newsgroups LISTSERV lists. 4) Gaining control of somebody's computer without their knowledge and using it to carry out illicit activities is known as A) hacking. B) sniffing. C) phreaking. D) hijacking. 5) Tapping into a communications line and then entering the system by accompanying a legitimate user without their knowledge is called A) superzapping. B) data leakage. C) hacking. D) piggybacking. 6) Which of the following is not a method of identity theft? A) scavenging B) phishing C) shoulder surfing D) phreaking 7) The deceptive method by which a perpetrator gains access to the system by pretending to be an authorized user is called A) cracking. B) masquerading. C) hacking. D) superzapping. 8) The unauthorized access to, or use of, a computer system is known as A) hacking. B) hijacking. C) phreaking. D) sniffing. 9) A fraud technique that slices off tiny amounts from many projects is called the technique. A) Trojan horse B) round down C) salami D) trap door 10) Data diddling is A) gaining unauthorized access to and use of computer systems, usually by means of a personal computer and a telecommunications network. B) unauthorized copying of company data such as computer files. C) unauthorized access to a system by the perpetrator pretending to be an authorized user. D) changing data before, during, or after it is entered into the system in order to delete, alter, or add key system data. 11) In the 1960s, techniques were developed that allowed individuals to fool the phone system into providing free access to long distance phone calls. The people who use these methods are referred to as A) phreakers. B) hackers. C) hijackers. D) superzappers. 12) During a routine audit, a review of cash receipts and related accounting entries revealed discrepancies. Upon further analysis, it was found that figures had been entered correctly and then subsequently changed, with the difference diverted to a fictitious customer account. This is an example of A) kiting. B) data diddling. C) data leakage. D) phreaking. 13) LOLer was chatting online with l33ter. "I can't believe how lame some people are! :) I can get into any system by checking out the company website to see how user names are defined and who is on the employee directory. Then, all it takes is brute force to find the password." LOLer is a , and the fraud he is describing is . A) hacker; social engineering B) phreaker; dumpster diving C) hacker; password cracking D) phreaker; the salami technique 14) After graduating from college with a communications degree, Rado Ionesco experienced some difficulty in finding full-time employment. He free-lanced during the summer as a writer and then started a blog in the fall. Shortly thereafter he was contacted by SitePromoter Incorporated, who offered to pay him to promote their clients in his blog. He set up several more blogs for this purpose and is now generating a reasonable level of income. He is engaged in A) splogging. B) Bluesnarfing. C) vishing. D) typosquatting. 15) Computers that are part of a botnet and are controlled by a bot herder are referred to as A) posers. B) zombies. C) botsquats. D) evil twins. 16) Wassim Masood has been the webmaster for Woori Finance only ten days when Woori's website was flooded with access attempts. Wassim shut down the site and only opened it to Web addresses which he specifically identified as legitimate. As a result, many of Woori's customers were unable to obtain loans, causing Woori to lose a significant amount of business. Woori Finance suffered from a A) denial-of-service attack. B) zero-day attack. C) malware attack. D) cyber-extortion attack. 17) Wassim Masood has been the webmaster for Woori Finance only ten days when he received an e-mail that threatened to shut down Woori's website unless Wassim wired payment to an account in South America. Wassim was concerned that Woori Finance would suffer huge losses if its website went down, so he wired money to the appropriate account. The author of the e-mail successfully committed A) a denial-of-service attack. B) Internet terrorism. C) hacking. D) cyber-extortion. 18) Wassim Masood works in the information technology department of TMV. On Monday morning, he arrived at work, scanned his identity card, and entered his code. At that moment, a lady in a delivery uniform came up behind Wassim with a bunch of boxes. Although Wassim held the door for the delivery lade, he later wondered if the delivery lady was engaged in A) pretexting. B) piggybacking. C) posing. D) spoofing. 20) Zeus is an example of a A) virus. B) worm. C) Trojan horse. D) war dialing. 21) Recall that students used Facebook and VKontakte to identify Russian money laundering mules. What fraud case did these students help foil? A) Zeus B) Trident Breach C) Nigerian Banking D) InfraGard 22) On the weekends, Thuy Nguyen climbs into her Toyota Camry and drives around the city of Las Vegas looking for unprotected wireless networks to exploit. Thuy is most likely engaging in A) snarfing. B) Wi-pilfering. C) war driving. D) data slurping. 23) Offering a free website, then charging the phone bills of the individuals who signed up for the free website is known as A) snarfing. B) web cramming. C) podpounding. D) e-scraping. 6.2 Explain how social engineering techniques are used to gain physical or logical access to computer resources. 1) Mircea Vasilescu maintains an online brokerage account. In early March, Mircea received an e-mail from the firm that explained that there had been a computer error and asked Mircea to call a phone number to verify his customer information. When Mircea called the number, a recording asked that he enter the code from the e-mail, his account number, and his social security number. After he did so, he was told that he would be connected with a customer service representative, but the connection was terminated. He contacted the brokerage company and was informed that they had not sent the e-mail. Mircea was a victim of A) Bluesnarfing. B) vishing. C) splogging. D) typosquatting. 2) When a computer criminal gains access to a system by searching through discarded records, this is referred to as A) data diddling. B) dumpster diving. C) eavesdropping. D) data squatting. 3) Jerry Schneider was able to amass operating manuals and enough technical data to steal $1 million of electronic equipment by A) scavenging. B) skimming. C) Internet auction fraud. D) cyber extortion. 4) Illegally obtaining and using confidential information about a person for economic gain is known as A) eavesdropping. B) identity theft. C) packet sniffing. D) piggybacking. 5) Which method of fraud is physical in its nature rather than electronic? A) cracking B) hacking C) eavesdropping D) scavenging 6) Which of the following is the easiest method for a computer criminal to steal output without ever being on the premises? A) dumpster diving B) use of a Trojan horse C) using a telescope to peer at paper reports D) electronic eavesdropping on computer monitors 7) Dimitri Ivanov is an accountant with PwC. The firm has a very strict policy of requiring all users to change their passwords every sixty days. In early March, Dimitri received an e-mail claiming that there had been an error updating his password and that provided a link to a website with instructions for re-updating his password. Something about the e-mail made Dimitri suspicious, so he called PwC's information technology department and found that the e-mail was fictitious. The e-mail was an example of A) social engineering. B) piggybacking. C) spamming. D) phishing. 8) It was late on a Friday afternoon when Makari Polzin got a call at the help desk for Taggart Transcontinental. A man with an edge of panic in his voice was on the phone. "I'm really in a bind and I sure hope that you can help me." He identified himself as John Galt from the Accounting Department. He told Makari that he had to work on a report that was due on Monday morning and that he had forgotten to bring a written copy of his new password home with him. Makari knew that Taggart's new password policy required that passwords be at least fifteen characters long, must contain letters and numbers, and must be changed every sixty days, had created problems. Consequently, Makari provided the password to John. The caller was not John Galt, and Makari was a victim of A) phreaking. B) war dialing. C) identity theft. D) social engineering. 9) Jim Chan decided to Christmas shop online. He linked to Amazon.com, found a perfect gift for his daughter, registered, and placed his order. It was only later that he noticed that the website's URL was actually Amazom.com. Jim was a victim of A) Bluesnarfing. B) splogging. C) vishing. D) typosquatting. 10) Mo Chauncey was arrested in Emporia, Kansas, on February 29, 2008, for running an online business that specialized in buying and reselling stolen credit card information. Mo was charged with A) typosquatting. B) carding. C) pharming. D) phishing. 11) Which of the following is not an example of social engineering? A) obtaining and using another person's Social Security number, credit card, or other confidential information B) creating phony websites with names and URL addresses very similar to legitimate websites in order to obtain confidential information or to distribute malware or viruses C) using e-mail to lure victims into revealing passwords or user IDs D) setting up a computer in a way that allows the user to use a neighbors unsecured wireless network 14) Which of the following is not a human trait social engineers take advantage of to entice people to reveal information they should keep confidential? A) compassion B) sloth C) sex Appeal D) authority 15) Which of the following websites likely poses the most fraud and security risk? A) your school's website B) a file sharing website C) a social media website D) your personal website 17) Pretexting is best described as a social engineering technique that uses A) text messages to gain sensitive information. B) an invented scenario to gain sensitive information. C) threat of physical force to gain sensitive information. D) impersonation of somebody you know to gain sensitive information. 18) On a Friday evening you use a bar's ATM to withdraw $50 from your bank account. However, as you complete your withdrawal, your card gets jammed in the ATM machine. The individual waiting in line behind you approaches you and suggests re-entering your PIN number. You do. However, your card remains jammed. You leave the bar to call your bank to report the incident. However, after you left the individual who offered to help you removed a sleeve he inserted in the ATM to jam your card. He now has your ATM card and PIN number. You just fell victim to a fraud. A) tabnapping B) Lebanese looping C) phishing D) pharming 6.3 Describe the different types of malware used to harm computers. 1) A part of a program that remains idle until a specified date or event activates it to cause havoc is called a A) virus. B) logic bomb. C) trap door. D) data diddle. 2) Spyware is A) software that tells the user if anyone is spying on his computer. B) software that monitors whether spies are looking at the computer. C) software that monitors computing habits and sends the data it gathers to someone else. D) none of the above 3) The unauthorized use of special program that bypass regular system controls to perform illegal acts is called A) a Trojan horse. B) a trap door. C) the salami technique. D) superzapping. 4) Computer fraud perpetrators that modify programs during systems development, allowing access into the system that bypasses normal system controls are using A) a Trojan horse. B) a trap door. C) the salami technique. D) superzapping. 5) A fraud technique that allows a perpetrator to bypass normal system controls and enter a secured system is called A) superzapping. B) data diddling. C) using a trap door. D) piggybacking. 6) A set of unauthorized computer instructions in an otherwise properly functioning program is known as a A) logic bomb. B) spyware. C) trap door. D) Trojan horse. 7) A is similar to a , except that it is a program rather than a code segment hidden in a host program. A) worm; virus B) Trojan horse; worm C) worm; Trojan horse D) virus; worm 8) Developers of computer systems often include a user name and password that is hidden in the system, just in case they need to get into the system and correct problems in the future. This is referred to as a A) Trojan horse. B) key logger. C) spoof. D) back door. 9) Narang Direct Sales is a telemarketing firm that operates out of India. The turnover rate among employees is quite high. Recently, the information technology manager discovered that an unknown employee had used a Bluetooth-enabled mobile phone to access the firm's database and copied a list of customers from the past three years and their credit card information. Narang Direct Sales was a victim of A) Bluesnarfing. B) splogging. C) vishing. D) typosquatting. 10) Rina Misra, a first-time computer user, purchased a brand new PC two months ago and it was now operating much more slowly and sluggishly. Since purchasing the computer, she had been accessing the Internet and had installed a variety of free software. The problem is mostly likely to be A) a zero-day attack. B) a virus. C) a spoof. D) Bluesnarfing. 11) In November of 2005 it was discovered that many of the new CDs distributed by Sony BMG installed software when they were played on a computer. The software was intended to protect the CDs from copying. Unfortunately, it also made the computer vulnerable to attack by malware run over the Internet. The scandal and resulting backlash was very costly. The software installed by the CDs is a A) virus. B) worm. C) rootkit. D) squirrel. 12) Which of the following would be least effective to reduce exposure to a computer virus? A) Only transfer files between employees with USB flash drives. B) Install and frequently update antivirus software. C) Install all new software on a stand-alone computer for until it is tested. D) Do not open e-mail attachments from unknown senders. 15) Spyware that pops banner ads on a monitor, then collects information about the users web-surfing and spending habits is an example of A) a Trojan horse B) scareware C) adware D) a keylogger 16) Ransomware often comes in the form of A) fake antivirus software. B) an e-mail that threatens to kidnap the reader unless a ransom is paid. C) free performance-maximizing software. D) free apps. 18) Terrorists often use because it is an effective way to transmit information and receive orders. A) steganography B) packet sniffers C) trap doors D) time bombs Chapter 7 Control and Accounting Information Systems 7.1 Explain basic control concepts and explain why computer control and security are important. 1) Why are threats to accounting information systems increasing? A) Many companies do not realize that data security is crucial to their survival. B) LANs and client/server systems are easier to control than centralized, mainframe systems. C) Many companies believe that protecting information is a strategic requirement. D) Computer control problems are often overestimated and overly emphasized by management. 2) A control procedure designed so that the employee that records cash received from customers does not also have access to the cash itself is an example of a(n) A) preventive control. B) detective control. C) corrective control. D) authorization control. 3) Identify the preventive control below. A) reconciling the bank statement to the cash control account B) approving customer credit prior to approving a sales order C) maintaining frequent backup records to prevent loss of data D) counting inventory on hand and comparing counts to the perpetual inventory records 4) According to The Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002, the audit committee of the board of directors is directly responsible for A) hiring and firing the external auditors. B) performing tests of the company's internal control structure. C) certifying the accuracy of the company's financial reporting process. D) overseeing day-to-day operations of the internal audit department. 5) Which of the following measures can protect a company from AIS threats? A) Take a proactive approach to eliminate threats. B) Detect threats that do occur. C) Correct and recover from threats that do occur. D) All of the above are proper measures for the accountant to take. 6) Internal control is often referred to as a(n) , because it permeates an organization's operating activities and is an integral part of management activities. A) event B) activity C) process D) system 7) Duplicate checking of calculations is an example of a control, and procedures to resubmit rejected transactions are an example of a control. A) corrective; detective B) detective; corrective C) preventive; corrective D) detective; preventive 8) Which type of control is associated with making sure an organization's control environment is stable? A) general B) application C) detective D) preventive 9) Which type of control prevents, detects, and corrects transaction errors and fraud? A) general B) application C) detective D) preventive 10) The primary purpose of the Foreign Corrupt Practices Act of 1977 was A) to require corporations to maintain a good system of internal control. B) to prevent the bribery of foreign officials by American companies. C) to require the reporting of any material fraud by a business. D) All of the above are required by the act. 11) Congress passed this federal law for the purpose of preventing financial statement fraud, to make financial reports more transparent and to strengthen the internal control of public companies. A) Foreign Corrupt Practices Act of 1977 B) The Securities Exchange Act of 1934 C) The Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002 D) The Control Provision of 1998 12) Which of the following was not an important change introduced by the Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002? A) new roles for audit committees B) new rules for auditors and management C) new rules for information systems development D) the creation of the Public Company Accounting Oversight Board 13) A(n) measures company progress by comparing actual performance to planned performance. A) boundary system B) diagnostic control system C) interactive control system D) internal control system 14) A(n) helps top-level managers with high-level activities that demand frequent and regular attention. A) boundary system B) diagnostic control system C) interactive control system D) internal control system 15) Which of the following is not a violation of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act (SOX)? The management at Oanez Dinnerware A) asked their auditors to make recommendations for the redesign of their information technology system and to aid in the implementation process. B) hired the manager from the external audit team as company CFO twelve months after the manager had worked on the audit. C) selected the company's Chief Financial Officer to chair the audit committee. D) did not mention to auditors that the company had experienced significant losses due to fraud during the past year. 16) The Sarbanes-Oxley Act (SOX) applies to A) all companies with gross annual revenues exceeding $500 million. B) publicly traded companies with gross annual revenues exceeding $500 million. C) all private and public companies incorporated in the United States. D) all publicly traded companies. 17) Irene Pacifica was relaxing after work with a colleague at a local watering hole. Well into her second martini, she began expressing her feelings about her company's budgeting practices. It seems that as a result of controls put in place by the company, her ability to creatively manage his department's activities have been curtailed. The level of control that the company is using in this case is a(n) A) boundary system. B) diagnostic control system. C) interactive control system. D) belief system. 18) Irene Pacifica was relaxing after work with a colleague at a local watering hole. Well into her second martini, she began expressing her feelings about her work environment. Recently, every employee of the firm was required to attend a sexual harassment workshop. The level of control that the company is using in this case is a(n) A) boundary system. B) diagnostic control system. C) interactive control system. D) belief system. 7.2 Compare and contrast the COBIT, COSO, and ERM control frameworks. 1) Which of the below is not a component of the COSO ERM? A) monitoring B) control environment C) risk assessment D) compliance with federal, state, or local laws 2) The COSO Enterprise Risk Management Integrated Framework stresses that A) risk management activities are an inherent part of all business operations and should be considered during strategy setting. B) effective risk management is comprised of just three interrelated components; internal environment, risk assessment, and control activities. C) risk management is the sole responsibility of top management. D) risk management policies, if enforced, guarantee achievement of corporate objectives. 3) Nolwenn Limited has been diligent in ensuring that their operations meet modern control standards. Recently, they have extended their control compliance system by incorporating policies and procedures that require the specification of company objectives, uncertainties associated with objectives, and contingency plans. Nolwenn Limited is transitioning from a to a control framework. A) COSO-Integrated Framework; COBIT B) COBIT; COSO-Integrated Framework C) COBIT; COSO-ERM D) COSO-Integrated Framework; COSO-ERM E) COSO-ERM; COBIT 6) How many principles are there in the 2013 updated COSO - Internal Control Framework? A) 5 B) 8 C) 17 D) 21 7) Why was the original 1992 COSO - Integrated Control framework updated in 2013? A) Congress required COSO to modernize. B) U.S. stock exchanges required more disclosure. C) to more effectively address technological advancements D) to comply with International accounting standards 8) Which internal control framework is widely accepted as the authority on internal controls? A) COBIT B) COSO Integrated Control C) COSO Enterprise Risk Management D) Sarbanes-Oxley Control Framework 9) Identify the statement below that is not true of the 2013 COSO Internal Control updated framework. A) It more efficiently deals with control implementation and documentation issues. B) It more effectively deals with control implementation and documentation issues. C) It provides users with more precise guidance. D) It adds many new examples to clarify the framework concepts. 10) Which of the following is not one of the five principles of COBIT5? A) meeting stakeholder needs B) covering the enterprise end-to-end C) enabling a holistic approach D) improving organization efficiency 11) The COBIT5 framework primarily relates to A) best practices and effective governance and management of private companies. B) best practices and effective governance and management of public companies. C) best practices and effective governance and management of information technology. D) best practices and effective governance and management of organizational assets. 12) Applying the COBIT5 framework, governance is the responsibility of A) internal audit. B) external audit. C) management. D) the board of directors. 13) Applying the COBIT5 framework, monitoring is the responsibility of A) the CEO. B) the CFO. C) the board of directors. D) all of the above 14) Why did COSO develop the Enterprise Risk Management framework? A) to improve the audit process B) to improve the risk management process C) to improve the financial reporting process D) to improve the manufacturing process 15) Which of the following is not a basic principle of the COSO ERM framework? A) Companies are formed to create value for society. B) Management must decide how much uncertainty it will accept to create value. C) Uncertainty results in risk. D) Uncertainty results in opportunity. 16) The largest differences between the COSO Integrated Control (IC) framework and the COSO Enterprise Risk Management (ERM) framework is A) IC is controls-based, while the ERM is risk-based. B) IC is risk-based, while ERM is controls-based. C) IC is required, while ERM is optional. D) IC is more applicable to international accounting standards, while ERM is more applicable to generally accepted accounting principles. 7.3 Describe the major elements in the internal environment of a company. 1) Rauol is a receptionist for The South American Paper Company, which has strict corporate policies on appropriate use of corporate resources. The first week of March, Rauol saw Jim (the branch manager) putting printer paper and toner into his briefcase on his way out the door. This situation best reflects a weakness in which aspect of internal environment, as discussed in the COSO Enterprise Risk Management Framework? A) integrity and ethical values B) risk management philosophy C) restrict access to assets D) methods of assigning authority and responsibility 2) Which of the following is not a factor of internal environment according to the COSO Enterprise Risk Management Framework? A) analyzing past financial performance and reporting B) providing sufficient resources to knowledgeable employees to carry out duties C) disciplining employees for violations of expected behavior D) setting realistic targets for long-term performance 3) The audit committee of the board of directors A) is usually chaired by the CFO. B) conducts testing of controls on behalf of the external auditors. C) provides a check and balance on management. D) does all of the above. 4) The definition of the lines of authority and responsibility and the overall framework for planning, directing, and controlling is laid out by the A) control activities. B) organizational structure. C) budget framework. D) internal environment. 5) Reducing management layers, creating self-directed work teams, and emphasizing continuous improvement are all related to which aspect of internal environment? A) organizational structure B) methods of assigning authority and responsibility C) management philosophy and operating style D) commitment to competence 6) Personnel policies such as background checks, mandatory vacations, and rotation of duties tend to deter A) unintentional errors. B) employee fraud or embezzlement. C) fraud by outsiders. D) disgruntled employees. 7) The SEC and FASB are best described as external influences that directly affect an organization's A) hiring practices. B) philosophy and operating style. C) internal environment. D) methods of assigning authority. 8) Which attribute below is not an aspect of the COSO ERM Framework internal environment? A) enforcing a written code of conduct B) holding employees accountable for achieving objectives C) restricting access to assets D) avoiding unrealistic expectations 9) The amount of risk a company is willing to accept in order to achieve its goals and objectives is A) inherent risk. B) residual risk. C) risk appetite. D) risk assessment. 7.4 Describe the four types of control objectives that companies need to set. 1) According to the ERM, these help the company address all applicable laws and regulations. A) compliance objectives B) operations objectives C) reporting objectives D) strategic objectives 2) According to the ERM, high level goals that are aligned with and support the company's mission are A) compliance objectives. B) operations objectives. C) reporting objectives. D) strategic objectives. 3) According to the ERM, deal with the effectiveness and efficiency of company operations, such as performance and profitability goals. A) compliance objectives B) operations objectives C) reporting objectives D) strategic objectives 4) objectives help ensure the accuracy, completeness and reliability of internal and external company reports, Applying the ERM framework. A) Compliance objectives B) Operations objectives C) Reporting objectives D) Strategic objectives 7.5 Describe the events that affect uncertainty and the techniques used to identify them. 2) Identify the most correct statement with regards to an event. A) An event identified by management will occur. B) An event identified by management may or may not occur. C) An event identified by management may not trigger other events. D) It is easy to determine which events are most likely to occur. 3) Which of the following is not a commonly used technique used to identify potential events? A) performing internal analysis B) monitoring leading events C) conducting interviews D) none of the above 7.6 Explain how to assess and respond to risk using the Enterprise Risk Management (ERM) model. 1) is not a risk responses identified in the COSO Enterprise Risk Management Framework. A) Acceptance B) Avoidance C) Monitoring D) Sharing 2) Best Friends, Incorporated is a publicly traded company where three BFF's (best friends forever) serve as its key officers. This situation A) is a violation of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act. B) violates the Securities and Exchange Act. C) increases the risk associated with an audit. D) must be changed before your audit firm could accept the audit engagement. 3) remains after management implements internal control(s). A) Inherent risk B) Residual risk C) Risk appetite D) Risk assessment 4) is the risk that exists before management takes any steps to mitigate it. A) Inherent risk B) Residual risk C) Risk appetite D) Risk assessment 5) How is expected loss calculated when performing risk assessment? A) impact times expected loss B) impact times likelihood C) inherent risk times likelihood D) residual risk times likelihood 6) The first step of the risk assessment process is generally to A) identify controls to reduce all risk to zero. B) estimate the exposure from negative events. C) identify the threats that the company currently faces. D) estimate the risk probability of negative events occurring. 7) Whitewater Rapids provides canoes to tourists eager to ride Whitewater River's rapids. Management has determined that there is one chance in a thousand of a customer being injured or killed. Settlement of resulting lawsuits has an average cost of $650,000. Insurance with a $50,000 deductible is available. It covers the costs of lawsuits, unless there is evidence of criminal negligence. What is the impact of this risk without insurance? A) $50 B) $650 C) $50,000 D) $650,000 8) Whitewater Rapids provides canoes to tourists eager to ride Whitewater river's rapids. Management has determined that there is one chance in a thousand of a customer being injured or killed. Settlement of resulting lawsuits has an average cost of $650,000. Insurance with a $50,000 deductible is available. It covers the costs of lawsuits, unless there is evidence of criminal negligence. What is the expected loss without insurance? A) $50 B) $650 C) $50,000 D) $650,000 9) Whitewater Rapids provides canoes to tourists eager to ride Whitewater river's rapids. Management has determined that there is one chance in a thousand of a customer being injured or killed. Settlement of resulting lawsuits has an average cost of $650,000. Insurance with a $50,000 deductible is available. It covers the costs of lawsuits, unless there is evidence of criminal negligence. What is the expected loss with insurance? A) $50 B) $650 C) $50,000 D) $650,000 10) Whitewater Rapids provides canoes to tourists eager to ride Whitewater river's rapids. Management has determined that there is one chance in a thousand of a customer being injured or killed. Settlement of resulting lawsuits has an average cost of $650,000. Insurance with a $50,000 deductible is available. It covers the costs of lawsuits, unless there is evidence of criminal negligence. Based on cost-benefit analysis, what is the most that the business should pay for the insurance? A) $50 B) $500 C) $600 D) $650 11) According to the COSO Enterprise Risk Management Framework, the risk assessment process incorporates all of the following components except A) reporting potential risks to auditors. B) identifying events that could impact the enterprise. C) evaluating the impact of potential events on achievement of objectives. D) establishing objectives for the enterprise. 12) As a result of an internal risk assessment, Allstate Insurance decided it was not profitable to provide hurricane insurance in the state of Florida. Allstate apparently chose to the risk of paying hurricane claims in Florida. A) reduce B) share C) avoid D) accept 13) Upon getting into your new car, you suddenly became worried that you might become injured in an auto accident. You decided to buckle your seat belt in response. You chose to the risk of being injured in an auto accident. A) reduce B) share C) avoid D) accept 14) Upon getting into your new car, you suddenly became worried that you might become injured in an auto accident. In response, you decided to drive 5 miles under the speed limit. You chose to the risk of being injured in an auto accident. A) reduce B) share C) avoid D) accept 15) Upon getting into your new car, you suddenly became worried that you might become injured in an auto accident. In response, you decided to ride your bike instead. You chose to the risk of being injured in an auto accident. A) reduce B) share C) avoid D) accept 7.7 Describe control activities commonly used in companies. 1) At a movie theater box office, all tickets are sequentially prenumbered. At the end of each day, the beginning ticket number is subtracted from the ending number to calculate the number of tickets sold. Then, ticket stubs collected at the theater entrance are counted and compared with the number of tickets sold. Which of the following situations does this control detect? A) Some customers presented tickets purchased on a previous day when there wasn't a ticket taker at the theater entrance (so the tickets didn't get torn.) B) A group of kids snuck into the theater through a back door when customers left after a show. C) The box office cashier accidentally gives too much change to a customer. D) The ticket taker admits his friends without tickets. 2) At a movie theater box office, all tickets are sequentially prenumbered. At the end of each day, the beginning ticket number is subtracted from the ending number to calculate the number of tickets sold. Cash is counted and compared with the number of tickets sold. Which of the following situations does this control detect? A) Some customers presented tickets purchased on a previous day when there wasn't a ticket taker at the theater entrance (so the tickets didn't get torn.) B) A group of kids snuck into the theater through a back door when customers left after a show. C) The box office cashier accidentally gives too much change to a customer. D) The ticket taker admits his friends without tickets. 3) Independent checks on performance include all the following except A) data input validation checks. B) reconciling hash totals. C) preparing a trial balance report. D) supervisor review of journal entries and supporting documentation. 4) One of the key objectives of segregating duties is to A) ensure that no collusion will occur. B) achieve an optimal division of labor for efficient operations. C) make sure that different people handle different transactions. D) make sure that different people handle different parts of the same transaction. 5) Identify the statement below which is true. A) Requiring two signatures on checks over $20,000 is an example of segregation of duties. B) Although forensic specialists utilize computers, only people can accurately identify fraud. C) Internal auditors, rather than external auditors, can conduct evaluations of effectiveness of Enterprise Risk Management processes. D) Re-adding the total of a batch of invoices and comparing the total with the first total you calculated is an example of an independent check. 6) Of the following examples of fraud, which will be the most difficult to prevent and detect? Assume the company enforces adequate segregation of duties. A) A mail room employee steals a check received from a customer and destroys the documentation. B) The accounts receivable clerk does not record sales invoices for friends or family, so they can receive free goods. C) An employee puts inventory behind the dumpster while unloading a vendor's delivery truck, then picks up the inventory later in the day and puts it in her car. D) Mike issues credit cards to him and Maxine, and when the credit card balances are just under $1,000, Maxine writes off the accounts as bad debt. Mike then issues new cards. 7) Which of the following is a control related to design and use of documents and records? A) locking blank checks in a drawer or safe B) sequentially prenumbering sales invoices C) reconciling the bank statement to the general ledger D) comparing physical inventory counts with perpetual inventory records 8) Which of the following duties could be performed by the same individual without violating segregation of duties controls? A) approving accounting software change requests and testing production scheduling software changes B) programming new code for accounting software and testing accounting software upgrades C) approving software changes and implementing the upgraded software D) managing accounts payable function and revising code for accounting software to more efficiently process discount due dates on vendor invoices 9) With a limited work force and a desire to maintain strong internal control, which combination of duties would result in the lowest risk exposure? A) updating the inventory subsidiary ledgers and recording purchases in the purchases journal B) approving a sales return on a customer's account and depositing customers' checks in the bank C) updating the general ledger and working in the inventory warehouse D) entering payments to vendors in the cash disbursements journal and entering cash received from customers in the cash receipts journal 10) A store policy that allows retail clerks to process sales returns for $500 or less, with a receipt dated within the past 30 days, is an example of A) general authorization. B) specific authorization. C) special authorization. D) generic authorization. 11) An accounting policy that requires a purchasing manager to sign off on all purchases over $5,000 is an example of A) general authorization. B) specific authorization. C) special authorization. D) generic authorization. 12) A document that shows all projects that must be completed and the related IT needs in order to achieve long-range company goals is known as a A) performance evaluation. B) project development plan. C) data processing schedule. D) strategic master plan. 13) A is created to guide and oversee systems development and acquisition. A) performance evaluation B) project development plan C) steering committee D) strategic master plan 14) A shows how a project will be completed, including tasks and who will perform them as well as a timeline and cost estimates. A) performance evaluation B) project development plan C) steering committee D) strategic master plan 15) The organization chart for Renata Corporation includes a controller and an information processing manager, both of whom report to the vice president of finance. Which of the following would be a control weakness? A) assigning the programming and operating of the computer system to an independent control group which reports to the controller B) providing for maintenance of input data controls by an independent control group which reports to the controller C) periodically rotating assignment of application processing among machine operators, who all report to the information processing manager D) providing for review and distribution of system-generated reports by an independent control group which reports to the controller 16) Which of the following is an independent check on performance? A) The Purchasing Agent physically reviews the contents of shipments and compares them with the purchase orders he has placed. B) Production teams perform quality evaluations of the products that they produce. C) The General Manager compares budgeted amounts with expenditure records from all departments. D) Petty cash is disbursed by Fred Haynes. He also maintains records of disbursements, places requests to finance to replace expended funds, and periodically reconciles the petty cash balance. 17) Petty cash is disbursed by the Manuela Luisina in the Cashier's Office. Manuela also maintains records of disbursements, places requests to the Finance Department to replace expended funds, and periodically reconciles the petty cash balance. This represents a(n) segregation of duties. A) ideal B) effective C) ineffective D) limited 18) Hiring decisions at Maarja's Razors are made by Maimu Maarja, the Director of Human Resources. Pay rates are approved by the Vice President for Operations. At the end of each pay period, supervisors submit time cards to Kasheena, who prepares paycheck requisitions. Paychecks are then distributed through the company's mail room. This represents a(n) segregation of duties. A) partial B) effective C) ineffective D) limited 19) The Director of Information Technology for the city of Tampa, Florida formed a company to sell computer supplies and software. All purchases made on behalf of the City were made from her company. She was later charged with fraud for overcharging the City, but was not convicted by a jury. The control issue in this case arose because the Director had both and duties. A) custody; authorization B) custody; recording C) recording; authorization D) management; custody 7.8 Describe how to communicate information and monitor control processes in organizations. 1) Which component of the COSO Enterprise Risk Management Integrated Framework is concerned with understanding how transactions are initiated, data are captured and processed, and information is reported? A) information and communication B) internal environment C) event identification D) objective setting 2) Which of the following is not a principle related to information and communicating in the updated COSO Integrated Control framework? A) Communicate relevant internal control matters to external parties. B) Obtain or generate relevant, high-quality information to support internal control. C) Surround internal control processes with information technology that enables discrepancies to be identified. D) Internally communicate the information necessary to support the other components of internal control. 3) COSO requires that any internal deficiencies identified through monitoring be reported to whom? A) the external auditor B) appropriate federal, state, or local authorities C) the board of directors D) the audit committee 4) Which of the following is not a key method of monitoring performance? A) performing internal control evaluation B) employing a chief risk officer C) implementing effective supervision D) monitoring system activities 5) To ensure compliance with copyrights and to protect itself from software piracy lawsuits, companies should . A) periodically conduct software audits B) update the operating system frequently C) buy software from legitimate suppliers D) adopt cloud operating platforms 6) Which type of audits can detect fraud and errors? A) external audits B) internal audits C) network security audits D) all of the above 7) Which of the following is not an example of something monitored by a responsibility accounting system? A) budgets B) quotas C) vendor analysis D) quality standards 8) Which type of audit assesses employee compliance with management policies and procedures? A) external audit B) internal audit C) network security audit D) all of the above 9) Which of the following factors is not a reason forensic investigators are increasingly used in accounting? A) the Sarbanes-Oxley Act B) new accounting rules C) audit fee increases D) pressure from boards of directors 10) A neural network is a software program that has A) the ability to read text. B) the ability to learn. C) the capability to extract information from an individual's brain. D) the capability to inject information into an individual's brain. Chapter 8 Controls for Information Security 8.1 Explain how information security affects information systems reliability. 1) The Trust Services Framework reliability principle that states that users must be able to enter, update, and retrieve data during agreed-upon times is known as A) availability. B) security. C) maintainability. D) integrity. 2) According to the Trust Services Framework, the reliability principle of integrity is achieved when the system produces data that A) is available for operation and use at times set forth by agreement. B) is protected against unauthorized physical and logical access. C) can be maintained as required without affecting system availability, security, and integrity. D) is complete, accurate, and valid. 3) Kuzman Jovan called a meeting of the top management at Jovan Capital Management. Number one on the agenda was computer system security. "The risk of security breach incidents has become unacceptable," he said, and turned to the Chief Information Officer. "What do you intend to do?" Which of the following is the best answer? A) Evaluate and modify the system using COBOL. B) Evaluate and modify the system using the CTC checklist. C) Evaluate and modify the system using the Trust Services framework D) Evaluate and modify the system using the COSO Internal Control Framework. 4) Which of the following is not one of the three fundamental information security concepts? A) Information security is a technology issue based on prevention. B) Security is a management issue, not a technology issue. C) The idea of defense-in-depth employs multiple layers of controls. D) The time-based model of security focuses on the relationship between preventive, detective and corrective controls. 5) Which of the following is not one of the essential criteria for successfully implementing each of the principles that contribute to systems reliability, as discussed in the Trust Services Framework? A) developing and documenting policies B) effectively communicating policies to all outsiders C) designing and employing appropriate control procedures to implement policies D) monitoring the system and taking corrective action to maintain compliance with policies 6) If the time an attacker takes to break through the organization's preventive controls is greater than the sum of the time required to detect the attack and the time required to respond to the attack, then security is A) effective. B) ineffective. C) overdone. D) undermanaged. 7) It was 8:03 A.M. when Jiao Jan, the Network Administrator for South Asian Technologies, was informed that the intrusion detection system had identified an ongoing attempt to breach network security. By the time that Jiao had identified and blocked the attack, the hacker had accessed and downloaded several files from the company's server. Using the notation for the time-based model of security, in this case A) D > P B) P > D C) P > C D) C > P 8) There are "white hat" hackers and "black hat" hackers. Cowboy451 was one of the "black hat" hackers. He had researched an exploit and determined that he could penetrate the target system, download a file containing valuable data, and cover his tracks in eight minutes. Six minutes into the attack he was locked out of the system. Using the notation of the time-based model of security, which of the following must be true? A) P < 6 B) D = 6 C) P = 6 D) P > 6 9) Identify a party below who was involved with developing the Trust Services Framework. A) FASB B) United States Congress C) AICPA D) IMA 10) Information security procedures protect information integrity by A) preventing fictitious transactions. B) reducing the system cost. C) making the system more efficient. D) making it impossible for unauthorized users to access the system. 11) Identify one aspect of systems reliability that is not a source of concern with regards to a public cloud. A) confidentiality B) privacy C) efficiency D) availability 12) Identify the primary means of protecting data stored in a cloud from unauthorized access. A) authentication B) authorization C) virtualization D) securitization 13) Virtualization refers to the ability of A) running multiple systems simultaneously on one physical computer. B) eliminating the need for a physical computer. C) using the Internet to perform all needed system functions. D) using web-based security to protect an organization. 16) The Trust Services Framework reliability principle that states sensitive information be protected from unauthorized disclosure is known as A) availability. B) security. C) confidentiality. D) integrity. 17) The Trust Services Framework reliability principle that states personal information should be protected from unauthorized disclosure is known as A) availability. B) security. C) privacy. D) integrity. 18) The Trust Services Framework reliability principle that states access to the system and its data should be controlled and restricted to legitimate users is known as A) availability. B) security. C) privacy. D) integrity. 8.2 Discuss how a combination of preventive, detective, and corrective controls can be employed to provide reasonable assurance about the security of an organization's information system. 1) Identify the statement below which is not a useful control procedure regarding access to system outputs. A) restricting access to rooms with printers B) coding reports to reflect their importance C) allowing visitors to move through the building without supervision D) requiring employees to log out of applications when leaving their desk 2) Verifying the identity of the person or device attempting to access the system is an example of A) authentication. B) authorization. C) identification. D) threat monitoring. 3) Restricting access of users to specific portions of the system as well as specific tasks, is an example of A) authentication. B) authorization. C) identification. D) threat monitoring. 4) is/are an example of a preventive control. A) Emergency response teams B) Encryption C) Log analysis D) Intrusion detection 5) is/are an example of a detective control. A) Physical access controls B) Encryption C) Emergency response teams D) Log analysis 6) Which of the following is an example of a corrective control? A) physical access controls B) encryption C) intrusion detection D) incident response teams 7) Which of the following is not a requirement of effective passwords? A) Passwords should be changed at regular intervals. B) Passwords should be no more than 8 characters in length. C) Passwords should contain a mixture of upper and lowercase letters, numbers and characters. D) Passwords should not be words found in dictionaries. 8) Multi-factor authentication A) involves the use of two or more basic authentication methods. B) is a table specifying which portions of the systems users are permitted to access. C) provides weaker authentication than the use of effective passwords. D) requires the use of more than one effective password. 9) Identify the best description of an access control matrix below. A) does not have to be updated B) is used to implement authentication controls C) matches the user's authentication credentials to his authorization D) is a table specifying which portions of the system users are permitted to access 10) Perimeter defense is an example of which of the following preventive controls that are necessary to provide adequate security? A) training B) controlling physical access C) controlling remote access D) host and application hardening 11) Which of the following preventive controls are necessary to provide adequate security for social engineering threats? A) controlling remote access B) encryption C) host and application hardening D) awareness training 12) A special purpose hardware device or software running on a general purpose computer, which filters information that is allowed to enter and leave the organization's information system, is known as a(n) A) demilitarized zone. B) intrusion detection system. C) intrusion prevention system. D) firewall. 13) This protocol specifies the procedures for dividing files and documents into packets to be sent over the Internet. A) access control list B) Internet protocol C) packet switching protocol D) transmission control protocol 14) This protocol specifies the structure of packets sent over the internet and the route to get them to the proper destination. A) access control list B) Internet protocol C) packet switching protocol D) transmission control protocol 15) This network access control determines which IP packets are allowed entry to a network and which are dropped. A) access control list B) deep packet inspection C) stateful packet filtering D) static packet filtering 16) Compatibility tests utilize a(n) , which is a list of authorized users, programs, and data files the users are authorized to access or manipulate. A) validity test B) biometric matrix C) logical control matrix D) access control matrix 17) The process that screens individual IP packets based solely on the contents of the source and/or destination fields in the packet header is known as A) access control list. B) deep packet inspection. C) stateful packet filtering. D) static packet filtering. 18) The process of maintaining a table listing all established connections between the organization's computers and the internet to determine whether an incoming packet is part of an ongoing communication initiated by an internal computer is known as A) stateful packet filtering. B) deep packet inspection. C) access control list. D) static packet filtering. 19) The process that allows a firewall to be more effective by examining the data in the body of an IP packet, instead of just the header, is known as A) deep packet inspection. B) stateful packet filtering. C) static packet filtering. D) an intrusion prevention system. 20) The security technology that evaluates IP packet traffic patterns in order to identify attacks against a system is known as A) an intrusion prevention system. B) stateful packet filtering. C) static packet filtering. D) deep packet inspection. 21) This is used to identify rogue modems (or by hackers to identify targets). A) war chalking B) war dialing C) war driving D) none of the above 22) The process of turning off unnecessary features in the system is known as A) deep packet inspection. B) hardening. C) intrusion detection. D) war dialing. 23) The most common input-related vulnerability is A) buffer overflow attack. B) hardening. C) war dialing. D) encryption. 24) Which of the below keeps a record of the network traffic permitted to pass through a firewall? A) intrusion detection system B) vulnerability scan C) log analysis D) penetration test 25) The process that uses automated tools to identify whether a system possesses any well- known security problems is known as a(n) A) intrusion detection system. B) log analysis. C) penetration test. D) vulnerability scan. 26) This is an authorized attempt by an internal audit team or an external security consultant to attempt to break into the organization's information system. A) log analysis B) intrusion detection system C) penetration test D) vulnerability scan 27) A well-known hacker started his own computer security consulting business shortly after being released from prison. Many companies pay him to attempt to gain unauthorized access to their network. If he is successful, he offers advice as to how to design and implement better controls. What is the name of the testing for which the hacker is being paid? A) penetration test B) vulnerability scan C) deep packet inspection D) buffer overflow test 28) The disseminates information about fraud, errors, breaches and other improper system uses and their consequences. A) chief information officer B) chief operations officer C) chief security officer D) computer emergency response team 29) In 2007, a major U.S. financial institution hired a security firm to attempt to compromise its computer network. A week later, the firm reported that it had successfully entered the system without apparent detection and presented an analysis of the vulnerabilities that had been found. This is an example of a A) preventive control. B) detective control. C) corrective control. D) standard control. 30) Which of the following is commonly true of the default settings for most commercially available wireless access points? A) The security level is set at the factory and cannot be changed. B) Wireless access points present little danger of vulnerability so security is not a concern. C) Security is set to the lowest level that the device is capable of. D) Security is set to the highest level that the device is capable of. 31) In recent years, many of the attacks carried out by hackers have relied on this type of vulnerability in computer software. A) code mastication B) boot sector corruption C) weak authentication D) buffer overflow 32) Noseybook is a social networking site that boasts over a million registered users and a quarterly membership growth rate in the double digits. As a consequence, the size of the information technology department has been growing very rapidly, with many new hires. Each employee is provided with a name badge with a photo and embedded computer chip that is used to gain entry to the facility. This is an example of a(n) A) authentication control. B) biometric device. C) remote access control. D) authorization control. 33) When new employees are hired by Pacific Technologies, they are assigned user names and appropriate permissions are entered into the information system's access control matrix. This is an example of a(n) A) authentication control. B) biometric device. C) remote access control. D) authorization control. 34) When new employees are hired by Pacific Technologies, they are assigned user names and passwords and provided with laptop computers that have an integrated fingerprint reader. In order to log in, the user's fingerprint must be recognized by the reader. This is an example of a(n) A) authorization control. B) biometric device. C) remote access control. D) defense in depth. 35) Information technology managers are often in a bind when a new exploit is discovered in the wild. They can respond by updating the affected software or hardware with new code provided by the manufacturer, which runs the risk that a flaw in the update will break the system. Or they can wait until the new code has been extensively tested, but that runs the risk that they will be compromised by the exploit during the testing period. Dealing with these issues is referred to as A) change management. B) hardening. C) patch management. D) defense in depth. 36) The most effective method for protecting an organization from social engineering attacks is providing A) a firewall. B) stateful packet filtering. C) a demilitarized zone. D) employee awareness training. 37) The most effective way to protect network resources that are exposed to the internet, yet reside outside of a network is A) a firewall. B) employee training. C) a demilitarized zone. D) stateful packet filtering. 38) All employees of E.C. Hoxy are required to pass through a gate and present their photo identification cards to the guard before they are admitted. Entry to secure areas, such as the Information Technology Department offices, requires further procedures. This is an example of a(n) A) authentication control. B) authorization control. C) physical access control. D) hardening procedure. 39) On April 1, 2012, students enrolled in an economics course at Harvard University received an e-mail stating that class would be cancelled. The e-mail claimed to be from the professor, but it wasn't. Computer forensic experts determined that the e-mail was sent from a computer in one of the campus labs at 6:32 A.M. They were then able to uniquely identify the computer that was used by means of its network interface card's address. Security cameras revealed the identity of the student responsible for spoofing the class. A) IDS B) TCP/IP C) MAC D) DMZ 46) A border router A) routes electronic communications within an organization. B) connects an organization's information system to the Internet. C) permits controlled access from the Internet to selected resources. D) serves as the main firewall. 47) A demilitarized zone A) routes electronic communications within an organization. B) connects an organization's information system to the Internet. C) permits controlled access from the Internet to selected resources. D) serves as the main firewall. 50) Why does COBIT5 DSS-05.06 stress the importance of restricting physical access to network printers? A) because hackers can use them to print out sensitive information B) because hackers often hide inside large network printers until night C) because document images are often stored on network printers D) because network printers are easier to hack into than computers 51) The most important element of any preventive control is A) the people. B) the performance. C) the procedure(s). D) the penalty. Chapter 9 Confidentiality and Privacy Controls 9.1 Identify and explain controls designed to protect the confidentiality of sensitive corporate information. 1) Identify the type of information below that is least likely to be considered "sensitive" by an organization. A) financial statements B) legal documents C) strategic plans D) product cost information 2) Which of the following is not one of the basic actions that an organization must take to preserve the confidentiality of sensitive information? A) identification of information to be protected B) backing up the information C) controlling access to the information D) training 3) Classification of confidential information is the responsibility of whom, according to COBIT5? A) external auditor B) information owner C) IT security professionals D) management 5) Classification of confidential information is the responsibility of whom, according to COBIT5? A) external auditor B) information owner C) IT security professionals D) management 6) Encryption is a necessary part of which information security approach? A) defense in depth B) time based defense C) cloud quarantine D) synthetic defense 7) Information rights management software can do all of the following except A) limiting access to specific files. B) limit action privileges to a specific time period. C) authenticate individuals accessing information. D) specify the actions individuals granted access to information can perform. 8) Identify the first step in protecting the confidentiality of intellectual property below. A) Identifying who has access to the intellectual property B) Identifying the means necessary to protect the intellectual property C) Identifying the weaknesses surrounding the creation of the intellectual property D) Identifying what controls should be placed around the intellectual property 9) After the information that needs to be protected has been identified, what step should be completed next? A) The information needs to be placed in a secure, central area. B) The information needs to be encrypted. C) The information needs to be classified in terms of its value to the organization. D) The information needs to be depreciated. 10) Which type of software blocks outgoing messages containing key words or phrases associated with an organization's sensitive data? A) anti-virus software B) data loss prevention software C) a digital watermark D) information rights software 11) Janus Corporation uses a tool that embeds a code into all of its digital documents. It then scours the internet, searching for codes that it has embedded into its files. When Janus finds an embedded code on the internet, it knows that confidential information has been leaked. Janus then begins identifying how the information was leaked and who was involved with the leak. Janus is using A) data loss prevention software. B) a keylogger. C) a digital watermark. D) a spybot. 12) What confidentiality and security risk does using VoIP present to organizations? A) Internet e-mail communications can be intercepted. B) Internet photographs can be intercepted. C) Internet video can be intercepted. D) Internet voice conversations can be intercepted. 9.2 Identify and explain controls designed to protect the privacy of personal information collected from customers, employees, suppliers or business partners. 1) Which of the following is not one of the 10 internationally recognized best practices for protecting the privacy of customers' personal information? A) Provide free credit report monitoring for customers. B) Inform customers of the option to opt-out of data collection and use of their personal information. C) Allow customers' browsers to decline to accept cookies. D) Utilize controls to prevent unauthorized access to, and disclosure of, customers' information. 2) In developing policies related to personal information about customers, Folding Squid Technologies adhered to the Trust Services framework. The standard applicable to these policies is A) security. B) confidentiality. C) privacy. D) availability. 3) A client approached Paxton Uffe and said, "Paxton, I need for my customers to make payments online using credit cards, but I want to make sure that the credit card data isn't intercepted. What do you suggest?" Paxton responded, "The most effective solution is to implement A) a data masking program." B) a virtual private network." C) a private cloud environment." D) an encryption system with digital signatures." 5) The first steps in protecting the privacy of personal information is to identify A) what sensitive information is possessed by the organization. B) where sensitive information is stored. C) who has access to sensitive information. D) All of the above are first steps in protecting privacy. 6) It is impossible to encrypt information A) transmitted over the Internet. B) stored on a hard drive. C) printed on a report. D) None of the above 7) Data masking is also referred to as A) encryption. B) tokenization. C) captcha. D) cookies. 8) Cindy Vindoolo logged on to her e-mail account to find that she had received 50 e-mails from a company called LifeCo that promised her extreme weight loss if she bought their diet pills. Cindy angrily deleted all 50 e-mails, realizing she was a victim of A) telemarketing. B) spam. C) direct mail. D) MLM. 9) Under CAN-SPAM legislation, an organization that receives an opt-out request from an individual has days to implement steps to ensure they do not send out any additional unsolicited e-mail to the individual again. A) 2 B) 5 C) 7 D) 10 10) Identify the item below that is not a step you could take to prevent yourself from becoming a victim of identity theft. A) Shred all documents that contain your personal information. B) Only print your initial and last name on your personal checks. C) Do not place checks in your outgoing mail. D) Refuse to disclose your social security number to anyone or any organization. 11) Identify the item below which is not a piece of legislation passed to protect individuals against identity theft or to secure individuals' privacy. A) the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act B) the Health Information Technology for Economic and Clinical Heath Act C) the Financial Services Modernization Act D) the Affordable Care Act 12) If an organization asks you to disclose your social security number, yet fails to permit you to opt-out before you provide the information, the organization has likely violated which of the Generally Accepted Privacy Principles? A) Management B) Notice C) Choice and consent D) Use and retention 13) If an organization asks you to disclose your social security number, but fails to establish a set of procedures and policies for protecting your privacy, the organization has likely violated which of the Generally Accepted Privacy Principles? A) Management B) Notice C) Choice and consent D) Use and retention 14) If an organization asks you to disclose your social security number, but fails to tell you about its privacy policies and practices, the organization has likely violated which of the Generally Accepted Privacy Principles? A) Management B) Notice C) Choice and consent D) Use and retention 15) If an organization asks you to disclose your social security number, yet fails to properly dispose of your private information once it has fulfilled its purpose, the organization has likely violated which of the Generally Accepted Privacy Principles? A) Management B) Notice C) Choice and consent D) Use and retention 16) If an organization asks you to disclose your social security number, but decides to use it for a different purpose than the one stated in the organization's privacy policies, the organization has likely violated which of the Generally Accepted Privacy Principles? A) Collection B) Access C) Security D) Quality 17) If an organization asks you to disclose your date of birth and your address, but refuses to let you review or correct the information you provided, the organization has likely violated which of the Generally Accepted Privacy Principles? A) Collection B) Access C) Security D) Choice and consent 18) If an organization asks you to disclose your date of birth and your address, but fails to take any steps to protect your private information, the organization has likely violated which of the Generally Accepted Privacy Principles? A) Collection B) Access C) Security D) Quality 19) If an organization asks you to disclose your date of birth and your address, but fails to establish any procedures for responding to customer complaints, the organization has likely violated which of the Generally Accepted Privacy Principles? A) Collection B) Access C) Security D) Monitoring and enforcement 9.3 Explain how the two basic types of encryption systems work. 1) Which of the following is not true regarding virtual private networks (VPN)? A) VPNs provide the functionality of a privately owned network using the Internet. B) Using VPN software to encrypt information while it is in transit over the Internet in effect creates private communication channels, often referred to as tunnels, which are accessible only to those parties possessing the appropriate encryption and decryption keys. C) It is more expensive to reconfigure VPNs to include new sites than it is to add or remove the corresponding physical connections in a privately owned network. D) The cost of the VPN software is much less than the cost of leasing or buying the infrastructure (telephone lines, satellite links, communications equipment, etc.) needed to create a privately owned secure communications network. 2) All of the following are associated with asymmetric encryption except A) speed. B) private keys. C) public keys. D) no need for key exchange. 3) The system and processes used to issue and manage asymmetric keys and digital certificates are known as A) asymmetric encryption. B) certificate authority. C) digital signature. D) public key infrastructure. 4) Identify one weakness of encryption below. A) Encrypted packets cannot be examined by a firewall. B) Encryption provides for both authentication and non-repudiation. C) Encryption protects the privacy of information during transmission. D) Encryption protects the confidentiality of information while in storage. 5) Using a combination of symmetric and asymmetric key encryption, Sofia Chiamaka sent a report to her home office in Bangalore, India. She received an e-mail acknowledgement that her report had been received, but a few minutes later she received a second e-mail that contained a different hash total than the one associated with her report. This most likely explanation for this result is that A) the public key had been compromised. B) the private key had been compromised. C) the symmetric encryption key had been compromised. D) the asymmetric encryption key had been compromised. 6) Encryption has a remarkably long and varied history. The invention of writing was apparently soon followed by a desire to conceal messages. One of the earliest methods, attributed to an ancient Roman emperor, was the simple substitution of numbers for letters, for example A = 1, B = 2, etc. This is an example of A) a hashing algorithm. B) symmetric key encryption. C) asymmetric key encryption. D) a public key. 7) An electronic document that certifies the identity of the owner of a particular public key. A) asymmetric encryption B) digital certificate C) digital signature D) public key 8) Which systems use the same key to encrypt communications and to decrypt communications? A) asymmetric encryption B) symmetric encryption C) hashing encryption D) public key encryption 9) These are used to create digital signatures. A) asymmetric encryption and hashing B) hashing and packet filtering C) packet filtering and encryption D) symmetric encryption and hashing 10) Information encrypted with the creator's private key that is used to authenticate the sender is A) asymmetric encryption. B) digital certificate. C) digital signature. D) public key. 11) Which of the following is not one of the three important factors determining the strength of any encryption system? A) key length B) key management policies C) encryption algorithm D) privacy 12) A process that takes plaintext of any length and transforms it into a short code. A) asymmetric encryption B) encryption C) hashing D) symmetric encryption 13) Which of the following descriptions is not associated with symmetric encryption? A) a shared secret key B) faster encryption C) lack of authentication D) separate keys for each communication party 14) Encryption has a remarkably long and varied history. Spies have been using it to convey secret messages ever since there were secret messages to convey. One powerful method of encryption uses random digits. Two documents are prepared with the same random sequence of numbers. The spy is sent out with one and the spy master retains the other. The digits are used as follows. Suppose that the word to be encrypted is SPY and the random digits are 352. Then S becomes V (three letters after S), P becomes U (five letters after P), and Y becomes A (two letters after Y, restarting at A after Z). The spy would encrypt a message and then destroy the document used to encrypt it. This is an early example of A) a hashing algorithm. B) asymmetric key encryption. C) symmetric key encryption. D) public key encryption. 15) One way to circumvent the counterfeiting of public keys is by using A) a digital certificate. B) digital authority. C) encryption. D) cryptography. 16) In a private key system the sender and the receiver have , and in the public key system they have . A) different keys; the same key B) a decrypting algorithm; an encrypting algorithm C) the same key; two separate keys D) an encrypting algorithm; a decrypting algorithm 17) Asymmetric key encryption combined with the information provided by a certificate authority allows unique identification of A) the user of encrypted data. B) the provider of encrypted data. C) both the user and the provider of encrypted data. D) either the user or the provider of encrypted data. 18) On June 17, 2013, a laptop computer belonging to Thea Technologies was stolen from the trunk of Jamie Marcia's car while she was attending a conference. After reporting the theft, Jamie considered the implications for the company's network security and concluded there was little to worry about because A) the computer was insured against theft. B) the computer was protected by a password. C) the data stored on the computer was encrypted. D) it was unlikely that the thief would know how to access the company data stored on the computer. 19) Hjordis Marika took a call from a client. "Hjordis, I need to interact online in real time with our affiliate in India, and I want to make sure that our communications aren't intercepted. What do you suggest?" Hjordis responded, "The best solution is to implement A) a virtual private network." B) multifactor authentication." C) a private cloud environment." D) an asymmetric encryption system with digital signatures." Chapter 10 Processing Integrity and Availability Controls 10.1 Identify and explain controls designed to ensure processing integrity. 1) The best example of an effective payroll transaction file hash total would most likely be A) sum of net pay. B) total number of employees. C) sum of hours worked. D) total of employees' social security numbers. 2) Error logs and review are an example of A) data entry controls. B) data transmission controls. C) output controls. D) processing controls. 3) Following is the result of batch control totals on employee Social Security numbers in a payroll processing transaction: Correct Values From Masterfile Values Entered During Processing 487358796 487358796 534916487 534916487 498374526 498374526 514873420 514873420 534196487 534916487 678487853 678487853 471230589 471230589 3719438158 3720158158 The difference in the control totals is 720,000. Which data entry control would best prevent similar data entry errors in the future? A) Modules 11 B) validity check C) check digit D) sequence check 4) Which of the following data entry controls would not be useful if you are recording the checkout of library books by members? A) sequence check B) prompting C) validity check D) concurrent update control 5) A customer failed to include her account number on her check, and the accounts receivable clerk credited her payment to a different customer with the same last name. Which control could have been used to most effectively to prevent this error? A) closed-loop verification B) duplicate values check C) validity check D) reconciliation of a batch control total 6) If invoices are processed in groups of fifty, which fields from the document shown below would not be used to create a hash control total? A) Amount B) Item Number C) Quantity Ordered D) Sales Order number 7) is a data entry input control that involves summing the first four digits of a customer number to calculate the value of the fifth digit, then comparing the calculated number to the number entered during data entry. A) Validity check B) Duplicate data check C) Closed-loop verification D) Check digit verification 8) All of the following controls for online entry of a sales order would be useful except A) check digit verification on the dollar amount of the order. B) validity check on the inventory item numbers. C) field check on the customer ID and dollar amount of the order. D) concurrent update control. 9) The inventory tracking system shows that 12 iPods were on hand before a customer brings three iPods to the register for purchase. The cashier accidentally enters the quantity sold as 30 instead of 3. Which data entry control would most effectively prevent this error? A) limit check B) sign check C) field check D) validity check 10) A payroll clerk accidently entered an employee's hours worked for the week as 380 instead of 38. The data entry control that would best prevent this error would be A) a limit check. B) a check digit. C) batch total reconciliation. D) a field check. 11) The data entry control that would best prevent entering an invoice received from a vendor who is not on an authorized supplier list is A) a validity check. B) an authorization check. C) a check digit. D) closed-loop verification. 12) Form design is one example of a(n) A) output control. B) processing control. C) input control. D) data entry control. 13) Sequentially prenumbered forms are an example of a(n) A) data entry control. B) data transmission control. C) processing control. D) input control. 14) Turnaround documents are an example of a(n) A) data entry control. B) output control. C) processing control. D) input control. 15) A validity check is an example of A) a data entry control. B) an output control. C) a data transmission control. D) an input control. 16) Parity checks are an example of a(n) A) data entry control. B) data transmission control. C) output control. D) processing control. 17) A user review an example of A) a data entry control. B) a data transmission control. C) an output control. D) a processing control. 18) Data matching is an example of a(n) A) data entry control. B) data transmission control. C) processing control. D) input control. 19) A batch total is an example of which control below? A) data entry control B) data transmission control C) processing control D) output control 20) Cancellation and storage of documents means A) documents are defaced and stored. B) documents are defaced before being shredded. C) cancellation data are copied from documents before they are stored. D) data are copied from a document and stored, after which the document is shredded. 21) Check digit verification is an example of a(n) A) data transmission control. B) output control. C) processing control. D) input control. 22) A ensures input data will fit into the assigned field. A) limit check B) size check C) range check D) validity check 23) This tests a numerical amount to ensure that it does not exceed a predetermined value nor fall below another predetermined value. A) completeness check B) field check C) limit check D) range check 24) This determines if all required data items have been entered. A) completeness check B) field check C) limit check D) range check 25) This determines the correctness of the logical relationship between two data items. A) range check B) reasonableness test C) sign check D) size check 26) This determines if characters are of the proper type. A) field check B) alpha-numeric check C) range check D) reasonableness test 27) This tests a numerical amount to ensure that it does not exceed a predetermined value. A) completeness check B) limit check C) range check D) sign check 28) This batch processing data entry control sums a field that contains dollar values. A) record count B) financial total C) hash total D) sequence check 29) This batch processing data entry control sums a non-financial numeric field. A) record count B) financial total C) hash total D) sequence check 30) When I enter a correct customer number, the data entry screen displays the customer name and address. This is an example of A) prompting. B) preformatting. C) closed-loop verification. D) error checking. 31) This control ensures that the correct and most current files are being updated. A) cross-footing balance test B) data matching C) file labels D) write-protect mechanism 32) This batch processing data entry control sums the number of items in a batch. A) financial total B) hash total C) record count D) sequence check 33) This data entry control compares the ID number in transaction data to a master file to verify that the ID number exists. A) reasonableness test B) user review C) data matching D) validity check 34) What control are file labels an example of? A) data entry controls B) output controls C) processing controls D) source data controls 35) A computer operator accidentally used the wrong master file when updating a transaction file. As a result, the master file data is now unreadable. Which control could best have prevented this from happening? A) Internal header label B) validity check C) check digit D) parity check 36) Sonja Greer called the IT Help Desk in a bad mood. "I'm trying to open an Excel file, but I get a message that says that the file is locked for editing. Why is this happening to me?" The answer is likely that A) the file is corrupted due to a computer virus. B) Sonja probably opened the file as read-only. C) concurrent update controls have locked the file. D) there is no problem. Sonja is editing the file, so it is locked. 37) This control protects records from errors that occur when two or more users attempt to update the same record simultaneously. A) concurrent update controls B) cross-footing balance test C) data conversion controls D) recalculation of batch totals 38) Modest Expectations Investment Services (MEIS) allows customers to manage their investments over the Internet. If customers attempt to sell more shares of a stock than they have in their account, an error message is displayed. This is an example of a A) reasonableness test. B) field check. C) validity check. D) limit check. 39) Modest Expectations Investment Services (MEIS) allows customers to manage their investments over the Internet. If customers attempt to spend more money than they have in their account, an error message is displayed. This is an example of a A) reasonableness test. B) field check. C) validity check. D) limit check. 40) The Spontaneous Combustion Rocket Shoppe in downtown Fargo, North Dakota, generates three quarters of its revenue from orders taken over the Internet. The revenue clearing account is debited by the total of cash and credit receipts and credited by the total of storefront and Internet sales. This is an example of a A) data integrity test. B) zero-balance test. C) trial balance audit. D) cross-footing balance test. 41) This control entails verifying that the proper number of bits are set to the value 1 in each character received. A) echo check B) field check C) parity check D) trailer record 42) Which of the following is not a risk associated with the data input process? A) Data is invalid. B) Data is incomplete. C) Data is inaccurate. D) Data is corrupted. 43) Which of the following is an example of a turnaround document? A) a receipt a customer must use to return the goods purchased B) a telephone bill the customer must return with payment C) a paycheck stub that must be used in the employee's tax return D) a customer loyalty card used every time a customer purchases goods or services 44) Which of the following is a control is an important way to prevent buffer overflow vulnerabilities? A) limit check B) size check C) range check D) field check 45) Prompting is a control that helps ensure A) transaction data are not lost. B) transactions data are accurate. C) transactions data are complete. D) transaction data are valid. 10.2 Identify and explain controls designed to ensure systems availability. 1) What is the most effective way to ensure information system availability? A) high bandwidth B) maintain a hot site C) maintain a cold site D) frequent backups 2) Which of the following statements is true with regards to system availability? A) Human error does not threaten system availability. B) Threats to system availability can be completely eliminated. C) Proper controls can maximize the risk of threats causing significant system downtime. D) Threats to system availability include hardware and software failures as well as natural and man-made disasters. 3) Which of the following is not an objective of a disaster recovery plan? A) Minimize the extent of the disruption, damage or loss. B) Permanently establish an alternative means of processing information. C) Resume normal operations as soon as possible. D) Train employees for emergency operations. 4) A disaster recovery plan typically does not include A) scheduled electronic vaulting of files. B) backup computer and telecommunication facilities. C) a system upgrade due to operating system software changes. D) uninterruptible power systems installed for key system components. 5) A facility that contains all the computing equipment the organization needs to perform its essential business activities is known as a A) cold site. B) hot site. C) remote site. D) subsidiary location. 6) A facility that is pre-wired for necessary telecommunications and computer equipment, but doesn't have equipment installed, is known as a A) cold site. B) hot site. C) remote site. D) subsidiary location. 7) When a computer system's files are automatically duplicated on a second data storage system as they are changed, the process is referred to as A) real-time mirroring. B) batch updating. C) consistency control. D) double-secure storage. 8) enables a system to continue functioning in the event that a particular component fails. A) An incremental backup procedure B) Fault tolerance C) Preventive maintenance D) A concurrent update control 9) A copy of a database, master file, or software that will be retained indefinitely as a historical record is known as a(n) A) archive. B) cloud computing. C) differential backup. D) incremental backup. 10) While this type of backup process takes longer than the alternative, restoration is easier and faster. A) archive B) cloud computing C) differential backup D) incremental backup 11) involves copying only the data items that have changed since the last partial backup. A) Archive B) Cloud computing C) Differential backup D) Incremental backup 12) copies all changes made since the last full backup. A) Archive B) Cloud computing C) Differential backup D) Incremental backup 13) The maximum amount of time between backups is determined by a company's A) recovery time objective. B) recovery point objective. C) recovery objective. D) maximum time recovery objective. 14) The maximum acceptable down time after a computer system failure is determined by a company's A) recovery time objective. B) recovery point objective. C) recovery objective. D) maximum time recovery objective. 15) The accounting department at Synergy Hydroelectric records an average of 12,500 transactions per hour. By cost-benefit analysis, managers have concluded that the maximum acceptable loss of data in the event of a system failure is 25,000 transactions. If the firm's recovery time objective is 120 minutes, then the worst case recovery time objective is A) 1 hour. B) 2 hours. C) 3 hours. D) 4 hours. 16) The accounting department at Aglaya Telecom records an average of 5,000 transactions per hour. A cost-benefit analysis leads management to conclude that the maximum acceptable amount of data loss is 20,000 transactions. If the firm's recovery time objective is 60 minutes, then the worst case recovery time objective is A) 1 hour. B) 2 hours. C) 3 hours. D) 4 hours. 17) The accounting department at Aglaya Telecom records an average of 5,000 transactions per hour. By cost-benefit analysis, managers have concluded that the maximum acceptable loss of data in the event of a system failure is 50,000 transactions. The firm's recovery point objective is therefore A) 50,000 transactions. B) 5,000 transactions. C) 10 hours. D) 4 hours. 18) The accounting department at Aglaya Telecom records an average of 2,500 transactions per hour. Managers state that the maximum acceptable loss of data in the event of a system failure is 2,500 transactions. The firm's recovery point objective is therefore A) 2,500 transactions. B) 5,000 transactions. C) 1 hour. D) 2 hours. 19) Probably the most important change management control is A) monitoring user rights and privileges during the change process. B) testing all changes thoroughly prior to implementation on a stand-alone computer. C) updating all documentation to reflect changes made to the system. D) management's careful monitoring and review. 20) Identify the statement below which is true. A) Cloud computing is a control technique for system availability. B) Cloud computing eliminates the need for backup of applications and data. C) Cloud computing eliminates the need for companies to own their own software and servers. D) Cloud computing refers to the practice of storing application files and backup data on satellites "in the clouds." 23) What is the primary objective of ensuring systems and information are available for use whenever needed? A) to minimize system downtime B) to minimize system expense C) to maximize system processing speed D) to maximize sales 25) With regards to systems availability, deploying and using multiple components provides an AIS with A) fault tolerance. B) cost savings. C) enhanced processing speed. D) maximum sales. 26) Which of the following is not a common design feature of housing mission-critical servers and databases? A) adequate air-conditioning systems to reduce the likelihood of damage due to overheating B) overhead sprinklers to provide protection from fire C) cables with special plugs that cannot be easily removed D) surge-protection devices to provide protection against temporary power fluctuations 27) To protect against malware, it is important that antivirus software automatically examine introduced into a system. A) CDs B) e-mail C) flash drives D) all of the above 28) Which of the following is a key control regarding the minimization of system downtime? A) fault tolerance B) disaster recovery plans C) backup procedures D) all of the above 29) Which COBIT5 management practice addresses system backup procedures? A) DSS01.06 B) DSS04.07 C) DSS03.05 D) DSS04.04 30) Whose responsibility is it to determine the amount of time an organization can afford to be without its information system? A) the board of directors B) senior management C) external auditors D) COBIT 31) Is it best practice for an organization to practice periodically restoring a system from its backup files? A) No, doing so might introduce errors into the system's data. B) No, doing so takes the system offline and prevents customers from being able to access the system. C) Yes, doing so verifies the procedure and backup media are working correctly. D) Yes, doing so improves the efficiency of the system. 33) Which of the following is incorrect with regards to a data archive? A) Archives can be a copy of a database. B) Archives should be stored in different locations. C) Archives are usually encrypted. D) Physical and logical controls are the primary means of protecting archive files. 34) Loreen Tina is the chief lawyer for Tamara Incorporated. The CEO of Tamara Incorporated asks Loreen whether the company should periodically delete all company e-mail. If Loreen is well-versed in AIS best practices, she would mostly likely respond, A) Yes, if we are ever sued, the other attorney will not be able to comb through our e-mail for evidence. B) Yes, since e-mail requires a lot of storage space, deleting it periodically will reduce the amount of information we need to store. C) No, deleting an organization's e-mail is against the law. D) No, if we are ever sued we will not be able to draw upon our e-mail records to defend ourselves. 35) Identify the most important component of a disaster recovery plan below. A) documentation B) operating instructions C) periodic testing D) on-site and off-site storage 36) Identify one organization that quickly recovered from September 11th, 2001 due to its disaster recovery and business continuity plan. A) New York Stock Exchange B) NASDAQ C) New York Fire Department D) United Airlines Chapter 3 Systems Documentation Techniques 3.1 Prepare and use data flow diagrams to understand, evaluate, and document information systems. 1) Graphical representations of information are often supplemented by A) narrative descriptions. B) relevant e-mail communications. C) logic charts. D) oral descriptions from management. 2) All of the following are guidelines for preparing data flow diagrams except A) show the most detail in the highest-level DFD. B) include all storage files, even if they are only temporary. C) uniquely name all data flows. D) sequentially number process bubbles. 3) The Sarbanes-Oxley Act requires independent auditors to A) create flowcharts to document business processes. B) understand a client's system of internal controls. C) establish effective internal controls. D) prepare and understand all types of system documentation. 4) The passage of the Sarbanes Oxley Act A) made documentation skills even more important. B) requires public companies to prepare an annual internal control report. C) mandates that auditors must be able to prepare, evaluate and read documentation tools such as flowcharts. D) all of the above 5) Which of the following is not a true statement? A) Documentation tools save an organization both time and money. B) Documentation tools are used extensively in the systems development process. C) Data flow diagrams and flowcharts are the two most frequently used systems development documentation tools. D) Data flow diagrams and flowcharts are difficult to prepare and revise using software packages. 6) A data flow diagram A) is a graphical description of the source and destination of data that shows how data flow within an organization. B) is a graphical description of the flow of documents and information between departments or areas of responsibility. C) is a graphical description of the relationship among the input, processing, and output in an information system. D) is a graphical description of the sequence of logical operations that a computer performs as it executes a program. 7) In a DFD, a "data sink" is also known as a A) data store. B) transformation process. C) data flow. D) data destination. 8) In preparing a DFD, when data are transformed through a process, the symbol used should be A) a circle. B) an arrow. C) a square. D) two horizontal lines. 9) In general, a data destination will be shown by A) an arrow pointing away. B) an arrow pointing in. C) arrows pointing both ways. D) no arrows, only two horizontal lines. 10) In a data flow diagram of the customer payment process, "update receivables" will appear above or in A) a square. B) a circle. C) two horizontal lines. D) none of the above 11) In a data flow diagram of the customer payment process, "Customer" will appear above or in A) a square. B) a circle. C) two horizontal lines. D) none of the above 12) In a data flow diagram of the customer payment process, "Customer payment" will appear above or in A) a square. B) a circle. C) two horizontal lines. D) an arrow. 13) Most processes on a DFD can be identified by A) data in-flows only. B) data out-flows only. C) data flows both into or out of a process. D) always being followed by a data store. 14) More than one arrow is needed between symbols on a DFD if A) data elements always flow together. B) data elements flow at different times. C) data elements flow to different locations. D) there is no guideline on use of single or multiple arrows. 15) A DFD created at the highest-level or summary view is referred to as a A) process diagram. B) overview diagram. C) content diagram. D) context diagram. 16) In a payroll processing DFD, the "prepare reports" activity will be represented by , the "employee payroll file" will be represented by , and the "management" will be represented by . A) a circle; two horizontal lines; a square B) a circle; two horizontal lines; two horizontal lines C) a rectangle; a square; a circle D) a square; two horizontal lines; a circle 17) The American Bread Company is a small restaurant that collects, stores, prepares and provides meals to customers in Miami, Florida. When food is received, it is recorded in a database and a receiving ticket is provided to the vendor. When food is used, the database is updated so that it always reflects the amount and type of food available to customers. In a data flow diagram, which type of symbol would be used to represent vendors? A) B) C) D) 18) The American Bread Company is a small restaurant that collects, stores, prepares and provides meals to customers in Miami, Florida. When food is received, it is recorded in a database and a receiving ticket is provided to the vendor. When food is used, the database is updated so that it always reflects the amount and type of food available to customers. In a data flow diagram, which type of symbol would be used to represent the system processing food received from the vendor? A) B) C) D) 19) The American Bread Company is a small restaurant that collects, stores, prepares and provides meals to customers in Miami, Florida. When food is received, it is recorded in a database and a receiving ticket is provided to the vendor. When food is used, the database is updated so that it always reflects the amount and type of food available to customers. In a data flow diagram, which type of symbol would be used to represent the storage location of data in the system? A) B) C) D) 20) The American Bread Company is a small restaurant that collects, stores, prepares and provides meals to customers in Miami, Florida. When food is received, it is recorded in a database and a receiving ticket is provided to the vendor. When food is used, the database is updated so that it always reflects the amount and type of food available to customers. In a data flow diagram, which type of symbol would be used to represent the process of updating the company's inventory records in the system? A) B) C) D) 21) The American Bread Company is a small restaurant that collects, stores, prepares and provides meals to customers in Miami, Florida. When food is received, it is recorded in a database and a receiving ticket is provided to the vendor. When food is used, the database is updated so that it always reflects the amount and type of food available to customers. In a data flow diagram, which type of symbol would be used to represent the flow of data provided by the vendors into the system? A) B) C) D) 22) Terrell and Monique Anderson run an antique store in their hometown of Dayton, Ohio. To find items to sell in their shop, they travel around the United States and Europe buying unique artifacts. Within an hour of making a purchase, they use their smartphone to take a picture of the item and post a short tweet about the item on Twitter. Then, they ship the item back to Dayton for sale in their shop. Which symbol should be used to represent Twitter in a context diagram of this process? A) B) C) D) 23) Terrell and Monique Anderson run an antique store in their hometown of Dayton, Ohio. To find items to sell in their shop, they travel around the United States and Europe buying unique artifacts. Within an hour of making a purchase, they use their smartphone to take a picture of the item and post a short tweet about the item on Twitter. Which symbol should be used to represent the preparation of data for their tweet in a context diagram of this process? A) B) C) D) 24) Terrell and Monique Anderson run an antique store in their hometown of Dayton, Ohio. To find items to sell in their shop, they travel around the United States and Europe buying unique artifacts. Within an hour of making a purchase, they use their smartphone to take a picture of the item and post a short tweet about the item on Twitter. Which symbol should be used to represent the transfer of data to Twitter in a context diagram of this process? A) B) C) D) 25) Terrell and Monique Anderson run an antique store in their hometown of Dayton, Ohio. To find items to sell in their shop, they travel around the United States and Europe buying unique artifacts. Within an hour of making a purchase, they use their smartphone to take a picture of the item and post a short tweet about the item on Twitter. Which symbol should be used to represent the remote server that stores the tweets (i.e., the Twitter posts) data? A) B) C) D) 26) Chas Mulligan has been hired by Yardley Security as an assistant to the internal auditor. He has been asked to document the existing accounting information system, and focus on the activities and flow of data between activities. He decides to begin with a summary description of the sources and uses of data in the organization and how they are processed by the system. The documentation tool that he should employ for this purpose is a A) data flow diagram. B) document flowchart. C) system flowchart. D) program flowchart. 27) A well-planned and drawn level 0 data flow diagram for the expenditure cycle would show which of the following processes? A) 1.0 Order Goods; 2.0 Receive and Store Goods; 3.0 Pay for Goods B) 1.0 Order Goods; 1.1 Receive and Store Goods; 1.2 Pay for Goods C) 0.1 Order Goods; 0.2 Receive and Store Goods; 0.3 Pay for Goods D) 0.1 Order Goods; 0.12 Receive and Store Goods; 0.13 Pay for Goods 28) A well-planned and drawn context data flow diagram will include how many processes? A) one B) between 5 and 7 C) between 2 and 7, but no more than 7 D) as many as are needed to accurately depict the process being documented 29) Data flow diagrams depict A) processes, but not who is performing the processes. B) processes, but not the data that flows between processes. C) who is performing processes, but not how they perform the process. D) who is performing processes, but not the data that flows between processes. 30) Which is the correct label for the blank transformation process circle in the data flow diagram below? A) 1.2 Check Credit B) 1.2 Enter Order in Sales Journal C) 1.2 Does Customer Have Credit? D) 1.2 Salesperson Approves 31) In the data flow diagram below, inventory is a A) data store. B) data source. C) data flow. D) data source and destination. 44) In the data flow diagram below, Shipping is a A) data store. B) data flow. C) data source. D) data destination. 45) In the data flow diagram below, which process happens first? A) Respond to customer inquiries B) Take order C) Check inventory availability D) Approve order 47) In a data flow diagram of the vendor payment process, what symbol would most appropriately reflect an update of the payables account? A) a square B) a circle C) two horizontal lines D) none of the above 48) In a data flow diagram of the vendor payment process, "Vendor" will appear above or in A) a square. B) a circle. C) two horizontal lines. D) none of the above 49) In a data flow diagram, an inverted triangle represents A) an internal control. B) document filing. C) on page connection. D) document processing. 50) In a data flow diagram that depicts a company's internal controls, where is each internal control typically explained in detail? A) in an annotation on the same page as the internal control B) inside the symbol used to represent the internal control C) on a table that accompanies the internal control data flow diagram D) Internal controls are not typically explained in detail in an internal control data flow diagram. 51) Which documentation technique would not depict the type of storage medium used (such as a flash drive or a hard drive) to physically store data? A) system flowchart B) data flow diagram C) business process diagram D) internal control flowchart 52) In a data flow diagram of the order shipping process, what symbol would most appropriately denote a "Bill of Lading" used in the process? A) a square B) a circle C) two horizontal lines D) an arrow 3.2 Prepare and use flow diagrams to understand, evaluate, and document information systems. 1) The correct label for Shape 1 in the flowchart below is A) Purchase Order 3 B) Purchase Requisition 1 C) Accounts Payable Trial Balance D) Purchase Order 2 2) The correct label for Shape 2 in the flowchart below is A) 1 B) Purchase Requisition 1 C) Receiving Report 1 D) 2 3) The correct label for Shape 3 in the flowchart below is A) Purchase Order 1. B) Purchase Requisition 1. C) Receiving Report 1. D) 4. 4) The correct shape for the triangle labeled "Supplier" in the flowchart below should be a A) magnetic disk. B) terminal. C) manual process. D) off-page connector. 5) When preparing a document flowchart, the names of organizational departments or job functions should appear in the A) column headings. B) right-hand margin. C) written narrative accompanying the flowchart. D) title of the flowchart. 6) Flowchart symbols A) are divided into four categories. B) are unique to the organization creating the flowchart. C) are normally drawn using a flowcharting template. D) eliminate the need for narrative descriptions or explanations. 7) Which is a true statement regarding the use of the manual processing symbol in a flowchart? A) If a document is moved from one column to another, show the document only in the last column. B) Each manual processing symbol should have an input and an output. C) Do not connect two documents when moving from one column to another. D) Use a manual processing symbol to indicate a document being filed. 8) Which is a true statement regarding a document flowchart? A) A document flowchart illustrates the sequence of logical operations performed by a computer. B) A document flowchart is particularly useful in analyzing the adequacy of internal control procedures. C) A document flowchart is more useful than a data flow diagram. D) A document flowchart is not normally used in evaluating internal control procedures. Use the chart below to answer the following questions regarding flow chart symbols. 9) Which symbol would be used in a flowchart to represent a computer process? A) #1 B) #2 C) #5 D) #15 10) Which symbol would be used in a flowchart to represent a decision? A) #10 B) #16 C) #9 D) #6 11) Which symbol would be used in a flowchart to represent an invoice sent to a customer? A) #2 B) #6 C) #1 D) #15 12) Which symbol would be used in a flowchart to represent a general ledger? A) #2 B) #1 C) #3 D) #5 13) Which symbol would be used in a flowchart to represent a manual process? A) #5 B) #6 C) #10 D) #11 14) Which symbol would be used in a flowchart to represent a connection to another part of the flowchart on the same page? A) #4 B) #13 C) #14 D) #15 15) Which symbol would be used in a flowchart to represent a connection to another part of the flowchart on a different page? A) #4 B) #13 C) #14 D) #15 16) Which symbol would be used in a flowchart to represent a file of paper documents? A) #7 B) #8 C) #9 D) #15 17) Which symbol would be used in a flowchart to represent a general ledger master file kept on magnetic disk? A) #2 B) #5 C) #7 D) #8 18) Which symbol would be used in a flowchart to represent employee time cards sent by department managers to the payroll department? A) #1 B) #4 C) #11 D) #16 19) Which symbol would be used in a flowchart to represent the display of a report on a computer screen? A) #1 B) #2 C) #3 D) #11 20) Which symbol would be used in a flowchart to represent the addition of information about a step represented in another symbol on the flowchart? A) #1 B) #5 C) #11 D) #15 21) Which symbol would be used in a flowchart to represent a payroll master file kept on magnetic tape? A) #4 B) #7 C) #8 D) #9 22) Which symbol would be used in a flowchart to represent a beginning, an ending, or a connection to another procedure? A) #9 B) #14 C) #15 D) #16 23) Which symbol would be used in a flowchart to represent a flow of data or documents? A) #12 B) #13 C) #14 D) #15 24) Which symbol would be used in a flowchart to represent a communication link? A) #12 B) #13 C) #14 D) #15 25) In a document flowchart of a manual payroll processing system, "update customer file" will be shown by a(n) symbol, and "prepare vendor check" will be shown by a(n) symbol. A) input; output B) input; manual operation C) manual operation; output D) manual operation; manual operation 26) A flowchart that depicts the relationships among the input, processing, and output of an AIS is A) an internal control flowchart. B) a document flowchart. C) a system flowchart. D) a program flowchart. 27) In a program flowchart, branching to alternative paths is represented by A) a terminal. B) data/information flow. C) computer operation. D) decision diamond. 28) Nishant Kumar has been hired by American Manufacturing as a staff accountant in the internal audit department. He has been asked to thoroughly document the existing accounting information system in preparation for making recommendations for improvements to internal controls. He decides to begin with a description of the information stored in paper records, their sources, and their destinations. The documentation tool that he should employ for this purpose is a A) data flow diagram. B) document flowchart. C) system flowchart. D) program flowchart. 29) Nishant Kumar has been hired by American Manufacturing as a staff accountant in the internal audit department. He has been asked to thoroughly document the existing accounting information system in preparation for making recommendations for improvements. He decides to begin by meeting with the information technology staff in order to develop an understanding of the computer programs used by the system. The documentation tool that he should employ for this purpose is a A) data flow diagram. B) document flowchart. C) system flowchart. D) program flowchart. 30) Nishant Kumar has been hired by American Manufacturing as a staff accountant in the internal audit department. He has been asked to thoroughly document the existing accounting information system in preparation for making recommendations for improvements. He decides to begin by meeting with the information technology staff in order to develop an understanding of the overall operation of the AIS, including data entry, storage, and output. The documentation tool that he should employ for this purpose is a A) data flow diagram. B) document flowchart. C) system flowchart. D) program flowchart. 31) A materials requisition order document is prepared from the inventory file and the materials file, both of which are stored on a hard drive. Which one of the following diagrams represents this activity? A) B) C) D) 32) A customer's check is returned for insufficient funds and the accounts receivable file, stored on a hard drive, is updated. Which one of the following diagrams represents this activity? A) B) C) D) 33) A business simulation game that is used by colleges and universities all over the world has students submit decisions over the Internet. Decisions are stored online, processed on the server, and then the results are stored online. They are then downloaded by students in preparation for the next round. Which one of the following diagrams represents this activity? A) B) C) D) 34) A report is generated from data stored on a hard drive. Which one of the following diagrams represents this activity? A) B) C) D) 35) An employee receives a paycheck prepared in the payroll process. Which one of the following diagrams represents this activity? A) B) C) D) 36) A student manually prepares a homework assignment and then turns it in to her teacher. Which one of the following diagrams represents this activity? A) B) C) D) 37) Which of the following is not true about program flowcharts? A) Program flowcharts are a high-level overview of all business processes. B) Program flowcharts document the processing logic of computer programs. C) A program flowchart will exist for every computer process symbol on a system flowchart. D) Program flowcharts increase computer programmer productivity. Use the chart below to answer the following questions regarding flow chart symbols. 41) Which symbol would be used in a flowchart to represent the symbol for a file? A) #9 B) #5 C) #6 D) #11 42) Which symbol would be used in a flowchart to represent manually prepared control totals? A) #9 B) #8 C) #4 D) #7 43) Which symbol would be used in a flowchart to represent a customer sales order? A) #2 B) #1 C) #5 D) #15 44) Which symbol would be used in a flowchart to note that every sales order contains the customer name, address, product number, quantity ordered, item cost, and credit terms? A) #5 B) #8 C) #11 D) #16 45) Which symbol would be used in a flowchart to indicate a wireless connection between a laptop and the mainframe? A) #13 B) #12 C) #11 D) #14 46) Which symbol would be used in a flowchart to indicate flight information was displayed to customers via a large electronic screen in the airport terminal? A) #1 B) #2 C) #3 D) #4 47) Which symbol would be used in a flowchart to indicate the process started with the Human Resources department? A) #1 B) #10 C) #12 D) #16 48) Carly Jackson is a staff auditor for KPMG. She has been asked to document the client's existing accounting information system so the engagement team can assess the client's adequacy of controls around financial reporting. She decides to begin by creating a flowchart to describe, analyze, and evaluate internal controls. What documentation tool should she use for this purpose? A) internal control flowchart B) document flowchart C) system flowchart D) dataflow diagram 49) Carly Jackson is a staff auditor for KPMG. She has been asked to document the client's existing accounting information system so the engagement team can assess the client's adequacy of controls around financial reporting. She decides to begin by examining the client's key software applications, examining a flowchart that illustrates the sequence of logical operations performed by the system in executing the application. To do this, Carly should ask the client for what type of flowchart? A) internal control flowchart B) document flowchart C) system flowchart D) program flowchart 50) To create a good business process flowchart, one should emphasize and put less emphasis on . A) meeting with top management; meeting with staff employees B) following rigid rules on how to prepare a business process flowchart; clearly communicating the activities involved in the process C) clearly communicating the activities involved in the process; following rigid rules on how to prepare a business process flowchart D) meeting with staff employees; meeting with top management Chapter 12 The Revenue Cycle: Sales to Cash Collections 12.1 Describe the basic business activities and related information processing operations performed in the revenue cycle. 1) Basic segregation of duties requires the credit manager reports to the and the treasurer report to the . A) treasurer; controller B) treasurer; vice president of finance C) controller; vice president of finance D) marketing manager; vice president of finance 2) The normally triggers the billing process in the revenue cycle. A) sales order received from the sales department B) picking ticket received from the sales department C) packing slip received from the shipping department D) journal voucher received from the shipping department 3) The normally triggers the customer payment recording process. A) sales invoice B) deposit slip C) remittance advice D) customer monthly statement 4) The should always be included with a merchandise shipment to a customer. A) picking ticket B) packing slip C) sales invoice D) remittance advice 5) According to generally accepted accounting principles, a sale is recognized when A) cash is received from the customer. B) inventory is removed from the warehouse. C) inventory becomes the legal property of the customer. D) a sales order is approved by sales, inventory control, and credit departments. 6) is not a basic activity of the revenue cycle. A) Sales order entry B) Shipping C) Receiving D) Billing 7) When a customer places an order (on account) for a certain product, what should be done before the order is checked for inventory availability? A) The customer's available credit should be checked. B) The sales order should be created and written to a file. C) Shipping should be notified of an order in process. D) A picking list should be generated for the warehouse. 8) How is credit approval generally handled for established customers with a documented payment history? A) A new credit application is requested. B) General authorization by a sales clerk C) Specific authorization by the credit manager D) A formal credit check should be made for each sale. 9) What is a typical procedure for processing sales orders from new customers or customers making a purchase that causes their credit limit to be exceeded? A) General authorization to approve the order is given to sales clerks. B) Specific authorization must be granted by the credit manager. C) The sale should be rejected. D) The sales clerk should order a report from a credit bureau before approving the order. 10) Checking the quantity of inventory available before accepting a sales order is a good practice for all of the reasons except to A) determine which items may need to be back ordered. B) verify the accuracy of the perpetual inventory records. C) inform the customer about availability and delivery times. D) update inventory records to reduce the quantity available by the number of items ordered. 11) Special software packages called can help an organization manage customer service. A) EDI systems B) CRM systems C) POS systems D) VMI systems 12) The is a legal contract that defines responsibility for goods that are in transit. A) bill of lading B) packing slip C) back order D) picking list 13) Two documents usually accompany goods shipped to a customer. What are the two documents? A) a bill of lading and an invoice B) a packing slip and a bill of lading C) an invoice and a packing slip D) an invoice and a sales order 14) The basic document created in the billing process is call a . A) bill of lading B) sales invoice C) sales order D) packing list 15) A company uses the method for tracking accounts receivable where customers pay according to individual sales invoices. This describes the method. A) monthly statement B) open-invoice C) balance forward D) cycle billing 16) A method for tracking accounts receivable that matches specific invoices and payments from the customer is called a(n) method. A) specific identification B) balance forward C) cycle billing D) open-invoice 17) The document a customer returns with their payment and that identifies the source and the amount of the payment is called a A) remittance advice. B) remittance list. C) credit memorandum. D) debit memorandum. 18) In the method of tracking accounts receivable, customers pay according to the amount showing on their monthly statement and payments are applied against the total account balance. A) specific identification B) open-invoice C) balance forward D) remittance advice 19) When a customer pays off the balance on an invoice, the payment is credited to the file. A) customer master B) sales transaction C) cash receipts master D) All of the above are correct. 20) A type of business document in which part of the original document is returned to the source for further processing is called a document. A) feedback B) returnable C) closed-loop D) turnaround 21) A document typically encountered in the revenue cycle that is both an output document and a source document is the A) sales invoice. B) customer purchase order. C) sales order. D) packing slip. 22) A(n) system prepares and mails monthly statements to customers throughout the entire month, instead of just at the end of the month. A) continuous B) open-invoice C) cycle billing D) balance forward 23) The activities involved in soliciting and processing customer orders within the revenue cycle are known as the A) sales order entry process. B) shipping order process. C) revenue process. D) marketing process. 24) Laz Chance wears roller blades and headphones when he is at work at the Squishy Things Toy Company. He is a product packer. The headphones give him computer-generated instructions so he knows the location of each item and quantity that should be included in the order. These instructions are the equivalent of a A) picking ticket. B) bill of lading. C) packing slip. D) sales order. 25) The shipping department at Eka Toys follows policies that determine which carrier will deliver orders according to the size, weight, and destination of the shipment. It maintains standing agreements with shippers that specify legal responsibility for the shipment while it is in transit. The terms of the shipping agreements are documented on A) picking tickets. B) packing slips. C) bills of lading. D) RFID tags. 26) The accounts receivable management method typically used by credit card companies is A) balance forward. B) postbilling. C) monthly statement. D) open-invoice. 34) If a firm does not use an ERP, the best way to mitigate the risk of the destruction of master data is to A) implement backup and disaster recovery procedures. B) use an ERP. C) proper segregation of duties. D) use of multiple master data files. 35) If a firm uses an ERP, the best way to mitigate the risk of the destruction of master data is to A) frequently update the ERP system. B) implement the ERP system in three separate instances. C) periodically audit the ERP system. D) integrate the ERP system with all IT functions. 36) Identify a useful tool for monitoring accounts receivable. A) ERP exception report B) accounts receivable aging report C) accounts receivable tolerance report D) customer credit limit report 37) An accounts receivable aging report is useful for doing everything except A) estimating bad debts. B) estimating future sales. C) projecting the timing of future cash flows. D) deciding whether to increase a specific customer's credit limit. 38) It costs times as much to acquire a new customer as it does to make a sale to an existing customer. A) two B) five C) eight D) ten 39) Research suggests which of the following is key to improving total customer satisfaction? A) price of product B) speed of shipping C) quality and nature of customer contact after the sale D) quality and nature of customer contact before the sale 40) A picking ticket is generated by the A) shipping process. B) sales order entry process. C) packing process. D) billing process. 41) A picking ticket is generated by the A) shipping process. B) sales order entry process. C) packing process. D) billing process. 42) The packing slip A) lists the quantity, price, and description of each item included in the shipment. B) lists the price and description of each item included in the shipment. C) lists the quantity and description of each item included in the shipment. D) lists the quantity and price of each item included in the shipment. 12.2 Discuss the key decisions that need to be made in the revenue cycle, and identify the information needed to make those decisions. 1) Which of the decisions below is not ordinarily found as part of the revenue cycle? A) What credit terms should be offered? B) How often should accounts receivable be subjected to audit? C) How can customer payments be processed to maximize cash flows? D) What are the optimal prices for each product or service? 2) Key differences exist when an integrated Enterprise Resource Planning system (ERP) replaces an existing AIS or legacy system. For example, are more accurate and timely, enabling sales order entry staff to provide customers more accurate information about delivery dates. A) inventory records B) cash receipts C) credit approval decisions D) exception reports 3) Which of the following is not a key decision that needs to be made in the revenue cycle? A) How should merchandise be delivered to customers? B) Should credit be extended to customers? C) How can customer payments be processed to maximize cash flow? D) Which vendor should inventory be purchased from? 4) Regularly reviewing an accounts receivable aging report can help management do what? A) spot firms who are falling behind in their payments B) identify customers who have not purchased anything lately C) improve the speed which customers make payments D) determine whether the firm's pricing policy is effective 5) Regularly reviewing an accounts receivable aging report can help management do what? A) identify customers who have not purchased anything lately B) determine whether changes are needed in the firm's credit policies C) improve the speed which customers make payments D) determine whether the firm's pricing policy is effective 6) By using an ERP to merge the billing, sales, and marketing functions, the firm may be able to A) bill the customer right after the sale occurs. B) market products and services on bills sent to customers. C) use customer's past purchase history to send information about related products and services the customer may be interested in. D) eliminate the need for a firm to have a billing, sales, and marketing department. 7) Suppose management wanted to increase the speed of processing customer payments. One way to speed up payment transaction processing is to A) use a FEDI. B) use JEDI analysis software. C) eliminate credit sales. D) extend the amount of credit offered to customers. 12.3 Identify major threats in the revenue cycle, and evaluate the adequacy of various control procedures for dealing with those threats. 1) Before a shipping notice is prepared during the revenue cycle, shipping department personnel should match the inventory received from the warehouse to the A) sales order. B) picking tickets. C) picking ticket and sales order. D) sales order and bill of lading. 2) Which is the best control to prevent invoicing customers for more than the actual quantity shipped? A) Use the information from the sales order to prepare the sales invoice. B) Use the information from the packing slip to prepare the sales invoice. C) Use the information from the bill of lading to prepare the sales invoice. D) Use the information from the picking ticket to prepare the sales invoice. 3) The cashier deposits checks for Benedek Incorporated and also prepares payments to vendors. Of the following, who is best able to reconcile the bank statement to Benedek's records on a regular basis? A) cashier B) internal audit department C) treasurer D) external auditor 4) A monthly statement sent to customers serves a control purpose by A) providing an opportunity for customers to verify the balance owed and activity on the account. B) triggering the process to record a customer payment. C) summarizing invoices and amounts due for customers. D) reminding customers of the balance due and due date. 5) Which of the following is not one of the controls when customer payments are commingled with other mail? A) preparing a remittance list as mail is opened B) restrictively endorsing checks when received C) requiring two mail room clerks to open mail together D) requiring the controller to be personally present when mail is received and opened 6) Matching customer account numbers and inventory item numbers to the numbers in the customer and inventory master files is an example of a A) completeness test. B) field check. C) reasonableness test. D) validity check. 7) During the sales order entry process, a is performed to compare the quantity ordered with the standard amounts normally ordered. A) completeness test B) redundant data check C) field check D) reasonableness test 8) During the sales order entry process, a is performed to verify that each transaction record contains all appropriate data items. A) completeness test B) redundant data check C) field check D) reasonableness test 9) The best solution for maintaining accurate automated perpetual inventory system is to use A) closed-loop verification when inventory is received from vendors and recorded. B) point of sale devices integrated with inventory records. C) periodic physical counts to reconcile with perpetual inventory records. D) RFID tags. 10) Segregation of duties controls dictates that the collection and recording functions be kept separate from each other. However, the accounts receivable department needs to know when customers pay their invoices. What is a solution to this potential internal control problem? A) Establish a lockbox arrangement with a bank. B) Have customers send a remittance advice with their payment. C) Have mailroom personnel prepare a remittance list which can be forwarded to accounts receivable. D) all of the above 11) The benefits of a lockbox arrangement with a bank are maximized when A) the bank is located nearby to the company, so remittance advices can be delivered to the company every day. B) several banks around the country are used, in order to minimize the time payments spend in the mail. C) an arrangement is made with only one bank, so all remittance advices can be batched for processing. D) the bank deposits the payments and accesses the customer's information system to record the payments. 12) An is an arrangement where a bank receives customer payments and transmits payment data to the organization. A) e-commerce. B) electronic funds transfer (EFT). C) electronic lockbox. D) electronic data interchange (EDI). 13) Customers that send their payments electronically directly to the billing company's bank are using A) electronic funds transfer (EFT). B) electronic data interchange (EDI). C) procurement cards. D) an electronic lockbox. 14) A way to incorporate the advantages of Electronic Data Interchange with the Electronic Funds Transfer is A) Financial Electronic Data Interchange. B) e-commerce. C) to use procurement cards. D) an electronic lockbox. 15) To ensure proper segregation of duties, only the has authority to issue credit memos. A) accounts receivable supervisor B) controller C) credit manager D) cashier 16) It has been discovered that credit sales have been made to customers with a poor credit rating. If this continues, the company will face increasing uncollectible receivables and losses due to bad debts. Separation of duties between and should help resolve the problem. A) shipping; billing duties B) credit approval; marketing C) billing; credit approval D) marketing; accounts receivable 17) Consider the following revenue cycle scenario: The company has been exposed to customer dissatisfaction and the suggested control procedure to be implemented is to install and use bar-code scanners. What is the threat? A) The company may be shipping the wrong merchandise. B) The company may be shipping the wrong quantities of merchandise. C) The company may be shipping orders to the wrong address. D) All of the above threats may apply to this scenario. 18) Separating the shipping and billing functions is designed to reduce the threat of A) failure to bill customers. B) billing customers for wrong quantities. C) billing customers before merchandise has been shipped. D) shipping the wrong merchandise. 19) All of the following edit checks for online editing of accounts receivable transactions would probably be included except A) validity checks on customer ID and invoice numbers. B) check digit verification on the amount of the sale. C) closed loop verification on the customer ID. D) field checks on the values in dollar fields. 20) When a proper segregation of duties exists in the area of handling cash receipts, the , who reports to the , actually handles the cash and is not the same person who posts cash receipts to customer accounts. A) cashier; treasurer B) cashier; controller C) accountant; treasurer D) accountant; controller 21) In a revenue cycle with proper controls, the who reports to the , is not involved in any cash handling activities. A) accounts receivable clerk; treasurer B) accounts receivable clerk; controller C) cashier; controller D) cashier; treasurer 22) A serious exposure in the revenue cycle is loss of assets. What is the related threat and applicable control procedure that address this exposure? A) shipping errors; reconciliation of sales order with picking ticket and packing slip B) theft of cash; segregation of duties and minimization of cash handling C) making sales that turn out to be uncollectible; force sales people to make collection calls on customers with past due balances D) poor performance; preparation and review of performance reports 23) Which of the following duties could be performed by the same individual and not violate segregation of duty controls? A) handling cash and posting to customer accounts B) issuing credit memos and maintaining customer accounts C) handling cash and authorizing credit memos D) handling cash receipts and mailing vendor payments 24) Internal file labels can be used to prevent the loss of data in the revenue cycle since they A) record off-site storage locations. B) keep competitors from accessing files. C) organize the on-site physical storage site. D) reduce the possibility of erasing important files. 25) The manager of Callow Youth Clothing was entering an order online from Sad Clown Pajamas. He ordered 100 one-size fits all pajama bottoms, but when he ordered 1000 one-size fits all pajama tops, the following error message popped up: "Did you mean to enter a quantity of 1000 for your order?" This message is the result of a A) reasonableness test. B) validity check. C) limit check. D) closed-loop verification. 26) The manager of Cezary Foods was purchasing inventory from Bogumil Distributors online. The manager entered the items and quantities, completed the checkout and payment process, but received the following error message before the order could be processed: "Please enter your phone number." This message is likely the result of a A) validity check. B) completeness test. C) closed-loop verification. D) customer relationship management software application. 27) Bogumil Distributors is an Internet-based wholesaler. Customers enter their orders online. The manager of Cezary Foods was entering an order when the following error message popped up: "Your order exceeds your available credit. You will be contacted within 8 hours." This message is the result of a A) sign check. B) validity check. C) reasonableness test. D) limit check. 28) Because it is the most fungible of all assets, the management of cash has always been the most difficult of all control issues. The most important of cash controls is A) minimization of cash handling. B) lockbox arrangements. C) segregation of duties. D) frequent reconciliation of records. 29) A clerk at a grocery store scanned the bar code for a low cost bag of frozen chicken wings then gave his friend an expensive brand-name bag of frozen chicken wings. Which of the following controls would best prevent the clerk from getting away with doing this? A) physical inventory count B) segregation of duties C) limited physical access to bar codes D) use of RFID tags 30) The accounts receivable clerk destroys all invoices for sales made to family and friends and does not record the sales in the accounts receivable subsidiary ledgers. The family and friends usually give the clerk cash as a "thank you." Which procedure will not prevent or detect this fraud? A) Send monthly statements to all customers with balances owed. B) Reconcile sales invoices in the billing department to the total debits to accounts receivable subsidiary ledgers. C) Sequentially prenumber all invoices and prepare a sequence check at the end of each day. D) Reconcile the accounts receivable control account to the accounts receivable subsidiary ledger. 31) Which of the following poses an internal control problem? A) Physical inspection of inventory quantity and condition is outsourced to a firm that specializes in this service. B) Products are released from inventory after a warehouse employee and a shipping clerk both sign the pick list. C) Sales representatives have authority to increase customers' credit limits in $1,000 increments. D) When customer payments are received in the mail, checks are sent to the cashier's office and remittance advices are sent to the accounts receivable department. 32) The least effective control for preventing an organization from processing fraudulent credit memo is to A) match each credit memo with a receiving report. B) require approval for each credit memo by the credit manager. C) reconcile total of credit memos to total debits posted to customers' subsidiary ledgers. D) sequentially prenumber all credit memos and perform a sequence check at the end of each day. 40) Which of the following is not a threat to the revenue cycle sales order entry process? A) incomplete orders B) invalid orders C) cash flow problems D) uncollectible accounts 41) Which of the following is not a threat to the revenue cycle shipping process? A) incomplete orders B) inventory theft C) picking the wrong items D) wrong shipping address 42) Which of the following is not a threat to the revenue cycle billing process? A) accounts receivable errors B) loss of customers C) failure to bill D) inaccurate credit memos 43) Which of the following is not a general threat to the revenue cycle? A) inaccurate master data B) loss of customers C) poor performance D) unauthorized disclosure of sensitive information 44) Which of the following is not a general threat to the revenue cycle? A) inaccurate master data B) loss of customers C) poor performance D) unauthorized disclosure of sensitive information 45) The legitimacy of customer orders is established by in paper-based customer orders. A) the customer's signature B) the customer's pin number C) the customer's verbal authorization D) prior experience with the customer 46) The legitimacy of customer orders is established by in Internet-based customer orders. A) digital signatures B) the customer's pin number C) the customer's credit card number D) prior experience with the customer 47) For strongest segregation of duties, the credit manager should never report to A) the marketing department. B) the accounting department. C) the credit department. D) the IT department. 48) For strongest segregation of duties, a sales representative should never be allowed to A) discuss the company's products. B) negotiate the sales price. C) approve a sale on credit. D) send a customer a gift. Chapter 13 The Expenditure Cycle: Purchasing to Cash Disbursements 13.1 Explain the basic business activities and related information processing operations performed in the expenditure cycle. 1) The Gwallter Reece Chihuahua Sweater Co. (GRCCo) was established in 2013. It recently signed a large contract with PetCo pet stores. GRCCo will be required to track and forecast sweater sales by linking in to PetCo's sales database. GRCCo will then be responsible for shipping products to PetCo as needed. The relationship between GRCCo and PetCo is an example of A) sales force automation. B) electronic data interchange. C) optical character recognition. D) vendor-managed inventory. 2) One of the basic activities in the expenditure cycle is the receiving and storage of goods, supplies, and services. What is the counterpart of this activity in the revenue cycle? A) sales order entry process B) shipping function C) cash collection activity D) cash payments activity 3) The traditional approach to inventory management to ensure sufficient quantity on hand to maintain production is known as A) safety stock. B) just-in-time production. C) economic order quantity. D) optimal inventory quantity. 4) Economic Order Quantity (EOQ) includes several variables that must be taken into consideration when calculating the optimal order size. One variable, the costs associated with holding inventory, is referred to as A) ordering costs. B) carrying costs. C) the reorder point. D) stockout costs. 5) The specifies the point at which inventory is needed. A) company inventory policies B) reorder point C) economic order quantity D) stockout point 6) Which electronic files are either read or updated when goods are ordered from a vendor? A) inventory, vendors, and accounts payable B) vendors and accounts payable C) inventory, vendors, and open purchase orders D) open purchase orders and accounts payable 7) What is a key feature of materials requirements planning (MRP)? A) minimize or entirely eliminate carrying and stockout costs B) reduce required inventory levels by scheduling production rather than estimating needs C) determine the optimal reorder point D) determine the optimal order size 8) Materials requirements planning (MRP) A) reduces the uncertainty about when materials are needed, thereby reducing the need to carry large levels of inventory. B) is able to compute exactly the cost of purchasing by taking into account all costs associated with inventory carrying. C) requires vendors to deliver inventory to the production site exactly when needed and in the correct quantities. D) None of the above is correct. 9) attempts to minimize or eliminate carrying and stockout costs. A) Just-in-time inventory B) Materials requirements planning C) Economic order quantity D) Evaluated receipt settlement 10) Just-In-Time (JIT) inventory is best characterized by A) frequent deliveries of large quantities to be held at the work centers. B) frequent deliveries of smaller quantities of items to the work centers. C) less frequent deliveries of large quantities of goods to central receiving. D) infrequent bulk deliveries of items directly to work centers. 11) What is the key difference between the MRP and JIT inventory management approaches? A) Only JIT reduces costs and improves efficiency. B) MRP is especially useful for products such as fashion apparel. C) JIT is more effectively used with products that have predictable patterns of demand. D) MRP schedules production to meet estimated sales needs; JIT schedules production to meet customer demands. 12) When would an MRP inventory approach be a preferred to a JIT inventory approach? A) when a product has a short life cycle B) when demand for inventory is fairly predictable C) when demand for inventory is very unpredictable D) MRP is always a preferred method over JIT. 13) Which of the following is least likely to be a major criterion in vendor selection? A) prices of goods B) credit rating of the vendor C) quality of goods D) ability to deliver on time 14) Once a vendor is selected for a product, the vendor's identity is recorded in the A) purchase requisition transaction file. B) purchase requisition master file. C) inventory transaction file. D) inventory master file. 15) Duc An Incorporated provides free coffee to employees. Starbucks delivers coffee packages, sugar, creamer, and filters each week. Every month, Starbucks sends Duc An an invoice. This arrangement is best described as a A) set purchase order. B) fixed purchase order. C) blanket purchase order. D) standard purchase order. 16) A major cost in the purchasing function is the number of purchase orders processed. One technique that may reduce purchasing-related expenses is to have suppliers compete with each other to meet demand at the lowest price. The name of this technique is A) an EDI auction. B) a trading exchange. C) a reverse auction. D) a supplier consortium. 17) Which of the following is generally not shown on a receiving report? A) price of the items B) quantity of the items C) purchase order number D) counted and inspected by 18) A receiving clerk notes that a delivery of 10 units has been received, but the purchase order specified 12 units. A debit memo will need to be prepared to adjust for the difference between the quantity ordered and received. Who should prepare this document? A) the receiving clerk B) the controller C) the vendor D) the purchasing department manager 19) Identify in which of the following scenarios a company could adjust the balance due the vendor by issuing a debit memo. A) quantity different from that ordered B) damage to the goods C) goods that fail inspection for quality D) All of the above are possible scenarios. 20) What is one of the best ways to improve the overall efficiency and effectiveness of the receipt and storage of ordered items? A) requiring all suppliers to have the carrier verify quantities and item numbers before shipment B) requiring all suppliers to include RFID tags on their items C) requiring all suppliers to use EDI to expedite the receiving department function D) requiring all delivery trucks to have satellite data terminals to expedite the receiving department function 21) Vendor invoices are approved by the , which reports to the . A) purchasing department; controller B) accounts payable department; treasurer C) purchasing department; treasurer D) accounts payable department; controller 22) The disbursement voucher and supporting documents are sent to the for payment prior to the due date. A) cashier B) treasurer C) controller D) accounts payable department 23) A(n) system posts an approved invoice to the vendor account and stores it in an open invoice file until payment is made by check. A) nonvoucher B) voucher C) cycle D) evaluated receipt settlement 24) A disbursement voucher contains A) a list of outstanding invoices. B) the net payment amount after deducting applicable discounts and allowances. C) the general ledger accounts to be debited. D) All of the above are correct. 25) One objective of accounts payable is to authorize payment only for goods or services actually ordered and received. The best way to process supplier invoices is to use A) electronic funds transfer for small, occasional purchases from suppliers. B) a nonvoucher system. C) EDI for all small, occasional purchases from suppliers. D) a disbursement voucher system. 26) What is not an advantage of using disbursement vouchers? A) Disbursement vouchers reduce the number of checks written. B) Disbursement vouchers can be prenumbered which simplifies the tracking of all payables. C) Disbursement vouchers facilitate separating the time of invoice approval from the time of invoice payment. D) There are no disadvantages to using disbursement vouchers. 27) Which of the following is not an advantage of a voucher system? A) Several invoices may be included on one voucher, reducing the number of checks. B) Disbursement vouchers may be pre-numbered and tracked through the system. C) The time of voucher approval and payment can be kept separate. D) It is a less expensive and easier system to administer than other systems. 28) A voucher package should include A) a purchase requisition, vendor invoice, and receiving report. B) a purchase order, vendor invoice, and receiving report. C) a purchase requisition, purchase order, and receiving report. D) a bill of lading and vendor invoice. 29) When purchasing miscellaneous supplies, companies can reduce costs, improve efficiency, and combat employee fraud by A) using procurement cards. B) implementing a JIT inventory system. C) requiring employees to personally purchase items then reimbursing employees at the end of each month. D) paying amounts out of petty cash. 30) If available, a 1% discount for payment within 10 days instead of 30 days represents an approximate savings of % annually. A) 1 B) 12 C) 18 D) 36 31) There is a symmetrical interdependence between a firm's expenditure cycle and its suppliers' A) production cycle. B) revenue cycle. C) expenditure cycle. D) general ledger and reporting system. 32) The Gwallter Reece Chihuahua Sweater Co. (GRCCo) was established in 2013. It recently signed a large contract with PetCo pet stores. GRCCo will be required to track and forecast sweater sales. The technology that is used for communication between GRCCo and PetCo is A) electronic data interchange. B) vendor-managed inventory. C) sales force automation. D) optical character recognition. 33) Ngai Nhung is the sales manager at Hung Technologies. At lunch with the company CEO, Ngai proudly announced that he had negotiated a(n) with a client that represented the customer's long-term commitment to buy components from Hung. A) purchase order B) evaluated receipt settlement C) voucher D) blanket purchase order 34) Ngai Nhung is the sales manager at Hung Technologies. At lunch with the company CEO, Ngai proudly announced that he had received a from a client. The client had just requested a large quantity of components from Hung. A) blanket purchase order B) voucher C) purchase order D) purchase requisition 35) Ngai Nhung is the sales manager at Hung Technologies. At lunch with the company CEO, Ngai complained that a recent shipment from a vendor had been unsatisfactory and was returned. As a result, Hung's purchasing manager needed to send a to the supplier. A) debit memo B) purchase order C) blanket purchase order D) receiving report 36) To minimize the number of checks that need to be written to pay vendor invoices, a company should use A) a voucher system. B) a just-in-time inventory system. C) a nonvoucher system. D) an evaluated receipt settlement system. 37) Evaluated receipt settlement increases efficiency by A) eliminating the need for receiving reports. B) eliminating the need for vendor invoices. C) eliminating the need for purchase orders. D) eliminating the need to prepare and mail checks. 38) In the expenditure cycle, Financial Electronic Data Interchange (FEDI) increases efficiency by A) eliminating the need for receiving reports. B) eliminating the need for vendor invoices. C) eliminating the need for purchase orders. D) eliminating the need to prepare and mail checks. 39) Procurement cards differ from corporate credit cards in which of the following ways? A) Credit limits can be set for procurement cards, but not corporate credit cards. B) Credit cards can be used to make purchases without an explicit sign off by supervisors, but procurement cards require a sign off. C) Procurement cards can only be used with approved vendors, but credit cards can be used anywhere. D) Procurement card invoices are sent separately for each card, whereas corporate credit cards are consolidated into a single invoice. 46) Identify the department below that should not be able to submit a purchase requisition. A) Marketing B) Production C) Inventory Control D) None of the above 47) Once a purchase request is approved, what is the next step? A) The system creates a purchase order. B) The accounts payable department approves the purchase request, creating a purchase order. C) The inventory master file is accessed to find the preferred supplier(s). D) The department that created the purchase request may buy the requested item(s). 48) EFT payments are generally performed by A) the treasurer. B) a cashier. C) an accounts payable clerk. D) a credit manager. 49) Which of the following is not an activity performed in the expenditure cycle? A) ordering B) receiving C) cash disbursement D) shipping 50) The first major business activity in the expenditure cycle is A) ordering inventory, supplies, or services. B) a customer sale. C) shipping goods to customers. D) receiving goods from vendors. 51) The traditional approach to inventory management generally involves A) high stockout costs. B) minimizing item cost. C) receiving goods or services just prior to the time they are needed. D) maintaining inventory levels so that production can continue even if inventory use is greater than expected. 54) Although there are some similarities between JIT and MRP, identify one major difference below. A) production scheduling B) reducing the opportunity for inventory theft C) reducing inventory carrying costs D) requires more analysis than EOQ 55) Ideally, inventory purchases occur in response to in a JIT inventory system. A) customer demand B) optimal demand C) forecast demand D) supplier demand 56) A JIT inventory system would be especially useful for a company that manufactures A) toys associated with new movie releases. B) toothpaste. C) alarm clocks. D) motor oil. 57) Which of the following factors is not of key importance when selecting inventory suppliers? A) product price B) vendor corporate structure C) product quality D) vendor delivery dependability 58) MacDougalKids is a mid-sized manufacturer of organic baby food. MacDougalKids uses the EOQ inventory management approach. Which of the following factors would likely be least important when selecting inventory suppliers? A) product price B) product quality C) vendor delivery dependability D) All would be equally important. 59) MacDougalKids is a mid-sized manufacturer of organic baby food. MacDougalKids uses a JIT inventory management approach. Which of the following factors would likely be least important when selecting inventory suppliers? A) product price B) product quality C) vendor delivery dependability D) All would be equally important 13.2 Discuss the key decisions to be made in the expenditure cycle, and identify the information needed to make those decisions. 1) To accomplish the objectives set forth in the expenditure cycle, a number of key management decisions must be addressed. Which of the decisions below is not ordinarily found as part of the expenditure cycle? A) How can cash payments to vendors be managed to maximize cash flow? B) What is the optimal level of inventory and supplies to carry on hand? C) Where should inventories and supplies be held? D) What are the optimal prices for each product or service? 13.3 Identify major threats in the expenditure cycle, and evaluate the adequacy of various control procedures for dealing with those threats. 1) Requiring all packing slips be reconciled to purchase orders before accepting a delivery of inventory would be most likely to prevent which of the following situations? A) A supplier delivers more inventory than ordered at the end of the year and sends an invoice for the total quantity delivered. B) An employee mails a fake invoice to the company, which is then paid. C) The inventory records are incorrectly updated when a receiving department employee enters the wrong product number on the receiving report. D) Receiving department employees steal inventory and then claim the inventory was received and delivered to the warehouse. 2) Comparing quantities on a vendor invoice to quantities on the receiving report would not prevent or detect which of the following situations? A) receiving and accepting inventory not ordered B) theft of inventory by receiving department employees C) update of wrong inventory items due to data entry error D) order for an excessive quantity of inventory 3) Which of the following would probably be the least effective control to mitigate the risk of paying a phony invoice payable for inventory purchases that were never made? A) Only pay from original invoices. B) Require three-way match for all inventory purchase invoices. C) Cancel all invoices and supporting documentation when paid. D) Establish strict access and authorization controls for the approved vendor master file. 4) Which of the following controls would be the least effective in preventing paying the same invoice twice? A) Only pay from original invoices. B) Cancel each document in the voucher package once the check is prepared and mailed. C) Only pay vendor invoices that have been matched and reconciled to a purchase order and a receiving report. D) Allow only the accounts payable department to authorize payment for vendor invoices and allow only the cash disbursements department to cut and mail checks to vendors. 5) If duties are properly segregated, the authorization function is performed by , the recording function is performed by , and cash handling is performed by the . A) accounts payable; purchasing; cashier B) purchasing; accounts payable; cashier C) purchasing; cashier; accounts payable D) purchasing; accounts payable; treasurer 6) Evaluated receipt settlement approves payment of vendor invoices after reconciling the purchase order and the A) receiving report. B) vendor invoice. C) sales invoice. D) disbursement voucher. 7) What is the best control to mitigate the threat of paying prices that are too high for goods ordered? A) Require the receiving department to verify the existence of a valid purchase order. B) Use only approved suppliers and solicit competitive bids. C) Only pay invoices that are supported by the original voucher package. D) Use bar-code technology to eliminate data entry errors. 8) What is the best way to prevent the acceptance of goods that were never ordered? A) Order only from approved vendors. B) Enforce an appropriate conflict of interest policy in place. C) Match the packing slip to a purchase order before accepting delivery. D) Require specific authorization from the purchasing manager before accepting any goods. 9) Which of the following is not a common control for ensuring inventory is secure and inventory counts are accurate? A) control of physical access to the inventory storage areas B) transfers of inventory with proper documentation C) sending "blind" copies of purchase orders to inventory control for data entry D) making physical counts of inventory at least once per year 10) What control would best mitigate the threat of paying an invoice twice? A) never authorizing payment of a photocopy of an invoice B) double-checking mathematical accuracy of invoices C) approval of purchase orders D) maintaining adequate perpetual inventory records 11) Which control would best prevent payments made to fictitious vendors? A) Allow payments only to approved vendors. B) Restrict access to any payment or approval documents. C) Have an independent bank reconciliation. D) Make sure all documents are in order before approving payments. 12) In the expenditure cycle, good control dictates that expenditures should be paid by check. This may not be feasible when minor purchases are made. To facilitate quick payment for minor purchases, a(n) should be set up and maintained using . A) special bank account; disbursement vouchers B) imprest fund; vouchers C) cash box; small denomination bills D) petty cash fund; procurement cards 13) A surprise count of an imprest petty cash fund should find the total of equal to the amount authorized for the fund. A) cash and credit memos B) cash and vouchers C) cash D) cash and checks 14) What control should be put in place that assigns responsibility for EFT payments made to vendors? A) Encrypt all EFT transmissions. B) Time stamp all EFT transactions. C) Establish a control group to monitor EFT transactions for validity and accuracy. D) Number all EFT transactions. 15) Which of the following threats is not specific to the purchase requisition process of the expenditure cycle? A) stockouts B) purchasing from unauthorized vendors C) requisitioning goods not needed D) All of the above are threats in the purchase requisition process. 16) The management at Barks-a-Million is considering a new inventory control system. The current system is inadequate because it frequently causes stockouts that interrupt production and lead to excess stock of other materials — resulting in markdowns and high carrying costs. The new system will focus on ensuring that these costs are minimized. The new inventory control system will likely employ A) a reorder point. B) a just-in-time inventory system. C) the economic order quantity. D) materials requirements planning. 17) The management at Barks-a-Million is considering a new inventory control system. The current system is inadequate because it frequently causes stockouts that interrupt production and lead to excess stock of other materials — resulting in markdowns and high carrying costs. The new system will focus on ensuring that orders are placed with sufficient lead time to prevent stockouts by using A) a just-in-time inventory system. B) the economic order quantity. C) materials requirements planning. D) a reorder point. 18) The management at Barks-a-Million is considering a new inventory control system. The current system is inadequate because it frequently causes stockouts that interrupt production and lead to excess stock of other materials — resulting in markdowns and high carrying costs. The new system, which will focus on forecasting demand for Sad Clown's products, will likely employ A) a just-in-time inventory system. B) the economic order quantity. C) materials requirements planning. D) a reorder point. 19) The management at Barks-a-Million is considering a new inventory control system. The current system is inadequate because it frequently causes stockouts that interrupt production and lead to excess stock of other materials — resulting in markdowns and high carrying costs. The new system will focus on reducing or completely eliminating carrying costs, most likely employing A) a just-in-time inventory system. B) a reorder point. C) materials requirements planning. D) the economic order quantity. 20) Anong Mali is the purchasing manager at Wattana Technologies. She has responsibility for reviewing and authorizing purchase orders. She also reviews receiving reports, approves or corrects them, and authorizes the cashier to pay vendor invoices. Which of the following would correct control weaknesses related to these activities? A) Controls are adequate under the current system. B) Vendor invoices should be reviewed by accounts receivable and then cancelled when paid. C) Vendor invoices should be reviewed by the purchasing manager to ensure that they are correct. D) Accounts payable should reconcile purchase orders, receiving reports, and invoices. 21) Anong Mali is the purchasing manager at Wattana Technologies. She has responsibility for reviewing and authorizing purchase orders. Receiving reports are prepared by shipping and receiving based on the relevant purchase order(s). Purchase orders, receiving reports, and vendor invoices are reconciled by accounts payable, which authorizes payment. Which of the following would correct control weaknesses related to these activities? A) Controls are adequate under the current system. B) Accounts payable should authorize purchase orders. C) Receiving reports should be reviewed and corrected by the purchasing manager. D) Vendor invoices should be reviewed by the purchasing manager to ensure that they are correct. 22) The receiving clerk at Wattana Technologies examines incoming shipments and reconciles their contents with the relevant purchase orders. A receiving report is then sent to accounts receivable and the vendor's invoice is approved for payment. Which of the following would correct control weaknesses related to these activities? A) Accounts payable should reconcile the purchase order and the receiving report. B) The invoice should be approved for payment by the shipping clerk after the purchase order and receiving report are reconciled. C) Invoices, purchase orders, and receiving reports should be reconciled by the receiving clerk. D) Controls are adequate under the current system. 23) The receiving clerk at Wattana Technologies examines incoming shipments and checks their purchase order numbers. A receiving report is then sent to accounts payable, where it is reconciled with the relevant purchase orders and invoices and payment is authorized. Which of the following would correct control weaknesses related to the clerk's activities? A) Controls are adequate under the current system. B) Vendor invoices should be approved for payment by the purchasing manager. C) Purchase orders and receiving reports should be reconciled by the purchasing manager. D) Vendor invoices should be approved for payment by the shipping clerk after the purchase order and receiving report are reconciled. 24) Which of the controls below would be least effective at preventing a company from ordering goods at a price higher than market? A) Only place orders with vendors on an approved vendor list. B) Variance analysis of actual expenses to budgeted expenses C) For high-dollar goods, solicit competitive bids from possible vendors. D) Frequent review of, and update to, vendor price lists stored in the AIS 25) Which of the following would be the best control to prevent receiving department employees from stealing inventory and claiming the ordered quantity wasn't received from the vendor? A) Reconcile quantity on packing slip to physical count when accepting delivery. B) Restrict physical access to the receiving area. C) Require all deliveries be made at the receiving area. D) Require dual signatures on the move ticket when receiving delivers the inventory to the warehouse. 30) Identify one way to improve the accuracy of inventory records that use a perpetual inventory approach A) use of an ERP system B) require the accounting department to calculate cost of goods sold periodically C) use IT to eliminate the need for manual data entry D) use of an MRP inventory system 31) Why would a firm perform ABC cost analysis? A) to identify the best inventory supplier B) to reconcile accounts payable C) to prioritize physical inventory counts D) to verify production quality 33) What is the main reason a list of potential alternative suppliers be maintained? A) in case the primary supplier is out of stock B) so the firm can sample different suppliers C) in case the primary supplier is more expensive D) to segregate purchasing suppliers 34) Identify the most accurate statement below. A) Several purchase requisitions are often created to fill one purchase order. B) Several purchase orders are often created to fill one purchase requisition. C) Every purchase requisition should lead to the creation of one purchase order. D) Every purchase order should lead to the creation of one purchase requisition. 35) Identify item below that is the biggest purchasing function cost driver. A) the number of purchase requisitions processed B) the number of suppliers used C) the number of purchase orders processed D) the quantity of items ordered 36) A reverse auction would likely be best suited to the purchase of A) central processing units (CPUs). B) soybeans. C) designer clothing. D) automobiles. 37) One way a firm could reduce the risk of problems with supplier dependability is to A) purchase inventory from only U.S.-based suppliers. B) use an ERP system for purchases. C) require suppliers to be ISO 9000 certified. D) automate the purchasing function. 38) An important control that can be used to reduce the risk of employee kickbacks is A) surveillance cameras. B) job rotation. C) off-site restrooms. D) use of ID badges. 39) Restricting access to the approved supplier list can A) help reduce the risk of fraudulent disbursements. B) cause purchase order approval delays. C) eliminate the risk of duplicate payment. D) improve the efficiency of the expenditure cycle. Chapter 14 The Production Cycle 14.1 Describe the major business activities and related information processing operations performed in the production cycle. 1) The AIS compiles and feeds information among the business cycles. What is the relationship between the revenue and production cycles regarding the exchange of information? A) The revenue cycle provides sales forecast and customer order information to the production cycle, but the production cycle sends information back to revenue about finished goods production. B) The revenue cycle receives information from the production cycle about raw materials needs. C) The production cycle sends cost of goods manufactured information back to the revenue cycle. D) The production cycle does not exchange information with the revenue cycle. 2) Identify a key feature associated with materials requirements planning. A) determining economic order quantity for all materials B) minimizing or eliminating carrying and stockout costs C) determining the optimal reorder points for all materials D) reducing required inventory levels by scheduling production, rather than estimating needs 3) The production cycle differs from the revenue and expenditure cycles for all the following reasons except A) cost accounting is involved in all activities. B) not all organizations have a production cycle. C) there are no direct external data sources or destinations. D) very little technology exists to make activities more efficient. 4) How does an MRP inventory system reduces inventory levels? A) by reducing the uncertainty regarding when materials are needed B) by receiving materials exactly when needed and in exact quantities C) by computing the exact costs of purchasing and carrying inventory D) none of the above 5) Which of the following is not a product design objective? A) Design a product that meets customer requirements. B) Design a quality product. C) Minimize production costs. D) Make the design easy to track for cost accounting purposes. 6) The operations list shows A) the labor and machine requirements. B) the steps and operations in the production cycle. C) the time expected to complete each step or operation. D) all of the above 7) "Push manufacturing" is also known as A) manufacturing resource planning (MRP). B) just-in-time manufacturing system (JIT). C) the economic order quantity (EOQ) system. D) ahead-of-time production implementation (ATPI). 8) "Pull manufacturing" is also known as A) manufacturing resource planning (MRP). B) just-in-time manufacturing system (JIT). C) the economic order quantity (EOQ) system. D) ahead-of-time production implementation (ATPI). 9) What is the main difference between MRP-II and JIT manufacturing systems? A) The length of the planning horizon B) JIT uses long-term customer demand for planning purposes, but MRP-II uses short-term customer demand for planning purposes. C) MRP-II relies on EDI, but JIT does not. D) There are no significant differences between MRP-II and JIT. 10) A master production schedule is used to develop detailed A) timetables of daily production and determine raw material needs. B) reports on daily production and material usage. C) daily reports on direct labor needs. D) inventory charts. 11) The is the production cycle document that specifies the quantity of each product to be produced and when production should begin. A) receiving report B) bill of lading C) master production schedule D) operations list 12) What information is necessary to create the master production schedule? A) engineering department specifications and inventory levels B) engineering department specifications and sales forecasts C) special orders information and engineering department specifications D) sales forecasts, special orders information, and inventory levels 13) The authorizes the transfer of raw materials from the storeroom to the production floor. A) bill of materials B) production order C) materials requisition D) move ticket 14) is an efficient way to track and process information about raw materials used in production. A) A just-in-time inventory system B) Identifying materials with bar codes or RFID tags C) A materials resources planning inventory system D) Job-order costing 15) The use of various forms of information technology in the production process is referred to as A) computerized investments and machines. B) computerized integration of machines. C) computer-integrated manufacturing. D) computer intense manufacturing. 16) Using technology such as robots and computer-controlled machinery to shift from mass production to custom order manufacturing is referred to as A) computer integrated manufacturing (CIM). B) lean manufacturing. C) Six Sigma. D) computer-aided design (CAD). 17) Direct labor must be tracked and accounted for as part of the production process. Traditionally, direct labor was tracked using but an AIS enhancement is to use to record and track direct labor costs. A) job-time tickets; coded identification cards B) move tickets; coded identification cards C) employee earnings records; job-time tickets D) time cards; electronic time entry terminals 18) Yasamin Roshni owns and operates a small deli in Miami, Florida. She maintains a file that contains the ingredients used to make each of her famous subs. The ingredients needed to make a specific sub are most similar to a(n) A) operations list. B) production order. C) bill of materials. D) materials requisition. 19) Yasamin Roshni owns and operates a small deli in Miami, Florida.. She maintains a file that lists the steps required to make each of her famous subs. These step-by-step instructions are examples of a(n) A) operations list. B) bill of materials. C) production order. D) materials requisition. 20) Yasamin Roshni owns and operates a small deli in Miami, Florida. Each morning she prepares a list that describes the quantity and variety subs that will be prepared during the day. This list is an example of a(n) A) bill of materials. B) operations list. C) materials requisition. D) production order. 21) Yasamin Roshni owns and operates a small deli in Miami, Florida. Each afternoon, she prepares a shopping list that describes the quantity and variety of ingredients that she will purchase in the evening from her wholesaler. The shopping list is an example of a(n) A) bill of materials. B) materials requisition. C) operations list. D) production order. 22) Labor productivity is measured by the quantity produced divided by the labor time required to produce it. All other things held constant, an increase in labor productivity will increase throughput by A) increasing productive capacity. B) increasing productive processing time. C) increasing yield. D) increasing all components of throughput. 23) Sule Technologies installed a new production monitoring system that will reduce system breakdowns by 35%. The new system will increase throughput by A) increasing productive capacity. B) increasing yield. C) increasing productive processing time. D) increasing all components of throughput. 24) Gulshan Parvana operates a machine shop in Istanbul, Turkey. She places bids on small projects in the metropolitan area. Which of the following is most likely to be a cost driver that should be considered when determining how to allocate utility costs? A) number of projects completed B) number of units produced C) number of labor hours D) sales revenue 25) Sule Technologies initiated a just-in-time inventory system in 2013. Now the production manager, Chan Ziaou, wants to apply the same principles to the entire production process. His recommendation is that Sule adopt a A) master production scheduling system. B) lean manufacturing system. C) manufacturing resource planning system. D) computer-integrated manufacturing system. 26) This document appears to be a A) Materials Requisition. B) Production Order. C) Bill of Materials. D) Move Ticket between production and warehouse functions. 32) How can CAD software help improve the efficiency and effectiveness of the product design process? A) It can eliminate the costs associated with creating and destroying physical prototypes. B) It can simulate how new products will be manufactured. C) It can store all the data associated with all products. D) All of the above 33) How can PLM software improve the efficiency and effectiveness of the product design process? A) It can eliminate the costs associated with creating and destroying physical prototypes. B) It can simulate how new products will be manufactured. C) It can store all the data associated with all products. D) All of the above 34) What issue did Airbus encounter when using CAD software to help design the A380 Superjumbo airliner? A) The actual A380 was heavier than the CAD model. B) The actual A380 was not able to carry as much weight as the CAD model. C) Design teams used different versions of the same CAD software, resulting in key information loss. D) The CAD software was not advanced enough to help design the A380. 35) MRP-II is to MRP, as lean manufacturing is to A) EOQ. B) JIT. C) push manufacturing. D) reorder point. 14.2 Identify major threats in the production cycle and evaluate the adequacy of various control procedures for dealing with those threats. 1) For replacement of inventories and assets destroyed by fire or other disasters, an organization needs A) stand-by facilities. B) adequate insurance coverage. C) source data automation. D) All of the above are correct. 2) Which process or activity relates to overproduction? A) product design B) planning and scheduling C) production operations D) cost accounting 3) What specific control can help restrict the rights of authorized users to only the portion of a database needed to complete their specific job duties? A) an access control matrix B) passwords and user IDs C) closed-loop verification D) specific authorization 4) An organization can implement which of the following controls to reduce the threat of inventory theft or damage? A) review and approval of fixed asset acquisitions B) improved and more timely reporting C) better production and planning systems D) document all movement of inventory through the production process 5) The best control procedure for accurate data entry is A) the use of on-line terminals. B) an access control matrix. C) passwords and user IDs. D) automation of data collection. 6) Which of the following organization controls should be implemented and maintained to counteract the general threat that the loss of production data will greatly slow or halt production activity? A) Store key master inventory and production order files on-site only to prevent their theft. B) Back up data files only after a production run has been physically completed. C) Access controls should apply to all terminals within the organization. D) Allow access to inventory records from any terminal within the organization to provide efficient data entry. 7) The threat of loss of data exposes the company to A) the loss of assets. B) ineffective decision making. C) inefficient manufacturing. D) All of the above are correct. 8) The expenses associated with a product recall are costs. A) prevention B) inspection C) internal failure D) external failure 9) costs are expenses associated with quality assurance activities. A) Prevention B) Inspection C) Internal failure D) External failure 10) The expenses associated with the use of clean rooms in the production of computer hard drives are costs. A) prevention B) inspection C) internal failure D) external failure 11) The expenses associated with disposal of defective products are costs. A) prevention B) inspection C) internal failure D) external failure 12) In addition to identifying and dealing with defective products before they reach customers, quality management is concerned with initiating process changes that will reduce the number of defective units produced. All other things held constant, a decrease in the number of defective units will increase throughput by A) increasing productive capacity. B) increasing productive processing time. C) increasing yield. D) increasing all components of throughput. 15) Identify one control that can be used to mitigate the threat of poor product design that results in excess costs. A) production planning systems B) analysis of warranty and repair costs C) encryption D) insurance 16) Identify one control that can be used to mitigate the threat of under-production. A) production planning systems B) analysis of warranty and repair costs C) encryption D) insurance 17) The risks associated with over-production are likely of greatest concern to which company below? A) a cereal manufacturer B) a manufacturer that produces designer clothing C) a manufacturer of printer paper D) a mailbox manufacturer 18) To control for risks associated with the threat of inventory loss, who should have primary responsibility for work-in-process inventories? A) a factory supervisor B) the inventory stores department C) purchasing D) the receiving department 19) The acronym "RFP" stands for what? A) Request for Project B) Request for Processing C) Request for Proposal D) Request for Purchase 20) The VP of Manufacturing at Roshanak Incorporated wants to buy a new die cast machine for production. The die cast machine is expected to cost around $1,000,000. Which document will most likely be used to solicit bids from suppliers? A) RFP B) eVoice C) RFJ D) RFB 14.3 Explain how a company's cost accounting system can help it achieve its manufacturing goals. 1) Which objective listed below is not a cost accounting objective for the production cycle? A) Provide information for planning, controlling, and evaluating the performance of production operations. B) Provide cost data about products used in pricing and product mix decisions. C) Collect and process the information used to calculate inventory and cost of goods sold amounts that appear in the financial statements. D) Provide tests of audit control functions as part of the AIS. 2) Which type of information below should not be maintained by the AIS in accounting for fixed assets? A) identification/serial number B) cost C) improvements D) market value 3) Detailed data about reasons for warranty and repair costs is considered an applicable control used to mitigate the threat of A) underproduction. B) overproduction. C) poor product design. D) suboptimal investment of fixed assets. 4) What is the primary drawback to using a volume-driven base, such as direct labor or machine hours, to apply overhead to products in a traditional cost accounting system? A) The cost accountant may not fully understand how to track direct labor or machine hours. B) It is difficult for an AIS to incorporate such a measurement into its system. C) It is difficult for an ERP to incorporate such a measurement into its integrated system. D) Many overhead costs are incorrectly allocated to products since they do not vary with production volume. 5) identifies costs with the corporation's strategy for production of goods and services. A) Activity-based costing B) Job-order costing C) Process costing D) Manufacturing costing 6) In an Activity-Based Costing (ABC) system, a cause-and-effect relationship is known as a A) cost stimulator. B) overhead stimulator. C) cost driver. D) cost catalyst. 7) What does the first term in the throughput formula, productive capacity, represent? A) the maximum number of units that can be produced given current technology B) the percentage of total production time used to manufacture a product C) the percentage of "good" units produced given current technology D) the percentage of "bad" units produced given current technology 8) are incurred to ensure that products are created without defects the first time. A) External failure costs B) Inspection costs C) Internal failure costs D) Prevention costs 9) are associated with testing to ensure that products meet quality standards. A) External failure costs B) Inspection costs C) Internal failure costs D) Prevention costs 10) The cost of a product liability claim can be classified as a(n) A) prevention cost. B) inspection cost. C) internal failure cost. D) external failure cost. 11) Elif Package Delivery determines the cost per delivery by summing the average cost of loading, unloading, transporting, and maintenance. What costing approach does Elif Package Delivery use? A) job-order B) unit-based C) process D) activity-based 12) Elif Package Delivery determines the cost per delivery by averaging total cost over the number of deliveries. What costing approach does Elif Package Delivery use? A) unit-based B) job-order C) process D) activity-based 13) Elif Package Delivery calculates the cost per delivery by identifying variables as cost drivers, and allocating overhead accordingly. What costing approach does Elif Package Delivery use? A) job-order B) activity-based C) unit-based D) process 14) In activity-based costing, expenses associated with the purchase of health care insurance for employees are overhead. A) batch-related B) product-related C) company wide D) expenditure-based 15) In activity-based costing, the expenses associated with planning and design of new products are overhead. A) batch-related B) product-related C) company wide D) expenditure-based 16) At the end of each production run, preventive maintenance is done on the assembly line. The expenses associated with this maintenance are overhead. A) batch-related B) product-related C) company wide D) department-based 17) Which of the following is not a benefit of activity-based costing? A) lower cost B) better decisions C) improved cost management D) identification of cost drivers 23) Traditionally, what did manufacturing firms use to track the amount of time a worker spends on each specific task? A) job-time ticket B) barcoded ID card C) clock punchcard D) RFID chips 24) Manufacturing overhead is best described as A) costs that cannot be traced directly to specific jobs or processes. B) costs that are economically feasible to trace directly to specific jobs or processes. C) costs that are not economically feasible to trace directly to specific jobs or processes. D) costs that management has decided not to trace directly to specific jobs or processes. 25) Identify the cost below most likely to be classified as manufacturing overhead. A) production workers' pay B) raw materials used in production C) insurance D) none of the above 27) Which of the following is not proposed to be an advantage of activity-based costing? A) better product mix decisions B) better product pricing decisions C) less complex than traditional cost systems D) none of the above 14.4 Discuss the key decisions that must be made in the production cycle and identify the information required to make those decisions. 2) Identify the role below that accountants can play in the production cycle. A) participate in product design B) perform cost analysis C) help an organization choose an inventory control system D) all of the above 3) Why might an organization find it most beneficial to involve accountants in product design? A) because generally at least 65% of product costs are determined in the design stage and accountants can help minimize product costs B) because accountants are generally able to improve the quality of new products C) because involving accountants in product design boosts firm morale D) because accountants are generally able to identify what consumers want in a new product Chapter 16 General Ledger and Reporting System 16.1 Describe the information processing operations required to update the general ledger and to produce reports for internal and external users. 1) The general ledger and reporting system consists of the involved in the general ledger and reports. A) business transactions; updating; processing B) data processing; business transactions for; printing C) information processing; updating; creating D) business transactions; data processing; preparing 2) Which item below is not considered a major input to the general ledger and reporting system? A) summary entries from the major subsystems B) reports from managers C) adjusting entries D) financing and investing activities 3) Who should provide the adjusting entries in a well-designed general ledger and reporting system? A) various user departments B) the treasurer's area C) the other major AIS subsystems D) the controller's area 4) Which of the following user groups generally receive information produced by the general ledger and reporting system? A) internal users B) external users C) inquiry processing by internal or external users D) all of the above 5) The general ledger system of an organization should be designed to serve the information requirements of both internal and external users. This means that the system should support A) producing expansive regular periodic reports to cover all information needs. B) the real-time inquiry needs of all users. C) producing regular periodic reports and respond to real-time inquiry needs. D) access by investors and creditors of the organization to general ledger balances. 6) Identify the most correct statement with regard to how the various accounting subsystems update the general ledger. A) Individual journal entries for each accounting subsystem transaction update the general ledger every 24 hours. B) Summary journal entries that represent the results of all transactions for a certain time period are used to update the general ledger. C) The controller or treasurer must approve accounting subsystem journal entries before any updating may occur. D) Nonroutine transactions are entered into the system by the treasurer's office. 7) When updating the general ledger, sales, purchases, and production are examples of entries, and issuance or retirement of debt and the purchase or sale of investment securities are examples of entries. A) adjusting; controller originated B) accounting subsystem; treasurer originated C) adjusting; special journal D) controller generated; special journal 8) Which of the following are used to document entries made to update the general ledger? A) general journal B) subsidiary journal C) subsidiary ledgers D) journal vouchers 9) Not all journal entries affect cash flow. Adjusting entries that reflect events that have already occurred, but have no effect on cash, are classified as A) accruals. B) deferrals. C) revaluations. D) corrections. 10) Recording interest earned on an investment is an example of which type of adjusting journal entry? A) accrual entry B) deferral entry C) revaluation entry D) correcting entry 11) Identify the adjusting entry that is made at the end of an accounting period to reflect an exchange of cash prior to the performance of a related event is classified as a(n) A) accrual entry. B) deferral entry. C) revaluation entry. D) correcting entry. 12) Depreciation expense and bad debt expense are examples of which type of adjusting journal entry? A) deferrals B) accruals C) revaluations D) estimates 13) Adjusting entries that are made to reflect differences between the actual and recorded value of an asset or a change in accounting principle are called A) reconciliations. B) revaluations. C) estimates. D) accruals. 14) Adjusting entries that are made to counteract the effects of errors found in the general ledger are called A) accruals. B) corrections. C) deferrals. D) estimates. 15) Corrections are entries made to correct errors found in A) all journals. B) special journals. C) the general ledger. D) the financial statements. 16) Immediately after the adjusting entries are posted, the next step in the general ledger and reporting system is to prepare A) an adjusted trial balance. B) closing entries. C) financial statements. D) an unadjusted trial balance. 17) Financial statements are prepared in a certain sequence. Which statement is prepared last? A) the adjusted trial balance B) the income statement C) the balance sheet D) the statement of cash flows 18) A listing of journal vouchers by numerical sequence, account number, or date is an example of A) a general ledger control report. B) a budget report. C) a batch to be processed. D) responsibility accounting. 19) Who generally is responsible for providing the accounting department with information about financing and investing activities to create the appropriate general ledger journal entries? A) budget department B) controller C) treasurer D) chief executive officer 20) Adjusting entries that are made to recognize revenue that has been received but not yet earned are classified as A) estimates. B) deferrals. C) accruals. D) revaluations. 21) Adjusting entries that reflect a change in accounting principle used to value inventories are classified as A) corrections. B) estimates. C) deferrals. D) revaluations. 16.2 Identify the major threats in general ledger and reporting activities and evaluate the adequacy of various control procedures for dealing with them. 1) If you believe not all adjusting entries were posted in the general ledger, you should prepare a general ledger control report listing journal vouchers in A) numerical sequence. B) chronological order. C) general ledger account number order. D) any order, since you have to review them all anyway. 2) If you believe a general ledger account was not adjusted properly or at all, you should prepare a general ledger control report listing journal vouchers in A) numerical sequence. B) chronological order. C) general ledger account number order. D) any order, since you have to review them all anyway. 3) Which of the following are appropriate controls for the general ledger and reporting system? A) using well-designed documents and records B) online data entry with the use of appropriate edit checks C) prenumbering documents and accounting for the sequence numbers D) All of the above are appropriate. 4) A type of data entry control that would ensure that adjusting entries are posted to existing general ledger accounts is called a(n) check. A) validity B) existence C) closed loop verification D) reasonableness 5) One way of ensuring that recurring adjusting journal entries are made each month would be to A) make all the entries a month in advance. B) rotate the responsibility among the accounting staff. C) program the entries to be made automatically. D) create a standard adjusting journal entry file. 6) Which of the following tasks are facilitated by maintaining a strong and secure audit trail? A) tracing a transaction from original source document to the general ledger to a report B) tracing an item in a report back through the general ledger to the original source document C) tracing changes in general ledger accounts from beginning to ending balances D) All of the above are facilitated by the audit trail. 7) Marina Filimena is an accountant at Jasmina Hair Products. Marina received the following error message while making an adjusting entry to the general ledger: "The account number referenced in your journal entry does not exist. Create a new account?" This is an example of a A) validity check. B) closed loop verification. C) zero-balance check. D) completeness test. 8) Marina Filimena is an accountant at Jasmina Hair Products. Marina received the following error message while making an adjusting entry to the general ledger: "Your journal entry must be a numeric value. Please reenter." This is an example of a A) validity check. B) field check. C) zero-balance check. D) completeness test. 9) Marina Filimena is an accountant at Jasmina Hair Products. Marina received the following error message while making an adjusting entry to the general ledger: "The amounts debited and credited are not equal. Please correct and try again." This is an example of a A) validity check. B) field check. C) zero-balance check. D) completeness test. 10) Marina Filimena is an accountant at Jasmina Hair Products. Marina received the following error message while making an adjusting entry to the general ledger: "The data you have entered does not include a source reference code. Please enter this data before saving." This is an example of a A) validity check. B) field check. C) zero-balance check. D) completeness test. 13) Identify one way "rainbow tables" are often used. A) to discover plaintext passwords associated with a hash B) to integrate different tables into one, master table C) to perform a zero-balance check D) to ensure referential integrity of all the associated tables 14) What system privileges should an employee involved in the general ledger and reporting system be given? A) general privileges to create, delete, update, or modify data B) no privileges permitting the creation, deletion, updating, or modification of data C) only the specific privileges necessary to perform an employee's assigned duties D) read-only privileges 15) What control procedure(s) should be used to reduce the risk of unauthorized disclosure of the financial statements? A) multifactor authentication B) physical security C) encryption D) all of the above 16) What control procedure(s) should be used to reduce the risk of the destruction of financial statement master data? A) multifactor authentication B) backup and disaster recovery C) encryption D) all of the above 16.3 Understand the implications of new IT developments, such as XBRL, and changes in the external reporting requirements, such as IFRS, for the design and operation of the general ledger and reporting system. 1) Which of the following statements is not true regarding XBRL? A) XBRL is a variant of XML. B) XBRL is specifically designed for use in communicating the content of financial data. C) XBRL creates unique tags for each data item. D) XBRL's adoption will require accountants and systems professionals tag data for their clients. 2) The benefits of XBRL include A) organizations can publish financial information only once, using standard XBRL tags. B) tagged data is readable and interpretable by computers, so users don't need re-enter data into order to work with it. C) Both are benefits of XBRL. D) Neither is a benefit of XBRL. 3) Communications technology and the Internet can be used to reduce the time and costs involved in disseminating financial statement information. Users of such financial information still struggle in that many recipients have different information delivery requirements and may have to manually reenter the information into their own decision analysis tools. The ideal solution to solve these problems and efficiently transmit financial information via the Internet is to use A) HTML code. B) XML. C) pdf file. D) XBRL. 4) Which of the following statements is not true about an XBRL instance document? A) An instance document includes instruction code as to how the document should be physically arranged and displayed. B) An instance document contains facts about specific financial statement line items. C) An instance document uses separate tags for each specific element. D) An instance document can be used to tag financial and nonfinancial elements. 5) IFRS is an acronym for what? A) International Financial Reporting Standards B) Internal Forensic Response System C) Input and Financial Reporting Standards D) Internal Fault Recovery System 6) Which of the following is true about IFRS? A) There is a global trend towards using IFRS for reporting purposes, though U.S. companies are not currently required to do so. B) The switch to IFRS is required by the Sarbanes-Oxley Act. C) IFRS is only slightly different than U.S. GAAP. D) The switch to IFRS is cosmetic only—there isn't any real impact on AIS. 7) Which of the following scenarios will not be allowed under IFRS? A) A landscaping and garden retail store keeps piles of river rock, gravel, paving stones, and small decorative rocks in a fenced area on the side of the store. The store uses the most recent inventory costs when calculating cost of goods sold, since new inventory is piled on top of the older inventory. B) A grocery store strictly enforces a shelf rotation policy, so that older inventory is always at the front and sold first. The store uses the oldest inventory costs to calculate cost of goods sold. C) A farm chemical supplier maintains a large holding tank of chemicals, into which deliveries are periodically combined with the older chemicals. The supplier averages the cost of all inventory to calculate cost of goods sold. D) All of the above are acceptable under IFRS. 8) Which of the following is true about accounting for fixed assets? A) Depreciation expense under IFRS will likely be higher than under GAAP, because acquisitions of assets with multiple components must be separately depreciated under IFRS, whereas under GAAP assets could be bundled and depreciated over the longest of the useful life for any of the components. B) IFRS doesn't allow capitalization of any asset that separately accounts for less than 20% of total assets. C) Depreciation expense under IFRS will likely be less than under GAAP, because standards for depreciable lives on asset classes are much longer than under GAAP. D) IFRS and GAAP account for fixed assets in much the same way. 10) Identify the year the SEC will require American companies to switch from U.S.-based GAAP to IFRS as the basis for preparing financial statements. A) 2016 B) 2018 C) 2020 D) At this point it is unclear when the SEC will require American companies to implement IFRS, though the SEC remains committed to requiring U.S. companies use IFRS at some point. 11) A major way in which IFRS differs from GAAP that will affect the design of a company's general ledger and reporting system is an IFRS principle known as A) componentization. B) monetization. C) securitization. D) none of the above 12) At a minimum, a switch to IFRS from GAAP will affect companies' accounting information system by A) requiring companies to increase the processing power of their existing accounting information systems. B) requiring IT departments to hire programmers that are fluent in languages besides English. C) requiring the creation of additional fields in research and development (R&D) records to capture information about the stage of research and development that costs are incurred in. D) requiring firms to completely redesign their existing accounting information systems because current systems are not compatible with IFRS accounting principles. 13) XBRL stands for A) extensible business reporting language. B) extreme business reporting ledgers. C) external business reporting language. D) extensive business report logic. 15) Each specific data item in an XBRL document is called a(n) A) taxonomy. B) element. C) instance. D) schema. 16.4 Discuss how tools like responsibility accounting, balanced scorecards, and graphs can be used to provide information managers need to effectively monitor performance. 1) The is the managerial report that shows planned cash inflows and outflows for major investments or acquisitions. A) journal voucher list B) statement of cash flows C) operating budget D) capital expenditures budget 2) The operating budget A) compares estimated cash flows from operations with planned expenditures. B) shows cash inflows and outflows for each capital project. C) depicts planned revenues and expenditures for each organizational unit. D) is used to plan for the purchase and retirement of property, plant, and equipment. 3) Budgets used for internal planning purposes and performance evaluation should be developed on the basis of A) responsibility accounting. B) generally accepted accounting principles. C) financial accounting standards. D) managerial accounting standards. 4) Performance reports for cost centers should compare actual versus budget costs. A) controllable B) uncontrollable C) fixed D) variable 5) Performance reports for sales departments should compare actual revenue versus budgeted A) revenue. B) cost. C) return on investment. D) profit. 6) Departments that mostly provide services to other units and charge those units for services rendered should be evaluated as centers. A) cost B) profit C) investment D) revenue 7) As responsibility reports are rolled up into reports for higher level executives, they A) become less detailed. B) become more detailed. C) become narrower in scope. D) look about the same. 8) Variances for variable costs will be misleading when the planned output differs from budgeted output. A solution to this problem would be A) calling all costs fixed. B) to use flexible budgeting. C) better prediction of output. D) to eliminate the budgeting process. 9) Which of the following balanced scorecard dimensions provides measures on how efficiently and effectively the organization is performing key business processes? A) financial B) internal operations C) innovation and learning D) customer 10) Which of the following is not one of the principles of proper graph design for bar charts? A) Include data values with each element. B) Use 3-D rather than 2-D bars to make reading easier. C) Use colors or shades instead of patterns to represent different variables. D) Use titles that summarize the basic message. 11) Which of the following statements is true about the chart below? A) The x-axis is in reverse chronological order, which violates a principle of proper graph design. B) The chart appears to conform to the principles of proper graph design. C) The vertical axis doesn't appear to start at the origin (zero). D) The chart used 2-D bars instead of 3-D, which violates a principle of proper graph design. 15) The balanced scorecard attempts to solve what major issue associated with traditional accounting reports? A) Traditional accounting reports focus too narrowly on financial performance. B) Traditional accounting reports are not easily understood by non-accountants. C) Traditional accounting reports are expensive to produce. D) Traditional accounting reports are produced too slowly to provide value. 16) Which of the following is not a perspective reflected in the balanced scorecard? A) customer perspective B) internal operations perspective C) financial perspective D) efficiency and effectiveness perspective 18) Which type of graph is the most commonly used to display trends in financial data? A) pie chart B) scatterplot chart C) bar chart D) stochastic chart 19) Which of the following balanced scorecard dimensions provides measures on new products? A) financial B) internal operations C) innovation and learning D) customer Chapter 4 Relational Databases 4.1 Explain the importance and advantages of databases, as well as the difference between database systems and file-based legacy systems. 1) Using a file-oriented approach to data and information, data is maintained in A) a centralized database. B) many interconnected files. C) many separate files. D) a decentralized database. 2) File-oriented approaches create problems for organizations because of A) multiple transaction files. B) a lack of sophisticated file maintenance software. C) multiple users. D) multiple master files. 3) Which statement is true regarding file systems? A) Transaction files are similar to ledgers in a manual AIS. B) Multiple master files create problems with data consistency. C) Transaction files are permanent. D) Individual records are never deleted in a master file. 4) All of the following are benefits of the database approach except A) data integration and sharing. B) decentralized management of data. C) minimal data redundancy. D) cross-functional analysis and reporting. 5) Which is probably the most immediate and significant effect of database technology on accounting? A) replacement of the double entry-system B) change in the nature of financial reporting C) elimination of traditional records such as journals and ledgers D) quicker access to and greater use of accounting information in decision-making 6) Shahnaz Vijaya is a new graduate who has been hired by a family-owned furniture manufacturing company in the south. She has been asked to analyze the company's accounting information system and to recommend cost-effective improvements. After noting that the production and sales departments use database systems that are entirely separated, she recommends that they be combined. Implementation of her recommendation would benefit the company by contributing to data A) independence. B) integration. C) redundancy. D) qualifications. 7) Merlin Frodo has been doing custom piercings and tattoos for over thirty years. His home and place of business is a garage in the harbor district of Seattle, Washington. He keeps meticulous records of every job he has ever completed. These have been entered into a computerized accounting information system that his accountant refers to as a "data warehouse." Merlin is considering adding scarification to his service offerings and has asked his accountant to identify past customers who might be likely candidates for this service. Merlin wants his accountant to engage in A) customer auditing. B) customer resource management. C) data mining. D) enterprise resource planning. 11) Databases were originally developed to address which problem? A) to replace the double entry-system B) to address the proliferation of master files C) to increase the speed that an organization could process transactions D) to decrease the costs associated with manual accounting systems 12) A data warehouse A) is primarily used for analysis rather than transaction processing. B) stores transaction processing records in hard copy. C) replaces traditional transaction processing databases. D) increases the speed of transaction processing. 13) The use of a data warehouse in strategic decision making is often referred to as A) business intelligence. B) managerial accounting. C) data analysis. D) analytical modeling. 4.2 Explain the difference between logical and physical views of a database. 1) The physical view of a database system refers to A) how a user or programmer conceptually organizes and understands the data. B) how the DBMS accesses data for a certain application program. C) how and where the data are physically arranged and stored. D) how master files store data values used by more than one application program. 3) The logical view of a database system refers to A) how a user or programmer conceptually organizes and understands the data. B) how the DBMS accesses data for a certain application program. C) how and where the data are physically arranged and stored. D) how master files store data values used by more than one application program. 4.3 Explain fundamental concepts of a database system such as DBMS, schemas, the data dictionary, and DBMS languages. 1) What acts as an interface between the database and the various application programs? A) data warehouse B) database administrator C) database system D) database management system 2) The combination of the database, the DBMS, and the application programs that access the database through the DBMS is referred to as the A) data warehouse. B) database administrator. C) database system. D) database management system. 3) The is responsible for the database. A) database master B) database manager C) database administrator D) data coordinator 4) The handles the link between the way data are physically stored and each user's logical view of that data. A) database management software (DBMS) B) database manager C) data warehouse D) data dictionary 5) The logical structure of a database is described by the A) data dictionary. B) schema. C) database management system. D) context diagram. 6) The schema that provides an organization-wide view of the entire database is known as the A) external-level schema. B) internal-level schema. C) conceptual-level schema. D) logical view of the database. 7) A set of individual user views of the database is called the A) conceptual-level schema. B) internal-level schema. C) external-level schema. D) meta-schema. 8) A low-level view of the database that describes how the data are actually stored and accessed is the A) conceptual-level schema. B) subschema. C) internal-level schema. D) external-level schema. 9) Record layouts, definitions, addresses, and indexes will be stored at the level schema. A) external B) conceptual C) internal D) meta 10) The contains information about the structure of the database. A) data definition language B) data dictionary C) data warehouse D) database management system 11) Which of the following would not be found in a data dictionary entry for a data item? A) records containing a specific data item B) physical location of the data C) source of the data item D) field type 12) The data dictionary usually is maintained A) automatically by the DBMS. B) by the database administrator. C) by the database programmers. D) by top management. 13) Reports produced using the data dictionary could include all of the following except a list of A) programs where a data item is used. B) synonyms for the data items in a particular file. C) outputs where a data element is used. D) the schemas included in a database. 14) Which statement below concerning the database management system (DBMS) is false? A) The DBMS automatically creates application software for users, based on data dictionary parameters. B) The DBMS automatically maintains the data dictionary. C) Users' requests for information are transmitted to the DBMS through application software. D) The DBMS uses special languages to perform specific functions. 15) Which would not generally be considered a data dictionary output report? A) a list of cash balances in the organization's bank accounts B) a list of all programs in which a data element is used C) a list of all synonyms for the data elements in a particular file D) a list of all data elements used by a particular user 16) Creating an empty table in a relational database requires use of the , and populating that table requires the use of . A) DDL; DML B) DQL; SQL C) DDL; DQL D) DML; DDA 17) When the human resources manager wants to gather data about salary and start date by employees and by departments, the manager would use which language? A) Data Manipulation Language B) Data Query Language C) Data Report Language D) Data Definition Language 18) If a national sales tax were implemented, which language would be used to add a new field in the sales table to track the sales tax due? A) Data Definition Language B) Data Manipulation Language C) Data Query Language D) Data Update Language 19) is a feature in many database systems that simplifies the creation of reports by allowing users to specify the data elements desired and the format of the output. A) Report printer B) Report creator C) Report generator D) Report writer 20) A is an abstract representation of a database's contents. A) schema B) logical data model C) physical view D) data dictionary 21) In a well-designed and normalized database, which of the following attributes would be a foreign key in a cash receipts table? A) customer number B) cash receipt date C) remittance advice number D) customer check number 22) Cornelia Cassidy is a telecom equipment sales representative. Her company has provided her with a laptop computer that uses wireless connectivity to access the accounting information system from virtually anywhere in the country. She, and other sales reps, have access to view customer and product information. All sales reps also have access that allows them to enter and cancel customer orders. The permissions for Cornelia define a in the company's database management system. A) conceptual-level schema B) subschema C) data dictionary D) physical view 23) Cornelia Cassidy is a telecom equipment sales representative. Her company has provided her with a laptop computer that uses wireless connectivity to access the accounting information system from virtually anywhere in the country. She has access to view customer and product information. She also has access that allows her to enter and cancel customer orders. The permissions for Cornelia (and other sales reps) define a in the company's database management system. A) conceptual-level schema B) data dictionary C) external-level schema D) physical view 29) The REA is an example of a database that uses a data modeling approach to database design. A) schema B) logical C) semantic D) normalization 4.4 Describe what a relational database is and how it organizes data. 1) in a well-structured relational database. A) Every table must be related to all other tables B) One table must be related to at least one other table C) Every table must be related to at least one other table D) One table must be related to all other tables 2) The problem of changes being incorrectly recorded in a database is known as A) an update anomaly. B) an insert anomaly. C) a delete anomaly. D) a memory anomaly. 3) The occurs when more than one occurrence of a specific data item in a database exists. A) inconsistency anomaly B) insert anomaly C) delete anomaly D) update anomaly 4) Inability to add new data to a database without violating the basic integrity of the database is referred to as the A) update anomaly. B) insert anomaly. C) integrity anomaly. D) delete anomaly. 5) A relational database in which customer data is not maintained independently of sales invoice data will most likely result in A) an update anomaly. B) an insert anomaly. C) a delete anomaly. D) an integrity anomaly. 6) The problem of losing desired information from a database when an unwanted record is purged from the database is referred to as the anomaly. A) purge B) erase C) delete D) integrity 7) Identify one potential outcome of the delete anomaly. A) inconsistent data B) inability to add new data C) unintentional loss of data D) none of the above 8) The update anomaly in non-normalized database tables A) occurs because of data redundancy. B) restricts addition of new fields or attributes. C) results in records that cannot be updated. D) is usually easily detected by users. 9) Identify one potential drawback in the design and implementation of database systems for accounting. A) Double-entry accounting relies on redundancy as part of the accounting process, but well- designed database systems reduce and attempt to eliminate redundancy. B) Relational DBMS query languages will allow financial reports to be prepared to cover whatever time periods managers want to examine. C) Relational DBMS provide the capability of integrating financial and operational data. D) Relational DBMS can accommodate multiple views of the same underlying data; therefore, tables storing information about assets can include data about both historical and replacement costs. 10) Kai Keoni has created custom statues made out of scrap metal for over ten years. He lives above his shop in Martha's Vineyard, Maryland. Kai is an accounting fanatic and has kept detailed records of every statue he has ever created. For every sale, he obtains the customer's name and address, a description of the statue, and a picture of the statue sold to the customer. His unique style has recently attracted the attention of several celebrities. Ready to take his business to the next level, Kai has hired you to construct an accounting information system, which he wants modeled after his paper records. As you look over his records, you realize that sometimes the same customer is recorded by a slightly different name. For example, Mike Mulligan bought a horse statue, M. Mulligan bought a pig statue, and Mike M. all seem to be the same person. This is an example of what type of problem in the existing records? A) entity integrity B) referential integrity C) update anomaly D) insert anomaly 11) Kai Keoni has created custom statues made out of scrap metal for over ten years. He lives above his shop in Martha's Vineyard, Maryland. Kai is an accounting fanatic and has kept detailed records of every statue he has ever created. For every sale, he obtains the customer's name and address, a description of the statue, and a picture of the statue sold to the customer. His unique style has recently attracted the attention of several celebrities. Ready to take his business to the next level, Kai has hired you to construct an accounting information system, which he wants modeled after his paper records. As you look over his records, you realize that some customers bought multiple statues at the same time. For example, Yasmeen Ghuari bought a Tin Man Status, a flying horseman statue, and a terrier statue. You realize that in these cases, a single written record will have to be translated into multiple sales records. This is an example of what type of problem in the existing records? A) entity integrity B) referential integrity C) update anomaly D) insert anomaly 12) Kai Keoni has created custom statues made out of scrap metal for over ten years. He lives above his shop in Martha's Vineyard, Maryland. Kai is an accounting fanatic and has kept detailed records of every statue he has ever created. For every sale, he obtains the customer's name and address, a description of the statue, and a picture of the statue sold to the customer. His unique style has recently attracted the attention of several celebrities. Ready to take his business to the next level, Kai has hired you to construct an accounting information system, which he wants modeled after his paper records. As you look over his records, you notice that some customer last names have different first names in different records. For example, R. Framington Farnsworth, Bob Farnsworth, and Snake Farnsworth all seem to be the same person. You explain to Kai that every customer must be identified by a unique customer number in the AIS. You are referring to the A) entity integrity rule. B) referential integrity rule. C) update anomaly. D) insert anomaly. 18) How do users retrieve data stored in a database? A) by viewing the appropriate data tables B) by executing a query C) by performing a search D) by specifying the primary keys 19) In a well-structured relational database, A) foreign keys cannot be null. B) there must be at least two foreign keys. C) every column in a row must be single valued. D) one table must be related to all other tables. 20) Which of the following is false regarding a well-structured relational database? A) A foreign key cannot be null. B) A primary key cannot be null. C) Every column in a row must be single valued. D) All nonkey attributes in a table must describe a characteristic of the object identified by the primary key. 4.5 Create a set of well-structured tables to store data in a relational database. 1) In a relational database, requiring that every record in a table have a unique identifier is called the A) entity integrity rule. B) referential integrity rule. C) unique primary key rule. D) foreign key rule. 2) The database requirement that foreign keys must be null or have a value corresponding to the value of a primary key in another table is formally called the A) entity integrity rule. B) referential integrity rule. C) unique primary key rule. D) foreign key rule. 3) In a well-structured database, the constraint that ensures the consistency of the data is known as the A) entity integrity rule. B) referential integrity rule. C) unique primary key rule. D) foreign key rule. 4) Identify the statement below that is false with regards to basic requirements of a relational database model. A) Primary keys can be null. B) Foreign keys, if not null, must have values that correspond to the value of a primary key in another table. C) All non-key attributes in a table should describe a characteristic about the object identified by the primary key. D) Every column in a row must be single-valued. 5) Identify the aspect of a well-structured database that is incorrect. A) Data is consistent. B) Redundancy is minimized and controlled. C) All data is stored in one table or relation. D) The primary key of any row in a relation cannot be null. 6) In the database design approach known as normalization, the first assumption made about data is A) there is no redundancy in the data. B) the delete anomaly will not apply since all customer records will be maintained indefinitely. C) everything is initially stored in one large table. D) the data will not be maintained in 3NF tables. 7) The database design method in which a designer uses knowledge about business processes to create a diagram of the elements to be included in the database is called A) normalization. B) decentralization. C) geometric data modeling. D) semantic data modeling. 8) Which of the statements below is incorrect? A) Semantic data modeling facilitates the efficient design of databases. B) Semantic data modeling facilitates communicating with the intended users of the system. C) Semantic data modeling allows a database designer to use knowledge about business processes to design the database. D) Semantic data modeling follows the rules of normalization in the design of a database. 9) Ama Afolayan is chair of the National Owl Society, which maintains a database of all rare owls within the United States. One table will store the name, birth date, and other characteristics of all of the owls that have been registered. Each owl is uniquely identified by a registration number. A second table will contain data that link each owl to its male and female parents by means of their registration numbers. The primary key in the first table is A) name. B) birth date. C) the primary key in the second table. D) a foreign key in the second table. 10) Ama Afolayan is chair of the National Owl Society, which maintains a database of all rare owls within the United States. One table will store the name, birth date, and other characteristics of all of the owls that have been registered. Each owl is uniquely identified by a registration number. A second table will contain data that link each owl to its male and female parents by means of their registration numbers. The primary key in the second table is A) name. B) birth date. C) the same as the primary key in the first table. D) a combination of primary keys in the first table. 11) Ama Afolayan is chair of the National Owl Society, which maintains a database of all rare owls within the United States. One table will store the name, birth date, and other characteristics of all of the owls that have been registered. Each owl is uniquely identified by a registration number. A second table will contain data that link each owl to its male and female parents by means of their registration numbers. The entities described by the second table are A) owls. B) parental relationships. C) registration numbers. D) names. 12) Kekoa Konani is chairman of the Chatty Chihuahua Club, where he maintains a database of registered purebred Chihuahuas and their breeding history. One table will store the name, birth date, and other characteristics of all of the registered Chihuahuas. Each Chihuahua is uniquely identified by a registration number. A second table will contain data that link each Chihuahua to its male and female parents by means of their registration numbers. The entities described by the first table are A) marmosets. B) parental relationships. C) registration numbers. D) names. 13) Kekoa Konani is chairman of the Chatty Chihuahua Club, where he maintains a database of registered purebred Chihuahuas and their breeding history. One table will store the name, birth date, and other characteristics of all of the registered Chihuahuas. Each Chihuahua is uniquely identified by a registration number. A second table will contain data that link each Chihuahua to its male and female parents by means of their registration numbers. The primary key in the first table is A) name. B) registration number. C) date of birth. D) relationship number. 14) Kekoa Konani is chairman of the Chatty Chihuahua Club, where he maintains a database of registered purebred Chihuahuas and their breeding history. One table will store the name, birth date, and other characteristics of all of the registered Chihuahuas. Each Chihuahua is uniquely identified by a registration number. A second table will contain data that link each Chihuahua to its male and female parents by means of their registration numbers. The primary key in the second table is A) name. B) registration number. C) date of birth. D) relationship number. 15) Kai Keoni has created custom statues made out of scrap metal for over ten years. He lives above his shop in Martha's Vinyard, Maryland. Kai is an accounting fanatic and has kept detailed records of every statue he has ever created. For every sale, he obtains the customer's name and address, a description of the statue, and a picture of the statue sold to the customer. His unique style has recently attracted the attention of several celebrities. Ready to take his business to the next level, Kai has hired you to construct an accounting information system, which he wants modeled after his paper records. You begin development of the relational database that will form the core of the AIS by envisioning the record stored in a single table with a column that represents each attribute. You then begin to break this table down into smaller tables. This process is called A) integration. B) optimization. C) minimization. D) normalization. 16) Helen Fume is a recruiter with The Ladders in Nome, Alaska. The Ladders success is largely attributable to its accounting information system. When a client is hired by an employer, Helen creates a record that identifies the employment relationship. Helen follows up on placements by surveying both employers and clients about the employment experience and then entering the results into the AIS. Clients are uniquely identified by social security number. In records that contain client survey data, the social security number is likely to be A) the primary key. B) a foreign key. C) combined with other data fields to form a primary key. D) null. 17) Which of the following would not be one of the well-structured tables in a well-designed relational database used to generate this sales invoice? A) Customer Order B) Customer C) Sales D) Sales Order 18) Which of the following would not be true about the well-structured tables in a well- designed relational database used to generate this sales invoice? A) Quantity would be generated from the Sales table. B) 34567 would be a primary key in the Sales table. C) Unit Price would be generated from the Inventory table. D) Hardware City is an example of a non-key data value in the Customer table. 20) Which of the following elements link rows in one table to rows in another table? A) primary keys B) foreign keys C) semantic keys D) link keys 21) Suppose a relational database contained two linked tables. Which of the following items is not necessarily present in the database? A) two primary keys B) two foreign keys C) at least one column D) one foreign key 22) Suppose a relational database contained two linked tables. Assuming the organization wants the database to be normalized, which of the following items represents a problem to normalization? A) The database contains only one primary key. B) The database contains two foreign keys. C) The database contains two primary keys. D) The database contains only one foreign key. 4.6 Perform simple queries using the Microsoft Access database. 1) Which one of the following results corresponds to the query below? A) B) C) D) 2) Which one of the following results corresponds to the query below? B) C) D) 3) Which one of the following results corresponds to the query below? B) C) D) 4) Using the database depicted below, "Date" is best described as A) a primary key. B) a foreign key. C) a non-key attribute. D) an attribute. 5) Using the database depicted below, how many primary keys are in the database? A) 0 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5 6) Using the database depicted below, how many foreign keys are in the database? A) 0 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5 7) Using the database depicted below, "Item #" is best described as A) an attribute. B) a primary key. C) a foreign key. D) A, B, and C 8) Using the database depicted below, "Unit Price" is best described as A) an attribute. B) a primary key. C) a foreign key. D) A, B, and C 9) Using the database depicted below, in the Sales table, "Customer #" is best described as A) an attribute. B) a primary key. C) a foreign key. D) A, B, and C 10) In the Customer table below, "Customer #" is best described as A) an attribute. B) a primary key. C) a foreign key. D) A, B, and C 11) In the Inventory table below, "Item number" is best described as A) an attribute. B) a primary key. C) a foreign key. D) A, B, and C Chapter 17 Database Design Using the REA Data Model 17.1 Discuss the steps for designing and implementing a database system. 1) Which of the following statements about REA modeling and REA diagrams is false? A) REA is an acronym for Resources, Entities, and Agents. B) REA data modeling does not include traditional accounting elements such as ledgers, chart of accounts, debits and credits. C) REA data modeling could be referred to as an events-based model. D) REA diagrams must include at least two activities, which together represent a give-get economic exchange. 2) The REA data model approach facilitates efficient operations by all the following except A) standardizing source document format. B) identifying non-value added activities. C) storing financial and nonfinancial data in the same database. D) organizing data to simplify data retrieval and analysis. 3) The process of defining a database so that it faithfully represents all aspects of the organization including its interactions with the external environment is called A) data modeling. B) data designing. C) data development. D) data definition. 4) In which stage(s) of the database design process does data modeling occur? A) only in the systems analysis stage B) only in the design stage C) in both the systems analysis and design stages D) neither the systems analysis nor the design stages 5) A(n) diagram graphically depicts a database's contents by showing entities and relationships. A) data flow B) flowchart C) entity-relationship D) REA 6) In creating an entity-relationship diagram, is anything about which an organization wants to collect and store information. A) a data model B) an entity C) a schema D) a tuple 7) An entity-relationship diagram represents entities as and the relationships between them as lines and . A) circles; squares B) squares; diamonds C) rectangles; diamonds D) rectangles; circles 8) An entity-relationship diagram A) can represent the contents of any database. B) is only used in conjunction with REA models. C) can show a limited number of entities and relationships. D) is used only to design new databases. 9) Data modeling is an element of A) systems analysis. B) conceptual design. C) both A and B D) neither A nor B 12) In which stage(s) of the database design process is the completed data model used? A) only in the systems analysis stage B) only in the conceptual design stage C) in both the systems analysis and design stages D) neither the systems analysis nor the design stages 13) In which stage(s) of the database design process should accountants participate? A) the systems analysis stage B) the conceptual design stage C) the implementation and conversion stage D) in all of the stages above 14) With regards to the database design process, accountants may provide the greatest value to their organization by participating in A) implementation and conversion. B) data modeling. C) database operation and maintenance. D) system auditing. 17) It is industry standard to model relationships as in entity-relationship diagrams. A) rectangles B) ovals C) diamonds D) there is no industry standard 18) It is industry standard to model attributes as in entity-relationship diagrams. A) rectangles B) ovals C) diamonds D) There is no industry standard. 17.2 Use the REA data model to design an AIS database. 1) The REA data model A) is used in many areas of business and science. B) was developed specifically for use in designing accounting information systems. C) classifies data into relationships, entities and accounts. D) all of the above 2) Which of the following is not one of the rules in creating an REA data model? A) Each event is linked to at least one resource that it affects. B) Each event is linked to at least one other event. C) Each event is linked to at least two participating agents. D) All of the above are important rules. 3) Which is a true statement about the REA data model? A) The REA data model classifies entities into three distinct categories. B) The term REA is an acronym that stands for resources, entities, and agents. C) Using an REA data model is not helpful when creating an R-E diagram. D) The "E" in the REA data model stands for things that have an economic value to the organization. 4) Relationships that affect the quantity of a resource are sometimes referred to as relationships. A) commitment B) exchange C) stockflow D) duality 5) The "give" event represents an activity which A) includes a promise to engage in future economic exchanges. B) increases the organization's stock of an economic resource. C) reduces the organization's stock of a resource that has economic value. D) none of the above 6) The "get" event represents an activity which A) includes a promise to engage in future economic exchanges. B) increases the organization's stock of an economic resource. C) reduces the organization's stock of a resource that has economic value. D) none of the above 8) REA models are usually depicted in which diagramming form? A) entity-relationship diagrams B) decision tree diagrams C) if-then diagrams D) stock-flow diagrams 9) Identify the item below that would be classified as a resource by the REA data model. A) an IOU from a customer B) the CFO C) a customer sale D) none of the above 10) Identify the item below that would be classified as an event by the REA data model. A) an IOU from a customer B) the CFO C) a customer sale D) none of the above 11) Identify the item below that would be classified as an agent by the REA data model. A) an IOU from a customer B) the CFO C) a customer sale D) none of the above 12) What is the minimum number of agents that must participate in each REA event? A) 0 B) 2 C) 1 D) 3 13) What is the minimum number of external agents that must participate in each REA event? A) 0 B) 2 C) 1 D) 3 14) Assume that you are looking at a REA diagram that depicts only one event. Which of the following must be on the REA diagram? A) an external agent B) an internal agent C) both A and B D) neither A nor B 15) Identify the notation often used to represent cardinality information. A) dotted lines B) Greek characters C) crow's feet D) color coding 16) Identify the notation below that is not used to represent cardinality information. A) UML B) (Min, Max) C) DFD D) Maximums only 17) Every citizen in the United States has one social security number, but no two citizens have the same social security number. Thus, the cardinality that exists between social security numbers and citizens is A) one-to-one. B) one-to-many. C) many-to-many. D) none of the above 18) Every person in the world has a birthdate, but no person has more than one birthdate. Thus, the cardinality that exists between birthdate and people is A) one-to-one. B) one-to-many. C) many-to-many. D) none of the above 19) Every person in the world can have more than one friend, and each person in the world can be a friend to more than one person. Thus, the cardinality that exists between friends and people is A) one-to-one. B) one-to-many. C) many-to-many. D) none of the above 17.3 Draw an REA diagram of an AIS database. 1) What is the standard cardinality pattern for a relationship between an event and an agent? A) 1:1 B) 0:1 C) 0:N D) 1:N 2) An REA diagram must link every event to at least one and two . A) resource; agents B) agent; resources C) transaction; entities D) resource; relationships 3) Each event in an REA model will in most cases have at least one agent and one agent involved with the event. A) internal; resource B) external; entity C) internal; employee D) internal; external 4) Which of the following statements is true about the development of an REA model? A) Events that pertain to the entry of data are included in the REA model. B) The objective is to model basic value-chain activities. C) REA diagrams model individual transactions and data collections. D) Information retrieval events are modeled as events in the REA model. 5) The first step in developing an REA diagram for a specific transaction cycle begins with identifying A) relevant events. B) agents involved. C) resources affected. D) relationship cardinalities. 6) Identify the statement below that is false with respect to cardinalities. A) Cardinalities describe the nature of the relationship between two entities. B) No universal standard exists for representing information about cardinalities in REA diagrams. C) The minimum cardinality can be zero or one. D) The maximum cardinality can be zero, one, or many. 7) Identify the minimum cardinality of any REA diagram relationship. A) 0 or 1 B) 0 or N C) 1 or N D) none of the above 8) The maximum cardinality of any REA diagram relationship is A) zero or one. B) one or many. C) zero or many. D) none of the above 9) How many types of relationships are possible between entities? A) one B) two C) three D) an infinite number 10) Identify the most likely relationship where cardinalities have zero minimums and N maximums. A) agent-event relationship B) resource-event relationship C) event-event relationship D) All of the above are equally likely. 11) Which of the following statements is false regarding REA diagrams? A) Each organization will have its own unique REA diagram. B) An REA diagram for a given organization will change over time. C) Data modeling and REA diagram development involve complex and repetitive processes. D) Redrawing an REA diagram several times during development is uncommon. 12) Which of the following graphical symbols represents a minimum cardinality of zero and a maximum cardinality of one? A) B) C) D) 13) Which of the following graphical symbols represents a minimum cardinality of zero and a maximum cardinality of many? A) B) C) D) 14) Which of the following graphical symbols represents a minimum cardinality of one and a maximum cardinality of one? A) B) C) D) 15) Which of the following graphical symbols represents a minimum cardinality of one and a maximum cardinality of many? A) B) C) D) 16) A relationship is diagrammed below using the [Min, Max] notation. Which of the diagrams below represents the same relationship using the "crow's feet" notation? A) B) C) D) 17) Helge Autoparts sells new and refurbished auto parts exclusively to auto dealers. Helge purchases inventory from distributors at trade conventions. Each time Helge makes a purchase, the company records the suppliers name, address, date, specific items purchased, price paid for each, and the total amount spent. Helge later researches the inventory items to set the customer price. The company assigns an inventory number to each item purchased and records the customer price for each item. Helge buys price tags and display supplies from Alwin Incorporated, a company that sells them at all trade conventions. All inventory and supplies purchases are immediately paid for with cash or with checks from a bank account in Helge's name. All cash received from sales are also deposited to the same bank account. Several times a year Helge rents display space at dealer conventions. A deposit is always required, and the entire fee is due the day the convention starts. Helge records the deposit and final payment, along with the convention's name and address, in the same worksheet on which purchases of inventory and supplies are recorded. Consider Helge's processes regarding the purchasing inventory and supplies, renting display space, and paying for purchased items. A well-designed REA diagram would A) include eight unique entities. B) include nine unique entities. C) include seven unique entities. D) include ten unique entities. 18) Helge Autoparts sells new and refurbished auto parts exclusively to auto dealers. Helge purchases inventory from distributors at trade conventions. Each time Helge makes a purchase, the company records the suppliers name, address, date, specific items purchased, price paid for each, and the total amount spent. Helge later researches the inventory items to set the customer price. The company assigns an inventory number to each item purchased and records the customer price for each item. Helge buys price tags and display supplies from Alwin Incorporated, a company that sells them at all trade conventions. All inventory and supplies purchases are immediately paid for with cash or with checks from a bank account in Helge's name. All cash received from sales are also deposited to the same bank account. Several times a year Helge rents display space at dealer conventions. A deposit is always required, and the entire fee is due the day the convention starts. Helge records the deposit and final payment, along with the convention's name and address, in the same worksheet on which purchases of inventory and supplies are recorded. Consider Helge's processes regarding the purchasing inventory and supplies, renting display space, and paying for purchased items. A well-designed REA diagram would A) reflect nine 1:N relationships. B) reflect two M:N relationships. C) reflect ten 1:N relationships. D) include two 1:1 relationships. 19) Helge Autoparts sells new and refurbished auto parts exclusively to auto dealers. Helge purchases inventory from distributors at trade conventions. Each time Helge makes a purchase, the company records the suppliers name, address, date, specific items purchased, price paid for each, and the total amount spent. Helge later researches the inventory items to set the customer price. The company assigns an inventory number to each item purchased and records the customer price for each item. Helge buys price tags and display supplies from Alwin Incorporated, a company that sells them at all trade conventions. All inventory and supplies purchases are immediately paid for with cash or with checks from a bank account in Helge's name. All cash received from sales are also deposited to the same bank account. Several times a year Helge rents display space at dealer conventions. A deposit is always required, and the entire fee is due the day the convention starts. Helge records the deposit and final payment, along with the convention's name and address, in the same worksheet on which purchases of inventory and supplies are recorded. Consider Helge's processes regarding the purchasing inventory and supplies, renting display space, and paying for purchased items. A well-designed REA diagram would A) reflect minimum cardinalities of 1 for the relationship between Vendor and Cash Disbursement entities. B) reflect the same number of 0 and 1 minimum cardinalities. C) reflect more maximum cardinalities of M than of 1. D) reflect maximum cardinalities of M for the relationship between Inventory and Purchase entities. 20) Helge Autoparts sells new and refurbished auto parts exclusively to auto dealers. Helge purchases inventory from distributors at trade conventions. Each time Helge makes a purchase, the company records the suppliers name, address, date, specific items purchased, price paid for each, and the total amount spent. Helge later researches the inventory items to set the customer price. The company assigns an inventory number to each item purchased and records the customer price for each item. Helge buys price tags and display supplies from Alwin Incorporated, a company that sells them at all trade conventions. All inventory and supplies purchases are immediately paid for with cash or with checks from a bank account in Helge's name. All cash received from sales are also deposited to the same bank account. Several times a year Helge rents display space at dealer conventions. A deposit is always required, and the entire fee is due the day the convention starts. Helge records the deposit and final payment, along with the convention's name and address, in the same worksheet on which purchases of inventory and supplies are recorded. Consider Helge's processes regarding the purchasing inventory and supplies, renting display space, and paying for purchased items. In a well-designed REA diagram, what entities would reflect economic duality? A) Purchases and Cash Disbursements B) Display Space Rental and Cash Disbursements C) Inventory and Purchases D) Cash and Cash Disbursements 17.4 Read an REA diagram and explain what it reveals about the business activities and policies of the organization being modeled. 1) Which of the following transactions is represented by the diagram below? A) A junkyard holds weekly sales where it sells its entire inventory. B) A shoe store sells products to consumers. C) A stay-at-home mom creates furniture for doll houses. When one piece is finished, she sells it on Amazon.com. D) Netflix sells movies to consumers through its online downloading service. 2) Which of the following transactions is represented by the diagram below? A) A junkyard holds weekly sales where it sells its entire inventory. B) A shoe store sells products to consumers. C) A stay-at-home mom creates furniture for doll houses. When one piece is finished, she sells it on Amazon.com. D) Netflix sells movies to consumers through its online downloading service. 3) Which of the following transactions is represented by the diagram below? A) A junkyard holds weekly sales where it sells its entire inventory. B) A shoe store sells products to consumers. C) A stay-at-home mom creates furniture for doll houses. When one piece is finished, she sells it on Amazon.com. D) Netflix sells movies to consumers through its online downloading service. 4) Which of the following transactions is represented by the diagram below? A) A junkyard holds weekly sales where it sells its entire inventory. B) A shoe store sells products to consumers. C) A stay-at-home mom creates furniture for doll houses. When one piece is finished, she sells it on Amazon.com. D) Netflix sells movies to consumers through its online downloading service. 5) Which of the following transactions is represented by the diagram below? A) a lumber yard where customers may pay with cash for all purchases B) a buy-here-pay-here auto dealer where a car buyer sends monthly cash payments to the dealer C) a consulting firm that offers a variety of consulting services to other businesses D) a department store that allows customers to carry a balance and to make installment payments, if they choose 6) Which of the following transactions is represented by the diagram below? A) a lumber yard where customers may pay with cash for all purchases B) a buy-here-pay-here auto dealer where a car buyer sends monthly cash payments to the dealer C) a consulting firm that offers a variety of consulting services to other businesses D) a department store that allows customers to carry a balance and to make installment payments, if they choose 7) Which of the following transactions is represented by the diagram below? A) a lumber yard where customers may pay with cash for all purchases B) a buy-here-pay-here auto dealer where a car buyer sends monthly cash payments to the dealer C) a consulting firm that offers a variety of consulting services to other businesses D) a department store that allows customers to carry a balance and to make installment payments, if they choose 8) Which of the following transactions is represented by the diagram below? A) a lumber yard where customers may pay with cash for all purchases B) a buy-here-pay-here auto dealer where a car buyer sends monthly cash payments to the dealer C) a consulting firm that offers a variety of consulting services to other businesses D) a department store that allows customers to carry a balance and to make installment payments, if they choose 9) Which of the following transactions is represented by the diagram below? A) Vendors send a bill for each inventory item purchased which is payable on receipt. B) A single purchase of inventory is paid for with multiple payments. C) Inventory vendors send a monthly bill for merchandise delivered. The seller does not accept or allow installment payments. D) Some inventory purchases are paid for with multiple payments and some payments may apply to multiple purchases. 10) Which of the following transactions is represented by the diagram below? A) Vendors send a bill for each inventory item purchased which is payable on receipt. B) A single purchase of inventory is paid for with multiple payments. C) Inventory vendors send a monthly bill for merchandise delivered. The seller does not accept or allow installment payments. D) Some inventory purchases are paid for with multiple payments and some payments may apply to multiple purchases. 11) Which of the following transactions is represented by the diagram below? A) Vendors send a bill for each inventory item purchased which is payable on receipt. B) A single purchase of inventory is paid for with multiple payments. C) Inventory vendors send a monthly bill for merchandise delivered. The seller does not accept or allow installment payments. D) Some inventory purchases are paid for with multiple payments and some payments may apply to multiple purchases. 12) Which of the following transactions is represented by the diagram below? A) Each sale is associated with a single order, and there is a time lag between the time an order is taken and delivery of the product. B) Each sale can be comprised of multiple orders, and each order can be associated with multiple sales or no sales. C) Each sale can be comprised of multiple orders, and each order can be associated with one or more multiple sales. D) Each sale is associated with a single order and, there is no time lag between the time an order is taken and delivery of the product. 13) Which of the following transactions is represented by the diagram below? A) Each sale is associated with a single order, and there is a time lag between the time an order is taken and delivery of the product. B) Each sale can be comprised of multiple orders, and each order can be associated with multiple sales or no sales. C) Each sale can be comprised of multiple orders, and each order can be associated with one or more sales. D) Each sale is associated with a single order, and there is no time lag between the time an order is taken and delivery of the product. 14) Which of the following transactions is represented by the diagram below? A) Each sale is associated with a single order, and there is a time lag between the time an order is taken and delivery of the product. B) Each sale can be comprised of multiple orders, and each order can be associated with multiple sales or no sales. C) Each sale can be comprised of multiple orders, and each order can be associated with one or more sales. D) Each sale is associated with a single order, and there is no time lag between the time an order is taken and delivery of the product. 15) Which of the following transactions is represented by the diagram below? A) Each sale is associated with a single order, and there is a time lag between the time an order is taken and delivery of the product. B) Each sale can be comprised of multiple orders, and each order can be associated with multiple sales or no sales. C) Each sale can be comprised of multiple orders, and each order can be associated with one or more sales. D) Each sale is associated with a single order, and there is no time lag between the time an order is taken and delivery of the product. Chapter 18 Implementing an REA Model in a Relational Database 18.1 Integrate separate REA diagrams for individual business cycles into a single, comprehensive organization-wide REA diagram. 1) Integrating separate REA diagrams developed for individual transaction cycles into a single, comprehensive enterprise-wide data model A) is possible. B) requires understanding what the cardinalities in each separate diagram reveal about the organization's business policies and activities. C) provides a single comprehensive enterprise-wide model of the organization. D) All of the above are true. 2) An integrated REA diagram merges multiple copies of and entities but retains multiple copies of entities. A) resource; event; agent B) event; agent; resource C) resource; agent; event D) None of the above. An integrated REA diagram merges multiple copies of all entities. 3) An integrated REA diagram could contain multiple copies of A) customers. B) sales. C) inventory. D) sales-inventory. 4) An integrated REA diagram merges multiple copies of some entities in order to A) minimize the repetition of agent entities. B) maximize the legibility of the diagram by avoiding the need to have relationship lines cross one another. C) Both A and B are true. D) Both A and B are false. 5) Combining REA diagrams for individual transaction cycles into a single, enterprise-wide model adds two more rules to the three basic principles for drawing REA diagrams. Which of the following is not one of those two new rules? A) Every resource must be linked to at least one event that increments that resource and to at least one event that decrements that resource. B) If a specific event can be linked to more than one other type of event, but cannot be linked simultaneously to all of those other events, then the minimum cardinality between that event and every other event with which it may be associated must be 0. C) If a specific event can be linked to more than one other type of event, but cannot be linked simultaneously to all of those other events, then the maximum cardinality between that event and every other event with which it may be associated must be 0. D) All of the above are new rules for drawing integrated REA diagrams. 6) Which of the following statements is not true with regards to a correctly drawn enterprise- wide REA diagram? A) Every event must be linked to at least one resource. B) Merging two transaction cycles on a common event may affect the minimum cardinalities between the merged event and the other events. C) Events can only be merged if they share the same resources and events. D) Creating a set of tables from an REA diagram automatically results in a well-structured relational database. 7) Which of the below statements is false with respect to REA diagrams for individual transaction cycles? A) They depict basic give-to-get economic duality relationships. B) They usually provide only a partial view of resources. C) They need to be combined in order to provide a comprehensive enterprise-wide data model. D) They show both how resources are acquired and how they are used. 8) Which of the statements below is false with respect to enterprise-wide REA diagrams? A) Merging two or more REA diagrams that contain the same resource entity does not require any changes to the cardinality pairs in the individual diagrams. B) Merging two or more diagrams that contain a common event entity, however, often requires changing the minimum cardinalities associated with the other events to 0, to reflect the fact that the merged event may be connected to any one of several different events, but not to all of them simultaneously. C) The minimum cardinalities associated with agents may also have to be changed to 0. D) All of the above are true. 9) When combining two REA diagrams by merging common entities, changes in the cardinality of the merged entity is needed when it is a(n) A) agent. B) event. C) relationship. D) resource. 10) Integrating separate REA diagrams into a single comprehensive enterprise-wide model of the organization requires understanding what the in each separate diagram reveal about the organization's business policies and activities. A) cardinalities B) data C) events D) transactions 11) When integrating separate REA diagrams, A) common resources are placed between the events that affect them. B) each resource is connected to two agents. C) resources are duplicated to show the give and get of economic duality relationships. D) resources are merged if both events in the stockflow relationship are modeled. 12) Which entity is most likely to be part of both the revenue cycle and the expenditure cycle? A) Receive Goods B) Customer C) Receive Cash D) Inventory 13) Which entity is most likely to be part of both the payroll cycle and the expenditure cycle? A) Receive Goods B) Customer C) Disburse Cash D) Inventory 14) Which entity is most likely to be part of both the payroll cycle and the revenue cycle? A) Cash B) Customer C) Receive Goods D) Inventory 15) Which entity is most likely to be part of the payroll cycle, expenditure cycle, and the revenue cycle? A) Customer B) Cash C) Supplier D) Inventory 16) Which of the following is a redundant entity that would be merged when two cycles are combined? A) Customer B) Employee C) Vendor D) Inventory 17) In an integrated REA diagram, every event must be linked to A) at least two resources. B) at least two agents. C) at least one other event. D) at least two other events. 18) In an integrated REA diagram, every resource must be must be linked to A) at least two events. B) at least two agents. C) at least one other resource. D) at least two other resources. 19) In an integrated REA diagram, every agent must be must be linked to A) at least one resource. B) at least two resources. C) at least one event. D) at least two events. 21) When integrating multiple REA diagrams into an integrated REA diagram, merging redundant resources A) always affects minimum cardinalities associated with the merged event. B) sometimes affects minimum cardinalities associated with the merged event. C) never affects minimum cardinalities associated with the merged event. D) none of the above 22) In an REA diagram, resource entities A) can be linked to event entities in Business Cycle A and to event entities in Business Cycle B. B) cannot be linked to event entities in Business Cycle A and to event entities in Business Cycle B. C) cannot be linked to agent entities. D) none of the above 23) When integrating multiple REA diagrams into an integrated REA diagram, to merge an event that appears in both business cycle REA diagrams, A) the event that appears in both business cycle REA diagrams may be linked to either an event that is part of one business cycle or to an event that is part of another business cycle. B) the event that appears in both business cycle REA diagrams may be linked to an event that is part of one business cycle and to an event that is part of another business cycle. C) One cannot merge an event that appears in both business cycles. D) none of the above 18.2 Build a set of tables to implement an REA model of an AIS in a relational database. 1) The primary key for a Purchase-Inventory table that consists of the Purchase Order Number and the Inventory Item Number, is known as a A) concatenated key. B) foreign key C) primary key. D) dual key. 2) When using an REA diagram to develop a database, a many-to-many relationship must be A) broken into two, one-to-one relationships. B) combined into a single one-to-one relationship. C) combined into a one-to-many relationship. D) broken into two, one-to-many relationships. 3) The type of relationship between two entities is determined by A) maximum cardinalities only. B) minimum cardinalities only. C) minimum and maximum cardinalities. D) median cardinalities. 4) Which of the following is not one of the steps in implementing an REA diagram in a relational database? A) Implement many-to-many relationships with foreign keys. B) Create tables for entities. C) Assign attributes to tables and identify primary keys. D) Implement one-to-many relationships with foreign keys. 5) Which of the following is not one of the three steps to implementing an REA diagram in a relational database? A) Assign attributes to appropriate tables. B) Create a table for each distinct entity in the diagram and for each many-to-many relationship. C) Link every event to at least one resource. D) Use foreign keys to implement one-to-one and one-to-many relationships. 6) Why might the same REA diagram result in different relationship cardinalities? A) Different organizations might have different business policies. B) Different designers might implement an REA diagram differently. C) Different consultants might draw an REA diagram differently. D) Errors occur in the REA diagram. 7) What is the first step to implementing an REA diagram in a relational database? A) Assign attributes to appropriate tables. B) Create a table for each distinct entity in the diagram and for each many-to-many relationship. C) Identify cardinalities. D) Use foreign keys to implement one-to-one and one-to-many relationships. 8) Which of the following is true with regards to REA diagrams and relational databases? A) A well-designed relational database is the starting point for creating an REA diagram. B) A well-designed REA diagram minimizes update, insert or delete anomaly problem when the diagram is implemented into a relational database. C) REA diagrams and database design are generic across organizations. D) The design of a relational database is specific to the organization being modeled. 9) Which of the following is false with regards to creating database tables from an REA diagram? A) A properly designed relational database has a table for each distinct entity in an REA diagram. B) A properly designed relational database has a table for each many-to-many relationship in an REA diagram. C) To reduce confusion, table names should not duplicate REA diagram entities' names. D) Many-to-many relationships will be shown in tables with hyphenated concatenations of the entities' names. 10) When assigning attributes to each table, A) the database designer must interview users to identify which facts should be included in the database. B) the database designer must interview management to identify which facts should be included in the database. C) the database designer must use the REA diagram to help determine in which tables those facts belong. D) the database designer must do all of the above. 11) The primary key for M:N relationship tables A) is a single attribute. B) always consists of two attributes. C) is the primary key of the most important entity linked to that relationship. D) does not exist. Many-to-many relationship tables only use foreign keys. 12) Attributes other than the primary key are A) included to satisfy transaction processing requirements. B) included to meet management's information needs. C) both A and B D) none of the above 13) Which of the statements below is false with regards to the tables for M:N relationships? A) Non-key attributes may be included. B) Multiple attribute primary keys are used. C) Single attribute primary keys may be used. D) Concatenated keys are used. 14) Which of the statements below is false with regards to creating database tables from an REA diagram? A) M:N relationships must be implemented as separate tables. B) 1:N relationships are implemented with the primary key of the 1 side becoming a foreign key on the N side. C) 1:1 relationships are implemented with the primary key of either entity included as a foreign key in the table representing the other entity. D) All of the above are true. 15) Which of the following is not part of a "final accuracy check" when creating relational tables from an REA diagram? A) Every attribute in every table is single-valued (i.e., each table is a flat file). B) Every event must be linked to at least one resource. C) Every table must have a primary key. D) Other non-key attributes in each table must be either a fact about the thing designated by the primary key or foreign keys used to link that table to another table. 16) Concatenated keys are A) only needed when combining two or more REA diagrams. B) foreign keys used to implement 1:N or 1:1 relationships. C) multiple attribute keys used to implement 1:N relationships. D) required to implement M:N relationships. 17) How many tables are needed to implement an REA data model that has six distinct entities, three M:N relationships and four 1:N relationships in a relational database? A) 6 B) 9 C) 11 D) 13 18) How many tables are needed to implement an REA data model that has five distinct entities, two M:N relationships and three 1:N relationships in a relational database? A) 5 B) 7 C) 8 D) 10 19) Which table is most likely to have a concatenated key? A) customer B) sales C) customer-sales D) accounts receivable 20) In which of the following cases is the number of tables required to represent the relationship equal to three? A) B) C) D) 21) In which of the following cases is the relationship between entities not implemented by foreign keys? A) B) C) D) 22) Which of the following attributes would typically be included in the table that stores data about the Customer entity in a relational database? A) Invoice number B) Credit limit C) Product code D) Backorder 23) In a relational database, which of the following attributes would typically be included in the table that stores data about the Vendor entity? A) Invoice number B) Outstanding balance C) Product code D) Inventory 24) In a relational database, which of the following attributes would typically be represented by a foreign key in the table that stores data about a Receive Inventory entity? A) Purchase order number B) Payment terms C) Product code D) Date 25) In a relational database, which of the following attributes would typically be represented by a foreign key in the table that stores data about a Disburse Cash entity? A) Amount B) Date C) Vendor number D) Product number 26) Implementation of this REA diagram into a relational database would require how many tables? A) 12 B) 13 C) 8 D) 9 27) Which of the following would be true when implementing this REA diagram into a relational database? A) The primary key for Employee would be a foreign key for Cash Receipts. B) The primary key for Cash Receipts would be a foreign key for Cash. C) The primary key for Parts would be a foreign key for Service Request. D) The primary key for Sales would be a foreign key for Service Request. 28) Helge Autoparts sells new and refurbished auto parts exclusively to auto dealers. Helge purchases inventory from distributors at trade conventions. Each time Helge makes a purchase, the company records the suppliers name, address, date, specific items purchased, price paid for each, and the total amount spent. Helge later researches the inventory items to set the customer price. The company assigns an inventory number to each item purchased and records the customer price for each item. Helge buys price tags and display supplies from Alwin Incorporated, a company that sells them at all trade conventions. All inventory and supplies purchases are immediately paid for with cash or with checks from a bank account in Helge's name. All cash received from sales are also deposited to the same bank account. Several times a year Helge rents display space at dealer conventions. A deposit is always required, and the entire fee is due the day the convention starts. Helge records the deposit and final payment, along with the convention's name and address, in the same worksheet on which purchases of inventory and supplies are recorded. Which of the following would not be an attribute in the Purchases table? A) address where purchase was made B) person's name or company name from whom the purchase was made C) date of purchase D) total amount of purchase 29) Helge Autoparts sells new and refurbished auto parts exclusively to auto dealers. Helge purchases inventory from distributors at trade conventions. Each time Helge makes a purchase, the company records the suppliers name, address, date, specific items purchased, price paid for each, and the total amount spent. Helge later researches the inventory items to set the customer price. The company assigns an inventory number to each item purchased and records the customer price for each item. Helge buys price tags and display supplies from Alwin Incorporated, a company that sells them at all trade conventions. All inventory and supplies purchases are immediately paid for with cash or with checks from a bank account in Helge's name. All cash received from sales are also deposited to the same bank account. Several times a year Helge rents display space at dealer conventions. A deposit is always required, and the entire fee is due the day the convention starts. Helge records the deposit and final payment, along with the convention's name and address, in the same worksheet on which purchases of inventory and supplies are recorded. Which of the following would not be an attribute in the Inventory table? A) Total amount of purchase B) Price paid for inventory C) Asking price D) Inventory number 30) Helge Autoparts sells new and refurbished auto parts exclusively to auto dealers. Helge purchases inventory from distributors at trade conventions. Each time Helge makes a purchase, the company records the suppliers name, address, date, specific items purchased, price paid for each, and the total amount spent. Helge later researches the inventory items to set the customer price. The company assigns an inventory number to each item purchased and records the customer price for each item. Helge buys price tags and display supplies from Alwin Incorporated, a company that sells them at all trade conventions. All inventory and supplies purchases are immediately paid for with cash or with checks from a bank account in Helge's name. All cash received from sales are also deposited to the same bank account. Several times a year Helge rents display space at dealer conventions. A deposit is always required, and the entire fee is due the day the convention starts. Helge records the deposit and final payment, along with the convention's name and address, in the same worksheet on which purchases of inventory and supplies are recorded. Which of the following would be an attribute in the table for Display Space Rental? A) Convention name B) Deposit paid C) Balance paid D) Convention address 32) Constructing a well-structured, well-developed REA diagram eliminates which anomaly problem(s)? A) update B) insert C) delete D) all of the above 33) How many tables are needed to implement an REA data model that has four distinct entities, three M:N relationships and one 1:N relationships in a relational database? A) 5 B) 7 C) 8 D) 10 34) How many tables are needed to implement an REA data model that has three distinct entities, two M:N relationships and two 1:N relationships in a relational database? A) 5 B) 7 C) 8 D) 10 35) Identify the attribute below that would not make a good primary key. A) birthdate B) social security number C) a unique number automatically generated by the system D) cell phone number 36) From the choices below, identify the attribute below that would make the best primary key. A) height (in inches) B) date of first purchase C) zip code D) customer telephone number 37) Rebus Fashions provides haircuts to men and women. Rebus uses an REA database to record information that is important to the firm. Rebus has a table named "Employee" where it keeps information about its hair stylists. Identify the attribute below that most likely does not belong in the Employee table. A) Stylist phone number B) Stylist hair cut specialties C) Number of haircuts provided by a stylist on a given day D) All of the above are appropriate attributes for the Employee table. 38) Rebus Fashions provides haircuts to men and women. Rebus uses an REA database to record information that is important to the firm. Rebus has a table named "Customer" where it keeps information about its customers. Identify the attribute below that most likely does not belong in the Customer table. A) Customer hair color B) Customer hair style C) Customer address D) All of the above are appropriate attributes for the Customer table. 39) Rebus Fashions provides haircuts to men and women. Rebus uses an REA database to record information that is important to the firm. Rebus has an M:N table named "Customer- Sale" where it keeps information about customer sales. Identify the attribute below that most likely does not belong in the Customer-Sale table. A) Date of sale B) Time hair cut was started C) Name of customer D) All of the above are appropriate attributes for the Customer table. 40) Rebus Fashions provides haircuts to men and women. Rebus charges $10 per haircut, no matter what type of haircut the customer selects. Rebus uses an REA database to record information that is important to the firm. Rebus has an M:N table named "Customer-Sale" where it keeps information about customer sales. Identify the attribute below that most likely does not belong in the Customer-Sale table. A) Date of sale B) Time hair cut was finished C) Price of haircut D) All of the above are appropriate attributes for the Customer table. 18.3 Explain how to write queries to retrieve information from an AIS relational database built according to the REA data model. 1) Nonfinancial information should be collected because A) it may indicate events that may affect resources. B) it can be used to plan other activities. C) it can be used in transaction processing. D) both A and B 2) When comparing REA diagrams used to design an AIS with a traditionally designed AIS, A) traditional AIS information, such as journals and ledgers no longer exist. B) similar information is present as in a traditional AIS, but stored in a different format. C) queries are used to input data into the AIS. D) an REA designed AIS cannot recreate a traditional journal. 3) Which of the following is/are true with regards to using REA diagrams to retrieve information from a database? A) Although neither journals nor ledgers appear explicitly in an REA diagram, each can be created through appropriate queries. B) The information normally found in a journal is contained in the tables used to record data about events. C) Much of the information about an organization's assets that is traditionally recorded in ledgers is stored in resource tables in an REA-based relational database. D) All of the above 4) Much of the information about an organization's assets that is traditionally recorded in ledgers is stored in tables in an REA-based relational database. A) Account B) Agent C) Event D) Resource 5) In an REA-based relational database, the information normally found in a is contained in the tables used to record data about . A) journal; events B) journal; resources C) ledger; events D) ledger; resources 6) Which of the following is false with regards to REA models? A) Many financial statement accounts are represented as resources in the REA model. B) Accounts such as Accounts Receivable show up as entities in the REA model. C) Some accounts represent an imbalance between two related events in the REA model. D) Much of the information about an organization's assets that is traditionally recorded in ledgers is stored in resource tables in an REA-based relational database. 7) Because information about temporal imbalances between two , such as accounts receivable and accounts payable, is needed so frequently, such calculated values are sometimes stored as in the appropriate tables. A) events; agents B) events; attributes C) resources; agents D) resources; attributes 8) Which of the statements below is false with regards to generating financial statements from an REA-based relational database? A) It is possible to use a completed REA diagram to guide the writing of queries to produce the information that would be included in financial statements. B) Many financial statement items can be displayed by querying a single table. C) It is unnecessary to understand the REA data model to know which tables need to be included in each query to generate the correct answers to financial statement questions. D) A major advantage of the REA data model is that it integrates non-financial and financial data. 9) Which of the statements below is false when comparing the REA model to the traditional AIS model? A) Traditional AISs contain only data about the financial aspects of transactions. B) A major advantage of the REA data model is that it integrates non-financial and financial data in the AIS and makes both types of data easily accessible to management. C) In the REA model, many financial statement items can be displayed by querying a single table. D) Accounts in the traditional AIS are analogous to resources in the REA-based relational database. 10) The major benefits of using the REA model as the basis for designing an AIS include all of the following except A) the REA data model integrates non-financial and financial data in the AIS. B) the REA data model makes both non-financial and financial data easily accessible to management. C) the REA data model provides the basis for building the kind of flexible AIS that is responsive to management's changing information needs. D) the REA data model reduces the need for accountants to understand the underlying accounting journals and ledgers. 11) Information traditionally found in journals is stored where in an REA database? A) Event entity B) Agent entity C) Relationship D) Resource entity 12) A query that extracts, for a given time period, the total amount of all sales events for which there is no corresponding receive cash event will yield A) a cash account ledger. B) a credit sales journal. C) an accounts receivable ledger. D) an accounts payable journal. 13) A query that extracts, for a given time period, all sales events for which there is no corresponding receive cash event on the date of the sales event will yield A) a cash account ledger. B) a credit sales journal. C) an accounts receivable ledger. D) an accounts payable journal. 14) A query that extracts, for a given time period, all purchases for which there is no corresponding disburse cash event will yield A) a cash account ledger. B) a credit sales journal. C) an accounts receivable ledger. D) an accounts payable journal. 18) Which of the following elements found in a traditional AIS system are not represented as entities in an REA relational database, but rather must be retrieved through the use of queries? A) accounts receivable B) the general ledger C) accounts payable D) all of the above 19) In a relational database designed according to the REA model, where is information about transactions stored? A) Resource entities B) Agent entities C) Event entities D) all of the above 20) In a relational database designed according to the REA model, where is information about an organization's liabilities generally stored? A) Resource entities B) Agent entities C) Event entities D) All of the above 21) In a relational database designed according to the REA model, where is information about accounts receivable stored? A) Event entities B) Agent entities C) Both A and B D) None of the above Chapter 19 Special Topics in REA Modeling 19.1 Develop REA data models for a variety of organizations besides retail stores. 1) Explicitly identifying the different employees who participate in each event by their job functions is helpful when verifying A) internal controls. B) job descriptions. C) proper supervision. D) segregation of duties. 2) Many companies sell software, music, or digital photographs over the Internet. They provide each customer with a digital copy of those resources, but not the actual resource itself. How will this company's REA model differ from those selling tangible inventory? A) These companies do not need an Inventory table. B) The structure of Inventory table is completely different from that of mass-produced merchandise. C) The Inventory table is only different in that it doesn't need attributes such as quantity-on- hand, quantity-available, reorder point, and standard reorder quantity. D) The Inventory table need not include information about the standard list price of each item and its description. 3) Sales order number is most likely to be a foreign key in which entity of an expanded revenue cycle REA diagram? A) Call on Customers B) Fill Customer Order C) Ship Order D) Take Customer Order 4) Sales order number is most likely to be a primary key in which entity of an expanded revenue cycle REA diagram? A) Call on Customers B) Fill Customer Order C) Ship Order D) Take Customer Order 5) Customer number is least likely to be a foreign key in which entity of an an expanded revenue cycle REA diagram? A) Call on Customers B) Customers C) Fill Customer Order D) Take Customer Order 6) Picking ticket number is most likely to be a primary key in which entity of an expanded revenue cycle REA diagram? A) Call on Customers B) Fill Customer Order C) Ship Order D) Take Customer Order 7) Picking ticket number is most likely to be a foreign key in which entity of an expanded revenue cycle REA diagram? A) Customers B) Fill Customer Order C) Ship Order D) Take Customer Order 8) In an REA model, rental transactions differ from sales transactions in that A) each rental has a part number. B) each rental has a unique serial number. C) rental transactions require completely different REA models than sales transactions. D) All of the above are ways in which rental transactions differ from sales transactions. 9) Concerning the relationship from the Rent Item to the Receive Cash events: The minimum cardinality is because customers typically pay first, prior to taking possession of the item. The maximum cardinality is because there may be additional charges imposed when the item is returned. A) 0; 1 B) 1; 1 C) 1; N D) N; M 10) The relationship between the Rent Item and Return Item events is most likely 1:1 for all except which of the following reasons? A) A return must be for a rented item. B) A rented item can only be returned once. C) Rented items are accounted for separately. D) All rented items must be returned. 11) In an expenditure cycle diagram, which of the following is an example of an event that larger organizations might want to include in their extended REA model? A) Request B) Order C) Ship Order D) Fill Order 12) Using an REA database design, which of the below is false with regards to cost data? A) Cost information is stored in several tables. B) Standard cost is stored as an attribute of the Inventory table because it is the same for all units of a given inventory item for a fiscal year. C) In contrast, the actual cost of inventory is stored in a relationship table because prices can vary over time. D) Actual cost can be stored as an attribute of the Inventory table for organizations that value inventory based on the most recent amount paid. 13) Using an REA database design, which is the most likely primary key for the Inventory– Request_Goods table? A) Product number B) Product number - Purchase order number C) Product number - Purchase requisition number D) Purchase requisition number 14) Using an REA database design, which is the most likely primary key for the Pay for Goods table? A) Cash transaction number B) Check number C) Invoice number D) Receiving report number, check number 15) For a service business, the minimum cardinalities between Sales event and Inventory entity are most likely both 0 for all except which of the following reasons? A) Service businesses don't sell inventory, they only use inventory to perform services. B) A sale doesn't have to include any inventory. C) Inventory can exist that hasn't been part of a sale yet. D) Some services only require labor. 16) The minimum cardinality from the Sales event to the Services entity is most likely 1 because A) every sale includes performing a service. B) a service is only recorded once a sale has occurred. C) only 1 service is provided for each sale. D) The minimum cardinality would not be 1; it would most likely be 0. 17) A dental office would likely model the relationships between the Sales event and both the Services and Supplies Resource entities as A) M:N. B) 1:1. C) 1:N. D) 0:1. 18) In a relational database, details about activities such as Cleaning, X-Rays, Fillings, Root Canals, Crowns, and Extractions would all be stored in which table? A) Services B) Sales C) Inventory D) Those activities would be stored as part of a relationship, not a table. 19) M:N agent-event relationships occur whenever an activity is performed by employee and management wants to retain the ability to monitor performance. A) more than one; group B) more than one; individual C) one; group D) one; individual 20) The minimum cardinalities between a location, such as Warehouse, and a resource, like Inventory, will likely be 0 for all except which of the following reasons? A) One specific inventory item could be stored at several different warehouses. B) A warehouse could be currently empty. C) Not all kinds of inventory are stored at each warehouse. D) Inventory could include products not yet available for sale. 21) Since the same inventory items may be stored in several different warehouses, the maximum cardinality from Inventory to Warehouse is most likely A) 0. B) N. C) 1. D) determined by the number of warehouses compared to the number of inventory items. 22) Relationships between resources and agents, such as Inventory and Supplier, reflect the best practice of identifying preferred and alternative suppliers for specific inventory items. Similar relationships between resources and employees can be used to model and . A) cost; revenue B) performance; behavior C) responsibility; accountability D) segregation of duties; internal control 23) Warehouse number is most likely to be a foreign key in A) Order Inventory. B) Disburse Cash. C) Receive Inventory. D) Inventory. 24) Supplier number is least likely to be a foreign key in A) Order Inventory. B) Disburse Cash. C) Receive Inventory. D) Warehouse. 25) Financial Institution number is most likely to be a foreign key in A) Cash. B) Disburse Cash. C) Receive Inventory. D) Warehouse. 26) The cardinality pair from the Financial Institution entity to the Cash resource has a minimum and an maximum because companies will probably only keep information about financial institutions with which they have accounts but may have more than one account at the same financial institution. A) 0; N B) 0; 1 C) 1; N D) M; N 27) Supplier number is most likely to be a foreign key in A) Inventory–Request_Inventory. B) Receive Inventory. C) Supplier. D) Warehouse. 28) The temporal difference between Request Inventory and Order Inventory is reflected by the A) Request Inventory minimum cardinality of 1. B) Request Inventory maximum of N. C) Order Inventory maximum of N. D) Order Inventory minimum of 0. 29) One of the benefits of an integrated enterprise-wide data model is that A) auditors can use it to guide the development of queries to validate the completeness and accuracy of transaction processing. B) journals and ledgers will be more accurate than in a traditional AIS data model. C) workers can understand information flows better. D) All of the above are benefits of an integrated enterprise-wide data model. 30) Which of the following diagrams represents a situation where a firm offers some services that have not ever been sold, offers other services that have been performed many times, and provides services sometimes performed together to clients? A) B) C) D) 31) Which of the following diagrams represents a situation where a business that rents lawn mowers (not all of which get rented) writes separate rental agreements for each mower, so renters don't have to return all the rented items at the same time? A) B) C) D) 32) Which of the following diagrams represents a situation where items rented by a customer must be returned intact, and several rented items could be returned at the same time? A) B) C) D) 33) Which of the following diagrams represents a situation where deliveries are frequently made to the specific warehouse where the delivered goods will be stored? A) B) C) D) 34) Which of the following diagrams represents a situation where one or more warehouses may be empty, and production of new products has been delayed due to difficulty obtaining materials? A) B) C) D) 35) Which of the following diagrams represents the cardinality pairs in a situation where goods don't have to be requisitioned, but if they are, requisitions are approved and processed before purchase orders are issued? A) B) C) D) 36) Which of the following diagrams represents the cardinality pairs in a situation where customer orders are individually filled, but not all the items on a customer order are always available? A) B) C) D) 40) Identify the business activity below that cannot be modeled using an REA diagram. A) purchase requisitions B) rental transactions C) intangible assets D) All of the above can be modeled by an REA diagram. 41) In which entity would an item's standard cost information most likely be maintained? A) Inventory entity B) Order_Inventory entity C) Inventory-Order_Inventory entity D) none of the above 42) In which entity would an item's actual cost information most likely be maintained? A) Inventory entity B) Order_Inventory entity C) Inventory-Order_Inventory entity D) none of the above 43) Identify the inventory valuation method below that cannot be calculated in a database created using an REA modeling approach. A) LIFO B) FIFO C) Weighted Average D) none of the above 44) If the actual cost of an inventory item is maintained as an attribute in the Inventory table, which inventory valuation method would an organization have to use? A) LIFO B) FIFO C) Weighted Average D) Specific Identification 46) Assume an organization sells digital photographs to customers through its website (the company only sells photographs in digital format, it does not provide a physical copy of any photograph). Identify the attribute below that the organization would not need in its Inventory entity. A) reorder point B) price C) photograph description D) primary key 47) In addition to modeling Resources, Events, and Agents, identify the two additional concepts an organization will need to incorporate if it wishes to extend the REA to include information about firm policies. A) Type and Rules B) Rules and Group C) Group and Rules D) None of the above 48) A type entity is used to depict the following relationship. A) is-a-kind-of B) is-a-member-of C) is-a-piece-of D) is-a-group-of 49) A groups entity is used to depict the following relationship. A) is-a-kind-of B) is-a-member-of C) is-a-piece-of D) is-a-group-of 50) Type and group entities are similar in that both are abstractions that represent sets of A) objects. B) semantics. C) attributes. D) all of the above 51) The attributes of which type of entity would provide a way for the system to compare an employee's reimbursement request with the permissible range of the amount of reimbursement permitted? A) Resources B) Events C) Agents D) Type 52) The textbook explicitly identifies as situation where a properly designed database can yield tax benefits. A) meal and entertainment expenses B) salary expenses C) travel expenses D) depreciation expenses 19.2 Develop REA data models for the HR/payroll, manufacturing, and capital assets business cycles. 1) Identify the entity linked to almost every other entity in an REA diagram for HRM/payroll cycles. A) Employee B) Job title C) Payroll D) Worker I.D. 2) A relationship between Skills and Employees is typically modeled as M:N in an REA database model since A) one employee may possess many skills, and one skill may be possessed by more than one employee. B) many employees possess skills, and many skills are possessed by employees. C) employees can be trained to learn all skills, and all skills are possessed by at least one employee. D) The relationship would be 1:N not M:N, because most employees are hired for a specific job that requires a specific skill, even though a specific job could be done by many employees. 3) Identify the entity that stores most of the data typically found in the employee master file. A) Time Worked B) Employee C) HR D) Payroll 4) In an REA diagram for the HR/Payroll cycle, the relationship between Employees and Training is typically M:N for all except which of the following reasons? A) One employee may attend the same training event more than once. B) Each employee may attend more than one training event. C) Each training event may have more than one employee attend. D) One training event may be offered more than once. 5) In an REA diagrram for the HR/Payroll cycle, the relationship between Skills and Recruiting reflects the fact that one specific advertisement may list several specific skills and, over time, there may be several advertisements for one specific skill. A) 1:1 B) 1:N C) M:N D) 0:N 6) The Interview event stores detailed data about each job interview. Since hiring only happens once, but there may have been several interviews, Interview is linked to the Hire Employees event in a(n) relationship. A) 1:N B) 1:1 C) M:N D) 0:N 7) When modeling the issuance of debt, the maximum cardinality from Disburse Cash to Issue Debt is 1 because A) interest is usually only paid at the maturity date. B) one check is written for the total interest due. C) The Issue Debt event is not related to Disburse Cash event; cash is received, not given. D) The minimum cardinality would be 1, but the maximum cardinality should be N. 8) The relationship between the Disburse Cash and Issue Stock events is modeled as being M:N for all except which of the following reasons? A) One dividend check could be paid to shareholders that purchased stock at different times. B) Shareholders could receive several dividend checks over time. C) Checks must be written to each shareholder for dividend payments. D) Stock can be issued more than once over a period of time. 9) The relationship between the Acquire Services and Disburse Cash events is modeled as to reflect the common situation in which the organization obtains the use of a specific service for a particular period of time and makes a payment each month for the services it acquired and used that month. A) 1:1 B) 1:N C) M:N D) none of the above 10) While not required, connecting the Time Used entity to specific business events enables A) evaluating performance at a very detailed level. B) general performance evaluation. C) evaluating the quality of the services received. D) determining productivity of employees, such as how many customer calls were made, or how many sales were made. 11) An REA diagram for the production cycle models the relationships between the Perform Job Operations event and the Job Operations List entity as 1:N because A) time standards change over time. B) one specific activity has only one standard time for completion. C) activities are only performed once on work in process jobs. D) many activities are usually required for specific work in process jobs. 12) Data about actual raw materials used in production is most appropriately stored which of the entities below? A) Finished Goods B) Raw Materials C) Raw Materials Issuance D) Work-in-Process 13) The entity is used to collect and summarize data about the raw materials, labor, and machine operations used during production of inventory. A) Finished Goods Inventory B) Raw Materials C) Issue Raw Materials D) Work-in-Process 14) In the table called Perform Machine Operations, which is the most likely primary key? A) Equipment Number B) Job Operation Number C) Machine Operation Number D) Machine Operations List Number 15) Employee number is most likely to be a foreign key in A) Perform Job Operations. B) Perform Machine Operations. C) Machine Operations List. D) Work in Process. 16) Which of the following is not one of the four main events in a typical production cycle REA diagram? A) issuance of raw materials B) order raw materials C) use of labor in production D) use of machinery and equipment in production 17) Which of the following diagrams represents the cardinality pairs for a typical, hierarchical organization? A) B) C) D) 18) Which of the following diagrams represents the cardinality pairs for a repair shop where supervisors place items that need repair in a common area where any available employee can work on the item? Naturally, employees are always repairing more than one item at a time, and more than one supervisor can drop off items that need repair. A) B) C) D) 19) Which of the following diagrams represents the cardinality pairs in a situation where a specific skill is taught at training sessions, but training is not offered for all skills at each session? A) B) C) D) 20) Which of the following accurately represents typical cardinalities for two entities in the finance cycle? A) B) C) D) 21) Which of the following accurately represents typical cardinalities for two entities in the finance cycle? A) B) C) D) 22) Which of the following represents the cardinality pairs in a situation where a finished product requires one or more machine operations, and machines usage is tracked by specific production run(s)? A) B) C) D) 23) Which of the following diagrams represents the cardinality pairs in a situation where a finished product requires one or more labor operations, and labor usage is recorded to specific production runs? A) B) C) D) 24) Which of the following diagrams represents the cardinality pairs in a situation where a specific production run results in a specific finished good, and a specific finished good is produced periodically? A) B) C) D) 25) Which of the following accurately represents typical cardinalities for two entities in the production cycle? A) B) C) D) 26) Which of the following accurately represents typical cardinalities for two entities in the HR/Payroll cycle? A) B) C) D) 27) Which of the following diagrams represents the cardinality pairs in a situation where interviews are conducted individually, and job applicants are able to interview for one or more positions? A) B) C) D) 28) Which of the following diagrams represents the cardinality pairs in a situation where many people apply for a specific position, and some of the applicants have applied for the position in the past? A) B) C) D) 29) Which of the following diagrams represents the cardinality pairs in a situation where supervisors conduct individual performance evaluations with each of the employees they supervise? A) B) C) D) 34) Where are depreciation expenses recorded in a database created using an REA modeling approach? A) as a resource B) as an event C) as an agent D) Depreciation expenses would not be modeled. 35) In which entity would information about depreciation formula(s) and assumption(s) be stored in an REA model? A) Resource B) Event C) Agent D) Both A and B 36) In an REA database model, the Bill of Materials entity contains information about what? A) the raw materials used to make a finished product B) the actual cost of the raw materials used to make a finished product C) the vendor from whom the raw materials was purchased D) all of the above 37) In a database created using an REA model, the Bill of Materials entity is most analogous to A) the "bill" that can be sent to the customer who order the finished good(s). B) the "recipe" needed to produce the finished good(s). C) the "receipt" for the purchase of specific raw materials. D) the "audit trail" that can be used to verify a finished good(s) was actually produced. 38) Identify the event below where information associated with the event most likely will need to be retained for years. A) the actual cost associated with repairing a customer's car B) the employee who answered a customer service phone call C) the amount of cash received from issuing stock D) a list of services offered by the company as of the start of a fiscal year [Show More]

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