Finance > Exam Review > FINANCE COURSES_BLOOMBERG MARKET CERTIFICATE: Review Questions and Answers: 100% Correct. (Includes (All)
BLOOMBERG MARKET CERTIFICATE REVIEW QUESTIONS What does the Big Mac index show? a) How the law of one price is true of consumer products b) How currencies may be overvalued or undervalued c) How i... nterest rates and inflation affect trade d) How The Economist magazine estimates inflation Which of these headlines could move a currency pair a) U.S. Stocks Rally on Fed’s Surprise Reduction of Interest Rate b) Railroad Rate Hikes Drive Dichotomy of Necessary c) Hong Kong ‘Firmly Committed’ to Dollar Peg, John Tsang Says d) Grade Inflation: Devaluing B-Schools’ Currency What is the most common target inflation rate for an advanced economy? a) 1% b) 2% c) 3% d) 0% What was the primary goal of Abenomics? a) To reduce inflation by increasing unemployment b) To reign in GDP by reducing business confidence c) To halt the vicious cycle of deflation d) To strengthen the yen to foster consumption of luxury goods Were the two oil crises in the 1970s linked to deflation or inflation? a) Deflation b) Inflation c) Both d) Neither On June 23, 2016, the UK voted to leave the European Union. The white line shows the UK’s main equity index, the FTSE 100, from the start of 2016 to the date on which the UK government notified the European Union of its intent to buy one pound sterling. The Uk is a net importer, meaning the value of imports exceedsthe value of exports. We can be reasonabky surmised from the chart about large UK corporations? a) Their CEOs probably voted toremain in the E.U. b) Their CEOs probably voted to leave the E.U. c) They are probably heavy exporters d) They are probably heavy Importers In early 2016, the same Germany machinery company has interest from four prospective clients from engineering markets: Indonesia, Brazil, Russia, and South Africa. They all want to buy ten machines, but the factory can only produce ten in time. Therefore, the company has to choose only one client. Given the volatility of the domestic currencies of the four prospective clients, the CEO would like to choose the client which is least likely to cancel the order due to currency volatility. The invoice comes due on June 30, 2016. According to historical currency volatility alone, which prospective client would be least likely to cancel the order (see chart 1)? a) Indonesia b) Brazil c) Russia d) South Africa Imagine you are a Dutch diamond dealer who sources diamonds from South Africa. […] You check the forward rates on offer on the Bloomberg FRD function. You have two options. Exchange euros today at today’s exchange rate to pay him on million rands now, or lock in a forward agreement to convert euros to one million rands in one year’s time and share the forward agreement with him. If you were to do the forward instead of exchanging euros for rands today, approximately how much more or less would you end up with in a year? (see chart 2) a) EUR 4,717 more b) EUR 4,717 fewer c) ZAR 4,717 more d) ZAR 4,717 fewer Legendary investor Warren Buffet said: “Gold gets dug out of the ground…. Then we melt it down, dig another hole, bury it again and pay people to stand around guarding it. It has no utility. Anyone watching from Mars would be scratching their head.” Based on this quotation, what quality of gold is he referring to? a) Its durability b) Its scarcity c) Its physical attractiveness d) Its storage costs Here is a chart showing both nominal GDP growth and real GDP growth for a country. Which of the following can be a true statement at the time the chart was captured? a) The country has inflation. The top line is nominal growth and the bottom line is real growth. b) The country has inflation. The bottom line is nominal growth and the top line is real growth. c) The country has deflation. The top line is nominal growth and the bottom line is real growth. d) The country has deflation. The bottom line is nominal growth and the top line is real growth. Which of the following lines is the best leading economic indicator? a) PMI b) Nonfarm payrolls c) Real GDP growth d) U.S. auto sales The “misery index” is often cited in the media as a way to measure consumer pain. It is defined as the inflation rate plus the unemployment rate. Identify the country with the highest “misery index.” a) Argentina b) India c) France d) Italy What tipically happens to nonfarm payrolls, the PMI indicator, and housing starts at the onset of a recession in the United States? a) Nonfarm payrolls go UP, the PMI indicator goes DOWN, the housing starts goes DOWN b) Nonfarm payrolls go DOWN, the PMI indicator goes DOWN, the housing starts goes DOWN c) Nonfarm payrolls go DOWN, the PMI indicator goes UP, the housing starts goes UP d) Nonfarm payrolls go UP, the PMI indicator goes UP, the housing starts goes UP Which of the following qualities of economic indicators do investors prize the most? a) Rigor b) Sample size c) Timeliness of release d) Government sponsorship Why is the release of GDP statistics less interesting to investors than the release of other economic indicators? a) Because governments consistently alter their GDP measurement methods b) Because the formula for GDP includes not only private investment but also other irrelevant factors c) Because GDP is not official government data d) Because GDP statistics are released well after other economic indicators Which of the following important U.S. economic indicators is only available on a quarterly basis? a) Nonfarm payrolls b) CPI c) GDP d) PMI Which economic indicator is most directly linked to unemployment? a) Nonfarm payrolls b) CPI c) GDP d) PMI These charts show data for four countries as of early 2016. For each country, the purple line denotes historic real GDP growth. The white line denotes the consensus estimated real GDP growth. The red line denotes the most pessimistic analyst forecast. The green line denotes the most optimistic analyst forecast. For which country is the most controversy among the analyst community about 2016 growth? (see chart 3) a) Albania b) Dominican Republic c) Russia d) Germany What is the main reason that investment banks create estimates of economic indicators? a) To determine in which countries the banks should operate b) To increase real GDP growth by exporting their intellectual property to foreign investors c) To hold governments accountable for management of their economies d) To know when specific economic data points are a positive or negative surprise Which of the following is the biggest pitfall of economic indicators? a) They do not take into account seasonality b) They are not sufficiently timely to make investment decisions c) They only serve as proxies for economic activities d) They do not consistently presage turning points Here is a chart displaying estimates of the initial jobless claims indicator, one of the main unemployment statistics in the US. It measures the number of new applicants for unemployment benefits. What was the level of the analyst with the most optimistic outlook? (see chart 4) a) 260 b) 274 c) 277 d) 290 Which of the following countries represent 1.3% of total activity traded US debt? (see chart 5) a) Taiwan b) Canada c) Russia d) India What quality of US government bonds causes investors to buy them when market volatility rises? a) US government bonds are denominated in dollars b) US government bonds are stored in bank vaults c) US government bonds are underwritten by global taxpayers d) US government bonds are considered low risk? Why does the US have a strong reputation for creditworthiness? a) Because no country has a many taxable states as the United States b) Because America’s wealth means that it does not have to borrow c) Because it has the right to tax the wealthiest population on earth d) Because dollars are backed by the gold at Fort Knox What is one reason why foreign governments lend to the US government? a) To enhance diplomatic relations b) To build liquid FX reserves c) To benefit from the price and yield going up d) To pay for the US budget deficit What does one yellow bar depict in this debt distribution diagram? (see chart 6) a) Coupon repayment b) Principal repayment c) Yield repayment d) Distribution repayment Which one of the following actors benefits when interest rates go up? a) A company with a fixed-rate loan? b) A company about to secure a fixed-rate loan? c) An investor who already owns bonds d) An investor who is about to buy bonds Which percentage of GDP represented by government debt is an indicator that yields will spike? a) 50% b) 90% c) 150% d) There is no general rule What is true of both the UK and the US? a) Both countries print world reserve currencies b) Both countries are highly creditworthy c) Both currencies are used equally in the world FX markets d) Both countries are heavily reliant on long-term borrowing Which would you prefer? a) A 3% annual yield on an investment in 10-year US government bonds? b) A 4% annual yield on a credit risk-free 10-y government bond from the mythical country of Utopia c) A 2% annual yield on an investment in 10-y US government bonds d) A 3% annual yield on a credit risk-free government bond from the mythical country of Utopia. Which would you prefer? a) A 5% annual yield on an investment in 10-y US government bonds b) A 3% annual yield on a risk-free 10-y government bond from the mythical country of Utopia c) A 4% annual yield on an investment in 10-y US government bonds d) A 2% annual yield on a risk-free 10-y government bond from the mythical country of Utopia What is the primary reason for US government bond yields to ripple through the bond market? a) Bond prices move in lockstep in order for the yields to match government bond yields b) The large government bond market competes for investors’ attention via yields c) All governments mandate interest rates as part of their economic policy d) Non-government borrowers are slightly less safe and therefore must offer slightly lower yields A rise in which of the following measures would typically send a government bond price up? a) Creditworthiness b) Inflation c) Interest rates d) Government borrowing Which of the countries shown makes the greatest relative use of short-term government financing? (see chart 7) a) Australia b) Switzerland c) Norway d) Germany How do investors compare bonds? a) By comparing the total amounts of principal and interest outstanding b) By comparing the prices of single bonds c) By comparing the total amounts borrowed to the repayment amounts d) By comparing the yields of single bonds Which of the following is the strongest driver of inflation? a) Consumers deferring purchases in hopes of a better deal b) Wartime activities c) A rise in the price of gold d) High interest rates What was the output gap in 1973? (see chart 8) a) +3% b) +160 c) -3.2% d) -80 At the point in time shown, where is the country’s 10-y inflation expectation in relation to the central Bank’s inflation target? a) 2.0239% above b) c) 0.0239% above d) 0.4761 below Investors who fear rising inflation may buy Treasury Inflation Protected securities (TIPS). How do TIPS shield lenders from inflation? a) By disbursing gold bullion b) By offsetting the inflation with deflation c) By triggering an insurance payout d) By compensating investors for inflation What is the federal Reserve’s favorite inflation gauge? a) Core PCE b) GDP deflator c) CPI d) Household income What was likely the Fed interest rate policy? a) To maintain high interest rates b) To maintain low interest rates c) To hike interest rates d) To cut interest rates Why does the yield curve naturally slope upwards? a) To compensate lenders for the greater risk of short-term loans compared to long-term loans b) To compensate lenders for the greater risk of long-term loans compared to short-term loans c) To compensate borrowers for the greater risk of short-term loans compared to long-term loans d) To compensate borrowers for the greater risk of long-term loans compared to short-term loans Why did the corporate spread significantly widen during the 2008 market crash? a) Corporate bonds issuers go bankrupt more frequently than governments, as they do not have a tax base to fall back on in hard times b) Corporate bonds went up as investors rotated out of equities into all forms of safer bonds c) Corporations were viewed as safer than governments; therefore, the corporate bonds went up and the government bonds went down. d) A slowdown in economic activity led to fears of rising inflation What impact will a tightening of the corporate spread most likely have on a company? a) A tendency to restrict the borrowing capacity of the company b) A tendency to expand the borrowing capacity of the company c) A tendency to make borrowing more expensive d) A tendency to make the company more prone to bankruptcy What are the three main transmission mechanisms by which the yield curve affects the economy? a) Housing rental impact, corporate impact, consumer impact b) Global impact, consumer impact, trade impact c) Corporate impact, global impact, consumer impact d) Trade impact, corporate impact, housing rental impact What was the percentage of a) 2.421% b) 0.023% c) 2.398% d) 2.332% The purchase of which of the following products is most affected by interest rates? a) A yacht b) An automobile c) A house d) A safari What is the primary driver of the left-hand end of the yield curve? a) Inflation b) Central bank interest rates c) GDP growth estimates d) Bond trading Which yield curve is most likely linked to a booming economy? (see chart 9) a) A b) B c) C d) D What do you think the Federal Reserve did with interest rates in the month following the attacks of September 11, 2001 a) Steepened the interest rates b) Kept interest rates the same c) Increased interest rates d) Cut interest rates Why does the yield curve tend to invert shortly before recession? a) Recessions tend to send prices down and this includes the price of term premiums b) The fact that the yield curve inverted before many recessions in recent history is purely coincidental c) The term premium tends to be very positive before a recession due to impending interest rate hikes d) An inverted yield curve means that bond traders are predicting interest rate cuts, and interest rate cuts happen in response to a recession Why do companies do IPOs? a) When companies go bankrupt, they must delist b) Company management gets to ring the bell on the stock exchange floor c) Companies with revenue above a certain threshold must be publicly listed by law d) IPOs incentivize entrepreneurs to innovate as IPOs provide a way for entrepreneurs to monetize their work Why do company manager-owners smile when they ring the stock exchange bell at their IPO? a) Manager-owners receive their first stake in the company at an IPO b) Money raised from an IPO solely compensates manger-owners c) Manager-owners are freed of the burden of managing their company d) An IPO crystallizes the value of the manager-owners’ stake If all the shares went up by 5%, which share on the screen shown would have the biggest contribution to an upward movement in the Index? (see chart 10) a) General electric b) Goldman Sachs c) Apple d) Exxon Mobil In 1999, JG and KH published a book called ‘’Dow 36,000’’. At the time, the Dow Jones Industrial Average Index was just below 12,000. Which of the following is a potential substitute for the book title? a) The Total Market Cap of the Stock Market Will Go Down 36,000 points b) The Average Retirement Account of an Industrial Worker Will Triple c) The sum of the Market Caps of All 30 Dow Jones Members Will Triple d) The Sum of the Share Prices of All 30 Dow Jones Members Will Triple Here is a chart of the index value for S&P 500 and the UK’s main equity index, the FTSE 100, from the end of 2008 to early 2015. One index has clearly outperformed the other. Which one? a) S&P 500 Index b) FTSE 100 Index c) UK Index d) WEI Index What is the prime reason that Jenny’s discretionary income is more volatile than her salary? a) Her tax rate remains 30% b) Her mortgage pmts and necessities are fixed c) Her discretionary income and salary are equally volatile d) Her cost of living is affected by high inflation in the neighborhood A wedding planning company has a high fixed-cost base and a lot of debt. Who would you rather be? a) A shareholder in a booming economy b) A shareholder in a stagnant economy c) A bond holder in a booming economy d) A bond holder in a stagnant economy According to the chart, what would be the approximate return be on the S&P 500 from the through of March 2009 to the end of 2013, ignoring dividends? (see chart 11) a) 170% b) 100% c) 270% d) 200% Assume that an investor in the S&P 500 reinvests his dividends. According to the chart, what approximate return would this investor have reaped from the early 2009 through the endpoint of the chart? (see chart 12) a) 167% b) 200% c) 300% d) 100% Why are equities volatile? a) Due to the varying supply of and demand for IPOs b) Due to the residual nature of earnings c) Due to changing tax rates d) Due to low levels of borrowing Which of the following statement is true? a) When you buy an equity, your potential loss is unlimited and your max potential gain is 100% b) When you buy an equity, the most you can lose is 100% and your potential gain is unlimited c) When you buy an equity, you are promised a stream of fixed dividends d) When you buy a bond, you are promised the residual income of that company Which row of the budget planning table shows the amount to which she as shareholder would be entitled? (see chart 13) a) A b) B c) C d) D For which stock did the the bulk of the total return come from dividends? (see chart 14) a) Colgate-Palmolive b) Procter & Gamble c) Reckitt Benckiser d) Church and Dwight What does the release of earnings announcements have in common with the release of economic indicators? a) Both are typically released on a quarterly basis b) Both are typically published by corporations c) Both are estimated in advance by analysts d) Both are of broad interest to all investors For which company was Boeing the primary plane supplier in the last year? a) United Continental b) United Technologies c) Honeywell International d) China Eastern Airlines Which company is the most exposed to the ups and downs of the aircraft engine industry? a) Rolls-Royce b) General Electric c) United Tech Corp d) MTU Aero Engines Engines are the most expensive, heavy component on an aircraft and are designed with detailed specification. Which of the following would likely be the best theme for a Rolls-Royce analyst research note to help a portfolio manager decide between investing in RR or United Technologies? a) The impact of the price of oil on air travel b) Regulatory concerns for the Boeing-Airbus duopoly c) The competitive environment in the super-luxury car segment d) A comparison of the commercial prospects of new aircraft models You are building a financial model of a bifocal lens manufacturer. Which of the following is the best driver to use? a) Median age of society b) Mean museum visits per capita per year c) Mean cruises sales per household per year d) Total number of bridge and mahjong players Which of the following Bloomberg headlines would be of most interest to an aluminum trader in China? a) Next-Generation Vehicles to Show Shift From Steel to Aluminum b) China’s Aluminum Demand Weathers Real-Estate Slowdown So Far c) Coca-Cola Announces Plans to Recycle, Reuse Cans Sold in US d) Aluminum Falls on Boeing’s Announcement of Production Cuts When an analyst is looking at a company for the first time, which of the following four activities does he do first? a) Defines the industry or industries in which the company operates b) Sizes the market or markets in which the company sells c) Calculates the company’s market share or market shares d) Estimates the breakdown of the company’s cost base Here is a table from the Bloomberg Intelligence copper dashboard which shows the different end-users of the ‘red metal’. Which of the following Bloomberg headlines would likely be of most interest to a copper trader? a) Copper slides 7.7% to seven-month Low on US Construction Data b) China’s Construction Slowdown Dents Copper Consumption, Prices c) Infrastructure Spending to Lead Latin America’s Economic Growth d) European Industrial Orders Rose in May on Machinery, Transport Which of the following industry drivers should be of most interest to a prospective investor of 3M? (see chart 14) a) The move towards the paperless office b) The change in postal volumes c) The prevalence of surgical procedures d) The popularity of home improvement projects Company X was expected to have earnings per share of $0.52 for the upcoming quarter. On the day of the results, the company reported earnings per share of $0.83. What happened to the share price when the stock market opened? a) It went up b) It went down c) There is not enough information to tell d) It remained unchanged Which company is worth more, Coca-Cola or Pepsi? a) Coca-Cola because it has a higher market capitalization b) Pepsi because it has a higher capitalization c) Coca-Cola because it has a higher price per share d) Pepsi because it has a higher price per share Widget Co. has a market capitalization of $100M. It does a 10-for-1 split. It then does a 1-for-16 stock split. Finally, it does a 35-for-1 stock split. Nothing else changes. What’s the new market cap? a) $4.57M b) $100M c) $2.186M d) $1.8M What input do both absolute valuation and relative valuation typically require? a) Long-term forecasts b) Short-term forecasts c) Historic revenue data d) Historic earnings data Which of the following is most likely to be the most challenging part of this first step of the absolute valuation process? a) Making the assumptions upon which to project future performance b) Conducting the necessary mathematics c) Locating the required historic data within company releases and earnings statements d) Dividing the market cap by the number of shares What is a reason one discounts future cash flows as part of the absolute valuation process? a) Future profits are uncertain b) Deflation makes future cash flows worthless c) The company might do a share split which will diminish the value of one’s stake d) Investors prefer future pmts to pmts today What role does beta play in absolute valuation? a) It determines how risky a stock is in comparison to the overall stock market b) It sets the 10-year bond yield as a baseline required rate of return c) It provides the expected slope of the share price chart into the future d) It sets the return on a stock market index as a baseline required rate of return Here is the capital structure of Microsoft. What part of the $42.03 share price (to the nearest dollar) is represented by cash? (see chart 15) a) $11 b) $9 c) $10 d) $8 How is enterprises value calculated? a) Enterprise value = market cap – cash + debt b) Enterprise value = market cap + cash – debt c) Enterprise value = market cap + cash + debt d) Enterprise value = market cap – cash – debt Which of the following stocks is most sensitive to the movement of the overall stock market? (see chart 16) a) Home Depot b) Intel c) Starbucks d) Amazon Which of the following assigns the same relative weightings to short-term and long-term outcomes as the absolute valuation process? a) A student deciding to attend medical school b) A yoga instructor avoiding junk food c) A government giving a tax break on electric car purchases d) A fishery exceeding fishing quotas Here is the WACC function for US company Pfizer. Calculations have been hidden. What is the WACC? a) 9.4% b) 8.2% c) 84.6% d) 2.8% A rise in which of the following inputs will increase on absolute valuation? a) Number of shares b) Beta c) Earnings estimates d) 10-y government bond How do earnings yields differ from bond yields? a) Earnings yields are expressed as percentage while bond yields are expressed as absolute values b) The earnings from equities are paid out in non-cash dividends while the coupons on bonds are paid out in cash c) Earnings yields are always higher than the bond yields due to the riskier nature of equities d) The cash flow from equities can continue indefinitely while the cash flow from bonds comes to an end At its peak at the end of 1999, Microsoft had a market cap of $600B. PC sales were booming and most PCs ran on Microsoft software. Revenue was growing 30% per year. The P/E ratio peaked at nearly 80.0x in 1999. What happened in the subsequent 15 years? (see chart 17) a) Earnings declined and this pushed the market cap down b) Earnings grew and this pushed the market cap up c) The decline in the P/E ratio canceled out the decline in earnings and this pushed the market cap up d) The decline in the P/E ratio more than offset earnings growth and this pushed the market cap down What is one possible weakness of this peer approach to valuation? a) It is a very laborious approach to valuation b) The estimated growth can be dramatically wrong c) It only focuses on the statistics of one company d) It does not account for industry context What may be a problem of comparing the P/E of a stock to the P/E of the overall market? a) The overall market may not be sufficiently broad for the purpose of comparison b) Given the number of stocks in the overall market, it is very time consuming to calculate the P/E of the market c) Most stock market indices exclude the effect of dividends d) A stock’s P/E ratio can remain above or below market average for extended periods Here is a chart of the Nasdaq Composite, the world’s main technology index. It peaked in the dotcom bubble on March 10, 2000. The P/E ratio later peaked above 500. In hindsight, widely agreed to have been a bubble. In March 2015, the index value for the first time since then surpassed the peak. Why might some investors at that point have argued ‘this time it’s different’? (see chart 18) a) In comparison, to low bond yields in early 2015, a 0.2% earnings yield on the Nasdaq looked fair more reasonable b) In comparison to low bond yields in early 2015, a 0.6% earnings yield on the Nasdaq looked far more reasonable c) Earnings grew substantially, meaning that the P/E ratio in early 2015 was only around 164.6x d) Earnings grew substantially, meaning that the P/E ratio in early 2015 was only around 30.3x The World Equity Index function shown contains two valuation metrics for the S&P 500. The Nike description page contains the same two valuation metrics. How does Nike’s valuation compare to that of the S&P 500? (see chart 19) a) Nike is less expensive than the S&P 500 on a P/E basis and more expensive on a dividend yield basis b) Nike is more expensive than the S&P 500 on a P/E basis and less expensive on a dividend yield basis c) Nike is less expensive than the S&P 500 on both a P/E and dividend yield basis d) Nike is more expensive than the S&P 500 on both the P/E and dividend yield basis If the earnings per share of a company is $1 and the earnings yield is 2%, what is the price per share? a) $50 b) $20 c) $200 d) $5 This chart shows a scatterplot with the x-axis being the estimated sales growth and the y-axis being the estimated P/E multiple. Given this data alone, which of the following companies may warrant further analysis by a portfolio manager looking to buy an insurance company for her portfolio? (see chart 20) a) Markel b) Allstate c) Erie Indemnity d) Chubb Chart 1 Chart 2 Chart 3 Chart 4 Chart 5 Chart 6 Chart 7 Chart 8 Chart 9 Chart 10 Chart 11 Chart 12 Chart 13 Chart 14 Chart 15 Chart 16 Chart 17 Chart 18 Chart 19 Chart 20 [Show More]
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