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NCLEX-RN Practice Quiz Test Bank #7 (75 Questions)

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NCLEX-RN Practice Quiz Test Bank #7 (75 Questions) 1. 1. Question After cardiac surgery, a client’s blood pressure measures 126/80 mm Hg. Nurse Katrina determines that mean arterial pressure (MAP) i... s which of the following? o A. 46 mm Hg o B. 80 mm Hg o C. 95 mm Hg o D. 90 mm Hg Incorrect Correct Answer: C. 95 mm Hg Use the following formula to calculate MAP MAP = systolic + 2 (diastolic) MAP = 126 mm Hg + 2 (80 mm Hg) MAP = 286 mm Hg MAP = 95 mm Hg • Option A: 46 mmHg is incorrect according to the calculations. • Option B: 80 mmHg is inadequate according to the formula used in the computation. • Option D: 90 mmHg is incorrect according to the computation using the formula of mean arterial pressure. 2. 2. Question A female client arrives at the emergency department with chest and stomach pain and a report of black tarry stool for several months. Which of the following orders should the nurse Oliver anticipate? • A. Cardiac monitor, oxygen, creatine kinase and lactate dehydrogenase levels • B. Prothrombin time, partial thromboplastin time, fibrinogen and fibrin split product values • C. Electrocardiogram, complete blood count, testing for occult blood, comprehensive serum metabolic panel • D. Electroencephalogram, alkaline phosphatase, and aspartate aminotransferase levels, basic serum metabolic panel Incorrect Correct Answer: C. Electrocardiogram, complete blood count, testing for occult blood, comprehensive serum metabolic panel. An electrocardiogram evaluates the complaints of chest pain, laboratory tests determine anemia, and the stool test for occult blood determines blood in the stool. • Option A: Cardiac monitoring, oxygen, and creatine kinase, and lactate dehydrogenase levels are appropriate for a cardiac primary problem. A basic metabolic panel and alkaline phosphatase and aspartate aminotransferase levels assess liver function. • Option B: Prothrombin time, partial thromboplastin time, fibrinogen and fibrin split products are measured to verify bleeding dyscrasias. • Option D: An electroencephalogram evaluates brain electrical activity. 3. 3. Question Olivia had coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) surgery 3 days ago. Which of the following conditions is suspected by the nurse when a decrease in platelet count from 230,000 ul to 5,000 ul is noted? • A. Pancytopenia • B. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) • C. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) • D. Heparin-associated thrombosis and thrombocytopenia (HATT) Incorrect Correct Answer: D. Heparin-associated thrombosis and thrombocytopenia (HATT) HATT may occur after CABG surgery due to heparin use during surgery. • Option B: ITP is a bleeding condition of unknown cause in which the blood fails to clot adequately because of a low circulating platelet count and a shortened platelet lifespan. • Option C: Although DIC causes platelet aggregation and bleeding, it is common in a client after revascularization surgery. • Option A: Pancytopenia is a reduction in all blood cells. 4. 4. Question Which of the following drugs would be ordered by the physician to improve the platelet count in a male client with idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)? • A. Acetylsalicylic acid (ASA) • B. Corticosteroids • C. Methotrexate • D. Vitamin K Incorrect Correct Answer: B. Corticosteroids Corticosteroid therapy can decrease antibody production and phagocytosis of the antibody-coated platelets, retaining more functioning platelets. • Option A: ASA blocks prostaglandin synthesis. Inhibition of COX-1 results in the inhibition of platelet aggregation for about 7-10 days (average platelet lifespan). • Option C: Methotrexate inhibits enzymes responsible for nucleotide synthesis which prevents cell division and leads to anti-inflammatory actions. It causes thrombocytopenia. • Option D: Vitamin K is used to treat an excessive anticoagulate state from warfarin overload. 5. 5. Question A female client is scheduled to receive a heart valve replacement with a porcine valve. Which of the following types of transplant is this? • A. Allogeneic • B. Autologous • C. Syngeneic • D. Xenogeneic Incorrect Correct Answer: D. Xenogeneic A xenogeneic transplant is between a human and another species. • Option A: Allogeneic transplant is between two humans, • Option B: Autologous is a transplant from the same individual. • Option C: A syngeneic transplant is between identical twins. 6. 6. Question Marco falls off his bicycle and injures his ankle. Which of the following actions shows the initial response to the injury in the extrinsic pathway? • A. Release of Calcium • B. Release of tissue thromboplastin • C. Conversion of factors XII to factor XIIa • D. Conversion of factor VIII to factor VIIIa Incorrect Correct Answer: B. Release of tissue thromboplastin Tissue thromboplastin is released when damaged tissue comes in contact with clotting factors. • Option A: Calcium is released to assist the conversion of factors X to Xa. • Option C: Conversion of factors XII to XIIa are part of the intrinsic pathway. • Option D: Conversion factors VIII to VIIIa are part of the intrinsic pathway. 7. 7. Question Instructions for a client with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) would include information about which of the following blood dyscrasias? • A. Dressler’s syndrome • B. Polycythemia • C. Essential thrombocytopenia • D. Von Willebrand’s disease Incorrect Correct Answer: C. Essential thrombocytopenia Essential thrombocytopenia is linked to immunologic disorders, such as SLE and the human immunodeficiency virus. • Option A: Dressler’s syndrome is pericarditis that occurs after myocardial infarction and isn’t linked to SLE. • Option B: Moderate to severe anemia is associated with SLE, not polycythemia. It is found in about 50% of patients, with anemia of chronic disease being the most common form. • Option D: Von Willebrand disease is a blood disorder in which the blood doesn’t clot properly. Blood contains many proteins that help the body stop bleeding. One of these proteins is called von Willebrand factor. 8. 8. Question The nurse is aware that the following symptom is most commonly an early indication of stage 1 Hodgkin’s disease? • A. Pericarditis • B. Night sweat • C. Splenomegaly • D. Persistent hypothermia Incorrect Correct Answer: B. Night sweat In stage 1, symptoms include a single enlarged lymph node (usually), unexplained fever, night sweats, malaise, and generalized pruritus. • Option A: Pericarditis refers to the inflammation of the pericardium, two thin layers of a sac-like tissue that surround the heart, hold it in place, and help it work. Pericarditis isn’t associated with Hodgkin’s disease, nor is hypothermia. Moreover, splenomegaly and pericarditis aren’t symptoms. • Option C: The spleen is involved in 20%-30% of cases of Hodgkin’s disease. Patients are usually asymptomatic. • Option D: Persistent hypothermia is associated with Hodgkin’s but isn’t an early sign of the disease. 9. 9. Question Francis with leukemia has neutropenia. Which of the following functions must be frequently assessed? • A. Blood pressure • B. Bowel sounds • C. Heart sounds • D. Breath sounds Incorrect Correct Answer: D. Breath sounds Pneumonia, both viral and fungal, is a common cause of death in clients with neutropenia, so frequent assessment [Show More]

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NCLEX-RN Practice Quiz Test Bank SET 1-12 BUNDLE | (900 Questions in Total)

NCLEX-RN Practice Quiz Test Bank SET 1-12 BUNDLE | (900 Questions in Total)

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