Advanced Pathophysiology-Wk 3 Genetics, Genomics, & Cancer.complete questions and answers

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NSG 5003 | NSG5003 Advanced Pathophysiology-Wk 3 Genetics, Genomics, & Cancer Oncogenese are genes that are capable of: A) undergoing mutation that directs the synthesis of proteins to accelerate ... the rate of tissue proliferation B) directing synthesis of protein to regulate frowth and to procide necessary replacement of tissue C) encoding proteins that negatively regulate the synthesis of proteins to slow or halt the replacement of tissue D) undergoing mutation that directs malignant tissue toward blood vessels and lymph nodes for metastasis Burkitt lymphomas designate a chromosome that has a piece of chromosome 8 fused to a piece of chromosome 14. This is an example of which mutation of normal genes to oncogenes? A) point mutation B) chromosome translocation C) gene amplification D) chromosome fusion In childhood neuroblastoma, the N-myc oncogene undergoes which type of mutation of normal genes to oncogenes? A) point mutation B) chromosome fusion C) gene amplification D) chromosome translocation Which aberrant change causes the abnormal growth in a retinoblastoma? A) proto-oncogenes are changed to oncogenes B) the tumor suppressor gene is turn off C) genetic amplification causes the abnormal growth D) chromosomes 9 & 21 are fused Two hits are required to inactivate tumor-suppressor genes because: A) each allele must be altered and each person has two copies, or alleles, of each gene, one from each parent B) the first hit stops tissue growth and the second hit is needed to cause abnormal tissue growth C) tumor suppressor genes are larger than proto-oncogenes, requiring two hits to effect carcinogenesis D) the first hit is insufficient to cause enough damage to cause a mutation Chronic inflammation causes cancer by: A) increasing vasodilation and permeabilitu that alter cellular response to DNA damage B) liberating lysosomal enzymes when cells are damaged, which inititates mutations C) releasing compounds such as reactive oxygen species that promotoe mutations D) increasing the abundance of leukotrienes that are associated with some cancers What is the consequence for cells when the functioning TP53 gene is lost as a result of mutation? A) cells undergo apoptosis B) cells escape apoptosis C) cells receive less oxygen D) cells adhere more readily Which gastrointestinal tract condition can be an outcome of both chemotherapy and radiation therapy? A) increased cell turnover B) constipation C) stomatitis D) bloody stool Ans: C- stomatitis What is the role of vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) and basic fivroblast growth factor (bFGF) in cell metastasis? A) to stimulate growth of nearby tumor cells B) to develop new blood vessels to feed cancer cells C) to prevent cancer cells from escaping apoptosis D) to act as a chemical gradient to guide cells to blood vessels It has been determined that a tumor is in stage 2. What is the meaning of this finding? A) the cancer is confined to the organ of origin B) the cancer has spread to regional structures C) the cancer is locally invasive D) the cancer has spread to distant sites Which statement is true regarding pain and cancer? A) pain is primarily a result of pressure caused by the tumor B) pain indicates metastasis of the cancer C) pain is usually the initial symptom of cancer D) pain is generally associated with late-stage cancer Which cancer may be treated with radiation delivered by brachytherapy? A) lung B) colon C) cervical D) brain By which process do cancer cells multiply in the absence of external growth signals? A) proto-oncogenes B) autocrine stimulation C) reliance on caretaker genes D) polymorphology What is the role of caretaker genes? A) maintenance of genomic integrity B) proliferation of cancer cells C) secretion of growth factors D) restoration of normal tissue structure Which statement concerning benign tumors is true? A) the resulting pain is severe B) benign tumors are not encapsulated C) benign tumors are fast growing D) the cells are well differentiated Which characteristics among women correlates with a high morbidity of cancer of the colon? A) women older than 45 years of age B) women who have never had children C) women who have a high body mass index (BMI) D) women who have smoked for more than ten years Which cancers pose the highest risk for radiologists? A) thyroid B) breast C) blood D) brain The World Health Organization (WHO) defines grade 1 (overweight) as a body mass index (BMI) of: A) 18.5 to 24.9 B) 25 to 29.9 C) 30 to 39.9 D) 40 to 50.9 When are childhood cancers most often diagnosed? A) during infancy B) at peak times of physical growth C) after diagnosis fo a chronic illness D) after and acute illness How should the nurse reply when parents question why a computed tomographic (CT) scan of the head was not ordered for their five-year-old child after a minor fall? A) physicians are cautious about ordering a CT scan on children younger than ten years of age B) CT scans are seldom conclusive when used to diagnose head injuries in young children C) The child's symptoms will determine whether a CT scan is necessary and worth the expense D) research suggests that repeated CT scans can increase the risk of developing brain cancer Which of the following bases are single-ringed structure in the DNA molecule? A) cytosine and thymine B) cytosine and adenine C) thymine and guanine D) guanine and adenine The term that describes the DNA subunit of one deoxyribose molecule, one phosphate group, and one base is: A) polypeptide B) double helix C) nucleotide D) codon Which of the following statements regarding codons is true? A) there are 80 possible codons B) there are three codons that signal the end of a gene C) there are 70 codons that specify amino acids D) each amino acid has one codon The function of DNA polymerase is to: A) synthesize RNA from the DNA template B) synthsize a polypeptide C) perform base-pairing in replication D) split DNA molecules An accurate description of a silent mutation is: A) a change in the DNA without a change in amino acid B) insertion or deletion of one or more base-pairs C) an increase in the number or frequency of mutations D) exposure to a mutagen Base-pairs are appropriately described as: A) adenin pairs with guanine B) guanine pairs with thymine C) cutosine pairs with adenine D) uracile pairs with adenine The term that describes the sequence for the beginning of a gene is: A) intron B) exon C) promoter site D) anticodon What chemical complex is secreted into the cytoplasm and synthesized in the nucleolus? A) endoplasmic reticulum B) cisternae C) ribosome D) lysosome It is true that a chromosome: A) contains 3 different cell types B) has somatic cells containing 46 chromosomes C) has gametes that are diploid cells D) contains diploid cells that are formed through meiosis Which of the following terms describes a cell that does not contain a multiple of 23? A) aneuploid B) monsomy C) trisomy D) tetrapoidy It is true that Down syndrome: A) occurs in 1 in 800 live births B) produces an individual with a normal IQ C) results in a distinctive facial appearance D) has a symptomology that includes above average muscle tone Female patient born with short stature, webbing of the neck, sparse body hair, and narrowing of the aorta is likely exhibiting symptolmology of: A) klinefetter syndrome B) down syndrome C) turner syndrome D) fetal alcohol syndrome A patient born with the deletion of the short arm of the chromosome 5 is exhibiting a characteristic of: A) down syndrome B) turner syndrome C) fragile x syndrome D) cri-du-chat syndrome It is true that autosomal dominant gene transmission results in: A) the affected parent transmitting the gene to half of his or her children B) the affected gene being found in males only C) the skipping of generations for transmission D) females transmitting the gene more often than males Which of the following is a true statement regarding autosomal recessive trait inheritance? A) parents consistently displaying the trait B) approximately 50% of children displaying the trait C) both males and females being affected equally D) the child being heterozygous Regarding sex-linked inheritance, it is true that: A) most sex-linked traits occur on the Y chromosome B) x-linked recessive diseased are more common than x-linked dominant diseases C) males are less affected by x-linked diseases D) females are always homozygous for x-linked traits The DNA, the material that comprises genes, is composed of: Select all that apply. A) pentose sugar. B) deoxyribose C) pyrimidine base D) ribosome E) purine base Which disease is cause by an abnormal karyotype? A) down syndrome B) huntington disease C) phenylketonuria (PKU) D) neurofibromatosis E) cystic fibrosis Which is not a characteristic of Down syndrome? A) it is an autosomal aneuploidy B) it is a genetic error of metabolism C) mental retardation is consistently expressed D) clinical diagnosis can be suggested by facila appearance E) the karyotype is 47, xy + 21 Cri-du-chat syndrome is an abnormality of chromosomal structure involving: A) translocation B) inversion C) duplication D) deletion An individual's karyotype lacks a homologous x chromosome and has only a single x chromosome present. Which statement is not true? A) the karyotype is 45, x B) features include ribbed neck and short stature C) the karyotype is 46, xy D) the disorder is a sex chromosome aneuploidy If homologous chromosomes fail to separate during meiosis, the disorder is: A) polyploidy B) aneuploidy C) disjunction D) nondisjunction E) translocation Cystic fibrosis has been mapped to chromosome: A) 17 B) 7 C) x D) 16 In autosomal dominant inherited disorders: A) affected individuals do not have and affected parent B) affected person mating with normal persons have a 50% risk of having an affected offspring C) male offspring are most often affected D) unaffected children born to affected parents will have affected children Identity is the characteristic(s) of x-linked recessive inherited disorders (Select All That Apply): A) affected males have normal sons B) affected males have affected daughters C) sons of female carriers have a 50% risk of being affected D) the affected female may transmit the gene toboth sons and daughters Which is/are not autosomal dominant disease disorders (Select All That Apply)? A) huntington disease B) neurofibromatosis C) duchenne muscular dystrophy D) von recklinghausen disease E) pyloric stenosis Whe environmental influences cause varied phenotypic expressions of genotypes, the result is: A) a multifactorial trait B) a threshold liability C) an autosomal dominant trait D) an x-linked recessive trait Which likely is not a multifactorial inherited disorder? A) cleft palate B) hypertention C) diabetes melitis D) cystic fibrosis E) heart disease Recessive disorder individual is homozygous for a gene Multifactorial inheritance many genes are common Aneuploidy two or more cell lines with different karyotypes Chromosomal aberration results from numerical or structural aberrations Phenotype outward appearance of an individual Pedigree summarizes family relationships Autosomal recessive inheritance a probability of 25% Expressivity the extent of variation in phenotype for a particular genotype X-linked a gene carried on the X chromosome. If a male inherits an X-linked recessive trait from his mother, he expresses that trait because the Y from his father has no counteracting gene. Females are more likely to be carriers of X-linked traits but are less likely to express them. Inversion no loss or gain of genetic material, reversed order Dominant trait expressed by one allele Allele different versions of the same paired gene 47, XXY Klinefelter syndrome Karyotype a picture of all the chromosomes in a cell arranged in pairs [Show More]

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