Reasons that the general population is told to "eat your colors" when referring to fruits and vegetables include all of the following except: a. the different color contain different phytochemicals ... b. selecting from all five colors ensures adequate protein intake c. doing so ensures adequate fiber intake, which may protect against certain types of cancers d. eating the colors helps lower type 2 diabetes and heart disease risks b. selecting from all 5 colors ensures adequate protein intake Which of the following cooking methods is recommended for cuts of beef such as stew beef, short ribs, chuck steak or beef round? a. pan frying b. broiling c. roasting d. braising d. braising genetically engineering food is a process by which scientists alter the gene make up of certain types of foods to achieve a certain characteristic. All of the following are potential benefits of genetically engineered food, except: a. a faster growing food supply, thus greater food production b. foods that tastes better and is more nutritious c. shorter shelf life d. reductions in pesticide use c. shorter shelf life Egg yolks used in lemon meringue pie primarily serve as which of the following agents? a. emulsifying agent b. coloring agent c. thickening agent d. textural agent b. coloring agent Which of the following is not an ingredient in baking powder? a. corn starch b. sodium bicarbonate c. cream of tartar d. potassium bicarbonate d. potassium bicarbonate Two men are the same age and both weight 150#, but one man 5'7" and the other is 6' tall. What can be determined about their resting metabolic rate? a. their resting metabolic rate is about the same b. the resting metabolic rate is higher for the taller man c. the resting rate is higher for the shorter man d. it is difficult to draw conclusions based on the info available b. the resting metabolic rate is higher for the taller man Which of the following statements is not true about soluble fiber? a. as soluble fiber is digested, it becomes gel-like b. soluble fiber works to slow the digestive process c. soluble fiber works to add bulk to the stool to help move food through the digestive tract faster d. soluble fiber may help lower cholesterol levels c. soluble fiber works to add bulk to the stool to help move food through the digestive tract faster Chronic alcoholics are most likely to be deficient in the following nutrients, except: a. magnesium b. thiamin c. folate d. vitamin C d. vitamin c The end product of sucrose digestion is: a. glucose and fructose b. glucose and galactose c. glucose and mannose d. 2 glucose molecules a. glucose and fructose Protein digestion begins in the: a. jejunum b. stomach c. small intestine d. brush border b. stomach A deficiency of vitamin D results in: a. rickets b. night blindness c. scurvy d. beri beri a. rickets All of the following are true about vitamin C, except: a. the best food sources of vitamin C are fruits, such as citrus, and vegetables, such as broccoli b. cigarette smokers should consume at least 100mg per day of vitamin c c. deficiency of vitamin c can result in issues with wound healing, bleeding gums, tooth loss, and leg pain d. the RDA is 75 mg for women and 100 mg for men d. the RDA is 75 mg for women and 100 mg for men -RDA increases for women during pregnancy and breastfeeding -the RDA for men is 90 mg Which of the following choices indicates nutritional risk? a. a nursing home patient stable on a tube feeding program b. diarrhea for 1 week w/ a 10# weight loss c. a 3 year-old girl with a sore throat and poor appetite for 2 days d. a 21 year-old male who is drinking protein shakes in an attempt to build muscle b. diarrhea for 1 week with a 10# weight loss A nutrition screen must be completed by which of the following? a. a registered dietitan b. a registered dietetic technician c. a nurse d. a trained health professional (not necessarily an RD or DTR) d. a trained health professional Which of the following lab values would best indicate nutritional risk? a. fasting blood glucose level of 135 mg/dL b. fasting cholesterol level of 199 mg/dL c. serum albumin level of 3.5 g/dL d. hematocrit level of 42% a. fasting blood glucose level of 135 mg/dL - normal is 70-99 mg/dL - 100-125 mg/dL indicates prediabetes - over 126 mg/dL indicates diabetes Which of the following statements are not true about a dietary history? a. information for a dietary history can be obtained using a food diary recorded by the individual for a period of 3-7 days b. a 24-hour recall is the most accurate way to obtain information about an individual's dietary history c. a food frequency questionnaire can be a tool used to obtain information about an individual's dietary history as it determines how often a person eats/drinks d. a nutrient intake analysis is a way to obtain info regarding a person's dietary history when they are hospitalized or living in another situation where observations can be made about the type and amount of food consumed b. a 24-hour recall is the most accurate way to obtain info about an individual's diet history A body mass index of 28 is considered to be: a. underweight b. overweight c. obese d. normal weight b. overweight Which of the following is a false statement about body mass index (BMI)? a. BMI is the best way to measure the amount of body fat on an individual b. men typically have less body fat than women even if the BMI's are the same c. competitive athletes may have a higher BMI because they may have higher muscle mass d. although the BMI is calculated the same way, BMI's for children are interpreted differently than that of adults using age and gender specific percentiles a. BMI is the best way to measure the amount of body fat on an individual Anthropometric measurements for children should include: a. weight for age, height or length for age and head circumference up to the age of 2 b. weight for age, skin-fold thickness and length or height for age c. weight for age, height or length for age and head circumference up to the age of 3 d. weight for age, skin-fold thickness, height or length for age and head circumference up to the age of 3 c. weight for age, height or length for age and head circumferences up to the age of 3 All of the following are true about the Mini Nutritional Assessment (MNA) except: a. it is a validated tool used for nutrition screening and assessment in the over age 65 population b. the MNA screens for malnutrition or those who are at risk for malnutrition c. there is a short form to more quickly determine if a person is in good nutritional status and a longer form if a more detailed screen is required d. specialized training is required in order to be certified to administer this screening tool a. it is a validated tool used for nutritional screening and assessment in the over age 65 population All of the following are true statements about nutrition diagnosis except: a. nutrition diagnosis is when a nutritional issue is identified and labeled b. a physician must make a nutritional diagnosis in order for the individual to receive nutritional care c. a nutrition diagnosis is documented as problem-etiology-signs/symptoms d. standardized terminology is used to delineate nutritional diagnoses c. a nutritional diagnosis is documented as problem-etiology-signs/symptoms Potential nutrition diagnoses for an obese male with coronary heart disease may include all of the following except: a. food and nutrition related knowledge deficit b. physical inactivity c. excessive fat intake d. excessive hunger d. excessive hunger Potential nutrition diagnoses for a patient with a fasting blood glucose level of 135 mg/dl might include: a. alteration in metabolism (type 1 diabetes) b. alteration in metabolism (hyperglycemia) c. altered nutrition related lab values d. gestational diabetes c. altered nutrition related lab values -all the rest of medical diagnoses The recommended amount of weight gain for overweight pregnant woman is: a. 15-25# b. 25-35# c. 15# d. 28-40# a. 15-25# Folic acid requirements during pregnancy are increased because folic acid: a. deficiency causes glossitis b. helps prevent neural tube defects c. prevents pernicious anemia d. deficiency causes poor appetite b. helps prevent neural tube defects The best feeding plan for a normal 3-month old infant is: a. (8) 4 oz bottles of 20 cal/oz formula per day b. (6) 5 oz bottles of 20 cal/oz formula per day plus rice cereal added to the bottle at night c. breastfeeding on demand d. breastfeeding alternated with 20 cal/oz formula throughout the day c. breastfeeding on demand - if unable to breastfeed = standard 20 cal/oz Feeding a preschooler is often challenging due to food jags, pickiness, or the child's attempts to assert independence. What are effective strategies for managing a preschooler's nutrition? a. the child should be made to sit at the table until the meal or snack is consumed entirely b. small servings of a variety of foods should be offered on a fairly regular schedule c. snacks and beverages should not be provided within 90 minutes of a planned meal d. the parents should not focus too heavily on what is consumed at each meal or snack because over the course of a day, the calorie intake will be fairly consistent if a variety of foods are offered a. the child should be made to sit at the table until the meal or snack is consumed entirely Characteristics of the metabolic syndrome include all of the following, except: a. serum triglyceride greater than 150 mg/dl b. serum glucose greater than 110 mg/dl c. waist circumference greater than 102 cm in men and 88 cm in women d. blood pressure greater than or equal to 140/90 mm hg d. blood pressure greater than or equal to 140/90 mm hg - 135-85 mm hg The best initial nutrition intervention for a person with metabolic syndrome is: a. encouraging a 20% weight loss and at least 60 minutes per day of exercise b. implementing the TLC diet and increasing physical activity to a minimum of 30 min per day c. encouraging a 5-10% weight loss and implementing the dean ornish diet d. smoking cessation and adding medications to reduce lipids b. implementing the TLC diet and increasing physical activity to a min of 30 min per day What type of diet is used to treat celiac disease? a. gluten free b. low fiber c. lactose free d. high fiber a. gluten free What is the recommended initial nutrition intervention for diverticulitis? a. high fiber diet w/ adequate fluid and exercise b. high fat diet with moderate fiber c. chemically defined diet d. low fiber diet d. low fiber diet - once inflammation decreases, fiber can be slowly added back to goal of 30g/day How much protein is recommended for a patient with cirrhosis but without evidence of encephalopathy to maintain positive nitrogen balance? a. 0.5-0.6 g/kg b. 0.8-1.0 g/kg c. 1.2-1.3 g/kg d. 1.5 g/kg b. 0.8-1.0 g/kg - c is for negative nitrogen balance - d for when pt is stressed The nutritional priority for a pt with a newly diagnosed type 1 diabetes is: a. weight loss b. determination of a medication regimen then establishment of a meal plan c. establishment of a meal plan then coordination of the medication regimen to match the meal plan and exercise habits d. placement of an insulin pump c. establishment of a meal plan then coordination of the medication regimen to the match the meal plan and exercise habits All of the following would be potential interventions for a patient with type 2 diabetes, except: a. weight loss b. increasing physical activity c. reducing calorie intake d. chromium supplementation d. chromium supp A woman with T2DM who is overweight and takes an oral agent but otherwise has good blood glucose control asks you if she can include 1-2 glasses of wine with each night's dinner. The best response is: a. a 5 oz glass of wine may be consumed b. alcohol is not recommended for anyone with diabetes c. it is okay to have a glass or two of wine as long as she omits 2-carbs from her dinner d. she should decide for herself if she wants to drink wine, but if she does, she should take it on an empty stomach a. a 5oz glass of wine may be consumed How many g of carb are in the following breakfast: 4 oz OJ, 2 slices whole wheat toast with 2 tsp magarine and 1 tbsp jelly, 1/2 cup oatmeal with 1/2 of a banana, and a small cup of black coffee. a. 50 g b. 60 g c. 90 g d. 120 g c. 90g OJ = 15g toast = 15 + 15 = 30g jelly = 15 g oatmeal = 15g banana = 15g Intervention aimed to modify which of the following risk factors will reduce cardiovascular risk? a. age, cigarette smoking, obesity b. high fat diet, hypertension, cigarette smoking c. diabetes, homocysteine, alcohol consumption d. family history, LDL cholesterol, physical activity b. high fat diet, hypertension, cigarette smoking Which of the following are examples of omega-3 polyunsaturated fatty acids? a. palmitic acid and lauric acid b. eicosapentaenoic acid and docosahexaenoic acid c. linoleic acid and linolenic acid d. arachidonic acid and oleic acid b. EPA and DHA a - palm oil and saturated fat c - omega 6 and omega 3 d - polyunsaturated and monounsatured omega 9 All of the following are true about trans fatty acids, except: a. trans fats are created through hydrogenation, which is a process that helps to prevent polyunsaturated fats from becoming rancid b. trans fats are found in commercially prepared baked goods, fried foods, processed foods, and some margarines c. the food industry has begun to alter the manufacturing of many products to omit trans fats, and many restaurants have stopped using partially hydrogenated oils d. trans fats lower HDL levels and increase total cholesterol but have no effect of LDL cholesterol d. trans fats lower HDL levels and increase total cholesterol but have no effect of LDL cholesterol A pt in the hospital recovering from a heart attack wants assistance with his menu selection. He is looking to increase fiber in his diet as he has learned that certain types of fiber more efficiently reduce cholesterol levels. Which of the following foods would be the most beneficial? a. oatmeal b. wheat bran c. carrots d. whole wheat bread a. oatmeal - soluble fibers such as dried beans/peas, rice bran, citrus fruits, apples and strawberries reduce cholesterol - insoluble fiber such as whole wheat bread, cereals, wheat bran, and carrots do not Which of the following best describes the guidelines for the Therapeutic Lifestyle Changes (TLC) diet? a. limit sodium to 3000 mg/day, calories from fat to less than 35% of total cals, w/ those from sat fat less than 10%, cholesterol to less than 300 mg/day, and sufficient kcals to achieve and maintain a healthy body wt b. limit sodium to 3000 mg/day, kcals from fat to less than 30% of total kcals, w/ those from sat fat making up less than 5%, cholesterol to less than 200 mg/day, and sufficient kcals to achieve or maintain a healthy body weight c. limit sodium to 2400 mg/day, kcals from fat to 25-35% of total kcals, with those from sat fat less than 7%, cholesterol to less than 200 mg/day, and sufficient kcals to achieve or maintain a healthy body weight d. limit sodium to 2400 mg/day, kcals from fat to 30% of total kcals, with those from sat fat less than 10%, cholesterol to less than 200 mg/day, and sufficient kcals to achieve or maintain a healthy body weight c. limit sodium to 2400 mg/day, kcals from fat to 25-35% of total kcals, with those from sat fat less than 7%, cholesterol to less than 200 mg/day, and sufficient kcals to achieve or maintain a healthy body weight Which of the following is the next step for an individual who does not want to begin medication to lower blood cholesterol but has not had success with the TLC diet? a. consume less than 20% of total kcals from fat, with less than 10% coming from saturated sources, and less than 200 mg cholesterol per day b. consume less than 15% of total kcals from fat, with less than 8% coming from saturated sources, and less than 100 mg cholesterol per day c. consume less than 10% of total kcals from fat, with less than 5% coming from saturated sources, and less than 50 mg cholesterol per day d. consume less than 10% of total kcals from fat, with less than 3% coming from saturated sources, and less than 5 mg cholesterol per day d. consume less than 10% of total kcals from fat, with less than 3% coming from saturated sources, and less than 5 mg cholesterol per day The purpose of nutrition screening includes all of the following, except: a. identifying risk factors known to be associated with nutritional issues b. identifying individuals who are malnourished c. assessing body mass index d. to more efficiently identify individuals who require a full nutrition assessment c. assessing body mass index What lifestyle change is most beneficial to a person with hypertension? a. limiting alcohol to 1 oz/day for men or 1/2 oz/day for women b. lose weight if overweight c. lower sodium intake to less than 2400 mg/day d. increase intake of calcium, magnesium, and potassium b. lose weight if overweight As a dietetic technician, you are assisting in a program targeting overweight adolescents at risk for developing hypertension. What would be an appropriate goal for the program? a. address lifestyle modifications such as weight control, reducing sodium intake, and increasing physical that are known to control blood pressure b. weight loss c. blood pressure monitoring d. teach the adolescents appropriate forms of physical activity in order to promote positive exercise habits a. address lifestyle modifications such as weight control, reducing sodium intake, and increasing physical that are known to control blood pressure A woman is following the DASH diet. She is consuming 1800 kcal/day. Which of the following sets of nutritional goals is appropriate DASH diet guidelines? a. 60 g of total fat with up to 20 g saturated fat, 70 g protein, 250 g carbs, 2300 mg sodium, 200 mg cholesterol, 20 g fiber b. 50 g of total fat with up to 20 g saturated fat, 90 g protein, 250 g carbs, 1500 mg sodium, 100 mg cholesterol, 25 g fiber c. 90 g of total fat with up to 25 g saturated fat, 90 g protein, 270 g carbs, 2300 mg sodium, 300 mg cholesterol, 30 g fiber d. 55g total fat, up to 12g sat fat, 80 g protein, 250 g carbs. 2300 mg sodium, 150 mg cholesterol, 30 g fiber d. 55g total fat, up to 12g sat fat, 80 g protein, 250 g carbs. 2300 mg sodium, 150 mg cholesterol, 30 g fiber Which of the following lists best supports a potassium-rich diet? a. cucumbers, mushrooms, apples, and peanuts b. romaine lettuce, pears, walnuts, yogurt c. sweet potatoes, spinach, soybeans, apricots d. green beans, carrots, pineapple, hard candy c. sweet potatoes, spinach, soybeans, apricots As a dietetic technician, you are assisting a 78-yo man with congestive heart failure with meal selection. He has gained 10 pounds over the past week and is starting Lasix. What is a reasonable goal for this patient in terms of meal selection? a. 2000-3000mg sodium per day, adequate potassium, and a mild fluid restriction b. no added salt diet with 2000 mg potassium and 500 ml fluid restriction c. 1500 mg sodium, 4000 mg potassium, and 2000ml fluid per day d. 500 mg sodium with 2000 mg potassium, 1000 ml fluid restriction a. 2000-3000 mg sodium per day, adequate potassium and a mild fluid restriction The main, long-term nutritional priorities for post-cardiac transplant patients likely include all of the following ,except: a. monitoring and managing glucose intolerance b. instituting a high protein diet to prevent catabolism due to steriods c. weight management d. cholesterol management b. instituting a high protein diet to prevent catabolism due to steriods Outcome measures for nutritional intervention for a pt with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease may include all of the following, except: a. improvement in nutritional status b. improvement in activities of daily living c. improvement in renal function d. improvement in weight status c. improvement of renal function How much protein does the National Kidney Foundation recommend that a pt w/ end stage renal disease who has not started to receive dialysis treatments consume daily? a. 0.5 g/kg b. 0.6 g/kg c. 1 g/kg d. 1.2 g/kg b. 0.6 g/kg A side effect of chemotherapy is mucositis and xerostomia. This can impact nutritional status because: a. weight loss can occur d/t nausea and vomiting b. food intake is reduced d/t constipation and abdominal pain c. anorexia, reduced food intake and weight loss can occur d/t mouth pain and dryness d. weight loss can occur d/t dysphagia c. anorexia, reduced food intake and wt loss can occur d/t mouth pain and dryness - mucositis = inflammation of mucous membranes - xerostomia = abnormal dryness Possible nutrition interventions with a child with cancer who is not eating enough include all of the following, except: a. serve small meals and snacks throughout the day capitalizing on the times when the child is feeling hungry and wants to eat b. encourage liquids mostly between meals b/c drinking a lot of fluid w/ meals may make the child feel full c. let the child help make the food they will eat and have friends over to eat with the child d. serve meals on a tight schedule b/c missing a meal will set the child back too far d. serve meals on a tight schedule b/c missing a meal will set the child back too far A 78 year-old man is recovering from a stroke. The speech language pathologist has a recommended a NDD level 2 diet for him. This consists of: a. no restrictions on consistency b. foods that are softer in texture but require more ability to chew c. moist, semisolid foods that require some chewing ability d. puree foods w/ pudding like consistency and minimal chewing ability is required c. moist, semisolid foods that require some chewing ability You are working at the local health department initiating health promotion programs. Which of the following departments of the Department of Health and Human Services may provide guidance for program development? a. dietary reference intake b. healthy people 2020 c. NHANES d. dietary guidelines for americans b. healthy people 2020 As a dietetic technician, you are planning menus for a nursing home. What tools are you likely to use during this process? a. dietary reference intake (DRI) b. recommended dietary allowances (RDA) c. tolerable upper limits (TUL) d. estimated average requirements a. dietary reference intake (DRI) The main highlights of the 2005 Dietary Guidelines for Americans include all of the following, except: a. achieve and maintain a healthy body weight and incorporate at least 60 min of moderate exercise to help w/ weight management b. limit fat intake to 20-35% of total kcals, with less than 10% of fat intake from sat fat sources, and limit the intake of trans fatty acids c. consume plenty of fruits, vegetables, and whole grains to protect against certain chronic diseases d. eat less than 2300 mg/day of sodium and consume 3 cups/day of low fat or fat-free dairy products c. consume plenty of fruits, vegetables, and whole grains to protect against certain chronic diseases - 2000 guidelines - 2005 guidelines are more specific Which of the following physical conditions would not be considered a nutritional risk factor? a. obesity b. stage IV decubitus ulcer c. cancer d. fractured femur d. fractured femur While serving as a dietetic technician, you are tasked w/ visiting patients in a long-term care facility during mealtime in order to long-term observe daily food intake. Which of the following observations are you least likely to see? a. a pt w/ dementia consumes less than 50% of breakfast and lunch during a 2-day period b. a pt who is S/P major cardiac surgery is not able to effectively use utensils provided to self-feed c. a pt who is ordered supplemental beverages w/ meals in order to increase caloric intake does not drink the supplements during the 2 day observation d. a patient recovering from a stroke appears to tolerate a puree diet and may be able to tolerate an advance to a soft diet d. a patient recovering from a stroke appears to tolerate a puree diet and may be able to tolerate an advance to a soft diet Documentation developed to facilitate the Nutrition Care Process (NCP) is called: a. ADIME b. SOAP c. PES d. DAR a. ADIME assessment diagnosis intervention monitoring evaluation Which of the following is not a true statement about the pancreas? a. the pancreas secretes insulin and glucagon b. pancreatic enzymes are secreted when food reaches the stomach c. the pancreas is one of the organs affected by cystic fibrosis d. tumors in the pancreas are highly resectable and have a favorable cure rate d. tumors in the pancreas are highly resectable and have a favorable cure rate All of the following statements are true about the Supplemental Nutritional Assistance Program (SNAP), except: a. to qualify, one's gross monthly income must fall at or below 130% of poverty levels or 100% of the poverty level for net monthly income b. applicants must have no discernable assets or money in bank accounts c. children automatically qualify for free school breakfast and lunch programs if they are receiving benefits from SNAP d. this program was formerly called the Food Stamp program and includes nutrition education services b. applications must have no discernable assets or money in bank accounts Which of the following choices represent acceptable food selections for a mother who is using a WIC EBT for herself and her breastfeeding infant? a. fresh fruits and vegetables, white bread, whole milk tofu b. yogurt, cheese, peanut butter, orange drink c. white potatoes, rice milk, corn flakes, canned tuna d. oatmeal, chocolate milk, eggs, canned kidney beans d. oatmeal, chocolate milk, eggs, canned kidney beans - breads must be whole wheat - juice must be 100% juice - no yogurt, while potatoes - bfast cereals have iron requirements and sucrose limits According to the Stages of change model, an individual who is trying to lose weight but continues to provide reasons as why it is difficult for him to make the changes fall in which of the following stages: a. contemplation b. preparation c. action d. relapse a. contemplation A client you are working with to reduce her cholesterol frequently interrupts you during the session and makes comments, such as, "I am trying to make changes, but I have been under a lot of stress lately", or responds to questions with, "Yes, but.." is displaying what type of behavior? a. ready to change b. unsure about change c. resistance to change d. contemplating change c. resistance to change Which of the following is least likely to occur during a counseling session if a client is ready to make dietary changes? a. mutual identification of potential changes that can be made b. preparing an action plan together c. identification of potential barriers d. telling the client what changes need to be made d. telling the client what changes need to be made The motivational interviewing style used during nutritional counseling includes all of the following characteristics, except: a. empathy b. encouragement c. reflective listening d. rewards and reinforcement d. rewards and reinforcement Which of the following strategies is most likely to have the best nutrition counseling outcomes? a. cognitive restructuring b. self-monitoring c. structured meals d. social support b. self-monitoring - record keeping of behaviors, nutrition and emotions As a DTR, you serve as the evening shift supervisor at a hospital. The food service director asks you to join a collaborative training to learn how the kitchen functions over a period of several months. The training objective is for you to gain familiarity with and competence in the key kitchen positions so that you may better supervise and assist employees. What type of training is this? a. adult b. on-the-job c. group d. self-directed b. on the job All of the following are true about diversity training in the workplace, except: a. diversity training deals only with gender and race b. diversity should be a part of an organization's culture so everyone is treated fairly and equally c. interpersonal skills, on the part of both the organization and individual employees, are an important aspect of diversity training d. diversity training is necessary even in a non-diverse environment as each individual is different a. diversity training deals only with gender and race At the start of a training session, employees are asked to break into small groups and share their 5 favorite musicians or movies. This is an example of: a. an icebreaker b. small talk c. time killer d. team enhancement a. an icebreaker Which of the following strategies is not recommended for imparting nutrition info to a group of individuals with heart disease? a. provide a limited amount of info at one time to avoid overwhelming the group b. present the info in a clear, concise language in the simplest and lease complex way possible c. ensure written info is geared toward a high school comprehension level d. supplement orally presented info w/ visual aids c. ensure written info is geared toward a high school comprehension level - most ppl read at an 5th-8th grade level The type of menu that provides at least two choices in each menu category is called: a. static b. nonselective c. semi-selective d. selective d. selective static - same choices nonselective - no choices semi-selective - 1 choice Which of the following is not an advantage of a cycle menu? a. a cycle menu increases variety b. cycle menus facilitate staff vacation and leave scheduling c. cycle menus allow greater ease when forecasting and purchasing food d. equipment use can be maximized if the cycle menu is planned appropriately a. a cycle menu increase variety a dinner of broiled fish, steamed rice, cauliflower, bread and butter, and tapioca pudding with whipped cream is planned for a Friday evening at the retirement home. What food characteristic is most lacking? a. texture b. flavor c. color d. consistency c. color The food service director of an extended care facility wishes to review changes in the food served to residents with the DTR. All of the following tools are needed to assist with this task, except: a. a diet manual b. a master menu c. info regarding the # and types of modified diets served d. the production schedule d. the production schedule the concept encouraging a more personalized presentation of menus to hospitalized patients is called: a. printed menu b. spoken menu c. menu board d. master menu b. spoken menu As a DTR in a rehab hospital, you are responsible for determining customer satisfaction with meals. Some of the ways you may accomplish this include all of the following, except: a. comment cards or surveys b. observational surveys c. eavesdropping d. plate waste studies c. eavesdropping food that is purchased from an instate vendor and shipped intrastate is subject to all of the following regulations except: a. USDA b. FDA c. Food and Nutrition Service d. all local and state regulations if they are at least the equivalent of the federal regulations c. food and nutrition service The type of federal regulation that defines bittersweet chocolate must contain at least 35% cocoa butter with a 30-35% fat content is called: a. standards of fill b. standards of identity c. standards of quality d. standards of labeling b. standards of identity Which of the following is not essential information to consider during vendor selection? a. vender's ability to reliably meet contract specifications b. vender's emergency/disaster delivery policy c. attractiveness of the vender's website d. vender's credit/refund policies delivered products that do not meet specifications c. attractiveness of the vender's website Which of the following grades of beef is the least desirable? a. prime b. choice c. select d. standard d. standard All of the following are true about USDA grades for processed fruits and vegetable products, except: a. the grade standards are mandatory b. the grade standards are voluntary c. standards are defined in terms of attributes such as color, appearance, character, flavor, odor, etc d. grades may consist of US grade A, B, C or substandard a. the grade standards are mandatory During inventory of a community hospital kitchen, a DTR notes that there are 2 cases of canned peaches. He decides to order 1 case of canned peaches. Which of the following is the most likely inventory scenario? a. according to the par stock system of inventory, the par level for canned peaches must be 2 cases b. according to the par stock system of inventory, the par level must be 3 cases c. according to the mini-max system of inventory, the safety stock level must be 2 and the maximum inventory level must be 5 d. the DTR is basing the decision to purchase another case solely on instinct b. according to the par stock system of inventory, the par level must be 3 cases Which of the following statements about the receiving process is false? a. the receiving area should be close to the delivery docks b. each delivery should be visually checked against the purchase order and the invoice c. frozen items should be placed immediately in the freezer before inspection d. cases or crates should be randomly opened to verify contents c. frozen items should be placed immediately in the freezer before inspection You enter the dry food storage area and make a few observations. Which of the following would be the most concerning to you? a. the temp is 68 b. new orders are being placed on top of existing inventory c. bags of rice are stored on shelves 8" above the floor d. an open sack of flour is found in a covered and labeled plastic container b. new orders are being placed on top of existing inventory - dry storage temp should be 50-70 You are completing inventory in the walk in refrigerator. Which of the following should be discarded? a. 2-day old leftover beef stew w/ a temp of 40 b. hard cooked eggs cooked 5 days ago w/ a temp of 39 c. tightly wrapped hard cheese that is 5 months old w/ a temp of 40 d. 4-day old ground beef w/ a temp of 42 d. 4-day old ground beef w/ a temp of 42 - no higher than 38 for more than 2 days - hard cooked eggs can be kept at 40 for 7 days - tightly wrapped hard cheese kept at 40 for up to 6 months - leftover beef stew kept at 40 is good up to 4 days Which of the following terms means predicting the amount of food needed for a specific event? a. production b. forecasting c. purchasing d. food scheduling b. forecasting Which of the following is not an advantage of standardized recipes? a. customers or pts can be assured that the menu item will not change each time it is served b. standardized recipes help to facilitate the forecasting, purchasing, and production processes c. the recipes can easily be extended by the chef if additional food is required d. standardized recipes are necessary when using computerized systems b/c the reports use that format to communicate to various areas such as centralized ingredient area or purchasing c. the recipes can easily be extended by the chef if additional food is required - should be adjusted in advance If you are using the factor method to adjust a recipe that serves 8 to serve 50, which factor would you use to make the adjustments? a. 6.25 b. 6 c. 7 d. 0.16 a. 6.25 50/8 = 6.25 Food is prepared in a hospital kitchen; cooked, portioned, and assembled on the tray line; and then served to patients is an example of what type of food service? a. cook/freeze b. cook/chill c. cook/hot hold d. heat/serve c. cook/hot hold Which of the following laws apply to a hospital cafeteria renovation? a. the rehabilitation act b. the workforce investment act c. the civil service reform act d. the americans with disabilities act d. the americans with disabilities act - law requires areas to be accessible to everyone An individual has become ill 6 hrs after eating at a salad bar buffet containing various cooked meats, cottage cheese, and potato salad. The symptoms are nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and severe abdominal cramping. The microorganism most likely responsible for this outbreak is: a. clostridium botulinum b. staphylococcus aureus c. e. coli 0157:H7 d. campylobacter jejuni b. staphylococcus aureus - cross contamination As the cafeteria manager, you notice that the hamburgers are not cooked to the proper temperature and are very rare on the inside. What are you most concerned about? a. salonella b. E. coli 0157:H7 c. bacillus cereus d. shigella b. e. coli - found in raw beef, fruit/veg, soft cheeses, unpasterized dairy Which of the following groups are at the highest risk if listeriosis is contracted? a. infants b. children, aged 1-5 c. older adults d. pregnant women d. pregnant women - results in stillbirth, premature delivery - found in raw foods, processed foods, hot dogs, deli meats, soft cheeses - symptoms: muscle aches, nausea, diarrhea Which of the following temperature ranges is known as the danger zone? a. 41-140 b. 35-145 c. 50-150 d. 40-120 a. 40-140 A famous television star is admitted to a hospital due to an injury that occurred during filming. Many employees have legitimate access to his computerized medical record, but some who do not, access his records anyways. Later, info is leaked to tabloids. A review of who has authorized access occurs, and many employees are terminated. What is a possible reason for termination? a. violation of doctor-patient confidentiality b. violation of freedom of speech c. violation of HIPAA d. violation of FERPA c. violation of HIPAA As the evening supervisor in the kitchen of a small nursing home, it is your job to verify the dish machine is operating correctly. Which of the following would concern you? a. wash temperature 140 degrees b. rinse temperature of 165 degrees c. dishes drying on racks to allow for air drying d. prewash water temperature of 120 degrees b. rinse temperature of 165 degrees - should be 170 degrees A food service aide has complained to you about frequently finding bloody tissues on one patient's meal tray. How do you correct this? a. tell the employee to remove the tissue and place them in trash can b. the employee should refuse to remove the tray from the room c. tell the employee not to worry and remove the tray from the room d. speak to the nurse about the situation so the tissue can be properly disposed. The employee should wear gloves to remove the tray from the room d. speak to the nurse about the situation so the tissue can be properly disposed. The employee should wear gloves to remove the tray from the room Which of the following types of fire extinguishers should not be used on a grease fire? a. foam b. sodium bicarbonate c. water d. carbon dioxide c. water A woman and a man both interview for a cashier position in a hospital cafeteria. Both are hired for the job but the woman is paid $1.00 less per hour than the man. Identify the law that may be violated. a. fair labor standards act b. equal pay act c. minimum wage act d. fair pay act b. equal pay act Which of the following individuals is likely eligible for unemployment compensation under the Social Security Act of 1935? a. a tray-line worker who has been dismissed due to workforce reduction b. a cook who was using recreational drugs in the restroom during scheduled breaks c. a DTR who voluntarily stopped showing up for work d. a food service supervisor who has accepted a job requiring early morning hours but habitually comes in 1 hour late each day a. a tray-line worker who has been dismissed due to workforce reduction Which of the following employment advertisement modes is least likely to effectively recruit a new food service director at a large, tertiary-care hospital? a. internet advertising on a web site, such as monster.com b. internal sources c. recruitment agency d. advertising in a weekly local newspaper d. advertising in a weekly local newspaper Retaining good employees is challenging. Which of the following is least likely to promote employee retention? a. offering an excellent benefits package, including health insurance, life insurance, 401K, etc b. rewarding employees for good performance with bonuses or consistent raises c. maintaining rigid scheduling b/c work comes first d. providing opportunities to learn skills c. maintaining rigid scheduling b/c work comes first A new dish machine is needed for the retirement home kitchen. The money to purchase this piece of equipment will come from which part of the budget? a. master b. operating c. capital d. cash c. capital - master includes operating, capital, + cash budgets - operating is day to day - cash: incoming/outgoing labor costs in the hospital cafeteria have been over budget for several months due to overtime. which of the following would not be an immediate solution to the problem? a. dismiss a few employees to control labor costs b. review the operation to see if additional self-serve stations can be implemented c. review the scheduling procedure to see if overtime is justified and see if some of the prep work can be moved to non-peak hours d. determine if employees are being properly supervised and performing tasks appropriately a. dismiss a few employees to control labor costs In Maslow's Hierarchy of needs, which of the following needs must be met first? a. social b. safety c. self-esteem d. physiological d. Physiological - hunger, thirst, shelter, clothing, breathing - safety, social, self esteem, self-actualization an employee attempts to provide input to his food service manager with regard to the workflow surrounding the prep area. The manager tells the employee that the necessary changes have already been instituted and there is no room for discussion on the matter. This is an example of what type of leadership style? a. democratic b. autocratic c. bureaucratic d. participative b. autocratic - leaders makes a decisions Effective communication involves all of the following, except: a. oral b. written c. action or demonstration d. grapevine d. grapevine Which of the following would not be an example of good merchandising? a. fruit in a plastic container in the refrigerator b. polished, clean, and unbruised apples, oranges, pears, and bananas in a large wicker basket c. pre-plated fruit plates w/ interesting garnishes d. weekly-featured fresh fruits with recipes, creative presentation of the fruit, such as ka-bobs, or a special fruit dip a. fruit in a plastic container in the refrigerator The hospital cafeteria has added Pissa Hut pizza and Boar's Head deli meats to its employee menu. This is an example of: a. marketing b. branding c. promotion planning d. mark-up merchandising b. branding Which of the following is not a JCAHO approved medical abbreviation? a. mg for milligram b. ml for milliliter c. Q.D. for every day or daily d. IV for intravenous c. Q.D. for every day or daily As a newly hired DTR in charge of the cafeteria, you are asked to participate in a food safety program sponsored by the National Restaurant Association. The name of this program is: a. federal food safety program b. food safety certificate program c. iPura food safety d. ServSafe d. servsafe Which of the following scenarios would not raise red flags to a food service manager? a. a food service worker has a broken washing machine and has not had time to go to the laundromat to clean his uniforms b. a food service worker comes to work without a fever but complains of allergies and congestion c. a food service employee making sandwiches in the deli is sneezing frequently and often forgets to sneeze into her elbow d. a cafeteria line server absentmindedly touches her head and face when no customers are being served b. a food service worker comes to work without a fever but complains of allergies and congestion A health inspector visits the hospital food service operation where you are a food service supervisor. As the only supervisor on duty at the time, which of the following should you not do during the inspection? a. ask to see the inspector's credentials b. follow the inspector throughout the inspection, make notes of any violations found, and try to fix any small problems with the inspector is there c. sign the copy of the inspection d. refuse the inspection on the grounds that a manager level employee is not present for the inspection d. refuse the inspection on the grounds that a manager level employee is not present for the inspection Which of the following is not addressed in the FDA Food Code? a. food service establishment flooring material characteristics b. specific dress code policies for food service personnel working in kitchens c. guideline for using ice to keep foods cool d. guideline for sinks used to hand washing b. specific dress code policies for food service personnel working in kitchens - food code is scientifically based and applies to all public establishments The Joint Commission on the Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations (JCAHO) uses which of the following to assess patient care during a survey? a. tracer methodology b. chart review c. audits d. standards interpretation a. tracer methodology - observes care, medications, and care planning - staff are reviewed - families could be interviewed The Joint Commission on the Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations (JCAHO) has implemented patient safety goals. All of the following are part of these goals, except: a. the use of 2 patient identifiers b. prevention of decubitus ulcers c. improvement in the safety of all medications d. improvement in the communication between healthcare providers c. improvement in the safety of all medications Which of the following is the term that means comparing one's performance with the performance of another? a. outcomes managment b. benchmarking c. performance outcome d. resource measurement b. benchmarking In the quality improvement process, which of the following is a difficult outcome to measure? a. the percentage of patients who has a nutrition screening completed within 24 hours of admission b. the number of patients who had a nutrition consult triggered because of low serum albumin on admission c. the percentage of patients who met 75% of their nutrient goals everyday d. the percentage of patients receiving nutrition support through the most appropriate route c. the percentage of patients who met 75% of their nutrient goals everyday The Institute of Medicine has identified 6 Quality Aims. These include all of the following, except: a. patient safety and timelines b. patient-centered and equity c. effectiveness and efficiency d. competency and relevance d. competency and relevance Which of the following is not a true statement about the American Dietetic Association's Standards of Professional Performance? a. the standards apply only to RDs b. the standards apply to all RDs and DTRs c. the standards were written based on specific training levels of RDs and DTRs as well as the level of responsibility of each d. the standards address 6 areas of professional behavior, including communication and quality of practice a. the standards apply only to RDs The DTR at the local community hospital is busy with nutrition screening, assessment, documentation, and education. The RD position has been vacant for quite a few months with no immediate prospects. The Director of Nutrition and Food Services feels the DTR is doing a great job. Is there a need to be concerned? a. no, the important point is that the patients are receiving nutritional care b. yes, the DTR should be completing just the nutrition screens c. no, the state regulations do not specify the work must be done by RD d. yes, the DTR is working without an RD's supervision and is putting the hospital at risk for the consequences, such as fines or loss of license d. yes, the DTR is working without an RD's supervision and is putting the hospital at risk for the consequences, such as fines or loss of license All of the following may be tasks performed by a DTR under the supervision of an RD, except: a. completing nutrition screens in the retirement home b. teaching nutrition education classes at WIC c. providing tube feeding recommendations on the RD's day off d. working at a fitness club assisting with weight loss c. providing tube feeding recommendations on the RD's day off The American Dietetic Association and the Commission on the Dietetic Registration (CDR) have written a Code of Ethics. Which of the following is an example of an ethics violation? a. the hospital food service receives holiday cards from food vendors b. the inpatient RD accepts monetary gifts from a holistic physicians' group and in return, is advising patients to purchase the products offered by this group c. the DTR is taking diet histories on all new admissions d. the DTR is a long-term care setting was recently in a car accident. While on medical leave of absence, he became addicted to pain killers but has since received treatment for this addiction and is in recovery b. the inpatient RD accepts monetary gifts from a holistic physicians' group and in return, is advising patients to purchase the products offered by this group A patient you are working with reads various magazines, many of which focus on health and nutrition. She has many questions regarding what she is reading as the advice seems conflicting. All of the following would be appropriate responses, except: a. asking her to determine whether the article is reporting info and advocating change based on info from only one study b. asking her if you may look at the article in order to determine how the diet was evaluated c. telling her that if it is published in most magazines, the info must be correct d. asking her if the article was reporting on a study done on animals or people. Also, ask her how large the sample size was. c. telling her that if it was published in a magazines, the info must be correct You are asked to give a presentation at the senior center on a new advances in nutrition and heart disease. When reviewing the literature, the best type of studies to review is: a. randomized control trials b. cohort studies c. case controlled studies d. consensus statements a. randomized control trials As a DTR, part of a job is to complete the initial nutrition screening on all admissions. Next, you collaborate with the RD to decide how the department tasks will be completed. You have a good working relationship with the RD. The Clinical Nutrition Manager asks the RD for input on your performance over the past year. A reason for this may be: a. she is getting ready to perform corrective discipline b. she is getting ready to complete your performance appraisal c. she is trying to keep tabs on the inpatient staff d. She is trying to write a job description b. she is getting ready to complete your performance appraisal #10 can holds 13 cups; 6 lbs 9oz; think large can of peaches Scoop sizes #6 = 2/3 c #8 = 1/2 c #10 = 3/8 c #12 = 1/3 c #16 = 1/4 c #30 = 2 tablespoon #100 = 2 teaspoon What temp do you cook poultry, stuffing, stuffed items, and any food that was allowed to cool and/or was refrigerated and that will be reheated from a temperature below 135? 165 degrees What temperature do you cook roasts, steaks, chops of beef, veal, fish, eggs, and lamb to? 145 degrees What temperature do you maintain hot cooked food at? 140 degrees What temperature do you reheat food to? 165 degrees Centralized food service prepare the food, cart it to where you prepared the tray the line, portion it, assemble it, send it up to floor. - better portion control, one set of equipment, not a lot of space, easier to supervise Decentralized food service system bulk quantities portions are sent on to food trucks to patient floors. - not good portion control, more waste, harder to supervise - adv: food temps will be better, better for food preferences Monounsaturated fats peanut oil, olive oil, nuts, avocados, canola oil Polyunsaturated Fats fish, sunflower oil, omega-6, omega-3, soybeans, peanut butter, safflower What grades meat? USDA - based on maturity, marbling, color and texture Low fat must be: <3g Reduced fat must be: <25% less fat than original Fat free must be: <0.5g Light must be: 1/3 fewer calories Food Cost percentage Actual food cost / menu price What is cachexia? Weight loss, muscle atrophy, fatigue, weakness and significant loss of appetite in someone who is not actively trying to lose weight What is the marketing mix? Product, Price, Place, Promotion What is the Hamwei method for IBW? Women: 100# for the first 5' then 5# for every inch over 5' Men: 106# for the first 5' and 6# for every inch after 5' What grains are not allowed in a gluten-free diet? Wheats, oats, rye, barley, alfalfa What is a job description? a written description of the basic tasks, duties, and responsibilities required of an employee holding a particular job What is a job specification? a written statement of the minimum qualifications that a person must possess to perform a given job successfully What is job analysis? a purposeful, systematic process for collecting information on the important work-related aspects of a job What temperature do you cook ground meats or fish, injected meats, eggs that will not immediately consumed? 155 degrees [Show More]
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