*NURSING > EXAM > CRAT Practice Test 53 Questions with Verified Answer,100% CORRECT (All)

CRAT Practice Test 53 Questions with Verified Answer,100% CORRECT

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CRAT Practice Test 53 Questions with Verified Answer What should be done when a patient reports that his or her demographic information is incorrect? A. Request written documentation B. Cross out... the incorrect information C. Call the referring doctors office to request another enrollment form D. Follow the organizational procedure and correct the error immediately - CORRECT ANSWER D. Follow the organizational procedure and correct the error immediately. In the absence of a release form, a patients health information may be shared with the patients _____ without committing a HIPAA violation A. Child B. Spouse C. Physician D. Verbally reported power of attorney - CORRECT ANSWER C. Physician In addition to the patients name, all of the following can be used in the patient identification process except the patients... A. Room number B. Account number C. Last four digits of SSN D. Medical record number - CORRECT ANSWER A. Room number When is it appropriate to contact a patients family member? A. Never B. Only if the patient is non-compliant C. Only if his or her physician gives permission D. Only if the patient has signed a HIPAA form giving permission - CORRECT ANSWER D. Only if the patient has signed a HIPAA form giving permission A nursing home calls a cardiology office requesting that a transtelephonic pacemaker check be conducted on a new admission to the facility. The technician finds no medical record indicating that the patient has been followed by the practice. What is the technicians next step? A. Schedule a cardiology consultation B. Perform transtelephonic pacemaker check C. Ask the nursing home staff to arrange for transportation to the office D. Contact the PCP's office to obtain the prescription for transtelephonic monitoring - CORRECT ANSWER D. Contact the PCP's office to obtain the prescription for transtelephonic monitoring A transtelephonic technicians responsible for checking pacemakers in a cardiology office note that a particular demographic area of their patient population has more problems with unpredictable disconnections during transmissions than other locations. What is the MOST APPROPRIATE next step for the technicians to take? A. Create a list of patients who have had a problem with disconnections B. Schedule the patients to come into the office with their monitors for the next pacemaker evaluation C. Contact their supervisor about discussing the issue with the department responsible for telephone services D. Ask the patients experiencing disconnections which long distance provider they are using and document it - CORRECT ANSWER C. Contact their supervisor about discussing the issue with the department responsible for telephone services A testing facility is ordered to send a mobile cardiovascular telemetry monitor to a patient. The testing facility notifies the cardiology office that the patients primary insurance does not cover this type of service. The original order came from the patients PCP for palpitations. An appropriate next step would be to... A. Call the patient and advise them that their insurance will not cover the test B. Place a 30-day patient-activated event monitor that is covered by the patients insurance C. Call the patient to determine whether he or she has experienced any worse symptoms than palpitations that may qualify him or her for the testing ordered D. Contact the PCP's office and explain the issue regarding coverage, offering a different type of monitor that would be covered by the patients insurance - CORRECT ANSWER C. Contact their supervisor about discussing the issue with the department responsible for telephone services A PCP's office calls the cardiology office. For a diagnosis of syncope, she orders a 48-hour Holter monitor to be placed on a patient new to the cardiology office. The cardiology office is unable to contact the patient by phone within the following 24 hours to schedule the patients testing. What is the next step when arranging for this patients care? A. Call the PCP's office to verify contact information B. Keep trying to contact the patient by phone for at least a week C. Send a registered letter to the patient with an appointment included D. Mail a letter to the PCP's office with an appointment for the patient - CORRECT ANSWER A. Call the PCP's office to verify contact information A patient with an event monitor calls the service to submit his recordings. What is the BEST approach for recording the patients symptoms? A. Using the patients verbiage B. Translate to medical terminology C. Use the diagnosis provided by the patients physician D. Suggest likely symptoms associated with his recordings - CORRECT ANSWER A. Using the patients verbiage A patient with a transtelephonic monitor (TTM) suddenly begins slurring his words and complaining he has tingling in his left arm. What is the MOST appropriate action? A. Activate EMS B. Drive to the hospital C. Call the referring doctor D. Call the TTM call center - CORRECT ANSWER A. Activate EMS An in-hospital telemetry technician arrives for his shift and notices that the report for the prior shift has not been completed. The telemetry technician should... A. Notify the ordering physician of the situation B. Note in the patients record that no charting has been performed in the prior shift C. Notify the supervisor or senior technician of the situation to seek advice on how to proceed D. Complete the record utilizing currently observed findings but utilizing the time and date from the prior shift - CORRECT ANSWER C. Notify the supervisor or senior technician of the situation to seek advice on how to proceed A monitor technician in a pediatric cardiology office offers to deliver event monitor electrode patches, which are less likely to cause skin irritation, to a patients home after work. What is this an example of? A. Customer service B. HIPAA violation C. Preventative care D. Occupational safety violation - CORRECT ANSWER D. Occupational safety violation Ensuring that the electrocardiograph is properly grounded reduces the risk of... A. Electrical shock B. Paper speed acceleration C. Faulty interpretation of results D. 60 cycle electrical interference - CORRECT ANSWER D. 60 cycle electrical interference What is the benefit to the clinician form explaining planned services or pending procedures clearly to patients? A. Better results B. No legal action C. Fewer complications D. Increased patient compliance - CORRECT ANSWER D. Increased patient compliance In a normal sinus rhythm, the sinus node fires at a rate of... A. 40-60 per minute B. 61-100 per minute C. 101-150 per minute D. 151-180 per minute - CORRECT ANSWER B. 61-100 per minute Which valves prevent backflow of blood from the aorta and pulmonary arteries into the ventricles during diastole? A. Sinoatrial B. Semilunar C. Eustachian D. Atrioventricular - CORRECT ANSWER B. Semilunar Which of the following rhythms may be characterized by regular P-P and regular R-R intervals occurring at different rates? A. Wenckebach B. Atrial fibrillation C. Complete heart block D. First degree heart block - CORRECT ANSWER C. Complete heart block What is the atrial rate on this rhythm strip? A. 300 BPM B. 200 BPM C. 150 BPM D. 100 BPM - CORRECT ANSWER A. 300 BPM Which of these is a method that can be used to calculate the ventricular rate of a cardiac rhythm when the R-R is regular? A. Add the number of large boxes between 2 R waves to 300 B. Subtract the number of large boxes between 2 R waves from 300 C. Multiply the number of large boxes between 2 R waves by 300 D. Divide the number of large boxes between 2 R waves into 300 - CORRECT ANSWER D. Divide the number of large boxes between 2 R waves into 300 An EKG caliper measurement of peak to peak flutter waves reveals five small boxes. What is the atrial rate of for this rhythm? A. 60 BPM B. 120 BPM C. 150 BPM D. 300 BPM - CORRECT ANSWER D. 300 BPM In standard calibration ECG graph paper, a deflection of the tracing upward or downward by one large box (outlined by thick, dark lines) form baseline represents... A. 0.25 millivolt B. 0.5 millivolt C. 1.0 millivolt D. 1.0 volt - CORRECT ANSWER B. 0.5 millivolt Which waveform represents ventricular repolarization on an ECG strip? A. P wave B. R wave C. S wave D. T wave - CORRECT ANSWER D. T wave To get an accurate measurement on the QRS complex, measure from... A. The beginning of the Q wave to the end of the S wave B. The middle of the Q wave to the middle of the S wave C. The end of the Q wave to the end of the S wave D. Before the Q wave to after the end of the S wave - CORRECT ANSWER A. The beginning of the Q wave to the end of the S wave The measured PR interval in lead II is... A. 0.12 seconds B. 0.16 seconds C. 0.20 seconds D. 0.24 seconds - CORRECT ANSWER C. 0.20 seconds The P wave on the electrocardiogram represents an electrical impulse that spreads through the... A. Atria B. Ventricles C. Bundle of His D. Purkinje Fibers - CORRECT ANSWER A. Atria The conduction system terminates with the... A. Bundle of His B. Sinoatrial node C. Purkinje Network D. Atrioventricular Junction - CORRECT ANSWER C. Purkinje Network Which cardiac chamber contains MOST of the muscle mass of the heart? A. Left atrium B. Right atrium C. Left ventricle D. Right ventricle - CORRECT ANSWER C. Left ventricle The relationship between the conducted P waves and the QRS complexes in the sinus arrhythmia will... A. Not be discernible B. Be on P wave per QRS complex C. Display varying conduction patterns D. Display a distinct ratio greater than one P wave per QRS - CORRECT ANSWER B. Be on P wave per QRS complex What is the ventricular rate on this rhythm strip? A. 110 BPM B. 95 BPM C. 80 BPM D. 65 BPM - CORRECT ANSWER C. 80 BPM What is the ventricular rate for this rhythm strip? A. 30 BPM B. 40 BPM C. 60 BPM D. 80 BPM - CORRECT ANSWER B. 40 BPM The atrial rate for this rhythm strip is... A. 50 BPM B. 60 BPM C. 75 BPM D. 90 BPM - CORRECT ANSWER B. 60 BPM What is the length of time represented by the small, highlighted square on the graph paper? A. 0.04 seconds B. 0.40 seconds C. 4.00 seconds D. 240 seconds - CORRECT ANSWER A. 0.04 seconds The first negative deflection noted in the QRS complex is which wave? A. Q wave B. S wave C. R wave D. T wave - CORRECT ANSWER A. Q wave The measured PR interval in lead II is... A. 0.14 seconds B. 0.20 seconds C. 0.28 seconds D. 0.30 seconds - CORRECT ANSWER B. 0.20 seconds The MOST effective ECG analysis requires the following which sequence of steps? A. Rate, P wave, PR interval, QRS complex, regularity B. P wave, PR interval, QRS complex, regularity, and rate C. PR interval, P wave, regularity, rate and QRS complex D. Regularity, rate, P wave, PR interval, and QRS complex - CORRECT ANSWER D. Regularity, rate, P wave, PR interval, and QRS complex If a dual chamber pacemakers ventricular lead senses a non-cardiac signal, what is MOST LIKELY to occur?***** A. Atrial under sensing B. Failure to capture ventricle C. Inappropriate atrial pacing D. Failure to ventricular pace - CORRECT ANSWER D. Failure to ventricular pace On an ECG strip, pacemaker spikes without P waves or QRS complexes are seen. This is known as... A. Oversensing B. Failure to pace C. Failure to sense D. Loss of capture - CORRECT ANSWER D. Loss of capture What mode of operation is exhibited in the lead II rhythm strip? A. Atrial pacing only B. Ventricular sensing only C. Atrial and Ventricular pacing D. Atrial and Ventricular sensing - CORRECT ANSWER D. Atrial and Ventricular sensing What cardiac rhythm is shown in this presenting rhythm strip from a transtelephonic pacemaker check? A. Sinus rhythm B. Atrial fibrillation C. Paced atrial rhythm D. Paced ventricular rhythm - CORRECT ANSWER C. Paced atrial rhythm The rhythm shown demonstrates... A. Atrial flutter B. Idioventricular rhythm C. Premature junctional contraction D. Intraventricular conduction defect - CORRECT ANSWER D. Intraventricular conduction defect A characteristic of a third degree AVB is... A. An aberrant pathway in the left atrium B. An aberrant neuro pathway in the right atrium C. The automaticity of the ventricle exceeding that of the atria D. The conduction of the atrial impulse failing to reach the ventricle - CORRECT ANSWER D. The conduction of the atrial impulse failing to reach the ventricle This lead II ECG rhythm strip demonstrates...**** A. Complete heart block B. First degree heart block C. Second degree AVB, Mobitz type I D. Second degree AVB, Mobitz type II - CORRECT ANSWER D. Second degree AVB, Mobitz type II Another name for a second degree AVB type I is... A. Thorell B. Einthoven C. Bachmann D. Wenkebach - CORRECT ANSWER D. Wenkebach The arrhythmia shown in this strip is... A. Asystole B. Atrial fibrillation C. AV disassociation D. Ventricular fibrillation - CORRECT ANSWER A. Asystole The BEST interpretation of this rhythm is... A. Atrial fibrillation B. Supraventricular tachycardia C. Ventricular fibrillation D. Ventricular tachycardia - CORRECT ANSWER C. Ventricular fibrillation Which of the following BEST describes idioventricular rhythm? A. Heart rate 20-60, irregular, no P waves, preceding a wide QRS B. Heart rate 20-40, irregular, no P waves, preceding a wide QRS C. Heart rate 20-40, almost always regular, no P waves, preceding a wide QRS D. Heart rate 20-60, almost always regular, no P waves, preceding a wide QRS - CORRECT ANSWER C. Heart rate 20-40, almost always regular, no P waves, preceding a wide QRS A PVC that occurs during the relative refractory period is referred to as... A. Bigeminy B. A couplet C. BBB D. R-on-T - CORRECT ANSWER D. R-on-T Which of these rates could be considered a junctional tachycardia? A. 40 bpm B. 60 bpm C. 90 bpm D. 130 bpm - CORRECT ANSWER D. 130 bpm A regular rhythm with a narrow QRS complex with no notes P wave and rates between 40-6- bpm is known as... A. Junctional escape rhythm B. Accelerated junctional rhythm C. Idioventricular escape rhythm D. Premature ventricular contraction - CORRECT ANSWER A. Junctional escape rhythm What rhythm is displayed in leads II, III, and aVF? A. Atrial flutter with rapid ventricular response B. Atrial fibrillation with slow ventricular response C. Atrial flutter with variable ventricular response D. Atrial fibrillation with a rapid ventricular response - CORRECT ANSWER C. Atrial flutter with variable ventricular response Atrial flutter is best described as a rapid atrial depolarization of... A. Multiple foci B. A ventricular focus C. A sinus node focus D. A single reentry focus - CORRECT ANSWER D. A single reeentry focus This ECG demonatrates... A. Atrial flutter B. Sinus rhythm C. Atrial fibrillation D. Sinus tachycardia - CORRECT ANSWER A. Atrial flutter This rhythm demonstrates... A. Multifocal atrial tachycardia B. Supraventricular tachycardia C. Atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular response D. Atrial flutter with variable ventricular response - CORRECT ANSWER C. Atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular response [Show More]

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