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 Health Care > EXAM > TEST BANK FOR WILLIAMS’ BASIC NUTRITION AND DIET THERAPY 16TH EDITION BY NIX/ Chapter 01: Food, Nutrition, and Health Nix: Williams’ Basic Nutrition and Diet Therapy, 16th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Promoting a health care service that improves diabetes management for the elderly in a community would assist in which of the following? a. Supporting the national health goals Healthy People 2020 b. Reducing hunger in a subset of the United States population c. Improving Medicare reimbursement claims d. Providing access to primary health care services ANS: A Healthy People 2020 has a wide influence and is the focus of the nation’s main objective to promote health and prevent disease. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: p. 2 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance 2. A patient requires a nutrition assessment. The most appropriate professional to perform the assessment is a a. physician. b. nurse. c. public health nutritionist. d. registered dietitian. ANS: D The registered dietitian is the nutrition expert registered with the Commission of Dietetic Registration (CDR), the certifying agency of Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics. Registered dietitians are the only professionals who have met strict educational and professional prerequisites and passed a national registration examination that properly prepares them to conduct a nutrition assessment. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: p. 1 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Safe and Effective Care Environment: Management of Care 3. The sum of all body processes inside living cells that sustain life and health is a. science. b. digestion. c. metabolism. d. nutrition. ANS: C Metabolism is the sum of all chemical changes that take place in the body. Metabolism provides energy, builds tissue, and regulates metabolic processes in the body. DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: p. 3 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity: Physiological Adaptation 4. The nutrients that provide the body with its primary source of fuel for energy are a. vitamins. b. minerals. c. fiber. d. carbohydrates. ANS: D Carbohydrates (e.g., starches and sugars) are the body’s primary fuel to carry out necessary processes; fat is the secondary source of energy. DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: p. 4 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity: Physiological Adaptation 5. Which of the following is the most accurate statement regarding the functions of protein? a. Proteins can be a primary fuel source even if there is adequate carbohydrate intake. b. Proteins are a necessary nutrient to provide energy for the body in times of stress. c. Proteins can be used as coenzyme factors during cell metabolism. d. Proteins are essential to building and repairing tissues within the body. ANS: D The primary function of proteins is to provide amino acids, which are the building units necessary to building and repairing tissues within the body. This is a constant process that ensures adequate growth and maintenance of tissues for a strong body. DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: p. 4 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity: Physiological Adaptation 6. A 65-year-old man requires 20 00 k c al /d ay w ith o ut a N U R S I N GT B . C O M ny specific fat or carbohydrate requirements. The approximate number of kilocalories per day from fat that his diet should provide is kcal/day. a. 400 to 700 b. 100 to 300 c. 500 to 800 d. 900 to 1200 ANS: A Fat should provide no more than 20% to 35% of the total kilocalories per day, so for a 2000-kcal diet, 400 to 700 kcal should be provided. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: p. 4 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance 7. The body’s main storage form of carbohydrate is a. glycogen. b. glycerol. c. glucagon. d. glucose. ANS: A Glycogen is a polysaccharide that is the main storage form of carbohydrate in the human body. It is mainly stored in the liver and to a lesser extent in muscle tissue. DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: p. 4 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity: Physiological Adaptation 8. The number of kilocalories provided by one slice of bread that contains 30 g carbohydrate, 3 g protein, and 1 g fat is kcal. a. 34 b. 136 c. 141 d. 306 ANS: C Calculate as follows: Carbohydrate provides 4 kcal/g, protein provides 4 kcal/g, and fat provides 9 kcal/g. Therefore: 30 g carbohydrate 4 kcal/g = 120 kcal 3 g protein 4 kcal/g = 12 kcal 1 g fat 9 kcal/g = 9 kcal = 141 total kcal (120 kcal + 12 kcal + 9 kcal) DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: p. 4 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity: Physiological Adaptation 9. The number of kilocalories from fat in a sandwich that contains 22 g fat is kcal. a. 88 b. 132 c. 154 d. 198 ANS: D Fat provides 9 kcal/g. Thus, 22 g fat 9 kcal/g = 198 kcal. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: p. 4 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity: Physiological Adaptation 10. The number of kilocalories from protein in a sandwich that contains 15 g protein is kcal. a. 45 b. 60 c. 75 d. 135 ANS: B Protein provides 4 kcal/g. Thus, 15 g protein 4 kcal/g = 60 kcal. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: p. 4 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity: Physiological Adaptation 11. The basic building units of protein are called acids. a. fatty b. amino c. nucleic d. carboxyl ANS: B The basic building units of protein are amino acids, which are necessary for building, repairing, and maintaining body tissues. DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: p. 4 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity: Physiological Adaptation 12. The main nutrients involved in metabolic regulation and control are a. water and vitamins. b. vitamins and minerals. c. vitamins and fatty acids. d. minerals and carbohydrates. ANS: B Vitamins and minerals are the key nutrients in regulating and controlling the many chemical processes in the body. Vitamins and minerals function as coenzyme factors, which are components of cell enzymes that govern cell chemical reactions in cell metabolism. DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: p. 5 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity: Physiological Adaptation 13. The dietary regimen that would provide optimal nutrition for a person who is recovering from an extended illness is a diet a. low in protein, fat, and carbNoUhyRdSraIteNs;GhTigBh.iCn OmMinerals and vitamins; and very low in fiber. b. providing adequate amounts of carbohydrates, protein, fat, minerals, and vitamins along with adequate water and fiber. c. high in protein, fiber, and fluid; low in carbohydrates; and adequate in vitamins and minerals. d. with essential amounts of vitamins and minerals; high in protein; and low in fat, carbohydrates, and fiber. ANS: B Optimal nutrition incorporates a varied diet supplying adequate amounts of all nutrients, including carbohydrates, protein, fat, vitamins, minerals, fiber, and fluid. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: p. 5 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity: Physiological Adaptation 14. A young woman is 5 months pregnant. She currently lives in a condition of poverty and often runs out of money to buy food. She is most at risk for a. liver damage. b. osteopenia. c. undernutrition. d. overnutrition. ANS: C A person with undernutrition, or an intake less than the desired amounts of nutrients a person needs to sustain and maintain health, carries a greater risk for physical illness than a person receiving adequate nutrition. In this case, a young, pregnant woman living in poverty who cannot obtain the necessary nutrition for herself and her baby is in a state of undernutrition, placing both at nutritional risk. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: p. 5 TOP: Nursing Process: Diagnosis MSC: NCLEX: Safe and Effective Care Environment: Management of Care 15. Which factors place a person at the greatest risk for malnutrition? a. Poor appetite, insufficient nutrient intake, poor hygiene, and depleted nutrition reserves b. Poor hygiene, insufficient exercise, and excess carbohydrate intake c. Depleted carbohydrate intake, poor hygiene, and excess calorie intake d. Poor appetite, insufficient nutrient intake, depleted nutrition reserves, and a form of metabolic stress ANS: D Malnutrition appears when nutritional reserves are depleted and nutrient and energy intake is not sufficient to meet day-to-day needs or added metabolic stress. DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: p. 5 TOP: Nursing Process: Diagnosis MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity: Physiological Adaptation 16. Mr. Katz, who is 48 years old, is admitted to the hospital with a fracture to his left hip. He weighs 248 lb (54 lb above his desired weight). He is considered to be in a state of overnutrition. The statement most true regarding his state of overnutrition is that a. desired nutrients are consum Ne Ud Ri Sn Iex Nc Ges Ts Bam .o Cu On Mts without the risk of malnutrition. b. because excess body fat is evident and excess calories are consumed, there is no risk of nutrient deficiency leading to malnutrition. c. even though excess body fat and excess nutrient intake are evident, there still may be a risk for some type of nutrient deficiency leading to malnutrition. d. excess body weight may or may not be present along with excess consumption of carbohydrates and fat, which results in inadequate vitamin and mineral intake. ANS: C Overnutrition results from excess nutrient and energy intake over time, resulting in excess weight and a state of obesity. Malnutrition can result from excess body weight and the lack of vitamin- and mineral-rich food consumption (e.g., consumption of fatty and carbohydrate-rich foods only). DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: p. 5 TOP: Nursing Process: Diagnosis MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity: Physiological Adaptation 17. Which is least likely to be a primary cause of malnutrition? a. Conditions of poverty b. Prolonged hospitalization c. Homelessness d. Exercise ANS: D Malnutrition appears when nutritional reserves are depleted and nutrient and energy intake is not sufficient to meet day-to-day needs or the additional requirements necessary during periods of stress, thus exercise is not a factor. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: p. 5 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity: Physiological Adaptation 18. Overnutrition is characterized by a. overeating at a meal. b. excess nutrient and energy intake over time. c. eating a diet with too much variety. d. using dietary supplements. ANS: B Overnutrition results from excess nutrient and energy intake over time or occurs when excessive amounts of nutrient supplements are consumed, resulting in tissue-damaging effects. DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: p. 5 TOP: Nursing Process: Diagnosis MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity: Physiological Adaptation 19. The Dietary Reference Intakes (DRIs) address the nutrient needs of a. all adults. b. most healthy population groups. c. minority ethnic groups. d. pregnant women, infants, and children. ANS: B The DRIs refer to a system of reference values that can be used for assessing and planning diets for healthy population groups and other purposes. DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: p. 6 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance 20. The Dietary Reference Intakes (DRIs) are developed by the a. U.S. Public Health Service. b. U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA). c. Food and Nutrition Board of the Institute of Medicine d. National Institutes of Health (NIH). ANS: C DRIs are developed by the Food and Nutrition Board of the Institute of Medicine. DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: p. 6 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance 21. When not enough scientific evidence is available to establish a Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA), the value used to guide intake is called the a. Dietary Reference Intake (DRI). b. tolerable upper intake level (UL). c. estimated average requirement (EAR). d. adequate intake (AI). ANS: D AI is used as a guide when not enough scientific data are available to establish the RDA figure. DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: p. 7 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance 22. You are asked to help plan meals for a local monthly community dinner meeting for the elderly. The tool that would be most helpful for planning healthy meals is the a. Dietary Reference Intakes. b. Dietary Guidelines for Americans. c. MyPlate food guidance system. d. basic four food groups. ANS: C MyPlate, provided by the U.S. Department of Agriculture, provides a valuable tool for meal planning, providing serving sizes for each food group and the ability to create a balanced meal from each group listed. DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: p. 7 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance 23. You are asked to explain the Dietary Guidelines for Americans to an adult community education class at the local college. The most appropriate areas to cover in teaching this topic include a. appropriate amounts of sodNiuUmR, SsaItuNraGteTdBC, cOhMolesterol, trans-fatty acids, whole grains, and alcohol. b. adequate calories and protein for weight maintenance, smoking cessation, herbal supplements, and food fads. c. the importance of low-carbohydrate diets, smoking cessation, herbal supplements, appropriate food groups, and sodium and potassium. d. food security, weight maintenance, glucose monitoring, and blood pressure monitoring technique. ANS: A The Dietary Guidelines outlines key recommendations to balance calories and maintain weight along with foods and food components to reduce including sodium, saturated fatty acids, cholesterol, trans-fatty acids, added fats and sugars, refined grains, along with recommendations for limiting alcohol. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: p. 7 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance 24. A patient asks you what he should eat to maintain an optimal diet. An appropriate response would be to a. eat a variety of foods and eat in moderation. b. avoid all fast food and processed foods. c. eat only natural, organic foods. d. use vitamin and mineral supplements to ensure adequate nutrients. ANS: A An optimal diet contains a variety of foods and in appropriate quantities to maintain proper weight and health. All foods can fit into a healthy diet in moderation. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: p. 5 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance 25. The goal of the MyPlate food guide is to promote a. variety, proportion moderation, gradual improvements, and physical activity. b. physical activity, portion control, daily blood pressure monitoring, and gradual improvements in health. c. portion control, daily physical activity, daily glucose monitoring, moderation, and variety. d. variety, moderation, weighing food portions, daily blood pressure monitoring, and glucose monitoring. ANS: A The goal of MyPlate is to promote variety, proportion moderation, gradual improvements, and physical activity. DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: p. 7 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance 26. A patient is to receive 2400 kcal/day while recovering from a motor vehicle accident. He is to receive 50% of calories from carbohydrates, 25% of calories from fat, and 25% of calories from protein. Which of the following represents the appropriate calories for each substrate? a. 1500 kcal from carbohydrates, 500 kcal from fat, and 400 kcal from protein b. 1400 kcal from carbohydraNteUs,R6S00IkNcGalTfBro.mCfOatM, and 400 kcal from protein c. 1200 kcal from carbohydrates, 600 kcal from fat, and 600 kcal from protein d. 1600 kcal from carbohydrates, 400 kcal from fat, and 400 kcal from protein ANS: C 2400 kcal 0.50 = 1200 kcal from carbohydrates; 2400 kcal 0.25 = 600 kcal from fat; and 2400 kcal 0.25 = 600 kcal from protein. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: pp. 3-4 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance | NCLEX: Physiological Integrity: Physiological Adaptation 27. A patient is placed on a 2300-kcal diet. The health care provider is asked to calculate the grams of carbohydrates the patient is receiving on the diet. The number of grams of carbohydrates is a. 50 g. b. 35 g. c. 250 g. d. impossible to calculate from this data. ANS: D The percentage of carbohydrates in the diet typically ranges from 45% to 65% of the total calories depending on individual needs, tastes, habits, living situations, and energy demands. However, the health care provider would need to know the specific foods the patient is eating to calculate carbohydrate intake. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: pp. 3-4 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance | NCLEX: Physiological Integrity: Physiological Adaptation 28. A 52-year-old single woman comes to the health professional for advice on maintaining optimal nutritional health. Her food intake records indicate that she likes to eat at fast food restaurants at least twice a week and relies on processed foods for the majority of her dietary intake. She maintains an active lifestyle and works part time at the local bank. The next step to assist this woman would be to a. assess meal plan options along with the ability to prepare nutritious foods. b. obtain laboratory values to further assess her nutrition status and recommend supplementing her diet with vitamins and minerals. c. find ways to decrease eating at fast food restaurants and incorporate physical exercise into her daily routine. d. recommend that she use the MyPlate food guide to change her eating style and attend cooking classes at the local community center. ANS: A The American food environment has been constantly changing over the past several years, with more people eating out and consuming more processed foods. Educating people to follow the MyPlate food guide and the Dietary Guidelines for Americans is important to maintain a healthy lifestyle. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analysis REF: p. 7 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance | NCLEX: Physiological Integrity: Physiological Adaptation 29. The person most at risk for malnutrition would be a(n) a. active young adult who eats three to five servings of fruits and vegetables along with lean meats and fish and complex carbohydrates and exercises three times a week. b. young child who refuses to eat peas, green beans, and broccoli but loves fruits and other vegetables. c. middle-aged man undergoing chemotherapy for leukemia and who is having difficulty eating solid food. d. young weight lifter who has recently undergone surgery for a compound fracture of his left femur. ANS: C Malnutrition appears when nutrition reserves are depleted or nutrient and energy intake is not sufficient to meet the day-to-day needs along with the added metabolic stress. In this case, cancer and chemotherapy place an increased metabolic stress on the body and the patient is unable to consume enough food to meet his nutrient requirements, placing him at risk for malnutrition. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: p. 5 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity: Physiological Adaptation 30. C.G. is a 45-year-old man who has a history of diabetes, and the dietary history reveals that he enjoys a good breakfast with whole grain cereal and fruit. For lunch, he usually eats soup or an entrée consisting of a salad and meat along with 2% milk and a sugary soda. He usually has an afternoon snack of chips and sugary soda, and dinner is eaten at a restaurant most days of the week where he chooses steaks, hamburgers, and fries or onion rings along with a salad and a beer or other high-calorie beverage. One of the most important recommendations for C.G. would be a. to not eat at restaurants on a regular basis unless he chooses salads only along with water. b. to continue with whole grains, lean proteins, and vegetables, and replace sugary sodas with sugar-free beverages. c. to drink skim milk and eliminate soups, replacing them with fatty fish five meals a week. d. to enjoy his diet as is but encourage adequate amounts of exercise throughout the week. ANS: B The Choose MyPlate approach encourages making food choices for a healthy lifestyle including balancing calories; enjoying food but in a portion-controlled approach; encouraging whole grains, fruits, vegetables, and low-fat dairy; decreasing high-fat and sugary foods; and monitoring sodium. In this case, where diabetes is a concern as well, a meal plan emphasizing portion control, whole grains, vegetables, and drinks without sugar would be appropriate. NURSIN G T B . C OM TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance | NCLEX: Physiological Integrity: Physiological Adaptation DIF: Cognitive Level: Analysis R E F : p . 7 Chapter 02: Carbohydrates Nix: Williams’ Basic Nutrition and Diet Therapy, 16th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Carbohydrates are nutrients that are composed of the elements carbon, hydrogen, and a. oxygen. b. nitrogen. c. water. d. glucose. ANS: A The chemical nature of carbohydrates is carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen. DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: p. 21 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity: Physiological Adaptation 2. Carbohydrates play a major role in nutrition because they a. provide a long-term energy store. b. are digested in the stomach. c. help regulate body functions. d. provide the body’s major source of energy. ANS: D Carbohydrates are the major source of energy for the body, comprising approximately 50% of total caloric intake. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: p. 20 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity: Physiological Adaptation 3. Carbohydrates are stored as glycogen in the a. central nervous system and muscles. b. heart and liver. c. small intestine. d. liver and muscles. ANS: D Carbohydrates are stored as glycogen in the liver and muscles. DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: p. 23 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity: Physiological Adaptation 4. An example of a food that contains a fructose sugar is a. milk. b. honey. c. molasses. d. corn. ANS: B Fructose is a monosaccharide and is the sweetest of the simple sugars. It is primarily found in fruits and honey. DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: p. 21 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity: Physiological Adaptation 5. Examples of the simple carbohydrates include a. glucose and galactose. b. sucrose and starch. c. lactose and lignin. d. fructose and glycogen. ANS: A Monosaccharides and disaccharides are the simple sugar units used to build complex carbohydrates. The monosaccharides are glucose, galactose, and fructose. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: pp. 22-23 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity: Physiological Adaptation 6. The sugar to which all other sugars are converted and the one that circulates in the blood to provide major fuel for the body’s cells is a. sucrose. b. fructose. c. glucose. d. maltose. ANS: C Glucose is a monosaccharide th a t i s th e b as ic , s in g le N U R S I N G T B . C O M sugar in the body’s metabolism. Glucose is the form of sugar circulating in the blood and is the primary fuel for the cells. DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: p. 21 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity: Physiological Adaptation 7. Carbohydrates are quick energy foods because a. they do not take long to prepare and are readily available. b. the human body can rapidly break them down to yield energy. c. they are abundant in fast foods and can be readily absorbed. d. they can yield more energy than other nutrients. ANS: B Carbohydrates are considered quick energy foods because they can readily be metabolized in the body to yield glucose, the main fuel source for the body. DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: p. 21 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity: Physiological Adaptation 8. The carbohydrate form in which glucose is stored in the body is a. starch. b. polysaccharide. c. glycogen. d. fructose. ANS: C Glucose is stored in the body as glycogen. DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: p. 23 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity: Physiological Adaptation 9. Of the following, the best sources of dietary fiber are a. fruit and fruit juice. b. rice and crackers. c. iceberg lettuce and tomato juice. d. lentils and corn. ANS: D Dietary fiber is found in unrefined and whole plant foods. Of the choices listed, lentils and corn provide the highest amount of dietary fiber. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: p. 23 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity: Physiological Adaptation 10. Types of dietary fiber include a. lactose, galactose, and maltose. b. polysaccharides and polyols. c. starch, ptyalin, and glucose d. cellulose, lignin, and noncellulose. ANS: D Dietary fiber is found in plant foods. Plants contain several types of dietary fiber, including cellulose, lignin, and noncellulose polysaccharides. DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: pp. 23-24 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity: Physiological Adaptation 11. The recommended daily intake of dietary fiber for an adult woman is g/day. a. 15 b. 21 c. 25 d. 30 ANS: C The recommended intake of fiber for men and women age 50 years and younger is 38 g/day and 25 g/day, respectively. DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: p. 16 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity: Physiological Adaptation 12. A health professional is determining the caloric intake for a patient. Her caloric intake from fiber would be a. 3.4 kcal/g. b. 0 kcal/g. c. 4 kcal/g. d. 9 kcal/g. ANS: B Human beings lack the necessary enzymes to digest dietary fiber, and so, unlike other carbohydrates, dietary fiber does not provide energy. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: p. 23 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity: Physiological Adaptation 13. Wavelike contractions of the muscle fibers of the stomach and intestinal walls are called a. segmentation. b. peristalsis. c. metabolism. d. digestion. ANS: B The mechanical digestive process in the stomach entailing wavelike contractions of the muscle fibers of the stomach wall that mix food particles with gastric secretions is called peristalsis. DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: p. 16 (Table 2-2) TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity: Physiological Adaptation 14. A basket of fruit contains ripe grapes, apples, and oranges as well as pears and peaches that are not quite ripe. The fruits with the highest amount of simple sugar include the a. pears and apples. b. peaches and oranges. c. grapes and apples. d. peaches and pears. ANS: C Fructose is a simple sugar; ripe fruit contains more fructose than less-ripe fruit. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: p. 21 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity: Physiological Adaptation 15. An apple contains a type of soluble dietary fiber called a. lignin. b. starch. c. cellulose. d. pectin. ANS: D Pectin is a water-soluble fiber found in many fruits. Cellulose and lignin are insoluble fibers. Starch is another polysaccharide found in grains, legumes, and other vegetables and in small amounts in fruit. Starch does not necessarily contain dietary fiber. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: pp. 23-24 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity: Physiological Adaptation 16. Of the following, the food with the lowest carbohydrate content (as a percentage of weight) would be a. orange juice. b. raisins. c. whole milk. d. dried beans. ANS: C Milk contains the least carbohydrate content (as a percentage of weight); it contains lactose, but the amount is diluted by all the liquid in the milk. Carbohydrates are more concentrated in dried fruits, juices, and starchy vegetables. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analysis REF: p. 22 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity: Physiological Adaptation 17. Digestion of the starch component of a peanut butter sandwich begins in the a. mouth. b. stomach. c. small intestine. d. liver. ANS: A The digestion of carbohydrate-rich foods such as starches and sugars begins in the mouth, where the enzyme ptyalin begins to break the starch down into smaller particles. DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: p. 16 (Table 2-2) TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity: Physiological Adaptation 18. A negative effect of sugar alco ho ls i s th at th e y N U R S I N G T B a. contain more kilocalories than sugar. b. can cause intoxication. c. promote bacterial disease in the colon. d. may cause diarrhea. ANS: D Excessive amounts of sugar alcohols in food products can cause diarrhea because of the slow digestion of the product. DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: p. 20 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity: Physiological Adaptation 19. Once monosaccharides are absorbed into the intestinal bloodstream, they are transported to the a. cells. b. liver. c. heart. d. brain. ANS: B The monosaccharides glucose, galactose, and fructose are absorbed directly into the portal blood circulation, which carries them directly to the liver. DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: pp. 18-19 (Table 2-3) 20. A client has a goal of increasing fiber intake to 30 grams per day. Current intake reveals the following information: Breakfast intake is 3/4 cup sugary corn popped cereal, 1 cup skim milk, 1 slice white toast, and 1/2 cup orange juice. Lunch includes 2 ounces sliced turkey, 1 slice wheat bread, 1 tablespoon mayonnaise, 2 chocolate chip cookies, and 1 cup water. Dinner includes 4 ounces beef, 1/2 cup green beans, 3/4 cup instant mashed potatoes with butter, 1 biscuit, and 1 cup skim milk. As the nutrition expert counseling this patient, one appropriate recommendation might be to a. encourage whole-grain breads and cereals in place of white breads and cereals. b. double the amount of proteins such as turkey and beef and eliminate sugar intake. c. add 2 tablespoons of omega-3 fatty-acid enriched margarine to breads and potatoes. d. make no changes because adequate fiber intake is present. ANS: A The recommended daily fiber intake is 38 grams per day for men. This intake requires consistent use of whole grains, legumes, vegetables, and fruits, along with seeds and nuts. Meats and fats such as butter and margarine do not contain fiber. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analysis REF: pp. 18-19 (Table 2-3) TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity: Physiological Adaptation | NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance 21. An example of a food low in carbohydrates is a. low-fat yogurt. b. steak. c. beans. d. potatoes. ANS: B Meats such as beef, poultry, and fish do not contain carbohydrates. Yogurt contains some carbohydrates from the milk and is often sweetened. Starchy vegetables such as beans and potatoes are high in carbohydrates. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: pp. 22-24 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity: Physiological Adaptation | NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance 22. The major site or organ in the body for metabolic processing of carbohydrates is the a. intestine. b. heart. c. brain. d. liver. ANS: D The liver is the major site for metabolic processing of carbohydrates. DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: p. 21 | pp. 23-24 23. The digestion of milk yields the monosaccharides a. fructose and glucose. b. galactose and glucose. c. galactose and sucrose. d. glucose and maltose. ANS: B The digestion of milk yields the monosaccharides galactose and glucose from the disaccharide lactose. DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: p. 22 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity: Physiological Adaptation 24. A food that contains maltose is a. milk. b. fruit. c. molasses. d. table sugar. ANS: C Maltose is found in molasses. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: p. 22 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Int eg ri ty : P h ys io lo g ic al A daptation N U R S I N G T B . C O M 25. A molecule of glycogen is composed of hundreds of units of a. galactose. b. glucose. c. glucose, fructose, and galactose. d. disaccharide. ANS: B Glycogen is composed of glucose units. DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: p. 23 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity: Physiological Adaptation 26. Sufficient dietary carbohydrates prevent excess formation of a. ketones. b. ammonia. c. amino acids. d. water. ANS: A Ketones result from the rapid breakdown of fat. The breakdown of fat occurs when carbohydrate intake is inadequate. Sufficient carbohydrate intake prevents ketosis from occurring. DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: p. 21 TOP: Nursing Process: Evaluation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity: Physiological Adaptation 27. A part of the body that depends on a constant supply of carbohydrate to function properly is the a. cardiopulmonary system. b. urinogenital system. c. central nervous system. d. gastrointestinal system. ANS: C The central nervous system requires a constant supply of glucose in the bloodstream to function properly. DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: p. 21 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity: Physiological Adaptation 28. The number of kilocalories from carbohydrates in a baked potato that contains 40 g carbohydrate is kcal. a. 40 b. 80 c. 160 d. 360 ANS: C Carbohydrate contains 4 kcal/g. So a potato that contains 40 g carbohydrate would provide 40 4 = 160 kcal. DIF: Cognitive Level: ApplicatiNonURSINRGETFB: .pC. 1O5M TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity: Physiological Adaptation 29. A food that is a good source of fiber is a. oatmeal. b. prune juice. c. salmon. d. cornstarch. ANS: A Plant foods contain the best sources of fiber. Oatmeal is a whole-grain cereal and is therefore high in fiber. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: pp. 18-19 (Table 2-3) TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity: Physiological Adaptation 30. Which of the following carbohydrates provides the fastest source of energy? a. ground beef b. cranberry juice c. whole-grain cereal d. milk ANS: B Cranberry juice contains fructose, a single carbohydrate or monosaccharide, which requires no digestion and so is more quickly absorbed than more complex carbohydrates found in whole grains or the disaccharide lactose in milk. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: p. 22 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity: Physiological Adaptation [Show less]

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 Health Care > EXAM > Virtually all of the protein or amino acid-based hormones exert their effects through intracellular __________. a. ions b. deactivators c. second messengers d. nucleotides Correct Answer-c. second messengers Chemical Substances secreted by cells into the extracellular fluids that regulate the metabolic function

 Social Sciences > EXAM > absolute location - ANSWER The actual space a place occupies on Earth's surface acculturation - ANSWER The change that occurs within a culture when it adopts a practice from another culture agglomeration effects - ANSWER The cost advantages (external economies) for an individual company gained by locating near similar industries or companies agribusiness - ANSWER Commercial agriculture in which large corporations own and operate various steps in the production process with an emphasis on profit agricultural density - ANSWER The number of people living in rural areas per unit of agricultural land alliance - ANSWER An association among countries for the purpose of mutual defense or trade animism - ANSWER The belief that spirits (including ancestral) live within objects such as animals, rivers, rocks, trees, and mountains antecedent boundary - ANSWER A boundary placed before the cultural landscape was developed artifact - ANSWER Tangible pieces of material culture assimilation - ANSWER The process in which immigrants become totally integrated into the host culture backwash effect - ANSWER The negative impact to the peripheral region sometimes caused by increased flows of labor and capital into a nearby high-growth region bid rent curve - ANSWER The concept that the concentric circles in Burgess's concentric zone model are based on the amount people are willing to pay for land in each zone biotechnology - ANSWER The application of scientific techniques to modify and improve plants, animals, and microorganisms to enhance their value built environment - ANSWER The material culture of an environment carrying capacity - ANSWER The number of people an area can support on a sustained basis central business district (CBD) - ANSWER The business area found at the center of every older central city and urban area central place theory - ANSWER A theory developed by Walter Christaller that states that cities exist for economic reasons and that people gather in cities to share goods and ideas centrifugal force - ANSWER A strong, divisive force, such as religious differences or a weak communication systems, at work in a country centripetal force - ANSWER A strong, unifying force, such as a charismatic leader or nationalism, at work in a country chain migration - ANSWER The part of a migrant flow (usually relatives and friends) that follows former migrants to an area charter group - ANSWER The first group of settlers to establish a new and lasting culture and society is an area compact state - ANSWER A state that is basically round in shape, such as Poland or Bhutan) colonialism - ANSWER A system in which a country declares control over a territory or people outside its own boundaries, usually for economic purposes commodity chain - ANSWER A chain of activities from the manufacturing to the distribution of a product concentric zone model - ANSWER The model of urban land use developed by Burgess which demonstrates the invasion and succession processes that occur as the city grows and expands outward confederation - ANSWER A loose association of states organized for the purpose of retaining cohesion, such as the former republic of the USSR congregation - ANSWER An ethnic group's grouping together in a specific part of the city to support each other and minimize conflicts with those in the non-ethnic group consequent boundary - ANSWER A type of subsequent boundary that is drawn to accommodate existing linguistic, cultural, or religious boundaries conservation agriculture - ANSWER A modern method of farming that balances maximum crop yield with sustainable farming methods and protection of the environment creole - ANSWER A simplified mixture of two or more languages that is adopted in areas of cultural diversity crude birth rate (CBR) - ANSWER The number of babies born per 1000 people per year crude death rate (CDR) - ANSWER The number of deaths per 1000 people per year crude density - ANSWER The number of people per unit of land (also called arithmetic density) cultural barrier - ANSWER hindrances to cultural diffusion that occur in a society and keep cultural traits from spreading cultural diffusion - ANSWER The process in which culture is spread from one region to another cultural landscape - ANSWER The unique landscape made up of all parts of a culture-both material and nonmaterial culture - ANSWER The cluster of traits that make a group of people special and unique culture region - ANSWER A portion of the Earth's surface occupied by populations sharing recognizable and distinctive cultural characteristics culture hearth - ANSWER A place where innovations and new ideas originate and spread outward (diffuse) to other regions culture trait - ANSWER A single feature of a culture, such as religion or language decolonization - ANSWER The process by which former colonies gain their independence from the mother country deindustrialization - ANSWER The reduction in industrial activity that occurs when decreased profits and declining business cause a reduction in industrial employment demographic transition model - ANSWER A model that shows the link between population growth and economic development using four or five stages of economic development demography - ANSWER The study of the characteristics of a human population density - ANSWER The number of an item within a unit of area dependency ratio - ANSWER The ratio of people under age 15 and those 65 and older to those age 15 to 65 dependency theory - ANSWER A theory of economic development proposed by Andre Gunder Frank based on the periphery's dependence on the core desertification - ANSWER The transformation of agricultural lands into deserts because of overgrazing and soil erosion MDCs - ANSWER Countries such as the United States, Germany, and Australia who have the highest levels of economic development devolution - ANSWER The breakdown of central authority in a country distance decay - ANSWER The principle that says migrants try to minimize the friction of distance by moving to locations closer to them rather than father away distribution - ANSWER The array of items on the Earth's surface. All spatial distributions have density, dispersion, and some type of pattern domino theory - ANSWER The theory prevalent during the Cold War Era that once a country became communist, its neighbors were likely to soon become communist also doubling time - ANSWER The length of time it takes for a country's population to double in size if the growth rate stays the same dialect - ANSWER A speech variants of a language, which reflects the local region in which it is spoken ecumene - ANSWER The part of the Earth that is fit for humans to live edge city - ANSWER A new urban complex that consists of a large node of office buildings and commercial operations with more workers than residents elongated state - ANSWER A state that is long and narrow, such as Vietnam or Chile enclave - ANSWER A piece of territory completely surrounded by another territory of which it is not a part environmental determinism - ANSWER The theory that human behavior is controlled by the physical environment ethnic enclave - ANSWER A residential community where the residents either voluntarily live, or are forced to live, in a segregated (separated) fashion due to race, religion, or ethnicity ethnic island - ANSWER A small ethnic settlement centered in the middle of a larger group of the population ethnic religion - ANSWER A religion that is part of a particular ethnic or political group (Judaism, for example) ethnocentrism - ANSWER The belief that one's own ethnic group is superior to all others exclave - ANSWER An outlier, or piece of a territory, that is completely enclosed within the borders of another country exclusive economic zone (EEZ) - ANSWER An expanse of water up to 200 natural nautical miles off a country's coast that is designated for that country's natural resource exploration and exploitation export-processing zones (EPZs) - ANSWER Small areas of a country with exceptional investment and trading conditions that are created by its government to stimulate and attract foreign investors and business federal state - ANSWER A type of government that gives local political units such as states or provinces within a country a measure of power First Agricultural Revolution - ANSWER The domestication of plants and animals and the resulting start of a sedentary society (also called the Neolithic Agricultural Revolution) fixed cost - ANSWER The cost of land, plant, and machinery that is not variable folk culture - ANSWER A homogenous group of people with a strong family structure who follow a simple, traditional lifestyle of self-sufficiency and independence from the society's cultural mainstream Fordism - ANSWER The process (named after Henry Ford, its founder) of using assembly-line techniques and scientific management in manufacturing formal region - ANSWER A region with a high level of consistency in a certain culture of physical attribute fragmented state - ANSWER A state that has two or more areas of territory separated by another country gateway city - ANSWER A city that served as the control center for a former colonial power gentrification - ANSWER The process of renovating an older, run-down neighborhood near the center city by middle-class and high-income families gerrymandering - ANSWER The process of redrawing territorial district boundaries to favor a certain political party ghetto - ANSWER The concentration of a certain group of residents in a certain residential area against their will through legal means or social discrimination globalization - ANSWER The increasing interconnection of all regions in the world through politics, communication, transportation, marketing, manufacturing, and social and cultural processes GMO (genetically modified organisms) - ANSWER An organism that is created when scientists take one or more specific genes from one organism and introduce them into another organism thus creating a new version gravity model - ANSWER A law of spatial interaction that states that larger places attract people, ideas, and goods more strongly that smaller places Green Revolution - ANSWER The development and transfer from the developed world to the developing world, of higher-yield and fast-growing crops through new and improved technology, pesticides, and fertilizers, for the purpose of alleviating world hunger GDP - ANSWER The approximate value of all final goods and services produced in a country per year gross national product (GNP) - ANSWER The gross domestic product (GDP) plus the value of income from abroad such as earnings from a US company based abroad heartland-rimland theory - ANSWER Halford Mackinder's theory that the country that dominated the landmass of Eurasia (heartland) would eventually rule the world (rimland) hierarchial diffusion - ANSWER The adoption of an official language by the ruler or administration, a language diffused downward into the society human capital theory of migration - ANSWER The migration theory that states that educated workers often migrate from poor countries to wealthy countries seeking better-paying jobs imperialism - ANSWER The use of military threat, cultural domination, and economic sanctions to gain control of a country and its resources Industrial Revolution - ANSWER The movement from homebased cottage industries to factory industries with several workers under one roof that the use of machines facilitates in England in the late 1700s intensive subsistence agriculture - ANSWER A form of agriculture heavily depends on heavy inputs of fertilized and human labor on a small piece of land for substantial crop yield internally displaced person - ANSWER A person who is forced out of the home region due to war, political or social unrest, environmental problems, etc., but who does not cross any international boundary intervening opportunity - ANSWER The idea that migrants will choose a location closer rather than farther if all other factors are roughly the same irredentism - ANSWER The destabilizing situation that arises when an ethnic group supports and seeks to unite with its ethnic population in another country language family - ANSWER A group of languages that are related and derived from a single, earlier language latitude - ANSWER The degrees north or south from the equator for a location on the surface of the Earth. Measured in parallels. least cost theory - ANSWER A theory, developed by Alfred Weber, that states that three main expenses-labor, transportation, and agglomeration-must be minimized when locating an industry LDCs - ANSWER Countries located on the edge of the world core that are seeking improved conditions for their residents through economic growth lingua franca - ANSWER A language that is not part of the culture of the country but is one that is informally agreed upon as the language of business and trade locational interdependence theory - ANSWER A theory developed by Harold Hotelling that suggests that competitors in their effort to maximize sales, will try and limit each other's territory by locating close to each other in the middle of their combined customer base longitude - ANSWER The distance east or west from the Prime Meridian, measured in degrees, minutes, and seconds using lines of identical longitude, called meridians long-lots system of land survey - ANSWER A land survey method used by French and Spanish charter groups in North America in which long lots of land extended outward from river frontage material culture - ANSWER The artifacts (tangible things) of a culture such as tools, weapons, and furniture mediterranean agriculture - ANSWER A form of specialized agriculture in which crops grown in a Mediterranean climate of warm year-round temperatures and sunny summers (grapes, olives, figs, dates, citrus fruits, etc.) are grown megacity - ANSWER A metropolitan area with a total population of over 10 million people according to the United Nations megalopolis - ANSWER A group of supercities that have merged together into one large urban area metes-and-bounds land survey system - ANSWER A land survey system used in North America where natural boundaries such as rivers, trees, and large rocks were used to mark land boundaries

 *NURSING > EXAM > Cognitive Level: Application Client Needs: Safe, Effective Care Environment Nursing Process: Assessment 3. The nurse is caring for four clients on a medical–surgical unit. The secretary gives the nurse the morning labs. Which of the following labs would require that the nurse call the physician and inform the healthcare provider about the client’s abnormalities? 1. WBC 14,600 mm3 2. Serum protein 6.9 g/dL 3. I & D (incision and drainage) showing no growth for the last 24 hours 4. Albumin 4.2 g/dL Answer: 1 Rationale: When the nurse is caring for several clients, all of the labs should be checked frequently throughout the shift to assess for any abnormalities. The WBC in option 1 is abnormal. (Normal WBC 4,000–10,000 mm3 .) All of the other lab results are within acceptable range; therefore, the results should not be called in to the physician. Cognitive Level: Application Client Needs: Physiologic Integrity Nursing Process: Assessment 4. The nurse is orienting a new graduate. The nurse is reinforcing the importance of standard precautions. Which of the following observations by the nurse would require further education regarding standard precautions? 1. The graduate nurse understands to wash hands when entering and exiting the client’s room. 2. The graduate nurse wears gloves when serving breakfast trays to various clients. 3. The graduate nurse wears a gown, gloves, and goggles when suctioning a client. 4. The graduate nurse leaves all supplies in the room of a client who is in contact isolation. Answer: 2 Rationale: The nurse must have an understanding of standard precautions. Prevention is the most important measure to prevent nosocomial infections. Standard precautions were published in 1996 that provide guidelines for the handling of download full file at http://testbankinstant.com blood and other body fluids. These guidelines are used with all clients, regardless of whether they have a known infectious disease. Standard precautions are used by all healthcare workers who have direct contact with clients or with their body fluids. It is not necessary for the nurse to wear gloves while delivering food trays to the client, because there is not contact with the client. Cognitive Level: Application Client Needs: Safe, Effective Care Environment Nursing Process: Evaluation 5. The admitting department alerts the nurse on a medical–surgical unit that a client with active tuberculosis (TB) is being admitted to the unit. Which type of isolation is appropriate based on the client’s diagnosis? 1. Standard precautions 2. Airborne precautions 3. Droplet precautions 4. Contact precautions Answer: 2 In addition to handwashing and standard precautions, the nature and spread of some infectious diseases require that special techniques be used to protect uninfected clients and workers. The client with pulmonary tuberculosis will be placed in airborne precautions. The client should be placed in a private room with special ventilation that does not allow air to circulate to general hospital ventilation; a mask or special filter respirators will be used for everyone entering the room. Cognitive Level: Application Client Needs: Safe, Effective Care Environment Nursing Process: Assessment 6. A client is receiving IV vancomycin for the treatment of Clostridium difficile. The nurse understands that the client who develops flushing, tachycardia, and hypotension during the infusion of vancomycin indicates: 1. Ototoxicity effect. 2. Superinfection. 3. Red man syndrome. 4. Hives. Answer: 3 download full file at http://testbankinstant.com Rationale: Vancomycin inhibits cell wall synthesis, and is used for serious infections. It is only effective against gram-positive bacteria, especially Staphylococcus aureus and Staphylococcus epidermidis. The nurse should infuse this medication slowly over 60 minutes or more to avoid “red man” syndrome. The syndrome is characterized by erythematous rash, flushing, tachycardia, and hypotension. Clients can become dizzy and agitated. Cognitive Level: Application Client Needs: Physiological Integrity Nursing Process: Evaluation 7. The physician has ordered for the client to receive a trough blood level to evaluate the therapeutic effect of an antibiotic. The nurse understands that the trough should be ordered: 1. A few minutes before the next scheduled dose of medication. 2. 1–2 hours after the oral administration of the medication. 3. 30 minutes after the IV administration. 4. During the infusion of the antibiotic. Answer: 1 Rationale: Antibiotic peak and trough levels monitor therapeutic blood levels of the prescribed medication. The therapeutic range—the minimum and maximum blood levels at which the drug is effective—is known for a given drug. By measuring blood levels at the predicted peak (1–2 hours after oral administration, 1 hour after intramuscular administration, and 30 minutes after IV administration) and trough (usually a few minutes before the next scheduled dose), it is also possible to determine whether the drug is reaching a toxic or harmful level during therapy, increasing the likelihood of adverse effects. Cognitive Level: Application Client Needs: Safe, Effective Care Environment Nursing Process: Assessment 8. The nurse needs to change a dressing on the client’s abdomen. Which of the following techniques should be implemented? 1. Contact precautions 2. Standard precautions 3. Droplet p

 *NURSING > EXAM > 1. Who should be screened regularly for STIs? 2. All of the following diagnostic testing and procedures are now infrequently performed in clinical practice except: 3. Which organism causes 90% of vulvovaginal candidiasis episodes in women? 4. Which one of the following statements about the subdermal progestin implant is false? 5. What can bacterial vaginosis lead to? 6. What test should be ordered for a woman who is experiencing abnormal uterine bleeding (AUB) as well as headaches and peripheral vision changes? 7. The USPSTF assigns a certainty level to assess the net benefit of a preventive service based on: 8. Gender is rooted in _____________ and shaped by ________________ . 9. In women of reproductive age, the most common cause of a bleeding pattern that is suddenly different is: 10. What is the definition of physiologic menopause? 11. What should be the clinician’s first objective after learning the chief reason the woman desires care? 12. Which of the following might be a sign of hyperandrogenism? 13. How does topical application of eflornithine treat facial hirsutism? 14. Painful menstrual periods may be related to functional uterine contractions in ovulatory women, which is known as: 15. Women’s health risks, treatments, and approaches are not always based in science and biology because: 16. The American College of Nurse-Midwives recently revised its definition and scope of midwifery to include treatment of: 17. The most common sites of metastatic spread of invasive breast cancer include all of the following except: 18. Why is acknowledging the oppression of women more difficult within Western societies? 19. Hyperandrogenism in reproductive-age women is most frequently associated with: 20. Which of the following is considered primary prevention? 21. Under what conditions is a rectovaginal examination most useful? 22. How do systemic antiviral drugs treat genital herpes? 23. According to the World Health Organization (WHO), the presence of a disease state: 24. What is the USPSTF recommendation regarding firearms? 25. The factors that enable women to enjoy and control their sexual and reproductive lives, including a physical and emotional state of well-being and the quality of sexual and other close relationships, make up a woman’s: 26. Routine HPV vaccination is recommended for girls of what age? 27. Which one of the following statements about intimate partner violence (IPV) during pregnancy is false? 28. Which type of counseling results in a statistically significant reduction in STIs? 29. Many patients experiencing intimate partner violence (IPV) meet the criteria for diagnosing PTSD. Those criteria include all of the following except: 30. The first line of treatment for mastalgia, which is effective for 85 percent of women who have mild or moderate symptoms, is: 31. What procedure is used to evaluate abnormal Pap smears and genital tract lesions? 32. For women and men with infertility an option that involves a sperm or egg donor is called: 33. What had been a significant problem in medical research well into the 1990s? 34. What area of injury prevention is a focus of the USPSTF’s guidelines for counseling all healthy, asymptomatic women? 35. Which of the following is associated with increased risk of endometriosis? 36. Cyclic mastalgia: 37. An initial or primary genital herpes infection characteristically lasts about: 38. The HPV vaccine has been proven to be effective in protecting against the four types of HPV that cause genital warts and cervical cancers for as long as: 39. Mammary duct ectasia: 40. What treatment was introduced in the 1990s as a less invasive alternative to hysterectomy? 41. What is the leading preventable cause of death across all populations in the United States? 42. Tubal sterilization for women who have completed their families is highly effective, but there are disadvantages such as: 43. Which of the following is a new focus area added for Healthy People 2020? 44. The P in the mnemonic EMPOWER is meant to help the clinician remember to: 45. What is the danger of giving estrogen replacement therapy (ERT) to menopausal women with an intact uterus? 46. Exercise-induced amenorrhea is probably due to the combination of low body fat and decreased secretion of: 47. The most common benign breast masses are: 48. What screening recommendation is similar across all groups for colorectal cancer? 49. What is one of the side effects of hormonal contraceptives? 50. What is the most common symptom of bacterial vaginosis?