CDR DTR Practice Exam (100 OUT OF 100) Questions and Answers

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Which of the following indicators is the most practical parameter for screening nutrition status in elderly clients? a. Weight change b. Serum albumin level c. Triceps skinfold thickness d. 24-h... our dietary recall record a. Weight change Answer (a) is the correct answer because in older clients, unintentional weight loss is associate with increased risk of depression, infection, overall poor nutrition status, and mortality. Answer (b) is not the correct answer because it is less practical as lab values are less easy to obtain than weight. Answer (c) is not the correct answer because it is less practical because accurate values can be difficult to obtain if the dietetic technician is not trained appropriately, and would need calipers. Answer (d) is not the correct answer because it can be subjective and may not give the "big picture" compared to weight change. Which of the following oils contains the highest proportion of monounsaturated fatty acids? a. Safflower b. Soybean c. Canola d. Corn c. Canola The most effective way to teach a group of children in day care facility about healthy snack foods is to ask each child to: a. name a favorite snack food. b. taste a variety of snack foods. c. draw a picture of a snack food. d. write a story about snack foods. b. taste a variety of snack foods. What is the most appropriate biochemical test result for screening clients of a public health clinic for anemia? a. Transferrin b. Hematocrit c. Serum iron d. Total iron-binding capacity b. Hematocrit Which of the following statements demonstrates an understanding of drug and nutrient interactions between warfarin and dietary intake? a. "I should limit my intake." b. "I should increase my intake." c. "I should eliminate from my diet." d. "I should maintain a consistent intake." d. "I should maintain a consistent intake." A young woman is pregnant, has a 2-year-old child, and has a low income. Which of the following nutrition programs should the dietetic technician suggest? a. Home-Delivered Meals Program b. Child and Adult Care Food Program c. Expanded Food and Nutrition Education Program d. Special Supplemental Nutrition Program for Women, Infants, and Children d. Special Supplemental Nutrition Program for Women, Infants, and Children Answer (d) is the correct answer because The nutrition assistance safety net in the United States includes many programs, some of which target specific nutritionally at-risk groups. The Special Supplemental Nutrition Program for Women, Infants, and Children (WIC) safeguards the health of low-income women, infants, and children up to age 5 who are at nutritional risk by providing nutritious foods to supplement diets, information on healthy eating, and referrals to health care. Answer (a) is not the correct answer because meals on Wheels is an organization focused on ending hunger among seniors. Its members provide home-delivered meals and meals at congregate meal sites. Answer (b) is not the correct answer because the Child and Adult Care Food Program (CACFP) improves the quality and affordability of day care for low-income families by providing nutritious meals and snacks to children, meals and snacks to adults who receive care in nonresidential adult day care centers, meals to children programs. Answer (c) is not the correct answer because the Expanded Food and Nutrition Education Program (EFNEP) assists adults and youth with limited resources in acquiring the knowledge, skills, attitudes, and changed behavior necessary for nutritionally-sound diets and contributes to their personal development and the improvement of the total family diet and nutritional well-being. The primary focus of nutrition care for a man with hypertension and a body mass index of 32 should be to: a. increase potassium intake. b. decrease sodium intake. c. increase calcium intake. d. decrease caloric intake. d. decrease caloric intake. According to the 2015 Hypertension Guidelines of the Evidence Analysis Library, the DASH diet, plus weight reduction has the most significant impact on both systolic and diastolic blood pressure measurements for adults with hypertension. Calorie restriction would be an essential part of this weight management/weight reduction. A person living with gastroesophageal reflux disease should stay away from him which of the following items? a. Spicy and caffeinated items b. Bland and decaffeinated items c. Spicy and decaffeinated items d. Bland and caffeinated items a. Spicy and caffeinated items A client who requires 2500 kcal daily to maintain weight consumes 2300 kcals daily and gains 2 lb in 2 days. This suggests that the client: a. overconsumed sugared beverages. b. did not meet exercise requirements. c. ate foods with high fat content. d. retained excessed fluids. d. retained excessed fluids. Which of the following patients is the highest priority for nutrition care? a. A college football player who is dehydrated b. A child who is small in stature and is anemic c. A pregnant adolescent who has hyperemesis d. An older adult who is scheduled for elective surgery c. A pregnant adolescent who has hyperemesis Answer (c) is the correct answer because hyperemesis, or persistent vomiting, will put the adolescent at risk for electrolyte imbalance and malnutrition, since she is not able to keep food down. This includes serious risk to life of fetus and mother, thereby necessitating immediate intervention that includes nutrition, as opposed to the hydration protocol to be used for the college football player. Answer (a) is not the correct answer because dehydration is clearly a medical emergency but does not require nutrition. Counseling on hydration strategies would be great after recovery. Answer (b) is not the correct answer because anemia and small stature indicate long-term malnutrition, which are therefore not emergency situations. Answer (d) is not the correct answer because elective surgery allows for nutritional preparation, which is not an emergency. A patient consumes 1500 kcal/d and has normal renal and cardiac function should consume a minimum of how many liters of fluids per day? a. 1.5 b. 2 c. 2.5 d. 3 a. 1.5 Daily fluid requirement = 1 ml/kcal consumed 1500 kcal consumed/day × 1 ml/kcal consumed = 1500 ml fluid required 1 L = 1000 ml 1500 ml fluid required ÷ 1000 ml/L = 1.5 L fluid required/day A patient diagnosed with protein deficiency may be consuming foods that also lack sufficient: a. zinc. b. sodium. c. calcium. d. magnesium. a. zinc. Which of the following visual aids is most likely to be effective in educating clients about the total fat content of foods? a. A chart listing total fat content b. Food models that illustrate total caloric content c. A printed nutrient analysis of a sample diet d. Fat models equal to fat content of common foods d. Fat models equal to fat content of common foods To ensure the highest long-term learning level of retention, the dietetic technician should ask the client to do which of the following activities? a. Participate in a discussion about the learned task b. Listen to the presentation c. Demonstrate the skill d. Read a handout c. Demonstrate the skill Use the Mifflin-St. Jeor equation below to calculate the basal energy requirement for a 65-year-old woman who is 170 cm tall and weighs 62 kg. Mifflin-St. Jeor equation for women = 10 × weight (kg) + 6.25 × height (cm) − 5 × age (years) - 161 a. 1,200 kcal/day b. 1,500 kcal/day c. 1,250 kcal/day d. 1,550 kcal/day a. 1,200 kcal/day (10 × 62 kg) + (6.25 × 170 cm) - (5 × 65 years) - 161 = 620 + 1062.5 - 325 - 161 = 1196.5 ≈ 1,200 kcal/day Which of the following menus provides the best source of protein and iron for a client on a vegetarian diet? a. Cheese sandwich, apple b. Baked beans, corn bread c. Vegetable stir-fry, hard roll d. Vegetable pasta salad, French bread b. Baked beans, corn bread In a patient with inadequate fluid intake, which of the following laboratory values are most likely to be elevated? a. Creatinine and magnesium b. Glucose and total protein c. Potassium and calcium d. Sodium and BUN d. Sodium and BUN A 20-year-old woman is fatigued and unable to concentrate. Her skin is pale and she is wearing a sweater in a 78°F room. Her hemoglobin level is 8.5 g/dl and hematocrit is 28%. The woman most likely has which the following problems? a. Iron overload b. Pernicious anemia c. Megaloblastic anemia d. Iron-deficiency anemia d. Iron-deficiency anemia Which of the following indicators is commonly monitored among pregnant women who participate in the WIC program? a. Physical activity b. Food aversions c. Folate status d. Iron status d. Iron status While completing a clinical assessment, a dietetic technician notices that the child has bowed legs. The technician would most importantly review the food frequency questionnaire for consumption of: a. nuts and seeds. b. green vegetables. c. fruit and fruit juices. d. fortified dairy products. d. fortified dairy products. The diet history of a 31-year-old woman reveals that she does not drink milk. The technician should first determine whether the patient: a. eats soy products. b. is lactose intolerant. c. takes a calcium supplement. d. eats dark green, leafy vegetables. b. is lactose intolerant. The combination of hypertension, insulin resistance, and central body obesity is referred to as: a. cardiovascular disease. b. hypertensive diabetes. c. metabolic syndrome. d. prediabetic state. c. metabolic syndrome. What is an appropriate food choice for a patient who has thrush? a. Saltine crackers b. Citrus juices c. Consommé d. Ice cream d. Ice cream Consumption of a very low-carbohydrate, high-protein diet is most likely to cause: a. long-term weight loss. b. hypoglycemia. c. diarrhea. d. ketosis. d. ketosis. What would be the most appropriate intervention for a patient with type 2 diabetes, a hemoglobin A₁c, 8.5%, and reports eating throughout the day with occasional midnight snacks? a. Educate the client about the benefits of physical activity. b. Educate the client about carbohydrate counting. c. Obtain a 24-hour dietary recall record. d. Obtain a 3-day calorie count. b. Educate the client about carbohydrate counting. A patient is on a calorie count. How many grams of protein were consumed? Food / Percent Consumed 4 oz of meat loaf / 50% 1 cup of mashed potatoes / 100% ½ cup of cooked green beans / 50% ½ cup of canned peaches / 50% a. 19 b. 21 c. 22 d. 36 b. 21 Which of the following foods can a patient who needs a wheat-free diet safely consume? a. Graham crackers b. Bran flakes c. Couscous d. Rice d. Rice The plot for a prepubescent girl on a weight-for-age growth chart is at the 75th percentile. The child is: a. below the normal range for weight. b. within the normal range for weight. c. above normal range for weight. d. being measured on the wrong chart. b. within the normal range for weight. Which of the following grain products would be the best choice for a patient with diverticulosis? a. Sesame seed crackers b. Cream of rice cereal c. Banana-nut bread d. Bran cereal d. Bran cereal The following menu is low in which of the following nutrients? Breakfast / Lunch /Dinner Cranberry juice / Barley-rice pilaf with carrots / Black bean soup Oatmeal with brown sugar and raisins / Dry rye bread / Whole wheat bread Whole wheat toast / Pineapple and coconut salad / Mixed green salad Tea / Orange / Cantaloupe a. Thiamin b. Vitamin A c. Vitamin B₁₂ d. Ascorbic acid c. Vitamin B₁₂ Which of the following menus would be appropriate for a patient who is on a low potassium diet? a. Roast beef, boiled potatoes, and canned apricots b. Meat loaf, sweet potatoes, creamed peas, and applesauce c. Pork chops, seasoned rice, acorn squash, and canned pears d. Baked chicken, buttered noodles, green beans, and canned peaches d. Baked chicken, buttered noodles, green beans, and canned peaches Total iron requirements are greatest during: a. infancy (0 to 4 months of age). b. early childhood (2 to 4 years of age). c. adolescence. d. menopause. c. adolescence. What is the ideal body weight for a 55-year-old male who is 5′ 11″ tall? a. 172 b. 166 c. 161 d. 155 a. 172 Hamwi method for ideal body weight (IBW): for men = 106 lb for first 5′ + 6 lb for every ″ over 5′, or 6 lb for every ″ under 5′ for women = 100 lb for first 5′ + 5 lb for every ″ over 5′, or 5 lb for every ″ under 5′ 106 lb + (6 lb × 11″) = 106 lb + 66 = 172 lb Which of the following dietary protocols is most important when monitoring a patient who has pancreatitis? a. Minimize the intake of fat. b. Increase the intake of protein. c. Determine the adequacy of dietary iron. d. Ensure an appropriate distribution of carbohydrate intake. a. Minimize the intake of fat. A dietetic technician observes that a patient has no lower dentures and consumes only the soft and liquid portions of the regular diet. The technician should first: a. refer the patient to a dietitian. b. interview the patient about food preferences. c. advise the nurse to give the patient only soft foods. d. change the diet order to full liquid diet with supplements. b. interview the patient about food preferences. Which of the following dietary protocols would be appropriate for a patient who has undergone an ileostomy? a. Reduce the intake of fluids. b. Minimize the intake of protein. c. Increase the intake of carbohydrates. d. Restrict the intake of high-fiber foods. d. Restrict the intake of high-fiber foods. Answer (d) is the correct answer because avoiding high-fiber foods after an ileostomy is the nutrition therapy, because they are harder to digest. Avoiding high-fiber foods will allow the bowel to heal and prevent blockage of the ileostomy. Answer (a) is not the correct answer because maintaining hydration is crucial, and the nutrition therapy post-ileostomy is to aim for at least 8-10 cups of liquid per day. Answer (b) is not the correct answer because minimizing the intake of a macronutrient, like protein, can prevent meeting the patient's nutrition needs and therefore is not a part of the nutrition therapy for this procedure. Answer (c) is not the correct answer because an overconsumption of a macronutrient, like carbohydrate, is not recommended for any nutrition therapy. The mother of a 6-month-old infant receiving breast milk and infant cereal indicates that the infant is able to sit up and move her jaw up and down in a chewing movement. The dietetic technician educates the mother to gradually introduce which of the following solids to the infant's diet? a. Cottage cheese b. Peeled ripe fruit c. Teething biscuits d. Mashed vegetables d. Mashed vegetables Which of the following statements by a dietetic technician is most appropriate during a counseling session on infant feeding with new mothers? a. "The addition of solid foods will help to calm a colicky baby." b. "When cereal is introduced, it can be thinned with cow's milk." c. "There is no specific sequence of food additions that must be followed." d. "Introduce solid foods when the infant is between 4 and 6 months of age." d. "Introduce solid foods when the infant is between 4 and 6 months of age." The best community support service for a client who has difficulty with self-feeding is: a. congregate meals. b. home health services. c. the Home-Delivered Meals Program. d. the Expanded Food and Nutrition Education Program. b. home health services. According to the carbohydrate counting method, the following menu consists of how many carbohydrates? 3-oz grilled, skinless chicken breast ½ cup of green beans ½ cup of mashed potatoes One small roll 3 tsp of margarine One small piece of angel food cake a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 c. 3 *Use the carbohydrate counting method (1 carbohydrate choice = 15 g of total carbohydrates) 3-oz grilled, skinless chicken breast = protein = would not count ½ cup of green beans = non-starchy vegetable = would not count ½ cup of mashed potatoes = 1 serving starchy vegetables = 1 carbohydrate choice 1 small roll = 1 serving bread = 1 carbohydrate choice 3 tsp of margarine = fat = would not count 1 small piece of angel food cake, unfrosted = ½ serving dessert, cake = 1 carbohydrate choice *1 serving angel food cake, unfrosted = ¹⁄₁₂ of cake / 2 oz (yields 30 g carbohydrate) 1 + 1 + 1 = 3 carbohydrate choices A female is 5′ 8″ tall and currently weighs 160 lb. Her usual body weight is 180 lb. What is her percent weight change? a. 11% b. 78% c. 86% d. 89% a. 11% % weight change = (weight change ÷ usual body weight) × 100 180 lb - 160 lb = 20 lb weight change (20 lb ÷ 180 lb) × 100 = 11% weight change The most appropriate monitoring parameters for a patient with diabetes include: a. skin integrity, BUN level, and fluid status. b. anthropometrics, fluid status, and caffeine intake. c. physical activity, amylase levels, and hemoglobin A₁c level. d. food intake, medication adherence, and hemoglobin A₁c level. d. food intake, medication adherence, and hemoglobin A₁c level. The best way to determine demographic characteristics of a rural older population is to: a. obtain local census information. b. survey local church members. c. obtain information from local community service agencies. d. survey local members of the American Association of Retired Persons. a. obtain local census information. The most appropriate education aid to use with a non-English speaking client newly diagnosed with diabetes would be: a. MyPlate. b. an ADA-approved cookbook. c. the exchange lists for meal planning. d. the Dietary Guidelines for Americans. a. MyPlate. Adapting education tools to the client's needs is very important. In the case of a non-English speaking patient, materials that present the information in a picture format and in simple terms is more likely to be understood than more complex text education packets. MyPlate is the only example in the list that would provide a pictorial description of food groups and quantities. Which of the following foods would be appropriate for a client who eats only kosher foods? a. Halibut b. Shrimp c. Catfish d. Lobster a. Halibut A person who does not eat animal products is most likely affiliated with which of the following religious denominations? a. Jewish b. Muslim c. Roman Catholic d. Seventh-Day Adventist d. Seventh-Day Adventist Which of the following teaching methods should be used to quickly inform employees of a large food service department? a. Lecture b. Discussion c. Demonstration d. On-the-job training a. Lecture The dietetic technician is to monitor the food intake of an underweight patient to determine if a tube feeding is needed. The most practical way to monitor the patient's food intake is to: a. observe the patient's eating behavior during mealtimes. b. institute a calorie count with the assistance of the nursing service. c. obtain a 24-hour recall of food intake from the patient each morning. d. observe plate waste after the patient's tray is removed from the room. b. institute a calorie count with the assistance of the nursing service. Answer (b) is the correct answer because calorie counts allow actual observation of food in a clinical setting and usually accurately reflect an average intake for most individuals. Calorie counts allow the identification of nutritional inadequacies by monitoring intakes through direct observation or inventory of foods eaten based on observation of what remains on a patient's tray after a meal. Answer (a) is not the correct answer because it is not practical for the dietitian technician to be present to observe every meal the patient eats. Answer (c) is not the correct answer because a 24-hour recall would require the patient to remember the specific foods and amounts of foods consumed in the past 24 hours. This is not the most practical way to monitor intake. Commonly associated problems include the inability of patients to accurately recall kinds and amounts of foods eaten and persons often exaggerate or underreport intake. Answer (d) is not the correct answer because it is not practical for the dietetic technician to be present to observe plate waste after every meal. The patient advisory committee of an extended-care facility identifies concerns with food acceptance. The dietetic technician should determine the extent of the problem by: a. changing the menu. b. changing the service hours. c. conducting a survey of patient satisfaction. d. conducting an evaluation of a randomly selected tray. c. conducting a survey of patient satisfaction. The statement "Tray production will be three trays per minute for 90% of the time" is an example of: a. a policy. b. a mission. c. a procedure. d. an objective. d. an objective. Cafeteria sales have dropped 13% during the past three weeks. To determine a possible explanation for the decrease in sales, the dietetic technician first should review: a. production sheets. b. food specifications. c. standardized recipes. d. customer comment cards. d. customer comment cards. An employee works 6:00 AM to 2:30 PM Monday and Tuesday. Another employee works the same hours Wednesday, Thursday, and Friday. This is an example of: a. work relief. b. job sharing. c. contract labor. d. temporary work. b. job sharing. What is the first step a dietetic technician should take when two employees are involved in a verbal altercation in the dish room? a. Remove the employees from the area b. Interview the employees separately c. Discipline the employees d. Reassign the employees a. Remove the employees from the area To develop a crisis-management plan, the dietetic technician should first: a. increase capacity of existing storage areas. b. organize a multi-department committee. c. analyze the standard operating procedures. d. contact vendors to discuss food packaging and delivery. b. organize a multi-department committee. Which of the following agencies requires healthcare facilities to have continuous quality improvement programs? a. The Joint Commission b. National Institutes of Health c. Food and Drug Administration d. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention a. The Joint Commission A disgruntled employee exhibits loud and disruptive behavior in the kitchen and appears to be out of control, even after the dietetic technician counseled the employee. The technician should: a. take the employee into the office and discuss the consequences of the behavior. b. send the employee off the premises immediately and alert security. c. return to the office to write a disciplinary sheet for misconduct. d. send the employee to the break room to calm down. b. send the employee off the premises immediately and alert security. Which approach would be best to prevent grievances between management and labor union employees? a. Limiting access to union officials. b. Working with union representatives. c. Following the union contract consistently. d. Making positive changes in working conditions. c. Following the union contract consistently. The dietetic technician observes that the full-time storeroom clerk routinely finishes work assignments early. The technician should: a. suggest to the dietitian that the clerk's hours be reduced. b. inform the clerk that assistance is needed in another area. c. review the clerk's job description and modify it as needed. d. retrain the employee on the responsibilities of the position. c. review the clerk's job description and modify it as needed. The technician's best approach to overcoming employee resistance to change consists of increasing employee: a. self-efficacy. b. supervision. c. discipline. d. rewards. a. self-efficacy. During the annual performance appraisal, the employees report that the process is highly subjective and unfair. When preparing the performance standards for next year, the manager should prepare objectives that: a. are developed with input from the employees. b. emphasize the employees' best skills. c. meet the mission of the department. d. are clear and measurable. d. are clear and measurable. What is the first step in implementing quality improvement initiative? a. Identify areas of concern. b. Track quality improvement results. c. Design a product to meet customer needs. d. Strive to improve the department's processes. a. Identify areas of concern. A foodservice manager has established a team for improving patient satisfaction. The manager's most effective role is: a. defining team functions. b. identifying problems. c. empowering others. d. delineating roles. c. empowering others. Which of the following financial statements reports revenues, expenses, and profit or loss? a. Statement of change in financial position b. Asset/liability statement c. Income statement d. Balance sheet c. Income statement The accounting document, referred to as the income statement, reflects net income or profit for an organization during the determined accounting period. It also includes revenue and expenditure information, so that net income or loss is accurately presented. The statement of financial changes reflects cash or fund flow, while the balance sheet or asset/liability statement represent current assets, liabilities, and owner's equity for a specific point in time. An operating budget is developed to: a. obtain salary increases. b. justify past expenditures. c. estimate future labor costs. d. forecast future needs and costs. d. forecast future needs and costs. Answer (d) is the correct answer because forecasting future needs and cost is based on performance from previous fiscal years with inflation. Answer (a) is not the correct answer because obtaining salary increases is done through market wage surveys. Answer (b) is not the correct answer because justifying past expenditures is done through budget review. Answer (c) is not the correct answer because estimating future labor costs is done through market wage surveys and task analysis. The manager of a fitness center introduces a reduced-fat granola bar at a price 25¢ lower than similar items in the center and hands out samples to promote the new product. The situation most appropriately reflects an example of: a. target market. b. marketing mix. c. marketing strategy. d. market segmentation. b. market mix. A dietetic technician supervisor notices that the diet clerk has left early without approval the past two Fridays. The technician should: a. counsel the clerk and issue a written warning. b. record the incident in the clerks personnel file. c. discuss with the clerk the reasons for leaving early. d. ask coworkers if they have seen the clerk leaving early. c. discuss with the clerk the reasons for leaving early. A national contract-management company identifies best practices for average patient assessment time for all accounts in a specific region. This practice is called: a. marketing. b. budgeting. c. benchmarking. d. reengineering. c. benchmarking. The following question is based on the cost report summaries shown below for the dietetics department. Beginning inventory = $17,190 Ending inventory = $15,150 Purchases = $42,800 Labor cost = $12,330 Labor hours = 1,370 Number of meals served = 9,440 What is the total cost per meal? a. $1.82 b. $4.53 c. $4.75 d. $6.06 d. $6.06 Which activity will provide the most accurate representation of suggestions for menu items? a. Providing comment cards. b. Leading a focus group. c. Administering satisfaction surveys. d. Conducting individual interviews. b. Leading a focus group. Which of the following requirements is met when the dietetic technician completes the Mini Nutritional Assessment within 24 hours of an older patient's admission to the hospital? a. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 b. Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act c. The Joint Commission standards d. The Older Americans Act c. The Joint Commission standards The dietetic technician hears an employee telling jokes that infer racial prejudice. What guidelines need to be reviewed with this employee? a. Equality b. Diversity c. Affirmative action d. Equal Employment Opportunity Commission b. Diversity The following question refers to the data below. Raw product cost = $0.95 Selling price = $2.05 Labor cost per portion = $0.75 What is the food cost percentage? a. 46% b. 83% c. 120% d. 215% a. 46% Which of the following practices should be implemented by a dietetic technician who wishes to simplify work processes and tasks? a. Hire only workers with prior foodservice experience. b. Encourage methods that efficiently use time and effort. c. Review the menu and remove time-consuming food items. d. Include the importance of work simplification in performance evaluations. b. Encourage methods that efficiently use time and effort. A dietetic technician at a senior citizens' nutrition site has identified who may participate in a cardiovascular program. What is the next step? a. Promote the program. b. Conduct a market analysis. c. Study demographics of the senior site. d. Identify potential outcomes of the program. d. Identify potential outcomes of the program. Requirements of training and education for a dietary aide are described in a job: a. analysis. b. description. c. specification. d. performance evaluation. c. specification. Which of the following is a legally acceptable question to ask an interviewee? a. What year were you born? b. Do you have a physical limitation? c. Have you had experience using a slicer? d. Do you have satisfactory childcare arrangements? c. Have you had experience using a slicer? Answer (c) is the correct answer because his option is a job requirement for a possible position in a kitchen area. Title Ⅶ of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 prohibits employment discrimination based on race, color, religion, sex, or national origin. Answer (a) is not the correct answer because the Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967 (ADEA) protects individuals who are 40 years of age or older rom being discriminated against. Answer (b) is not the correct answer because Title Ⅰ and Title Ⅴ of the Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990, as amended (ADA), prohibit employment discrimination against qualified individuals with disabilities. Answer (d) is not the correct answer because it does not relate to job qualifications. A dietetic technician has been asked to select new entrées for the hospital cafeteria. First, the technician should: a. conduct a plate-waste study. b. survey customers for ideas. c. contact a vendor for new food items. d. determine a price range for products. d. determine a price range for products. A tactic that increases the sale of merchandise or services through publicity is known as: a. pricing. b. targeting. c. promotion. d. segmentation. c. promotion. The most effective method for teaching accurate tray assembly would have to be the employees: a. critique a videotape. b. set up several trays for review. c. read the tray assembly procedure. d. observe tray assembly at another facility. b. set up several trays for review. A dietetic technician reviews the following monthly quality improvement data: Performance Indicator / Met / Not Met Unsupplemented diet < 48 hours / 85% / 15% Quarterly progress notes / 93% / 7% Plan of can completed / 98% / 2% The technician should use this information to: a. plan department goals for the next quarter. b. propose changes to departmental staffing pattern. c. forecast the amount of supplements to be ordered. d. identify problems and prepare a plan for improvement. d. identify problems and prepare a plan for improvement. A manager calls a staff meeting to obtain input about improving customer satisfaction. Which of the following management approaches is the manager using? a. Autocratic b. Democratic c. Participative d. Laissez-faire c. Participative Which of the following factors provides the best motivation to employees who want feedback and recognition? a. Career promotion b. Being part of the group c. Money and achievement d. Training and educational benefits b. Being part of the group A customer is dissatisfied with dinner, and the employee is allowed to correct the issue immediately. This action is an example of: a. employee empowerment. b. autocratic management. c. employee recognition. d. laissez-faire. a. employee empowerment. Which of the following must be present for baking soda to be an effective leavening agent? a. Fat b. Acid c. Alkali d. Protein b. Acid Which of the following is a critical control point at all stages of food processing and service in a cook-chill system? a. Use of clean pans and dishes b. Rapid cooling from 140°F to 40°F c. Rapid reheating of foods to 140°F for service d. Good personal hygiene for food handlers throughout the process b. Rapid cooling from 140°F to 40°F A vendor offers to provide coffee machines if a foodservice operation purchases its coffee products. This type of practice is: a. prohibited by the Federal Trade Commission. b. a value-added service. c. considered collusion. d. an ethics violation. b. a value-added service. Financial data for a cafeteria are shown below. Income from sales = $12,800 Food costs = $5,300 Numbered served = 2,403 The food cost percentage for the operation is: a. 41.4% b. 45.3% c. 58.6% d. 70.7% a. 41.4% Which of the following sources is most likely to transmit hepatitis A? a. Undercooked animal protein b. A cook with an infected hand sore c. A cross-contaminated cutting board d. Shellfish from a contaminated water source d. Shellfish from a contaminated water source A recipe for brownies that yields 35 portions requires 2.5 lb of flour. For 200 portions, how many pounds of flour are needed? a. 14.3 b. 17.5 c. 19.9 d. 28 a. 14.3 The Meals on Wheels program receives an offer of 50 frozen turkeys from a reputable source. What should the dietetic technician first consider before accepting the donation? a. Recipe availability b. Appropriate storage space c. On-site cooking equipment d. Cost of labor to prepare the turkey b. Appropriate storage space The cafeteria has run out of beef stew the last three times it was served. The cooks followed standardized recipes for correctly forecasted volume. The dietetic technician should: a. request cafeteria servers to serve smaller portions. b. determine if correct portions are being served. c. prepare more portions of beef stew. d. have a backup item ready. b. determine if correct portions are being served. Escherichia coli is identified as the cause of an outbreak of foodborne illness in a day camp. Which of the following fruits most likely is the source? a. Apples b. Oranges c. Bananas d. Raspberries d. Raspberries Which of the following menu items would be appropriate for a lacto-ovo vegetarian? a. Tuna salad b. Shrimp creole c. Cheese omelet d. Baked haddock c. Cheese omelet The principal reason that an infant should not consume honey is because it could result in: a. oral candidiasis. b. botulism. c. an allergic reaction. d. tooth decay. b. botulism. Which of the following cooking methods is best for cooking a large amount of potatoes in the shortest period of time? a. Induction b. Conduction c. Sous-vide d. Radiant heat d. Radiant heat What is the most effective purchasing method for a dietetic technician to use when a department is undergoing a renovation that will reduce inventory by 80%? a. Cost-plus b. Just-in-time c. Prime vendor d. Blanket agreement b. Just-in-time Answer (b) is the correct answer because just-in-time purchasing is a cost accounting strategy where the minimum amount of goods is purchased to meet customer demand, and acknowledges the kitchen renovation requiring a reduced inventory. Answer (a) is not the correct answer because cost-plus pricing is a cost-based method for setting the prices of goods and services. Using this approach, the direct material cost, direct labor cost, and overhead costs for a product are summed and added to a markup percentage, to create a profit margin, in order to derive the price of the product. This does not address the need in the reduction of inventory. Answer (c) is not the correct answer because prime vendor is the supplier that provides the materials or products, not the process in which the reduction in inventory can be addressed. Answer (d) is not the correct answer because a blanket agreement is a simplified method of filling anticipated repetitive needs for supplies or services by establishing charge accounts with qualified sources of supply. This does not address the need for reduced inventory. An employee accidentally sprays a chemical cleaning agent on exposed skin. What source of information should be the first point of reference? a. Product label b. Poison control center c. Employee's physician d. Safety Data Sheets d. Safety Data Sheets The last two deliveries of pork chops were not consistent in quality. The dietetic technician should: a. change vendors immediately. b. sell the product at a reduced price. c. store the deliveries for vendor pickup. d. review the product specifications with the vendor. d. review the product specifications with the vendor. What is the edible portion of 3 lb 8 oz of raw meat with a shrinkage of 20%? a. 11 oz b. 2 lb 8 oz c. 2 lb 13 oz d. 3 lb 1 oz c. 2 lb 13 oz A dietetic technician observes the cook placing all meal items on the steam table 2 hours before service. How should the technician respond? a. Commend the cook on planning and use of time b. Record temperatures of food once place on the steam table c. Inform the cook that items must not be placed on the steam table more than 60 minutes prior to service d. Inform the cook that items must not be placed on the steam table more than 30 minutes prior to service d. Inform the cook that items must not be placed on the steam table more than 30 minutes prior to service A menu must be developed for patients in a new rehabilitation wing. The dietetic technician should initially: a. evaluate the production equipment. b. assess the menu's impact upon food costs. c. consider nutrient requirements and client ethnicity. d. determine the preparation skills of the foodservices employees. c. consider nutrient requirements and client ethnicity. Which of the following types of wheat flour has the highest protein content? a. All-purpose flour b. Pastry flour c. Bread flour d. Cake flour c. Bread flour One pound of boneless turkey roll as purchased yields 0.66 lb of cooked turkey meat. How much turkey roll should the foodservice supervisor purchase to yield 21 lb of cooked turkey meat? a. 14 b. 31 c. 32 d. 35 c. 32 % yield = edible portion of food ÷ as purchased portion of food % yield = 0.66 ÷ 1 To determine how much turkey the foodservice supervisor should purchase to yield 21 lb of cooked turkey meat: 21 ÷ 0.66 = 31.8 ≈ 32 lb of turkey meat Answer (a) is not the correct answer because purchasing 14 lb of meat will not yield 21 lb since % yield is 0.66 (it would yield closer to 9 lb of meat). Answer (b) is not the correct answer because rounding down to 31 lb would not be enough meat. Answer (d) is not the correct answer because 0.66 × 35 yields 23 lb of meat. The federal regulatory agency responsible for regulating sanitation is the: a. Federal Trade Commission. b. US Department of Agriculture. c. Food and Drug Administration. d. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention. c. Food and Drug Administration. The cooks use a No. 12 scoop for the corn muffins. How many quarts of batter are needed to make 144 muffins? a. 8 b. 10 c. 12 d. 14 c. 12 No. 12 scoop = ⅓ cup batter = 1 muffin ⅓ cup batter × 144 muffins = 48 cups of batter 1 quart = 4 cups 48 cups batter ÷ 4 cups of batter = 12 quarts of batter Listed below are the size numbers and equivalent measures of standardized scoops. No. 6 scoop = ⅔ cup No. 8 scoop = ½ cup No. 10 scoop = ⅜ cup No. 12 scoop = ⅓ cup No. 16 scoop = ¼ cup No. 20 scoop = 3 ⅓ tbsp No. 24 scoop = 2 ⅔ tbsp No. 30 scoop = 2 tbsp No. 40 scoop = 1 ⅔ tbsp No. 50 scoop = 3 ¾ tsp No. 60 scoop = 3 ¼ tsp No. 70 scoop= 2 ¾ tsp No. 100 scoop = 2 tsp Container size, brand name, and market form are components of a food: a. product label. b. inventory sheet. c. standard of identity. d. product specification. d. product specification. To retain the most nutrient value when vegetables are boiled, the cook should: a. cover the vegetables with cold water when cooking is complete. b. cover the vegetables completely with water when cooking. c. cook the vegetables in a small amount of water. d. add baking soda to the water when cooking. c. cook the vegetables in a small amount of water. What is the minimum temperature to which cooked, chilled, boneless turkey breast should be reheated? a. 140°F b. 155°F c. 165°F d. 180°F c. 165°F How many cases of #10 cans of green beans are needed to serve 285 (½ cup) portions? a. 1 b. 1½ c. 2 d. 2½ c. 2 There are 6 #10 cans per case of product, and a typical yield of 25 (½ cup) portions per can. 6 #10 cans × 25 portions per can = 150 portions per case 150 × 2 = 300 (½ cup) portions Answer (a) is not correct because 6 #10 cans × 25 portions per can = 150 portions per case × 1 = 150 (½ cup) portions < 285 (½ cup) portions Answer (b) is not the correct answer because 6 #10 cans × 25 portions per can = 150 portions per case × 1½ = 225 (½ cup) portions < 285 (½ cup) portions Answer (d) is not the correct answer because 6 #10 cans × 25 portions per can = 150 portions per case × 2½ = 375 (½ cup) portions > 225 (½ cup) portions The Occupational Safety and Health Act 1970 was designed to: a. establish specific federal safety guidelines to reduce job injuries. b. allow for minimal exposure to hazardous work conditions. c. prevent discrimination against people with disabilities. d. ensure all chemicals are labeled and wastes are disposed of properly. a. establish specific federal safety guidelines to reduce job injuries. 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