Chemistry > Exam Review > CHEM 115 CHEM 115 FINAL REVIEW. 35 Q&A 100% Correct. (All)
146 Final Exam Review 1) Each of these is based on the propane molecule. Which is NOT capable of forming hydrogen bonds to another molecule of the same type? a) 1-propanol *b) 1-propanethiol c) ... 2-propanol d) propanoic acid 2) Which statement concerning thiols is correct? a) Thiols are more soluble in water than are alcohols of similar size. b) The thiols are of lower polarity than disulfides of similar size. c) A thiol is much less polar than is the parent hydrocarbon. *d) The larger the thiol, the lower the solubility in water. 3) Which of the following molecules can form hydrogen bonds with other molecules of the same type? *a) b) c) d) 4) Which of the following molecules has the highest boiling point? a) b) c) *d) 5) Which of these compounds is a properly named 2° alcohol? a) 1,3-Propandiol O CH3C OH O CH3 C CH3 O CH3 CH3 CH3C H A B C D O O CH3C OH O CH3 C CH3 O CH3 CH3 CH3C H A B C D O O CH3C OH O CH3 C CH3 O CH3 CH3 CH3C H A B C D O O CH3C OH O CH3 C CH3 O CH3 CH3 CH3C H A B C D O O C CH3 CH3 CH3 CH3CH2OH A B C D O H CH3CH2CH3 O C CH3 CH3 CH3 CH3CH2OH A B C D O H CH3CH2CH3 O C CH3 CH3 CH3 CH3CH2OH A B C D O H CH3CH2CH3 O C CH3 CH3 CH3 CH3CH2OH A B C D O H CH3CH2CH3 C C C O H H H H O H H H H147 b) 2-Methyl-3-methyl-3-pentanol c) 1-Propanol *d) 3-Hexanol 6) The molecule below is ___. a) butyl methyl ether b) butyl ether *c) cyclopropyl methyl ether d) a hemiacetal 7) What is the product of the nucleophilic substitution reaction below? *a) b) c) d) 8) Which compound type is most susceptible to a nucleophillic substitution reaction? C C C C C O C C H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H C C C O H H H H H H H H C C C C C C O H H H H H H H H H H H H H H O CH3148 a) hydrocarbon b) alcohol *c) alkyl halide d) acid 9) Suppose we were assigned to produce the compound below in the laboratory: Which of the following would be a good precursor (reactant) for a one-step process? a) b) *c) d) 10) Identify the nucleophile in this reaction. a) K+ b) CH3CH2Br c) CH3CH2OH *d) OH– 11) The product of the nucleophilic substitution reaction below is a) C C S H H H H H H C C H H H H H H C C O O H H H H C C Cl H H H H H O C C H H H H H C C H H H H H CH 3CH2Br + KOH ¾¾® CH3CH2OH + KBr149 *b) c) d) 12) Oxidation of a secondary alcohol results in the formation of a(n) ___. a) tertiary alcohol b) acid c) aldehyde *d) ketone 13) Disulfide bonds in a protein have some responsibility for holding the protein molecule in its threedimensional shape. Which statement is correct when considering disulfide bonds? a) The disulfide bond is established by an oxidation reaction. b) The disulfide bond can be broken by a reduction process. c) Two thiol molecules combine to form a disulfide when treated with the oxidizing agent I2. *d) All three statements are correct. 14) Which family of compounds is most likely to be relatively unreactive? a) alcohols *b) ethers c) sulfides d) carboxylic acids. 16) The organic product expected from the following reaction is: a) b) *c) d) 17) The organic product expected from the following reaction is:150 a) b) c) *d) 18) The organic product expected from the following reaction is: *a) b) c) d) 19) The name for: is ___. a) ethanol151 b) dimethyl ketone c) dimethyl aldehyde *d) ethanal 20) Which of the following statements is true about aldehydes? *a) Aldehydes have much lower boiling points than alcohols with a similar molecular weight. b) Aldehydes interact with like molecules through hydrogen bonding. c) The carbonyl carbon atom in an aldehyde can never be in position number 1. d) The parent chain of an aldehyde is named by dropping the final “e” from a corresponding alkane and adding “one.” 21) To which family of organic compounds does this compound belong? *a) ketone b) aldehyde c) acid d) ether 22) Which compounds contain a C=O? *a) aldehydes and ketones b) acetals c) ketals d) alcohols 23) Shown here is the structure of acetone, a common laboratory solvent: Another name for acetone is ___. a) dimethyl aldehyde *b) propanone c) methyl ethyl aldehyde d) propanal 24) MEK is the abbreviation for methyl ethyl ketone. It is the common name for a solvent that is sold at hardware and automotive parts stores. Its structure is: What is the IUPAC name for MEK? a) butanal *b) butanone c) 2-butanol d) methyl propanal 25) Which of the following oxidizing agents is necessary to complete the biochemical reaction below? CH CH3 CH2 CH2 CH2 CH2 C CH2 CH2 3 O H 3C C CH3 O H 3C C CH2 O CH3 CH3C H O + ? aldehyde dehydrogenase CH3C O OH152 a) K2Cr2O7 *b) NAD+ c) Cu2+ d) NADH 26) Benedict’s solution is added to a test tube containing ethanal. Which of the following statements is correct? a) ethanal is oxidized to ethanol b) ethanal is reduced to ethanol *c) ethanal is oxidized to ethanoate ion d) ethanal is oxidized to propanone 27) If the compound below is oxidized, the resulting product is ___. a) methane and propane b) butanal *c) butanoic acid d) butane 28) Which of the following will be oxidized by Benedict’s reagent? a) ethanol *b) ethanal c) acetic acid d) ethane 29) What is the major organic product of the following reaction? a) CH3CH=CH2 *b) CH3CH2CH2OH c) CH3CH2CH3 d) CH3CH2COOH 30) What is the expected product when acetaldehyde and hydrogen react in the presence of platinum? *a) ethanol b) ethanal c) ethanoic acid d) propane 35) Ethanol is miscible in water, while 1-pentanol has a solubility of just 2.2g/100 mL because solubility in water decreases with increasing alcohol size. *a) true b) false CH3 CH2 CH2 C H O CH3CH2C O H + H2 Pt153 36) Thiols, sulfides and disulfides have high solubility in water. a) true *b) false 37) The reduction of a ketone produces a 2° alcohol. *a) true b) false 38) Reduction can convert an aldehyde into a secondary alcohol. a) true *b) false 18) Which are anomers? a) aldotetrose and ketotetrose b) D-glucose and L-glucose c) glucopyranose and glucofuranose *d) -D-galacose and -D-galactose 19) Shown below is a cyclic form of D-glucose. This structure is classified as ___. *a) -D-glucopyranose b) - D-glucofuranose c) -D-galactopyranose d) - L-glucopyranose 20) What is the name of this compound? a) -D-ribofuranose *b) -D-2-deoxyribofuranose O OH CH2OH HO OH H H H H H OH154 c) -D-3-deoxyribofuranose d) -D-ribose 21) What is the name of this carbohydrate? a) -D-aminogalactose b) -D-galactosaminofuranose *c) -D-galactosaminopyranose d) -D-galactosaminopyranose 22) Which of the following can be obtained from hydrolysis of simple glycosides? *a) Alcohol b) Ester c) Ether d) amine 23) Maltose is hydrolyzed by the enzyme maltase into two molecules of glucose. Maltose is classified as a ___. a) onosaccharide *b) disaccharide c) cellulose d) polysaccharide 24) Oligosaccharides are digested in the ___. a) stomach *b) intestines c) mouth d) blood plasma 25) ___ is the structural material for plants while ___ is the energy storage material of plants. *a) Cellulose/starch b) Starch/cellulose c) Glycogen/starch d) Starch/glycogen 26) The carbohydrates which contain the largest molecules are the a) monosaccharides. *b) polysaccharides.155 c) oligosaccharides. d) aldohexoses. 27) ___ is the energy storage polysaccharide of plants and ___ is the energy storage polysaccharide for animals. a) Cellulose/starch b) Starch/cellulose c) Glycogen/starch *d) Starch/glycogen 28) Starch and cellulose are both polysaccharides of glucose. Cellulose differs from starch in that a) cellulose contains glucose molecules connected by - (1→4) glycosidic bonds. *b) cellulose contains glucose molecules connected by - (1→4) glycosidic bonds. c) cellulose is more highly branched than starch. d) cellulose is the energy storage molecule of plants. 29) Starch contains two polymers of glucose, they are amylose and amylopectin. Amylose differs from amylopectin in that a) amylopectin contains fructose and amylose does not. b) amylose contains fructose and amylose does not. c) amylose is highly branched and amylopectin is not. *d) amylopectin is highly branched and amylose is not. 30) Chose the incorrect statement referring to starches. a) Starches are produced by plants for the storage of energy. b) Starch is composed of two homopolysaccharides—amylose and amylopectin. c) Starch forms helical shapes, rather than forming up in sheets of polysaccharides. *d) Starches are the structural material of animal cells. 31) -D- -D-glucose are anomers. *a) true b) false 32) A drug's enantiomers can be responsible for the desired physiologic effects, while the other enantiomer is less active, inactive, or sometimes even responsible for adverse effects. *a) true b) false 33) A racemic mixture can rotate a plane-polarized light in a clockwise direction. a) true *b) false156 34) In deoxy sugars a hydrogen atom replaces one or more of the –OH groups in a monosaccharide. *a) true b) false 35) Mutarotation is an enzyme-catalyzed process by which a pyranose is changed into a furanose. a) true *b) false 36) Oligosaccharides contain 2-10 monosaccharide residues. *a) true b) false 37) Glycogen contains -1,4- and -1,6-glycosidic bonds. *a) true b) false 1) Fatty acids can produce ions that are ___. a) highly charged at the tail b) nonpolar *c) amphipathic d) hydrophobic 2) A saturated fatty acid is a) a fatty acid with a carbon chain which has just one carbon-carbon double bond. b) a fatty acid chain in which a carbon chain has two or more carbon-carbon double bonds. *c) a fatty acid which has all single carbon-carbon bonds joining carbon atoms. d) a fatty acid with cis-carbon-carbon double bonds. 3) The melting point of lauric acid, CH3(CH2)10CO2H , is 43C and the melting point of stearic acid (CH3(CH2)16CO2H) is 69C. Which of the following statements best explains why the melting point of lauric acid is lower than the melting point of stearic acid? a) The hydrophobic tail of lauric acid is longer than the hydrophobic tail of stearic acid. b) Stearic acid is soluble in water and lauric acid is not soluble in water. c) Stearic acid is a fatty acid, whereas lauric acid is not a fatty acid. *d) The London force interactions are stronger in stearic acid than they are in lauric acid. 4) The skeletal structure of Arachidonic acid, an essential fatty acid, is provided below. Arachidonic acid is best classified as:157 a) Omega-3-fatty acid *b) Omega-6-fatty acid c) Saturated fatty acid d) Wax 5) In which solvent below would lipids be least soluble? a) hexane *b) water c) methyl alcohol d) ethyl alcohol 6) Compounds found in feathers and leaves of most plants, which serve as protective coatings to keep water from entering or leaving an organism, are ___. a) glycolipids b) steroids *c) waxes d) sphingolipids 7) Carnauba wax is widely used for high-gloss car and floor polishes. A major component of carnauba wax ester is provided below. The condensed structure of the alcohol from which carnauba wax ester is formed is: a) *b) c) d) 8) Identify the class of lipid to which the following molecule belongs. OH O CH3(CH2)30 C O O(CH2)33CH3 CH3(CH2)29OH A. B. CH3(CH2)30 C O OH CH3(CH2)30 CH2OH CH3(CH2)33OH C. D. CH3(CH2)29OH A. B. CH3(CH2)30 C O OH CH3(CH2)30 CH2OH CH3(CH2)33OH C. D. CH3(CH2)29OH A. B. CH3(CH2)30 C O OH CH3(CH2)30 CH2OH CH3(CH2)33OH C. D. CH3(CH2)29OH A. B. CH3(CH2)30 C O OH CH3(CH2)30 CH2OH CH3(CH2)33OH C. D.158 CH2 CH2 O O O O C O C O C CH (CH2)6 (CH2)7CH CH (CH2)7 (CH2)6 (CH2 CH CH)2 (CH2)4 CH3 CH3 (CH2 CH CH)3 CH2 CH3 a) fatty acid *b) triglyceride c) wax d) glycerophospholipid 9) Saponification *a) is a hydrolysis reaction. b) results in the production of triglycerides. c) is used to store energy for later use. d) is a reaction found in plant metabolism. 10) How many molecules of H2 will react with one molecule of the following triglyceride? CH2 CH2 O O O O C O C O C CH (CH2)14CH3 (CH2)7CH CH(CH2)7CH3 (CH2)16CH3 *a) 1 b) 3 c) 4 d) 6 11) Phospholipids ___. a) are really a wax b) are very polar on both ends c) contain a sugar, which may be simple or a chain *d) are part of the structure of cell membranes 12) The structure of glycerophospholipids contains a) a phosphate group, glycerol, three fatty acids, and a sugar molecule. *b) a phosphate group, glycerol, two fatty acids, and an alcohol molecule.159 c) a phosphate group, a cyclic carbon ring, and variable numbers of fatty acids. d) a phosphate group, a carbohydrate molecule, an alcohol, and fatty acids. 13) Determine the number of molecules of H2 that will react with one molecule of the following triglyceride. CH2 CH2 O O O O C O C O C CH (CH2)6 (CH2)7CH CH (CH2)7 (CH2)6 (CH2 CH CH)2 (CH2)4 CH3 CH3 (CH2 CH CH)3 CH2 CH3 a) three b) four *c) six d) five 14) Because of the components that are found in phospholipids, the phospholipid molecules a) are long molecules with multiple polar points. b) have a head that is nonpolar, as is the tail. *c) have a polar end and a nonpolar end. d) have two ends that are nonpolar with a polar middle. 15) The phosphate head group of phospholipids is ___ and is found on the ___ of a membrane's lipid bilayer. a) hydrophilic/inside *b) hydrophilic/outside c) hydrophobic/inside d) hydrophobic/outside 16) How many products are obtained when the phospholipid below is saponified? CH2 CH2 O O O O C O C O CH (CH2)16CH3 (CH2)7CH=CH(CH2)7CH3 P O (CH2)2 N(CH3)3 + O a) 2 *b) 5 c) 3160 d) 6 11) A biologically active protein referred to as a simple protein contains a) very few hydrogen bonds. b) only one heme group. c) less than three different amino acids. *d) no prosthetic groups. 12) The element found in the center of the heme prosthetic group is ___. *a) iron b) sulfur c) nitrogen d) carbon 13) Which interactions are involved in establishing and holding the three-dimensional structure of a protein? a) salt bridge and disulfide bonds b) hydrogen bonds c) hydrophobic effects *d) all of these choices 14) The most abundant protein in the human body is *a) collagen b) enzymes c) globular protein d) α-keratin 15) Proteins tend to assume a specific overall three-dimensional shape. This is referred to as the protein's ___. a) primary structure b) secondary structure *c) tertiary structure d) quaternary structure 16) Which of the following do not contribute to the overall stability of a tertiary structure of proteins? a) salt bridges b) hydrogen bonding c) hydrophobic effect *d) hormones 17) Globular proteins in water typically assume their specific shapes because a) they are water-soluble due to the polar points located along the length of the protein molecules. *b) the nonpolar portion of the molecule is inside and the polar portion is outside, as stated by the folding rule. c) they can assume the β–sheet form, which stretches along the surface of the solution. d) all of the polar side chains in the molecular structure fold inward to be protected from the effects of the polarity of water.161 18) The hydrophobic portions of a protein tend to a) form chemical bonds between them so that the structure of the protein is rigid. b) be attracted to each other by means of strong interatomic forces. c) be strongly attracted to the water in the surroundings, pulling portions of the molecule away from its center. *d) fold into the interior of the three-dimensional shape away from water. 19) In which of the following levels of protein structure can hydrogen bonding NOT play a role? *a) primary b) secondary c) tertiary d) quaternary 20) Proteins can contain prosthetic groups, which are a) polypeptide chains that contain only one kind of amino acid. b) polypeptide chains that come off the main chain to form a branch. *c) groups containing nonpeptide components. d) groups of amino acids that form accessory structures to the protein. 21) An enzyme displays ___ when the enzyme accepts only one specific substrate. *a) absolute specificity b) relative specificity c) stereospecificity d) no specificity 22) Catalysts, including enzymes, have the role of a) changing a nonspontaneous chemical reaction to spontaneous. *b) lowering the activation energy of a reaction. c) heating up the reactants to make the reaction progress faster. d) changing the pH to a favorable pH for the reaction to progress. 23) The enzyme known as alcohol dehydrogenase is capable of oxidizing ethanol, methanol and other hydroxyl group containing organic compounds into their corresponding aldehydes. Such an enzyme with ___ catalyzes the reaction of structurally related substances. a) absolute specificity *b) relative specificity c) stereospecificity d) no specificity 24) Organic compounds that are not polypeptides but are necessary for enzymes to properly function are called ___. a) substrates b) zymogens c) active sites162 *d) coenzymes 25) A change in pH usually produces a change in enzyme activity because *a) pH of the environment changes the conformation of the enzyme. b) enzyme activity increases at extreme pH values (either acidic or basic). c) enzyme activity is usually least active below its optimum pH. d) enzyme activity is most active above its optimum temperature. 26) The function of feedback inhibition is to a) affect the polarity of a substrate so that it will not be picked up by an enzyme. b) provide a stimulus to the enzyme that makes it active during a reaction. c) provide a way of keeping the wrong substrate from coming in contact with an enzyme. *d) control an enzyme reaction so that there isn’t an overproduction of the product. 27) An allosteric enzyme differs from a Michaelis-Menten enzyme because the allosteric enzyme a) has a more active binding site that is more polar and will hold the substrate longer. *b) displays cooperativity in which the binding of a substrate to the active site on one subunit affects .the binding of substrate at other subunits. c) operates to change reaction rates of all of the stereoisomers of a compound, not just one. d) will catalyze all the reactions of a substance produced in a series of steps. 28) A characteristic of a Michaelis-Menten enzyme is that it a) inhibits the formation of a complex under the reaction conditions. b) forms an enzyme—substrate complex that is stable. *c) forms an enzyme—substrate complex after which the product and the enzyme separate. d) is a system specific to the hydrolysis of complex carbohydrates. 29) When a patient has accidentally ingested methanol, a physician can order the use of ethanol to overwhelm the alcohol dehydrogenase enzyme. This prevents the liver from producing deadly formaldehyde from the methanol. This is an example of _____. a) covalent modification b) feedback inhibition *c) competitive inhibition d) protein denaturation 30) Alanine is the only α-amino acid that does not have a chiral carbon. a) true *b) false 31) A characteristic that distinguishes between secondary and tertiary structures is the fact that hydrogen bonding in all secondary structures are between backbone –C=O and H-N- groups. *a) true b) false163 32) Proteins can be denatured by changes in temperature or pH. *a) true b) false 33) Cofactors for some enzymes are not considered prosthetic groups because they are loosely held during the course of reaction. *a) true b) false 34) Enzymes that display stereospecificity are those that will catalyze the reactions of both the L-form and the D-form of a carbohydrate. a) true *b) false 35) Noncompetitive inhibitors resemble the substrate and bond to the active site of an enzyme. a) true *b) false 1) In the following structure, which labeled structure is the sugar residue? a) a b) b *c) c 2) The purines and the pyrimidines are organic bases which a) contain alcoholic carbons. b) have carbonyl carbons. *c) are amines. d) include oxygen in the ring structure. 3) A major base associated with the formation of nucleic acids is ___. a) adenosine *b) thymine c) uridine d) deoxycytidine 4) The most common nucleotides in nature are ___. a) 3’-monophosphates *b) 5’-monophosphates c) 1’ monophosphates N N N N NH 2 C O O CH2 OH OH HO OH O P H H H H a b c164 d) 3’-5’-diphosphates 5) Deoxyribonucleic acid a) is an enzyme found in the cell. b) can move about the cell. *c) is found in the nucleus of cells. d) is a major component of cell membranes. 6) Phosphoric acid can enter in reactions to produce a phosphate ester. Which of these is a phosphate ester? a) b) *c) d) 7) A monosaccharide incorporated in a nucleic acid is ___. a) β-deoxyribose *b) 2-deoxyribose c) β-glucose d) N-glycosidose 8) A nucleoside is the result of the reaction of a) phosphate and a monosaccharide. b) ribose and deoxyribose. *c) a monosaccharide and an organic base. d) a disaccharide, a phosphate, and a base residue. 9) The base that will NOT combine with 2-deoxyribose to form a nucleic acid is ___. a) thymine b) adenine c) guanine *d) uracil 10) N-glycosides are O P Na O– –O O P CH 3 O– –O O P O– O– CH O 3CH2CH2 O P O O– –O P O O– O–165 a) produced when the N-carbon of the alcohol reacts with a monosaccharide. b) the result of the reaction of an N-monosaccharide and an acid. c) β-N-alcohols produced from the reaction of a monosaccharide and phosphate. *d) the result of an amine reacting with the hemiacetal carbon of a monosaccharide. 11) The C-1 of a ribose is linked to purine bases by a) an ester bond. b) an α-glycosidic bond. c) a phosphate anhydride bond. *d) a β-N-glycosidic bond. 12) Cyclic nucleotides a) are effectors for allosteric enzymes; they control the activities of an enzyme. *b) differ from most nucleotides; they have a single phosphate on the 3’ and the 5’ carbons. c) contain two cyclic monosaccharides instead of one. d) are those nucleotides that cause the triphosphate to bond to the monosaccharide twice. 1) A metabolic pathway in which the final product is also a starting material is defined as a ___ pathway. a) linear *b) circular c) spiral d) coupled 2) ___ is defined as the reactions that biosynthesize large molecules from small molecules consuming energy in the form of ATP. a) Metabolism b) Catabolism *c) Anabolism d) Hydrolysis 3) Protein synthesis is a form of ___. a) metabolism b) catabolism *c) anabolism d) hydrolysis 4) The biosynthesis of fatty acids is a form of ___. a) metabolism b) catabolism *c) anabolism d) hydrolysis 6) The NADH or FADH2 produced from fatty acid oxidation can enter ___ where these coenzymes are recycled to their oxidized forms.166 a) glycolysis b) gluconeogenesis c) citric acid cycle *d) electron transport chain 7) Glycolysis is a form of ___. a) metabolism *b) catabolism c) anabolism d) hydrolysis 8) Acetyl-CoA produced as a result of glycolysis enters the ___ metabolic pathway. a) glycolysis b) gluconeogenesis *c) citric acid cycle d) electron transport chain 9) The process by which ADP is converted to ATP takes place in the ___ and one of the processes by which this change occurs is known as ___. *a) mitochondria/oxidative phosphorylation b) cytoplasm/oxidative phosphorylation c) mitochondria/citric acid cycle d) cytoplasm/citric acid cycle 10) Which of the following bonds is broken when ATP is hydrolyzed? a) hydrogen bond b) phosphoester bond c) N-glycosidic bond *d) phosphoanhydride bond 11) The digestion of ___ begins in the mouth and continues in the small intestine where the large molecules are broken down into ___. a) proteins/amino acids *b) carbohydrates/monosaccharides c) lipids/fatty acids and glycerol and monoacylglycerides d) fiber/starch 12) Digestion of ___ begins in the stomach. a) starch and proteins b) starch and triglycerides *c) triglycerides and proteins d) starch and all other oglio-orpolysaccharides 13) The digestion of lactose to galactose and glucose occurs in the ___.167 a) mouth b) stomach *c) intestine d) liver 14) The digestion of ___ takes place in the stomach by the actions of enzymes operating at low pH. This digestion continues in the small intestine and the large molecules are broken down into ___. *a) proteins/amino acids b) carbohydrates/monosaccharides c) lipids/fatty acids and glycerol and monoacylglycerides d) fiber/starch 15) The digestion of ___ occurs in the small intestine where the large molecules are emulsified by bile and are broken down into ___ before being absorbed into the blood stream. a) proteins/amino acids b) carbohydrates/monosaccharides *c) lipids/fatty acids/glycerol and monoacylglycerides d) fiber/cellulose 16) The biosynthesis of glucose takes place in a series of reactions known as ___. a) glycolysis *b) gluconeogenesis c) the citric acid cycle d) the electron transport chain 17) Gluconeogenesis is a form of ___. a) metabolism b) catabolism *c) anabolism d) hydrolysis 18) One way that insulin reduces blood sugar is by a) increasing the rate of change of blood sugar to fructose. b) increasing the rate of glycogen metabolism. *c) increasing the rate of glucose uptake by cells. d) increasing the concentration of glycogen phosphorylase. 19) Which kind of a process is glycogenesis? a) catabolic *b) anabolic c) hydrolysis d) hydrogenation 20) What is a possible response to a drop in blood glucose concentration?168 a) Anaerobic metabolism of sugars occurs instead of aerobic pathways. b) The rate of the production of the enzymes necessary to produce glucose is increased. *c) Glycogenolysis is switched on and glycogenesis is switched off. d) The production of glucose 6-phosphate is switched off. 21) What is the total yield of ATP obtained when 1 glucose molecule goes through glycolysis and the citric acid cycle? a) 25 ATP b) 28 – 29 ATP *c) 30 – 32 ATP d) 35 ATP 22) The oxidation of which of the following provides rapid generation of heat in newborn infants? a) White fat cells *b) Brown fat cells c) ATP synthase d) glutamate 23) The electron transport chain a) takes place in the special membranes located in the nucleus of the cell. b) produces FADH2 by means of hydrolysis reactions. c) utilizes the H+ released to produce complexes for later reaction. *d) and oxidative phosphorylation together produce ATP. 24) The NADH and FADH2 used by the electron transport chain are normally produced in the mitochondria; however, *a) NADH is also produced during glycolysis in the cytoplasm. b) NADH is only produced and used in the mitochondria; FADH2 can be used elsewhere. c) FADH2 is also produced by the citric acid cycle; NADH is not. d) FADH2 produced in the mitochondria has more energy than does NADH. 25) Each spiral of the β-oxidative spiral of fatty acid catabolism removes ___ carbon atoms from a fatty acid producing acetyl-CoA, NADH and FADH2. a) 1 *b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 26) The condition of ketoacidosis is *a) a potentially fatal buildup of acetoacetate or 3-hydroxybutyrate lowering blood pH. b) due to a lowered production of ketone bodies than is normal. c) the increase in pH of the cells due to ketone body production. d) only found when anaerobic catabolism of fat occurs.169 27) Beginning with octanoic acid, how many passes through the -oxidation spiral will take place? *a) 3 b) 4 c) 6 d) 8 28) Protein digestion produces amino acids a) that are further digested by glycolysis to produce ATP. *b) that can be used to produce new peptides and proteins. c) that undergo transamination to produce all known amino acids. d) that can be linked together with glycerol to produce lipids. 29) NH4+ is normally excreted from the human body by means of ___. a) ammonium ions *b) urea c) uremic acid d) uric acid 30) During catabolism, proteins are broken down into amino acids. The amine groups are transferred to an - keto acid by a process known as ___. The amino acids of -keto acids are then converted into ___ before being excreted in urine. a) oxidative phosphorylation/pyruvate b) glycolysis/acetyl-CoA c) ketosis/acetone *d) transamination/urea 31) The overall net result of glycolysis is the conversion of one glucose to two pyruvates, 3 NADH, 4 ATP and energy. a) true *b) false 32) ATP is used up in glycolysis and produced in glucogenesis. a) true *b) false 33) Glycolysis occurs in cytoplasm; the next step in carbohydrate metabolism, the citric acid cycle, occurs in mitochondria. *a) true b) false 34) The brown fat cells found in newborn babies have a greater number of mitochondria than other fat cells and are capable of much faster metabolism of triglycerides than the fat cells found in adults.170 *a) true b) false 35) The fatty acid synthesis in the body occurs primarily in the cytoplasm. *a) true b) false [Show More]
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