SAT Biology E/M Subject Test. MCQ Plus Answer Key

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SAT Biology E/M Subject Test June 2012 Questions 1-3 refer to the following cell membrane diagram. 1. This molecular structure is composed of lipid chains. 2. This structure is involved in facilit... ated diffusion. 3. This molecular structure is hydrophilic. 4. Which of the following pairs does NOT represent a correct relationship? (A) fat; lipid (B) starch; polysaccharide (C) starch; carbohydrate (D) sugar; carbohydrate (E) enzyme; lipid Questions 5-7 refer to the following processes: (A) protein synthesis (B) respiration (C) digestion (D) photosynthesis (E) fermentation 5. The process by which both plants and animals obtain energy for cellular function. 6. The process that allows higher plants to be autotrophic (able to manufacture their ownfood). 7. The process that leads to the production of ethyl alcohol or lactic acid. 8. In fruit flies, red eyes are dominant to green eyes. In a cross between a short-winged, green-eyed fly and a long-winged, red-eyed fly, the results were as follows: 40 percent short winged and red eyed 10 percent short winged and green eyed 10 percent long winged and red eyed 40 percent long winged and green eyedWhich of the following reflects the chromosome makeup of the parents? (A) LIRr x LIrr (B) Llrr x llrr (C) LIRr x llrr (D) LLRR x llrr (E) LIRR x llRr 9. A consensus sequence is associated with________, while a signal sequence is partof________. (A) translation, hnRNAs (B) DNA, translation (C) transcription, a snurp (D) hnRNA, a snurp (E) spliceosomes, translation Questions 10-12 (A) Small intestine (B) Large intestine (C) Stomach (D) Esophagus (E) Mouth 10. Structure where most digestion and absorption of nutrients occurs 11. Structure where starch digestion first takes place 12. Structure with the lowest pH 13. Food chains never consist of more than 4 or 5 trophic levels. The reason for this is (A) energy is lost along the food chain (B) there are fewer primary consumers in the world than secondary consumers (C) producers are always shown on the bottom of any food chain (D) pioneer organisms compete with consumers (E) all of the above are correct 14. From the left ventricle, blood flows into the (A) pulmonary artery (B) aorta (C) left atrium (D) vena cava (E) septum Questions 15-17 refer to the following. A. ArthropodaB. Bryozoa C. Chordata D. Cnidaria E. Mollusca 15.Members of this clade have pharyngeal slits at some point in development. 16.Members of this clade lack differentiated tissues. 17.Members of this clade have radial symmetry. 18. Which of the following describes a behavior of organisms of the same species? A. Periodical cicadas that emerge the same year B. Fish that become fertile during different seasons C. Ungulates that mate frequently and yield sterile offspring D. Rodents that mate frequently and yield no viable offspring E. Tropical birds that court their mates with differing dances or songs 19. Which muscle type lines the interior walls of hollow organs? I. Cardiac II. Smooth III. Striated A. I only B. II only C. III only D. I and II E. II and III 20. Which of the following types of learning behavior is responsible for allowing you to ignore the constant sensation to your body caused by the clothes you are wearing? (A) habituation (B) association (C) imprinting (D) imitation (E) innovation 21. Which of the following events does NOT lead to genetic variation in a population? (A) independent assortment of chromosomes during meiosis (B) crossing over between homologous chromosomes during meiosis I (C) crossing over between homologous chromosomes during meiosis II (D) random union of an egg with a sperm (E) random mutation 22. Which statement is NOT true of ferns?(A) The gametophyte is larger than the sporophyte. (B) The sori give rise to the gametophytes. (C) Errs are fertilized by sperm in thearchegonia. (D) Ferns possess vascular tissue for the transport of water and minerals. (E) Male gametes depend on water for fertilization. 23. Which of the following substances are produced by the light reactions of photosynthesis? (A) ATP and NADPH (B) ATP and glucose (C) NADH and glucose (D) ATP and NADH (E) NADPH and glucose Questions 24-26 In a certain population of rabbits in the midwestern United States, there are two alleles for coat color, brown and white. Brown is dominant, and white is recessive. The frequency of white-colored rabbits is 9%. Wolves are also present in the area, and rabbits constitute a major portion of their diet. Foxes recognize prey when they do not blend in to the environment. 24. What is the frequency of the allele for brown coat color in the rabbits? (A) 0.09 (B) 0.03 (C) 0.3 (D) 0.7 (E) 0.9 25. In this population of rabbits, what percentage is hybrid brown? (A) 7% (B) 42% (C) 49% (D) 81% (E) 91% 26. If the climate were to change so that snow covered the ground much of the time, what change in the population of rabbits would you expect? (A) The frequency of the white allele would increase. (B) The frequency of the white allele would decrease. (C) The frequency of the brown allele would increase. (D) The population of wolves would decrease and then increase. (E) The population of wolves would increase and then decrease. 27. Most recessive sex-linked trails, such as colorblindness, show up more frequentlyin males than females because (A) males have no corresponding allele on their X chromosome to mask the allele carried on their Y chromosome. (B) males have no corresponding allele on their Y chromosome to mask the allele carried on their X chromosome. (C) males carry all sex-linked traits on their Y chromosome. (D) females always carry at least one dominant allele for sex-linked traits because they have two X chromosomes. (E) females compensate by “turning” off the recessive allele through dosage compensation. 28. Human ABO blood typing is determined by the proteins present on red blood cells. The gene that codes for these proteins has alleles: IA, IB,and?. IA codes for protein type A, IB codes for protein type B, and ? codes for the absence of protein. IAandIB are codominant, and ? is recessive to both IA and IB. A woman with blood type A and a man with blood type AB marry and produce children. Which of the following blood types is NOT possible in their children? (A) Type A (B) Type B (C) Type O (D) Type AB (E) All blood types are possible in their children. Questions 29-31 Five beakers are used in an experiment about osmosis. Each beaker contains 50 mL of a sucrose solution of varying concentrations: 0.2 M, 0.4 M, 0.6 M,0.8 M, or 1.0 M. Pieces of fresh potato (each 10.0 g in mass) are cut up, weighed, and placed into the beakers. After 12 hours, the potatoes are carefully removed from each beaker and weighed again. See the data in the table below. 29. In this experiment (A) water flowed into the potato only (B) water flowed out of the potato only (C) sucrose flowed into the potato only (D) sucrose flowed both into and out of the potato (E) water flowed both into and out of the potato 30. Given the results of this experiment, what is the molarity (concentration) withinthe potato cells? (A) Less than 0.2 M (B) Less than 0.4 M but greater than 0.2 M (C) Less than 0.6 M but greater than 0.4 M (D) Less than 0.8 M but greater than 0.6 M (E) Greater than 0.8 M 31. The results of this experiment give support to the theory that (A) water diffuses down a gradient (B) water can be actively transported against a gradient (C) solutes will diffuse from high concentration to low concentration (D) living cells respond in different ways to the same conditions (E) potato cells respond differently from other living cells 32. Which of the following statements about the menstrual cycle is false? (A) Luteinizing hormone is produced by the pituitary in response to GNRH from the hypothalamus. (B) Luteinizing hormone acts on the follicle, causing ovulation. (C) Birth control pills that contain estrogen and progesterone would inhibit the secretion of FSH by the pituitary. (D) The endometrium builds up to its maximum thickness soon after the release of FSH. (E) Progesterone helps maintain the corpus luteum after ovulation. Questions 33-34 refer to the following diagram. 33. A cell has four chromosomes, which are represented in the original cell drawing. At the end of meiosis I, which of the other four drawings represents a possible outcome? (A) I only (B) II only (C) III only (D) IV only (E) none of the above 34. At the end of meiosis II, which of the drawings represent(s) possible outcomes? (A) I only (B) II only (C) II and III(D) III and IV (E) IV only Questions 35-36 Tropisms refer to movements made by plants toward or away from certain stimuli. “Positive” tropisms refer specifically to movements toward a stimulus, whereas “negative” tropisms refer to movements made away from a stimulus. 35. A plant growing on the shady side of a building bends around the comer of the building toward the sunlight. This is an example of (A) negative geotropism (B) negative phototropism (C) positive phototropism (D) positive hydrotropism (E) negative hydrotropism 36. The stem and leaves of the plant grow up, away from the soil. This is an example of (A) negative geotropism (B) positive geotropism (C) negative phototropism (D) positive hydrotropism (E) negative hydrotropism Questions 37-39 refer to the following diagram of marine biomes. 37. Which of the following is the area of least productivity? (A) Intertidal zone (B) Oceanic zone (C) Photic zone (D) Aphotic zone (E) Neritic zone38. Organisms that live in the abyssal zone would need all of the following adaptations EXCEPT (A) ability to withstand extreme pressures (B) well-developed eyes (C) tolerance of cold temperatures (D) ability to survive in areas of low nutrient density (E) ability to utilize limited resources 39. Organisms that live in the intertidal zone might have which of the following characteristics? I. Ability to conduct photosynthesis II. Tolerance of periodic drought III. Tolerance of a wide range of temperatures (A) I only (B) II only (C) I and III only (D) II and III only (E) I, II, and III 40. Within the animal lineage leading to humans, which of the following structures evolved first? A. Bone B. Cranium C. Jaws D. Notochord E. Vertebrae Questions 41-44n A study of a small farm in Michigan was carried out in 2004. A variety of organisms were found to live there, including meadow voles, grasshoppers, spiders, birds, and mice. The farmer retired and moved away, leaving the land to grow wild. 41. The meadow voles, grasshoppers, spiders, mice, and other organisms, along with the soil, minerals, and water make up a(n) (A) ecosystem (B) population (C) community (D) food chain (E) desert biome 42. The study of the farm revealed the population size of the different species of animals during the summer months of June, July, and August. The results are recorded in the table below.Which is correct about the data collected from June through August? (A) Only the spider population changed to any extent. (B) The population of mice increased as the summer went on. (C) The population of grasshoppers remained fairly constant. (D) The population of birds remained fairly constant. (E) Both the population of spiders and mice remained constant. 43. What will most likely occur if the form is sold and the fields are allowed to grow wild? (A) The planes will change, but the animals will stay the same. (B) The animals will change, but the plants will stay the same. (C) Neither the planes nor the animals will change because the climate will not change (D) Both the animals and plants will change. (E) All the animals will slowly die out because they will not be adapted to the new environment. 44. Although several different species of birds inhabit the farm, competition between these birds rarely occurs. The best explanation for this lack of competition is that these birds (A) share food with each ocher (B) have a limited supply of food (C) live in different ecological niches (D) are closely related (E) have experienced mutations in their DNA that prevent them from competing 45. A human hereditary disorder that is present only in males is most likely A. maternally inherited B. a Y-linked trait C. an autosomal recessive trait D. an X-linked recessive trait E. an X-linked dominant trait 46. The human body regulates the concentration of glucose in the bloodstream so that it remains within a narrow range. In response to an increase in blood glucose above this range, the pancreas A. releases insulin, signaling muscle cells to release glucoseB. releases glucagon, signaling muscle cells to take up glucose C. releases glucagon, signaling adipose cells to take up glucose D. releases insulin, signaling the liver to convert glucose to glycogen E. releases glucagon, signaling the liver to convert glucose to glycogen 47. In what order did the following types of organisms appear in the history of life on Earth? I. Eukaryotes II. Heterotrophic organisms III. Metazoa IV. Photosynthetic organisms A. II, I, IV, III B. II, I, III, IV C. II, IV, I, III D. IV, I, II, III E. IV, II, I, III 48. According to the biological species concept, the main criterion for identifying a species is (A) morphological distinctiveness. (B) behavioral distinctiveness. (C) physiological distinctiveness. (D) geographical isolation. (E) reproductive isolation. Questions 49-50 refer to the following information. Three sets of parents in the hospital had babies whose blood types are given. Parents Children Mr. & Mrs. White BABY 1 Type B and O Type A Mr. & Mrs. Black BABY 2 Type AB and O Type B Mr. & Mrs. Brown BABY 3 Type A and B Type O BABY 4 Type AB 49. The parents of Baby 4 could have been (A) the Whites. (B) the Blacks. (C) the Browns. (D) the Browns or the Whites. (E) the Blacks or the Whites.50. The Blacks could be the parents of (A) Baby 1. (B) Baby 2. (C) Baby 4. (D) Babies 1 and 2. (E) any of the babies. 51. Choose the one statement that is true from among the following. (A) FSH is produced in the ovaries and causes maturation of the follicle. (B) LH is produced in the pituitary- gland and causes ovulation. (C) Estrogen is produced in the anterior pituitary gland and causes the endometrium to thicken. (D) Progesterone is produced in the posterior pituitary gland and causes the endometrium to thicken. (E) None of the above statements are true. Questions 52-54 refer to the following. The graph depicts the population size of a species over time. 52. What growth pattern is the population demonstrating at time 1? A. Gradual B. Declining C. Continual D. Oscillating E. Exponential 53. The dashed lines most likely represent A. independent climax communities B. carrying capacities for different populations C. carrying capacities for the same population D. similar effects of predation on different populations E. similar effects of predation on the same population 54. Which of the following could account for the differences in population size between time 2 and time 3? A. Decline in populations of parasitic species B. Decline in predator population sizeC. Decline in interspecies competition D. Decline in intraspecies competition E. Decline in available food resources 55. Choose the correct letter from among the following. One or more advantages of social dominance hierarchies is that they (A) I. keep those lower on the pecking order from being abused. (B) II. reduce interference competition. (C) III. keep organisms that are closely related closer together. (A) I is true. (B) II is true. (C) III is true. (D) I and II are both true. (E) I and III are both true 56. Which of the following statements is NOT part of Darwin’s theory of natural selection? (A) Genetic variation exists among individuals in a population. (B) The size of most populations remains relatively constant, despite the fact that more offspring arc produced than arc needed to maintain it. (C) Early settlers saved seed only from the most productive crop plants to plant the following year. (D) Disease, competition, and other environmental forces tend to eliminate the individuals in a population that arc less adapted to their environment (E) Individuals that are best adapted to their environment tend to pass on heritable advantageous characteristics to their offspring. 57. Which of the following could be used to study evolution? (A) DNA hybridization (B) RFLPs (C) structural homologies (D) fossils (E) all of the above Questions 58-60 Three different cell types were observed under the microscope. The observations are summarized in Table 1.The three cell types were grown in separate cultures with plenty of oxygen and nutrients available. Figure 1 shows their rates of growth. At Time 1, oxygen was no longer available to the cells. 58. Based on the information in Table 1, which of the following is the most likely classification of cell Type A? (A) Fungi (B) Plant (C) Bacteria (D) Animal (E) Protist 59. Which of the following equations is cell Type C able to run? I. C6H12O6 + 6O2→ 6 CO2 + 6 H2O + ATP II. H2O + light →O2 + ATP + NADPH III. 6 CO2 + 6 H2O + ATP + NADPH →C6H12O6 (A) I only (B) II only (C) I and III only (D) II and III only (E) I, II, and III 60. Consider Figure 1. Which of the following statements best describes the reason for the difference between the curves for cell Type B and cell Type C? (A) Cell Type B is unable to survive in the presence of oxygen, while cell Type C can ferment. (B) The products of fermentation in cell Type Care toxic to the cells and they are dying. (C) Cell Type B is an obligate aerobe, while cell Type C is able to ferment. (D) Cell Type B is a facultative anaerobe, while cell Type C is an obligate aerobe. (E) Cell Type C is an obligate aerobe, while cell Type B is an obligate anaerobe.SAT Biology E/M Subject Test BIOLOGY-E TEST 61. Which describes a common difference between terrestrial and aquatic ecosystems? A. Organisms in terrestrial ecosystems are dependent on oxygen, while those in aquatic ecosystems are not. B. Nutrients are a limiting factor for populations in aquatic ecosystems but not for terrestrial populations. C. Producers make up the greatest amount of biomass in terrestrial ecosystems, while in aquatic ecosystems they do not. D. Sunlight is a limiting factor for populations in terrestrial ecosystems but not for populations in aquatic ecosystems. E. Energy in aquatic ecosystem is transferred from lower to higher trophic levels, but it moves in the opposite direction in aquatic ecosystems. 62. The number of individuals in a population that the environment can just maintain with no net increase or decrease from generation to generation is known as (A) the logistic growth curve. (B) the carrying capacity. (C) the dispersion pattern. (D) the habitat cap. (E) the exponential growth curve. 63. Two dogs fighting for one bone would bean example of (A) exploitative and interspecific competition. (B) interference and intraspecific competition. (C) exploitative and intraspecific competition. (D) exploitative and interference competition. (E) interference and interspecific competition. 64. At which time point in the graph below does the size of the population reach the carrying capacity for the ecosystem? A. 3B. 4 C. 6 D. 9 E. 12 65. Myriophyllumspicatum, or water milfoil, native to Eurasia, is an aggressive, invasive aquatic plant in North America. All of the following are reasons this species is successful as an invasive species EXCEPT A. milfoil evolved from North American plant species B. milfoil has few natural predators in a nonnative environment C. milfoil has few natural competitors among North American plant species D. milfoil is a hardy plant capable of succeeding in harsher environments E. milfoil is resistant to many native diseases that are adapted to native plant species 66. A species of spider produces many eggs over its lifetime but provides very little parental care. Only a few offspring survive to adulthood. Which line in the graph below represents the survivorship curve for this species? A. Curve 1 B. Curve 2 C. Curve 3 D. Curves 1 and 2 E. Curves 1 and 3 67. After taking a one-week course of an antibiotic for an ear infection, a woman was told by the doctor that she still had the infection and that she would have to take a course of a different antibiotic. What is the best explanation for the fact that the first antibiotic did not work? (A) The woman became immune to the antibiotic. (B) The bacteria that caused the infection became immune to the antibiotic. (C) Taking the first antibiotic killed off all the bacteria that were susceptible to it, leaving only those that were resistant. (D) The woman contracted another infection because there are no bacteria that are resistant to antibiotics. (E) The woman’s hormones probably interfered with the functioning of theantibiotic. 68. A rattlesnake would be classified as a (A) tertiary consumer and a heterotroph (B) secondary consumer and an autotroph (C) producer and an autotroph (D) producer and a heterotroph (E) primary consumer and a heterotroph Questions 69-70 refer to the above drawing. 69. Which statement best describes one of the levels of this pyramid? (A) Level A contains the largest producers in the pyramid. (B) The organisms in level B obtain food directly from level A. (C) Level C contains the largest group of consumers in the pyramid. (D) Level D contains the greatest number of heterotrophs in the pyramid. (E) Levels C and D both contain producers. 70. Which of these levels would be most susceptible to biological magnification? (A) A (B) B (C) C (D) D (E) They would all be equally affected. 71. Mid-latitude lakes undergo mixing more than equatorial lakes because (A) the mid-latitude lakes turn over twice a year. (B) mid-latitude lakes develop a thermocline. (C) water is densest at 4°C.(D) all of the above. (E) they don't—equatorial lakes have more mixing. 72. Which type of population growth is represented by the graph below? A. No growth B. Slow growth C. Slow decrease D. Rapid increase E. Rapid decrease Questions 73-77 refer to the following. Ecologists measured the evapotranspiration and net primary production of different ecosystem types. Their results are shown in the graph. 73. How many ecosystem types have a higher rate of evapotranspiration than grassland? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 574. How much plant biomass is added to a square meter of temperate forest in one month? A. 100 g B. 500 g C. 1,000g D. 1,200 g E. 1,500 g 75. Which factor leads to a higher rate of net primary production? A. Biodiversity B. Competition C. Elevation D. Latitude E. Precipitation 76. According to the chart, which best describes the relationship between solar energy and net primary production? A. Solar energy is unrelated to net primary production. B. Solar energy is positively correlated with net primary production. C. Solar energy is negatively correlated with net primary production. D. Solar energy increases net primary production where water is not limited. E. Solar energy increases net primary production by increasing evapotranspiration. 77. The graph shows net primary production. Based on the data, which biome could potentially have a gross primary production rate equivalent to 500 grams per square meter per year? A. Tropical rain forest B. Temperate forest C. Alpine forest D. Grassland E. Tundra Questions 78-80 refer to the following data obtained for a rabbit population over a period of several years. 78. Which of the following graphs best represents the data on rabbit population size?79. Assuming unlimited resources, what would be the approximate expected rabbit population in Year 5? (A) 5,000 (B) 1,000 (C) 500 (D) 300 (E) 100 80. Ultimately, the amount of nutrients and other resources would become limiting. What would happen to the rabbit population at that time? I. It would reach the carrying capacity of the environment. II. It would continue to grow indefinitely. III. It would engage in intraspecific competition. (A) I only (B) II only (C) I and II only (D) I and III only (E) I, II, and III 81. All of the following are true about RNA EXCEPT (A) it is single-stranded (B) its bases are adenine, thymine, guanine, anduracil (C) it has a sugar-phosphate backbone (D) its sugar is ribose (E) it is found in the both the nucleus and the cytoplasm of the cell82. Which of the following statements about the “blender experiment" is NOT true? (A) The experiment preceded Watson's and Crick's elucidation of DNA structure. (B) Hershey and Chase used radioactive sulfur to follow the protein in their experiment. (C) Hershey and Chase used radioactive phosphorus to follow the nucleotides in their experiment. (D) It was discovered by them that while different strains of bacteria have different percentages of nitrogen bases, the percent of adenine and the percent of thymine arc equal, as are the percents of guanine and cytosine. (E) Hershey and Chase's experiment lent strong credence to the idea that DNA is the hereditary material, at least for viruses. 83. Which of the following statements concerning transcription and translation in eukaryotic cells is NOT correct? (A) Transcription results in the production of mRNA, whereas translation results in the production of polypeptides. (B) Transcription results in the production of polypeptides, whereas translation results in the production of mRNA. (C) Transcription occurs in the nucleus, whereas translation occurs in the cytoplasm. (D) Transcription uses a nucleotide“language,” whereas translation uses an amino acid “language.” (E) Transcription uses DNA as a template, whereas translation uses mRNA as a template. 84. Animals store energy in which of the following molecular forms? I. Glucose II. Glycogen III. Lipid IV. Protein A. I and II B. II and III C. I, II, and III D. II, III, and IV E. I, II, III, and IV 85. An allele that codes for all actin molecules to be synthesized in linear chains would result in A. immovable muscles B. smooth muscle tissue C. normal sarcomere structure D. degeneration of muscle tissue E. muscle tendons that cannot attach86. What is the function of crassulacean acid metabolism (CAM) in plants? A. CAM allows plants to produce more glucose from a given amount of raw material. B. CAM allows plants to carry out photosynthesis without the use of water. C. CAM allows plants to take in carbon dioxide at night instead of during the day. D. CAM allows plants to keep their stomata open at all times. E. CAM allows plants to conserve energy in cold climates. Questions 87-90 refer to the following steps involved in cloning a eukaryotic gene in a bacterial plasmid vector. I. Introduction of cloning vector into cells. II. Insertion of eukaryotic DNA into the vector. III. Identification of cell clones that carry the inserted eukaryotic gene. IV. Isolation of the vector and the eukaryotic gene-source DNA. V. Cloning of cells (and foreign DNA). 87. Which of the following depicts the correct sequence of the steps (from first to last) involved in cloning a eukaryotic gene in a bacterial plasmid described above? (A) I—II—III—IV—V (B) V—IV—III—II—I (C) III—V—II—IV—I (D) IV—II—I—V—III (E) II—IV—I—III—V 88. During the stage in which insertion of eukaryotic DMA into the plasmid vector occurs, the sticky ends formed by digestion of both DMA types with the same restriction enzyme may join in a recombinant molecule because (A) the eukaryotic DNA and plasmid DNA will have the same sequence. (B) the eukaryotic DNA and plasmid DNA will have complementary sequences (C) the eukaryotic DNA can join with any plasmid DNA, regardless of sequence. (D) the plasmid DNA can join with any eukaryotic DNA, regardless of sequence. (E) the plasmid DNA and the eukaryotic DNA cannot join together due to differences in the structure of their DNA molecules. 89. Which of the following statements is NOT true of restriction enzymes? (A) Each restriction enzyme recognizes a specific sequence of bases on the DNA molecule. (B) Each restriction enzyme cuts at random locations along the DNA molecule. (C) Most restriction enzymes are named after the bacterial organism from which they were first isolated. (D) Restriction enzymes protect their bacterial host against intruding foreign DNA from viruses or other bacterial cells. (E) When a particular sequence of DNA is digested with a specific restriction enzyme,the resulting set of restriction fragments will usually be the same. 90. The uptake of naked DNA from solution by bacterial cells is known as (A) transpiration. (B) electroporation (C) translation. (D) transduction. (E) transformation. Questions 91-93 Refer to the terms below. (A) Thymine (B) Deoxyribose (C) Ribose (D) Uracil (E) Guanine 91. Sugar found in RNA but not in DNA 92. Nitrogenous base found in RNA but not in DNA 93. Nitrogenous base that occurs with the same frequency as cytosine Questions 94-96 refer to the following experiment. β-galactosidase (β-gal) is a bacterial enzyme used in the metabolism of lactose. Three different groups of human intestinal bacteria were cultured in a glucose-based medium. At Time 1, the bacteria were transferred to media containing lactose as a nutrient source instead of glucose. At Time 2, the bacteria were returned to the glucose-based medium. Samples of bacteria were removed at five-minute intervals and tested for the presence of β-gal. The results are presented below. 94. What could account for the delay in β-gal production after Time 1 seen in Group 1? (A) An inability to synthesize β-gal (B) Transcription of β-gal mRNA(C) Continued use of glucose as a nutrient (D) Replication of the bacterial DNA (E) Infection by a virus 95. Why is it an advantage to intestinal bacteria to be able to induce β-gal production in this way? (A) Humans do not consume foods containing lactose all the time. (B) It prevents toxic buildup of lactic acid. (C) β-gal is harmful to bacteria. (D) It prevents the bacteria from using glucose as a nutrient source. (E) Lactose is harmful to bacteria. 96. Which of the following could be reasons for the inability of Group 3 to produce β-gal? I. Error in DNA replication II. Error in RNA transcription III. Error in protein translation (A) I only (B) III only (C) I and II only (D) II and III only (E) I, II, and III Questions 97-100 Dialysis tubing is a semipermeable membrane. It allows small molecules, such as water, to pass through easily, while larger molecules, such as sucrose, are restricted. Movement of molecules across the tubing is due to concentration gradients. In an experiment designed to study osmosis, several pieces of dialysis tubing were filled with sucrose solutions of varying concentration and placed in beakers containing distilled water. The rate and direction of water movement was determined by weighing the bags before and after placing them in the distilled water. The data arc recorded below.97. Why does the mass of Tube 3 increase while the mass of Tube 4 decreases? (A) Water is moving into Tube 3, and sucrose is moving into Tube 4. (B) Water is moving into Tube 4, and sucrose is moving into Tube 3. (C) Water is moving into Tube 3, and water is moving out of Tube 4. (D) Sucrose is moving into Tube 3, and sucrose is moving out of Tube 4. (E) Sucrose is moving out of Tube 3, and water is moving out of Tube 4. 98. Why does the mass of Tube 1 remain relatively unchanged throughout the experiment? (A) The dialysis tubing in Tube 1 is defective and does not allow water to cross. (B) There is no concentration gradient to drive the movement of sucrose. (C) The dialysis tubing broke, allowing the tube contents to mix with the beaker contents. (D) There is no concentration gradient to drive the movement of water. (E) The experimenter failed to record the data properly. 99. Which of the following graphs best illustrates the relationship between Tube 2 and Tube 3?100. Cell membranes are also semipermeable, allowing water but not other substances to cross easily. A red blood cell placed in a 0.9% NaCl solution will neither swell nor shrivel. Based on this knowledge and the information presented in Table 1, what would happen to a red blood cell placed in a 20% NaCl solution? (A) Water would be drawn out of the cell, and the cell would swell. (B) Water would be drawn into the cell, and the cell would swell. (C) Water would be drawn out of the cell, and the cell would shrivel. (D) Water would be drawn into the cell, and the cell would shrivel. (E) No change would occur to the cell.1 C 26 A 51 B 76 D [Show More]

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