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HESI Med Surg Exam,Verified answers;Latest summer 2019/2020

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HESI Med Surg Exam An ER nurse is completing an assessment on a patient that is alert but struggles to answer questions. When she attempts to talk, she slurs her speech and appears very frightened. W... hat additional clinical manifestation does the nurse expect to find if nacy's sysmptoms have been caused by a brain attack (stroke)? A. A carotid bruit B. A hypotensive blood pressure C. hyperreflexic deep tendon relexes. D. Decreased bowel sounds Which clinical manifestation further supports an assessment of a left-sided brain attack? A) Visual field deficit on the left side. B) Spatial-perceptual deficits. C) Paresthesia of the left side. D) Global aphasia. When preparing a patient for a noncontrast computed tomography (CT) scan STAT, what nursing intervention should the nurse implement? A) Determine if the client has any allergies to iodine B) Explain that the client will not be able to move her head throughout the CT scan. C) Premedicate the client to decrease pain prior to having the procedure. D) Provide an explanation of relaxation exercises prior to the procedure. A neurologist prescribes a magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the head STAT for a patient. Which data warrants immediate intervention by the nurse concerning this diagnostic test? A) Elevated blood pressure. B) Allergy to shell fish. C) Right hip replacement. D) History of atrial fibrillation. A client's daughter is sitting by her mother's bedside who was recently transferred to the Intermediate Care Unit. She states "I don't understand what a brain attack is. The healthcare provider told me my mother is in serious condition and they are going to run several tests. I just don't know what is going on. What happened to my mother?" What is the best response by the nurse? A) "I am sorry, but according to the Health Insurance Portability and Accounting Act (HIPAA), I cannot give you any information." B) "Your mother has had a stroke, and the blood supply to the brain has been blocked." C) "How do you feel about what the healthcare provider said?" D) "I will call the healthcare provider so he/she can talk to you about your mother's serious condition." What is the normal range for cardiac output? A client was admitted with the diagnosis of a brain attack. Their symptoms began 24 hours before being admitted. Why would this client not be a candidate for for thrombolytic therapy? What are plate guards? Which condition is considered a non-modifiable risk factor for a brain attack? A) High cholesterol levels. B) Obesity. C) History of atrial fibrillation. D) Advanced age. A client is experiencing homonymous hemianopsia as the result of a brain attack. Which nursing intervention would the nurse implement to address this condition? A) Turn Nancy every two hours and perform active range of motion exercises. B) Place the objects Nancy needs for activities of daily living on the left side of the table. C) Speak slowly and clearly to assist Nancy in forming sounds to words. D) Request that the dietary department thicken all liquids on Nancy's meal and snack trays. A physical therapist (PT) places a gait belt on a client and is assisting them with ambulation from the bed to the chair. As they get up out of the bed, they report being dizzy and begin to fall. The PT carefully allows them to fall back to the bed and notifies the primary nurse. Which written documentation should the nurse put in the client's record? A) Client experienced orthostatic hypotension when getting out of bed. B) PT reported client complained of dizziness when getting out of bed, and gait belt was used to allow client to fall back onto the bed. C) PT notified the primary nurse that the client could not ambulate at this time because of dizziness. D) Client had difficulty ambulating from the bed to the chair when accompanied by the PT, variance report completed. A new nurse graduate is caring for a postoperative client with the following arterial blood gases (ABGs): pH, 7.30; PCO2, 60 mm Hg; PO2, 80 mm Hg; bicarbonate, 24 mEq/L; and O2 saturation, 96%. Which of these actions by the new graduate is indicated? A) Encourage the client to use the incentive spirometer and to cough. B) Administer oxygen by nasal cannula. C) Request a prescription for sodium bicarbonate from the health care provider. D) Inform the charge nurse that no changes in therapy are needed. The nurse is providing dietary instructions to a 68-year-old client who is at high risk for development of coronary heart disease (CHD). Which information should the nurse include? A) Limit dietary selection of cholesterol to 300 mg per day B) Increase intake of soluble fiber to 10 to 25 grams per day. C) Decrease plant stanols and sterols to less than 2 grams/day. D) Ensure saturated fat is less than 30% of total caloric intake. A splint is prescribed for nighttime use by a client with rheumatoid arthritis. Which statement by the nurse provides the most accurate explanation for use of the splints? A) Prevention of deformities. B) Avoidance of joint trauma. C) Relief of joint inflammation. D) Improvement in joint strength. A 32-year-old female client complains of severe abdominal pain each month before her menstrual period, painful intercourse, and painful defecation. Which additional history should the nurse obtain that is consistent with the client's complaints? A) Frequent urinary tract infections. B) Inability to get pregnant. C) Premenstrual syndrome. D) Chronic use of laxatives. A client with a 16-year history of diabetes mellitus is having renal function tests because of recent fatigue, weakness, elevated blood urea nitrogen, and serum creatinine levels. Which finding should the nurse conclude as an early symptom of renal insufficiency? A) Dyspnea. B) Nocturia. C) Confusion. D) Stomatitis. A client with heart disease is on a continuous telemetry monitor and has developed sinus bradycardia. In determining the possible cause of the bradycardia, the nurse assesses the client's medication record. Which medication is most likely the cause of the bradycardia? A) Propanolol (Inderal). B) Captopril (Capoten). C) Furosemide (Lasix). D) Dobutamine (Dobutrex). A client has been taking oral corticosteroids for the past five days because of seasonal allergies. Which assessment finding is of most concern to the nurse? A) White blood count of 10,000 mm3. B) Serum glucose of 115 mg/dl. C) Purulent sputum. D) Excessive hunger. A female client receiving IV vasopressin (Pitressin) for esophageal varice rupture reports to the nurse that she feels substernal tightness and pressure across her chest. Which PRN protocol should the nurse initiate? A) Start an IV nitroglycerin infusion. B) Nasogastric lavage with cool saline. C) Increase the vasopressin infusion. D) Prepare for endotracheal intubation. A client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) has been experiencing severe reflux during sleep. Which recommendation by the nurse is most effective to assist the client? A) Losing weight. B) Decreasing caffeine intake. C) Avoiding large meals. D) Raising the head of the bed on blocks. The nurse is caring for a client with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH), which is manifested by which symptoms? A) Loss of thirst, weight gain. B) Dependent edema, fever. C) Polydipsia, polyuria. D) Hypernatremia, tachypnea. The nurse is planning care for a client with newly diagnosed diabetes mellitus that requires insulin. Which assessment should the nurse identify before beginning the teaching session? A) Present knowledge related to the skill of injection. B) Intelligence and developmental level of the client. C) Willingness of the client to learn the injection sites. D) Financial resources available for the equipment. The nurse is caring for a client who has taken a large quantity of furosemide (Lasix) to promote weight loss. The nurse anticipates the finding of which acid-base imbalance? A) PO2 of 78 mm Hg B) HCO3 of 34 mEq/L C) PCO2 of 56 mm Hg D) pH of 7.31 The nurse is preparing a teaching plan for a client who is newly diagnosed with Type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which signs and symptoms should the nurse describe when teaching the client about hypoglycemia? A) Sweating, trembling, tachycardia. B) Polyuria, polydipsia, polyphagia. C) Nausea, vomiting, anorexia. D) Fruity breath, tachypnea, chest pain. Which reaction should the nurse identify in a client who is responding to stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system? A) Pupil constriction. B) Increased heart rate. C) Bronchial constriction. D) Decreased blood pressure. Which client should the nurse recognize as most likely to experience sleep apnea? A) Middle-aged female who takes a diuretic nightly. B) Obese older male client with a short, thick neck. C) Adolescent female with a history of tonsillectomy. D) School-aged male with a history of hyperactivity disorder. To decrease the risk of acid-base imbalance, what goal must the client with diabetes mellitus strive for? A) Checking blood glucose levels once daily B) Drinking 3 L of fluid per day C) Eating regularly, every 4 to 8 hours D) Maintaining blood glucose level within normal limits After the fourth dose of gentamicin sulfate (Garamycin) IV, the nurse plans to draw blood samples to determine peak and trough levels. When are the best times to draw these samples? A) 15 minutes before and 15 minutes after the next dose. B) One hour before and one hour after the next dose. C) 5 minutes before and 30 minutes after the next dose. D) 30 minutes before and 30 minutes after the next dose. The nurse is caring for a client with an oxygen saturation of 88% and accessory muscle use. The nurse provides oxygen and anticipates which of these physician orders? A) Administration of IV sodium bicarbonate B) Computed tomography (CT) of the chest, stat C) Intubation and mechanical ventilation D) Administration of concentrated potassium chloride solution A male client receives a local anesthetic during surgery. During the post-operative assessment, the nurse notices the client is slurring his speech. Which action should the nurse take? A) Determine the client is anxious and allow him to sleep. B) Evaluate his blood pressure, pulse, and respiratory status. C) Review the client's pre-operative history for alcohol abuse. D) Continue to monitor the client for reactivity to anesthesia. When providing discharge teaching for a client with osteoporosis, the nurse should reinforce which home care activity? A) A diet low in phosphates. B) Skin inspection for bruising. C) Exercise regimen, including swimming. D) Elimination of hazards to home safety. During lung assessment, the nurse places a stethoscope on a client's chest and instructs him/her to say "99" each time the chest is touched with the stethoscope. What should be the correct interpretation if the nurse hears the spoken words "99" very clearly through the stethoscope? A) This is a normal auscultatory finding. B) May indicate pneumothorax. C) May indicate pneumonia. D) May indicate severe emphysema. The nurse is caring for a group of clients with acidosis. The nurse recognizes that Kussmaul respirations are consistent with which situation? A) Client receiving mechanical ventilation B) Use of hydrochlorothiazide C) Aspirin overdose D) Administration of sodium bicarbonate During an interview with a client planning elective surgery, the client asks the nurse, "What is the advantage of having a preferred provider organization insurance plan?" Which response is best for the nurse to provide? A) Long-term relationships with healthcare providers are more likely. B) There are fewer healthcare providers to choose from than in an HMO plan. C) Insurance coverage of employees is less expensive to employers. D) An individual can become a member of a PPO without belonging to a group. A client has taken steroids for 12 years to help manage chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). When making a home visit, which nursing function is of greatest importance to this client? Assess the client's A) pulse rate, both apically and radially. B) blood pressure, both standing and sitting. C) temperature. D) skin color and turgor. The nurse is teaching a female client who uses a contraceptive diaphragm about reducing the risk for toxic shock syndrome (TSS). Which information should the nurse include? (Select all that apply.) A) Remove the diaphragm immediately after intercourse. B) Wash the diaphragm with an alcohol solution. C) Use the diaphragm to prevent conception during the menstrual cycle. D) Do not leave the diaphragm in place longer than 8 hours after intercourse. E) Contact a healthcare provider a sudden onset of fever grater than 101º F appears. F) Replace the old diaphragm every 3 months. A middle-aged male client with diabetes continues to eat an abundance of foods that are high in sugar and fat. According to the Health Belief Model, which event is most likely to increase the client's willingness to become compliant with the prescribed diet? A) He visits his diabetic brother who just had surgery to amputate an infected foot. B) He is provided with the most current information about the dangers of untreated diabetes. C) He comments on the community service announcements about preventing complications associated with diabetes. D) His wife expresses a sincere willingness to prepare meals that are within his prescribed diet. A female client taking oral contraceptives reports to the nurse that she is experiencing calf pain. What action should the nurse implement? A) Determine if the client has also experienced breast tenderness and weight gain. B) Encourage the client to begin a regular, daily program of walking and exercise. C) Advise the client to notify the healthcare provider for immediate medical attention. D) Tell the client to stop taking the medication for a week to see if symptoms subside. A female client requests information about using the calendar method of contraception. Which assessment is most important for the nurse to obtain? A) Amount of weight gain or weight loss during the previous year. B) An accurate menstrual cycle diary for the past 6 to 12 months. C) Skin pigmentation and hair texture for evidence of hormonal changes. D) Previous birth-control methods and beliefs about the calendar method. The nurse knows that lab values sometimes vary for the older client. Which data should the nurse expect to find when reviewing laboratory values of an 80-year-old male? A) Increased WBC, decreased RBC. B) Increased serum bilirubin, slightly increased liver enzymes. C) Increased protein in the urine, slightly increased serum glucose levels. D) Decreased serum sodium, an increased urine specific gravity. Which postmenopausal client's complaint should the nurse refer to the healthcare provider? A) Breasts feel lumpy when palpated. B) History of white nipple discharge. C) Episodes of vaginal bleeding. D) Excessive diaphoresis occurs at night. The nurse is assisting a client out of bed for the first time after surgery. What action should the nurse do first? A) Place a chair at a right angle to the bedside. B) Encourage deep breathing prior to standing. C) Help the client to sit and dangle legs on the side of the bed. D) Allow the client to sit with the bed in a high Fowler's position. The nurse is receiving report from surgery about a client with a penrose drain who is to be admitted to the postoperative unit. Before choosing a room for this client, which information is most important for the nurse to obtain? A) If suctioning will be needed for drainage of the wound. B) If the family would prefer a private or semi-private room. C) If the client also has a Hemovac® in place. D) If the client's wound is infected. A patient admitted for a head injusry develops dry skin and urine output of 600 mL/hr. Which of the following interventions should the nurse perform first? a) Assess the patient's urine specific gravity b) Slow IV fluid infusion rate c) Assess the patient's level of conciousness d) Notify the physician A patient is prescribed dexamethasone (Decadron) to reduce cerebral edema after a motor vehicle accident. Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse expect if this treatment is effective? a) Increased response to stimuli b) decreased urine output c) respiration rate of 12 d) Increased blood pressure The nurse is assessing a client who is bedfast and refuses to turn or move from a supine position. How should the nurse assess the client for possible dependent edema? A) Compress the flank and upper buttocks. B) Measure the client's abdominal girth. C) Gently palpate the lower abdomen. D) Apply light pressure over the shins. A male client with chronic atrial fibrillation and a slow ventricular response is scheduled for surgical placement of a permanent pacemaker. The client asks the nurse how this devise will help him. How should the nurse explain the action of a synchronous pacemaker? A) Ventricular irritability is prevented by the constant rate setting of pacemaker. B) Ectopic stimulus in the atria is suppressed by the device usurping depolarization. C) An impulse is fired every second to maintain a heart rate of 60 beats per minute. D) An electrical stimulus is discharged when no ventricular response is sensed. The unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) reports that an 87-year-old female client who is sitting in a chair at the bedside has an oral temperature of 97.2° F. Which intervention should the nurse implement? A) Document the temperature reading on the vital sign graphic sheet. B) Report the temperature to the healthcare provider immediately. C) Instruct the UAP to take the client's temperature again in 30 minutes. D) Advise the UAP to assist the client in returning to her bed. The nurse is completing the health assessment of a 79-year-old male client who denies any significant health problems. Which finding requires the most immediate follow-up assessment? A) Kyphosis with a reduction in height. B) Dilated superficial veins on both legs. C) External hemorrhoids with itching. D) Yellowish discoloration of the sclerae. Which finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider for a client with a circumferential extremity burn? A) Full thickness burns rather than partial thickness. B) Supinates extremity but unable to fully pronate the extremity. C) Slow capillary refill in the digits with absent distal pulse points. D) Inability to distinguish sharp versus dull sensations in the extremity. The nurse completes visual inspection of a client's abdomen. What technique should the nurse perform next in the abdominal examination? A) Percussion. B) Auscultation. C) Deep palpation. D) Light palpation. A client who has just tested positive for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) does not appear to hear what the nurse is saying during post-test counseling. Which information should the nurse offer to facilitate the client's adjustment to HIV infection? A) Inform the client how to protect sexual and needle-sharing partners. B) Teach the client about the medications that are available for treatment. C) Identify the need to test others who have had risky contact with the client. D) Discuss retesting to verify the results, which will ensure continuing contact. The nurse hears short, high-pitched sounds just before the end of inspiration in the right and left lower lobes when auscultating a client's lungs. How should this finding be recorded? A) Inspiratory wheezes in both lungs. B) Crackles in the right and left lower lobes. C) Abnormal lung sounds in the bases of both lungs. D) Pleural friction rub in the right and left lower lobes. A client asks the nurse about the purpose of beginning chemotherapy (CT) because the tumor is still very small. Which information supports the explanation that the nurse should provide? A) Side effects are less likely if therapy is started early. B) Collateral circulation increases as the tumor grows. C) Sensitivity of cancer cells to CT is based on cell cycle rate. D) The cell count of the tumor reduces by half with each dose. The nurse is caring for a client with non-Hodgkin's lymphoma who is receiving chemotherapy. Laboratory results reveal a platelet count of 10,000/ml. What action should the nurse implement? A) Encourage fluids to 3000 ml/day. B) Check stools for occult blood. C) Provide oral hygiene every 2 hours. D) Check for fever every 4 hours. The nurse is caring for a client with end stage liver disease who is being assessed for the presence of asterixis. To assess the client for asterixis, what position should the nurse ask the client to demonstrate? A) Extend the left arm laterally with the left palm upward. B) Extend the arm, dorsiflex the wrist, and extend the fingers. C) Extend the arms and hold this position for 30 seconds. D) Extend arms with both legs adducted to shoulder width. During the assessment of a client who is 24 hours post-hemicolectomy with a temporary colostomy, the nurse determines that the client's stoma is dry and dark red in color. What action should the nurse implement? A) Notify the surgeon. B) Document the assessment. C) Secure a colostomy pouch over the stoma. D) Place petrolatum gauze dressing over the stoma. What assessment finding should the nurse identify that indicates a client with an acute asthma exacerbation is beginning to improve after treatment? A) Wheezing becomes louder. B) Cough remains unproductive. C) Vesicular breath sounds decrease. D) Bronchodilators stimulate coughing. A client is admitted to the emergency department after being lost for four days while hiking in a national forest. Upon review of the laboratory results, the nurse determines the client's serum level for thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) is elevated. Which additional assessment should the nurse make? A) Body mass index. B) Skin elasticity and turgor. C) Thought processes and speech. D) Exposure to cold environmental temperatures. Which method elicits the most accurate information during a physical assessment of an older client? A) Ask the client to recount one's health history. B) Obtain the client's information from a caregiver. C) Review the past medical record for medications. D) Use reliable assessment tools for older adults. The nurse obtains a client's history that includes right mastectomy and radiation therapy for cancer of the breast 10 years ago. Which current health problem should the nurse consider is a consequence of the radiation therapy? A) Asthma. B) Myocardial infarction. C) Chronic esophagitis with gastroesophageal reflux. D) Pathologic fracture of two ribs on the right chest. Three weeks after discharge for an acute myocardial infarction (MI), a client returns to the cardiac center for follow-up. When the nurse asks about sleep patterns, the client tells the nurse that he sleeps fine but that his wife moved into the spare bedroom to sleep when he returned home. He states, I guess we will never have sex again after this. Which response is best for the nurse to provide? A) Sexual intercourse can be strenuous on your heart, but closeness and intimacy, such as holding and cuddling, can be maintained with your wife. B) Sexual activity can be resumed whenever you and your wife feel like it because the sexual response is more emotional rather than physical. C) You should discuss your questions about your sexual activity with your healthcare provider because sexual activity may be limited by your heart damage. D) Sexual activity is similar in cardiac workload and energy expenditure as climbing two flights of stairs and may be resumed like other activities. An 85-year-old male client comes to the clinic for his annual physical exam and renewal of antihypertensive medication prescriptions. The client's radial pulse rate is 104 beats/minute. Which additional assessment should the nurse complete? A) Palpate the pedal pulse volume. B) Count the brachial pulse rate. C) Measure the blood pressure. D) Assess for a carotid bruit. The nurse is preparing a teaching plan for a client with newly diagnosed glacoma and a history of allergic rhinitis. Which information is most important for the nurse to provide the client about using over-the-counter (OTC) medications for allergies? A) Notify your healthcare provider if there is an increase in heart rate. B) Increase fluid intake while taking an antihistamine or decongestant. C) Avoid allergy medications that contain pseudoephedrine or phenylephrine. D) Ophthalmic lubricating drops may be used for eye dryness due to allergy medications. The nurse should explain to a client with lung cancer that pleurodesis is performed to achieve which expected outcome? A) Prevent the formation of effusion fluid. B) Remove fluid from the intrapleural space. C) Debulk tumor to maintain patency of air passages. D) Relieve empyema after pneumonectomy. A female client with type 2 diabetes mellitus reports dysuria. Which assessment finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider? A) Suprapubic pain and distention. B) Bounding pulse at 100 beats/minute. C) Fingerstick glucose of 300 mg/dl. D) Small vesicular perineal lesions. A nurse is preparing a teaching plan for a client who is post-menopausal. Which measure is most important for the nurse to include to prevent osteoporosis? A) Take a multivitamin daily. B) Use only low fat milk products. C) Perform weight resistance exercises. D) Bicycle for at least 3 miles every day. A young adult female reports that she is experiencing a lack of appetite, hypersomnia, stress incontinence, and heart palpitations. Which symptom is characteristic of premenstrual syndrome? A) Heart palpitations. B) Anorexia. C) Hypersomnia. D) Stress incontinence. A nurse is preparing to insert an IV catheter after applying an eutectic mixture of lidocaine and prilocaine (EMLA), a topical anesthetic cream. What action should the nurse take to maximize its therapeutic effect? A) Rub a liberal amount of cream into the skin thoroughly. B) Cover the skin with a gauze dressing after applying the cream. C) Leave the cream on the skin for 1 to 2 hours before the procedure. D) Use the smallest amount of cream necessary to numb the skin surface. A 26-year-old male client with Hodgkin's disease is scheduled to undergo radiation therapy. The client expresses concern about the effect of radiation on his ability to have children. What information should the nurse provide? A) The radiation therapy causes the inability to have an erection. B) Radiation therapy with chemotherapy causes temporary infertility. C) Permanent sterility occurs in male clients who receive radiation. D) The client should restrict sexual activity during radiotherapy. The nurse is preparing discharge instructions for a client who is going home with a surgical wound on the coccyx that is healing by second intention. What is the priority nursing diagnosis that should guide the discharge instruction plan? A) Acute pain. B) Risk for infection. C) Disturbed body image. D) Risk for deficient fluid volume. The nurse is preparing an adult client for an upper gastrointestinal (UGI) series. Which information should the nurse include in the teaching plan? A) The xray procedure may last for several hours. B) A nasogastric tube (NGT) is inserted to instill the barium. C) Enemas are given to empty the bowel after the procedure. D) Nothing by mouth is allowed for 6 to 8 hours before the study. A client is admitted to the hospital with a traumatic brain injury after his head violently struck a brick wall during a gang fight. Which finding is most important for the nurse to assess further? A) A scalp laceration oozing blood. B) Serosanguineous nasal drainage. C) Headache rated 10 on a 0-10 scale. D) Dizziness, nausea and transient confusion. When planning care for a client with right renal calculi, which nursing diagnosis has the highest priority? A) Acute pain related to movement of the stone. B) Impaired urinary elimination related to obstructed flow of urine. C) Risk for infection related to urinary stasis. D) Deficient knowledge related to need for prevention of recurrence of calculi. What instruction should the nurse include in the discharge teaching for a client who needs to perform self-catheterization technique at home? A) Catheterize every 3 to 4 hours. B) Maintain sterile technique. C) Use the Credé maneuver before catheterization. D) Drink 500 ml of fluid within 2 hours of catheterization. The nurse is preparing a client for orthopedic surgery on the left leg and completing a safety checklist before transport to the operating room. Which items should the nurse remove from the client? (Select all that apply.) A) Nail polish. B) Hearing aid. C) Wedding band. D) Left leg brace. E) Contact lenses. F) Partial dentures. A client's prostate-specific antigen (PSA) exam result showed a PSA density of 0.13 ng/ml. Which conclusion regarding this lab data is accurate? A) Probable prostatitis. B) Low risk for prostate cancer. C) The presence of cancer cells. D) Biopsy of the prostate is indicated. The nurse is providing postoperative instructions for a female client after a mastectomy. Which information should the nurse include in the teaching plan? (Select all that apply.) A) Empty surgical drains once a week using procedure gloves. B) Report inflammation of the incision site or the affected arm. C) Wear clothing with snug sleeves over the arm on the operative side. D) Avoid lifting more than 4.5 kg (10 lb) or reaching above her head. , or tight jewelry, should be avoided. Which sexually transmitted infection (STI) should the nurse include in a client's teaching plan about the risk for cervical cancer? A) Neisseria gonorrhoea. B) Chlamydia trachomatis. C) Herpes simplex virus. D) Human papillomavirus. A client who returns to the unit after having a percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA) complains of acute chest pain. What action should the nurse implement next? A) Inform the healthcare provider. B) Obtain a 12-lead electrocardiogram. C) Give a sublingual nitroglycerin tablet. D) Administer prescribed analgesic. A client is admitted to the Emergency Department with a tension pneumothorax. Which assessment should the nurse expect to identify? A) An absence of lung sounds on the affected side. B) An inability to auscultate tracheal breath sounds. C) A deviation of the trachea toward the side opposite the pneumothorax. D) A shift of the point of maximal impulse to the left, with bounding pulses. A middle-aged male client asks the nurse what findings from his digital rectal examination (DRE) prompted the healthcare provider to prescribe a repeat serum prostatic surface antigen (PSA) level. What information should the nurse provide? A) A uniformly enlarged prostate is benign prostatic hypertrophy that occurs with aging. B) The spongy or elastic texture of the prostate is normal and requires no further testing. C) An infection is usually present when the prostate indents when a finger is pressed on it. D) Stony, irregular nodules palpated on the prostate should be further evaluated. What is the primary nursing diagnosis for a client with asymptomatic primary syphilis? A) Acute pain. B) Risk for injury. C) Sexual dysfunction. D) Deficient knowledge. The nurse is caring for a client with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection who develops Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC). What is the most significant desired outcome for this client? A) Free from injury of drug side effects. B) Return to pre-illness weight. C) Adequate oxygenation. D) Maintenance of intact perineal skin. The nurse is caring for a client receiving tamoxifen (Nolvadex) for the treatment of breast cancer. Which action should the nurse include in the client's plan of care? A) Increase fluid intake. B) Monitor sodium chloride intake. C) Assist the client in coping with hot flashes. D) Encourage milk products to increase calcium intake. A client in the preoperative holding area receives a prescription for midazolam (Versed) IV. The nurse determines that the surgical consent form needs to be signed by the client. Which action should the nurse implement? A) Give the drug and allow the client to read and sign the consent form. B) Counter-sign the client's initials on the consent form after giving the drug. C) Withhold the drug until the client validates understanding of the surgical procedure and signs the consent form. D) Call the healthcare provider to explain the surgical procedure before the client signs the consent. A client who is receiving the sixth unit of packed red blood cell transfusion is demonstrating signs and symptoms of a febrile, nonhemolytic reaction. [Show More]

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1. What percent of blunt chest injuries require operation? Answer: <10% 2. What % of penetrating chest trauma requires surgery Answer: 15-30% 3. Goal of early intervention of thoracic trauma Answ...

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 *NURSING> EXAM > 2024 ATLS Module 5 - Abdominal & Pelvic Trauma Latest Questions With Complete Grade A Answers (All)

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2024 ATLS Module 5 - Abdominal & Pelvic Trauma Latest Questions With Complete Grade A Answers

1. why is significant blood loss into the abdominal cavity sometimes hard tonotice? Answer: significant blood loss can be present in the abdominal cavity without a dramatic change in the external ap...

By ExamNavigator , Uploaded: Apr 11, 2024

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