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2024 Med Surg 2 Final ATI book Exam Questions & Answers

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2024 Med Surg 2 Final ATI book Exam Questions & Answers-· The nurse is caring for a patient in the clinic setting who complains of vaginal discharge that is thick with a white, cottage cheese-like ap... pearance. The patient states that she has pruritus and irritation. The symptoms seem to be more severe just before menstruation. What should the nurse expect to be included in the plan of care for this patient? o Clindamycin (Cleocin) o Fluconazole (Diflucan) o Metronidazole (Flagyl) o Tinidazole (Tindamax) - Fluconazole (Diflucan). This patient presents with symptoms of a candidiasis infection which should be treated with an antifungal agent such as Diflucan. The other three medications are anti-infectives used to treat bacterial vaginosis and trichomoniasis · When educating the public about eye safety, the nurse would instruct that if chemical exposure or irritant to the eye occurs the eye should be flushed with water for how long? o 5 minutes o 10 minutes o 15 minutes o 20 minutes - Answer: 20 minutes. § When an exposure occurs, the eye should be continuously flushed with tap water for 20 minutes. It is important to begin the flushing process within 5 minutes for the best outcome. Additional education should include saving the bottle or container, if a chemical exposure, for the emergency response providers so the chemical involved is known to provide further emergent care · Which instruction would be appropriate to include in discharge instructions after cataract surgery with a lens implant? o Sleep on the side of the affected eye the night after surgery o Resume normal activities on postoperative day 2 o Avoid bending or stooping for an extended period o Attempt to hold in sneeze if it occurs - Answer: Avoid bending or stooping for an extended period · Which patient is at highest risk for venous thromboembolism? o A. a 50 y/o post op patient o B. 25 y/o patient with central venous catheter in place to treat septicemia o C. 71 y/o otherwise healthy older adult o D. pregnant 30 y/o woman due in two weeks - B · Which woman is at highest risk for cervical cancer? o A 25-year-old woman who smokes and has multiple sexual partners o A 40-year-old woman who had her first child at age 19 years and has been exposed to HPV o An 18-year-old woman who has just had her first sexual encounter o An obese 30-year-old woman who has nutritional deficiencies and a family history of cervical cancer - Answer: An obese 30-year-old woman who has nutritional deficiencies and a family history of cervical cancer · Rationale: Risk factors for cervical cancer include but are not limited to smoking, multiple sexual partners, first child at an early age, exposure to HPV, first sexual encounter at an early age, obesity, nutritional deficiencies, and a family history of cervical cancer. All patients have risk factors, but the 40-year-old woman has the most (three: obesity, nutritional deficiencies, and family history) A 24-year old man seeks medical attention for complaints of claudication in the arch of the foot. A nurse also notes superficial thrombophlebitis of the lower leg. The nurse would next assess the client for: 1.Familial tendency toward peripheral vascular disease 2.Smoking history 3.Recent exposures to allergens 4.History of insect bite - 2. The mixture of arterial and venous manifestations (claudication and phlebitis, respectively) in the young male client suggests Buerger's disease. This is an uncommon disorder characterized by inflammation and thrombosis of smaller arteries and veins. This disorder typically is found in young adult males who smoke. The cause is not known precisely but is suspected to have an autoimmune component. a family member of the client undergoing cataract surgery asks the nurse if there are ways to prevent cataracts. Which recommendations should the nurse suggest? Select all that apply. 1. wear sunglasses that limit UV light penetration 2. wear sunscreen with a high protection factor number 3. wear eye protection if there is any risk for eye injury 4. avoid activities and reading in dimly lit environments 5. eat foods that are high in Vitamin C, such as oranges - 1, 3 Limiting eye exposure to UV light has been found to decrease the risk for cataracts Avoiding trauma to the eye has been found to decrease the risk for cataracts A nurse in a clinic receives a phone call from a client seeking information about his new prescription for erythropoietin (Epogen). Which of the following information should be reviewed with the client? A. The client needs an erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) test weekly. B. The client should have his hemoglobin checked twice a week. C. Oxygen saturation levels should be monitored. D. Folic acid production will increase. - B A nurse in an outpatient clinic is assessing a client who reports night sweats and fatigue. He states he had a cough along with nausea and diarrhea. His temperature is 38.1 C orally. The client is afraid he has HIV. Which action should the nurse take? Select all that apply. a. perform a physical assessment b. determine when s/s began c. teach the client about HIV transmission d. draw blood for HIV testing e. obtain a sexual history - a, b, e A nurse is assessing a client for HIV. Which are risk factors? Select all that apply. a. perinatal exposure b. pregnancy c. monogamous sex partner d. older woman adult e. occupational exposure - A, D, E A nurse is assessing a client who has PAD. Which of the following should the nurse expect? a. edema around ankles and feet b. ulceration around the medial malleoli c. scaling edema of the lower legs with stasis dermatitis d. pallor on elevation of the limbs, and rubber when the limbs are dependent - D. In a client who has PAD, pallor is seen in the extremities when the limbs are elevated, and rubor occurs when they are lowered A nurse is caring for a client who has a DVT and has been taking heparin for a week. Two days ago, the provider also prescribed warfarin. The client asks the nurse about receiving both at the same time. What should the nurse say? a. I will remind your provider that you are already receiving heparin b. your lab findings indicate that 2 anticoagulants are needed c. it takes 3-4 days for the therapeutic effects of warfarin, and then heparin can be discontinued d. only one of these medications are being given to treat your DVT - C. warfarin depresses synthesis of clotting factors but does not have an effect on clotting factors that are present. It takes 3-4 days for the clotting factors that are present to decay and for the therapeutic effects of warfarin to occur. A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic venous insufficiency and a prescription for thigh high compression stockings. Which action should the nurse take? a. elevate legs for 10 min, 2-3 times a day while wearing stockings b. apply the stockings in the morning upon awakening and before getting out of bed c. roll the stockings down to the knees to relieve discomfort on the legs d. remove the stockings while out of bed for 1 hour, 4 times a day, to allow the legs to rest - B. Applying the stockings in the morning upon waking up before getting out of bed reduces venous stasis and assists in the venous return of blood to the heart. a nurse is caring for a client who is suspected of having HIV. The nurse should identify that which of the following DX tests and lab values are used to confirm HIV infection? Select all that apply. a. western blot b. Indirect immunofluorescence assay c. CD4+ T-lymphocyte count d. HIV RNA quantification test e. CSF analysis - a, b A nurse is completing an integumentary assessment of a client who has anemia. Which finding should the nurse expect? a. Absent turgor b. spoon-shaped nails c. shiny, hairless legs d. Yellow mucous membranes - B A nurse is planning care for a client with hgb of 7.1 and hct of 21.5%. Which actions should the nurse take? Select all that apply a. provide assistance with ambulation b. monitor O2 levels c. weigh the client weekly d. obtain stool specimen for occult blood e. schedule daily rest periods - A, B, D, E A nurse is providing teaching for a client who has stage 2 HIV and is having difficulty maintaining a normal weight. Which of the following statements by the client should indicate to the nurse an understanding of the teaching? a. I will choose to diet high in fat to help gain weight b. I will be sure to eat 3 large meals a day c. I will drink up to 1 liter of fluid a day d. I will add high-protein foods to my diet - D. high protein and high calorie is the best way to gain weight and maintain health a nurse is providing teaching for a client who has stage 3 HIV disease. Which of the following statements by the client should indicate to the nurse an understanding of the teaching? a. I will wear gloves while changing the kitty litter b. I will rinse raw fruits with water before eating them c. I will wear a mask when around family members who are ill d. I will cook vegetables before eating them - D, no raw fruits/veggies A nurse is teaching a client who has a new diagnosis of severe peripheral arterial disease. Which should the nurse include? a. Wear tightly fitting insulated socks with shoes when going outside b. elevate both legs above heart when resting c. apply a heating pad to both legs for comfort d. place both legs in dependent position while sleeping - D. Such as hanging off of the bed. This can alleviate swelling and discomfort of the legs A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for clopidogrel. Select all that the nurse should include. a. avoid consumption of grapefruit b. monitor black and tarry stools c. take this when you have pain d. schedule weekly PT test e. Limit food sources containing vit. K while taking this - A, B A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for ferrous sulfate. Which should the nurse include in the teaching? a. Stools will be dark red b. take with a glass of milk if GI distress occurs c. foods high in Vitamin C will promote absorption d. take for 14 days - C. Vitamin C helps absorb iron A patient has severe peripheral venous disease. What important information below will the nurse provide to the patient about how to alleviate signs and symptoms associated with the disease? Select all that apply: 1.Elevate the lower extremities below heart level frequently 2. Application of compression stockings 3. Limit long periods of standing and sitting 4. Use the knee-flexed position while lying in bed - 2, 3 is the following true or false. When having a reaction to a blood transfusion, patients will present with the same symptoms and assessment changes. - False, there are a variety of complications and reactions that can occur from a blood transfusion. Depending on the type will determine the presenting symptoms Laboratory tests are prescribed for the client who has a smooth and reddened tongue and ulcers at the corners of the mouth. Which result would the nurse find if the client has an iron-deficiency anemia? a. low hgb and hct b. elevated RBCs c. prolonged prothrombin time (PT) d. Elevated WBCs - a. a smooth, red tongue, ulcers at the corners of the mouth (angular cheilosis), and a low hgb are signs of iron-deficiency anemia T or F: A cochlear implant is an auditory prosthesis used for people with profound sensorineural hearing loss bilaterally who do not benefit from conventional hearing aids - true The 45 y/o diagnosed with HIV presents to the clinic requesting the receive herpes zoster vaccine live. Which statement by the nurse is accurate concerning administration of zoster vaccine live to this client? 1. Zoster vaccine live is an appropriate vaccine for someone at your age 2. Zoster vaccine live is a live virus that could be problematic for you 3. Zoster vaccine live is best administered in childhood to be effective 4. Zoster vaccine live will prevent you from contracting chicken pox - 2. Since the client is immunocompromised from HIV infection, the live vaccine would be contraindicated The 60 y/o client notices a gradual decline in visual acuity and asks if it could be from a cataract. Which question will help determine whether a cataract is developing? 1. Has your ability to perceive colors changed? 2. Does you vision appear distorted or wavy? 3. Does the center of your visual field appear dark? 4. Do you see random flashes of bright light? - 1. asking about a change in the ability to perceive colors will help in determining cataract development. Cataract formation involves the lens of the eye becoming more opaque, thus decreasing the vibrancy of colors The client asks the nurse about symptoms associated with retinal detachment. Which symptoms should the nurse identify? Select all that apply. 1. seeing bright flashes of light 2. Shooting, throbbing eye pain 3. severe frontal headache 4. diminished visual acuity 5. seeing floating dark spots in the visual field - 1, 4, 5 As the choroid and retina partially separate, the client notices flashes of light As the choroid and retina partially separate, the client notices a decreased vision, often like "a curtain being drawn across" ...the client notices floating dark spots The client comes to the emergency department complaining of pain in the left lower leg following a puncture wound from a nail in a board. The left lower leg is reddened with streaks, edematous, and hot to the touch, and the client has a temperature of 100.8o F. Which condition would the nurse suspect the client is experiencing? 1.Cellulitis. 2.Lyme disease. 3.Impetigo. 4.Deep vein thrombosis. - 1.Cellulitis is a bacterial infection of the subcutaneous tissue usually associated with a break in the skin, and the nurse would suspect this with these signs/ symptoms. [Show More]

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