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CRIT 480 Week 2 CC Practice Questions and Answers,100% CORRECT

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CRIT 480 Week 2 CC Practice Questions and Answers Week 2 Chapter 28 1. Following assessment of a patient with pneumonia, the nurse identifies a nursing diagnosis of ineffective airway clearance. Wh... ich assessment data best supports this diagnosis? a. Weak, nonproductive cough effort b. Large amounts of greenish sputum c. Respiratory rate of 28 breaths/minute d. Resting pulse oximetry (SpO2) of 85% 2. The nurse assesses the chest of a patient with pneumococcal pneumonia. Which finding would the nurse expect? a. Increased tactile fremitus b. Dry, nonproductive cough c. Hyperresonance to percussion d. A grating sound on auscultation 3. A patient with bacterial pneumonia has rhonchi and thick sputum. What is the nurses most appropriate action to promote airway clearance? a. Assist the patient to splint the chest when coughing. b. Teach the patient about the need for fluid restrictions. c. Encourage the patient to wear the nasal oxygen cannula. d. Instruct the patient on the pursed lip breathing technique. 4. The nurse provides discharge instructions to a patient who was hospitalized for pneumonia. Which statement, if made by the patient, indicates a good understanding of the instructions? a. I will call the doctor if I still feel tired after a week. b. I will continue to do the deep breathing and coughing exercises at home. c. I will schedule two appointments for the pneumonia and influenza vaccines. d. Ill cancel my chest x-ray appointment if Im feeling better in a couple weeks. 5. The nurse develops a plan of care to prevent aspiration in a high-risk patient. Which nursing action will be most effective? a. Turn and reposition immobile patients at least every 2 hours. b. Place patients with altered consciousness in side-lying positions. c. Monitor for respiratory symptoms in patients who are immunosuppressed. d. Insert nasogastric tube for feedings for patients with swallowing problems. 6. A patient with right lower-lobe pneumonia has been treated with IV antibiotics for 3 days. Which assessment data obtained by the nurse indicates that the treatment has been effective? a. Bronchial breath sounds are heard at the right base. b. The patient coughs up small amounts of green mucus. c. The patients white blood cell (WBC) count is 9000/L. d. Increased tactile fremitus is palpable over the right chest. 7. The health care provider writes an order for bacteriologic testing for a patient who has a positive tuberculosis skin test. Which action should the nurse take? a. Teach about the reason for the blood tests. b. Schedule an appointment for a chest x-ray. c. Teach about the need to get sputum specimens for 2 to 3 consecutive days. d. Instruct the patient to expectorate three specimens as soon as possible. 8. A patient is admitted with active tuberculosis (TB). The nurse should question a health care providers order to discontinue airborne precautions unless which assessment finding is documented? a. Chest x-ray shows no upper lobe infiltrates. b. TB medications have been taken for 6 months. c. Mantoux testing shows an induration of 10 mm. d. Three sputum smears for acid-fast bacilli are negative. 9. The nurse teaches a patient about the transmission of pulmonary tuberculosis (TB). Which statement, if made by the patient, indicates that teaching was effective? a. I will avoid being outdoors whenever possible. b. My husband will be sleeping in the guest bedroom. c. I will take the bus instead of driving to visit my friends. d. I will keep the windows closed at home to contain the germs. 10. A patient who is taking rifampin (Rifadin) for tuberculosis calls the clinic and reports having orange discolored urine and tears. Which is the best response by the nurse? a. Ask if the patient is experiencing shortness of breath, hives, or itching. b. Ask the patient about any visual abnormalities such as red-green color discrimination. c. Explain that orange discolored urine and tears are normal while taking this medication. d. Advise the patient to stop the drug and report the symptoms to the health care provider. 11. An older patient is receiving standard multidrug therapy for tuberculosis (TB). The nurse should notify the health care provider if the patient exhibits which finding? a. Yellow-tinged skin b. Orange-colored sputum c. Thickening of the fingernails d. Difficulty hearing high-pitched voices 12. An alcoholic and homeless patient is diagnosed with active tuberculosis (TB). Which intervention by the nurse will be most effective in ensuring adherence with the treatment regimen? a. Arrange for a friend to administer the medication on schedule. b. Give the patient written instructions about how to take the medications. c. Teach the patient about the high risk for infecting others unless treatment is followed. d. Arrange for a daily noon meal at a community center where the drug will be administered. 13. After 2 months of tuberculosis (TB) treatment with isoniazid (INH), rifampin (Rifadin), pyrazinamide (PZA), and ethambutol, a patient continues to have positive sputum smears for acid-fast bacilli (AFB). Which action should the nurse take next? a. Teach about treatment for drug-resistant TB treatment. b. Ask the patient whether medications have been taken as directed. c. Schedule the patient for directly observed therapy three times weekly. d. Discuss with the health care provider the need for the patient to use an injectable antibiotic. 14. Employee health test results reveal a tuberculosis (TB) skin test of 16-mm induration and a negative chest x-ray for a staff nurse working on the pulmonary unit. The nurse has no symptoms of TB. Which information should the occupational health nurse plan to teach the staff nurse? a. Standard four-drug therapy for TB b. Need for annual repeat TB skin testing c. Use and side effects of isoniazid (INH) d. Bacille Calmette-Gurin (BCG) vaccine 15. When caring for a patient who is hospitalized with active tuberculosis (TB), the nurse observes a student nurse who is assigned to take care of a patient. Which action, if performed by the student nurse, would require an intervention by the nurse? a. The patient is offered a tissue from the box at the bedside. b. A surgical face mask is applied before visiting the patient. c. A snack is brought to the patient from the unit refrigerator. d. Hand washing is performed before entering the patients room. 16. An occupational health nurse works at a manufacturing plant where there is potential exposure to inhaled dust. Which action, if recommended by the nurse, will be most helpful in reducing the incidence of lung disease? a. Treat workers with pulmonary fibrosis. b. Teach about symptoms of lung disease. c. Require the use of protective equipment. d. Monitor workers for coughing and wheezing. 17. The clinic nurse teaches a patient with a 42 pack-year history of cigarette smoking about lung disease. Which information will be most important for the nurse to include? a. Options for smoking cessation b. Reasons for annual sputum cytology testing c. Erlotinib (Tarceva) therapy to prevent tumor risk d. Computed tomography (CT) screening for lung cancer 18. A lobectomy is scheduled for a patient with stage I nonsmall cell lung cancer. The patient tells the nurse, I would rather have chemotherapy than surgery. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate? a. Are you afraid that the surgery will be very painful? b. Did you have bad experiences with previous surgeries? c. Surgery is the treatment of choice for stage I lung cancer. d. Tell me what you know about the various treatments available. 19. An hour after a thoracotomy, a patient complains of incisional pain at a level 7 (based on 0 to 10 scale) and has decreased left-sided breath sounds. The pleural drainage system has 100 mL of bloody drainage and a large air leak. Which action is best for the nurse to take next? a. Milk the chest tube gently to remove any clots. b. Clamp the chest tube momentarily to check for the origin of the air leak. c. Assist the patient to deep breathe, cough, and use the incentive spirometer. d. Set up the patient controlled analgesia (PCA) and administer the loading dose of morphine. 20. A patient with newly diagnosed lung cancer tells the nurse, I dont think Im going to live to see my next birthday. Which response by the nurse is best? a. Would you like to talk to the hospital chaplain about your feelings? b. Can you tell me what it is that makes you think you will die so soon? c. Are you afraid that the treatment for your cancer will not be effective? d. Do you think that taking an antidepressant medication would be helpful? 21. The nurse monitors a patient after chest tube placement for a hemopneumothorax. The nurse is most concerned if which assessment finding is observed? a. A large air leak in the water-seal chamber b. 400 mL of blood in the collection chamber c. Complaint of pain with each deep inspiration d. Subcutaneous emphysema at the insertion site 22. A patient experiences a chest wall contusion as a result of being struck in the chest with a baseball bat. The emergency department nurse would be most concerned if which finding is observed during the initial assessment? a. Paradoxic chest movement b. Complaint of chest wall pain c. Heart rate of 110 beats/minute d. Large bruised area on the chest 23. When assessing a patient who has just arrived after an automobile accident, the emergency department nurse notes tachycardia and absent breath sounds over the right lung. For which intervention will the nurse prepare the patient? a. Emergency pericardiocentesis b. Stabilization of the chest wall with tape c. Administration of an inhaled bronchodilator d. Insertion of a chest tube with a chest drainage system 24. A patient who has a right-sided chest tube following a thoracotomy has continuous bubbling in the suction- control chamber of the collection device. Which action by the nurse is most appropriate? a. Document the presence of a large air leak. b. Notify the surgeon of a possible pneumothorax. c. Take no further action with the collection device. d. Adjust the dial on the wall regulator to decrease suction. 25. The nurse provides preoperative instruction for a patient scheduled for a left pneumonectomy for cancer of the lung. Which information should the nurse include about the patients postoperative care? a. Positioning on the right side b. Bed rest for the first 24 hours c. Frequent use of an incentive spirometer d. Chest tube placement with continuous drainage 26. The nurse administers prescribed therapies for a patient with cor pulmonale and right-sided heart failure. Which assessment would best evaluate the effectiveness of the therapies? a. Observe for distended neck veins. b. Auscultate for crackles in the lungs. c. Palpate for heaves or thrills over the heart. d. Review hemoglobin and hematocrit values. 27. A patient with idiopathic pulmonary arterial hypertension (IPAH) is receiving nifedipine (Procardia). Which assessment would best indicate to the nurse that the patients condition is improving? a. Blood pressure (BP) is less than 140/90 mm Hg. b. Patient reports decreased exertional dyspnea. c. Heart rate is between 60 and 100 beats/minute. d. Patients chest x-ray indicates clear lung fields. 28. A patient with a pleural effusion is scheduled for a thoracentesis. Which action should the nurse take to prepare the patient for the procedure? a. Start a peripheral IV line to administer the necessary sedative drugs. b. Position the patient sitting upright on the edge of the bed and leaning forward. c. Obtain a large collection device to hold 2 to 3 liters of pleural fluid at one time. d. Remove the water pitcher and remind the patient not to eat or drink anything for 6 hours. 29. The nurse completes discharge teaching for a patient who has had a lung transplant. The nurse evaluates that the teaching has been effective if the patient makes which statement? a. I will make an appointment to see the doctor every year. b. I will stop taking the prednisone if I experience a dry cough. c. I will not worry if I feel a little short of breath with exercise. d. I will call the health care provider right away if I develop a fever. 30. A patient has just been admitted with probable bacterial pneumonia and sepsis. Which order should the nurse implement first? a. Chest x-ray via stretcher b. Blood cultures from two sites c. Ciprofloxacin (Cipro) 400 mg IV d. Acetaminophen (Tylenol) rectal suppository 31. The nurse cares for a patient who has just had a thoracentesis. Which assessment information obtained by the nurse is a priority to communicate to the health care provider? a. Oxygen saturation is 88%. b. Blood pressure is 145/90 mm Hg. c. Respiratory rate is 22 breaths/minute when lying flat. d. Pain level is 5 (on 0 to 10 scale) with a deep breath. 32. A patient who has just been admitted with community-acquired pneumococcal pneumonia has a temperature of 101.6 F with a frequent cough and is complaining of severe pleuritic chest pain. Which prescribed medication should the nurse give first? a. Codeine b. Guaifenesin (Robitussin) c. Acetaminophen (Tylenol) d. Piperacillin/tazobactam (Zosyn) 33. A patient is diagnosed with both human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) and active tuberculosis (TB) disease. Which information obtained by the nurse is most important to communicate to the health care provider? a. The Mantoux test had an induration of 7 mm. b. The chest-x-ray showed infiltrates in the lower lobes. c. The patient is being treated with antiretrovirals for HIV infection. d. The patient has a cough that is productive of blood-tinged mucus. 34. A patient with pneumonia has a fever of 101.4 F (38.6 C), a nonproductive cough, and an oxygen saturation of 88%. The patient complains of weakness, fatigue, and needs assistance to get out of bed. Which nursing diagnosis should the nurse assign as the highest priority? a. Hyperthermia related to infectious illness b. Impaired transfer ability related to weakness c. Ineffective airway clearance related to thick secretions d. Impaired gas exchange related to respiratory congestion 35. The nurse supervises unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) who are providing care for a patient with right lower lobe pneumonia. The nurse should intervene if which action by UAP is observed? a. UAP splint the patients chest during coughing. b. UAP assist the patient to ambulate to the bathroom. c. UAP help the patient to a bedside chair for meals. d. UAP lower the head of the patients bed to 15 degrees. 36. A patient with a possible pulmonary embolism complains of chest pain and difficulty breathing. The nurse finds a heart rate of 142 beats/minute, blood pressure of 100/60 mmHg, and respirations of 42 breaths/minute. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Administer anticoagulant drug therapy. b. Notify the patients health care provider. c. Prepare patient for a spiral computed tomography (CT). d. Elevate the head of the bed to a semi-Fowlers position. 37. The nurse receives change-of-shift report on the following four patients. Which patient should the nurse assess first? a. A 23-year-old patient with cystic fibrosis who has pulmonary function testing scheduled b. A 46-year-old patient on bed rest who is complaining of sudden onset of shortness of breath c. A 77-year-old patient with tuberculosis (TB) who has four antitubercular medications due in 15 minutes d. A 35-year-old patient who was admitted the previous day with pneumonia and has a temperature of 100.2 F (37.8 C) 38. The nurse is performing tuberculosis (TB) skin tests in a clinic that has many patients who have immigrated to the United States. Which question is most important for the nurse to ask before the skin test? a. Is there any family history of TB? b. How long have you lived in the United States? c. Do you take any over-the-counter (OTC) medications? d. Have you received the bacille Calmette-Gurin (BCG) vaccine for TB? 39. A patient is admitted to the emergency department with an open stab wound to the left chest. What is the first action that the nurse should take? a. Position the patient so that the left chest is dependent. b. Tape a nonporous dressing on three sides over the chest wound. c. Cover the sucking chest wound firmly with an occlusive dressing. d. Keep the head of the patients bed at no more than 30 degrees elevation. 40. The nurse notes that a patient has incisional pain, a poor cough effort, and scattered rhonchi after a thoracotomy. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Assist the patient to sit upright in a chair. b. Splint the patients chest during coughing. c. Medicate the patient with prescribed morphine. d. Observe the patient use the incentive spirometer. 41. The nurse is caring for a patient with idiopathic pulmonary arterial hypertension (IPAH) who is receiving epoprostenol (Flolan). Which assessment information requires the most immediate action by the nurse? a. The oxygen saturation is 94%. b. The blood pressure is 98/56 mm Hg. c. The patients central IV line is disconnected. d. The international normalized ratio (INR) is prolonged. 42. A patient who was admitted the previous day with pneumonia complains of a sharp pain of 7 (based on 0 to 10 scale) whenever I take a deep breath. Which action will the nurse take next? a. Auscultate breath sounds. b. Administer the PRN morphine. c. Have the patient cough forcefully. d. Notify the patients health care provider. 43. A patient has acute bronchitis with a nonproductive cough and wheezes. Which topic should the nurse plan to include in the teaching plan? a. Purpose of antibiotic therapy b. Ways to limit oral fluid intake c. Appropriate use of cough suppressants d. Safety concerns with home oxygen therapy 44. Which action by the nurse will be most effective in decreasing the spread of pertussis in a community setting? a. Providing supportive care to patients diagnosed with pertussis b. Teaching family members about the need for careful hand washing c. Teaching patients about the need for adult pertussis immunizations d. Encouraging patients to complete the prescribed course of antibiotics 45. An experienced nurse instructs a new nurse about how to care for a patient with dyspnea caused by a pulmonary fungal infection. Which action by the new nurse indicates a need for further teaching? a. Listening to the patients lung sounds several times during the shift b. Placing the patient on droplet precautions and in a private hospital room c. Increasing the oxygen flow rate to keep the oxygen saturation above 90% d. Monitoring patient serology results to identify the specific infecting organism 46. Which intervention will the nurse include in the plan of care for a patient who is diagnosed with a lung abscess? a. Teach the patient to avoid the use of over-the-counter expectorants. b. Assist the patient with chest physiotherapy and postural drainage. c. Notify the health care provider immediately about any bloody or foul-smelling sputum. d. Teach about the need for prolonged antibiotic therapy after discharge from the hospital. 47. The nurse provides discharge teaching for a patient who has two fractured ribs from an automobile accident. Which statement, if made by the patient, would indicate that teaching has been effective? a. I am going to buy a rib binder to wear during the day. b. I can take shallow breaths to prevent my chest from hurting. c. I should plan on taking the pain pills only at bedtime so I can sleep. d. I will use the incentive spirometer every hour or two during the day. 48. The nurse is caring for a patient who has a right-sided chest tube after a right lower lobectomy. Which nursing action can the nurse delegate to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? a. Document the amount of drainage every eight hours. b. Obtain samples of drainage for culture from the system. c. Assess patient pain level associated with the chest tube. d. Check the water-seal chamber for the correct fluid level. 49. After change-of-shift report, which patient should the nurse assess first? a. 72-year-old with cor pulmonale who has 4+ bilateral edema in his legs and feet b. 28-year-old with a history of a lung transplant and a temperature of 101 F (38.3 C) c. 40-year-old with a pleural effusion who is complaining of severe stabbing chest pain d. 64-year-old with lung cancer and tracheal deviation after subclavian catheter insertion 1. Which factors will the nurse consider when calculating the CURB-65 score for a patient with pneumonia (select all that apply)? a. Age b. Blood pressure c. Respiratory rate d. Oxygen saturation e. Presence of confusion f. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level 1. The nurse notes new onset confusion in an older patient who is normally alert and oriented. In which order should the nurse take the following actions? (Put a comma and a space between each answer choice [A, B, C, D].) a. Obtain the oxygen saturation. b. Check the patients pulse rate. c. Document the change in status. d. Notify the health care provider. ANS: A, B, D, C Chapter 68 1. To evaluate the effectiveness of ordered interventions for a patient with ventilatory failure, which diagnostic test will be most useful to the nurse? a. Chest x-ray b. Oxygen saturation c. Arterial blood gas analysis d. Central venous pressure monitoring 2. While caring for a patient who has been admitted with a pulmonary embolism, the nurse notes a change in the patients oxygen saturation (SpO2) from 94% to 88%. Which action should the nurse take next? a. Increase the oxygen flow rate. b. Suction the patients oropharynx. c. Instruct the patient to cough and deep breathe. d. Help the patient to sit in a more upright position. 3. A patient with respiratory failure has a respiratory rate of 6 breaths/minute and an oxygen saturation (SpO2) of 88%. The patient is increasingly lethargic. Which intervention will the nurse anticipate? a. Administration of 100% oxygen by non-rebreather mask b. Endotracheal intubation and positive pressure ventilation c. Insertion of a mini-tracheostomy with frequent suctioning d. Initiation of continuous positive pressure ventilation (CPAP) 4. The oxygen saturation (SpO2) for a patient with left lower lobe pneumonia is 90%. The patient has rhonchi, a weak cough effort, and complains of fatigue. Which action is a priority for the nurse to take? a. Position the patient on the left side. b. Assist the patient with staged coughing. c. Place a humidifier in the patients room. d. Schedule a 2-hour rest period for the patient. 5. A nurse is caring for an obese patient with right lower lobe pneumonia. Which position will be best to improve gas exchange? a. On the lef t side b. On the right side c. In the tripod position d. In the high-Fowlers position 6. When admitting a patient with possible respiratory failure with a high PaCO2, which assessment information should be immediately reported to the health care provider? a. The patient is somnolent. b. The patient complains of weakness. c. The patients blood pressure is 164/98. d. The patients oxygen saturation is 90%. 7. A patient with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) and acute kidney injury has the following medications ordered. Which medication should the nurse discuss with the health care provider before giving? a. Pantoprazole (Protonix) 40 mg IV b. Gentamicin (Garamycin) 60 mg IV c. Sucralfate (Carafate) 1 g per nasogastric tube d. Methylprednisolone (Solu-Medrol) 60 mg IV 8. A patient develops increasing dyspnea and hypoxemia 2 days after heart surgery. To determine whether the patient has acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) or pulmonary edema caused by heart failure, the nurse will plan to assist with a. obtaining a ventilation-perfusion scan. b. drawing blood for arterial blood gases. c. insertion of a pulmonary artery catheter. d. positioning the patient for a chest x-ray. 9. A nurse is caring for a patient with ARDS who is being treated with mechanical ventilation and high levels of positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP). Which assessment finding by the nurse indicates that the PEEP may need to be reduced? a. The patients PaO2 is 50 mm Hg and the SaO2 is 88%. b. The patient has subcutaneous emphysema on the upper thorax. c. The patient has bronchial breath sounds in both the lung fields. d. The patient has a first-degree atrioventricular heart block with a rate of 58. 10. Which statement by the nurse when explaining the purpose of positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) to the family members of a patient with ARDS is accurate? a. PEEP will push more air into the lungs during inhalation. b. PEEP prevents the lung air sacs from collapsing during exhalation. c. PEEP will prevent lung damage while the patient is on the ventilator. d. PEEP allows the breathing machine to deliver 100% oxygen to the lungs. 11. A patient with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is placed in the prone position. When prone positioning is used, which information obtained by the nurse indicates that the positioning is effective? a. The patients PaO2 is 89 mm Hg, and the SaO2 is 91%. b. Endotracheal suctioning results in clear mucous return. c. Sputum and blood cultures show no growth after 48 hours. d. The skin on the patients back is intact and without redness. 12. The nurse documents the vital signs for a patient admitted 2 days ago with gram-negative sepsis: temperature 101.2 F, blood pressure 90/56 mm Hg, pulse 92, respirations 34. Which action should the nurse take next? a. Give the scheduled IV antibiotic. b. Give the PRN acetaminophen (Tylenol). c. Obtain oxygen saturation using pulse oximetry. d. Notify the health care provider of the patients vital signs. 13. A nurse is caring for a patient who is orally intubated and receiving mechanical ventilation. To decrease the risk for ventilator-associated pneumonia, which action will the nurse include in the plan of care? a. Elevate head of bed to 30 to 45 degrees. b. Suction the endotracheal tube every 2 to 4 hours. c. Limit the use of positive end-expiratory pressure. d. Give enteral feedings at no more than 10 mL/hr. 14. A patient admitted with acute respiratory failure has a nursing diagnosis of ineffective airway clearance related to thick, secretions. Which action is a priority for the nurse to include in the plan of care? a. Encourage use of the incentive spirometer. b. Offer the patient fluids at frequent intervals. c. Teach the patient the importance of ambulation. d. Titrate oxygen level to keep O2 saturation >93%. 15. A patient with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) who is intubated and receiving mechanical ventilation develops a right pneumothorax. Which action will the nurse anticipate taking next? a. Increase the tidal volume and respiratory rate. b. Increase the fraction of inspired oxygen (FIO2). c. Perform endotracheal suctioning more frequently. d. Lower the positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP). 16. After receiving change-of-shift report on a medical unit, which patient should the nurse assess first? a. A patient with cystic fibrosis who has thick, green-colored sputum b. A patient with pneumonia who has crackles bilaterally in the lung bases c. A patient with emphysema who has an oxygen saturation of 90% to 92% d. A patient with septicemia who has intercostal and suprasternal retractions 17. A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) arrives in the emergency department complaining of shortness of breath and dyspnea on minimal exertion. Which assessment finding by the nurse is most important to report to the health care provider? a. The patient has bibasilar lung crackles. b. The patient is sitting in the tripod position. c. The patients respirations have decreased from 30 to 10 breaths/minute. d. The patients pulse oximetry indicates an O2 saturation of 91%. 18. When assessing a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), the nurse finds a new onset of agitation and confusion. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Notify the health care provider. b. Check pupils for reaction to light. c. Attempt to calm and reorient the patient. d. Assess oxygenation using pulse oximetry. 19. The nurse is caring for a 33-year-old patient who arrived in the emergency department with acute respiratory distress. Which assessment finding by the nurse requires the most rapid action? a. The patients PaO2 is 45 mm Hg. b. The patients PaCO2 is 33 mm Hg. c. The patients respirations are shallow. d. The patients respiratory rate is 32 breaths/minute. 20. The nurse is caring for a 78-year-old patient who was hospitalized 2 days earlier with community-acquired pneumonia. Which assessment information is most important to communicate to the health care provider? a. Scattered crackles bilaterally in the posterior lung bases. b. Persistent cough that is productive of blood-tinged sputum. c. Temperature of 101.5 F (38.6 C) after 2 days of IV antibiotic therapy. d. Decreased oxygen saturation to 90% with 100% O2 by non-rebreather mask. 21. Which nursing interventions included in the care of a mechanically ventilated patient with acute respiratory failure can the registered nurse (RN) delegate to an experienced licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/LVN) working in the intensive care unit? a. Assess breath sounds every hour. b. Monitor central venous pressures. c. Place patient in the prone position. d. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter. 22. A nurse is caring for a patient with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) who is receiving mechanical ventilation using synchronized intermittent mandatory ventilation (SIMV). The settings include fraction of inspired oxygen (FIO2) 80%, tidal volume 450, rate 16/minute, and positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) 5 cm. Which assessment finding is most important for the nurse to report to the health care provider? a. Oxygen saturation 99% b. Respiratory rate 22 breaths/minute c. Crackles audible at lung bases d. Heart rate 106 beats/minute 23. Which information about a patient who is receiving cisatracurium (Nimbex) to prevent asynchronous breathing with the positive pressure ventilator requires immediate action by the nurse? a. Only continuous IV opioids have been ordered. b. The patient does not respond to verbal stimulation. c. There is no cough or gag when the patient is suctioned. d. The patients oxygen saturation fluctuates between 90% to 93%. 24. The nurse is caring for a patient who is intubated and receiving positive pressure ventilation to treat acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). Which finding is most important to report to the health care provider? a. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level 32 mg/dL b. Red-brown drainage from orogastric tube c. Scattered coarse crackles heard throughout lungs d. Arterial blood gases: pH 7.31, PaCO2 50, PaO2 68 25. During change-of-shift report on a medical unit, the nurse learns that a patient with aspiration pneumonia who was admitted with respiratory distress has become increasingly agitated. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Give the prescribed PRN sedative drug. b. Offer reassurance and reorient the patient. c. Use pulse oximetry to check the oxygen saturation. d. Notify the health care provider about the patients status. 26. The nurse reviews the electronic medical record for a patient scheduled for a total hip replacement. Which assessment data shown in the accompanying figure increase the patients risk for respiratory complications after surgery? a. Albumin level and recent weight loss b. Mild confusion and recent weight loss c. Age and recent arthroscopic procedure. d. Anemia and recent arthroscopic procedure 1. Which actions should the nurse initiate to reduce the risk for ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP) (select all that apply)? a. Obtain arterial blood gases daily. b. Provide a sedation holiday daily. c. Elevate the head of the bed to at least 30. d. Give prescribed pantoprazole (Protonix). e. Provide oral care with chlorhexidine (0.12%) solution daily. [Show More]

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 Health Care> EXAM > RPSGT Exam practice questions and Answers 2022 (All)

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RPSGT Exam practice questions and Answers 2022

The HFF - ANSWER used to adjust the rise time of a sign Blood Iron Deficiency - ANSWER What are some possible causes for secondary PLMS? Nocturnal polysomnography - ANSWER NPSG stands for ______...

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 Health Care> EXAM > RPSGT Exam practice questions and Answers 2022 (All)

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RPSGT Exam practice questions and Answers 2022

The HFF - ANSWER used to adjust the rise time of a sign Blood Iron Deficiency - ANSWER What are some possible causes for secondary PLMS? Nocturnal polysomnography - ANSWER NPSG stands for ______...

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 Business Law> EXAM > BUSINESS L 110 Business Law Final Practice Questions and Answers,100% CORRECT (All)

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BUSINESS L 110 Business Law Final Practice Questions and Answers,100% CORRECT

BUSINESS L 110 Business Law Final Practice Questions and Answers 1 Business law consists of the enforceable rules of conduct that govern commercial relationships. True 2 Because of the law, we re...

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