NREMT EXAM Questions and Answers with complete solutions

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Prevention and wellness. - ANSWER It is important that an EMT takes care of his/her own health and well being focusing on: Pathogens. - ANSWER Organisms that cause infection, such as viruses or bac... teria, are: Standard precautions. - ANSWER Equipment and procedures that protect you from the blood and body fluids of a patient are referred to as: PPE. - ANSWER Gloves, masks, and gowns are examples of: Eustress. - ANSWER The positive form of stress that helps people work under pressure and respond effectively is: MRSA. - ANSWER A highly contagious viral respiratory disease which frequently mutates into new forms is called: Assist emergency care workers in dealing with stress. - ANSWER The goal of the Critical Incident Stress Debriefing is to: Alarm reaction. - ANSWER The first stage of stress is also known as: Contamination. - ANSWER The introduction of dangerous chemicals, disease, or infectious materials is: Stage of resistance. - ANSWER The second stage of stress is also known as: Exhaustion. - ANSWER The third stage of stress is also known as: Acute, delayed, and cumulative stress reactions. - ANSWER What are the three types of stress reactions? Acute stress reaction. - ANSWER Type of stress reaction that occurs simultaneously with, or shortly after the critical incident: Delayed stress reaction. - ANSWER Type of stress reaction that may occur at any time, days to years following a critical incident; is also known as PTSD: Cumulative stress reaction. - ANSWER Type of stress reaction that occurs as a result of prolonged recurring stressors in our work or private lives; is also known as burn-out: Multiple-casualty incident MCI. - ANSWER An emergency involving multiple patients is called: Distress. - ANSWER The negative form of stress is referred to as: Denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance. - ANSWER What are the emotional stages of death and dying? Retreat, radio, and reevaluate. - ANSWER What are the three R's of reacting to danger? Bargaining. - ANSWER The stage of grieving in which a patient seeks to postpone death, even for a short time, is: Prevent disturbing the crime scene. - ANSWER It is important that the EMT follow the same path in and out of a crime scene in order to: Centers for Disease Control and Prevention. - ANSWER The agency that has issued strict guidelines detailing precautions against exposure to blood-borne pathogens is the: HEPA respirator. - ANSWER In cases where TB is expected, use a: Childbirth. - ANSWER A situation that would usually call for the use of a gown as protection would be: Hapatitis. - ANSWER An infection that causes an inflammation of the liver is: Plan, observe, and react. - ANSWER What are the three words that could sum up the actions required to respond to danger are: PTSD. - ANSWER A delayed stress reaction is most commonly known as: Reporting officers. - ANSWER Under the Ryan White CARE ct, the officials in every emergency response organization who gather facts about possible emergency responder exposure to infectious diseases are the: Body mechanics. - ANSWER The proper use of the body to facilitate lifting and moving and to prevent injury is: 15 to 20 inches in front of your body. - ANSWER When reaching, keep your back in a locked-in position, avoid twisting while reaching, and avoid reaching more than what? Emergency move. - ANSWER If the scene is hazardous, or the care of life-threatening conditions requires repositioning, and if you must reach other patients, you need to utilize what move? Move the patient in the direction of the long axis of the body when possible. - ANSWER To minimize or prevent aggravation of an injury, how should you move the patient? Emergency move. - ANSWER Move that requires the patient to be moved quickly for treatment of an immediate threat to life, but without spinal precautions: Urgent move. - ANSWER Move that requires the patient to be moved quickly for treatment of an immediate threat to life, but with spinal precautions: Non-urgent move. - ANSWER When there is no immediate threat to life, the patient should be moved when ready for transportation, using what type of move? A patient-carrying device. - ANSWER In a non-urgent move, the patient is moved from the site of on-scene assessment to what? Power stretcher, portable stretcher, basket stretcher, scoop stretcher, flexible stretcher, and stair chair. - ANSWER What are the six patient-carrying devices? Off-balance. - ANSWER An odd number of EMT's may cause a stretcher to become: Bariatric. - ANSWER Having to do with patients who are significantly overweight or obese is: Securely on the inside floor of the ambulance. - ANSWER When loading a wheeled-stretcher into the ambulance, position the wheels closest to the patient's head where? The rescuer at the rear of the stretcher should activate the lever to release the wheels. - ANSWER When loading a wheeled-stretcher into the ambulance, after you position the wheels securely on the ambulance floor, you should next: Stair-chair. - ANSWER What type of patient-carrying device has wheels to move the patient along a floor or level ground, but also has a track-like system to slide the patient down a staircase rather than lift them is: Patients withe neck or spine injuries, unresponsive patients, patients with an altered mental status, or patients that require air-way care. - ANSWER The stair chair should not be used with what types of patients? Those who have difficulty breathing. - ANSWER The stair chair is best suitable for what type of patients? Removing patients from vehicles who have a suspected spine or neck injury. - ANSWER Short spine boards are used primarily for: Scoop stretcher. - ANSWER Type of stretcher that splits into two pieces vertically, allowing the patient to be "scooped": Basket stretcher. - ANSWER Type of stretcher that can be used to move a patient from one level to another or over rough terrain: Flexible stretcher. - ANSWER Type of stretcher that is made of canvas, or some other rubberized or flexible material, often with wooden slats sewn into pockets and three carrying handles on each side: Orthopedic stretcher. - ANSWER Another name for a scoop stretcher: Stokes stretcher. - ANSWER Another name for a basket stretcher: Reeves stretcher. - ANSWER Another name for a flexible stretcher: On their side in the recovery position. - ANSWER Unresponsive patients with no suspected spinal injury should be placed in what position? Position of comfort. - ANSWER Patients who have no suspected spinal injury and have a medical complaint such as chest pain, nausea, or difficulty breathing should be placed in what position? Fowler position. - ANSWER The semi-sitting position is also known as: Supine position. - ANSWER Patients who are believed to be in shock are placed in what position? in loco parentis. - ANSWER Authority granted to a teacher or adult by a child's parents to make treatment decisions in their absence is called: Expressed consent. - ANSWER Mentally competent adults of legal age who accept care from an EMS crew are said to give: Implied consent. - ANSWER EMS personnel can treat unconscious patients because the law holds that rational patients would consent to treatment if they were conscious; this principle is known as: Emancipated. - ANSWER Minors who are married or of a certain age and who are legally able to give consent for medical care are known as: Assault. - ANSWER If an EMT forces a competent patient to go to the hospital against their will, the EMT may be charged with: Scope of practice. - ANSWER A set of regulations and ethical considerations that define the scope, or extent and limits of the EMT's job: Standard of care. - ANSWER The care that would be expected to be provided by an EMT with similar training when caring for a patient in a similar situation is: Patients must understand the risks associated with the care they will receive. - ANSWER Expressed consent must be informed consent, which means: Liability. - ANSWER Being held legally responsible is: Assault. - ANSWER Placing a person in fear of bodily harm: Battery. - ANSWER Causing bodily harm to or restraining a person: DNR order. - ANSWER A legal document, usually signed by the patient and his physician, which states that the patient has a terminal illness and does not wish to prolong life through resuscitative efforts: Advance directive. - ANSWER A DNR order, or instructions written in advance of an event: A proxy. - ANSWER A person whom the signer of the document names to make health care decisions in case he or she is unable to make such decisions for themselves is: Negligence. - ANSWER A finding of failure to act properly in a situation in which there was a duty to act, that needed care as would reasonably be expected of the EMT was not provided, and that harm was caused to the patient as a result: Duty to act, committed a breach of duty, and there was proximate causation. - ANSWER What circumstances must be proven in order for there to be a finding of negligence? Tort. - ANSWER A civil, not a criminal, offense; an action or injury caused by negligence from which a lawsuit may arise: res ipsa loquitur. - ANSWER A Latin term meaning "the thing speaks for itself": Patient refusal and ambulance collisions. - ANSWER The two most common and significant causes of lawsuits against EMT's are: Duty to act. - ANSWER An obligation to provide care to a patient: Abandonment. - ANSWER Leaving a patient after care has been initiated and before the patient has been transferred to someone with equal or greater medical training: Moral. - ANSWER Regarding personal standards or principles of right and wrong: Ethical. - ANSWER Regarding a social system or social or professional expectations for applying principles of right and wrong: Good samaritan laws. - ANSWER A series of laws, varying in each state, designed to provide limited legal protection for citizens and some health care personnel when they are administering emergency care: Safe haven laws. - ANSWER Statutes that allow a person to abandon their parental duties and legally drop off a child to an EMS station or other public safety building are called: Notify the nurse or physician at the hospital. - ANSWER If you discover that a critically injured patient is an organ donor, as an EMT you should: Libel. - ANSWER False or injurious information in written form: Slander. - ANSWER False or injurious information stated verbally: Health insurance portability and accountability act. - ANSWER HIPAA stands for: Provide patient care. - ANSWER Once police have made the scene safe, the priority of the EMT at a crime scene is to: Midline. - ANSWER Down the center of the body: Medial. - ANSWER Toward the midline of the body: Lateral. - ANSWER To the side, away from the midline of the body: Bilateral. - ANSWER On both sides: Mid-axillary. - ANSWER A line drawn vertically from the middle of the armpit to the ankle: Antertior. - ANSWER The front of the body or body part: Posterior. - ANSWER The back of the body or body part: Ventral. - ANSWER Referring to the front of the body; a synonym for anterior: Dorsal. - ANSWER Referring to the back of the body or the back of the hand or foot; a synonym for posterior: Superior. - ANSWER Toward the head: Inferior. - ANSWER Away from the head: Proximal. - ANSWER Closer to the torso: Distal. - ANSWER Farther away from the torso: Palmar. - ANSWER Palm of the hand: Plantar. - ANSWER Sole of the foot: Recovery position. - ANSWER Lateral recumbent position is also known as: Ligament. - ANSWER Tissue that connects bone to bone: Tendon. - ANSWER Tissue that connects muscle to bone: Trendelenburg position. - ANSWER Position in which the patient's feet and legs are higher than the head: Thorax. - ANSWER The chest: Sternum. - ANSWER The breastbone: Manubrium. - ANSWER Superior portion of the sternum: Xiphoid process. - ANSWER The inferior portion of the sternum: Cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacrum, coccyx. - ANSWER The divisions of the spine: 7. - ANSWER How many vertebrae are in the cervical portion? 12. - ANSWER How many vertebrae are in the thoracic portion? 5. - ANSWER How many vertebrae are in the lumbar portion? 5. - ANSWER How many vertebrae are in the sacral portion? 4. - ANSWER How many vertebrae are in the coccyx portion? Contracts and moves downward. - ANSWER During inhalation, the diaphragm: Relaxes and moves upward. - ANSWER During exhalation, the diaphragm : Child has smaller nose and mouth, a child's tongue takes up more space in their mouth, a child's trachea is narrower, child's cricoid cartilage is less rigid and less developed, and a child's airway structures are more easily obstructed. - ANSWER Compare the adult respiratory anatomy of a child to an adult: Two upper atria, and two lower ventricles. - ANSWER What are the four chambers of the heart? Coronary arteries. - ANSWER Arteries that branch off of the aorta and supply the heart muscle with blood: Aorta. - ANSWER Largest artery in the body: Pulmonary artery. - ANSWER Artery that is an exception because it carries de-oxygenated blood from the heart to the lungs: Pulmonary vein. - ANSWER Vein that is an exception because it carries oxygenated blood from the lungs to the heart: Left ventricle. - ANSWER A pulse is formed when what ventricle contracts? Systolic blood pressure. - ANSWER The pressure created in the arteries when the left ventricle contracts and forces blood out into circulation: Diastolic pressure. - ANSWER The pressure in the arteries when the left ventricle is refilling: Shock. - ANSWER Hypoperfusion is also known as: Liver. - ANSWER The largest organ of the body which produces bile: Gallbladder. - ANSWER Sac on the underside of the liver that stores and secretes bile produced by the liver: Pancreas. - ANSWER Gland located behind the stomach that produces insulin: Spleen. - ANSWER Organ located in the left upper quadrant of the abdomen that acts as a blood filtration system and a reservoir for reserves of blood: Appendix. - ANSWER Small tube located in the right lower quadrant of the abdomen, and is a common cause of abdominal pain: Adrenal glands. - ANSWER Glands that are located on the superior portion of the kidneys and secrete epinephrine and norepinephrine; also regulate water and electrolyte levels: Pineal gland. - ANSWER Gland that regulates circadian rhythm: Thymus gland. - ANSWER Gland that is involved in the development of the immune system: Vena cavae, right atrium, tricuspid valve, right ventricle, pulmonary valve, pulmonary artery, lungs, left atrium, left ventricle, aorta, and to the body. - ANSWER What is the pathway of blood circulating through the heart? 21% oxygen. - ANSWER Inhaled air contains how much oxygen? Tidal volume. - ANSWER The volume of air moved in one cycle of breathing: Minute volume. - ANSWER The amount of air breathed in during each respiration multiplied by the number of breaths per minute: Dead air space. - ANSWER Air that occupies the space between the mouth and the alveoli, but that does not actually reach the area of gas exchange: It will also increase. - ANSWER If a patient's heart rate increases, what will happen to their cardiac output? It also decreases. - ANSWER If a patient's stroke volume decreases, what happens to their cardiac output? Stroke volume. - ANSWER The volume of blood ejected from the heart in one squeeze or contraction: 70% Intracellular,5% intravascular, and 25% interstitial. - ANSWER Water is divided into three spaces in the body: Meningitis. - ANSWER An infection of the protective layers of the brain and spinal cord: Encephalitis. - ANSWER An infection of the brain itself: Too many hormones or not enough hormones. - ANSWER Endocrine disorders generally fall into what two categories? Graves disease. - ANSWER A condition in which the thyroid gland overproduces its hormone: Vomiting and diarrhea. - ANSWER The most common digestive orders are: Acute myocardial infarction and stroke. - ANSWER Aside from digestive complications, vomiting is often a sign of: Infants. - ANSWER Patients younger than one year are called: Moro reflex. - ANSWER A startled infant who reaches out and grabs with her fingers and arms is exhibiting the: 140-160 a minute. - ANSWER Normal heart rate for an infant: 40-60 a minute and then it drops down to 30-40 soon after birth. - ANSWER Normal respiratory rate for an infant: 70 at birth to 90 at one year. - ANSWER Systolic blood pressure for an infant: Palmer reflex. - ANSWER When you place your finger in an infant's palm, he will grasp it. This is known as: Rooting reflex. - ANSWER When you touch a hungry infant's cheek, he will turn his head toward the side being touched. This is known as: Sucking reflex. - ANSWER When you stroke a hungry infant's lips, he will start sucking. This is known as: Dehydration. - ANSWER If an infant's fontanelle is sunken in, this indicates: Increased pressure inside the skull or that the infant is crying. - ANSWER If an infant's fontanelle is bulging, this indicates: Infancy. - ANSWER Birth to one year is: Toddler phase. - ANSWER Stage of life from 12 to 36 months: Preschool age. - ANSWER Stage of life from 3 to 5 years: Preschool age. - ANSWER Children begin to be involved with peer groups when they reach the: 80-130 a minute. - ANSWER Normal heart rate for a toddler: 20-30 a minute. - ANSWER Normal respiratory rate for a toddler: 70-100. - ANSWER Normal systolic blood pressure for a toddler: 36 months. - ANSWER By what age do children develop all of their primary teeth? 80-120 a minute. - ANSWER Normal heart rate for preschool age 3-5 years: 20-30 a minute. - ANSWER Normal respiratory rate for preschool age 3-5 years: 80-110. - ANSWER Normal systolic blood pressure for preschool age 3-5 years: Primary teeth. - ANSWER The most obvious change to school age children is the loss of their: School age. - ANSWER Stage of life from 6 to 12 years: 70-110 a minute. - ANSWER Normal heart rate for school age 6-12 years: 20-30 a minute. - ANSWER Normal respiratory rate for school age 6-12 years: 80-120. - ANSWER Normal systolic blood pressure for school age 6-12 years: Adolescence. - ANSWER Body image is of tremendous concern to children who reach: Adolescence. - ANSWER Stage of life from 13 to 18 years: 55-105 a minute. - ANSWER Normal heart rate for adolescence age 13-18 years: 12-20 a minute. - ANSWER Normal respiratory rate for adolescence age 13-18 years: 80-120. - ANSWER Normal systolic blood pressure for adolescence age 13-18 years: Adolescence 13-18 years. - ANSWER Depression and suicide are alarmingly common in this age group: Early adulthoood. - ANSWER Stage of life from 19-40 years: Adolescence 13-18 years. - ANSWER Children have a two to three year growth spurt during: Average 70 a minute. - ANSWER Normal heart rate for early adulthood age 19-40: 16-20 a minute. - ANSWER Normal respiratory rate for early adulthood age 19-40: 120/80. - ANSWER Normal blood pressure for early adulthood age 19-40: Early adulthood age 19-40. - ANSWER Accidents are the leading cause of death in this age group: Middle adulthood. - ANSWER Stage of life from 41 to 60 years: Middle adulthood age 41-60. - ANSWER Stage of life where one may encounter the "mid life crisis": Middle adulthood age 41-60. - ANSWER Cancer often develops in this age group, weight control is more difficult, and heart disease is the major killer after this age: Late adulthood. - ANSWER Stage of life from 61 years and older: Late adulthood age 61 and older. - ANSWER Cardiovascular system is less efficient and volume of blood decreases in this age group: The nose, mouth, nasopharynx, oropharynx, and laryngopharynx, epiglottis, and the trachea. - ANSWER The upper airway consists of: The larynx, trachea, bronchial tree, bronchioles, and the alveoli. - ANSWER The lower airway consists of: 16. - ANSWER The trachea is protected by how many rings of cartilage? The tongue or the epiglottis connected to the tongue. - ANSWER A common obstruction in a person with a decreased mental status is: Acute airway obstructions. - ANSWER Foreign bodies, vomit, and blood are known as what types of airway obstructions? Chronic airway obstructions. - ANSWER Burns, trauma, asthma, or infections to the lower airway are known as what types of airway obstructions? Stridor. - ANSWER High pitched sound generated from partially obstructed air flow in the upper airway: Head tilt chin lift and the modified jaw thrust. - ANSWER Two procedures that are recommended for opening an airway: The airway. - ANSWER What would take priority over the spine? Measure from the corner of the patient's mouth to the tip of the earlobe. - ANSWER To measure an oropharyngeal airway, you should: Measure from the patient's nostril to the tip of the earlobe or to the angle of the jaw. - ANSWER To measure a nasopharyngeal airway, you should: When there is clear cerebrospinal fluid coming from the nose or ears. - ANSWER When should you not use a nasopharyngeal airway? Tubing, suction tips, suction catheters, collection container, and a container of clean or sterile water. - ANSWER Before operating a suction unit, you must have what 5 items? The rigid pharyngeal tip or Yankauer. - ANSWER The most popular type of suction tip is: No longer than 10 seconds at a time. - ANSWER You should try to limit suctioning to only: Respiratory distress. - ANSWER An increased work of breathing; a sensation of shortness of breath: Respiratory failure. - ANSWER The reduction of breathing to the point where oxygen intake is not sufficient enough to support life: Respiratory arrest. - ANSWER When breathing completely stops: Look, listen, and feel. - ANSWER To determine adequate signs of breathing you should: 12-20 per minute. - ANSWER Normal breathing rates for an adult: 15-30 per minute. - ANSWER Normal breathing rates for a child: 25-50 per minute. - ANSWER Normal breathing rates for an infant: Wheezing, stridor, coughing, elevated rate of breathing, normal or pale skin color, and normal, agitated, or anxious mental status. - ANSWER What are the signs of respiratory distress? Beware of absent sounds, rate of breathing is either too fast or too slow, sometimes irregular or slowing inadequate minute volume, pale or blue skin color, sometimes blotchy or mottled, and an altered mental status. - ANSWER What are the signs of respiratory failure? No sounds of breathing, no breathing rate, pale or blue skin color, and typically unconscious or rapidly becoming unconscious. - ANSWER What are the signs of respiratory arrest? Positive pressure ventilation. - ANSWER Artificial ventilation is also known as: Decreasing cardiac output or dropping blood pressure, gastric distention, and hyperventilation. - ANSWER What are the 3 negative side effects of positive pressure ventilation? 10-12 per minute. - ANSWER What is the sufficient rate of ventilations for an adult? 20 per minute for children, and a minimum of 20 per minute for infants. - ANSWER What is the sufficient rate of ventilations for children and for infants? Explain the procedure to the patient, place the pocket face mask or bvm over the patient's mouth and nose, squeeze the bag only 10 times or every 5-6 seconds with the patient's inhalation for one minute. - ANSWER How would you ventilate a patient with rapid venilations? [Show More]

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