Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology 10th Edition Patton TB

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Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology 10th Edition Patton TB Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank Chapter 01: Organization of the Body Patton: Anatomy and Physiology, 10th Edit... ion MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following describes anatomy? a. Using devices to investigate parameters such as heart rate and blood pressure b. Investigating human structure via dissections and other methods c. Studying the unusual manner in which an organism responds to painful stimuli d. Examining the physiology of life ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 3 TOP: Anatomy and Physiology 2. Systemic anatomy is a term that refers to: a. physiological investigation at a microscopic level. b. anatomical investigation that begins in the head and neck and concludes at the feet. c. anatomical investigation that uses an approach of studying the body by systems—groups of organs having a common function. d. anatomical investigation at the molecular level. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 4 TOP: Anatomy and Physiology 3. Physiology can be subdivided according to the studied. a. type of organism b. organizational level c. systemic functiond. All of the above are correct. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 4 TOP: Physiology 4. Physiology: a. recognizes the unchanging (as opposed to the dynamic) nature of things. b. investigates the body’s structure. c. is concerned with organisms and does not deal with different levels of organization such as cells and systems. d. is the science that examines the function of living organisms and their parts. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 4 TOP: Physiology 5. One of the basic principles of the standardized terminology is the avoidance of , or terms that are based on a person’s name. a. homonyms b. antonyms c. eponyms d. synonyms ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 5 TOP: Language of Science and Medicine 6. Metabolism refers to: a. the chemical basis of life. b. the sum of all the physical and chemical reactions occurring in the body. c. an organization of similar cells specialized to perform a certain function. d. a subdivision of physiology. ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 5 TOP: Characteristics of Life 7. From smallest to largest, the levels of organization of the body are: a. organism, chemical, tissue, cellular, organ, system, organelle. b. chemical, microscopic, cellular, tissue, organ, system, organism. c. organism, system, organ, tissue, cellular, organelle, chemical. d. chemical, organelle, cellular, tissue, organ, system, organism. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 6 TOP: Levels of Organization 8. The smallest living units of structure and function in the body are: a. molecules. b. cells. c. organelles. d. atoms. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 7 TOP: Levels of Organization 9. An organization of many simNilUarRcSelI lsNthGatTaBre.sCpeOciMalized to perform a certain function is called a(n): a. tissue. b. organism. c. system. d. organ.ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 7 TOP: Tissue Level 10. An organ is one organizational level lower than a(n): a. system. b. cell. c. organelle. d. tissue. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 7 TOP: Organ Level 11. The reproductive system includes all of the following except the: a. testes. b. ovaries. c. ureter. d. penis. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 8 TOP: Body Systems 12. The lungs are located in the: a. thoracic cavity. b. mediastinum. c. abdominal cavity. d. cranial cavity. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 12 TOP: Body Cavities 13. The mediastinum contains all of the following except the: a. trachea. b. venae cavae. c. right lung. d. esophagus. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 12 TOP: Body Cavities 14. The gallbladder lies in the: a. abdominal cavity. b. pelvic cavity. c. dorsal cavity. d. mediastinum. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 13 TOP: Body CavitiesU S N T O 15. The number of abdominal regions is: a. three. b. five. c. seven. d. nine. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 14 TOP: Abdominopelvic Regions 16. The abdominal region in which the urinary bladder is found is the: a. hypogastric. b. epigastric. c. right lumbar. d. left iliac. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 15 TOP: Abdominopelvic Regions 17. A surgeon removing a gallbladder should know to find it in the region. a. right lumbar b. right hypochondriac c. hypogastric d. umbilical ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 14 TOP: Abdominopelvic Regions 18. The abdominal region in which the appendix is found is the: a. hypogastric. b. right iliac. c. right lumbar. d. right hypochondriac. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 15 TOP: Abdominopelvic Regions 19. Popliteal refers to the: a. calf. b. ankle. c. cheek. d. area behind the knee. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 16 TOP: Latin-based Descriptive Terms for Body Regions 20. A plane through the body that divides the body into right and left sides is called: a. sagittal. b. frontal. c. coronal. d. transverse. ANS: A DIF: MNemoRrizaItionG B.C M TOP: Body Planes and Sections REF: p. 1621. The abdominal quadrants are located with what structure as their midpoint? a. Umbilicus b. Pubic bone c. Xiphoid process d. Iliac crest ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 13 TOP: Abdominopelvic Quadrants 22. Humans have similar right and left sides of the body, at least superficially. This is an example of: a. anatomical position. b. anterior symmetry. c. ipsilateral position. d. bilateral symmetry. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 8 TOP: Anatomical Position 23. Two major cavities of the human body are: a. ventral/dorsal. b. inferior/superior. c. visceral/parietal. d. axial/appendicular. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 9 TOP: Body Cavities 24. The dorsal cavity contains all of the following except the: a. brain. b. spinal column. c. spinal cord. d. thyroid gland. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 12 TOP: Body Cavities 25. A plane through the body that divides the body into anterior and posterior portions is: a. sagittal. b. median. c. coronal. d. transverse. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 10 TOP: Body Planes and Sections 26. The plane that divides the body into upper and lower parts is the plane. a. sagittal b. frontal c. transverse d. superficialANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 11 TOP: Body Planes and Sections 27. A somatotype characterized by having a muscular physique is called a(n): a. endomorph. b. mesomorph. c. ectomorph. d. None of the above is correct. ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 17, Connect It TOP: Body Type and Disease 28. A somatotype characterized by a thin, fragile physique is a(n): a. ectomorph. b. mesomorph. c. endomorph. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 17, Connect It TOP: Body Type and Disease 29. The abdominopelvic cavity contains all of the following except the: a. kidneys. b. gallbladder. c. right lung. d. urinary bladder. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 13 TOP: Body Cavities 30. Which of the following is not one of the characteristics of life? a. Digestion b. Balance c. Conductivity d. Circulation e. Reproduction ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 5 TOP: Characteristics of Life 31. An idea that is supported by repeated experiments and observation is called a: a. fact. b. theory. c. concept. d. hypothesis. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 3 TOP: Science and Society 32. Molecules are: a. atoms combined to form larger chemical aggregates. b. electrons orbiting nuclei. Nc. a complex of electrons arraUngeSd inNconTcentricOshells. d. composed of cellular organelles. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 6 TOP: Chemical Level: Basis for Life 33. Mitochondria, Golgi apparatus, and endoplasmic reticulum are examples of: a. molecules. b. cytoplasm. c. organelles. d. plasma membranes. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 7 TOP: Levels of Organization 34. When many similar cells specialize to perform a certain function, it is referred to as a(n): a. tissue. b. organelle. c. organ system complex. d. organism. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 7 TOP: Tissue Level 35. Several kinds of tissues working together are termed a(n): a. plasma membrane. b. organ. c. organism. d. organ system. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 7 TOP: Organ Level 36. Blood production is a function of which system? a. Reproductive b. Respiratory c. Skeletal d. Lymphatic ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 7 TOP: System Level 37. The dorsal cavity contains the: a. brain and spinal cord. b. heart and lungs. c. reproductive organs. d. digestive organs. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 12 TOP: Body Cavities 38. The ventral cavity contains the: a. thoracic and abdominope lvN ic RcavIitieGs.N R I G B.C M b. heart and lungs only. c. digestive and reproductive organs. d. brain and spinal cord. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 12 TOP: Body Cavities 39. The axial portion of the body consists of the: a. arms, neck, and legs. b. neck, torso, and arms. c. torso, arms, legs, and head. d. head, neck, and torso. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 15 TOP: Body Regions 40. The abdominopelvic cavity contains all of the following except the: a. stomach. b. pancreas. c. heart. d. reproductive organs. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 13 TOP: Body Cavities 41. Visceral peritoneum would cover which of the following organs? a. Heart b. Intestines c. Lungs d. Spinal cord ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 13 TOP: Body Cavities 42. A sagittal section divides the body into portions. a. upper and lower b. right and left c. front and back d. proximal and distal ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 10 TOP: Body Planes and Sections 43. A frontal section divides the body into portions. a. upper and lower b. right and left c. front and back d. cortex and medullary ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 10 TOP: Body Planes and Sections 44. Axilla is a term referring to which body region? a. Anterior elbow b. Armpit c. Posterior knee d. GroinANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 15 TOP: Latin-based Descriptive Terms for Body Regions 45. The tissue is not a major tissue of the body. a. cutaneous b. epithelial c. connective d. nervous ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 7 TOP: Tissue Level 46. “Apple-shaped” and “pear-shaped” usually describe subtypes of what major body type? a. Mesomorph b. Ectomorph c. Endomorph d. Polymorph ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 17, Connect It TOP: Body Type and Disease 47. An organ is one organizational level higher than a(n): a. system. b. cell. c. organelle. d. tissue. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 7 TOP: Organ Level 48. Which of the following does not describe anatomical position? a. Head pointing forward b. Body standing erect c. Arms extended from the shoulders, palms up d. All of the above describe the body in the anatomical position. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 9 TOP: Anatomical Position 49. Someone studying gross anatomy would not study which of the following? a. The location of the heart and chambers of the heart b. Muscles of the arms and legs c. The nucleus of the cell d. All of the above would be studied. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 4 TOP: Anatomy 50. The parietal pleura covers the N: a. lungs. b. heart. c. walls of the thoracic cavity. d. Both A and B are correct. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 13 TOP: Body Cavities51. The hollow part of an organ or body structure is called the of the organ. a. cortical part b. lumen c. medullary part d. apical part ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 9 TOP: Terms Related to Organs 52. The narrowest part of an organ or body structure is called the of the organ. a. cortical part b. lumen c. medullary part d. apical part ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 10 TOP: Terms Related to Organs 53. Which of the following is not a directional term of the body? a. Apical b. Proximal c. Superficial d. Deep ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 9 TOP: Terms Related to Organs 54. What is the anatomical direction term that means nearer the surface? a. Deep b. Distal c. Proximal d. Superficial ANS: D DIF: Application REF: p. 9 TOP: Directional Terms 55. An x-ray technician has been asked to make x-ray films of the liver. Which of the abdominopelvic regions must be included? a. Right hypochondriac, epigastric, and left hypochondriac b. Right hypochondriac, right lumbar, and right iliac c. Right iliac, hypogastric, and left iliac d. Right lumbar, umbilical, and left lumbar ANS: A DIF: Application REF: p. 13 TOP: Abdominopelvic Regions 56. As a nurse, you are assistingNaUphRySsiIciN anGwTitBh.thCeOexMamination of a patient. The physician asks you to tell the patient, who is lying on the examination table, to assume the anatomical position. How would you instruct the patient to assume this position? a. Have the patient stand up and place his arms at his sides, palms facing forward, with hands and feet facing forward. b. Have the patient stand up and place his arms at his sides, palms facing posteriorly, with hands and feet facing forward. c. Have the patient stand up and place his arms behind him, palms facing to the side, with feet facing forward. d. Have the patient stand up and place his arms at his sides, palms facing down, with feet facing forward. ANS: A DIF: Application REF: p. 8 TOP: Anatomical Position57. During a routine physical examination, a patient with an endomorphic somatotype with a large waistline and overall “apple shape” should be advised that such a distribution of fat may lead to what conditions? a. Heart disease, stroke, high blood pressure, and colitis b. Heart disease, stroke, high blood pressure, and diabetes c. Heart disease, stroke, low blood pressure, and colitis d. Prostate cancer, low blood pressure, and diabetes ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 17, Connect It TOP: Body Type and Disease 58. If your reference point is “farthest from the trunk of the body” versus “nearest to the trunk of the body,” where does the knee lie in relation to the ankle? a. Distal b. Proximal c. Superficial d. Superior ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 9 TOP: Directional Terms 59. The study of microscopic anatomy might include: a. systemic anatomy. b. cytology. c. histology. d. both B and C. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 4 TOP: Anatomy 60. The structure that is called the “powerhouse” of the cell is the: a. cytoplasm. b. endoplasmic reticulum. c. mitochondria. d. Golgi apparatus. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 7 TOP: Levels of Organization 61. How many main tissue typesNaUreRfoSuIndNiGnTthBe.huCmOaMn body? a. 4 b. 8 c. 11 d. 6 ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 7 TOP: Levels of Organization 62. The mediastinum is located in the cavity. a. dorsal b. abdominal c. ventral d. Both B and C are correct. ANS: C DIF: Application REF: p. 12 TOP: Body Cavities 63. Another term for posterior is:a. ventral. b. dorsal. c. inferior. d. proximal. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 9 TOP: Directional Terms 64. The term most nearly opposite cortical would be: a. peripheral. b. apical. c. medullary. d. basal. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 9 TOP: Terms Related to Organs 65. Withdrawing from a painful stimulus is an example of: a. excretion. b. growth. c. responsiveness. d. secretion. ANS: C DIF: Application REF: p. 5 TOP: Characteristics of Life MATCHING Match each organ to its corresponding system. a. Respiratory b. Digestive c. Urinary d. Reproductive e. Endocrine f. Cardiovascular g. Integumentary h. Muscular i. Skeletal j. Nervous 1. Tendons 2. Pituitary gland 3. Skin 4. Capillaries 5. Ligaments 6. Spinal cord 7. Bronchial tree 8. Testes and ovaries 9. Large and small intestines 10. Ureters1. ANS: TOP: H Body Systems DIF: Memorization REF: p. 8, Table 1-2 2. ANS: TOP: E Body Systems DIF: Memorization REF: p. 8, Table 1-2 3. ANS: TOP: G Body Systems DIF: Memorization REF: p. 8, Table 1-2 4. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 8, Table 1-2 TOP: Body Systems 5. ANS: TOP: I Body Systems DIF: Memorization REF: p. 8, Table 1-2 6. ANS: TOP: J Body Systems DIF: Memorization REF: p. 8, Table 1-2 7. ANS: TOP: A Body Systems DIF: Memorization REF: p. 8, Table 1-2 8. ANS: TOP: D Body Systems DIF: Memorization REF: p. 8, Table 1-2 9. ANS: TOP: B Body Systems DIF: Memorization REF: p. 8, Table 1-2 10. ANS: TOP: C Body Systems DIF: Memorization REF: p. 8, Table 1-2 Match each term to its associated region. a. Abdominal b. Brachial c. Cervical d. Coxal e. Cutaneous f. Digital g. Femoral h. Lumbar 11. Thigh 12. Arm 13. Anterior torso14. Lower back between ribs and pelvis 15. Fingers and toes 16. Hip 17. Skin 18. Neck 11. ANS: TOP: G Body Regions DIF: Memorization REF: p. 16, Table 1-4 12. ANS: TOP: B Body Regions DIF: Memorization REF: p. 16, Table 1-4 13. ANS: TOP: A Body Regions DIF: Memorization REF: p. 16, Table 1-4 14. ANS: TOP: H Body Regions DIF: Memorization REF: p. 16, Table 1-4 15. ANS: TOP: F Body Regions DIF: Memorization REF: p. 16, Table 1-4 16. ANS: TOP: D Body Regions DIF: Memorization REF: p. 16, Table 1-4 17. ANS: TOP: E Body Regions DIF: Memorization REF: p. 16, Table 1-4 18. ANS: TOP: C Body Regions DIF: Memorization REF: p. 16, Table 1-4 Match each term to its correct corresponding statement. a. Superior b. Inferior c. Anterior d. Posterior e. Medial f. Lateral g. Proximal h. Distal i. Superficial 19. The great toe is to the little toe. 20. The skin is to the muscles beneath it. 21. The vertebrae are located on the aspect of the body. 22. The hand is to the shoulder. 23. The abdomen is to the head. 24. The lungs are to the intestines. 25. The nose is located on the surface of the head. 26. The knee is to the ankle. 27. The ear is on the aspect of the head. 19. 20. ANS: TOP: ANS: E DIF: Directional Terms I DIF: Memorization Memorization REF: REF: p. 9 p. 9 TOP: Directional Terms 21. 22. ANS: TOP: ANS: TOP: D DIF: Directional Terms H DIF: Directional Terms Memorization NURSINGTB.C Memorization REF: OM REF: p. 9 p. 9 23. ANS: TOP: B Directional DIF: Terms Memorization REF: p. 9 24. ANS: TOP: A Directional DIF: Terms Memorization REF: p. 9 25. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 9Match each set of functions with its corresponding system or systems. a. Reproduction and development b. Processing, regulation, and maintenance c. Outer protection d. Support and movement e. Communication, control, and integration f. Transportation and defense 28. Nervous system 29. Muscular system and skeletal system30. Circulatory system and lymphatic system 31. Respiratory system, digestive system, and endocrine system 32. Reproductive system 33. Integumentary system 28. ANS: TOP: E Body Systems DIF: Memorization REF: p. 8, Table 1-2 29. ANS: TOP: D Body Systems DIF: Memorization REF: p. 8, Table 1-2 30. ANS: TOP: F Body Systems DIF: Memorization REF: p. 8, Table 1-2 31. ANS: TOP: B Body Systems DIF: Memorization REF: p. 8, Table 1-2 32. ANS: TOP: A Body Systems DIF: Memorization REF: p. 8, Table 1-2 33. ANS: TOP: C Body Systems DIF: Memorization REF: p. 8, Table 1-2 Match each characteristic of life with the correct descriptive phrase. a. Conductivity b. Excretion c. Growth d. Circulation e. Respiration f. Responsiveness g. Digestion h. Absorption i. Secretion j. Reproduction NURSINGTB.COM 34. Movement of digested nutrients through the wall of the digestive tract into body fluids for transport to the cell 35. Permits an organism to sense, monitor, and respond to changes in the external environment 36. Production and release of specialized substances to support diverse body functions 37. Responsiveness and this characteristic are highly developed in nerve cells 38. Movement of body fluids and other substances from one part of the body to another 39. Removal of waste produced by many body functions 40. Comes about as a result of a normal increase in size or number of cells 41. Exchange of gases between the organism and the environment 42. Formation of new individuals 43. Process by which complex food substances are broken down into simple substances that can be absorbed by the cells 34. ANS: TOP: H Characteristics DIF: Memorization of Life REF: p. 5, Table 1-1 35. ANS: TOP: F Characteristics DIF: Memorization of Life REF: p. 5, Table 1-1 36. ANS: TOP: I Characteristics DIF: Memorization of Life REF: p. 5, Table 1-1 37. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 5, Table 1-1TOP: Characteristics of Life 38. ANS: TOP: D DIF: Memorization Characteristics of Life REF: p. 5, Table 1-1 39. ANS: TOP: B DIF: Memorization Characteristics of Life REF: p. 5, Table 1-1 40. ANS: TOP: C DIF: Memorization Characteristics of Life REF: p. 5, Table 1-1 41. ANS: TOP: E DIF: Memorization Characteristics of Life REF: p. 5, Table 1-1 42. ANS: TOP: J DIF: Memorization Characteristics of Life REF: p. 5, Table 1-1 43. ANS: TOP: G DIF: Memorization Characteristics of Life REF: p. 5, Table 1-1 Match each term related to an organ to its definition or explanation. a. Medullary b. Basal c. Apical d. Cortical e. Lumen 44. Base or widest part of the organ 45. Outer region or layer of an organ 46. Hollow part of an organ or tube of the body 47. Inner region of an organ 48. Narrow part or point of an organ 44. ANS: TOP: B DIF: MNemUoRriSzaItioNnGTB.COM REF: Terms Related to Organs p. 10 45. ANS: TOP: D DIF: Memorization Terms Related to Organs REF: p. 9 46. ANS: TOP: E DIF: Memorization Terms Related to Organs REF: p. 9 47. ANS: TOP: A DIF: Memorization Terms Related to Organs REF: p. 9 48. ANS: TOP: C DIF: Memorization Terms Related to Organs REF: p. 10 Match each level of organization with its description. a. Chemical b. Organelle c. Cellular d. Tissue e. Organ f. System g. Organism 49. Highest level of organization 50. Includes mitochondria 51. Composed of the smallest structure that possesses the basic characteristics of living matter 52. Level at which the tissues work together to perform a specific function53. Composed of macromolecules 54. Cells working together to perform a specific function 55. Level at which a group of organs work together to perform specific complex functions 49. ANS: TOP: G Levels of DIF: Memorization Organization REF: p. 8 50. ANS: TOP: B Levels of DIF: Memorization Organization REF: p. 7 51. ANS: TOP: C Levels of DIF: Memorization Organization REF: p. 7 52. ANS: TOP: E Levels of DIF: Memorization Organization REF: p. 7 53. ANS: TOP: A Levels of DIF: Memorization Organization REF: p. 6 54. ANS: TOP: D Levels of DIF: Memorization Organization REF: p. 7 55. ANS: TOP: F Levels of DIF: Memorization Organization REF: p. 7 OTHER 1. In simple terms, what are the characteristics of life? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: p.N5 URSINGTTOBP:.C ChOarMacteristics of Life 2. Discuss the principle of complementarity of structure and function. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: p. 16 TOP: Interaction of Structure and Function 3. Explain one way in which culture has affected science. Explain one way in which science has affected culture. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: p. 3 TOP: Science and Society 4. Describe the levels of organization from chemical to system. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 6 TOP: Levels of Organization5. Describe anatomical position. Give examples of structures that are ipsilateral and contralateral to each other. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: p. 8 TOP: Anatomical Position 6. List the directional terms, and use them to describe the relationship between two structures in the body. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: p. 9 TOP: Anatomical DirectionsChapter 02: Homeostasis Patton: Anatomy and Physiology, 10th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1) Of the 11 major body systems, which is the least involved in maintaining homeostasis? a. Circulatory b. Endocrine c. Lymphatic d. Reproductive ANS: D DIF: Application REF: p. 25, Table 2-1 TOP: Homeostatic Functions of Body Systems 2) Homeostasis can best be described as: a. a constant state maintained by living and nonliving organisms. b. a state of relative constancy. c. adaptation to the external environment. d. changes in body temperature. ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 31 TOP: Homeostasis 3) The normal reading or range of normal is called the: a. sensor point. b. set point. c. effector point. d. integrator point. NURSINGTB.COM ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 24 TOP: Set Point 4) Which of the following is not one of the basic components in a feedback control loop? a. Effector mechanism b. Transmitter c. Sensor d. Integrating center ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 27 TOP: Basic Components of Control Mechanisms 5) The body’s thermostat is located in the: a. heart. b. cerebellum. c. pituitary. d. hypothalamus. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 27 TOP: Basic Components of Control Mechanisms 6) The contraction of the uterus during the birth of a baby is an example of feedback. a. negativeb. positive c. inhibitory d. deviating ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 29 TOP: Positive Feedback in Control Systems 7) Negative-feedback mechanisms: a. minimize changes in blood glucose levels. b. maintain homeostasis. c. are responsible for an increased rate of sweating when air temperature is higher than body temperature. d. All of the above are correct. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 28 TOP: Negative Feedback in Control Systems 8) Pathogenesis can be defined as: a. a specific disease. b. a group of diseases. c. the course of disease development. d. a subgroup of viruses. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 32 TOP: Disease Terminology 9) Intracellular parasites that consist of DNA or RNA surrounded by a protein coat and sometimes by a lipoprotein e NnveRlopeIareGcalBle.d:C M a. viruses. b. bacteria. c. fungi. d. protozoa. U S N T O ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 34 TOP: Basic Mechanisms of Disease 10) The term that literally means self-immunity is: a. autoimmunity. b. homoimmunity. c. passive immunity. d. active immunity. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 34 TOP: Basic Mechanisms of Disease 11) Epidemiology is the study of the of diseases in human populations. a. occurrence b. distribution c. transmission d. All of the above are correct. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 32 TOP: Disease Terminology12) Which of the following may put one at risk for developing a given disease? a. Environment b. Stress c. Lifestyle d. All of the above ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 34-35 TOP: Basic Mechanisms of Disease 13) Negative-feedback control systems: a. oppose a change. b. accelerate a change. c. have no effect on the deviation from set point. d. establish a new set point. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 28 TOP: Negative Feedback in Control Systems 14) Positive-feedback control systems: a. have no effect on the deviation from set point. b. accelerate a change. c. ignore a change. d. do not exist in human systems. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 28 TOP: Positive Feedback in Control Mechanisms 15) Shivering to try to raise yourNbUodRySteImNpGerTatBur.eCbaOckMto normal would be an example of: a. the body trying to maintain homeostasis. b. a positive-feedback mechanism. c. a negative-feedback mechanism. d. both A and C. ANS: D DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 27 TOP: Negative Feedback in Control Systems 16) Which of the following is a protein substance with no DNA or RNA and is thought to be the cause of mad cow disease? a. Virus b. Bacteria c. Prion d. Protozoan ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 33 TOP: Pathogenic Organisms 17) Of the pathogenic organisms, which of the following are the most complex? a. Viruses b. Tapeworms c. Bacteria d. ProtozoaANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 34 TOP: Pathogenic Organisms 18) If the secretion of oxytocin during childbirth operated as a negative-feedback control loop, what effect would it have on uterine contractions? a. Oxytocin would stimulate stronger uterine contractions. b. Oxytocin would inhibit uterine contractions. c. There would be no changes in the strength of the uterine contractions. d. Uterine contractions would initially be weak and then gain strength after the release of the hormone. ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 28 TOP: Positive Feedback in Control Systems 19) Intrinsic control: a. usually involves the endocrine or nervous system. b. operates at the cellular level. c. is sometimes called autoregulation. d. operates at the system or organism level. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 31 TOP: Levels of Homeostatic Control MATCHING Match each term with its corresponding definition or explanation a. Prion b. Tumor c. Fungi d. Gene mutation e. Bacteria f. Virus g. Protozoa NURSINGTB.COM 1. An intracellular parasite that consists of an RNA or DNA core surrounded by a protein coat 2. A type of protein that converts normal protein in the nervous system into abnormal proteins that cause loss of function 3. A tiny, primitive cell that lacks a nucleus and can cause infection 4. An abnormal growth or neoplasm 5. Altered DNA that causes abnormal proteins to be made that do not perform their intended function 6. A one-celled organism whose DNA is organized into a nucleus that can parasitize human tissue 7. Simple organisms that are similar to plants but lack chlorophyll, which allows plants to make their own food; because these organisms cannot make their own food, they parasitize human tissue 1. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 34 TOP: Basic Mechanisms of Disease 2. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 33U S N T O TOP: Basic Mechanisms of Disease 3. ANS: TOP: E DIF: Memorization Basic Mechanisms of Disease REF: p. 34 4. ANS: TOP: B DIF: Memorization Basic Mechanisms of Disease REF: p. 34 5. ANS: TOP: D DIF: Memorization Basic Mechanisms of Disease REF: p. 33 6. ANS: TOP: G DIF: Memorization Basic Mechanisms of Disease REF: p. 34 7. ANS: TOP: C DIF: Memorization Basic Mechanisms of Disease REF: p. 34 SHORT ANSWER 1. Diagram a homeostatic control mechanism, including the three basic components. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 26 TOP: Homeostatic Control Mechanisms 2. How does childbirth demonstrate positive feedback? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: p.N29 R I GTOBP:.C PosiMtive Feedback in Control Systems 3. Give an example of how categories of risk factors or predisposing conditions could overlap. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: pp. 34-35 TOP: Basic Mechanisms of Disease 4. Explain the feed-forward control system, and give an example of one in the body. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: p. 34 TOP: Feed-Forward in Control Systems ESSAY 1. Give an example of a system, either living or nonliving, that is designed to maintain a relatively constant condition by using a negative-feedback mechanism. Explain briefly how the system works to accomplish this. ANS: Answers will vary.DIF: Synthesis REF: pp. 28-29 TOP: Basic Components of Control Mechanisms 2. Explain how your set point can change under varying circumstances. ANS: Answers will vary DIF: Synthesis REF: pp. 29-30 TOP: Changing the Set Point NURSINGTB.COMChapter 03: Chemistry of Life Patton: Anatomy and Physiology, 10th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following represents a trace element in the body? a. Sulfur b. Chlorine c. Iron d. Phosphorus ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 40, Table 3-1 TOP: Elements and Compounds 2. The kind of element is determined by the number of: a. protons. b. neutrons. c. mesotrons. d. electrons. ANS: A DIF: Application REF: p. 41 TOP: Atomic Number and Mass Number 3. Atomic mass is determined by the number of: a. protons and electrons. b. neutrons and electrons. c. neutrons, protons, and eleNcUtroRnSs.INGTB.COM d. protons and neutrons. ANS: D DIF: Application REF: p. 41 TOP: Atomic Number and Mass Number 4. Carbon has an atomic number of 6. The number of electrons found in the first shell is: a. two. b. four. c. six. d. eight. ANS: A DIF: Application REF: pp. 41-42 TOP: Energy Levels 5. The atomic number of carbon is 6. How many unpaired electrons are in its outer shell? a. Two b. Three c. Four d. Five ANS: C DIF: Application REF: p. 42 TOP: Energy Levels 6. A negatively charged subatomic particle that moves around the nucleus is a(n): a. orbital. b. proton.c. neutron. d. electron. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 40, Table 3-1 TOP: Atomic Structure 7. When atoms combine, they may gain, lose, or share: a. electrons. b. protons. c. neutrons. d. nuclei. ANS: A DIF: Application REF: p. 43 TOP: Attractions Between Atoms 8. An ionic bond is formed by: a. two or more positive ions combining. b. two or more negative ions combining. c. a positive and a negative ion attracting each other. d. sharing of a pair of electrons. ANS: C DIF: Application REF: pp. 43-44 TOP: Ionic Bonds 9. An example of an element would be: a. Ne. b. CO2. c. C6H12O6. d. H2O. ANS: A DIF: AN ppUlicRaS tioInNGRTEBF:.C p. 40M, Table 3-1 TOP: Elements and Compounds 10. An isotope of an element contains different numbers of from other atoms of the same element. a. electrons b. protons c. neutrons d. both protons and neutrons ANS: C DIF: Application REF: p. 42 TOP: Isotopes 11. The study of metabolism includes examination of: a. catabolism. b. anabolism. c. ATP requirements. d. all of the above. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 46 TOP: Metabolism 12. An example of a catabolic process is: a. hydrolysis. b. dehydration synthesis. c. formation of a peptide bond.d. both B and C. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 46 TOP: Metabolism 13. Which of the following elements is least likely to combine with another element? a. Hydrogen b. Helium c. Oxygen d. Carbon ANS: B DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 42 TOP: Attractions Between Atoms—Chemical Bonds 14. The hydrogen isotope tritium consists of: a. one proton. b. one proton and one neutron. c. two protons and one neutron. d. one proton and two neutrons. ANS: D DIF: Application REF: p. 42, Figure 3-7 TOP: Isotopes 15. Which of the following bonds are the weakest? a. Ionic b. Hydrogen c. Electrovalent d. Covalent NURSINGTB.COM ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 44 TOP: Hydrogen Bonds 16. The type of reaction in which substances are combined to form more complex substances is called a(n) reaction. a. reversible b. exchange c. synthesis d. decomposition ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 45 TOP: Chemical Reactions 17. The process of the digestion of food is an example of which type of reaction? a. Synthesis b. Decomposition c. Exchange d. Reversible ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 45 TOP: Chemical Reactions 18. Substances that accept hydrogen ions are called: a. acids. b. bases.c. buffers. d. salts. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 49 TOP: Bases 19. Acids: a. are proton donors. b. taste sour. c. release hydrogen ions in an aqueous solution. d. All of the above are true of acids. ANS: D DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 48 TOP: Acids 20. A solution that contains a greater concentration of hydroxide ions (OH–) than hydrogen ions (H+) is a(n) solution. a. acidic b. alkaline (basic) c. neutral d. Not enough information is given to determine the character of the solution. ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 49 TOP: Bases 21. In the presence of a base, red litmus paper will: a. stay red. b. turn blue. c. turn green. d. turn yellow. N URSINGTB.COM ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 49, Figure 3-14 TOP: Acids and Bases 22. The most abundant and important compound(s) in the body is(are): a. air. b. water. c. proteins. d. nucleic acids. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 47 TOP: Water 23. Approximately what percentage of the body weight of an adult is water? a. 40% b. 50% c. 60% d. 70% ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 47 TOP: Water 24. AB + CD → AD + CB is an example of a(n) _ reaction. a. synthesis b. exchangec. decomposition d. reversible ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 47 TOP: Chemical Reactions 25. Which of the following represents properties of water? a. High specific heat b. High heat of vaporization c. Strong polarity d. All of the above ANS: D DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 48, Table 3-2 TOP: Properties of Water 26. The approximate pH of gastric fluid is: a. 10. b. 8. c. 4. d. 2. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 49 TOP: The pH Scale 27. The formation of sucrose involves the removal of a molecule of water. This is called: a. hydrolysis. b. oxidation. c. decomposition. d. dehydration synthesis. N URSINGTB.COM ANS: D DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 46 TOP: Anabolism 28. The study of metabolism includes examination of: a. catabolism. b. anabolism. c. ATP requirements. d. all of the above. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 46 TOP: Metabolism 29. An example of a catabolic process is: a. hydrolysis. b. dehydration synthesis. c. formation of a peptide bond. d. both B and C. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 46 TOP: Metabolism 30. Which of the following is not one of the major elements present in the human body? a. Oxygen b. Zinc c. Carbond. Potassium ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 40, Table 3-1 TOP: Elements and Compounds 31. Which of the following is not a subatomic particle? a. Proton b. Electron c. Radon d. Neutron ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 40, Table 3-1 TOP: Atomic Structure 32. The total number of electrons in a neutral atom equals the number of: a. neutrons orbiting the atom. b. protons plus the number of neutrons in its nucleus. c. protons in its nucleus. d. ions in its nucleus. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 41 TOP: Energy Levels 33. An atom can be described as chemically inert if its outermost electron shell contains electrons. a. eight b. nine c. two N R I G B.C M d. Both A and C are correct. U S N T O ANS: A DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 42 TOP: Energy Levels 34. Ionic bonds are chemical bonds formed by the: a. sharing of electrons between molecules. b. donation of protons from one atom to another. c. transfer of electrons from one atom to another. d. acceptance of neutrons from one atom by another. ANS: C DIF: Application REF: p. 43 TOP: Ionic Bonds 35. Chemical bonds formed by the sharing of electrons are called: a. ionic. b. covalent. c. hydrogen. d. isotopic. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 44 TOP: Covalent Bonds 36. The type of chemical reaction most likely to require energy is a(n) _ reaction. a. synthesis b. decomposition c. exchanged. All of the above reactions are equally likely to require energy. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 45 TOP: Chemical Reactions 37. The elements carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, and nitrogen make up which percentage of the human body? a. 50% b. 69% c. 78% d. 96% ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 52 TOP: Elements and Compounds 38. Which subatomic particles carry a charge? a. Protons and neutrons b. Neutrons and electrons c. Protons and electrons d. Neutrons only ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 40-41 TOP: Atomic Structure 39. The element oxygen has an atomic number of 8, which means it contains: a. four protons and four neutrons. b. eight protons. c. eight neutrons. N R I G B.C M d. four protons and four electrUonsS. N T O ANS: B DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 41 TOP: Atomic Number and Mass Number 40. For sodium to transform from a neutral atom to a positive ion, it must: a. gain an electron. b. gain a proton. c. lose an electron. d. lose a proton. ANS: C DIF: Application REF: p. 43 TOP: Ionic Bonds 41. A molecule that is polar: a. can form a hydrogen bond. b. must be ionic. c. has an unequal charge. d. is both A and C. ANS: D DIF: Application REF: p. 44 TOP: Hydrogen Bonds 42. The reaction between hydrogen and oxygen needed to form water is an example of a: a. hydrogen bond. b. synthesis reaction. c. decomposition reaction.d. None of the above is correct. ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 45 TOP: Chemical Reactions 43. Electrolytes are: a. organic compounds. b. called cations if they have a negative charge. c. called cations if they have a positive charge. d. both A and B. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 48 TOP: Electrolytes 44. A weak acid: a. dissociates very little in solution. b. dissociates almost completely in solution. c. will cause the pH of the solution to rise above 7. d. does both B and C. ANS: A DIF: Application REF: p. 48 TOP: Acids and Bases 45. Salts: a. can form as the result of a chemical reaction between acids and bases. b. are electrolytes. c. will form crystals if the water is removed. d. All of the above are correct. ANS: D DIF: Application REF: p. 50 TOP: Salts NURSINGTB.COM 46. Hydrolysis a water molecule. a. joins compounds by removing b. breaks down compounds by removing c. joins compounds by adding d. breaks down compounds by adding ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 46 TOP: Catabolism 47. As the concentration of hydrogen ions (H+) increases, the: a. solution becomes more basic. b. solution becomes more acidic. c. pH rises. d. Both A and C are correct. ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 48 TOP: Acids and Bases 48. As the concentration of hydroxide ions (OH–) increases, the: a. solution becomes more basic. b. solution becomes more acidic. c. pH rises. d. Both A and C are correct. ANS: D DIF: Application REF: p. 49 TOP: Acids and BasesN R I G B.C 49. A magnesium atom has an atomic number of 12, an atomic mass of 25, and a +2 charge. This atom would contain protons, neutrons, and electrons. a. 12; 25; 2 b. 12; 13; 14 c. 12; 13; 10 d. Not enough information is given to answer the question. ANS: C DIF: Application REF: p. 41 TOP: Atomic Structure 50. The octet rule refers to the: a. stability of the nucleus when the protons are in a multiple of eight. b. stability of the atom when there are eight electrons in the outermost energy level. c. stable configuration of the nucleus when there are eight more neutrons than protons. d. principle that one atom can combine with a maximum of eight other atoms. ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 43 TOP: Energy Levels 51. The type of reaction most likely to release energy is a(n) reaction. a. synthesis b. decomposition c. exchange d. All of the above reactions are equally likely to release energy. ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 45 TOP: Chemical Reactions 52. Which of the following is not true of all isotopes of oxygen? a. They can all react with twoUhydSrogNen aTtoms toOform water. b. They have the same number of protons. c. They have the same atomic mass. d. All of the above are true of isotopes of oxygen. ANS: C DIF: Application REF: p. 42 TOP: Isotopes 53. Hydrogen can form only when the hydrogen atom is covalently bonded to: a. an oxygen atom. b. a nitrogen atom. c. a fluorine. d. any of the above. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 44-45 TOP: Attractions Between Molecules/Hydrogen Bonds 54. A strong acid: a. holds on strongly to its hydrogen atoms, releasing very few in solution. b. would cause a drop in the pH of a solution. c. would cause a rise in the pH of a solution. d. is both A and C. ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 48 TOP: Acids 55. If the pH of a person’s blood is 7.4, it would be described as:a. strongly acidic. b. neutral. c. slightly acidic. d. slightly alkaline. ANS: D DIF: Application REF: p. 48 TOP: Bases 56. When sodium (Na) gives up an electron to chlorine, the result is the formation of a sodium ion (Na+) with a positive charge. This happens because there is then one more than . a. proton; electron b. electron; proton c. proton; neutron d. electron; neutron ANS: A DIF: Application REF: p. 44 TOP: Ionic Bonds 57. If an atom with a total of nine electrons were to ionically bond with an atom with a total of three electrons, what would occur? a. The atom with nine electrons would share one of its electrons with the other atom. b. The atom with nine electrons would lose one of its electrons, and the atom with three electrons would accept it. c. The atom with nine electrons would accept one of the electrons from the atom with three electrons. d. The atom with three electrons would share one of its electrons with the other atom. ANS: C DIF: Application REF: pp. 43-44 TOP: Ionic Bonds 58. The carbon-containing molecNuleRs forImeGd byBl.ivCingMthings are often called: a. buffers. b. inorganic molecules. c. organic molecules. d. salts. U S N T O ANS: C DIF: Application REF: p. 47 TOP: Organic and Inorganic Compounds 59. The term that is used to describe all of the chemical reactions that occur in body cells is: a. catabolism. b. metabolism. c. synthesis. d. anabolism. ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 46 TOP: Metabolism 60. When your body is building larger and more complex chemical molecules from smaller subunits, what is occurring? a. Anabolic reactions that expend energy b. Anabolic reactions that require energy c. Catabolic reactions that expend energy d. Catabolic reactions that require energy ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 46 TOP: Metabolism61. Which type of radiation consists of an electron that is released by the nucleus of an atom? a. Alpha b. Beta c. Delta d. Gamma ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 42, Connect It TOP: Radioactivity/Connect It 62. Which type of radiation consists of electromagnetic radiation, a form of light energy? a. Alpha b. Beta c. Delta d. Gamma ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 42, Connect It TOP: Radioactivity/Connect It 63. Which type of radiation consists of two protons and two neutrons? a. Alpha b. Beta c. Delta d. Gamma ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 42, Connect It TOP: Radioactivity/Connect It 64. A + B  AB is an example oNf a(Rn) I G reBa.ctCion.M a. decomposition U b. reversible c. exchange d. Both A and B are correct. S N T O ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 46 TOP: Chemical Reactions 65. The octet rule refers to the: a. stability of the nucleus when the protons are in a multiple of eight. b. stability of the atom when there are eight electrons in the outermost energy level. c. stable configuration of the nucleus when there are eight more neutrons than protons. d. principle that one atom can combine with a maximum of eight other atoms. ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 42 TOP: Energy Levels 66. The “coat” of water that forms around charged solutes is often called a(n): a. dehydration shell. b. hydration shell. c. colloid. d. aqueous solution. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 47 TOP: Solutions and Colloids67. Particles slightly larger than molecules can become dispersed in water without settling out. This type of watery mixture is called a(n): a. solvent. b. solute. c. colloid. d. aqueous solution. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 47 TOP: Solutions and Colloids 68. The body can dissipate excess heat and maintain normal temperature by evaporation of water by the property of: a. transportation. b. specific heat. c. polarity. d. heat of vaporization. ANS: D DIF: Application REF: p. 48, Table 3-2 TOP: Properties of Water TRUE/FALSE 1. The number of protons in the nucleus of an atom determines its atomic mass. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 41 TOP: Atomic Number and Atomic Mass NURSINGTB.COM 2. The positively charged electrons are found in clouds outside the nucleus of an atom. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 40, Table 3-1 TOP: Atomic Structure 3. Two shared pairs of electrons represent a single covalent bond. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 44 TOP: Covalent Bonds 4. The digestion of food is an example of a decomposition reaction. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 45 TOP: Chemical Reactions 5. The number and arrangement of electrons orbiting in an atom’s outer shell determine its chemical activity. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 41 TOP: Energy Levels 6. An atom is chemically inert if its outermost shell has two pairs of electrons. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 42 TOP: Energy Levels 7. An isotope of an element contains the same number of neutrons but different numbers of protons.ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 42 TOP: Isotopes 8. Electrovalent and ionic bonds are the same. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 43 TOP: Ionic Bonds 9. Radiation results from the breaking apart of the nucleus of an atom. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 42, Connect It TOP: Radioactivity/Connect It 10. Radioactivity can cause an atom of one element to change to that of another element. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 42, Connect It TOP: Radioactivity 11. Gamma radiation has less mass than alpha or beta radiation. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 42, Connect It TOP: Radioactivity 12. A substance that resists changes in pH when acids or bases are added is called a buffer. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 50 TOP: Buffers 13. The chemical reaction of an aNcUidRwSitIhNaGbaTseBw.iCllOprModuce a salt and water. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 50 TOP: Salts 14. Water acts as a very effective solvent. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 47 TOP: Water 15. Electrolytes include acids, bases, and salts. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 48 TOP: Electrolytes 16. By definition, inorganic compounds do not contain carbon. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 47 TOP: Organic and Inorganic Compounds 17. Electrolytes are characterized by having either a positive or a negative charge. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 48 TOP: Electrolytes 18. Acids are electrolytes that produce OH+ ions.ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 48 TOP: Acids 19. pH is the negative logarithm of the hydrogen ion concentration. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 49 TOP: The pH Scale 20. Metabolism includes the processes of both anabolism and catabolism. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 46 TOP: Metabolism 21. ATP is broken down in an anabolic reaction. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 46 TOP: Catabolism 22. Catabolism and anabolism are major types of metabolic activity. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 46 TOP: Metabolism 23. Sodium chloride is an example of an ionic bond. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 43 TOP: Ionic Bonds 24. The digestion of food is an exNamRpleIof aGsynBth.eCsis rMeaction. U S N T O ANS: F DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 46 TOP: Chemical Reactions 25. The pH scale indicates the degree of acidity or alkalinity of a solution. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 49 TOP: Acids and Bases 26. Litmus paper will turn red in the presence of a base. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 49 TOP: Acids and Bases 27. The atomic mass of an atom is equal to the number of protons plus the number of neutrons. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 41 TOP: Atomic Number and Atomic Mass 28. The mass of a proton is almost exactly equal to the mass of an electron. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 41 TOP: Atomic Number and Atomic Mass 29. Hydrogen will react with other atoms to get eight electrons in its outer energy level.ANS: F DIF: Application REF: pp. 41-42 TOP: Energy Levels 30. A double covalent bond involves the sharing of two electrons. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 44 TOP: Covalent Bonds 31. Synthesis reactions release energy for use by the cell. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 47 TOP: Chemical Reactions 32. Electrolytes dissociate to form ions. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 45 TOP: Electrolytes 33. As the hydrogen ion concentration increases, the pH value increases. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 49 TOP: Acids and Bases 34. Chemistry can be defined as the science that deals with the structure, arrangement, and composition of substances and the reactions they undergo. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 39 TOP: Introduction 35. The nucleus of the atom will always have a positive charge. ANS: T DIF: AN pplicRatioIn GREBF:.p.C 41 M TOP: Atomic Structure U S N T O 36. If an atom has an atomic number of 12 and an atomic mass of 25, it must have 13 neutrons. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 41 TOP: Atomic Number and Atomic Mass 37. Consider an atom that has an atomic mass of 18. For it to be electrically neutral, it must have 18 electrons. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 41 TOP: Atomic Structure, Atomic Number, and Atomic Mass 38. Atoms become positively charged by gaining protons. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 43-44 TOP: Ionic Bonds 39. Inorganic compounds do not play an important role in living systems. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 47 TOP: Organic and Inorganic Compounds 40. Acids release protons in solution.ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 48 TOP: Acids 41. The “aliveness” of a living organism depends on the mixture of elements of which it is made. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 40 TOP: Elements and Compounds 42. Four elements are considered to be the major elements in the body. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 39 TOP: Elements and Compounds 43. Dalton named the atom after the Greek word for invisible. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 40 TOP: Atoms 44. A neutral atom that has 22 protons must have 22 electrons. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 40 TOP: Atoms 45. A neutral atom that has 22 protons must have 22 neutrons. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 40 TOP: Atoms 46. A neutral atom that has 22 protons could have 25 neutrons. ANS: T DIF: AN ppUlicRatSioInNGRTEBF:.C p.O40M TOP: Atoms 47. Oxygen has eight electrons, but only six of them are in its outermost energy level. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 42 TOP: Energy Levels 48. Hydrogen bonds between atoms do not form molecules or compounds. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 44 TOP: Attractions Between Molecules 49. According to the general formula, in synthesis reactions, the number of reactants is usually greater than the number of products. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 45 TOP: Chemical Reactions 50. According to the general formula, in decomposition reactions, the number of reactants is usually greater than the number of products. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 45 TOP: Chemical Reactions 51. According to the general formula, in exchange reactions, the number of reactants and the number of products are usually equal.N R I G ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 45 TOP: Chemical Reactions 52. A solution with a pH of 6 has 100 times more hydrogen ions than a solution with a pH of 4. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 49 TOP: The pH Scale 53. A solution with a pH of 3 has 100 times more hydrogen ions than a solution with a pH of 5. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 49 TOP: The pH Scale 54. Because oxygen has eight electrons, it has achieved its octet and will not react with other elements. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 42 TOP: Energy Levels 55. Trace elements in the body make up about 1% of the body weight. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 39 TOP: Elements and Compounds 56. The atomic number of an atom determines its identity. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 41 TOP: Atomic Number and Mass Number 57. An ionic bond forms crystals whereas a covalent bond forms molecules. ANS: T DIF: Memorization B.C M REF: pp. 43-44 TOP: Ionic Bonds and CovalentUBonSds N T O 58. Electrons surround the nucleus of an atom in areas of probability rather than in defined orbits. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 41 TOP: Energy Levels 59. The idea that electrons are found in areas of probability distribution around the nucleus was first proposed by Niels Bohr. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 41 TOP: Energy Levels 60. The term atomic weight refers to the average mass number for a particular element based on the typical proportions of different isotopes found in nature. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 42 TOP: Isotopes 61. A molecule can be an element or a compound. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 43 TOP: Attractions Between Atoms—Chemical BondsU S N T O 62. There cannot be an electrically neutral ion. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 44 TOP: Ionic Bonds 63. Ions gain or lose electrons to try to attain four pairs of electrons in their outermost energy level. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 44 TOP: Ionic Bonds 64. Hydrogen bonds form as a result of the attraction between polar molecules. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 44-45 TOP: Hydrogen Bonds 65. In a formula for a chemical reaction, the substances on the right of the arrow are referred to as products. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 45 TOP: Chemical Reactions 66. A type of chemical reaction called hydrolysis is an example of an anabolic reaction. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 46 TOP: Catabolism 67. During catabolic reactions, some of the energy is released as heat to help keep the body warm. ANS: T TOP: Catabolism N R I G B.C M DIF: Memorization REF: p. 46 68. A type of chemical reaction called dehydration synthesis is an example of an anabolic reaction. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 46 TOP: Anabolism 69. A few inorganic compounds contain both C-C bonds but no inorganic compound has a C-H bond. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 47 TOP: Organic and Inorganic Compounds 70. Fifty percent or more of a normal adult’s body weight is water. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 47 TOP: Water 71. One of the functions of water in the body is that of helping to maintain a constant body temperature. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 47TOP: Properties of Water 72. One function of carbon dioxide is to help maintain proper pH balance in the body. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 48 TOP: Oxygen and Carbon Dioxide 73. A substance that releases an OH– ion in solution is called a base. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 49 TOP: Bases 74. A solution containing the same number of H+ ions and OH– ions would have a pH of zero. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 49 TOP: The pH Scale MATCHING Match each term to its corresponding descriptive phrase. a. Proton b. Neutron c. Electron d. Isotopes e. Ionic bonds f. Covalent bonds g. Octet rule h. Atomic number i. Atomic mass j. Hydrogen bonds NURSINGTB.COM 1. Number of protons an atom has 2. Subatomic particle with no charge 3. Bond formed between atoms when they share electrons 4. Subatomic particle with a positive charge 5. Atoms with the same number of protons but a different number of neutrons 6. Value determined by adding the number of protons and neutrons in an atom 7. Bond that requires a polar molecule 8. Subatomic particle that has a negative charge and is found in a “cloud” surrounding the nucleus of the atom 9. Bond that is formed by the transfer of an electron from one atom to another 10. Indicates an atom will react until it has eight electrons in its outermost energy level 1. ANS: H DIF: Memorization REF: p. 41 TOP: Atomic Number and Mass Number 2. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 41 TOP: Atomic Structure 3. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 44 TOP: Covalent Bonds 4. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 40 TOP: Atomic Structure5. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 42 TOP: 6. ANS: Isotopes I DIF: Memorization REF: p. 41 TOP: Atomic Number and Mass Number 7. ANS: J DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 44-45 TOP: Hydrogen Bonds 8. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 40 TOP: Atomic Structure 9. ANS: E TOP: Ionic Bonds DIF: Memorization REF: p. 43 10. ANS: G TOP: Energy Levels DIF: Memorization REF: p. 42 OTHER 1. Describe the Bohr model of the atom. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 41 TOP: Energy Levels 2. Name and briefly describe the types of chemical bonds discussed in this chapter. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: ppN. 4U3R-4S5INGTB.COM TOP: Covalent Bonds, Ionic or Electrovalent Bonds, and Hydrogen Bonds 3. Explain the types of chemical reactions discussed in this chapter, and give the formula for each. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 45 TOP: Chemical Reactions 4. Name and describe the types of radiation discussed in the chapter. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: p. 42, Connect It TOP: Radiation 5. Explain why the properties of water are important in the functioning of the body. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: p. 47 TOP: Properties of Water6. Explain the role of buffers in maintaining the proper environment in which the body can function. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: p. 50 TOP: Buffers 7. Explain what is meant by anabolism and catabolism, and name a process that is an example of each. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 46 TOP: Metabolism 8. Releases a hydrogen ion into a solution, which lowers the pH a. Acid b. Base ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 48 TOP: Acids and Bases 9. Releases a hydroxide ion into solution, which raises the pH a. Acid b. Base ANS: B NURSINGTB.COM DIF: Memorization REF: p. 49 TOP: Acids and Bases 10. Turns red litmus paper blue a. Acid b. Base ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 49 TOP: Acids and Bases 11. Turns blue litmus paper red a. Acid b. Base ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 49 TOP: Acids and Bases12. Gastric fluid, approximately a 1.5 on the pH scale a. Acid b. Base ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 49 TOP: Acids and Bases 13. Household ammonia, an 11 on the pH scale a. Acid b. Base ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 49 TOP: Acids and Bases 14. Tastes sour a. Acid b. Base ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 48-49 TOP: Acids and Bases NURSINGTB.COM 15. Tastes bitter a. Acid b. Base ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 48-49 TOP: Acids and BasesChapter 04: Biomolecules Patton: Anatomy and Physiology, 10th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1) Which of the following is not one of the major groups of organic substances in the human body? a. Proteins b. Salts c. Lipids d. Nucleic acids ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 56 TOP: Organic Molecules 2) All of the following substances are organic except: a. lipids. b. electrolytes. c. carbohydrates. d. proteins. ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 56 TOP: Organic Molecules 3) The amino group in an amino acid is: a. NH3+. b. COO–. c. symbolized by the letter RN d. SO2. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 63 TOP: Amino Acids 4) Peptide bonds join together molecules of: a. glycerol. b. glucose. c. amino acids. d. water. ANS: C DIF: Application REF: p. 63 TOP: Amino Acids 5) Which lipid is part of vitamin D? a. Glycerol b. Steroids c. Prostaglandins d. Fatty acids ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 60 TOP: Steroids 6) The element that is present in all proteins but not in carbohydrates is: a. carbon. b. hydrogen.c. oxygen. d. nitrogen. ANS: D DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 61 TOP: Proteins 7) The formation of sucrose involves the removal of a molecule of water. This is called: a. hydrolysis. b. oxidation. c. decomposition. d. dehydration synthesis. ANS: D DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 57 TOP: Disaccharides and Polysaccharides 8) Humans can synthesize 13 of 21 basic amino acids; the remaining 8, which must be included in the diet, are called: a. enzymes. b. essential amino acids. c. structural proteins. d. peptide bonds. ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 63 TOP: Amino Acids 9) The basic building blocks of fats are: a. monosaccharides. b. disaccharides. c. amino acids. d. fatty acids and glycerol. N URSINGTB.COM ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 58 TOP: Triglycerides or Fats 10) A structural lipid found in the cell membrane is a: a. triglyceride. b. phospholipid. c. steroid. d. Both B and C are correct. ANS: D DIF: Application REF: pp. 59-60 TOP: Phospholipids 11) DNA: a. is a single strand of nucleotides. b. contains the sugar ribose. c. is a double-helix strand of nucleotides. d. transports amino acids during protein synthesis. ANS: C DIF: Application REF: p. 67 TOP: Nucleic Acids and Related Molecules 12) The type of lipoprotein associated with “bad” cholesterol and the production of atherosclerotic changes in blood vessels is: a. HDL. b. LDL.c. VHDL. d. none of the above. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 61 TOP: Blood Lipoproteins 13) The types of lipids found that form hormones, such as cortisone, estrogen, and testosterone are: a. triglycerides. b. phosphoglycerides. c. steroids. d. prostaglandins. ANS: C DIF: Application REF: p. 60 TOP: Steroids 14) Which of the following is not one of the three major ingredients of a DNA molecule? a. Sugar b. Nitrogenous bases c. Phosphate d. Lipid ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 66 TOP: Nucleic Acids and Related Molecules 15) Proteins are composed of commonly occurring amino acids. a. 10 b. 18 c. 21 d. 22 NURSINGTB.COM ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 63 TOP: Proteins 16) Amino acids frequently become joined by: a. peptide bonds. b. catabolic reactions. c. atrophic reactions. d. all of the above. ANS: A DIF: Application REF: p. 63 TOP: Amino Acids 17) Unsaturated fats: a. contain all the hydrogen atoms they can hold. b. contain only single bonds between carbon atoms. c. are usually solids at room temperature. d. will kink or bend because of the double bonds between the carbon atoms. ANS: D DIF: Application REF: pp. 58-59 TOP: Triglycerides or Fats 18) Which lipid acts as a “tissue hormone”? a. Triglyceride b. Prostaglandin c. Steroidd. Phospholipid ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 60 TOP: Prostaglandins 19) The alpha helix is an example of which level of protein structure? a. Primary b. Secondary c. Tertiary d. Quaternary ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 64 TOP: Levels of Protein Structure 20) Which of the following is not true of RNA? a. It contains ribose sugar. b. It contains adenine. c. It is composed of smaller molecules called nucleotides. d. All of the above are true of RNA. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 67-68 TOP: DNA and RNA 21) Which of the following is not a major function of protein? a. Provides structure for the body b. Acts as a catalyst for chemical reactions in the form of enzymes c. Provides energy for the body d. All of the above are func tN ion Rs ofIproGteinB. .C M ANS: C DIF: MemUoriSzatioNn T O TOP: Proteins REF: p. 65, Table 4-3 22) Which level of protein structure refers to the number, kind, and sequence of amino acids? a. Primary b. Secondary c. Tertiary d. Quaternary ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 64 TOP: Levels of Protein Structure 23) Which level of protein structure is one that contains several polypeptide chains? a. Primary b. Secondary c. Tertiary d. Quaternary ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 64 TOP: Levels of Protein Structure 24) Which of the following is not true of both triglycerides and phospholipids? a. They both contain glycerol. b. They both contain fatty acids.c. They both contain a hydrophobic and hydrophilic end. d. All of the above are true of both triglycerides and phospholipids. ANS: C DIF: Application REF: pp. 58-59 TOP: Triglycerides and Phospholipids 25) Prostaglandins and steroids share which of the following characteristics? a. Both are found in the cell membrane. b. Both have a ring structure in their molecule. c. Both have a saturated fat in their structure. d. None of the above are shared characteristics. ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 60 TOP: Steroids and Prostaglandins 26) Which energy-releasing or energy-transferring molecule does not contain a nucleotide? a. FAD b. Creatine phosphate c. NAD d. ATP ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 68 TOP: Nucleotides and Related Molecules 27) If one side of a DNA molecule is CTAGGCTG, the other side would be: a. CTAGGCTG. b. GATCCGAC. c. CUAGGCUG. d. GAUCCGAC. N URSINGTB.COM ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 67 TOP: DNA and RNA 28) The term glycoprotein, a combination of two words, tells you that the compound is made of , with being the dominant component. a. a lipid and a protein; the lipid b. carbohydrate and protein; carbohydrate c. a lipid and a protein; the protein d. carbohydrate and protein; protein ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 69 TOP: Combined Forms 29) Which of the following is not true of carbohydrates? a. They include substances commonly called sugars. b. They are the body’s primary source of energy. c. They are a part of both DNA and RNA. d. All of the above are true of carbohydrates. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 56 TOP: Carbohydrates 30) When two molecules of glucose are joined, they form which disaccharide? a. Sucrose b. Maltosec. Lactose d. Fructose ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 57 TOP: Carbohydrates 31) A is a functional group that is temporarily unattached and is highly reactive because of unpaired electrons. a. hydroxyl b. phosphate c. amine group d. free radical ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 56 TOP: Organic Molecules 32) Sometimes referred to as animal starch, is the main polysaccharide in the body. a. sucrose b. maltose c. glucose d. glycogen ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 57 TOP: Disaccharides and Polysaccharides 33) What is the most important factor in determining the physical and chemical properties of fatty acids? a. Degree of saturation b. Presence of glycerol NURSINGTB.COM c. Available bonds of hydrocarbons d. Polarity ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 58 TOP: Types of Fatty Acids 34) The roles played by proteins can be divided into which categories? a. Structural and functional b. Chemical and functional c. Structural and chemical d. Dehydration synthesis and hydrolysis ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 61 TOP: Proteins TRUE/FALSE 1. Proteins are the most abundant of the carbon-containing compounds in the body. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 61 TOP: Proteins 2. Glycogen and starch are both examples of polysaccharides.ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 57 TOP: Disaccharides and Polysaccharides 3. There are a total of 21 essential amino acids. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 63 TOP: Amino Acids 4. Steroids are often called tissue hormones. ANS: F DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 60 TOP: Steroids 5. DNA molecules are the largest molecules in the body. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 67 TOP: Nucleic Acids 6. Adenine and thymine are referred to as purine bases, which are important constituents of a DNA molecule. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 66 TOP: Nucleic Acids 7. The ability of proteins to perform their function depends on their shape or conformation. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 61 TOP: Proteins 8. Enzymes are functional proteNinUsRthSatIbNriGngTmBo.leCcu OlMes together or split them apart in chemical reactions. ANS: T DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 61 TOP: Proteins 9. High-density lipoprotein (HDL) is also called the “bad” cholesterol. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 61, Box 4-1 TOP: Blood Lipoproteins 10. The nonessential amino acids cannot be produced from the other amino acids or from simple organic molecules. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 63 TOP: Amino Acids 11. Sugars and starches are both considered to be carbohydrates. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 56 TOP: Carbohydrates 12. Glucose is a hexose, and ribose is a pentose. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 56TOP: Carbohydrates 13. Nonessential amino acids are rarely used in the making of proteins in the human body. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 63 TOP: Amino Acids 14. Fats, steroids, and prostaglandins are all considered lipids. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 58 TOP: Lipids 15. Fats are composed of three fatty acids joined to a molecule of glycerol. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 58 TOP: Triglycerides or Fats 16. Saturated fats are more likely than unsaturated fats to be liquid at room temperature. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 59 TOP: Triglycerides or Fats 17. Phospholipids have a fat-soluble end and a water-soluble end. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 59 TOP: Phospholipids 18. Prostaglandins are associated with the prostate gland and therefore are not found in women. ANS: F DIF: AN ppUlicRaS tioInNGRTEBF:.C p.O60M 19. A denatured protein has lost its functional shape. TOP: Prostaglandins ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 66, Figure 4-16 TOP: Importance of Protein Shape 20. RNA never exists in a double-stranded form. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 66, Table 4-4 TOP: DNA and RNA 21. Glycoproteins contain both a fat molecule and a protein molecule. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 69 TOP: Combined Forms 22. A sucrose molecule is formed by the synthesis reaction between glucose and fructose. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 57 TOP: Disaccharides and Polysaccharides 23. The quaternary structure of a protein contains more than one polypeptide chain. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 64 TOP: Levels of Protein Structure24. Both phospholipids and steroids are found in cell membranes. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 58 | p. 60 TOP: Phospholipids and Steroids 25. Steroids are the only lipids that contain a ring structure. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 59-60 TOP: Prostaglandins 26. Nucleotides are used to make only RNA or DNA molecules. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 67 TOP: Nucleotides and Related Molecules 27. Each helical chain in a DNA molecule has a nitrogen base backbone toward the outside, and phosphate-sugars compose the inner, interlocking base pairs of the interior. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 67 TOP: Nucleic Acids and Related Molecules 28. When ATP is in short supply, muscles can use creatine phosphate for extra energy. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 68 TOP: Nucleotides and Related Molecules 29. Both triglycerides and prostaNglanRdinIs caGn coBn.taCin uMnsaturated fat. U S N T O ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 59 TOP: Triglycerides and Prostaglandins 30. The three most common disaccharides—sucrose, lactose, and maltose—each contain at least one molecule of glucose. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 57 TOP: Disaccharides and Polysaccharides 31. A saturated fat is saturated with hydrogen atoms. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 58 TOP: Types of Fatty Acids 32. A triglyceride is composed of a glycerol molecule and three of the same type of fatty acid. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 59 TOP: Formation of Triglycerides 33. The body uses the steroid cholesterol to make hormones. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 60 TOP: Steroids34. Proteins can be divided into functional proteins and structural proteins. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 61 TOP: Proteins 35. Amino acids get their name because they have an amino group (NH3+) and an acid group (COO–). ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 63 TOP: Amino Acids 36. When two amino acids are joined, a peptide bond is formed and an H+ ion is released. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 63 TOP: Amino Acids 37. The joining of amino acids in a peptide bond is an example of the process of hydrolysis. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 63 TOP: Amino Acids 38. Chaperone proteins assist in the proper folding of other proteins so they can have the correct functional shape. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 64-65 TOP: Levels of Protein Structure 39. RNA and DNA have the sam Ne UpyRriSmIidNinGeTbBas.esCbOutMdifferent purine bases. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 67 TOP: DNA and RNA 40. The function of transfer RNA is to select and adhere to a specific amino acid and place it in the correct sequence in the primary protein strand. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 67 TOP: DNA and RNA 41. If one side of a DNA molecule is CCTAGGC, the opposite side of the molecule would be CCTAGGC. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 66 TOP: DNA and RNA MATCHING Match each term to its corresponding descriptive phrase. a. RNA b. DNA c. CarbohydrateU S N T O d. Fat e. Steroid f. Protein g. Prostaglandins h. ATP 1. Substance composed of a glycerol molecule and three fatty acid molecules 2. Starch or sugar 3. Lipid found in sex hormone that is made up of four rings 4. Types of lipids that are called tissue hormones 5. Molecule that is the body’s usual source of direct energy 6. Nucleic acid that contains thymine and deoxyribose sugar 7. Substance that is made up of a long chain of amino acids 8. Nucleic acid that contains ribose sugar and uracil 1. ANS: TOP: D DIF: Triglycerides or Fats Memorization REF: p. 58 2. ANS: TOP: C DIF: Carbohydrates Memorization REF: p. 56 3. ANS: TOP: E DIF: Steroids Memorization REF: p. 60 4. ANS: TOP: G DIF: Prostaglandins Memorization REF: p. 60 5. ANS: H DIF: Memorization REF: p. 67 TOP: Nucleotides and Related Molecules 6. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 67 TOP: Nucleic Acids and RelatNed MRoleIculeGs B.C M 7. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 61 TOP: Proteins 8. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 66 TOP: Nucleic Acids and Related Molecules SHORT ANSWER 1. List the types of lipids, and give a function for each type. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: pp. 58-60 TOP: Lipids 2. Explain the different functions performed by RNA in the cell. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 66-67 TOP: DNA and RNA 3. Name and describe the structural levels of protein.ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 64-65 TOP: Levels of Protein Structure 4. Compare and contrast the structures of DNA and RNA. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: pp. 66-67 TOP: DNA and RNA ESSAY 1. If one side of a DNA molecule is A-T-C-G-G-T-C-A-G, what would the bases be on the other side of the molecule? On what do you base your answer? ANS: T-A-G-C-C-A-G-T-C DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 66, Table 4-4 TOP: Nucleic Acids 2. Enzymes that are exposed to high heat or low pH solutions lose their ability to function. What causes this to happen? Be specific. ANS: Answers will vary. NURSINGTB.COM DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 66 TOP: Proteins 3. Chaperones are present in every body cell. Discuss the importance of these groups of proteins. ANS: Answers will vary DIF: Application REF: pp. 64-65 TOP: Levels of Protein StructureChapter 05: Cell Structure Patton: Anatomy and Physiology, 10th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The fundamental organizational unit of life is the: a. atom. b. cell. c. gene. d. DNA molecule. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 75 TOP: Introduction 2. Which of the following recognize and destroy nonself cells? a. Gland cells b. Immune cells c. Nerve cells d. Red blood cells ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 76, Table 5-2 TOP: Examples of Cell Types 3. Main cell structures include all of the following except: a. organelles. b. plasma membrane. c. interstitial fluid. d. cytoplasm. NURSINGTB.COM ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 77-78 TOP: Cell Structures 4. Which of the following is not a function of the plasma membrane? a. Self-identification b. Receptor site for messages c. Selective barrier d. Control center of the cell ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 78, Table 5-3 TOP: Membrane Function 5. The structure in cells that is associated with the enzymatic breakdown (digestion) of foreign material is the: a. lysosome. b. Golgi apparatus. c. ribosome. d. centriole. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 78, Table 5-2 TOP: Lysosomes6. The major function of ribosomes is to synthesize: a. proteins. b. carbohydrates. c. fats. d. cholesterol. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 78, Table 5-2 TOP: Ribosomes 7. Which are the organelles that allow for the recycling of amino acids in the cell? a. Peroxisomes b. Mitochondria c. Ribosomes d. Proteasomes ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 85 TOP: Proteasomes 8. Which organelle processes and packages material to be secreted? a. Nucleolus b. Ribosome c. Mitochondrion d. Golgi apparatus ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 83 TOP: Golgi Apparatus 9. Projections from the cell that mN oR ve m IateGrialBs .anCd mMucus are called: a. cilia. b. flagella. c. microvilli. d. microtubules. U S N T O ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 90 TOP: Cell Extensions 10. Granules or threads within the nucleus are called: a. microfilaments. b. chromatin. c. nucleotides. d. microtubules. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 87 TOP: Nucleus 11. Skin cells (epithelial) are held tightly together by: a. gap junctions. b. desmosomes. c. tight junctions. d. adhesions. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 92 TOP: Cell Connections12. The inner membrane of what double-membrane structure is contorted into folds called cristae? a. Golgi apparatus b. Mitochondrion c. Endoplasmic reticulum d. Ribosome ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 86 TOP: Mitochondria 13. The cell extension that assists epithelial cells in absorption is called: a. cilia. b. flagella. c. microvilli. d. desmosomes. ANS: C DIF: Application REF: p. 90 TOP: Cell Extensions 14. A specialized cell structure that propels the sperm is the: a. flagellum. b. cilium. c. microvillus. d. microtubule. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 91 TOP: Cell Extensions 15. DNA is a major constituent o fN wR hich cI el Gl orBga.nCelle?M a. Lysosome b. Ribosome c. Chromosome d. Nucleus U S N T O ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 87 TOP: Nucleus 16. An area of cytoplasm that coordinates the building and breaking of microtubules is called: a. cytoplasm A. b. mitochondria. c. centrosome. d. ribosomes. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 88 TOP: Centrosomes 17. The structure that separates the contents of a cell from the surrounding tissue is known as: a. Golgi apparatus. b. plasma membrane. c. cytoplasm. d. centrosome. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 95 TOP: Cell Membranes18. Which organelles consist of vesicles that have pinched off from the Golgi apparatus? a. Mitochondria b. Cilia c. Peroxisomes d. Lysosomes ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 85 TOP: Lysosomes 19. Tiny indentations of the plasma membrane that resemble caves are called: a. mitochondria. b. caveolae. c. cisternae. d. vesicles. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 80, Box -1 TOP: Caveolae 20. The is often called the microtubule organizing center. a. centrosome b. cytoskeleton c. centriole d. ribosome ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 88 TOP: Centrosomes 21. Each of the following is an eNxaUmRplSeIofNtGheTpBla.smCaOmMembrane function except: a. boundary. b. self-identification. c. receptor sites. d. production of proteins. ANS: D DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 81 TOP: Cell Membranes 22. Which of the following is a functional characteristic of ribosomes? a. Manufacture of mRNA b. Protein synthesis c. DNA replication d. Housing of DNA ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 83 TOP: Ribosomes 23. ATP production occurs within which organelle? a. Rough endoplasmic reticulum b. Golgi apparatus c. Flagellum d. Mitochondrion ANS: D DIF: Application REF: p. 86 TOP: Mitochondriac. liver cell. 24. Which organelle consists of separate tiny sacs called cisternae? a. Golgi apparatus b. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum c. Rough endoplasmic reticulum d. Mitochondria ANS: A DIF: Application REF: p. 83 TOP: Golgi Apparatus 25. In nondividing cells, DNA appears as threads that are referred to as: a. chromatin. b. chromosomes. c. histones. d. none of the above. ANS: A DIF: Application REF: p. 87 TOP: Nucleus 26. The nucleolus is composed chiefly of: a. mRNA. b. rRNA. c. tRNA. d. DNA. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 87 TOP: Nucleus 27. The largest human cell, measuring about 150 m, is a: a. white blood cell. b. female sex cell or ovum.N URSINGTB.COM d. male sex cell or sperm. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 76 TOP: Functional Anatomy of Cells 28. In the cell membrane, the hydrophilic part of the phospholipid molecule: a. faces the exterior of the cell. b. faces the interior of the cell. c. is in the center of the phospholipid bilayer. d. both A and B. ANS: D DIF: Application REF: p. 80 TOP: Cell Membranes 29. In the cell membrane, the hydrophobic part of the phospholipid molecule: a. faces the exterior of the cell. b. faces the interior of the cell. c. is in the center of the phospholipid bilayer. d. both A and B. ANS: C DIF: Application REF: p. 80 TOP: Cell Membranes 30. The presence of which substance in the cell membrane keeps it from breaking too easily? a. Cholesterol b. Proteinc. Phospholipids d. Glycoproteins ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 80 TOP: Cell Membranes 31. The identification function of the cell membrane is carried out by the: a. cholesterol molecules. b. phospholipid molecules. c. glycoprotein molecules. d. channel proteins. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 81 TOP: Cell Membranes 32. Rafts are stiff groupings of membrane molecules. What is their function? a. Help organize the various components of the plasma membrane b. Play an important role in the pinching of a parent cell into two daughter cells c. Sometimes allow the cell to form depressions that form a means of carrying substances into the cell d. All of these are functions of rafts ANS: D DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 80 TOP: Membrane Structure 33. Which of the following is not a function of the smooth endoplasmic reticulum? a. Provides a site for ribosome attachment b. Supplies membrane for use throughout the cell c. Makes steroid hormones d. Makes glycoproteins ANS: A DIF: Application REF: pp. 82-83 TOP: Endoplasmic Reticulum 34. Which of the following is not true about ribosomes? a. Contain protein b. Composed of a large unit and a small unit c. Surrounded by a membrane structure d. Contain RNA ANS: C DIF: Application REF: p. 83 TOP: Ribosomes 35. The membranous structure containing substances that protect the cell from harm are: a. ribosomes. b. lysosomes. c. peroxisomes. d. both B and C. ANS: D DIF: Application REF: p. 86 TOP: Lysosomes and Peroxisomes 36. Which of the following statements does not describe the nucleolus? a. It is found in the nucleus. b. It has a membrane similar to the nucleus. c. It is made of nucleic acids. d. All of the above are true about the nucleolus. NURSINGTB.C M OANS: D DIF: Application REF: p. 88 TOP: Nucleus 37. A list of the cell fibers from largest to smallest would read: a. microtubules, intermediate filaments, microfilaments. b. microtubules, microfilaments, intermediate filaments. c. microfilaments, intermediate filaments, microtubules. d. microfilaments, microtubules, intermediate filaments. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 88 TOP: Cell Fibers 38. The cell extension that contains microfilaments is called: a. microvilli. b. flagella. c. cilia. d. All cell extensions contain microfilaments. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 90 TOP: Cell Extensions 39. Which of the following organelles is considered a membranous organelle? a. Lysosome b. Ribosome c. Nucleolus d. Both A and B ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 85 TOP: Cytoplasm and OrganellNesURSINGTB.COM 40. Which of the following organelles is considered a nonmembranous organelle? a. Golgi apparatus b. Ribosome c. Mitochondria d. Both A and B ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 83 TOP: Cytoplasm and Organelles 41. The barrier function of the plasma membrane is accomplished by the: a. receptor proteins. b. glycoproteins. c. rafts in the cell membrane. d. phospholipid bilayer. ANS: D DIF: Application REF: p. 81, Table 5-4 TOP: Cell Membranes 42. Which structures in the cell membrane are a stiff grouping of membrane molecules that are rich in cholesterol? a. Glycoproteins b. Rafts c. Phospholipidsd. Receptor proteins ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 80 TOP: Membrane Structure 43. Which of the following is not true of the rough endoplasmic reticulum? a. It makes lipids and carbohydrates. b. It is made of broad, flattened sacs. c. It has many ribosomes attached to it. d. All of the above are true of rough endoplasmic reticulum. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 82 TOP: Endoplasmic Reticulum 44. The enzyme catalase is an important chemical in the functioning of the: a. mitochondria. b. proteasomes. c. peroxisomes. d. lysosomes. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 86 TOP: Peroxisomes 45. Which of the following structures contains DNA? a. Nucleus b. Mitochondria c. Ribosome d. Both A and B NURSINGTB.COM ANS: D DIF: Application REF: p. 78, Table 5-2 TOP: Mitochondria and Nucleus 46. Damage to the centrosome and centrioles in a cell would have the greatest impact on which cell function? a. Energy production b. Protein synthesis c. Cell division d. Synthesis of lipids and carbohydrates ANS: C DIF: Application REF: p. 89 TOP: Centrosomes 47. Which cell extension lacks a central pair of microtubules, is not found in blood cells, and functions in the kidney to monitor urine flow? a. Microvilli b. Primary cilium c. Cilia d. Flagella ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 91 TOP: Cell Extensions 48. Which of the following is not a function of the integral membrane proteins? a. Acting as receptorsb. Signal transduction c. Identification of “self” d. All of the above are functions of the integral membrane proteins. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 81 TOP: Cell Membranes 49. Which of the following does not describe a structure or function of the proteasome? a. Breaking down abnormal and misfolded proteins released from the ER b. Looks like a hollow cylindrical drum made of protein subunits c. Requires the small protein called ubiquitin to pull proteins in d. All of the above are structures or functions of proteasomes. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 85 TOP: Proteasomes 50. Which cell fiber serves as part of our “cellular muscles?” a. Centrosome b. Microfilament c. Microtubule d. Intermediate filament ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 86 TOP: Cell Fibers 51. Which fiber is the smallest of the cell fibers? a. Centrosome b. Microfilament c. Microtubule d. Intermediate filament NURSINGTB.COM ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 86 TOP: Cell Fibers 52. Which cell fiber is made of twisted strands of protein? a. Centrosomes b. Microfilament c. Microtubule d. Intermediate filament ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 86 TOP: Cell Fibers 53. Which type of cell connection joins heart muscle cells? a. Tight junction b. Desmosome c. Macrofilament d. Gap junction ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 92 TOP: Cell Connections 54. Which type of cell connection acts like a “spot weld” to hold cells together?a. Tight junction b. Desmosome c. Macrofilament d. Gap junction ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 92 TOP: Cell Connections 55. How do vesicles move from place to place in an organized way within the cell? a. Molecular motors pull them along the microtubules and microfilaments of the cytoskeleton b. Vaults pull them along the microtubules and microfilaments of the cytoskeleton. c. Rafts pull them along the microtubules and microfilaments of the cytoskeleton. d. Microvilli and flagella move them along the microtubules and microfilaments of the cytoskeleton. ANS: A DIF: Synthesis REF: pp. 89-90 TOP: Molecular Motors 56. Lysosomes perform autophagy. This means that they: a. are the protein-destroying organelle in the cell. b. break down proteins and cytoplasm that are not needed by “self eating.” c. synthesize ATP. d. provide an internal supporting framework. ANS: B DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 85 TOP: Lysosomes TRUE/FALSE NURSINGTB.COM 1. The longest extension of a nerve cell can be over a meter in length. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 76 TOP: Functional Anatomy of Cells 2. An important function of the cell membrane is the maintenance of cell integrity. ANS: T DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 81 TOP: Cell Membranes 3. Peroxisomes contain enzymes that detoxify harmful substances. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 86 TOP: Peroxisomes 4. The outer portion of the cell membrane is hydrophobic, or water loving. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 80 TOP: Cell Membranes 5. Ribosomes attached to the endoplasmic reticulum are responsible for making proteins to be exported out of the cell. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 82 TOP: Endoplasmic Reticulum6. The functions of the nucleus are regulated by RNA. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 87 TOP: Nucleus 7. The major direct cell connections are tight junctions, gap junctions, and desmosomes. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 92 TOP: Cell Connections 8. Tight junctions do not allow molecules to spread through the cracks between cells. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 92 TOP: Cell Connections 9. Gap junctions are found in the small intestine. They allow molecules to flow between cells. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 92 TOP: Cell Connections 10. The number of mitochondria in a cell is basically related to its degree of cell activity. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 86 TOP: Mitochondria 11. The cell’s internal supporting framework is called the cytoskeleton. ANS: T DIF: MNemoRrizaItionG B.C M REF: p. 88 TOP: Cytoskeleton U S N T O 12. The size of a cell’s nucleolus is indirectly related to the amount of protein the cell produces. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 88 TOP: Nucleus 13. Heart muscle cells are joined by gap junctions to facilitate the movement of electrical impulses. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 92 TOP: Cell Connections 14. Cell connections called desmosomes are like Velcro holding cells together. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 92 TOP: Cell Connections 15. Cilia are longer and more numerous than flagella. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 91 TOP: Cell Extensions 16. The nucleolus is made up of tightly coiled DNA.ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 88 TOP: Nucleus 17. The thinnest cell fibers are tiny, hollow tubes called microtubules. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 88 TOP: Cell Fibers 18. The plasma membrane can be described as a double layer of phospholipid molecules. ANS: T DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 80 TOP: Cell Membranes 19. Generally, the more active a cell is, the fewer mitochondria it will contain. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 86 TOP: Mitochondria 20. Cell fibers that are composed of twisted protein strands are microtubules. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 88 TOP: Cell Fibers 21. The “typical” or composite cell described in this chapter is very similar to most of the cells in the human body. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 77 TOP: The Typical Cell 22. The watery fluid in the cell isNcUalRleSdIcyNtoGsT olB. .COM ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 78 TOP: Cell Structures 23. Water-soluble substances easily pass through the cell membrane. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 80 TOP: Cell Membranes 24. Glycoproteins on the cell membrane identify the cell as “self.” ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 81 TOP: Cell Membranes 25. Rough endoplasmic reticulum looks rough because there are mitochondria attached to it. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 82 TOP: Endoplasmic Reticulum 26. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum is the organelle that supplies membrane material for use throughout the cell. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 83 TOP: Endoplasmic Reticulum27. Ribosomes are only found attached to endoplasmic reticulum. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 83 TOP: Ribosomes 28. The main function of the ribosome is to provide energy to the cell. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 83 TOP: Ribosomes 29. The Golgi apparatus helps to prepare material for export from the cell. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 83 TOP: Golgi Apparatus 30. The protein-processing units of the Golgi apparatus are called cisterna. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 83 TOP: Golgi Apparatus 31. Lysosomes can be called the “garbage disposals” of the cell. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 85 TOP: Lysosomes 32. The catalase in the peroxisomes reacts to detoxify carbon dioxide. ANS: F DIF: MNemUoRriSzaItioNnGTB.COM TOP: Peroxisomes 33. The inner folds of the mitochondria are called cisterna. REF: p. 86 ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 86 TOP: Mitochondria 34. It is likely that a muscle cell would have more mitochondria than a fat cell. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 86 TOP: Mitochondria 35. One of the main functions of the mitochondria is to supply the cell with ATP. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 96 TOP: Mitochondria 36. The name nucleus comes from the Greek word for color. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 87 TOP: Nucleus 37. Chromosomes and chromatin are both forms of DNA. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 87 TOP: Nucleus38. Microtubules are sometimes called the “engines” of the cell. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 88 TOP: Cell Fibers 39. The body of a female does not produce cells with flagella. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 91 TOP: Cell Extensions 40. Schleiden and Schwann were the first scientists to see cells. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 75 TOP: Introduction 41. The largest human cell is the female ovum or egg cell. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 76 TOP: Functional Anatomy of Cells 42. Another term for cytosol is intracellular fluid. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 78 TOP: Cell Structures 43. The fluid mosaic model describes the chromatin material found in the nucleus. ANS: F DIF: MNemoRrizaItionG B.C M REF: p. 95 TOP: Cell Membranes U S N T O 44. One function of the smooth endoplasmic reticulum is to help maintain a low Ca++ concentration in the cell’s interior. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 83 TOP: Endoplasmic Reticulum 45. A major part of ribosomes is deoxyribonucleic acid. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 83 TOP: Ribosomes 46. The proteasomes contain enzymes that assist in protein synthesis. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 85 TOP: Proteasomes 47. Proteasomes only destroy abnormal or misfolded proteins in the cell. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 85 TOP: Proteasomes 48. Small proteins called ubiquitins assist the proteasomes in accomplishing their function.ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 85 TOP: Proteasomes 49. An organelle called a vault, composed of RNA and protein, functions to shuttle molecules to and from the nucleus. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 87, Connect It TOP: Vaults 50. An angstrom is larger than a nanometer. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 76, Table 5-1 TOP: Units of Size 51. Two types of lipids, phospholipids and cholesterol, are important molecules in the cell membrane. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 80 TOP: Cell Membranes 52. Rafts are stiff groupings of membrane molecules that are rich in cholesterol. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 80 TOP: Membrane Structure 53. Hormones attach to special cholesterol molecules in the cell membrane. ANS: F DIF: M NRUemori SzaItioNnGTB.COM TOP: Membrane Function REF: p. 81 54. Three ribosomal subunits must come together to form a functioning ribosome. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 83 TOP: Ribosomes 55. Many ribosomes can work on the same mRNA strand at the same time; when this occurs, the structure is called a polyribosome. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 83 TOP: Ribosomes 56. A complete ribosome only exists when it is making a protein. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 83 TOP: Ribosomes 57. In order for the Golgi apparatus to function correctly, both the ribosomes and the rough endoplasmic reticulum must be functioning also. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 83 TOP: Golgi ApparatusU S N T 58. Muscular dystrophy is a disease condition that can be linked to the malfunctioning of proteasomes. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 85 TOP: Proteasomes 59. The nucleus is the only structure in the cell that contains DNA. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 86 TOP: Mitochondria 60. Another name for the centrosome is the microtubule organizing center. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 86 TOP: Centrosomes 61. The centriole is a single cylindrical structure at the boundary of the centrosome. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 89 TOP: Centrosomes 62. Small protein structures called molecular motors pull loads from one part of the cell to another along the cytoskeleton. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 89-90 TOP: Molecular Motors 63. All of the cell extensions—mNicroRvillIi, ciGlia,Ban.dCflagMella—have basically the same structure. They only differ in number per cell and length. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 89 TOP: Cell Extensions 64. Primary cilia are unable to move because they lack the central pair of microtubules and motor molecules. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 91 TOP: Cell Extensions 65. Cytoplasm is another term for cytosol. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 78 TOP: Cell Structures 66. One important function of integral membrane proteins is signal transduction or carrying messages across the cell membrane. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 81 TOP: Membrane Function 67. Integral membrane proteins play an important role in pinching off the cell membrane so two new cells can form during cell division.ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 81 TOP: Membrane Function 68. Organelles can be divided into two groups, hydrophobic (water fearing) and hydrophilic (water loving). ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 82 TOP: Cytoplasm and Organelles 69. The only structural difference between the rough and smooth endoplasmic reticulum (ER) is that the rough ER has ribosomes attached. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 82-83 TOP: Endoplasmic Reticulum 70. The ribosome is an example of a membranous organelle. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 83 TOP: Ribosomes 71. When vesicles from the Golgi apparatus reach the cell membrane, the contents are secreted to outside the cell. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 84-85 TOP: Golgi Apparatus 72. The usual destination for vesNic leU sreRS leI asN edbyGBT the.C GMO olgi apparatus is the nucleus of the cell. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 85 TOP: Golgi Apparatus 73. Lysosomes are vesicles that have been pinched off from the smooth endoplasmic reticulum. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 85 TOP: Lysosomes 74. Nuclear pore complexes regulate what can enter and leave the nucleus. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 87 TOP: Nucleus 75. Centrioles are made up of cylinders of nine bundles of microtubules with three tubules in each bundle. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 89 TOP: Centrosomes 76. Centrosomes play an important role in cell division. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 89 TOP: Centrosomes77. Primary cilia can act as sensory organelles. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 91 TOP: Cell Extensions 78. One function of the microvilli is to increase the surface area of a membrane to provide for more efficient absorption. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 90 TOP: Cell Extensions MATCHING Match each cell structure with its corresponding description or function. a. Plasma membrane b. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum c. Golgi apparatus d. Nucleolus e. Nucleus f. Ribosome g. Lysosome h. Mitochondria i. Peroxisomes j. Rough endoplasmic reticulum k. Proteasomes 1. Tubular network in the cell w NUith RSno INribo GBTsome .s COthat Msy nthesize lipids and carbohydrates 2. Outer boundary of the cell made up of phospholipids and proteins 3. Functions in processing and packaging of protein molecules to be exported from the cell 4. Protein factory made up of two subunits 5. Structure in the cell nucleus that makes ribosomes 6. Major source of ATP synthesis; the “powerhouse” of the cell 7. Vesicles or sacs in the cell that can destroy large molecules or even the cell itself 8. Vesicles that contain catalase that are important in metabolic reactions involving hydrogen peroxide 9. Structures that destroy improperly folded protein molecules that could possibly harm the cell 10. One of the largest structures in the cell; contains DNA 11. Broad, flattened sacs that extend from the nucleus and have ribosomes attached to them 1. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 82 TOP: Endoplasmic Reticulum 2. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 79 TOP: Cell Membranes 3. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 83 TOP: Golgi Apparatus 4. ANS: F TOP: Ribosomes DIF: Memorization REF: p. 83 5. ANS: D TOP: Nucleus DIF: Memorization REF: p. 876. ANS: TOP: H Mitochondria DIF: Memorization REF: p. 86 7. ANS: TOP: G Lysosomes DIF: Memorization REF: p. 85 8. ANS: TOP: I Peroxisomes DIF: Memorization REF: p. 86 9. ANS: TOP: K Proteasomes DIF: Memorization REF: p. 85 10. ANS: TOP: E Nucleus DIF: Memorization REF: p. 87 11. ANS: J DIF: Memorization REF: p. 92 TOP: Endoplasmic Reticulum Match each term to the phrase that describes it best. a. Microtubules b. Intermediate filaments c. Microfilaments d. Centrosomes e. Cilia f. Flagella g. Microvilli h. Desmosomes i. Tight junctions j. Gap junctions k. Primary cilium l. Centrioles 12. Cell fiber that can be found iNn UmRusSclIeNceGllTs B.COM 13. Cell extension that is found on the sperm cell 14. Cell connections that are like small “spot welds” 15. Cell extension that increases surface area for more efficient absorption 16. Largest of the cell fibers; act like “engines” for the cell 17. Microtubule organizing centers that also play a role in cell division 18. Cell connections that form tunnels between cells and are found in heart muscles 19. Cell fibers that are slightly thicker than microfilaments 20. Cell extensions that are shorter than flagella and are found lining the respiratory tract 21. Cell connection that forms a “collar” around groups of cells 22. Tiny cylinders that can be found near the boundaries of the centrosomes 23. Cell extensions that lack the center pair of microtubules and can function as sensory organelles; not found in blood cells, but most other cells have them 12. ANS: TOP: C Cell Fibers DIF: Memorization REF: p. 88 13. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 91 TOP: Cell Extensions 14. ANS: TOP: H DIF: Cell Connections Memorization REF: p. 92 15. ANS: TOP: G DIF: Cell Extensions Memorization REF: p. 90 16. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 88TOP: Cell Fibers 17. ANS: TOP: D Centrosomes DIF: Memorization REF: p. 89 18. ANS: J DIF: Memorization REF: p. 92 TOP: Cell Connections 19. ANS: TOP: B DIF: Cell Fibers Memorization REF: p. 88 20. ANS: TOP: E DIF: Cell Extensions Memorization REF: p. 91 21. ANS: TOP: I DIF: Cell Connections Memorization REF: p. 92 22. ANS: TOP: L DIF: Centrosomes Memorization REF: p. 89 23. ANS: TOP: K DIF: Cell Extensions Memorization REF: p. 91 OTHER 1. Describe the structure of the cell membrane, and explain what is meant by the fluid mosaic model. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: pp. 79-80 TOP: Cell Membranes 2. Explain the functions of the cNellRmemIbraGne.B.C M U S N T O ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: p. 81 TOP: Cell Membranes 3. Explain what structure on the cell membrane makes it difficult to transplant an organ from one person into another. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 80 TOP: Cell Membranes 4. Name and give the functions of the membranous organelles of the cell. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 78, Table 5-3 TOP: Cell Structures 5. Name and give the functions of the non-membranous organelles of the cell.ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 78, Table 5-3 TOP: Cell Structures 6. Name and explain the function of each of the three types of cell fibers in the cell. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 88 TOP: Cell Fibers 7. What is the function of the centrosome, and by what other name is it known? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 88 TOP: Centrosomes 8. What are molecular motors, and what is their function in the cell? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 89-90 TOP: Molecular Motors 9. Explain the structure and funNct ionRU SofItN heGmTiB cr.ovCilOli.M ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 90 TOP: Cell Extensions 10. Explain the structure and function of cilia and flagella. What is the only type of human cell that has a flagellum? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 90-92 TOP: Cell Extensions 11. Explain the structure and function of the primary cilium in the cell. Which cell type does not have a primary cilium? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 91 TOP: Cell Extensions 12. Describe the structure and function of the nucleus. Include the structure and function of the nucleolus.ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 87 TOP: Nucleus 13. Name and describe the three types of cell connections. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 92 TOP: Cell Connections ESSAY 1. Joanne, a 75-year-old patient, has an active peptic ulcer. Describe the cellular organelles involved in synthesizing digestive enzymes for the stomach. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: pp. 82-86 TOP: Cytoplasm and Organelles 2. Rebecca received second-degree sunburn and was very uncomfortable for several days. Her skin began to heal, and some of the epithelial tissue began to peel off in layers. Explain the cell connections that allow the skin cells to hold onto each other in a sheet. ANS: Answers will vary. NURSINGTB.COM DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 92 TOP: Cell Connections 3. Explain the process by which a protein is processed in preparation for being released by the cell, starting at the ribosome and ending at the cell membrane. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: pp. 83-85 TOP: Golgi ApparatusChapter 06: Cell Function Patton: Anatomy and Physiology, 10th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Diffusion of particles through a membrane by means of a carrier molecule is called: a. pinocytosis. b. osmosis. c. facilitated diffusion. d. dialysis. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 103 TOP: Facilitated Diffusion 2. Diffusion requires: a. a semipermeable membrane. b. a concentration gradient. c. ions. d. none of the above. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 100 TOP: Diffusion 3. All of the following are examples of passive transport except: a. filtration. b. osmosis. c. endocytosis. d. dialysis. NURSINGTB.COM ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 105 TOP: Passive Transport Processes 4. A saline solution that contains a higher concentration of salt than a red blood cell would be: a. isotonic. b. hypotonic. c. hypertonic. d. hydrostatic. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 103 TOP: Osmosis 5. Materials can be moved from a low concentration to a high concentration through: a. facilitated diffusion. b. filtration. c. osmosis. d. active transport. ANS: D DIF: Application REF: p. 105 TOP: Active Transport Processes 6. Which of the following is not true of diffusion? a. Uses cellular energyb. Can occur in living and nonliving cells c. May occur both into and out of the cell d. Energy source is cellular ANS: A DIF: Application REF: p. 99 TOP: Diffusion 7. A membrane carrier structure attracts a solute to a binding site, changes shape, and releases the solute on the other side of the cell membrane. This describes the process of: a. endocytosis. b. the sodium and potassium pump. c. channel-mediated transport. d. carrier-mediated transport. ANS: D DIF: Application REF: p. 104 TOP: Carrier-Mediated Passive Transport 8. The physical process by which water and solute move through a membrane when a hydrostatic pressure gradient exists across the membrane is the process of: a. dialysis. b. osmosis. c. diffusion. d. filtration. ANS: D DIF: Application REF: p. 105 TOP: Filtration 9. Which is not true about the sodium and potassium pump? a. It uses cellular energy. b. Sodium moves into the ce Nll aRnd pIotaGssiuBm.mCovMes out of the cell. c. A carrier system is used. U S N T O d. It can move substances against their concentration gradient. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 105-106 TOP: Transport by Pumps 10. Which is true about the sodium and potassium pump? a. Two sodium ions are taken into the cell. b. Three sodium ions are taken out of the cell. c. Three potassium ions are taken into the cell. d. Two potassium ions are taken out of the cell. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 105-106 TOP: Transport by Pumps 11. Two solutions of different concentrations of glucose are separated by a membrane that allows both glucose and water to pass through. When dynamic equilibrium is reached, there will be: a. no movement of water or glucose. b. movement of glucose but not water. c. movement of water but not glucose. d. an even exchange of material across the membrane. ANS: D DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 99 TOP: Diffusion 12. Phagocytosis is an example of:a. exocytosis. b. endocytosis. c. passive transport. d. facilitated diffusion. ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 107 TOP: Transport by Vesicles 13. Water will move through the cell membrane by: a. dialysis. b. pumps. c. facilitated diffusion. d. osmosis. ANS: D DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 101 TOP: Osmosis 14. NaCl would move through the cell membrane in which direction? a. Both into and out of the cell b. Into the cell c. Out of the cell d. Neither into nor out of the cell ANS: A DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 99 TOP: Diffusion 15. The small water channels in the cell membrane are called: a. phospholipid molecules. b. transport pumps. c. aquaporins. d. transport vesicles. N URSINGTB.COM ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 103 TOP: Osmosis 16. If a cell were placed in a hypotonic solution: a. there would be a net gain of water into the cell. b. there would be a net loss of water out of the cell. c. no water would move into or out of the cell. d. water would move into and out of the cell in equal amounts. ANS: A DIF: Application REF: p. 102 TOP: Osmosis 17. If a cell were placed in a hypertonic solution: a. there would be a net gain of water into the cell. b. there would be a net loss of water out of the cell. c. no water would move into or out of the cell. d. water would move into and out of the cell in equal amounts. ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 103 TOP: Osmosis 18. The pressure of a solution is the pressure that prevents the movement of water by osmosis from pure water into the solution. a. osmotic b. potential c. ionicd. actual ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 102 TOP: Osmosis 19. Which of the following is not a passive transport process? a. Dialysis b. Osmosis c. Filtration d. Phagocytosis ANS: D DIF: Application REF: p. 107 TOP: Passive Transport Processes 20. Diffusion of water through a selectively permeable membrane in the presence of at least one impermeable solute is referred to as: a. diffusion. b. osmosis. c. phagocytosis. d. pinocytosis. ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 100 TOP: Osmosis 21. The engulfing of microbes by white blood cells is an example of: a. pinocytosis. b. exocytosis. c. phagocytosis. d. “cell drinking.” ANS: C DIF: MNemUoRriSzaItioNnGTB.COM TOP: Transport by Vesicles REF: p. 107 22. A hypertonic solution contains concentration of solute the cell. a. a greater; than b. the same; as c. a lesser; than d. None of the above is correct. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 103 TOP: Osmosis 23. The force of a fluid pushing against a surface could be described as pressure. a. facilitated. b. hydrostatic. c. hypostatic. d. diffused. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 105 TOP: Filtration 24. If a 20% glucose solution were separated from a 10% glucose solution by a permeable membrane: a. glucose would move from the 20% solution to the 10% solution. b. water would move from the 10% solution to the 20% solution.c. water would move from the 20% solution to the 10% solution. d. both A and B would occur. ANS: D DIF: Application REF: p. 100 TOP: Diffusion 25. The proteins in the cell membrane that can open and close are called: a. enzymes. b. gated channel proteins. c. glycoproteins. d. both A and B. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 103 TOP: Channel-Mediated Passive Transport 26. Hydrostatic pressure in the blood is: a. generated by the contraction of the heart. b. generated by gravity. c. important to the functioning of the kidney. d. all of the above. ANS: D DIF: Application REF: p. 105 TOP: Filtration 27. Gated channels in the cell membrane can be “opened” by: a. electrical changes or voltage. b. chemicals. c. light. d. all of the above. ANS: D DIF: AN ppUlicRaS tioInNGRTEBF:.C p. 10M4 TOP: Channel-Mediated Passive Transport 28. After phagocytosis occurs, enzymes from which organelle can digest what is in the vesicle? a. Lysosome b. Golgi apparatus c. Mitochondria d. Cytoskeleton ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 107 TOP: Transport by Vesicles 29. The location at which the enzyme molecule binds to the substance it acts on is called the: a. substrate. b. coenzyme. c. active site. d. cofactor. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 110 TOP: Role of Enzymes 30. Which of the following is not true of glycolysis? a. It occurs in the cytoplasm. b. It does not require oxygen. c. The energy is transferred to NADH.d. It is able to get almost all of the energy out of a glucose molecule. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 112 TOP: Glycolysis 31. In aerobic respiration, the function of oxygen is to combine with: a. pyruvate in glycolysis. b. NADH in the citric acid cycle. c. electrons and hydrogen at the end of the electron transport system. d. lactate in glycolysis. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 114 TOP: Electron Transport System 32. Which of the following is not true of enzymes? a. They increase the activation of a reaction. b. They are unchanged by the chemical reaction. c. They frequently require a cofactor or coenzyme to function. d. All of the above are true of enzymes. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 110 TOP: Role of Enzymes 33. A molecule or other agent that alters enzyme function by changing the enzyme’s shape is called a(n): a. cofactor. b. coenzyme. c. allosteric effector. d. proenzyme. NURSINGTB.COM ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 111 TOP: General Function of Enzymes 34. Which of the following is not true of the citric acid cycle? a. Occurs in the mitochondria b. Directly releases 36 ATPs of energy c. Has acetyl CoA as a starting product d. All of the above are true of the citric acid cycle. ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 113 TOP: Citric Acid Cycle 35. Digestive enzymes belong to which group? a. Hydrases b. Phosphorylating enzymes c. Hydrolases d. Isomerases ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 110 TOP: Classification and Naming of Enzymes 36. Which enzymes rearrange atoms within a molecule? a. Hydrases b. Phosphorylating enzymesN R I G B.C M c. Oxidation-reduction enzymes d. Isomerases ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 110 TOP: Classification and Naming of Enzymes 37. Which factor can have an effect on the functioning of an enzyme? a. Temperature b. pH c. An increase in the amount of end product produced by a reaction d. All of the above ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 111 TOP: General Function of Enzymes 38. Which of the following is not true of the exocytosis? a. The vesicles containing the protein were formed by the rough endoplasmic reticulum. b. The vesicles are pulled to the cell membrane by the cytoskeleton. c. The vesicles add to the structure of the cell membrane. d. All of the above are true of exocytosis. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 108 TOP: Exocytosis 39. Which of the following is true of catabolic pathways? a. They turn larger molecules into smaller ones. b. They turn smaller molecules into larger ones. c. They require energy from tUhe cSell.N T O d. Both B and C are true. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 109 TOP: Cell Metabolism 40. Which of the following is true of anabolic pathways? a. They turn larger molecules into smaller ones. b. They turn smaller molecules into larger ones. c. They require energy from the cell. d. Both B and C are true. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 109 TOP: Cell Metabolism TRUE/FALSE 1. Dialysis is a form of filtration that results in a separation of small and large solute particles. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 101 TOP: Dialysis 2. For osmosis to occur, a selectively permeable membrane must be present.ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 101 TOP: Osmosis 3. The physical movement of water and solutes through a membrane when a hydrostatic pressure gradient exists is called filtration. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 105 TOP: Filtration 4. Active transport processes that use protein carrier molecules, or pumps, do not use cellular energy but rely instead on concentration gradients. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 105-106 TOP: Active Transport Processes 5. Most enzymes cannot catalyze a reaction in both directions. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 111 TOP: General Function of Enzymes 6. Glycolysis does not require oxygen and is therefore termed anaerobic. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 112 TOP: Glycolysis 7. The citric acid cycle and electron transport system are located in the Golgi apparatus. ANS: F DIF: MNemoRrizaItionG B.C M REF: p. 113 TOP: Citric Acid Cycle U S N T O 8. Protein synthesis is an anabolic pathway for cells. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 115 TOP: Anabolism 9. A semipermeable membrane is needed for diffusion to occur. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 99 TOP: Diffusion 10. A 10% solution of NaCl has a higher concentration of water than a 10% solution of glucose. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 99-100 TOP: Diffusion 11. A solution may be defined as various solutes dissolved in a solvent. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 101 TOP: Dialysis 12. Red blood cells placed in a hypertonic solution may be destroyed because the blood cells will lyse.ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 103 TOP: Osmosis 13. A hypertonic solution has a higher amount of osmotic potential than any other type of solution. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 102 TOP: Osmosis 14. For osmosis to occur there must be at least one impermeable solute present. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 102 TOP: Osmosis 15. One of the advantages of active transport is that it can move materials up, or against, its concentration gradient. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 105 TOP: Active Transport Processes 16. The active transport process involving pumps requires both a carrier system and cellular energy. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: pp. 105-106 TOP: Transport by Pumps 17. Endocytosis and pinocytosis are both active transport processes, because they require a carrier system such as a pump. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: pp. 107-108 TOP: Transport by Vesicles 18. The process of pinocytosis mNayUbReSvIieNwGedTaBs.thCeOceMll drinking. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 107 TOP: Transport by Vesicles 19. Facilitated diffusion is a metabolically inexpensive process. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 103 TOP: Facilitated Diffusion 20. The sodium-potassium pump is an example of a passive transport process. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 106 TOP: Transport by Pumps 21. Cellular secretion can be achieved by endocytosis. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 107 TOP: Transport by Vesicles 22. Diffusion is a form of filtration that results in the separation of small and large solute particles. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 101 TOP: Dialysis 23. The three processes that comprise cellular respiration are glycolysis, the citric acid cycle, and the proton transport system.ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 112 TOP: Overview of Cellular Respiration 24. The “lock-and-key model” is used to describe how mRNA and tRNA base pairs align. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 110 TOP: Chemical Structure of Enzymes 25. Protein anabolism is a rarely used cellular activity. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 115 TOP: Anabolism 26. Diffusion is a characteristic of living things and will not occur in a nonliving system. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 101 TOP: Osmosis 27. Because of the phospholipid cell membrane, water cannot diffuse into or out of the cell. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 99 TOP: Diffusion 28. The higher the osmotic pressure of a solution, the greater the tendency for water to move into it. ANS: T DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 102 TOP: Osmosis 29. The size of the molecule is anNiUmRpSorItaNntGfaTcBto.r iCnOboMth dialysis and filtration. ANS: T DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 105 TOP: Filtration 30. Facilitated diffusion and simple diffusion move substances in opposite directions. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 103 TOP: Facilitated Diffusion 31. Endocytosis can occur when molecules bind to membrane receptor proteins. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 107 TOP: Transport by Vesicles 32. A side effect of exocytosis is the addition of new membrane material to the cell membrane. ANS: T DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 108 TOP: Transport by Vesicles 33. An inorganic substance, such as an ion, is called a coenzyme when it is part of an enzyme. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 110 TOP: Chemical Structure of EnzymesANS: T U S N T O 34. For an enzyme to function, the coenzyme must fit into the enzyme’s active site like a key fits into a lock. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 110 TOP: Chemical Structure of Enzymes 35. The hydrolyzing enzyme sucrase joins two sucrose molecules together. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 110 TOP: Classification and Naming of Enzymes 36. Lactate is the result of glycolysis and is the substance that enters the citric acid cycle. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 112 TOP: Glycolysis, Citric Acid Cycle 37. Most of the chemical energy released by the citric acid cycle is in the form of ATP. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 113 TOP: Citric Acid Cycle 38. The electron transport system makes ATP by the movement of electrons through the inner mitochondrial membrane. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: pp. 113-114 TOP: Electron Transport System 39. Both the citric acid cycle and the electron transport system occur in the mitochondria. N R I G B.C M DIF: Memorization REF: p. 113 TOP: Citric Acid Cycle, Electron Transport System 40. Anaerobic respiration is about 17 times more efficient in producing ATP than is aerobic respiration. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 113 TOP: Electron Transport System 41. Molecules may move down their concentration gradient by passing through a membrane carrier. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 104 TOP: Carrier-Mediated Passive Transport 42. Gated membrane channels can be opened and closed only by chemical stimuli. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 104 TOP: Channel-Mediated Passive Transport 43. Special membrane channels called aquaporins assist the diffusion of water across the cell membrane. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 103TOP: Osmosis 44. An enzyme is a catalyst. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 109 TOP: Role of Enzymes 45. The “lock-and-key” model of enzyme function explains how the protein and substrate join. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 110 TOP: Chemical Structure of Enzymes 46. All enzyme names end with the suffix “-ase.” ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 110 TOP: Classification and Naming of Enzymes 47. Allosteric effectors activate or inactivate enzymes by changing the shape of the enzyme’s active site. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 111 TOP: General Function of Enzymes 48. Coenzymes join enzymes to form proenzymes. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 111 TOP: General Function of Enzymes 49. Proenzymes are unable to actNaUsRa ScaItaNlyGstTinBa.nCyOtyMpe of chemical reaction. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 111 TOP: General Function of Enzymes 50. One possible end product of glycolysis is lactate . ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 112 TOP: Glycolysis 51. Phagocytosis and exocytosis are opposite processes. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 107-108 TOP: Transport by Vesicles 52. An enzyme eliminates the activation energy needed for a reaction to occur. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 109 TOP: Role of Enzymes 53. Digestive enzymes belong to a group of enzymes called hydrases. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 110 TOP: Classification and Naming of EnzymesANS: F U S N T O 54. Both temperature and pH change can affect the allosteric site of an enzyme. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 111 TOP: General Function of Enzymes 55. Oxygen is used in the citric acid cycle in cell respiration. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 113 TOP: Electron Transport System 56. Glycolysis produces very little ATP but produces several molecules of NADH and FADH2. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 113 TOP: Citric Acid Cycle 57. The energy storage molecules NADH and FADH2 have their energy converted to ATP in the electron transport system. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 113 TOP: Electron Transport System 58. Because a living cell membrane can limit the diffusion of some substances by opening and closing channels, the membrane can be called selectively permeable. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 104 TOP: Channel-Mediated Passive Transport 59. When molecules pass directly through the cell membrane, the process is called filtration. N R I G B.C M DIF: Memorization REF: p. 100 TOP: Simple Diffusion 60. If a blood cell was placed in a solution and the cell began to swell and take in water, the solution would be called hypotonic to the cell. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 103 TOP: Osmosis 61. The sodium-potassium pump in the cell membrane moves potassium into the cell and sodium out of the cell. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 106 TOP: Transport by Pumps 62. To maintain homeostasis, the sodium-potassium pump moves equal amounts of sodium and potassium into and out of the cell. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 106 TOP: Transport by Pumps 63. Phagocytosis can be translated to “cell eating.” ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 107 TOP: Transport by Vesicles64. The vesicles used in exocytosis have broken off from the mitochondria and are pulled to the cell membrane by the cytoskeleton. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 108 TOP: Transport by Vesicles 65. Activation energy is the amount of energy gained by the cell as a result of a catabolic pathway. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 109 TOP: Role of Enzymes 66. The enzyme that catalyzes the formation of sucrose is probably specific to that reaction. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 111 TOP: General Function of Enzymes 67. The process of end-product inhibition in a metabolic pathway is an example of a positive-feedback loop. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 111 TOP: General Function of Enzymes 68. The process of glycolysis produces two molecules of pyruvate for every one molecule of glucose. ANS: T DIF: AN ppUlicRatSioInNGRTEBF:.C p.O11M2 TOP: Glycolysis 69. The process of glycolysis does not occur in a specific organelle. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 112 TOP: Glycolysis 70. The most important end product in cellular respiration is oxygen. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 114 TOP: Electron Transport System MATCHING Match the name of each enzyme with its function or description. a. Hydrases b. Hydrolases c. Phosphorylating enzymes d. Mutases or isomerases e. Carboxylases or decarboxylases f. Oxidases and hydrogenases 1. Add or remove phosphate groups 2. Add water to a molecule without splitting itU S N T O 3. Digestive enzymes 4. Involved in oxidation-reduction reactions 5. Add or remove carbon dioxide 6. Rearrange atoms within a molecule 1. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 110 TOP: Classification and Naming of Enzymes 2. ANS: TOP: A DIF: Memorization Classification and Naming of Enzymes REF: p. 110 3. ANS: TOP: B DIF: Memorization Classification and Naming of Enzymes REF: p. 110 4. ANS: TOP: F DIF: Memorization Classification and Naming of Enzymes REF: p. 110 5. ANS: TOP: E DIF: Memorization Classification and Naming of Enzymes REF: p. 110 6. ANS: TOP: D DIF: Memorization Classification and Naming of Enzymes REF: p. 110 Match each term with its description. a. Cytosol b. Citric acid cycle c. Pyruvate d. Acetyl coenzyme A e. NAD f. Mitochondria g. Lactate h. Electron transport systemN R I G B.C M i. Anaerobic j. Glycolysis 7. First step in cellular respiration 8. Part of the cell in which glycolysis takes place 9. Part of the cell in which citric acid cycles take place 10. Converted from pyruvic acid if no oxygen is present 11. Last step in cellular respiration 12. Process also called the Krebs cycle 13. Carries the end product of glycolysis to the citric acid cycle 14. Describes a process that can take place without oxygen 15. Compound that carries high energy electrons to the electron transport system 16. End product of glycolysis 7. ANS: TOP: J DIF: Memorization Overview of Cellular Respiration REF: p. 112 8. ANS: TOP: A Glycolysis DIF: Memorization REF: p. 112 9. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 113 TOP: Citric Acid Cycle 10. ANS: TOP: G Glycolysis DIF: Memorization REF: p. 112 11. ANS: H DIF: Memorization REF: p. 112U S N T O TOP: Overview of Cellular Respiration 12. ANS: TOP: B DIF: Memorization Citric Acid Cycle REF: p. 113 13. ANS: TOP: D DIF: Memorization Citric Acid Cycle REF: p. 113 14. ANS: TOP: I DIF: Memorization Glycolysis REF: p. 112 15. ANS: TOP: E DIF: Memorization Citric Acid Cycle REF: p. 113 16. ANS: TOP: C DIF: Memorization Glycolysis REF: p. 112 OTHER 1. Compare and contrast the processes of diffusion and osmosis. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: pp. 99-103 TOP: Passive Transport Processes 2. Name the three types of vesicle-mediated transport and explain how they are different. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: ppN. 10R7-10I8 GTOBP:.C TranMsport by Vesicles 3. Describe a hypertonic solution and a hypotonic solution. Explain what would happen to a cell if it were put into each of these solutions. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 103 TOP: Osmosis 4. Briefly explain the process of glycolysis. What energy molecules are produced, and how many of each are produced? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 112 TOP: Glycolysis 5. Briefly explain the citric acid cycle. Name the energy molecules produced, and explain how many of each are produced. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 113 TOP: Citric Acid Cycle6. Explain why the electron transport system is necessary to get all of the usable energy out of the processes of glycolysis and the citric acid cycle. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: pp. 113-114 TOP: Electron Transport System 7. Explain the classification system and naming system for enzymes. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 110 TOP: Classification and Naming of Enzymes 8. Explain how the allosteric site on an enzyme allows the enzyme to function. Explain the types of allosteric effectors. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: p. 111 TOP: General Function of Enzymes ESSAY 1. A nurse was instructed to disNsoUlvReSaIpiNllGinTaBs.mCalOl aMmount of liquid medication. As she dropped the capsule into the liquid, she was interrupted by a telephone call. On her return to the medication cart, she found the medication had completely dissolved and apparently scattered evenly throughout the liquid. This phenomenon did not surprise her; because she was aware from her knowledge of cell transport that had created this distribution. Explain this phenomenon. ANS: Diffusion (Explanations will vary.) DIF: Synthesis REF: pp. 99-101 TOP: Diffusion 2. Anne ran in the Boston marathon. During the race, she lost a large amount of hypotonic sweat. Would you expect her cells to shrink, swell, or remain the same? Explain your answer. ANS: Shrink (Explanations will vary.) DIF: Synthesis REF: pp. 102-103 TOP: OsmosisChapter 07: Cell Growth and Development Patton: Anatomy and Physiology, 10th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The pairing of bases of a strand of DNA is obligatory. If a strand of DNA were composed of the base sequence of ATCG, what would be the obligatory sequence of its opposing base pairs? a. TAGC b. CGAT c. GCTA d. ATCG ANS: A DIF: Application REF: p. 121 TOP: Deoxyribonucleic Acid (DNA) 2. Which of the following is not true of RNA? a. It is a single strand. b. It contains uracil rather than thymine. c. The obligatory base pairs are adenine and uracil, and guanine and cytosine. d. It contains deoxyribose sugar. ANS: D DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 123 TOP: Transcription 3. The correct order of the phases of mitosis is: a. anaphase, telophase, metaphase, prophase. b. prophase, metaphase, anaNpU haRseS, ItelNoGphTasBe.. c. prophase, anaphase, metaphase, telophase. d. anaphase, metaphase, prophase, telophase. COM ANS: B DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 128 TOP: Mitosis 4. When the chromosomes align themselves across the equator of the spindle fibers, it is characteristic of which phase of mitosis? a. Prophase b. Anaphase c. Metaphase d. Telophase ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 129 TOP: Mitosis 5. During which stage of mitosis do the centrioles move to the opposite poles of the cell? a. Prophase b. Metaphase c. Anaphase d. Telophase ANS: A DIF: Application REF: p. 129 TOP: Mitosis 6. Extensive weight training causes the muscle cells to:a. atrophy. b. hypertrophy. c. undergo hyperplasia. d. undergo anaplasia. ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 132 TOP: Changes in Cell Growth, Reproduction, and Survival (Box 7-2) 7. A DNA molecule is characterized by all of the following except: a. double helix shape. b. obligatory base pairing. c. ribose sugar. d. phosphate groups. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 121 TOP: Deoxyribonucleic Acid (DNA) 8. All of the following occur as a result of meiosis except: a. chromosome number remains at 46. b. primitive sex cells become mature gametes. c. the cells become haploid. d. meiosis occurs in two steps. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 130-131 TOP: Meiosis 9. A sequence of three bases forms a(n): a. codon. b. anticodon. c. amino acid. d. polypeptide bond. NURSINGTB.COM ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 121 TOP: Deoxyribonucleic Acid (DNA) 10. Transcription can be best described as the: a. degradation of tRNA. b. reading of mRNA codons by tRNA. c. replication of DNA. d. synthesis of mRNA. ANS: D DIF: Application REF: p. 123 TOP: Transcription 11. Which of the following statements is true? a. Amino acid chains form DNA. b. The site of transcription is within the nucleus, whereas the site of translation is in the cytoplasm. c. Uracil is present in DNA in place of thymine. d. None of the above is true. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 123-124 TOP: Deoxyribonucleic Acid (DNA)N R I G B.C M 12. An individual’s entire set of DNA can be referred to as a: a. chromosome. b. chromatid. c. genome. d. cytokinesis. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 126 TOP: DNA Replication 13. Twenty-three chromosomes per cell in humans is referred to as: a. haploid. b. diploid. c. myoid. d. dioid. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 131 TOP: Meiosis 14. Which of the following terms is synonymous with tumor? a. Anaplasia b. Hyperplasia c. Neoplasm d. Benign ANS: C DIF: Application REF: p. 132, Box 7-2 TOP: Changes in Cell Growth, Reproduction, and Survival (Box 7-2) 15. If a sequence of nitrogen bases in nucleic acid were A-U-C-G-A, which of the following would be true about the nucleicUacS id? N T O a. It contains deoxyribose sugar. b. It could be found only in the nucleus. c. It contains ribose sugar. d. Both A and B are true. ANS: C DIF: Application REF: pp. 122-123 TOP: Transcription 16. The G1 and G2 phases of cell growth are separated by: a. anaphase. b. the S phase. c. telophase. d. both A and C. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 128 TOP: DNA Replication 17. DNA replication occurs during: a. prophase. b. telophase. c. metaphase. d. none of the above. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 129 TOP: DNA ReplicationN R I G 18. If a species of animal had 16 pairs of chromosomes in its normal body cells, its gametes would contain chromosomes. a. 16 b. 8 c. 32 d. None of the above is correct. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 131 TOP: Meiosis 19. In protein synthesis, some segments of the RNA transcript represent noncoding parts of the DNA. These are called: a. exons. b. codons. c. introns. d. spliceosomes. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 123 TOP: Editing the Transcript 20. The membranous organelle in the cytoplasm that is able to replicate itself is the: a. Golgi apparatus. b. mitochondrion. c. lysosome. d. ribosome. ANS: B DIF: Memorization B.C M REF: p. 127 TOP: Production of Cytoplasm U S N T O 21. Which of the following is not a phase of mitosis? a. Prophase b. Metaphase c. Anaphase d. Interphase ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 129 TOP: Mitosis 22. The end product of the process of transcription is a: a. mRNA molecule. b. tRNA molecule. c. protein. d. new DNA molecule. ANS: A DIF: Application REF: p. 123 TOP: Transcription 23. The end product of the process of translation is a: a. mRNA molecule. b. tRNA molecule. c. protein. d. new DNA molecule.ANS: C DIF: Application REF: p. 125 TOP: Translation 24. If the original DNA code was ACG, the mRNA that would be formed would be: a. UCG. b. AGC. c. UGC. d. Not enough information is given to answer the question. ANS: C DIF: Application REF: p. 125 TOP: Translation 25. If the original DNA code was ACG, the tRNA that would transfer the correct amino acid would have which sequence of nucleotides? a. UCG b. ACG c. UGC d. Not enough information is given to answer the question. ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 125 TOP: Translation 26. Interphase does not include which of the following? a. M phase b. G1 phase c. G2 phase d. S phase ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 129 TOP: Mitosis 27. In the DNA molecule, obligaNtoUryRbSasIeNpGaiTrinBg.aClwOaMys pairs: a. A-G. b. C-T. c. A-T. d. both A and B. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 121 TOP: Deoxyribonucleic Acid (DNA) 28. In humans, one gene consists of about how many nucleotide pairs? a. 10,000 b. 1000 c. 100 d. 50 ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 121 TOP: Deoxyribonucleic Acid (DNA) 29. Which is capable of properly refolding an improperly refolded protein molecule? a. Proteasome b. Proteome c. Chaperone d. Polyribosome ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 125TOP: Post-Translation Processing 30. Which is capable of destroying improperly folded proteins that could possibly harm the cell? a. Proteasome b. Proteome c. Chaperone d. Polyribosome ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 125 TOP: Post-Translation Processing 31. Which is the complete set of proteins that can be produced by the cell? a. Proteasome b. Proteome c. Chaperone d. Polyribosome ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 126 TOP: Post-Translation Processing 32. The structure that holds two newly replicated DNA strands together is the: a. centromere. b. telomere. c. spindle. d. chromatid. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 128 TOP: DNA Replication NURSINGTB.COM 33. Intron segments are removed by a process involving small nuclear structures called: a. proteasomes. b. spliceosomes. c. telomeres. d. exons. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 123 TOP: Editing the Transcript TRUE/FALSE 1. The terms cytokinesis and mitosis mean the same thing. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 128 TOP: Cell Reproduction 2. A nucleotide of a DNA molecule consists of a ribose sugar, phosphoric acid, and a nitrogenous base. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 121 TOP: Deoxyribonucleic Acid (DNA)ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 130 3. The action of a gene is determined by the arrangement of the obligatory base pairs in the nucleotides composing a DNA molecule. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 128 TOP: Deoxyribonucleic Acid (DNA) 4. A major function of DNA is to instruct the ribosome, through tRNA, concerning which protein is to be synthesized. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 125 TOP: Translation 5. Protein synthesis begins with translation. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 122 TOP: Transcription 6. The enzyme DNA polymerase coordinates the mechanism of obligatory base pairing. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 128 TOP: DNA Replication 7. In normal mitosis, the two daughter cells are identical genetically to the parent cell. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 128 TOP: Cell Reproduction 8. Anaplasia is a state in whichNce llsRU faS il I todiffeGBNT re. ntiaCMO te into specialized cell types. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 132, Box 7-2 TOP: Changes in Cell Growth, Reproduction, and Survival (Box 7-2) 9. Genes determine polypeptide structure, which determines the structure of enzymes and structural proteins, which determine the cell’s functions and structure. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 121 TOP: Deoxyribonucleic Acid (DNA) 10. Chromosomes align across the equator of the spindle fibers during anaphase of mitosis. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 129, Table 7-5 TOP: Major Events in Mitosis 11. One significant similarity between RNA and DNA is that they both are shaped as a polypeptide chain. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 121 TOP: Deoxyribonucleic Acid (DNA) 12. Gamete is the result of a somatic cell undergoing mitosis.ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 123 U S N T O TOP: Meiosis 13. Normal meiosis results in daughter cells that are genetically identical to the parent cell. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 131 TOP: Meiosis 14. It is during meiosis phase I that the number of chromosomes is halved. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 131 TOP: Meiosis 15. Diabetes mellitus is a disorder of DNA replication. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 133 TOP: Mechanisms of Disease 16. Hypertrophy refers to an increase in cell size, whereas hyperplasia refers to an increase in cell number. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 132 TOP: Changes in Cell Growth, Reproduction, and Survival (Box 7-2) 17. In transcription, the DNA of the cell is edited and the introns are removed. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 123 TOP: Editing the Transcript 18. The anticodon on a tRNA moNlecRuleIhasGexaBct. lyCthe same nucleotide sequence as the DNA code that formed that part of the mRNA molecule. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 125 TOP: Translation 19. The anticodon on the tRNA molecule has exactly the same nucleotide sequence as the DNA code that formed that part of the mRNA molecule except that uracil would replace thymine. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 124-125 TOP: Transcription, Translation 20. The mitochondria are unique organelles because they are able to replicate themselves. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 127 TOP: Production of Cytoplasm 21. The number of cyclin-dependent kinase enzymes varies greatly during the life of a cell. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 131 TOP: Regulating the Cell Life Cycle 22. Introns carry the code for the making of a protein.TOP: Editing the Transcript 23. A type of ribonucleic acid that can stimulate translation is called RNAi. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 125, Connect It TOP: Translation 24. DNA synthesis occurs during prophase in mitosis. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 128 TOP: DNA Replication 25. The term neoplasm is another word for tumor. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 132 TOP: Changes in Cell Growth, Reproduction, and Survival (Box 7-2) 26. Atrophy and hypertrophy occur most often in fat cells as the body stores or uses fat. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 132 TOP: Changes in Cell Growth, Reproduction, and Survival (Box 7-2) 27. Protein synthesis is the central building process for cell growth and maintenance. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 121 TOP: Protein Synthesis 28. The “rungs” of the DNA laddNer aRre mIadGe upBo.fCeithMer deoxyribose sugar or phosphoric acid. U S N T O ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 121 TOP: Deoxyribonucleic Acid (DNA) 29. What differentiates one DNA nucleotide from another is whether it has a ribose or a deoxyribose sugar. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 121 TOP: Deoxyribonucleic Acid (DNA) 30. The distance between the two uprights in the DNA ladder is always equal to the total distance of one purine and one pyrimidine nitrogen base. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 121 TOP: Deoxyribonucleic Acid (DNA) 31. A DNA codon consists of three nucleotides. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 121 TOP: Deoxyribonucleic Acid (DNA) 32. A human gene is a segment of the DNA molecule. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 122TOP: Deoxyribonucleic Acid (DNA) 33. A human gene is made up of about 250 DNA nucleotides. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 122 TOP: Deoxyribonucleic Acid (DNA) 34. Examples of noncoding RNA are messenger RNA and ribosomal RNA. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 122 TOP: Ribonucleic Acid (RNA) 35. Splitting of the plasma membrane and cytoplasm into two is called cytokinesis. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 128 TOP: Cell Reproduction 36. If the original DNA was ATCGGA, the messenger RNA formed from this DNA would be TUGCCT. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 123 TOP: Transcription 37. Editing of the mRNA begins when a modified adenine base is added to one end of the RNA strand. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 123 TOP: Editing the Transcript 38. A polyribosome is making se Nv U erRalScoIpNieGsTofBth.eCsa OmMe protein molecule. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 125 TOP: Translation 39. If the original DNA code was CAA, the transfer RNA for that strand of DNA would be CAA. ANS: T DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 121 TOP: Translation 40. Anticodons make up part of the messenger RNA, because they are opposite of the DNA codon. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 125 TOP: Translation 41. Transfer RNA carries amino acids to the ribosome where they are added to the protein being built. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 125 TOP: Translation 42. The complete set of proteins that can be made by the cell is called its proteome. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 126 TOP: Translation43. If a protein is not folded properly, chaperone proteins can break it down and recycle the individual amino acids. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 125 TOP: Translation 44. The centromere holds two chromatids together. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 128 TOP: DNA Replication 45. Telomeres are strands of nucleotides at the end of the chromosome that are expendable and are not needed for formation of proteins. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 127 TOP: DNA Replication 46. During prophase, chromosomes become chromatin, the nuclear membrane disappears, and spindle fibers form. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 129 TOP: Mitosis 47. Telophase is the last stage of mitosis, and if cytokinesis is going to occur it begins at this stage. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 130 TOP: Mitosis N URSINGTB.COM 48. If the haploid number of chromosomes for a cell is 24, there would be 12 chromosomes in the gamete. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 131 TOP: Meiosis MATCHING Match each of the terms related to protein synthesis with its corresponding statement or definition. a. mRNA b. tRNA c. Transcription d. Translation e. RNAi 1. Process that occurs when the double strands of a DNA segment separate and RNA nucleotides pair with DNA nucleotides 2. Type of RNA that carries information in many groups of three nucleotides called codons, each of which codes for a specific amino acid 3. Type of RNA that has an anticodon and binds to a specific amino acid 4. Process that involves the movement of the mRNA with respect to the ribosome 5. Can inhibit the process of protein synthesis1. ANS: TOP: C Transcription, DIF: Memorization Translation REF: p. 123 2. ANS: TOP: A Transcription | DIF: Memorization Translation REF: p. 126 3. ANS: TOP: B Transcription, DIF: Memorization Translation REF: p. 125 4. ANS: TOP: D Transcription | DIF: Memorization Translation REF: p. 125 5. ANS: TOP: E Transcription | DIF: Memorization Translation REF: p. 125, Connect It Match each phase of mitosis with its corresponding description. a. Anaphase b. Metaphase c. Prophase d. Telophase 6. Phase in which chromosomes become visible 7. Chromosomes align along the equator of spindle fibers 8. Chromosomes move toward opposite poles of the cell 9. Chromosomes elongate into chromatin form and spindle fibers disappear 6. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 129 TOP: Major Events in Mitosis 7. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 129 TOP: Major Events in Mitosis 8. ANS: A DIF: MNemUoRriSzaItioNnGTB.COM TOP: Major Events in Mitosis REF: p. 129 9. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 130 TOP: Major Events in Mitosis Match each of the following terms with its definition or description. a. Adenine b. mRNA c. Intron d. RNAi e. Uracil f. Chaperone protein g. Transcription h. tRNA i. Thymine j. Exons k. Proteasomes l. Telomere m. Centromere n. Haploid o. Diploid p. Translation 10. This nitrogen base is found only in RNA.11. This nitrogen base is found in both RNA and DNA. 12. This nitrogen base is found only in DNA. 13. This is the term used to describe the number of chromosomes in a gamete. 14. This is the term used to describe the normal number of chromosomes in most body cells. 15. These parts of the messenger RNA are removed and not sent to the ribosome. 16. These parts of the edited messenger RNA are sent to the ribosome. 17. This part of the chromosome is not replicated during DNA replication. 18. This structure holds two newly formed chromosomes together. 19. This can properly refold an improperly folded protein. 20. This can destroy an improperly folded protein before it can harm the cell. 21. This type of RNA carries information from the nucleus to the ribosome. 22. This type of RNA carries amino acids to the ribosome. 23. This type of RNA can prevent protein synthesis. 24. This process copies the DNA code to RNA. 25. This process results in a newly built protein. 10. ANS: E DIF: Memorization REF: p. 123 TOP: Deoxyribonucleic Acid (DNA) 11. ANS: TOP: A DIF: Memorization Deoxyribonucleic Acid (DNA) REF: p. 121 12. ANS: TOP: I DIF: Memorization Deoxyribonucleic Acid (DNA) REF: p. 121 13. ANS: TOP: N Meiosis DIF: Memorization REF: p. 131 14. ANS: O DIF: Memorization REF: p. 130 TOP: Meiosis NURSINGTB.COM 15. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 124 TOP: Editing the Transcript 16. ANS: J DIF: Memorization REF: p. 123 TOP: Editing the Transcript 17. ANS: TOP: L DIF: DNA Replication Memorization REF: p. 127 18. ANS: TOP: M DIF: DNA Replication Memorization REF: p. 128 19. ANS: TOP: F Translation DIF: Memorization REF: p. 125 20. ANS: TOP: K Translation DIF: Memorization REF: p. 125 21. ANS: TOP: B Transcription DIF: Memorization REF: p. 123 22. ANS: TOP: H Translation DIF: Memorization REF: p. 123 23. ANS: TOP: D Translation DIF: Memorization REF: p. 125, Connect It 24. ANS: TOP: G Transcription DIF: Memorization REF: p. 123 25. ANS: TOP: P Translation DIF: Memorization REF: p. 125REF: pp. 127-128 OTHER 1. Describe the structure of a DNA molecule. What is the importance of the “triplet”? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: p. 121 TOP: Deoxyribonucleic Acid (DNA) 2. Describe the process of transcription. What are introns and exons? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: pp. 122-123 TOP: Transcription 3. Describe the process of translation. What is RNAi? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: pp. 124-125 TOP: Translation 4. Describe the process of DNA replication. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization N URSINGTB.COM TOP: DNA Replication 5. Explain the process of mitosis. Explain what occurs in each step. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 128-129 TOP: Cell Replication 6. Explain the difference in the cells formed by mitosis and meiosis. Why is this difference important? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: pp. 130-131 TOP: MeiosisChapter 08: Introduction to Tissues Patton: Anatomy and Physiology, 10th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The biology of tissues is called: a. anatomy. b. physiology. c. histology. d. cytology. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 138 TOP: Introduction to Tissues 2. Which of the following is not a characteristic of epithelial tissue? a. Forms glands that secrete substances into and out of the body b. Is important in communication and control c. Covers and protects body surfaces d. Lines the interior of body cavities ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 138 TOP: Principal Types of Tissues 3. Which of the following is not a characteristic of muscle tissue? a. Cells are specialized to contract b. Produces movement for the body c. Generates heat for the boNdyURSINGTB.COM d. Cells are separated by a large quantity of extracellular matrix ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 138 TOP: Principal Types of Tissues 4. Which of the following is not a primary germ layer in the embryo? a. Hypoderm b. Ectoderm c. Mesoderm d. Endoderm ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 138 TOP: Development of Tissues 5. A tissue is: a. a membrane that lines body cavities. b. a group of similar cells that perform a common function. c. a thin sheet of cells embedded in a matrix. d. the most complex organizational unit of the body. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 137 TOP: Introduction to Tissues 6. Which of the following can be found in the extracellular matrix?N R I G B.C M a. Water b. Proteoglycans c. Fibers d. All of the above ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 140 TOP: Extracellular Matrix 7. The peritoneum is an example of a membrane. a. cutaneous b. serous c. mucous d. cuboidal ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 145 TOP: Epithelial Membranes 8. Connective tissue membranes differ from cutaneous and serous membranes in that they: a. contain fewer layers of cells. b. do not contain epithelial components. c. are not smooth and slick. d. do not secrete fluids. ANS: B DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 147 TOP: Connective Tissue Membranes 9. Which of the following is not a characteristic of connective tissue? a. Typically holds its cells together tightly by means of desmosomes b. Protects the body from foreUignSinvNaderTs O c. Supports the body d. Transports substances throughout the body ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 138 TOP: Principal Types of Tissues 10. The most complex tissue in the body is: a. connective. b. epithelial. c. nervous. d. muscle. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 138 TOP: Principal Types of Tissues 11. Which of the following would be an inflammation of the serous membrane? a. Pleurisy b. Peritonitis c. Pericarditis d. All of these are serous membrane inflammations ANS: D DIF: Application REF: p. 146, Box 8-3 TOP: Inflammation of Serous Membranes (Box 8-3)12. The serous membrane covering the stomach is called the: a. visceral pleura. b. visceral peritoneum. c. parietal pleura. d. parietal peritoneum. ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 146 TOP: Serous Membranes 13. The membrane lining the wall of the thoracic cavity is the: a. visceral pleura. b. parietal pleura. c. visceral peritoneum. d. parietal peritoneum. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 146 TOP: Serous Membranes 14. The membrane lining the wall of the abdominal cavity is the: a. visceral pleura. b. parietal pleura. c. visceral peritoneum. d. parietal peritoneum. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 146 TOP: Serous Membranes 15. Which type of tissue has the greatest capacity to regenerate? a. Muscle b. Nervous c. Epithelial NURSINGTB.COM d. All of the above tissue have about equal ability to regenerate. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 144 TOP: Tissue Repair 16. Which tissue is most likely to form a keloid scar as it heals? a. Muscle b. Nervous c. Epithelial d. Connective ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 144 TOP: Tissue Repair TRUE/FALSE 1. Matrix may be defined as the living intracellular material surrounding the cells of a tissue. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 138 TOP: Introduction to Tissues2. The study of how the primary germ layers differentiate into the different kinds of tissues is called histogenesis. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 138 TOP: Development of Tissues 3. Mucous membranes are important because they lubricate and protect passageways. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 146 TOP: Mucous Membranes 4. The primary germ layers that are formed in the embryo are epithelial, connective, muscular, and nervous. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 138 TOP: Development of Tissues 5. All the cells that make up tissues are held together by intracellular structures called desmosomes. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 143 TOP: Holding Tissues Together 6. In some tissues the cells are held together by desmosomes, and in other tissues they are held together by nonliving matrix. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 143 TOP: Holding Tissues Togethe NrURSINGTB.COM 7. Cells in the embryo begin the process of cell differentiation. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 138 TOP: Development of Tissues 8. Collagen is a rubbery substance that is held in a fibrous shape by long, thin microfilaments. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 142 TOP: Elastin 9. When epithelial tissue is badly injured, a thick scar, or keloid, may develop. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 144 TOP: Tissue Repair 10. Many of the sugars attached to the protein backbone of a proteoglycan molecule are fibronectin. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 142 TOP: Glycoproteins and Proteoglycans 11. Connective tissue tends to have large quantities of extracellular matrix.ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 138 TOP: Principal Types of Tissues 12. The serous membrane covering the lungs is the visceral pleura. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 146 TOP: Serous Membranes 13. A malignant tumor that arises from epithelial tissue is generally called a sarcoma. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 149 TOP: Neoplasms (Mechanisms of Disease) 14. A type of abnormal gene that seems to cause cancer is called an oncogene. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 149 TOP: Neoplasms (Mechanisms of Disease) 15. A group of cells that performs a common function is called tissue. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 137 TOP: Introduction 16. Collagen is the most abundant protein compound in the body. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 140 TOP: Collagen 17. An example of a cutaneous mNeUmRbrSanIeNisGtTheBs.kiCn.OM ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 145 TOP: Cutaneous Membranes 18. Connective tissue membranes are made up of two kinds of tissue. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 144 TOP: Connective Tissue Membranes 19. Fibers in the extracellular matrix can include collagen and elastin. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 140 TOP: Components of the ECM 20. Both fibronectin and laminin are examples of glycoproteins. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 142 TOP: Glycoproteins and Proteoglycans 21. Epithelial and muscle tissue have the greatest ability to regenerate. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 144 TOP: Tissue Repair22. Serous membranes have an underlying connective tissue layer called the lamina propria. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 146 TOP: Mucous Membranes OTHER 1. Give a brief description of tissue repair, including the varying capacities with which the different types of tissues can accomplish this task. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 144 TOP: Tissue Repair 2. Name and differentiate the two types of stem cells. What are some possible uses for stem cells? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: p. 139, Box 8-2 TOP: Stem Cells (Box 8-2) 3. Briefly describe cutaneous membranes and mucous membranes, and give the location of each in the body. ANS: Answers will vary. NURSINGTB.COM DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 145-146 TOP: Cutaneous Membranes and Mucous Membranes 4. Briefly describe serous membranes, and give their location in the body. Differentiate between visceral and parietal membranes, and give an example of each. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: pp. 145-146 TOP: Serous Membranes 5. Briefly describe connective tissue membranes, and give their location in the body. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 147 TOP: Connective Tissue Membranes 6. Name and briefly describe the four principal types of tissue in the body. ANS:Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 138 TOP: Principal Types of Tissues ESSAY 1. Diana is 5 feet, 4 inches tall and weighs 125 pounds. She appears very healthy and fit, yet her doctor advised her that she is over-fat. What might be the explanation for this assessment? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 138, Box 8-1 TOP: Sports and Fitness (Box 8-1) 2. During a heart attack, heart muscle is damaged. Explain why, even when a person is fully “recovered,” the heart is not as good as new. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 144 TOP: Tissue Repair NURSINGTB.COMChapter 09: Tissue Types Patton: Anatomy and Physiology, 10th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The most widespread and abundant tissue in the body is: a. epithelial. b. connective. c. muscle. d. nervous. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 161 TOP: Connective Tissue 2. Blood is a member of which basic tissue type? a. Epithelial b. Connective c. Muscle d. Nervous ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 161 TOP: Connective Tissue 3. How can epithelial tissue be described? a. Forms glands b. Contains mostly extracellular matrix c. Forms membranes d. Both A and C NURSINGTB.COM ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 155 TOP: Generalizations about Epithelial Tissue 4. Which of the following epithelial functions is a primary activity of glandular epithelium? a. Protection b. Secretion c. Sensation d. Excretion ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 155 TOP: Functions of Epithelial Tissue 5. What structure is formed by the union of the basal and reticular lamina? a. Nucleus b. Basement membrane c. Lysosome d. Endoplasmic reticulum ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 155 TOP: Generalizations about Epithelial Tissue 6. Which is not a function of epithelial tissue?Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank a. Absorption b. Secretion c. Assimilation d. Protection ANS: C DIF: Application REF: p. 155 TOP: Functions of Epithelial Tissue 7. Which of the following is not a function of adipose tissue? a. Insulates to conserve body heat b. Defends the body from microbes and injurious substances c. Supports and protects the kidneys d. Stores excess food ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 164 TOP: Adipose Tissue 8. Which is not a function of connective tissue? a. Transport b. Support c. Defense d. Communication ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 161 TOP: Functions of Connective Tissue 9. Collagenous fibers can be found extensively in tissue. a. epithelial b. connective c. muscle d. nervous NURSINGTB.COM ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 163 TOP: Characteristics of Connective Tissue 10. The type of tissue referred to as loose ordinary connective tissue is: a. areolar. b. adipose. c. reticular. d. cartilage. ANS: A DIF: Application REF: p. 163 TOP: Loose Fibrous Connective Tissue (Areolar) 11. The basic organizational or structural unit of compact bone is called the: a. canaliculi. b. lamellae. c. lacunae. d. haversian system. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 167 TOP: Compact Bone Tissue 12. Cartilage is a form of tissue.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank a. epithelial b. connective c. muscle d. osseous ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 163 TOP: Classification of Connective Tissue 13. The mature cells of bone are called: a. fibroblasts. b. osteoclasts. c. osteocytes. d. osteoblasts. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 167 TOP: Bone Tissue 14. The most prevalent type of cartilage is: a. hyaline. b. fibrous. c. elastic. d. synovial. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 168 TOP: Cartilage 15. Which of the following is not considered a formed element in the blood? a. Erythrocyte b. Thrombocyte c. Astrocyte d. Leukocyte NURSINGTB.COM ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 169 TOP: Blood Tissue 16. The type of tissue that contains cells called neurons is called: a. muscle. b. epithelial. c. connective. d. nervous. ANS: D DIF: Application REF: p. 171 TOP: Nervous Tissue 17. Which of the following is another name for skeletal muscle? a. Striated voluntary b. Nonstriated involuntary c. Striated involuntary d. Pseudostriated involuntary ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 169 TOP: Muscle Tissue 18. Basement membrane is composed of molecules made by tissue.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank a. muscle b. connective c. epithelial d. Both B and C are correct. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 155 TOP: Generalizations about Epithelial Tissue 19. Areolar tissue usually contains which types of cells in the greatest number? a. Macrophages b. Fibroblasts c. Mast cells d. Phagocytes ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 163 TOP: Loose Fibrous Connective Tissue (Areolar) 20. Cells found only in cartilage include: a. chondrocytes and fibroblasts. b. chondrocytes and macrophages. c. chondrocytes and mast cells. d. only chondrocytes. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 168 TOP: Cartilage 21. Which of the following is not a characteristic of skeletal muscles? a. Having one nucleus per c Nell R I G B.C M b. Being attached to bone c. Having striations U S N T O d. Having voluntary or “willed” muscles ANS: A DIF: Application REF: p. 169 TOP: Muscle Tissue 22. Which of the following is not a characteristic of smooth muscles? a. Having one nucleus per cell b. Having intercalated disks c. Composing the walls of the viscera d. Usually not being under voluntary control ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 170 TOP: Muscle Tissue 23. Which of the following is not a proteoglycan found in the matrix of connective tissue? a. Glucosamine b. Collagen c. Hyaluronic acid d. All of the above are proteoglycans. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 163 TOP: Characteristics of Connective Tissue 24. Cancellous tissue is an example of which type of connective tissue? a. CartilageAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank b. Bone c. Dense connective d. Loose connective ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 168 TOP: Cancellous (Spongy) Bone Tissue 25. An axon is an important part of which kind of tissue? a. Nervous b. Smooth muscle c. Cardiac muscle d. Glandular epithelium ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Nervous Tissue REF: p. 171 26. Connective tissue forms from stem cell tissue called: a. mesenchyme. b. blastocyst. c. endoderm. d. ectoderm. ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Connective Tissue REF: p. 161 27. Which of the following is not a class of cartilage tissue? a. Hyaline b. Fibrocartilage c. Cancellous d. Elastic NURSINGTB.COM ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 168-169 TOP: Classification of Connective Tissue 28. Which type of connective tissue helps newborns maintain body temperature by producing heat? a. Dense fibrous tissue b. Beige fat c. Brown fat d. White fat ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 164-165 TOP: Adipose Tissue 29. Small spaces in the bone where osteocytes are located are called: a. lacunae. b. lamellae. c. canaliculi. d. marrow. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 167 TOP: Compact Bone TissueAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank 30. Hematopoietic tissue can be found in the: a. heart. b. lungs. c. bones. d. intestines. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 169 TOP: Blood Tissue 31. Which cells form the blood-brain barrier that protects the brain from harmful substances in the blood? a. Oligodendrocytes b. Neurons c. Astrocytes d. Microglia ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 171 TOP: Nervous Tissue 32. Which cells electrically insulate axons to increase the speed of conduction? a. Oligodendrocytes b. Schwann cells c. Astrocytes d. Both A and B ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 171 TOP: Nervous Tissue 33. Which cells help destroy pathNoUgeRnSs IanNdGdaTmBa.geCdOtiMssue in the brain? a. Oligodendrocytes b. Schwann cells c. Astrocytes d. Microglia ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 171 TOP: Nervous Tissue 34. Dense irregular fibrous tissue is not found in which of the following structures? a. Walls of arteries b. Capsule surrounding the spleen c. Fascia surrounding muscles d. All of the above contain dense irregular fibrous tissue. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 166 TOP: Dense Irregular Fibrous Tissue 35. Dense regular fibrous tissue is not found in which of the following structures? a. Tendons b. Dermis of the skin c. Ligaments d. All of the above contain dense regular fibrous tissue. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 166Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank N R I G B. C M TOP: Dense Regular Fibrous Tissue 36. The cell that has the opposite function of the osteoblast is the: a. chondrocyte. b. osteocyte. c. osteoclast. d. fibroblast. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 167 TOP: Compact Bone Tissue 37. Which of the following is not a characteristic of cardiac muscle? a. Cells separated by intercalated disks b. Also called nonstriated involuntary muscles c. Found in the heart d. All of the above are characteristics of cardiac muscle. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 171 TOP: Muscle Tissue 38. Epithelial cells can be classified according to shape. Which is not a characteristic shape of epithelial cells? a. Rectangular b. Cubed c. Columns d. Flat ANS: A DIF: Application REF: p. 155 TOP: Classification Based on CeUll SShapeN T O 39. Being able to readily diffuse material through itself, such as occurs in alveoli, is a characteristic of which type of epithelial tissue? a. Stratified columnar b. Simple columnar c. Stratified squamous d. Simple squamous ANS: D DIF: Application REF: p. 157 TOP: Simple Epithelium 40. Goblet cells, cilia, and microvilli are modifications of which type of epithelial tissue? a. Simple squamous b. Simple cuboidal c. Simple columnar d. Pseudostratified squamous ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 157 TOP: Simple Epithelium 41. Keratinized stratified squamous epithelium is found in the: a. mouth. b. esophagus. c. epidermis.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank d. vagina. ANS: C DIF: Application REF: p. 158 TOP: Stratified Epithelium 42. Glands that have no ducts but release their products directly into tissue fluid and blood are called: a. endocrine. b. exocrine. c. holocrine. d. apocrine. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 159 TOP: Glandular Epithelium 43. Oil-producing glands that self-destruct in order to function are referred to as: a. merocrine. b. apocrine. c. endocrine. d. holocrine. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 161 TOP: Functional Classification of Exocrine Glands 44. How many layers make up pseudostratified epithelium? a. One b. Two c. Three d. Numerous N URSINGTB.COM ANS: A DIF: Application REF: p. 156 TOP: Simple Epithelium 45. Which of the following would be identified as skin covering? a. Pseudostratified columnar epithelium b. Stratified squamous (keratinized) epithelium c. Pseudostratified squamous (keratinized) epithelium d. Stratified squamous non-keratinized epithelium ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 158 TOP: Stratified Epithelium 46. Which of the following exocrine glands constitutes the mammary glands? a. Merocrine b. Apocrine c. Holocrine d. All of the above ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 161 TOP: Functional Classification of Exocrine Glands 47. Which of the following is the functional classification of salivary glands? a. Merocrine b. Endocrine c. Apocrine d. HolocrineAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank U S N T O ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 161 TOP: Functional Classification of Exocrine Glands 48. Which is not characteristic of reticular tissue? a. It is a major component of the body’s defense process. b. It is found in bone marrow. c. It makes reticular fibers. d. All of the above are characteristics of reticular tissue. ANS: D DIF: Application REF: p. 165 TOP: Reticular Tissue 49. Reticular tissue does not form the framework for which of the following? a. Kidney b. Spleen c. Lymph nodes d. All of the above are composed of reticular tissue. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 165 TOP: Reticular Tissue 50. Which of the following is not true of simple squamous epithelium? a. It is one layer thick. b. It prevents the diffusion of material from one part of the body to another. c. It is composed of flat, scalelike cells. d. All of the above are true of simple squamous epithelium. ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 157 TOP: Simple Epithelium 51.5 N R I G B.C M Which of the following is not true of simple cuboidal epithelium? 1 a. It is one layer thick. . b. It is composed of cuboidal cells. c. It is found in ducts or tubules of the kidney. d. All of the above are true of simple cuboidal epithelium. ANS: D DIF: Application REF: p. 157 TOP: Simple Epithelium 52. Microvilli are found on which types of cells lining of the intestine? a. Pseudostratified epithelium b. Simple columnar epithelium c. Stratified cuboidal epithelium d. Simple cuboidal epithelium ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 157 TOP: Simple Epithelium 53. Cilia are found on which type of cell in the lining of the respiratory tract? a. Pseudostratified epithelium b. Simple columnar epithelium c. Stratified cuboidal epithelium d. Simple cuboidal epithelium ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 157Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank N R I G TOP: Simple Epithelium 54. Glandular epithelium is usually composed of _ epithelium. a. stratified cuboidal b. stratified columnar c. pseudostratified columnar d. None of the above is correct. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 159 TOP: Glandular Epithelium 55. The functioning of which of the following glandular tissues does not injure the cell or cause a loss of cytoplasm? a. Apocrine b. Endocrine c. Merocrine d. Holocrine ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 161 TOP: Functional Classification of Exocrine 56. Microvilli assist epithelial tissue in: a. protecting the underlying tissue. b. releasing substances from glands. c. absorbing nutrients. d. all of the above functions. ANS: C DIF: Memorization B.C M REF: p. 158 TOP: Simple Epithelium U S N T O 57. Another term for a ductless gland is an gland. a. exocrine b. endocrine c. alveolar d. Both A and C are correct. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 159 TOP: Glandular Epithelium 58. The type of cell found in connective tissue that releases histamine is a(n): a. fibroblast. b. macrophage. c. mast cell. d. areolar cell. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 163 TOP: Loose Fibrous Connective Tissue (Areolar) TRUE/FALSE 1. Epithelial tissue attaches to connective tissue by means of a basement membrane.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 155 TOP: Generalizations about Epithelial Tissue 2. Epithelial tissue is moderately vascular, which results in very little blood loss when cuts occur. ANS: F DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 155 TOP: Generalizations about Epithelial Tissue 3. Epithelial tissue is characterized by large amounts of intercellular matrix and few cells. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 155 TOP: Generalizations about Epithelial Tissue 4. Adipose tissue contains predominantly fat cells. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 164 TOP: Adipose Tissue 5. Areolar tissue forms protective pads around the kidneys and other organs. ANS: F DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 164 TOP: Adipose Tissue 6. Loose connective tissue is also called areolar tissue. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 163 TOP: Loose Fibrous Connective Tissue (Areolar) 7. Bone-destroying cells are calNleUdRosSteIoN blGasTtsB. .COM ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 167 TOP: Bone Tissue 8. Elastic cartilage is the most prevalent type of cartilage. ANS: F DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 169 TOP: Cartilage 9. Adipose tissue is a type of connective tissue. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 163 TOP: Classification of Connective Tissue 10. The osteon is the basic structural unit of compact bone. ANS: T DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 167 TOP: Bone Tissue 11. Osteoblasts are specialized cells that build bone tissue. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 167 TOP: Bone Tissue 12. About 40% of the bone matrix is made of inorganic material.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 167 TOP: Bone Tissue 13. Striated muscle tissue can be controlled both voluntarily and involuntarily. ANS: T DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 169 TOP: Muscle Tissue 14. Skeletal muscle tissue is striated and voluntary. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 169 TOP: Muscle Tissue 15. Skeletal muscle cells are referred to as muscle fibers and are characterized by a high degree of contractility. ANS: T DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 169 TOP: Muscle Tissue 16. Basic characteristics of the nervous system are excitation and conduction. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 177 TOP: Nervous Tissue 17. Epithelial tissue performs different functions based on the different types of matrix that make up the tissue. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 155 TOP: Generalizations about Epithelial Tissue 18. Epithelial tissue produces the NRUglyc IGBSNToproteinpa .rt COoft M he basement membrane. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 155 TOP: Generalizations about Epithelial Tissue 19. Connective tissue makes up the glycoprotein part of the basement membrane. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 155 TOP: Generalizations about Epithelial Tissue 20. Membranous epithelium is often called surface epithelium. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 155 TOP: Types and Locations of Epithelial Tissue 21. Because connective tissue is avascular, food and oxygen must pass through the basement membrane to reach the blood vessels in the epithelial tissue. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 155 TOP: Generalizations about Epithelial Tissue 22. Both collagenous fibers and reticular fibers are made of collagen. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 163Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank TOP: Characteristics of Connective Tissue 23. Adipocytes release leptin, which signals the brain and other tissues regarding how much fat is stored and ready to use for energy. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 164 TOP: Adipose Tissue 24. Proteoglycans are composed of glucosamine bound to a polysaccharide core. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 163 TOP: Characteristics of Connective Tissue 25. Connective tissue can be classified based on the type of matrix it contains. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 163 TOP: Classification of Connective Tissue 26. Hyaluronidase assists in the absorption of injected drugs. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 163 TOP: Loose Fibrous Connective Tissue (Areolar) 27. Canaliculi allow osteocytes to stay alive within the bone tissue. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 167 TOP: Bone Tissue 28. Osteocytes were once osteocNlastsRthaIt beGcamBe.trCappMed in the hardening bone tissue. U S N T O ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 167 TOP: Bone Tissue 29. Osteoclasts are bone-destroying cells. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 167 TOP: Bone Tissue 30. The lack of blood vessels in cartilage tissue hinders its ability to heal. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 168 TOP: Cartilage 31. The matrix for blood tissue is plasma. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 169 TOP: Blood 32. Because of the stripes visible under the microscope, smooth muscle is called striated muscle. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 169 TOP: Muscle Tissue 33. The most numerous type of cell found in areolar tissue is the macrophage.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 163 TOP: Loose Fibrous Connective Tissue (Areolar) 34. Both neurons and neuroglia are found in nervous tissue. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 171 TOP: Nervous Tissue 35. The concentric layers of bone matrix are called lacunae. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 167 TOP: Compact Bone Tissue 36. In the process of endochondral ossification, the bone that is formed replaces cartilage. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 167 TOP: Bone Tissue 37. Astrocytes help protect the brain from harmful substances. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 171 TOP: Nervous Tissue 38. Oligodendrocytes help destroy damaged tissue and pathogens in the brain. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 171 TOP: Nervous Tissue N URSINGTB.COM 39. Important functions of connective tissue include protection, secretion, and absorption. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 155 TOP: Functions of Epithelial Tissue 40. Epithelial tissue is generally able to renew itself throughout life. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 155 TOP: Generalizations about Epithelial Tissue 41. The most abundant fat in the body is brown fat, which is able to generate heat and help maintain body temperature. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 164 TOP: Adipose Tissue 42. Connective tissue is the most widespread and diverse tissue in the body. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 161 TOP: Connective Tissue 43. Blood, bone, and cartilage are the only types of connective tissue that do not contain fibers in their structure.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 163 TOP: Classification of Connective Tissue 44. Fibroblasts in loose fibrous connective tissue are able to release substances such as histamine and heparin. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 163 TOP: Loose Fibrous Connective Tissue (Areolar) 45. Another term for cancellous bone is spongy bone. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 168 TOP: Cancellous (Spongy) Bone Tissue 46. The external ear and larynx are made of fibrocartilage tissue. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 169 TOP: Elastic Cartilage Tissue 47. Hematopoietic tissue is responsible for making blood cells. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 169 TOP: Blood Tissue 48. Smooth muscle fibers tend to be longer, but weaker, than striated muscle fibers. ANS: F DIF: MNemoRrizaItionG B.C M REF: p. 170 TOP: Muscle Tissue U S N T O 49. In a neuron, axons carry impulses toward the cell body and dendrites carry impulses away from the cell body. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 171 TOP: Nervous Tissue 50. Transitional epithelium is unique in that it is composed of differing cell shapes in a stratified, or layered, epithelial sheet. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 159 TOP: Classification Based on Layers of Cells 51. Stratified columnar epithelium is the most common type of epithelium and is found in many areas throughout the body. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 158 TOP: Classification Based on Layers of Cells 52. Stratified transitional epithelium, such as is found in the urinary bladder, allows for distention. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 159 TOP: Classification Based on Layers of CellsAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank 53. Compound exocrine glands have one duct and secrete two or more products. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 159 TOP: Structural Classification of Exocrine Glands 54. Mammary glands are endocrine glands that produce milk. ANS: F DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 161 TOP: Functional Classification of Exocrine Glands 55. Salivary glands are an example of ductless exocrine glands. ANS: F DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 161 TOP: Functional Classification of Exocrine Glands 56. Oil-producing glands that self-destruct in order to function are referred to as holocrine glands. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 161 TOP: Functional Classification of Exocrine Glands 57. Epithelial tissue can be classified by the number of layers the tissue has. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 157 TOP: Classification Based on Layers of Cells 58. The upper layer of stratified cuboidal epithelium can be keratinized for protection of the tissue below it. NURSINGTB.COM ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 158 TOP: Stratified Epithelium 59. When transitional epithelium stretches, the cell shape changes from cuboidal to squamous in appearance. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 159 TOP: Stratified Epithelium 60. Hormones are released into ducts by exocrine glands. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 159 TOP: Glandular Epithelium 61. Hormones are released into the blood by endocrine glands. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 159 TOP: Glandular Epithelium 62. Endocrine glands can be classified by the shape and complexity of their ducts. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 159 TOP: Structural Classification of Exocrine Glands 63. Apocrine gland cells die as a result of their functioning.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 161 TOP: Functional Classification of Exocrine Glands 64. Tendons have more elastic fibers than do ligaments. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 166 TOP: Dense Fibrous Tissue 65. Epithelial tissue can be subdivided into two types: squamous and columnar. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 155 TOP: Types and Location of Epithelial Tissue 66. The type of tissue that lines the vagina, mouth, and esophagus is called keratinized squamous epithelium. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 158 TOP: Stratified Epithelium 67. Because stratified squamous epithelium is found in the urinary system, it is sometimes called urothelium. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 158-159 TOP: Transitional Epithelium 68. The term squamous comes from the Latin word meaning scaly, which describes the flat, platelike cells. N URSINGTB.COM ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 155 TOP: Classification Based on Cell Shape 69. Pseudostratified columnar epithelial tissue is only two layers thick. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 156 TOP: Classification Based on Cell Shape 70. Stratified epithelial tissue is named for the shape of the cell on only the top layer. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 157 TOP: Classification Based on Layers of Cells 71. Because of their function, some histologists classify endothelium and mesothelium as connective tissue. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 157 TOP: Simple Squamous Epithelium 72. Only merocrine glands release their secretions with no harm to the cell or plasma membrane. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 161 TOP: Functional Classification of Exocrine GlandsAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank 73. Bone marrow is a type of reticular tissue. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 165 TOP: Reticular Tissue 74. Epithelial tissue can be classified by the shape of the cells. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 155 TOP: Classification Based on Cell Shape 75. Simple cuboidal epithelium is one cell layer thick; stratified cuboidal epithelium is more than one layer thick. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 157 TOP: Classification Based Layers of Cells MATCHING Match each category of epithelial cell with its corresponding definition. a. Simple squamous b. Simple cuboidal c. Simple columnar d. Pseudostratified columnar e. Stratified squamous f. Transitional 1. Single layer of cube-shaped cNeUllsRSINGTB.COM 2. Multiple layers of cells with flat cells at the outer surface 3. Single layer of cells; some are tall and thin and reach the free surface, and others do not 4. Layers of cells that appear cubelike when the organ is relaxed and flattened when the organ is distended by fluid 5. Single layer of flat, scalelike cells 6. Single layer of tall, thin cells; modification may appear goblet shaped 1. ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 157 TOP: Classification Based on Layers of Cells 2. ANS: E DIF: Application REF: p. 158 TOP: Classification Based on Layers of Cells 3. ANS: D DIF: Application REF: p. 158 TOP: Classification Based on Layers of Cells 4. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: pp. 158-159 TOP: Classification Based on Layers of Cells 5. ANS: A DIF: Application REF: p. 157 TOP: Classification Based on Layers of Cells 6. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 157 TOP: Simple Epithelium Match each type of gland to its corresponding description. a. EndocrineAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank b. Holocrine c. Merocrine d. Apocrine 7. Ductless glands that produce hormones, such as the thyroid gland 8. Glands that complete their function without incurring damage to or loss of cytoplasm, such as salivary glands 9. Glands that pinch off their tips to release their products, such as milk-producing mammary glands 10. Glands that self-destruct to complete their function, such as glands that produce oil to lubricate the skin 7. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 159 TOP: Functional Classification of Exocrine Glands 8. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 161 TOP: Functional Classification of Exocrine Glands 9. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 161 TOP: Functional Classification of Exocrine Glands 10. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 161 TOP: Functional Classification of Exocrine Glands Match each term with its corresponding definition. a. Neuron b. Neuroglia c. Axon d. Soma e. Dendrite 11. The cell body of the neuron NURSINGTB.COM 12. Supportive cells of nervous tissue 13. Cell process that transmits nerve impulses away from the cell body 14. The conducting cells of the nervous system 15. Cell process that carries nerve impulses toward the cell body 11. ANS: TOP: D Nervous DIF: Tissue Memorization REF: p. 171 12. ANS: TOP: B Nervous DIF: Tissue Memorization REF: p. 171 13. ANS: TOP: C Nervous DIF: Tissue Memorization REF: p. 171 14. ANS: TOP: A Nervous DIF: Tissue Memorization REF: p. 171 15. ANS: TOP: E Nervous DIF: Tissue Memorization REF: p. 171 Match each general tissue type with a corresponding specific tissue. a. Epithelial b. Connective c. Muscle d. NerveAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank 16. Bone and adipose tissue 17. Neurons and neuroglia 18. Tissue in the heart and the biceps of the arm 19. Tissue that lines the stomach and intestines 16. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 161 TOP: Classification of Connective Tissue 17. ANS: TOP: D DIF: Memorization Nervous Tissue REF: p. 171 18. ANS: TOP: C DIF: Memorization Muscle Tissue REF: p. 169 19. ANS: TOP: A DIF: Memorization Epithelial Tissue REF: p. 155 OTHER 1. List and describe the five important functions performed by the various types of epithelial tissues. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: p. 155 TOP: Epithelial Tissue 2. Differentiate among simple, stratified, and transitional epithelia. ANS: Answers will vary. NURSINGTB.COM DIF: Synthesis REF: pp. 157-158 TOP: Classification of Epithelial Tissue 3. Differentiate among the three types of cartilage: hyaline, fibrous, and elastic. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: pp. 168-169 TOP: Cartilage 4. Why is blood considered to be the most unusual type of connective tissue? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 169 TOP: Blood 5. Describe the three types of muscle tissue, and give a location and function of each. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: p. 169 TOP: Muscle TissueAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank 6. Describe the structure of bone and cartilage tissue. Explain how the difference in structure affects the healing ability of both types of tissue. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 167-168 TOP: Bone Tissue and Cartilage Tissue 7. Describe the three functional classifications of exocrine glands. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: p. 159 | p. 161 TOP: Functional Classification of Exocrine Glands ESSAY 1. Mr. Melbourne has emphysema and has been admitted to the cardiac care unit with oxygen administered per nasal cannula. Emphysema destroys the tiny air sacs in the lungs, reducing the diffusion of oxygen into the blood. These tiny air sacs, alveoli, are formed by what type of tissue? What tissue type will form in place of the now damaged alveoli, and why will this impair the diffusion process? ANS: Answers will vary. NURSINGTB.COM DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 155 TOP: Epithelial Tissue, Tissue Repair 2. Explain how simple squamous epithelium and the microvilli and cilia illustrate the relationship between structure and function. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: pp. 157-158 TOP: Simple EpitheliumAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank Chapter 10: Skin Patton: Anatomy and Physiology, 10th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following vitamins is(are) absorbed through the skin? a. Vitamin A b. Vitamin D c. Vitamin K d. All of the above ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 191 TOP: Functions of the Skin 2. Which of the following is not a function of the skin? a. Defense against disease organisms b. Synthesis of vitamin E c. Regulation of body temperature d. Excretion of water and salts ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 191 TOP: Functions of the Skin 3. The superficial outer layer of the epidermis is the stratum: a. basale. b. lucidum. c. corneum. d. granulosum. NURSINGTB.COM ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 184 TOP: Cell Layers 4. Of the five epidermal cell layers, the only one that can undergo mitosis is the stratum: a. basale. b. lucidum. c. corneum. d. granulosum. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 183 TOP: Cell Layers 5. The area referred to as true skin is the: a. stratum corneum. b. subcutaneous layer. c. dermis. d. hypodermis. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 186 TOP: Dermis 6. The hypodermis: a. connects the dermis to underlying tissues.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank b. is the layer of skin in which hair is produced. c. connects the dermis and the epidermis. d. is the layer of skin in which the nails are produced. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 188 TOP: Hypodermis 7. In what area of the body would you expect to find an especially thick stratum corneum? a. Back of the hand b. Thigh c. Abdomen d. Sole of the foot ANS: D DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 181 TOP: Thin and Thick Skin 8. The papillary layer of the dermis: a. is responsible for cleavage or tension lines in the skin. b. does not contain blood vessels. c. produces the ridges that make fingerprints. d. contains large deposits of fat. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 186 TOP: Papillary Layer 9. Smooth muscles that produce goose pimples when they contract are the muscles. a. papillary b. cuticle c. medullary d. arrector pili NURSINGTB.COM ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 187 TOP: Reticular Layer 10. The most common type of skin cancer is: a. malignant melanoma. b. basal cell carcinoma. c. Kaposi sarcoma. d. All skin cancers occur in about equal frequency. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 201 TOP: Skin Cancer (Mechanisms of Disease) 11. The type of cancer associated with immune deficiencies is: a. squamous cell carcinoma. b. Kaposi sarcoma. c. basal cell carcinoma. d. malignant melanoma. ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 201 TOP: Skin Cancer (Mechanisms of Disease) 12. Prolonged exposure to the sun causes melanocytes to: a. increase in number.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank U S N T O b. rupture and release their contents. c. increase melanin production. d. decrease melanin production. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 189 TOP: Skin Color 13. The hair follicle is found in the: a. epidermis. b. dermis. c. hypodermis. d. subcutaneous layer. ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 185 TOP: Hair 14. Fingernail growth is the result of the mitosis of the cells in the stratum: a. germinativum. b. granulosum. c. corneum. d. lucidum. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 197 TOP: Nails 15. Apocrine sweat glands can be found in all of the following areas except the: a. soles of the feet. b. armpits. c. areolae of the breasts. N R I G B.C M d. pigmented skin areas around the anus. ANS: A DIF: Application REF: p. 199 TOP: Apocrine Glands 16. The type of gland associated with blackheads is: a. eccrine. b. apocrine. c. sebaceous. d. ceruminous. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 199 TOP: Sebaceous Glands 17. Which is not part of a hair? a. Shaft b. Root c. Lanugo d. Medulla ANS: C DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 195 TOP: Hair 18. Hair: a. alternates between periods of growth and rest. b. consists of keratinized cells. c. is formed from cells of the germinal matrix.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank d. is all of the above. ANS: D DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 195 TOP: Hair 19. The hair papilla consists of tissue. a. epidermal b. dermal c. hypodermal d. fibrous connective ANS: B DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 195 TOP: Hair 20. The most numerous, important, and widespread sweat glands in the body are: a. apocrine. b. eccrine. c. ceruminous. d. sebaceous. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 198 TOP: Sweat Glands 21. Sebum: a. lubricates hair and skin. b. is produced by sweat glands. c. consists of dead cells from hair follicles. d. is responsible for body odor. ANS: A DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 199 TOP: Sebaceous Glands NURSINGTB.COM 22. The waxy secretion in the external ear canal is: a. eccrine. b. apocrine. c. sebaceous. d. ceruminous. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 199 TOP: Ceruminous Glands 23. The surface film found on the skin has a variety of functions, including: a. lubrication. b. buffering of caustic irritants. c. antibacterial and antifungal activity. d. all of the above. ANS: D DIF: Application REF: p. 192 TOP: Surface Film 24. Although body temperature normally changes very little during the course of a day, it is generally the lowest during: a. the early morning. b. mid-afternoon. c. late afternoon. d. the evening.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank ANS: A DIF: Application REF: p. 193 TOP: Homeostasis of Body Temperature 25. The conversion of water from a liquid state into a gaseous state happens with which form of body heat loss? a. Convection b. Evaporation c. Radiation d. Conduction ANS: B DIF: Synthesis REF: pp. 193-194 TOP: Evaporation 26. Which type of body heat loss is characterized by heat transfer from the surface of one object to the surface of another object without actual contact? a. Convection b. Evaporation c. Radiation d. Conduction ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 194 TOP: Radiation 27. The body compensates for the increase in the core body temperature caused by exercise by: a. decreasing the blood flow to the skin. b. increasing the blood flow to the core. c. increasing the blood flow to the skin. d. vasoconstriction of the blood vessels in the skin. ANS: C DIF: MNemUoRriSzaItioNnGTB.COM TOP: Heat Loss REF: p. 193 28. The same degree of environmental temperature seems hotter in humid climates than it does in dry ones because: a. evaporation increases in humid climates. b. evaporation is retarded in humid climates. c. radiation is increased in humid climates. d. humid climates alter the temperature receptors in the hypothalamus by mechanisms unknown. ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 194 TOP: Evaporation 29. A person leaning against a cold cement block wall would lose heat by the process of: a. convection. b. evaporation. c. radiation. d. conduction. ANS: D DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 194 TOP: Conduction 30. The body’s temperature control center is located in the: a. cerebrum. b. medulla.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank N R I G B.C c. thalamus. d. hypothalamus. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 194 TOP: Homeostatic Regulation of Heat Loss 31. A second-degree burn is characterized by: a. destruction of both the epidermis and the dermis. b. severe pain, generalized swelling, and edema. c. minor discomfort and some redness. d. involvement of muscles, fasciae, or bones. ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 202 TOP: Estimating Body Surface Area (Mechanisms of Disease) 32. A major distinction between second- and third-degree burns is that third-degree burns: a. involve injury to only the deep epidermal layers. b. involve damage to only hair follicles. c. involve damage to only the sweat glands. d. are characterized by insensitivity to pain immediately after injury. ANS: D DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 202 TOP: Estimating Body Surface Area (Mechanisms of Disease) 33. In the skin, the dermis: a. and epidermis are both epithelial tissue. b. and epidermis are both connective tissue. c. is connective tissue and the epidermis is epithelial tissue. d. is epithelial tissue and the eUpidSermNis isTconnecOtive tissue. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 181 TOP: Structure of the Skin 34. The layer beneath the dermis is called the: a. hypodermis. b. subcutaneous layer. c. superficial fascia. d. All of the above are correct. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 188 TOP: Hypodermis 35. Which cells originate in the bone marrow and are important in the immune function? a. Dendritic cells b. Melanocytes c. Keratinocytes d. Fibroblasts ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 183 TOP: Cell Types 36. Which skin layer is called the barrier area? a. Stratum lucidumAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank b. Stratum basale c. Stratum granulosum d. Stratum corneum ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 184 TOP: Cell Layers 37. Which skin layer has cells that look prickly because of the desmosomes that join the cells together? a. Stratum basale b. Stratum spinosum c. Stratum granulosum d. Stratum corneum ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 183 TOP: Cell Layer 38. Which skin layer contains closely packed, clear cells that contain a gel-like substance called eleidin? a. Stratum lucidum b. Stratum basale c. Stratum granulosum d. Stratum corneum ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 184 TOP: Cell Layers 39. In which skin layer does the NprocRessIof kGeraBtin.izCatioMn begin? a. Stratum basale b. Stratum corneum c. Stratum granulosum d. Stratum spinosum U S N T O ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 183 TOP: Cell Layers 40. Normally, which percentage of the cells in the stratum basale enter mitosis each day? a. 20% to 25% b. 10% to 12% c. 18% to 20% d. 35% to 40% ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 184 TOP: Epidermal Growth and Repair 41. Which of the following is not true of the dermal-epidermal junction? a. It is important in blocking bacteria from passing through the skin. b. It is composed chiefly of basement membrane. c. Its function is to “glue” the two layers of skin together. d. All of the above are true. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 186 TOP: Dermoepidermal JunctionAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank 42. Which of the following is not true of the dermis? a. It contains a papillary layer. b. It contains a reticular layer. c. In general, the dermis is thinner on the dorsal side of the body than on the ventral side. d. It plays an important role in body temperature regulation. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 186 TOP: Dermis 43. “Burns” can be caused by: a. ultraviolet light. b. corrosive chemicals. c. electrical current. d. all of the above. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 202 TOP: Burns (Mechanisms of Disease) 44. The area of the skin in an average-size adult is about square feet. a. 12 b. 18 c. 24 d. 31 ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 181 TOP: Introduction NURSINGTB.COM 45. The term used to describe the skin and its appendages is: a. epidermis. b. dermis. c. integumentary system. d. integument. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 181 TOP: Introduction 46. Which cells of the skin are filled with a tough, fibrous protein and account for most of the epidermal cells of the skin? a. Dermatocytes b. Langerhans cells c. Keratinocytes d. Melanocytes ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 183 TOP: Cell Types 47. Which cells of the skin act as a type of antigen-presenting cell in the skin? a. Dermatocytes b. Dendritic cells c. KeratinocytesAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank d. Melanocytes ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 183 TOP: Cell Types 48. The cell layers of skin from the most superficial to the deepest appear in what order? a. Stratum corneum, lucidum, granulosum, spinosum, and basale b. Stratum basale, spinosum, granulosum, lucidum, and corneum c. Stratum basale, granulosum, lucidum, spinosum, and corneum d. Stratum corneum, granulosum, lucidum, spinosum, and basale ANS: A DIF: Application REF: pp. 183-184 TOP: Cell Layers 49. The time required for the completion of mitosis, differentiation, and the movement of new cells from the stratum basale to the surface of the skin is about: a. 35 hours. b. 17 days. c. 22 days. d. 35 days. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 184 TOP: Epidermal Growth and Repair 50. To increase the efficiency of protein synthesis, cells in which epidermal layer are rich in RNA? a. Stratum corneum b. Stratum lucidum c. Stratum spinosum d. Stratum granulosum NURSINGTB.COM ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 183 TOP: Cell Layers 51. Cells in which layer are filled with a protein called eleidin? a. Stratum corneum b. Stratum lucidum c. Stratum spinosum d. Stratum granulosum ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 184 TOP: Cell Layers 52. Cells in which layer have a high level of lysosomal enzymes in their cytoplasm? a. Stratum corneum b. Stratum lucidum c. Stratum spinosum d. Stratum granulosum ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 184 TOP: Cell Layers 53. The darkest of the skin pigments is: a. beta carotene.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank b. pheomelanin. c. eumelanin. d. none of the above. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 189 TOP: Skin Color 54. Which skin pigment is a light reddish color? a. Beta carotene b. Pheomelanin c. Eumelanin d. None of the above ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 189 TOP: Skin Color 55. When the skin looks cyanotic, it is because can be seen through the skin. a. oxygen-poor blood b. oxygen-rich blood c. hemosiderin d. bile pigments ANS: A DIF: Application REF: p. 190 TOP: Other Pigments 56. What increase in body temperature would be caused by pyrogens? a. Heat exhaustion b. Heat stroke c. Fever d. Malignant hyperthermia NURSINGTB.COM ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 201 TOP: Abnormal Body Temperature (Mechanisms of Disease) 57. What increase in body temperature can be caused by anesthetics or muscle relaxants? a. Heat exhaustion b. Heat stroke c. Fever d. Malignant hyperthermia ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 202 TOP: Abnormal Body Temperature (Mechanisms of Disease) 58. Hair can become brittle and dry as a result of the: a. improper function of the sebaceous glands. b. malfunction of the tactile (Meissner) corpuscle. c. overproduction of keratin. d. underproduction of synovial fluid. ANS: A DIF: Application REF: p. 195 TOP: Hair 59. Many liquid medicines, such as insulin, are administered using a subcutaneous injection. Why is the subcutaneous layer an ideal site for the administration of such medication? a. The subcutaneous layer is rich in blood supply and nerve networks.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank b. The subcutaneous layer has a rich blood supply and loose spongy texture. c. The subcutaneous layer has a rich blood supply and firm texture. d. The subcutaneous layer has a rich supply of nerves and loose spongy texture. ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 188 TOP: Subcutaneous and Intradermal Injections (Box 10-3) 60. Onycholysis is usually caused by: a. a cuticle infection. b. malfunctioning of the tactile (Meissner) corpuscle. c. overproduction of the root of the fingernail. d. trauma to long fingernails. ANS: D DIF: Application REF: p. 197 TOP: Nails 61. After several hours of landscaping the yard, Jennifer experienced a body temperature of 105° F; a rapid heart rate; headache; and hot, dry skin. She was taken to a medical facility and treated for what condition? a. Heat exhaustion b. Heat stroke c. Hypothermia d. Malignant hyperthermia ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 202 TOP: Abnormal Body Temperature (Mechanisms of Disease) 62. Matt is admitted to the hospital with burns to the deep epidermal layers and injury to the upper layers of the dermis. The phyNsiciRan tIreatGs MBat.t’sCcoMndition as a burn. a. first-degree b. hypothermia c. minor d. second-degree U S N T O ANS: D DIF: Application REF: p. 203 TOP: Estimating Body Surface Area (Mechanisms of Disease) 63. The special network of nerves deep in the dermis that is capable of detecting pressure on the skin surface is called: a. free nerve endings. b. Krause end bulbs. c. tactile corpuscle. d. somatic sensory receptors. ANS: D DIF: Application REF: p. 186 TOP: Dermis 64. Which statement best explains the importance of the dendritic cells? a. They contribute color to the skin and serve to decrease the amount of ultraviolet light that can penetrate into the deeper layers of the skin. b. They become filled with a tough, fibrous protein called keratin. c. They find markers on bacteria and other invaders and present them to other immune system cells for recognition and destruction. d. They form the attachment of the hair follicle with the arrector pili muscles.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank ANS: C DIF: Application REF: p. 183 TOP: Cell Types 65. How can the regeneration time required for completion of mitosis, differentiation, and movement of new keratinocytes from the stratum basale to the surface of the epidermis be accelerated? a. By abrasion of the skin surface b. By the presence of eleidin c. By the epidermal proliferating unit d. By the presence of dermal-epidermal junctions ANS: C DIF: Application REF: p. 184 TOP: Cell Types 66. The fibers in which layer make it possible for skin to stretch and be elastic? a. Connective tissue b. Epidermal c. Muscle d. Reticular ANS: D DIF: Application REF: p. 187 TOP: Reticular Layer 67. After several months of extensive weight training, Nick has noticed pinkish, depressed furrows with jagged edges in his axillary region. These markings are a result of: a. a decrease in dermal papillae. b. healing due to tiny tears in the dermis. c. malfunction of the microvilli. d. overproduction of the arrector pili muscles. ANS: B DIF: AN pplicRatioIn GREBF:.p.C18M7 TOP: Dermal Growth and Repair U S N T O 68. If you were looking under the microscope at a slide that contains skin glands, what three kinds of microscopic glands would be present? a. Sebaceous, eccrine, and ceruminous glands b. Sweat, eccrine, and ceruminous glands c. Sweat, eccrine, and sebaceous glands d. Sweat, sebaceous, and ceruminous glands ANS: D DIF: Application REF: pp. 198-199 TOP: Sweat Glands 69. Yellowish discoloration of the skin and other tissues is a condition known as jaundice. This results from the: a. gallbladder not being able to eliminate bile from the blood efficiently. b. liver not being able to eliminate bile from the blood efficiently. c. liver not being able to eliminate hemoglobin from the blood efficiently. d. red blood cells not being able to eliminate hemoglobin. ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 190 TOP: Jaundice (Box 10-4) 70. Immunity is a function of the skin and occurs by: a. attacking and destroying pathogens. b. evaporation and radiation of pathogens. c. excretion of chemicals in sweat. d. receptors that can detect sensations.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank ANS: A DIF: Application REF: p. 193 TOP: Immunity 71. The skin of an infant is more easily damaged by penetration or abrasion than that of an adult. Which layer is probably thinner in an infant than in an adult? a. Stratum basale b. Stratum corneum c. Stratum lucidum d. Stratum spinosum ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 184 TOP: Cell Layers 72. A geneticist informs parents that their newborn infant does not have the enzyme tyrosinase. The lack of this enzyme will result in: a. albinism. b. malignant hyperthermia. c. scleroderma. d. vitiligo. ANS: A DIF: Application REF: p. 189 TOP: Skin Color 73. Which of the following is not true about thick or thin skin? a. Thin skin is hairless. b. Most of the body is covered in thin skin. c. Epidermal ridges are found in thick skin. d. All of the above are true. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 181 TOP: Thin and Thick Skin N URSINGTB.COM 74. Which of the following is not true of dermal growth and repair? a. Just as the epidermis, the dermis is in a constant state of regeneration. b. In the healing of an injury, fibroblasts reproduce and begin to form new connective tissue. c. Surgical incisions made parallel to cleavage lines are less likely to leave a scar. d. All of the above statements are true. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 184 TOP: Dermal Growth and Repair 75. Which of the following is not true of the hypodermis? a. It is also called the subcutaneous layer. b. It contains mostly loose connective tissue and adipose tissue. c. It is the deepest part of the skin. d. All of the above are true. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 188 TOP: Hypodermis 76. The excretory function of the skin includes all of the following except: a. influencing the fluid volume of the body. b. playing an important excretory role for the body. c. removing uric acid and urea from the body.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank d. The excretory function includes all of the above. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 192 TOP: Excretion 77. Which of the following is not true of the body’s ability to regulate heat loss? a. It is part of a negative-feedback mechanism. b. Sweat glands increase the production of sweat. c. The homeostatic regulation of body temperature is regulated by the thyroid gland. d. All of the above are true. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 193 TOP: Homeostatic Regulation of Heat Loss 78. Friction ridges function to: a. form fingerprints and footprints. b. enhance our ability to grip surfaces c. act as sensory aids that amplify vibrations d. All of these are functions of friction ridges ANS: D DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 182 TOP: Thick and Thin Skin TRUE/FALSE 1. One of the important functions of the skin is the synthesis of vitamin D. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 191 TOP: Functions of the Skin N URSINGTB.COM 2. Keratin is an important skin pigment that protects against ultraviolet light. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 183 TOP: Cell Types 3. The hypodermis is a subcutaneous layer rich in adipose and loose fibrous connective tissue. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 188 TOP: Hypodermis 4. The subcutaneous layer is also referred to as the superficial fascia. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 188 TOP: Hypodermis 5. Melanocytes account for approximately 55% of the epidermal cells. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 183 TOP: Cell Types 6. During the life of an individual, epidermal tissue is constantly being replaced. ANS: T DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 184 TOP: Epidermal Growth and RepairAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank 7. Turnover time for epidermal tissue can be accelerated by injury. ANS: T DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 184 TOP: Epidermal Growth and Repair 8. Prolonged exposure to the sun causes decreased melanin production. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 189 TOP: Skin Color 9. A primary function of the dermal-epidermal junction is to “glue” together the dermis and the epidermis. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 185 TOP: Dermoepidermal Junction 10. The epidermis is referred to as the true skin. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 186 TOP: Dermis 11. Normally about 10% to 12% of all cells in the stratum basale enter mitosis each day. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 184 TOP: Epidermal Growth and Repair 12. Both the epidermis and the dNermRis coIntiGnualBly.uCndeMrgo shedding and regeneration. U S N T O ANS: F DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 183 TOP: Cell Layers 13. Sensory receptors are found in the epidermis. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 186 TOP: Dermis 14. Goose pimples, elevation of the testes, and erection of the nipples result from the contraction of muscles in the dermis. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 187 TOP: Reticular Layer 15. The dermis contains both voluntary and involuntary muscle fibers. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 187 TOP: Reticular Layer 16. Malignant melanoma has been steadily increasing in the United States for the past 20 years. ANS: T DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 201 TOP: Skin Cancer (Mechanisms of Disease) 17. The basic ingredient in the skin that determines skin color is melanin. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 189Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank TOP: Skin Color 18. Vitiligo is an acquired condition that results in loss of pigment in certain areas of the skin. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 183 TOP: Vitiligo (Box 10-1) 19. An increase in the enzyme tyrosinase will lead to the destruction of pigment and result in albinism. ANS: F DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 189 TOP: Skin Color 20. Darkening of the skin may be caused by a decrease in the secretion of adrenocorticotropic hormone. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 189 TOP: Skin Color 21. Lanugo is the technical term used for adult body hair. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 195 TOP: Hair 22. Terminal hair is the coarse pubic and axillary hair that develops at puberty. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 195 TOP: Hair 23. One way to stimulate hair groNw thisRUS tocIN utitoGBT r. shaveCMO it. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 195 TOP: Hair 24. One of the factors associated with the common type of baldness is the presence of testosterone. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 195 TOP: Hair 25. Growth of nails is the result of mitosis in the stratum basale. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 197 TOP: Nails 26. The gland that produces the waxy secretion in the external ear canal is a sebaceous gland. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 199 TOP: Ceruminous Glands 27. An increase in sebum secretion in children may lead to increased susceptibility to ringworm. ANS: F DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 200 TOP: Skin Infections (Mechanisms of Disease) 28. Apocrine sweat glands are the most numerous and widespread sweat glands in the body.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank ANS: F DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 198 TOP: Eccrine Glands 29. There is a more than fivefold increase in the rate of sebum secretion between 10 and 19 years of age. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 198 TOP: Acne (Box 10-7) 30. A person with a body temperature of 38 C would need to be treated for hypothermia. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 201 TOP: Abnormal Body Temperature (Mechanisms of Disease) 31. When heat must be conserved to maintain a constant body temperature, the dermal blood vessels increase their diameter. ANS: F DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 193 TOP: Heat Loss 32. Shivering is a good example of the body’s attempt to produce more heat. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 193 TOP: Heat Production 33. A person who is shivering would normally have dilated surface blood vessels in the skin. ANS: F DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 193 TOP: Heat Loss 34. Heat loss by the skin is contrNolUleRdSbyIaNpGoTsitBiv.e-CfeOeM dback loop. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 194 TOP: Homeostatic Regulation of Heat Loss 35. The body’s temperature control center is located in the hypothalamus. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 194 TOP: Homeostatic Regulation of Heat Loss 36. The normal body temperature set point is 37 C. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 194 TOP: Homeostatic Regulation of Heat Loss 37. Besides changing the rates of metabolism, the primary means of controlling body temperature is through changes in the size of blood vessels in the skin. ANS: T DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 194 TOP: Homeostatic Regulation of Heat Loss 38. Skin thermal receptors provide important information to the heat-regulating centers in the brain, resulting in autonomic regulation of body temperature. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 194Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank TOP: Homeostatic Regulation of Heat Loss 39. Heat loss by the skin is controlled by a negative-feedback loop. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 194 TOP: Homeostatic Regulation of Heat Loss 40. Blisters, severe pain, generalized swelling, and edema are characteristic of third-degree burns. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 202 TOP: Estimating Body Surface Area (Mechanisms of Disease) 41. The rule of palms and the rule of tens are two methods used in estimating the extent of body surface area burned. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 202 TOP: Estimating Body Surface Area (Mechanisms of Disease) 42. Third-degree burns are less severe than first-degree burns and therefore are not as painful. ANS: F DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 202 TOP: Estimating Body Surface Area (Mechanisms of Disease) 43. The thickest part of the skin is slightly more than 3 cm thick. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 181 TOP: Introduction 44. Integument and integumentarNyUsyRstSem INarGeTinBte.rcChaOnMgeable terms. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 181 TOP: Introduction 45. Integumentary system and skin are interchangeable terms. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 181 TOP: Introduction 46. A large amount of fat can be stored in the hypodermis. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 188 TOP: Hypodermis 47. Thick skin and thin skin refer to the dermis and the epidermis. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 181 TOP: Thin and Thick Skin 48. Hair is usually not found on thick skin. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 182 TOP: Thin and Thick SkinAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank 49. In thin skin, some of the strata of the skin may be absent. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 182 TOP: Thin and Thick Skin 50. The cells at the surface of the skin are dead. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 184 TOP: Cell Layers 51. An abnormal thickening of the stratum corneum is called hyperkeratosis. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 184 TOP: Cell Layers 52. The stratum lucidum and stratum basale are sometimes referred to as the stratum germinativum. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 183 TOP: Cell Layers 53. Blisters can be the result of damage to the desmosomes in a layer of skin. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 186 TOP: Blisters (Box 10-2) 54. The average turnover time for skin cells to go from the stratum basale to the surface of the epidermis is about 35 days. N URSINGTB.COM ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 184 TOP: Epidermal Growth and Repair 55. Continual abrasion to the skin surface tends to lengthen the turnover time of the skin. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 184 TOP: Epidermal Growth and Repair 56. A group of active basal cells, together with its vertical column of migrating keratinocytes, is called a dermal proliferating unit, or DPU. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 184 TOP: Epidermal Growth and Repair 57. The papillary layer of the dermis lies just below the dermal-epidermal junction. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 186 TOP: Papillary Layer 58. The reticular layer of the dermis serves as an attachment point for both smooth and skeletal muscles. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 187Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank U S N T O TOP: Reticular Layer 59. Surgical incisions that are made perpendicular to cleavage lines tend to heal with less of a scar. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 187 TOP: Dermal Growth and Repair 60. Light-skinned people have fewer melanocytes in their skin than do dark-skinned people. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 189 TOP: Skin Color 61. The ability of melanocytes to darken the skin is dependent on the functioning of the enzyme tyrosinase. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 189 TOP: Skin Color 62. Convection is responsible for most of the heat loss of the body. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 194 TOP: Convection 63. The protective function of the skin is limited to the protection of the underlying tissue from abrasion and mechanical injury. ANS: F DIF: MNemoRrizaItionG B.C M TOP: Functions of the Skin REF: p. 192 64. The shedding of epithelial elements from the skin surface is called desquamation. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 192 TOP: Functions of the Skin 65. The surface film that aids in the protective function of the skin is remarkably consistent from one part of the skin to another. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 192 TOP: Surface Film 66. Because sweat can contain ammonia, urea, and other waste products, it plays a major role in the excretion of body wastes. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 193 TOP: Functions of the Skin 67. When the skin is exposed to sunlight, it has the ability to convert cholecalciferol to vitamin D. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 193 TOP: Hormone (Vitamin D) ProductionAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank 68. Because vitamin D is a compound that influences several important chemical reactions, it can also be classified as an enzyme. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 193 TOP: Hormone (Vitamin D) Production 69. Radiation can account for both heat loss and heat gain. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 194 TOP: Radiation 70. Heat production occurs in two ways: metabolism of food and absorption of heat from the environment. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 193 TOP: Homeostasis of Body Temperature 71. Sweat that drips off you does very little to cool your body. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 194 TOP: Evaporation 72. In a cool environment, conduction accounts for most of the heat loss of the body. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 194 TOP: Conduction 73. In using the rule of nines to determine the area of the body involved, the body is divided into nine areas of 11% each. N URSINGTB.COM ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 202 TOP: Burns 74. Lanugo is usually found on a fetus or newborn. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 195 TOP: Hair 75. The cells of the germinal matrix are responsible for forming hair. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 195 TOP: Hair 76. The hair itself is composed of three layers: the shaft, the cortex, and the cuticle. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 195 TOP: Hair 77. Fingernails are composed of heavily keratinized epidermal cells. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 197 TOP: NailsAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank U S N T 78. Apocrine and eccrine glands are the two types of sebaceous glands. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 198 TOP: Sweat Glands 79. Eccrine glands are the more numerous of the sweat glands. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 198 TOP: Eccrine Glands 80. Although the ducts of the eccrine sweat glands come through the epidermis, the actual secretory portion is located in the dermis. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 198 TOP: Eccrine Glands 81. Apocrine sweat glands begin functioning shortly after birth. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 199 TOP: Apocrine Glands 82. Because sebaceous glands produce a substance rich in triglycerides and fatty acids, it provides a good growth medium for fungi. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 198 TOP: Sweat Glands 83. Malignant hyperthermia occuNrs aRs aIresuGlt oBf e.xCposure to certain types of anesthetic agents or muscle relaxants. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 202 TOP: Abnormal Body Temperature (Mechanisms of Disease) 84. The skin surface area can be as large as 20 square feet in the average adult. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 181 TOP: Introduction 85. The skin is a thin and relatively flat organ and is an example of a serous membrane. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 181 TOP: Structure of the Skin 86. Fingerprints are an example of the friction ridges of the skin. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 182 TOP: Thin and Thick Skin 87. The keratinocytes of the skin are examples of antigen-presenting cells. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 183 TOP: Cell TypesAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank 88. The stratum lucidum is superficial to the stratum basale. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 184 TOP: Cell Layers 89. An abnormally thick region of the stratum basale is called a callus. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 184 TOP: Epidermal Growth and Repair 90. Cleavage lines and Langer lines refer to the same thing. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 184 TOP: Dermal Growth and Repair 91. Langer lines is the more correct name for stretch marks. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 184 TOP: Dermal Growth and Repair 92. Albinism is the inability of the body to form melanin. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 189 TOP: Melanin 93. Jaundice can occur because of a very high concentration of vitamin A in the skin. ANS: F DIF: MNemoRrizaItionG B.C M REF: p. 190 TOP: Other Pigments U S N T O 94. A high level of melanin in the skin assists in the formation of vitamin D. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 193 TOP: Hormone (Vitamin D) Production 95. Dendritic cells develop in the dermis of the skin but migrate to the epidermis of the skin to function. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 183 TOP: Cell Types 96. Cells in the stratum spinosum layer are rich in RNA to make protein synthesis more efficient. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 183 TOP: Cell Layers 97. Keratohyalin is a protein in the stratum lucidum that will eventually be transformed into keratin in the cells of the epidermis. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 183 TOP: Cell LayersAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank 98. Cells in the stratum lucidum do not have a high metabolic rate, because they usually do not have a nucleus. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 184 TOP: Cell Layers 99. High levels of lysosomal enzymes are found in the cells of the stratum granulosum layer. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 184 TOP: Cell Layers 100. One end of the arrector pili muscle is attached to a hair follicle. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 187 TOP: Reticular Layer 101. A scar is a dense mass of keratinocytes that forms when a wound to the skin heals. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 187 TOP: Dermal Growth and Repair 102. People who have mostly pheomelanin in their skin tend to have darker skin than people who have mostly eumelanin. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 189 TOP: Skin Color 103. Melanosomes help prevent DNN AmutatiRIUSN onsGT Bw.heCn theMO cell is exposed to ultraviolet radiation. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 189 TOP: Skin Color 104. You turn red when you blush, because the color of blood is red. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 190 TOP: Other Pigments 105. The presence of hemosiderin and bile pigments in the skin can cause the skin to appear cyanotic. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 190 TOP: Other Pigments 106. Both the root and the lunula of the nail are covered by the cuticle and therefore cannot be seen externally. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 197 TOP: Nails 107. If a person were in a totally bacteria-free environment, any sweat produced would have no odor. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 198 TOP: Sweat Glands 108. Chemicals that cause the body to develop a fever are called pyrogens.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 201 TOP: Abnormal Body Temperature (Mechanisms of Disease) 109. Fever is always detrimental to the body, so the body temperature should be reduced to normal as soon as possible. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 201 TOP: Abnormal Body Temperature (Mechanisms of Disease) 110. Malignant hyperthermia, heat exhaustion, and heat stroke are increasingly dangerous consequences of exposure to high environmental temperatures. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 202 TOP: Abnormal Body Temperature (Mechanisms of Disease) 111. The skin is the largest and thinnest organ. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 181 TOP: Introduction 112. The hypodermis is the deepest layer of skin. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 188 TOP: Hypodermis 113. Most of the body is covered by protective thick skin. ANS: F DIF: M NRUemori SzaItioNnGTB.COM TOP: Thin and Thick Skin 114. Keratinocytes are sometimes called corneocytes. REF: p. 181 ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 183 TOP: Cell Types 115. Melanocytes are sometimes called Langerhans cells. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 183 TOP: Cell Types 116. The stratum granulosum is sometimes called the barrier layer of the skin. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 184 TOP: Cell Layers 117. In order for proper growth and repair of the skin to occur, both insulin-like growth factor and vitamin D must be present in the correct amounts. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 184 TOP: Epidermal Growth and RepairAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank 118. The main function of the dermoepidermal junction is to act as a barrier to harmful chemicals and bacteria. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 185-186 TOP: Dermoepidermal Junction 119. Hair follicles and skin glands, made up of epithelial tissue, extend from the epidermis into the reticular layer. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 187 TOP: Reticular Layer 120. In the healing of a wound, fibroblasts in the dermis quickly reproduce and begin forming a dense mass of new connective tissue fibers. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 187 TOP: Dermal Growth and Repair 121. The death of melanocytes in the hair follicle of older people causes the hair to turn gray. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 189 TOP: Melanin 122. Permanent tattoos are made by injecting pigments into the epidermis of the skin, and because of the regeneration of the epidermis, they become less distinct with age. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 190 TOP: Other Pigments N URSINGTB.COM 123. The germinal matrix is a small mound of dermis that supplies blood to the hair follicle. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 195 TOP: Hair 124. The hair follicle serves as a primary location of adult stem cells for skin cells like melanocytes. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 195 TOP: Hair 125. Toenails and fingernails grow at the rate of about 0.5 mm a week, but they grow faster in the winter than they do in the summer. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 197 TOP: Nails MATCHING Match each layer of the epidermis with its corresponding characteristics. a. Stratum corneum b. Stratum lucidumAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank c. Stratum granulosum d. Stratum spinosum e. Stratum basale 1. A single layer of columnar cells that undergo mitosis 2. Most superficial layer of the epidermis; composed of very thin squamous cells 3. Layer in which the process of keratinization begins; the cells are filled with keratohyalin 4. Contains cells rich in ribonucleic acid and has prominent intercellular bridges or desmosomes 5. Layer that is absent in thin skin; cells are filled with a gel-like substance called eleidin 1. ANS: TOP: E Cell Layers DIF: Memorization REF: p. 183 2. ANS: TOP: A Cell Layers DIF: Memorization REF: p. 184 3. ANS: TOP: C Cell Layers DIF: Memorization REF: p. 183 4. ANS: TOP: D Cell Layers DIF: Memorization REF: p. 183 5. ANS: TOP: B Cell Layers DIF: Memorization REF: p. 184 Match each term with its definition or description. a. Keratinocytes b. Hypodermis c. Papillary layer d. Pheomelanin e. Melanocytes f. Arrector pili muscles g. Eumelanin h. Dendritic cells i. Albinism j. Reticular layer NURSINGTB.COM 6. Skin cells that play a role in immunity 7. Make colored pigment for the skin 8. Also called the superficial fascia 9. Dermis layer made of dense white collagen fibers 10. Darkest of the melanin pigments 11. Structure attached to hair that can lift it and causes goose bumps 12. A genetic condition that causes the inability to produce melanin 13. Most important cell in the epidermis; makes up about 90% of it 14. Dermis layer that forms fingerprints 15. Pigment that produces a red-orange color 6. ANS: TOP: H Cell Types DIF: Memorization REF: p. 183 7. ANS: TOP: E Cell Types DIF: Memorization REF: p. 183 8. ANS: TOP: B Hypodermis DIF: Memorization REF: p. 188Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank 9. ANS: J DIF: Memorization REF: p. 186 TOP: Reticular Layer 10. ANS: TOP: G Melanin DIF: Memorization REF: p. 189 11. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 187 TOP: Reticular Layer 12. ANS: TOP: I DIF: Melanin Memorization REF: p. 189 13. ANS: TOP: A DIF: Cell Types Memorization REF: p. 183 14. ANS: TOP: C DIF: Papillary Layer Memorization REF: p. 186 15. ANS: TOP: D DIF: Melanin Memorization REF: p. 189 Match each term with its description or definition. a. Hair papilla b. Radiation c. Apocrine gland d. Lanugo e. Convection f. Germinal matrix g. Sebaceous gland h. Eccrine gland i. Conduction j. Ceruminous gland 16. Transfer of heat between twoNsUurRfaSceIsNwGitThoBu.t aCctOuM al contact 17. Most numerous gland of the skin; produces a transparent, watery liquid 18. Soft, fine hair that covers the fetus 19. Cup-shaped cluster of cells in the hair follicle 20. Transfer of heat from one surface to another because of contact with each other 21. Gland that secretes oil for hair and skin 22. Small mound of dermis in the hair follicle 23. Skin gland found in the armpits and the areola of the breast that produces a viscous and colored secretion 24. Movement of heat away from the body caused by air movement or dissipation of heated fluid particles 25. Gland that forms the brown waxy material used to protect the ear canal 16. ANS: TOP: B Heat Loss DIF: Memorization REF: p. 194 17. ANS: TOP: H Sweat Glands DIF: Memorization REF: p. 198 18. ANS: TOP: D Hair DIF: Memorization REF: p. 195 19. ANS: TOP: F Hair DIF: Memorization REF: p. 195 20. ANS: TOP: I Heat Loss DIF: Memorization REF: p. 193Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank U S N T O 21. ANS: G DIF: Memorization REF: p. 199 TOP: 22. ANS: TOP: Sebaceous Glands A DIF: Hair Memorization REF: p. 195 23. ANS: TOP: C DIF: Sweat Glands Memorization REF: p. 198 24. ANS: TOP: E DIF: Heat Loss Memorization REF: p. 193 25. ANS: TOP: J DIF: Ceruminous Glands Memorization REF: p. 199 OTHER 1. Name and describe what occurs in the cells in each of the layers of the epidermis. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: pp. 183-184 TOP: Cell Layers 2. Explain how the involvement of desmosomes in a blister is a good example of the relationship between structure and function at the chemical level of organization. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: p.N186R I GTOBP:.C BlistMers (Box 10-2) 3. Name and describe the pigments in the skin. Which pigment is more protective against ultraviolet radiation? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 189 TOP: Skin Color 4. Differentiate among first-, second-, and third-degree burns. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 202 TOP: Estimating Body Surface Area (Mechanisms of Disease) 5. Explain the role of the blood vessels in the skin in the homeostatic regulation of heat loss in the body. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: p. 194 TOP: Homeostatic Regulation of Heat LossAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank 6. Name and explain the methods of heat loss discussed in this chapter. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 193 TOP: Heat Loss 7. Explain the protection function of the skin, and include the role of the surface film. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 192 TOP: Functions of the Skin 8. Describe the formation of hair, and describe the parts of a hair follicle. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 195 TOP: Development of Hair 9. Describe the structure of fingernails, and describe how they grow and their rate of growth. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization N URSINGRTEBF:.C p.O19M7 TOP: Nails 10. Name the two types of sweat glands. Explain the difference in their location in the body and the substance they produce. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 198 TOP: Sweat Glands 11. Where are the sebaceous glands located? What do they produce, and what are the properties or functions of the secretion? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: p. 199 TOP: Sebaceous Glands 12. Explain the two ways in which body surface area can be estimated. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 202 TOP: Estimating Body Surface Area (Mechanisms of Disease)Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank ESSAY 1. The process of digesting food requires work from the body. Why would you expect the body temperature to rise slightly after eating a big meal? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 193 TOP: Heat Production 2. In hospitals, frequently a sensor is put over one fingernail to determine whether the patient’s blood is properly oxygenated. Explain why this evaluation is possible. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: p. 197 TOP: Nails NURSINGTB.COMAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank Chapter 11: Skeletal Tissues Patton: Anatomy and Physiology, 10th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A fracture in the shaft of a bone is a break in the: a. epiphysis. b. periosteum. c. diaphysis. d. articular cartilage. ANS: C DIF: Application REF: p. 211 TOP: Structure of Long Bones 2. Endosteum can be found: a. lining the medullary cavity. b. covering bones. c. at articular surfaces. d. lining the epiphysis. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 212 TOP: Structure of Long Bones 3. Muscle tendon fibers attach to bone by interlacing with: a. compact bone. b. ligaments. c. periosteum. d. endosteum. NURSINGTB.COM ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 212 TOP: Structure of Long Bones 4. The organic matrix of bone consists of: a. collagenous fibers. b. protein. c. polysaccharides. d. all of the above. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 213 TOP: Composition of Bone Matrix 5. In bone formation, the cells that produce the organic matrix are the: a. osteoblasts. b. osteocytes. c. osteoclasts. d. chondrocytes. ANS: A DIF: Application REF: p. 216 TOP: Types of Bone Cells 6. The cells responsible for active erosion of bone minerals are called: a. osteocytes. b. osteoclasts.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank c. osteoblasts. d. osteomorphytes. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 216 TOP: Types of Bone Cells 7. Which of the following is not one of the primary functions performed by bones? a. Mineral storage b. Protection c. Hormonal production d. Hematopoiesis ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 210 TOP: Functions of Bone 8. The cell organelles that synthesize organic matrix substances in bone formation are: a. mitochondria and Golgi apparatus. b. ribosomes and Golgi apparatus. c. endoplasmic reticulum and ribosomes. d. endoplasmic reticulum and Golgi apparatus. ANS: D DIF: Application REF: p. 220 TOP: Intramembranous Ossification 9. The osteon, or haversian, system: a. delivers nutrients to and removes waste products from bone cells. b. produces yellow marrow. c. resists stress. d. erodes bone. NURSINGTB.COM ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 215 TOP: Compact Bone 10. In intramembranous ossification, the process of appositional growth refers to the: a. development of a core layer of spongy bone. b. development of compact bone in long bones. c. addition of an outside layer of osseous tissue on flat bones. d. lengthening of long bone. ANS: C DIF: Application REF: p. 220 TOP: Intramembranous Ossification 11. Hematopoiesis is carried out in the: a. osteoclasts. b. osteocytes. c. yellow bone marrow. d. red bone marrow. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 210 TOP: Functions of Bone 12. The primary ossification center of a long bone is located: a. in the diaphysis.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank b. in the epiphysis. c. in the medullary cavity. d. at the epiphyseal cartilage. ANS: A DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 221 TOP: Endochondral Ossification 13. The major purpose of the epiphyseal plate is: a. mending of fractures. b. enlarging of epiphyses. c. providing strength in long bones. d. lengthening long bones. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 221 TOP: Endochondral Ossification 14. The first step in healing a fracture is: a. the formation of specialized callus. b. the formation of a fracture hematoma. c. proper alignment of the fracture. d. the formation of a collar of normal bone covering the broken ends. ANS: B DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 226 TOP: Repair of Bone Fractures 15. Normally, bone loss will begin to exceed bone gain between the ages of years. a. 20 and 25 b. 25 and 30 c. 30 and 35 d. 35 and 40 N URSINGTB.COM ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 225 TOP: Bone Remodeling 16. In bone growth, the medullary cavity is enlarged because of the activity of: a. osteoclasts. b. osteocytes. c. osteoblasts. d. chondrocytes. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 225 TOP: Bone Remodeling 17. The most abundant type of cartilage is: a. hyaline. b. elastic. c. fibrocartilage. d. All of the above are present in approximately equal amounts. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 218 TOP: Types of Cartilage 18. The form of the external ear is composed of: a. fibrocartilage. b. elastic cartilage.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank N R I G c. osseous tissue. d. hyaline cartilage. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 218 TOP: Elastic Cartilage 19. In young children, vitamin A and protein deficiency will: a. cause an increase in the thickness of epiphyseal plates in the growing long bones. b. cause a decrease in the thickness of epiphyseal plates in the growing long bones. c. produce the same alterations of the epiphyseal plate as does vitamin D deficiency. d. have no effect on the epiphyseal plate but will cause an increase in bone marrow production. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 228 TOP: Cartilage and Nutritional Deficiencies (Box 11-2) 20. Which of the following substances is not part of the inorganic matrix of bone? a. Magnesium b. Collagen c. Sodium d. Fluoride ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 213 TOP: Composition of Bone Matrix 21. As the activity of osteoblasts increases, the: a. level of calcium in the blood increases. b. amount of calcium in bone increases. B.C M c. level of calcium in the blooUd dS ecreNasesT. O d. Both B and C occur. ANS: D DIF: Application REF: p. 219 TOP: Regulation of Blood Calcium Levels 22. As the activity of osteoclasts increases, the: a. level of calcium in the blood increases. b. amount of calcium in bone increases. c. level of calcium in the blood decreases. d. Both B and C occur. ANS: A DIF: Application REF: p. 219 TOP: Regulation of Blood Calcium Levels 23. Sesamoid bones are classified as bones. a. long b. short c. irregular d. flat ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 211 TOP: Types of Bones 24. Which of the following is not a characteristic of the diaphysis?Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank U S N T O a. Provides a bulbous shape for attachment of muscle b. Hollow c. Composed of compact bone d. All of the above are characteristics of the diaphysis. ANS: A DIF: Application REF: p. 211 TOP: Structure of Long Bones 25. Which of the following is not a characteristic of the epiphyses? a. Made of spongy bone b. Cylindrical in shape c. Contain red bone marrow d. All of the above are characteristics of the epiphyses. ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 211 TOP: Structure of Long Bones 26. Which of the following is not dependent on the proper amount of calcium ions in the blood? a. Blood clotting b. Transmission of nerve impulses c. Contraction of cardiac muscle d. All of the above are dependent on the proper amount of calcium ions in the blood. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 219 TOP: Regulation of Blood Calcium Levels 27. The parathyroid hormone causes all of the following except: a. increase of the absorption of calcium by the kidney. b. stimulation of the activity of osteoblasts. c. stimulation of the activityNofRosteIocla Gsts.B.C M d. stimulation of vitamin D synthesis. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 219 TOP: Parathyroid Hormone 28. Which of the following is true of bone but not of cartilage? a. It is classified as a connective tissue. b. It has collagen fibers in its matrix. c. Canals link blood vessels and cells. d. Cells lie in lacunae. ANS: C DIF: Application REF: p. 218 TOP: Types of Cartilage 29. Which of the following is not made of hyaline cartilage? a. External ear b. Cartilage rings in the trachea c. Cartilage connecting the ribs and sternum d. Cartilage in the tip of the nose ANS: A DIF: Application REF: p. 218 TOP: Hyaline Cartilage 30. Which of the following is not made of elastic cartilage? a. External ear b. Tip of the nose c. EpiglottisAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank U S N T O d. Eustachian tubes ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 218 TOP: Elastic Cartilage 31. Which type of bone consists only of compact bone? a. Long b. Short c. Irregular d. All types of bones are composed of both compact and spongy bone. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 211 TOP: Types of Bones 32. Cancellous bone is another term for a(n) bone. a. irregular b. spongy c. short d. compact ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 211 TOP: Types of Bones 33. The humerus is an example of a(n) bone. a. long b. short c. flat d. irregular ANS: A DIF: MNemoRrizaItionG B.C M TOP: Types of Bones 34. A vertebral bone is an example of a(n) bone. a. long b. short c. flat d. irregular REF: p. 211 ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 211 TOP: Types of Bones 35. The tarsal bones are examples of bones. a. long b. short c. flat d. irregular ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Types of Bones REF: p. 211 36. The scapula is an example of a(n) bone. a. long b. short c. flatAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank d. irregular ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 211 TOP: Types of Bones 37. The matrix of bone consists of: a. mostly organic material with a lesser amount of inorganic salts. b. almost equal amounts of organic material and inorganic salts. c. mostly inorganic salts with a lesser amount of organic material. d. greatly varying proportions of organic and inorganic material depending on the location and function of the bone. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 213 TOP: Composition of Bone Matrix 38. Hydroxyapatite crystals constitute about how much of the total inorganic matrix? a. 65% b. 75% c. 85% d. 95% ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 213 TOP: Composition of Bone Matrix 39. What condition results in vitamin D deficiency in children? a. Rickets b. Osteomalacia c. Osteoporosis d. Both A and B NURSINGTB.COM ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 227 TOP: Metabolic Bone Disease (Mechanisms of Disease) 40. Lengthwise-running central canals are connected to each other by transverse-running: a. haversian canals. b. Volkmann canals. c. canaliculi. d. lacunae. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 227 TOP: Compact Bone 41. As the amount of calcitonin in the blood increases, the amount of calcium: a. in the blood increases. b. released from the bone increases. c. in the blood decreases. d. Both A and B are correct. ANS: C DIF: Application REF: p. 220 TOP: Calcitonin 42. A person with a diet rich in calcium would probably have a: a. low level of calcitonin. b. low level of parathyroid hormone.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank c. high level of calcitonin. d. Both B and C are correct. ANS: D DIF: Application REF: p. 219 TOP: Mechanisms of Calcium Homeostasis 43. Which type of bone is found in a tendon? a. Irregular bone b. Long bone c. Sesamoid bone d. Short bone ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 211 TOP: Types of Bones 44. The concentric, cylinder-shaped layers of calcified bone matrix are called: a. lacunae. b. canaliculi. c. central canal. d. lamellae. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 215 TOP: Compact Bone 45. The small spaces in the matrix that contain the bone cells are called: a. lacunae. b. canaliculi. c. central canal. d. lamellae. NURSINGTB.COM ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 215 TOP: Compact Bone 46. Diploë can be found: a. in the diaphysis of a compact bone. b. in the middle of spongy bone. c. in the epiphysis of compact bone. d. connecting parallel osteons in spongy bone. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 216 TOP: Cancellous Bone 47. In the epiphyseal plate, the proliferating zone is in the layer. a. first b. second c. third d. fourth ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 221 TOP: Endochondral Ossification 48. In the epiphyseal plate, the zone of hypertrophy is in the layer. a. firstAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank b. second c. third d. fourth ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 221 TOP: Endochondral Ossification 49. Bones act as a reservoir for which of the following minerals? a. Iron b. Calcium c. Phosphorus d. Both A and B ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 210 TOP: Functions of Bone 50. The small tubes in the osteon that bring nutrients and oxygen to the osteocytes are called: a. canaliculi. b. lacunae. c. lamellae. d. diploë. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 215 TOP: Compact Bone TRUE/FALSE 1. The epiphyses consist mostlyNoUfRcoSmIpNacGt b ToBn. e,CusOuMally with yellow marrow in the center. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 211 TOP: Structure of Long Bones 2. Bone tissue is also called osseous tissue. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 213 TOP: Bone Tissue 3. Bone tissue consists mostly of cells dispersed in a limited amount of matrix. ANS: F DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 213 TOP: Bone Tissue 4. The periosteum is a dense, white, fibrous membrane that covers bone except at joint surfaces. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 212 TOP: Structure of Long Bones 5. Flat bones differ from short bones in that flat bones have an inner portion of cancellous bone covered on the outside with compact bone. ANS: F DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 212 TOP: Structure of Flat Bones 6. Hydroxyapatite consists of highly specialized chemical crystals of calcium and phosphate.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 213 TOP: Bone Tissue 7. The tensile strength of bone is nearly equal to that of cast iron, but much lighter. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 213 TOP: Bone Tissue 8. The hardness of bone is related to its two major mineral components—calcium and iron. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 213 TOP: Bone Tissue 9. Haversian systems are found only in compact bone. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 215 TOP: Cancellous Bone 10. The strength of bone is increased by the arrangement of trabeculae. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 215 TOP: Cancellous Bone 11. Haversian systems are found only in cancellous bone. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 215 TOP: Cancellous Bone 12. Osteoclasts are nondividing osteoblasts that have become surrounded by matrix and lie within lacunae. NURSINGTB.COM ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 216 TOP: Types of Bone Cells 13. In an infant’s or child’s body, virtually all of the bones contain yellow marrow. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 217 TOP: Bone Marrow 14. Osteogenesis involves the combined action of osteoblasts and osteoclasts. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 220 TOP: Development of Bone 15. The homeostasis of blood calcium is maintained by its moving into and out of bone tissue. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 219 TOP: Regulation of Blood Calcium Levels 16. Red marrow is found only in long bones. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 217 TOP: Bone Marrow 17. Most bones of the body are formed from cartilage models. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 221Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank TOP: Endochondral Ossification 18. During childhood and adolescence, ossification and bone resorption occur at equal rates. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 225 TOP: Bone Remodeling 19. Variations in the amount of ossification and resorption of bone tissue are age dependent. ANS: T DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 225 TOP: Bone Remodeling 20. Throughout life, ossification and resorption continue to occur concurrently. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 225 TOP: Bone Remodeling 21. Weight-bearing exercises will tend to increase the likelihood of osteoporosis in the elderly. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 225 TOP: Exercise and Bone Density (Box 11-1) 22. Callus tissue binds the broken ends of a fractured bone. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 226 TOP: Repair of Bone Fractures 23. Both cartilage and bone contain living cells and are vascular tissues. ANS: F DIF: AN pplicRatioIn GREBF:.p.C21M8 TOP: Types of Cartilage U S N T O 24. A major difference between bone tissue and cartilage is the makeup of the matrix. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 218 TOP: Types of Cartilage 25. The type of cartilage growth most prevalent in childhood and early adolescence is interstitial or endogenous growth. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 219 TOP: Growth of Cartilage 26. Appositional growth of cartilage occurs when chondrocytes in the deep layer of the perichondrium begin to divide and secrete additional matrix. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 219 TOP: Growth of Cartilage 27. The occurrence of osteoporosis seems to be related to age and gender. ANS: T DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 227 TOP: Metabolic Bone Disease (Mechanisms of Disease) 28. Osteoporosis occurs more often in elderly women than in males.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank ANS: T DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 227 TOP: Metabolic Bone Disease (Mechanisms of Disease) 29. Interstitial growth of cartilage most often occurs during adulthood. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 219 TOP: Growth of Cartilage 30. In young children, vitamin A and protein deficiency can cause a decrease in the thickness of epiphyseal plates in the growing long bones. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 228 TOP: Cartilage and Nutritional Deficiencies (Box 11-2) 31. Myeloid tissue is another name for bone marrow. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 217 TOP: Bone Marrow 32. Bones are the organs of the skeletal system. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 210 TOP: Introduction 33. Another name for compact bone is cancellous bone. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 211 TOP: Types of Bones N URSINGTB.COM 34. Because each bone has a specific function, it is made of either all compact or all spongy bone. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 211 TOP: Types of Bones 35. The bones of the skull and the ribs are examples of flat bones. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 211 TOP: Types of Bones 36. The region between the epiphyses and the diaphysis in a mature bone is called the metaphysis. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 212 TOP: Structure of Long Bones 37. Articular cartilage can be defined as a layer of elastic cartilage that covers the joint surface. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 212 TOP: Structure of Long Bones 38. The endosteum usually surrounds yellow marrow in an adult. ANS: T DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 212 TOP: Structure of Long BonesAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank 39. The periosteum is a connective tissue membrane that lines the medullary cavity. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 212 TOP: Structure of Long Bones 40. Part of the bone matrix is made of inorganic substances. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 213 TOP: Composition of Bone Matrix 41. An important part of the bone matrix is a mixture of protein and polysaccharide called ground substance. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 213 TOP: Composition of Bone Matrix 42. Chondroitin sulfate is an important compound in ground substance. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 215 TOP: Organic Matrix 43. The components of the inorganic matrix maintain the smooth surface and springy consistency of the bone. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 215 TOP: Organic Matrix 44. The terms haversian system aNn dU osteoRIS nN a Gr eT iBnt.erCch angMO eable. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 215 TOP: Compact Bone 45. Lamellae and lacunae are interchangeable terms. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 215 TOP: Compact Bone 46. Transverse canals are located in the center of the osteon. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 215 TOP: Compact Bone 47. Both compact and spongy, or cancellous, bone have canaliculi. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 215-216 TOP: Compact Bone, Cancellous Bone 48. The layer of cancellous bone between two layers of compact bone is called diploë. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 216 TOP: Cancellous BoneAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank ANS: F U S N T O 49. Without the canaliculi, the bone cells in compact bone would die of starvation and lack of oxygen. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 215 TOP: Compact Bone 50. Osteoblasts secrete the inorganic salts that make up the structure of bone. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 216 TOP: Types of Bone Cells 51. Osteoclasts are large, multinucleate cells that erode bone minerals. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 216 TOP: Types of Bone Cells 52. Canaliculi are small openings in the lamella where bone cells are found. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 215 TOP: Compact Bone 53. In an adult who is anemic or has been exposed to radiation or toxic chemicals, yellow bone marrow can become red bone marrow again. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 217 TOP: Bone Marrow 54. Parathyroid hormone is released when blood calcium levels are too high. N R I G B.C M DIF: Memorization REF: p. 219 TOP: Parathyroid Hormone 55. Parathyroid hormone and calcitonin are of equal importance in regulating the calcium level of the blood. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 220 TOP: Calcitonin 56. Calcitonin is released when the blood calcium levels are too high. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 220 TOP: Calcitonin 57. Because of repeated wear and tear, athletes and dancers tend to have less dense bones than people who exercise less often. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 225 TOP: Exercise and Bone Density (Box 11-1) 58. Both membrane and endochondral bone grow by interior expansion. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 220 TOP: Intramembranous OssificationAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank 59. Initially, endochondral bone grows from the epiphyses toward the diaphysis. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 221 TOP: Endochondral Ossification 60. Because bone is connective tissue, a fractured bone will never heal and be as strong as before the fracture. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 226 TOP: Repair of Bone Fractures 61. Short bones are made up of only spongy bone. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 212 TOP: Structure of Flat Bones 62. The blood-making function of bone is carried out by yellow marrow or myeloid tissue in the medullary cavity. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 210 TOP: Functions of Bone 63. The inorganic salts that make up the bone matrix are equally divided between hydroxyapatite and calcium carbonate. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 213 TOP: Composition of Bone MNat rixRU SINGTB.COM 64. Chondroitin is an amino sugar that is important in cartilage formation. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 218 TOP: Types of Cartilage 65. The term woven bone is used to describe new bone. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 224 TOP: Bone Remodeling 66. Hyaline cartilage is the most common type of cartilage in the body. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 218 TOP: Types of Cartilage 67. Sesamoid bones develop in tendons near a joint. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 211 TOP: Types of Bones 68. The patella or kneecap is the only sesamoid bone ever found in the human body. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 211 TOP: Types of BonesAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank 69. The endosteum is necessary for bone healing and bone remodeling. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 212 TOP: Structure of Long Bones 70. Most of the matrix in bone is composed of inorganic rather than organic material. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 213 TOP: Bone Tissue 71. There are more than 200 bones in the human body. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 210 TOP: Types of Bones 72. The compact bone that is superficial to the diploë in the skull is called the external table. ANS: T DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 212 TOP: Structure of Flat Bones 73. Internal table is the term used to describe the spongy bone on the interior of the skull. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 212 TOP: Structure of Flat Bones 74. All the lamellae in compact bone are found to be part of the osteon. ANS: F DIF: MNemoRrizaItionG B.C M REF: p. 215 TOP: Compact Bone U S N T O 75. The inner circumferential lamellae can be found directly under the periosteum. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 215 TOP: Compact Bone 76. The body contains more spongy bone than it does compact bone. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 215 TOP: Cancellous Bone 77. When cancellous bone is put under mechanical stress, it responds by remodeling its trabeculae in a different direction and by increasing their diameter. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 225 TOP: Bone Remodeling 78. When a compact bone is put under mechanical stress, it responds by forming wider osteons to help better distribute the stress. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 225 TOP: Bone RemodelingAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank 79. One function of bone is to provide a place to make blood cells. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 210 TOP: Functions of Bone 80. One function of bone is to store calcium and phosphorus for the body. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 210 TOP: Functions of Bone 81. Parathyroid hormone affects not only bone cells but also cells of the kidney. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 219 TOP: Parathyroid Hormone 82. Calcitonin is a protein hormone produced by the pituitary gland that helps regulate blood calcium levels. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 220 TOP: Calcitonin 83. The epiphyseal plate is composed of three layers of cells. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 221-222 TOP: Endochondral Ossification 84. After birth, the amount of cartilage in the body increases. ANS: F DIF: M NRUemori SzaItioNnGTB.COM TOP: Types of Cartilage REF: p. 218 85. The type of cartilage found in the symphysis pubis is fibrocartilage. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 218 TOP: Types of Cartilage 86. The cartilage rings in the trachea and the tip of the nose are elastic cartilage. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 218 TOP: Types of Cartilage 87. Although bones are the main organs of the skeletal system, the system also includes ligaments and tendons. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 210 TOP: Functions of Bone 88. Because bone building and bone resorption must be balanced, there are usually an equal number of osteoblasts and osteoclasts in a bone. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 216 TOP: Types of Bone CellsAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank 89. The thyroid gland produces the parathyroid hormone, which is the major regulator of blood calcium homeostasis. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 219 TOP: Parathyroid Hormone 90. One effect of parathyroid hormone is stimulation of vitamin D activity to increase absorption of calcium by the intestines. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 219 TOP: Parathyroid Hormone 91. Parathyroid hormone stimulates the activity of osteoclasts in the bone. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 219 TOP: Parathyroid Hormone 92. Both growth hormone and the neurotransmitter serotonin can stimulate bone growth. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 220 TOP: Other Mechanisms 93. Osteoblasts themselves are able to monitor extracellular calcium levels. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 220 TOP: Other Mechanisms 94. Due to continuous stress on t NRUhebo ISne, NathGlTete Bs.aC ndOdMancers tend to have less dense bones than do more sedentary people. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 220 TOP: Development of Bone 95. The growth of intramembranous bone begins with the formation of a cluster of osteoblasts called ossification centers. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 220 TOP: Intramembranous Ossification 96. In endochondral ossification, the primary ossification centers are found in the epiphyses and the secondary ossification centers are found in the diaphysis. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 221 TOP: Endochondral Ossification 97. The fracture hematoma is the last stage in the healing of a bone. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 226 TOP: Repair of Bone Fractures 98. One function of cartilage is to act as a shock-absorbing pad between bones.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 219 TOP: Function of Cartilage MATCHING Match each bone structure with its corresponding description. a. Periosteum b. Endosteum c. Epiphyses d. Diaphysis e. Medullary cavity f. Articular cartilage 1. Thin membrane that lines a large cavity in long bones 2. Covers joint surfaces 3. Part of long bone to which tendons attach 4. Location of spongy bone in a long bone 5. Tubelike hollow space in long bones 6. Central shaft of long bones 1. ANS: TOP: B Structure of DIF: Memorization Long Bones REF: p. 212 2. ANS: TOP: F Structure of DIF: Memorization Long Bones REF: p. 212 3. ANS: TOP: A Structure of DIF: Memorization REF: Long BonesNURSINGTB.COM p. 212 4. ANS: TOP: C Structure of DIF: Memorization Long Bones REF: p. 211 5. ANS: TOP: E Structure of DIF: Memorization Long Bones REF: p. 212 6. ANS: TOP: D Structure of DIF: Memorization Long Bones REF: p. 211 Match each microscopic bone structure with its corresponding description. a. Lacunae b. Central canal c. Canaliculi d. Trabeculae e. Lamellae f. Transverse canal 7. Little canals that connect areas of bone cells 8. Concentric rings of compact bone 9. Cavities in which bone cells are found 10. Contains blood vessels in living bone 11. Bone cells are found here in cancellous bone 12. Canals that connect parallel central canals 7. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 215Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank U S N T O TOP: Compact Bone 8. ANS: TOP: E Compact Bone DIF: Memorization REF: p. 215 9. ANS: TOP: A Compact Bone DIF: Memorization REF: p. 215 10. ANS: TOP: B Compact Bone DIF: Memorization REF: p. 215 11. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 215 TOP: Cancellous Bone 12. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 215 TOP: Compact Bone Match each bone type with its corresponding description. a. Irregular bones b. Flat bones c. Sesamoid bones d. Short bones e. Long bones 13. Often described as cube-shaped or box-shaped 14. Bones that are found in tendons; the patella is an example 15. Often clustered in groups and come in various sizes and shapes; vertebrae are an example 16. Easily identified by their extended longitudinal axis; the femur is an example 17. Generally broad and thin with a flattened or curved surface; ribs are an example 13. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 211 TOP: Types of Bones N R I G B.C M 14. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 211 TOP: Types of Bones 15. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 211 TOP: Types of Bones 16. ANS: E DIF: Memorization REF: p. 211 TOP: Types of Bones 17. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 211 TOP: Types of Bones OTHER 1. List the six structures of long bones that are visible to the naked eye. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 211-212 TOP: Structure of Long Bones 2. Describe the two chemical components of the extracellular bone matrix. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 213 TOP: Composition of Bone MatrixAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank REF: p. 215 3. Compare and contrast osteoblasts, osteoclasts, and osteocytes. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: pp. 216-217 TOP: Types of Bone Cells 4. Describe the varying degrees of bone formation (ossification) and bone destruction (resorption) that occur from childhood to adulthood. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: pp. 224-225 TOP: Bone Remodeling 5. Name the types of bone found in the body, and give an example of each type. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: p. 211 TOP: Types of Bones 6. Name and describe the parts of the osteon. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization N URSINGTB.COM 7. Name and describe the functions of bone. ANS: Answers will vary. TOP: Compact Bone DIF: Memorization REF: p. 210 TOP: Functions of Bone 8. Explain all the ways parathyroid hormone helps to increase blood calcium levels. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: p. 219 TOP: Parathyroid Hormone 9. Where is the epiphyseal plate located? What is the function of the epiphyseal plate? Describe the layers that make up the epiphyseal plate. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: pp. 221-222 TOP: Endochondral OssificationAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank N R I G B.C M 10. Explain the steps in the healing of a bone fracture. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 226 TOP: Repair of Bone Fractures 11. Name, describe, and give the location of the different types of cartilage found in the body. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: p. 218 TOP: Types of Cartilage ESSAY 1. Dr. Haney, an orthopedic surgeon, called the admissions office of a hospital and advised that he would be admitting a patient with an epiphyseal fracture. Without any other information, the patient was assigned to the pediatric floor. What prompted this assignment? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: pp. 221-222 TOP: Endochondral Ossification 2. Emma, an elderly white woman, noticed that she was half an inch shorter than she was at her last doctor’s visit. Her doctor suggested that she begin a regimen of dietary supplements of calcium and vitamin D. What bUoneSdisNease Tdid theOdoctor suspect? What would the prescribed treatment do for this condition? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 227 TOP: Metabolic Bone Disease (Mechanisms of Disease) 3. Explain how the body regulates the calcium level in the blood. Discuss the activities of both hormones involved and where each is made. What problems might occur in the body if the calcium level were too low? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 219 TOP: Mechanisms of Calcium Homeostasis 4. Growth hormone can be given to people to increase their height. This requires rapid bone growth. If a young adult wants to be given growth hormone, x-ray films will be taken of his or her skeleton. What is the physician looking for, and how would it affect the decision to give or withhold growth hormone? ANS: Answers will vary.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 220 TOP: Endochondral Ossification NURSINGTB.COMAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank Chapter 12: Axial Skeleton Patton: Anatomy and Physiology, 10th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which is not a part of the axial skeleton? a. Rib b. Vertebral column c. Mandible d. Clavicle ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 234 TOP: Divisions of the Skeleton 2. Which is not a part of the appendicular skeleton? a. Coxal bones b. Parietal bones c. Radius d. Clavicle ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 234 TOP: Divisions of the Skeleton 3. The axial skeleton consists of bones. a. 60 b. 68 c. 74 d. 80 NURSINGTB.COM ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 234 TOP: Divisions of the Skeleton 4. The appendicular skeleton consists of bones. a. 102 b. 118 c. 126 d. 137 ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 234 TOP: Divisions of the Skeleton 5. The term sinus, as it relates to bone markings, can be defined as a: a. raised area or projection. b. cavity within a bone. c. tubelike opening or channel. d. groove or elongated depression. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 236 TOP: Terms Used to Describe Bone Markings (Table 12-2) 6. Which bone is a part of the axial skeleton?Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank a. Rib b. Clavicle c. Radius d. Coxal bone ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 234 TOP: Divisions of the Skeleton 7. Which bone is a part of the appendicular skeleton? a. Scapula b. Vertebra c. Parietal d. Mandible ANS: A DIF: Memorization TOP: Divisions of the Skeleton REF: p. 234 8. Which suture is between the occipital and parietal bones? a. Squamous b. Lambdoid c. Sagittal d. Coronal ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Cranial Bones REF: p. 243 9. Mastoiditis is the inflammation of a sinus within which bone(s)? a. Maxillae b. Frontal c. Sphenoid d. Temporal NURSINGTB.COM ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 258 TOP: Mastoiditis (Mechanisms of Disease) 10. Which skull bone articulates with the first vertebra? a. Temporal b. Occipital c. Sphenoid d. Ethmoid ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Cranial Bones REF: p. 243 11. The upper parts of the nasal septum and the side walls of the nasal cavity are formed by which bone(s)? a. Nasal b. Sphenoid c. Ethmoid d. Maxillae ANS: C DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 245 TOP: Cranial BonesAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank 12. Which of the following is a true statement? a. The ethmoid is a flat bone that lies anterior to the sphenoid. b. The ethmoid is an irregular bone that lies posterior to the sphenoid but anterior to the nasal bones. c. The ethmoid is an irregular bone that lies anterior to the sphenoid but posterior to the nasal bones. d. The ethmoid is a short bone that lies anterior to the nasal bones. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 245 TOP: Cranial Bones 13. Which of the following bones does not articulate with the maxillae? a. Palatine b. Mandible c. Inferior concha d. Zygomatic ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 246 TOP: Facial Bones 14. If the cribriform plate is damaged, there is a chance of: a. infectious materials passing from the ear to the brain. b. food passing from the mouth into the nose. c. difficulty chewing. d. infectious materials passing from the nose to the brain. ANS: D DIF: Application REF: p. 246 TOP: Cribriform Plate (Box 12-1) 15. A fontanel can best be descriNbeUdRaSs aI(nN)G : a. bone in the skull. b. unossified area in the infant’s skull. c. articulation between two skull bones. d. small opening. TB.COM ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 250 TOP: Fetal Skull 16. The upper part of the sternum is called the: a. costal cartilage. b. xiphoid process. c. body. d. manubrium. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 257 TOP: Sternum 17. The skeletal framework of the neck consists of vertebrae. a. lumbar b. thoracic c. sacral d. cervical ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 251Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank TOP: Vertebrae 18. The number of thoracic vertebrae is: a. 5. b. 7. c. 10. d. 12. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 251 TOP: Vertebrae 19. All vertebrae except the sacrum and coccyx have a central opening called the: a. spinous process. b. vertebral foramen. c. dens. d. transverse process. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 252 TOP: Vertebrae 20. The thoracic cage (the thorax) includes all of the following bones except: a. the scapula. b. 12 pairs of ribs. c. the vertebral column. d. the sternum. ANS: A DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 257 TOP: Ribs 21. Which of the following boneNs iUsRnoStIaNpaGrtToBf . thCe fOaMce? a. Frontal b. Zygomatic c. Lacrimal d. Maxilla ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 243 TOP: Skull 22. Which of the following bones does not contain paranasal sinuses? a. Frontal b. Maxilla c. Zygomatic d. Sphenoid ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 243 TOP: Cranial Bones 23. The occipital bone forms how many joints with other bones? a. One b. Two c. Three d. Four ANS: D DIF: Application REF: p. 243 TOP: Cranial BonesAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank 24. The largest of the paranasal sinuses is found in which bone? a. Sphenoid b. Maxilla c. Ethmoid d. Frontal ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 247 TOP: Facial Bones 25. Another name for the zygomatic bone is the: a. malar. b. sphenoid. c. ethmoid. d. sesamoid. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 247 TOP: Facial Bones 26. Going from superior to inferior, the sequence of the vertebral column is: a. sacral, coccyx, thoracic, lumbar, and cervical. b. coccyx, sacral, lumbar, thoracic, and cervical. c. cervical, lumbar, thoracic, sacral, and coccyx. d. cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and coccyx. ANS: D DIF: Application REF: pp. 252-253 TOP: Vertebral Column 27. The structure that furnishes t Nhe aRxisIfor tGhe rBo.taCtionMof the head from side to side is the: a. dens. b. spinous process. c. vertebral foramen. d. transverse process. U S N T O ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 254 TOP: Vertebrae 28. The adult skeleton is composed of bones. a. 206 b. 126 c. 80 d. 260 ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 233 TOP: Introduction 29. The bones of the middle ear are: a. considered part of the appendicular skeleton. b. considered part of the axial skeleton. c. not included in either group. d. There are no bones in the middle ear; it is composed only of cartilage. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 251 TOP: Divisions of the SkeletonAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank 30. The two bones of the face that are not paired are the: a. maxilla and mandible. b. maxilla and vomer. c. nasal and maxilla. d. mandible and vomer. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 250 TOP: Facial Bones 31. The palatine bone: a. makes up the side of the skull. b. completes the nasal septum. c. makes up part of the hard palate. d. makes up none of the above. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 248 TOP: Facial Bones 32. What is the only bone of the body that does not articulate with another bone? a. Vomer b. Palatine c. Ethmoid d. Hyoid ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 251 TOP: Hyoid Bone 33. The dens is part of the: a. sacrum. b. cervical vertebrae. c. lumbar vertebrae. d. thoracic vertebrae. NURSINGTB.COM ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 254 TOP: Vertebrae 34. The number of true pairs of ribs in the body is: a. 7. b. 12. c. 5. d. 3. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 257 TOP: Ribs 35. The sphenoid bone acts as the keystone for the cranium. Which bone acts as the keystone for the face? a. Mandible b. Zygomatic c. Maxilla d. NasalAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 246 TOP: Facial Bones 36. Which of the following is not associated with the vertebral column? a. Spinous process b. Vertebral foramen c. Dens d. All of the above are associated with the vertebral column. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 252 TOP: Vertebrae 37. The blunt cartilaginous lower tip of the sternum is called the: a. body. b. xiphoid process. c. manubrium. d. costal cartilage. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 257 TOP: Sternum 38. The floating ribs articulate with the: a. vertebrae. b. sternum. c. costal cartilage. d. Both A and C are correct. ANS: A DIF: Application REF: p. 257 TOP: Ribs NURSINGTB.COM 39. Which bone marking can be defined as a depression in a bone and often receives an articulating bone? a. Trochanter b. Fossa c. Foramen d. Ramus ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 236 TOP: Terms Used to Describe Bone Markings (Table 12-2) 40. Which bone marking can be defined as a curved portion of the bone? a. Trochanter b. Fossa c. Foramen d. Ramus ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 236 TOP: Terms Used to Describe Bone Markings (Table 12-2) 41. Which bone marking can be defined as a large bump for the attachment of muscles? a. Trochanter b. Fossa c. Foramen d. RamusAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 236 TOP: Terms Used to Describe Bone Markings (Table 12-2) 42. Which bone marking can be defined as a round hole in the bone through which vessels and nerves can pass? a. Trochanter b. Fossa c. Foramen d. Ramus ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 236 TOP: Terms Used to Describe Bone Markings (Table 12-2) 43. Which bone makes up the forehead and the anterior part of the calvaria? a. Occipital b. Frontal c. Parietal d. Temporal ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 243 TOP: Cranial Bones 44. The two bones that make up the bulging topside of the cranium are the: a. occipital bones. b. frontal bones. c. parietal bones. d. temporal bones. NURSINGTB.COM ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 243 TOP: Cranial Bones 45. Which bones make up the lower side of the cranium, part of its floor? a. Occipital b. Frontal c. Parietal d. Temporal ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 243 TOP: Cranial Bones 46. The mandible forms the only movable joint in the skull with the: a. temporal bone. b. maxilla. c. frontal bone. d. zygomatic bone. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 247 TOP: Facial Bones 47. The almost paper-thin bone that is shaped and sized similar to a fingernail and lies posterior and lateral to each nasal bone is the bone. a. zygomaticAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank b. lacrimal c. sphenoid d. ethmoid ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 247 TOP: Facial Bones 48. Which of the following is not found in the eye orbit? a. The eye b. Muscle of the eye c. Lacrimal apparatus d. All of the above are found in the eye orbit. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 250 TOP: Eye Orbits 49. Which of the following is not a true comparison of a fetal and adult skull? a. The face is a greater part of the skull in the adult. b. The skull is a larger proportion of the body in the adult. c. The skull of the fetus has fontanels, and the adult skull does not. d. All of the above are true. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 250 TOP: Fetal Skull 50. Between the manubrium and the xiphoid process is the: a. body of a true rib. b. radius in the arm. c. body of the sternum. d. fibula of the leg. NURSINGTB.COM ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 257 TOP: Sternum 51. Posteriorly convex curvatures of the spine include: a. thoracic and sacral curvatures. b. cervical and thoracic curvatures. c. cervical and sacral curvatures. d. thoracic and lumbar curvatures. ANS: A DIF: Application REF: p. 254 TOP: Spinal Curvatures 52. A newborn’s spine forms a continuous convex curve called a: a. secondary curvature. b. cervical curvature. c. primary curvature. d. lumbar curvature. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 255 TOP: Spinal Curvatures TRUE/FALSEAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank 1. The adult skeleton consists of about 206 separate bones. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 233 TOP: Introduction 2. The term margin, as it relates to bone markings, means a tubelike opening or channel. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 236 TOP: Terms Used to Describe Bone Markings (Table 12-2) 3. Bones of the appendicular skeleton form the brain case and vertebral column. ANS: F DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 234 TOP: Divisions of the Skeleton 4. The upper extremities and the lower extremities are subdivisions of the axial skeleton. ANS: F DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 234 TOP: Divisions of the Skeleton 5. Mastoiditis, if untreated, may lead to inflammation of the brain or of its coverings. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 258 TOP: Mastoiditis (Mechanisms of Disease) 6. The two maxillae together serve as the keystone in the architecture of the face. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 246 TOP: Facial Bones 7. The lacrimal bones contain oNpeUnRinSgsIfNorGthTeBte.aCr dOuMcts. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 247 TOP: Facial Bones 8. Just as the maxillae do, the mandible starts out as two separate bones. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 247 TOP: Facial Bones 9. Fontanels are immovable joints between skull bones. ANS: F DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 250 TOP: Fetal Skull 10. The hyoid is unique in that it is the only bone in the body that does not form a joint with any other bone. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 251 TOP: Hyoid Bone 11. The five sacral vertebrae remain separate until about 40 years of age; at that point they fuse to form one wedge-shaped bone. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 254 TOP: Sacrum and CoccyxAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank 12. Damage to the cribriform plate may also injure the olfactory nerves and cause a loss of the sense of smell. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 254 TOP: Cribriform Plate 13. The maxilla and the temporal bone form the only movable joint within the structure of the face. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 247 TOP: Facial Bones 14. The lacrimal bone contains grooves for the paranasal sinuses. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 247 TOP: Facial Bones 15. An immovable joint in the skull is called a fontanel. ANS: F DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 243 TOP: Cranial Bones 16. The blunt, cartilaginous lower tip of the sternum is called the xiphoid process. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 257 TOP: Sternum 17. There are five pairs of false ribs. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 257 TOP: Ribs N URSINGTB.COM 18. The posteriorly concave cervical and lumbar curvatures are sometimes called secondary curvatures. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 254 TOP: Spinal Curvatures 19. Costal cartilage provides cushions between the bodies of vertebrae. ANS: F DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 257 TOP: Sternum 20. The tubercle of each rib articulates with the vertebra’s body. ANS: F DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 257 TOP: Ribs 21. There are 12 pairs of ribs. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 257 TOP: Ribs 22. The floating ribs do not articulate with any other bones. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 257 TOP: RibsAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank 23. The floating ribs do not articulate with any other bones. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 257 TOP: Ribs 24. The number of bones in the skeleton is constant from person to person. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 233 TOP: Introduction 25. There are more bones in the appendicular skeleton than in the axial skeleton. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 234 TOP: Divisions of the Skeleton 26. Infectious material can accumulate in the air space within the mastoid bone, because it does not drain into the nose like other sinuses. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 258 TOP: Mastoiditis (Mechanisms of Disease) 27. The skull contains more than 25 bones. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 236 TOP: Skull 28. The face contains more boneNs thR an thIe cGraniBum..C M U S N T O ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 243 TOP: Skull 29. Most of the facial bones are single (unpaired) bones. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 243 TOP: Skull 30. The joint connecting the two parietal bones and the frontal bone is called the coronal suture. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 243 TOP: Cranial Bones 31. The cribriform plate is part of the sphenoid bone. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 246 TOP: Cribriform Plate (Box 12-1) 32. The sagittal suture joins the right and left parietal bones. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 249 TOP: Cranial BonesAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank 33. The dens is found on the first cervical vertebra, or atlas. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 254 TOP: Vertebrae 34. The dens are found on the second cervical vertebra, or axis. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 254 TOP: Vertebrae 35. The number of thoracic vertebra is the same as the number of ribs. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 257 TOP: Vertebral Column, Ribs 36. The xiphoid process and the manubrium are at opposite ends of the sternum. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 257 TOP: Sternum 37. The parietal bone is involved in three sutures—the lambdoidal, the squamous, and the coronal. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 243 TOP: Cranial Bones 38. The bones of the skull form only sutures (immovable joints), not movable joints. ANS: F DIF: MNemoRrizaItionG B.C M REF: p. 247 TOP: Facial Bones U S N T O 39. Although the mandible seems to be one bone, it is the result of a fusion of two bones in infancy. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 247 TOP: Facial Bones 40. The palatine bones have horizontal portions that are part of the hard palate. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 249 TOP: Facial Bones 41. The vomer bone forms immovable joints with four other bones—the sphenoid, the palatine, the ethmoid, and the frontal. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 250 TOP: Facial Bones 42. False ribs attach only to the thoracic vertebrae. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 257 TOP: RibsAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank 43. The frontal, parietal, temporal, and sphenoid bones are all considered cranial bones. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 243 TOP: Cranial Bones 44. The maxilla is the largest and strongest bone of the face. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 247 TOP: Facial Bones 45. The cheek is shaped by the zygomatic bone underlying it. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 247 TOP: Facial Bones 46. The skull is divided into two major divisions, the cranium and the brain case. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 243 TOP: Skull 47. The top of the skull is also called the calvaria. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 243 TOP: Cranial Bones 48. The frontal, sphenoid, and ethmoid bones all contain paranasal sinuses. ANS: T DIF: MNemoRrizaItionG B.C M REF: p. 243 TOP: Cranial Bones U S N T O 49. If you were examining the skull, the sphenoid and occipital bones would be less visible than the frontal and ethmoid bones. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 243 TOP: Cranial Bones 50. In a newborn, the face is a much smaller part of the skull than it is in an adult. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 250 TOP: Fetal Skull 51. The extrinsic muscles of the tongue attach to the base of the mandible. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 251 TOP: Hyoid Bone 52. All the bones of the vertebral column have a vertebral foramen except the bones that make up the coccyx. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 251 TOP: Vertebral Column MATCHINGAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank Match each bone with its location. a. Frontal b. Hyoid c. Mandible d. Maxillae e. Occipital f. Palatine g. Sphenoid h. Temporal i. Zygomatic 1. Neck bone 2. Upper jaw 3. Cheek bone 4. Lower jaw 5. Forehead 6. Contains middle and inner ear structures 7. Lower, posterior skull bone 8. Bat-shaped skull bone 9. Posterior of hard palate TOP: Facial Bones TOP: Cranial Bones TOP: Cranial Bones Match each bone with its corresponding bone marking. a. Ribs b. Sternum c. Vertebrae 10. Xiphoid process 11. Transverse process 12. Costal cartilage 1. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 251 TOP: Hyoid Bone 2. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 247 TOP: Facial Bones 3. ANS: I TOP: Facial Bones DIF: MNemUoRriSzaItioNnGTB.COM REF: p. 247 4. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 247 5. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 243 6. ANS: H TOP: Cranial Bones DIF: Memorization REF: p. 243 7. ANS: E DIF: Memorization REF: p. 243 8. ANS: G TOP: Cranial Bones DIF: Memorization REF: p. 245 9. ANS: F TOP: Facial Bones DIF: Memorization REF: p. 248Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank U S N T O 10. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 257 TOP: Sternum 11. ANS: C DIF: Application REF: p. 252 TOP: Vertebrae 12. ANS: A DIF: Application REF: p. 257 TOP: Ribs Match each term with its corresponding definition. a. Body b. False ribs c. Floating ribs d. Manubrium e. True rib f. Xiphoid process g. Costal cartilage 13. First seven pairs of ribs that attach directly to the sternum 14. Eleventh and twelfth ribs, which have no attachment to the sternum 15. Middle part of the sternum 16. Most superior part of the sternum 17. The blunt, cartilaginous lower tip of the sternum 18. The five pairs of ribs that do not attach directly to the sternum 19. The material that attaches the rib, directly or indirectly, to the sternum 13. ANS: E DIF: Application REF: p. 257 TOP: Ribs 14. ANS: C DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 257 TOP: Ribs 15. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 257 TOP: Sternum 16. ANS: D DIF: MNemoRrizaItionG B.C M TOP: Sternum REF: p. 257 17. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 257 TOP: Sternum 18. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 257 TOP: Ribs 19. ANS: G DIF: Memorization REF: p. 257 TOP: Sternum Match each bone marking term with its corresponding description. a. Condyle b. Trochanter c. Fossa d. Sinus e. Ramus f. Sulcus g. Foramen h. Fissure 20. A curved portion of a bone 21. Large bump for muscle attachment 22. Rounded bump; usually fits into a fossa of another bone 23. Long, cracklike hole for blood vessels and nerves 24. Cavity within a boneAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank 25. Depression; often receives an articulating bone 26. A groove or an elongated depression 27. Round hole for blood vessels and nerves 20. ANS: TOP: E Terms Used to DIF: Memorization Describe Bone Markings (Table 12-2) REF: p. 236 21. ANS: TOP: B Terms Used to DIF: Memorization Describe Bone Markings (Table 12-2) REF: p. 236 22. ANS: TOP: A Terms Used to DIF: Memorization Describe Bone Markings (Table 12-2) REF: p. 236 23. ANS: TOP: H Terms Used to DIF: Memorization Describe Bone Markings (Table 12-2) REF: p. 236 24. ANS: TOP: D Terms Used to DIF: Memorization Describe Bone Markings (Table 12-2) REF: p. 236 25. ANS: TOP: C Terms Used to DIF: Memorization Describe Bone Markings (Table 12-2) REF: p. 236 26. ANS: TOP: F Terms Used to DIF: Memorization Describe Bone Markings (Table 12-2) REF: p. 236 27. ANS: TOP: G Terms Used to DIF: Memorization Describe Bone Markings (Table 12-2) REF: p. 236 OTHER 1. Identify the two main divisions of the human skeleton, and list the total number of bones found in each division. ANS: Answers will vary. NURSINGTB.COM DIF: Memorization REF: p. 234 TOP: Divisions of the Skeleton 2. Describe the bones of the skull. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: p. 236 | p. 243 TOP: Skull 3. What is mastoiditis? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 258 TOP: Mastoiditis (Mechanisms of Disease) 4. Explain the clinical significance of the cribriform plate. ANS: Answers will vary.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 246 TOP: Cribriform Plate (Box 12-1) 5. Identify the special features of the skull. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 236 | p. 243 TOP: Skull 6. Describe the hyoid bone, including shape, location, and any unique features. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 251 TOP: Hyoid Bone 7. List all the major divisions of the vertebral column, including the number of individual vertebrae found in each division. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: pp. 251-255 TOP: Vertebral Column 8. Differentiate among true ribs, false ribs, and floating ribs. ANS: Answers will vary. N URSINGTB.COM DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 257 TOP: Ribs 9. What is the significance of a compression fracture of the vertebrae? ANS: Answers may vary DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 255 TOP: Spinal Curvatures ESSAY 1. The text says that 28 bones are in the skull; 8 bones form the cranium, and 14 bones form the face. That leaves 6 bones unaccounted for. What are these bones, and where are they found? ANS: Bones of the middle ear, in the temporal bone DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 235 TOP: Divisions of the SkeletonAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank Chapter 13: Appendicular Skeleton Patton: Anatomy and Physiology, 10th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The layman’s name for the clavicle is the: a. collarbone. b. kneecap. c. shinbone. d. elbow. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 264 TOP: Shoulder Girdle 2. The trochlea and capitulum can be described as: a. markings on the scapula. b. parts of the proximal end of the ulna. c. distal portions of the humerus. d. metacarpal bones. ANS: C DIF: Application REF: p. 264 TOP: Arm 3. The human hand has greater dexterity than the forepaw of any animal because of the freely movable joint of the: a. elbow. b. shoulder. c. wrist. d. thumb. NURSINGTB.COM ANS: D DIF: Application REF: p. 267 TOP: Hand 4. The ulna articulates proximally with the: a. carpal bones. b. humerus. c. scapula. d. None of the above is correct. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 267 TOP: Forearm 5. Metacarpal bones form the framework of the: a. wrist. b. hand. c. ankle. d. foot. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 267 TOP: Hand 6. The pisiform bone can be found in the: a. wrist.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank b. ankle. c. neck. d. skull. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 267 TOP: Hand 7. The structure above the pelvic inlet, which is bordered by muscle in the front and bone along the sides and back, is called the: a. pelvic brim. b. false pelvis. c. pelvic girdle. d. true pelvis. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 268 TOP: Pelvic Girdle 8. The anterior of the pelvic girdle is formed by the: a. sacrum. b. ilium. c. ischium. d. pubis. ANS: D DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 268 TOP: Pelvic Girdle 9. During childbirth, a baby passes through an imaginary plane called the: a. pelvic outlet. b. symphysis pubis. c. pelvic brim. d. ilium. NURSINGTB.COM ANS: A DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 271 TOP: Pelvic Girdle 10. The longest and heaviest bone in the body is the: a. tibia. b. fibula. c. coxal. d. femur. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 272 TOP: Thigh 11. A person with a fractured patella would expect discomfort in the: a. elbow. b. knee. c. head. d. ankle. ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 272 TOP: Thigh 12. Which of the following is not a tarsal bone? a. Cuneiform b. NavicularAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank c. Scaphoid d. Talus ANS: C DIF: Application REF: p. 274 TOP: Foot 13. Which of the following is not true? a. The pubic arch in the male is less than a 90-degree angle. b. The pelvic cavity is narrower in the male than in the female. c. The coccyx is less flexible in the male. d. All of the above are true. ANS: D DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 275 TOP: Skeletal Variations 14. Going from proximal to distal, the bones of the upper extremity are: a. metacarpals, carpals, ulna, and humerus. b. carpals, metacarpals, ulna, and humerus. c. humerus, radius, metacarpals, and carpals. d. humerus, radius, carpals, and metacarpals. ANS: D DIF: Application REF: p. 264 TOP: Upper Extremity 15. Going from proximal to distal, the bones of the lower extremity are: a. femur, tibia, carpals, and metacarpals. b. metacarpals, tarsals, femur, and tibia. c. femur, tibia, tarsals, and metatarsals. d. tarsals, metatarsals, femur, and tibia. ANS: C DIF: Application REF: p. 271 TOP: Lower Extremity NURSINGTB.COM 16. After the age of 50, the density of bone: a. levels off and maintains its composition, b. decreases slowly because of a shift in the remodeling activity. c. increases slowly because of a shift in the remodeling activity. d. decreases slowly because of changes in diet. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 264 TOP: Age Differences 17. Which of the following may cause skeletal variations? a. Inadequate supply of calcium and vitamin D b. Mechanical stress c. Age d. All of the above may cause skeletal variations ANS: D DIF: Application REF: p. 276 TOP: Skeletal Variations TRUE/FALSE 1. The shoulder girdle consists of only the scapula and the clavicle. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 276 TOP: Shoulder GirdleAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank 2. The humerus articulates proximally with the clavicle. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 264 TOP: Arm 3. Palpable bony landmarks are bones that can be touched and identified through the skin. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 264 TOP: Palpable Bone Landmarks (Box 13-2) 4. The only bone of the wrist that is evident from the outside is the lunate. ANS: F DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 273 TOP: Hand 5. Before childbirth, the symphysis pubis softens. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 267 TOP: Pelvic Girdle 6. The largest of the bones making up the innominate bone is the ischium. ANS: F DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 271 TOP: Pelvic Girdle 7. The patella is the largest sesamoid bone in the body. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 268 TOP: Thigh 8. One similarity between the stNruUcRtuSreIs oNfGthTeBfo.oCt aOnMd hand is the equivalent degrees of movement of both the thumb and the big toe. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 272 TOP: Foot 9. Young children’s bones have a greater risk of fracturing because of incompletely ossified bone. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 273 TOP: Cycle of Life: Skeletal System 10. Because of how the clavicle articulates with the scapula, all shoulder movements involve the sternoclavicular joint. ANS: T DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 277 TOP: Shoulder Girdle 11. The olecranon and coronoid fossae are markings of the scapula. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 264 TOP: Arm 12. Only the radius has a direct articulation with the bones of the wrist. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 264Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank TOP: Forearm 13. The wrist consists of six irregular carpal bones. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 267 TOP: Hand 14. The lesser trochanter is a marking of the tibia. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 267 TOP: Thigh 15. Both the tibia and fibula articulate with the femur. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 272 TOP: Leg 16. When the knee is flexed, the patella can be easily distinguished. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 273 TOP: Thigh 17. There are two arches of the foot—one lengthwise and one crosswise. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 273 TOP: Foot 18. An open fracture is also knowNn aRs aIcomGpouBn. d C fracMture. U S N T O ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 274 TOP: Mechanisms of Disease 19. The two bones of the lower arm are the ulna and radius, and the two bones of the lower leg are the tibia and fibula. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 277 TOP: Upper Extremity, Lower Extremity 20. The thumb has one less phalanx than the other fingers. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 264 | p. 268 TOP: Hand 21. The subpubic angle is wider in the male than it is in the female. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 267 TOP: Male-Female Skeletal Differences 22. The main difference between the male and female skeleton has to do with childbearing. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 275 TOP: Male-Female Skeletal DifferencesAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank 23. The ulna bone is on the thumb side of the forearm. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 275 TOP: Forearm 24. In the lower leg, the tibia is larger than the fibula. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 264 TOP: Leg 25. The shoulder girdle consists of the sternum, the clavicle, and the scapula. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 273 TOP: Upper Extremity MATCHING Match each bone with its corresponding bone marking. a. Femur b. Fibula c. Humerus d. Coxal e. Radius f. Scapula g. Tibia h. Ulna 1. Olecranon fossa 2. Acetabulum 3. Lateral malleolus 4. Semilunar notch 5. Medial malleolus 6. Glenoid cavity 7. Radial tuberosity 8. Greater trochanter NURSINGTB.COM 1. ANS: TOP: C Arm DIF: Memorization REF: p. 264 2. ANS: TOP: D Pelvic Girdle DIF: Memorization REF: p. 268 3. ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 273 TOP: Leg 4. ANS: H DIF: Application REF: p. 264 TOP: Forearm 5. ANS: G DIF: Application REF: p. 273 TOP: Leg 6. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 264 TOP: Shoulder Girdle 7. ANS: E DIF: Application REF: p. 264 TOP: Forearm 8. ANS: A DIF: Application REF: p. 273 TOP: Thigh OTHER 1. Beginning at the shoulder, name the bones in the upper extremity from proximal to distal.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank ANS: Humerus, ulna, radius, carpals, metacarpals, phalanges DIF: Memorization REF: p. 264 TOP: Upper Extremity 2. Beginning at the hip, name the bones of the lower extremity from proximal to distal. ANS: Femur, patella, tibia, fibula, tarsals, metatarsals, phalanges DIF: Memorization REF: p. 271 TOP: Lower Extremity 3. What is the clinical significance of palpable bony landmarks? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 273 TOP: Palpable Bone Landmarks ESSAY 1. A 10-year-old boy came into the emergency room with a painful knee joint. He had full range of motion but was in pain. The attending physician suspected a fracture and ordered an x-ray examination. What was the purpose of the x-ray evaluation? (Do not forget the epiphyseal growth plate.) ANS: Answers will vary. NURSINGTB.COM DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 273 TOP: Sports and Fitness: Chondromalacia Patellae (Box 13-1) 2. What are the differences between the male and female skeleton that have clinical importance? Explain your answer. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: pp. 275-276 TOP: Male-Female Skeletal Differences 3. Explain how age differences and environmental factors may cause skeletal variations. ANS: Answers may vary DIF: Application REF: p. 276 TOP: Skeletal VariationsAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank U S N T Chapter 14: Articulations Patton: Anatomy and Physiology, 10th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following is a true statement? a. Joints can be classified into five major categories. b. The functional classification of joints centers around the type of connective tissue that joins the bones together. c. The structural classification of joints centers around the type of connective tissue that joins the bones together. d. The structural classification of joints involves the degree of movement the joint permits. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 282 TOP: Classification of Joints 2. Which of the following is not an example of a fibrous joint? a. Symphyses b. Sutures c. Syndesmoses d. Gomphoses ANS: A DIF: Application REF: p. 282 TOP: Fibrous Joints (Synarthroses) 3. What are the unique joints thNat oRccurIbetGweeBn.thCe roMot of a tooth and the alveolar process of the mandible or maxilla? a. Symphyses b. Syndesmoses c. Gomphoses d. Synchondroses ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 282 TOP: Gomphoses 4. What are the most movable joints in the body? a. Symphyses b. Synovial c. Syndesmoses d. Synchondroses ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 284 TOP: Synovial Joints (Diarthroses) 5. In terms of structure, which type of articulation has a joint capsule? a. Fibrous b. Cartilaginous c. Synovial d. AmphiarthroticAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 284 TOP: Synovial Joints (Diarthroses) 6. In terms of function, which is considered an immovable joint? a. Synarthrosis b. Amphiarthrosis c. Diarthrosis d. All joints are movable. ANS: A DIF: Application REF: p. 282 TOP: Fibrous Joints (Synarthroses) 7. A condyloid joint is an example of a(n) joint. a. uniaxial b. biaxial c. multiaxial d. immovable ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 285 TOP: Types of Synovial Joints 8. Which joint allows for the widest range of movement? a. Gliding b. Saddle c. Ball and socket d. Hinge ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 286 TOP: Types of Synovial JointsNURSINGTB.COM 9. The pads of fibrocartilage located between the articulating ends of bones in some diarthroses are called: a. ligaments. b. menisci. c. bursae. d. synovial membranes. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 285 TOP: Structure of Synovial Joints 10. Menisci are: a. cords of dense, white, fibrous tissue. b. extensions of the periosteum. c. hyaline cartilage cushions. d. fibrocartilage pads. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 285 TOP: Structure of Synovial Joints 11. An example of a hinge joint is(are) the: a. head of the radius articulating with the ulna. b. interphalangeal joints. c. first metacarpal articulating with the trapezium.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank d. head of the humerus articulating with the scapula. ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 285 TOP: Types of Synovial Joints 12. The knee joint is an example of a joint. a. hinge b. ball and socket c. saddle d. gliding ANS: A DIF: Application REF: p. 285 TOP: Types of Synovial Joints 13. An example of a pivot joint is(are) the: a. head of the radius articulating with the ulna. b. first metacarpal articulating with the trapezium. c. humerus articulating with the scapula. d. interphalangeal joints. ANS: A DIF: Application REF: p. 285 TOP: Types of Synovial Joints 14. The distal end of the radius articulating with the carpal bones is an example of a joint. a. saddle b. gliding c. condyloid (ellipsoidal) d. pivot ANS: C DIF: Application REF: p. 286 TOP: Types of Synovial Joints 15. Which of the following is anNexUaRmSplIeNofGaTbBia.xiCalOjoMint? a. Pivot b. Hinge c. Ball and socket d. Condyloid ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 286 TOP: Types of Synovial Joints 16. A gliding joint is an example of a(n) joint. a. uniaxial b. biaxial c. multiaxial d. pivot ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 286 TOP: Types of Synovial Joints 17. Which joint allows for the most movement? a. Gliding b. Saddle c. Ball and socket d. Trochoid ANS: C DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 286 TOP: Types of Synovial JointsAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank 18. Moving a body part away from the medial plane of the body is called: a. adduction. b. abduction. c. flexion. d. extension. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 296 TOP: Abduction and Adduction 19. Kicking a football is accomplished by: a. pronation. b. adduction. c. extension. d. flexion. ANS: C DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 296 TOP: Angular Movements 20. Moving a part of the body forward is: a. protraction. b. elevation. c. inversion. d. depression. ANS: A DIF: Application REF: p. 297 TOP: Special Movements 21. The type of movement that increases the angle between body parts is: a. flexion. b. extension. c. adduction. d. abduction. NURSINGTB.COM ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 296 TOP: Extension and Hyperextension 22. Stretching the foot down and back and pointing the toe is called: a. plantar flexion. b. dorsiflexion. c. hyperextension. d. abduction. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 296 TOP: Plantar Flexion and Dorsiflexion 23. The type of movement that occurs when the head is dropped to the shoulder, then to the chest, to the other shoulder, and toward the back is: a. rotation. b. flexion. c. extension. d. circumduction. ANS: D DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 296 TOP: Circular MovementsAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank 24. Tilting the foot upward, decreasing the angle between the top of the foot and the front of the leg, is called: a. dorsiflexion. b. plantar flexion. c. extension. d. pronation. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 296 TOP: Plantar Flexion and Dorsiflexion 25. The rotator cuff muscles and tendons form a cufflike arrangement around the joint. a. shoulder b. hip c. knee d. ankle ANS: A DIF: Application REF: p. 287 TOP: Humeroscapular Joint 26. Vertebral bodies are connected together by the: a. ligamenta flava. b. ligamentum nuchae. c. posterior longitudinal ligament. d. intertransverse ligaments. ANS: C DIF: Application REF: p. 295 TOP: Vertebral Joints 27. The largest and most frequently injured joint is the: a. hip. b. knee. c. shoulder. d. ankle. NURSINGTB.COM ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 290 TOP: Knee Joint 28. Deterioration of the nucleus pulposus results in: a. “housemaid’s knee.” b. total hip replacement. c. osteoporosis. d. a “slipped disk.” ANS: D DIF: Application REF: p. 295 TOP: Vertebral Joints 29. Rotator cuff surgery is performed quite commonly on professional baseball players, especially pitchers. Evidently, the throwing motion places enormous stress on the: a. elbow. b. wrist. c. shoulder. d. hip. ANS: C DIF: Application REF: p. 287 TOP: Humeroscapular Joint 30. The glenoid labrum is a:Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank a. ligament that connects the humerus to the scapula. b. fibrocartilage that increases the depth of the glenoid cavity. c. hyaline cartilage cushion in the shoulder joint. d. bursa. ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 287 TOP: Humeroscapular Joint 31. The condition of “housemaid’s knee” is an inflammation of the: a. menisci. b. cruciate ligaments. c. synovial membrane. d. prepatellar bursa. ANS: D DIF: Application REF: p. 292 TOP: Knee Joint 32. All of the following are noninflammatory joint disorders except: a. dislocation. b. juvenile rheumatoid arthritis. c. osteoarthritis. d. All of the above are noninflammatory joint disorders. ANS: B DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 303 TOP: Mechanisms of Disease 33. Sutures can be found in the: a. skull and thorax. b. skull and hip bones. c. skull only. d. hip only. N URSINGTB.COM ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 282 TOP: Fibrous Joints (Synarthroses) 34. Gomphoses can be found in the: a. mandible. b. frontal bone. c. maxilla. d. Both A and C are correct. ANS: D DIF: Application REF: p. 282 TOP: Fibrous Joints (Synarthroses) 35. Synchondroses: a. have hyaline cartilage between articulating bones in a joint. b. are immovable joints. c. are found only in the skull. d. is another term for symphysis. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 283 TOP: Cartilaginous Joints (Amphiarthroses) 36. The occipital bone fitting into the atlas bone of the vertebrae is an example of a joint. a. pivot b. condyloidAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank N R I c. saddle d. gomphosis ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 286 TOP: Types of Synovial Joints 37. Which ligament is not part of the hip joint? a. Iliofemoral b. Subacromial c. Ischiofemoral d. Pubofemoral ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 290 TOP: Representative Synovial Joints 38. The ligamenta flava is located in the: a. shoulder. b. hip. c. knee. d. None of the above is correct. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 295 TOP: Representative Synovial Joints 39. The type of movement possible at a synovial joint depends on the: a. amount of synovial fluid in the joint. b. shape of the articulating surfaces of the bones. c. presence of bursae in the joint. G B.C M d. Both A and B are correct. U S N T O ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 295 TOP: Types and Range of Movement at Synovial Joints 40. The opposite of dorsiflexion is: a. dorsiextension. b. abduction. c. plantar flexion. d. none of the above. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 296 TOP: Angular Movements 41. The opposite of eversion is: a. protraction. b. depression. c. retraction. d. none of the above. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 297 TOP: Special Movements 42. A sprain causes damage to: a. ligaments.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank b. tendons. c. cartilage. d. all of the above. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 304 TOP: Mechanisms of Disease 43. The joint between the distal ends of the radius and ulna is an example of a joint. a. suture b. gomphosis c. syndesmosis d. synovial ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 282 TOP: Fibrous Joints (Synarthroses) 44. The periodontal membrane is associated with which type of joint? a. Gomphosis b. Suture c. Syndesmosis d. Synovial ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 282 TOP: Gomphoses 45. Which type of joint joins the two pubic bones together? a. Suture b. Synovial c. Synchondrosis d. Symphysis NURSINGTB.COM ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 284 TOP: Cartilaginous Joints (Amphiarthroses) 46. Which of the following structures does not characterize a synovial joint? a. Bursae b. Joint cavity c. Menisci d. All of the above structures characterize a synovial joint. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 285 TOP: Synovial Joints (Diarthroses) 47. Which of the following structures does not characterize a synovial joint? a. Joint capsule b. Articular cartilage c. Tendon d. All of the above structures characterize a synovial joint. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 285 TOP: Synovial Joints (Diarthroses) 48. Saddle joints in the body can be found between the:Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank a. tibia and the femur. b. thumb metacarpal and the trapezium in the wrist. c. humerus and the glenoid fossa. d. atlas and the occipital bone. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 285-286 TOP: Biaxial Joints 49. Which structure of a synovial joint is defined as a closed, pillowlike structure that consists of a synovial membrane filled with synovial fluid? a. Bursae b. Ligament c. Menisci d. Joint capsule ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 285 TOP: Structure of Synovial Joints 50. Which structure of a synovial joint is defined as a sleevelike extension of the periosteum? a. Bursae b. Ligament c. Joint cavity d. Joint capsule ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 284 TOP: Structure of Synovial Joints 51. Which structure of a synovia Nl joiRnt isIdeGfineBd.asCa sMtrong cord of dense, white, fibrous connective tissue? a. Bursae b. Ligament c. Menisci d. Joint capsule U S N T O ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 285 TOP: Structure of Synovial Joints 52. The olecranon bursa is associated with which joint? a. Hip b. Knee c. Elbow d. Shoulder ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 288 TOP: Elbow Joint 53. Which of the following ligaments do not support the vertebral joints? a. Anterior longitudinal ligaments b. Ligamenta flava c. Annular ligaments d. All of the above ligaments support the vertebral joints. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 295Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank N R I G TOP: Vertebral Joints 54. The epiphyseal plate between the epiphysis and diaphysis is an example of which type of joint? a. Suture b. Syndesmosis c. Synchondrosis d. Gomphosis ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 283 TOP: Synchondroses 55. Which joint allows for a unique movement called opposition? a. Saddle b. Pivot c. Hinge d. Condyloid ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 285-286 TOP: Saddle Joint 56. How many bursae are in the knee joint? a. 5 b. 7 c. 10 d. 13 ANS: D DIF: Memorization B.C M REF: p. 292 TOP: Knee Joint U S N T O 57. If a goniometer reads zero, it most likely indicates that the joint: a. is fully flexed. b. is in the anatomical position. c. has been injured and is somewhat dislocated. d. is hyperextended. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 296 TOP: Measuring Range of Motion TRUE/FALSE 1. An articulation is a point of contact between bones. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 282 TOP: Introduction 2. Sutures are found only in the skull. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 282 TOP: Sutures 3. A symphysis is a joint in which bones are connected by fibrous bands.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 284 TOP: Symphyses 4. Syndesmosis joints have hyaline cartilage at articular surfaces. ANS: F DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 283 TOP: Syndesmoses 5. Synchondrosis joints between the ribs and sternum allow for expansion of the chest cavity during breathing. ANS: F DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 283 TOP: Synchondroses 6. All synovial joints have an enclosed cavity with a lubricating fluid. ANS: T DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 285 TOP: Structure of Synovial Joints 7. Extensions of periosteum form a capsule around synovial joints. ANS: T DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 284 TOP: Structure of Synovial Joints 8. Menisci are found in all synovial joints. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 285 TOP: Structure of Synovial Joints 9. Menisci are pillowlike structures formed of synovial membranes filled with synovial fluid. ANS: F DIF: SyNnthe RsisI GREBF:.p.C28M5 TOP: Structure of Synovial Joints U S N T O 10. Hinge joints permit adduction and abduction. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 285 TOP: Types of Synovial Joints 11. The joint between the metatarsals and the phalanges is a hinge-type joint. ANS: T DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 285 TOP: Types of Synovial Joints 12. A pivot joint is a form of uniaxial joint. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 285 TOP: Types of Synovial Joints 13. Condyloid (ellipsoidal) joints are biaxial joints in which one bone fits into a depression on another bone. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 285 TOP: Types of Synovial Joints 14. The fibrocartilage pads between the articulating ends of bones may be called menisci. ANS: T DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 285 TOP: Structure of Synovial JointsAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank 15. A gliding joint is a form of uniaxial joint. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 285 TOP: Types of Synovial Joints 16. As a group, gliding joints are the least movable of the synovial joints. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 286 TOP: Types of Synovial Joints 17. Circumduction consists of pivoting a bone on its own axis. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 296 TOP: Rotation and Circumduction 18. A goniometer is an instrument used to measure the range of motion of a joint. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 296 TOP: Measuring Range of Motion 19. Total hip replacement is the most common orthopedic operation performed on older persons in the United States. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 304 TOP: Joint Replacement (Box 14-3) 20. Eversion turns the sole of the foot outward. ANS: T DIF: M NRUemori SzaItioNnGTB.COM TOP: Inversion and Eversion 21. When a man sticks out his jaw, he has protracted it. REF: p. 297 ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 297 TOP: Protraction and Retraction 22. The acetabulum is a deep, cuplike socket, whereas the glenoid cavity is shallow and saucer-shaped. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 290 TOP: Hip Joint 23. The hip joint permits flexion, extension, adduction, abduction, rotation, and circumduction. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 290 TOP: Hip Joint 24. The medial and lateral menisci form cushions for the head of the femur as it articulates with the acetabulum. ANS: F DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 290 TOP: Knee Joint 25. The anterior and posterior cruciate ligaments add stability to the knee joint.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 292 TOP: Knee Joint 26. Compared with the knee joint, the hip joint is relatively unprotected by surrounding muscles. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 290 TOP: Knee Joint 27. The hip joint is the largest and most vulnerable joint. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 290 TOP: Knee Joint 28. A “slipped disk” is the result of deterioration of the nucleus pulposus. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 295 TOP: Vertebral Joints 29. The joints between carpal bones are synarthrotic. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 294 TOP: Representative Synovial Joints 30. The type of arthritis associated with intemperate use of alcohol is rheumatoid arthritis. ANS: F DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 305 TOP: Mechanisms of Disease 31. An arthroscopy is an examination of joints with x-ray studies. ANS: F DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 304 TOP: Mechanisms of Disease 32. A joint must allow movemenNt bUeRtwSeIenNtGwTo Bbo.nCesOtoMbe called a joint. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 282 TOP: Introduction 33. All fibrous joints are completely fixed joints. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 282 TOP: Fibrous Joints (Synarthroses) 34. Flexibility of the tendons allows for some movement of syndesmotic joints. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 282 TOP: Fibrous Joints (Synarthroses) 35. Fontanels become sutures. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 282 TOP: Fibrous Joints (Synarthroses), Skull 36. During childbirth, the hyaline cartilage in the symphysis pubis allows for some slight movement. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 283Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank TOP: Cartilaginous Joints (Amphiarthroses) 37. The “joints” between the epiphyses and diaphysis in a developing bone can be classified as synchondrosis joints. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 282-283 TOP: Cartilaginous Joints (Amphiarthroses) 38. Most symphyses are located in the midline of the body. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 284 TOP: Cartilaginous Joints (Amphiarthroses) 39. The vertebral column contains both cartilaginous joints and synovial joints. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 284 TOP: Cartilaginous Joints (Amphiarthroses) 40. There are more synovial joints in the body than any other type of joint. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 284 TOP: Synovial Joints (Diarthroses) 41. The gomphosis joint is the most complex joint in the body. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 284 TOP: Synovial Joints (Diarthroses) 42. The elbow and the dens of thNeUaxRisSaIreNbGotThBpa.rtCoOfMa uniaxial joint. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 285 TOP: Types of Synovial Joints 43. The thumb contains the only saddle joint in the body—the joint between the metacarpal bone and the proximal phalange. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 285-286 TOP: Types of Synovial Joints 44. The shallowness of the glenoid cavity makes the shoulder a rather unstable joint. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: pp. 286-287 TOP: Representative Synovial Joints 45. The depth of the acetabulum gives stability to the hip joint. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 290 TOP: Representative Synovial Joints 46. Because of the instability of the glenoid cavity and humerus, one of the strongest ligaments in the body is found surrounding the shoulder. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 286-287Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank U S N T O TOP: Representative Synovial Joints 47. The iliofemoral ligament, which helps stabilize the hip, is one of the strongest ligaments in the body. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 290 TOP: Representative Synovial Joints 48. When a joint is in anatomical position, a goniometer should read 0. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 296 TOP: Measuring Range of Motion 49. If you are standing up and looking straight up toward the sky, your cervical spine will be hyperextended. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 296 TOP: Angular Movements 50. Plantar flexion is a movement that applies only to the hands and feet. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 296 TOP: Angular Movements 51. Arthroplasty is the total or partial replacement of a joint with a prosthesis. 52.5 ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 304 TOP: Joint Replacement (Box 14-3) N R I G B.C M It is recommended that joint replacement surgery be done on younger people rather than older 2 people because they are better able to tolerate the procedure. . ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 304 TOP: Joint Replacement (Box 14-3) 53. Plantar flexion of the foot can also be described as extension of the leg. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 296 TOP: Plantar Flexion and Dorsiflexion 54. Rotation and circumduction are interchangeable terms. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 296 TOP: Circular Movements 55. Twisting the forearm so that the thumb points medially is called supination. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 296 TOP: Circular Movements 56. The periodontal membrane is part of a fibrous joint. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 282 TOP: GomphosesAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank ANS: F U S N T O 57. Although sutures are classified as immovable joints, the flexibility of the ligaments holding the bone together do allow for some movement. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 282 TOP: Fibrous Joints (Synarthroses) 58. Ligaments are associated only with synovial joints. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 282 TOP: Fibrous Joints (Synarthroses) 59. Hyaline cartilage is associated only with synovial joints. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 282 TOP: Cartilaginous Joints (Amphiarthroses) 60. The only gomphosis joints in the body are found above the neck. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 282 TOP: Gomphoses 61. There is only one saddle joint in the body. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 285 TOP: Biaxial Joints 62. The humerus, the scapula, and the clavicle make up the joint usually referred to as the shoulder joint. N R I G B.C M DIF: Memorization REF: p. 287 TOP: Humeroscapular Joint 63. An example of a structural classification of a joint would be a fibrous joint. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 282 TOP: Classification of Joints 64. An example of a structural classification of a joint would be an amphiarthrotic joint. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 282 TOP: Classification of Joints 65. The structural classification of a joint describes the type of movement the joint allows. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 282 TOP: Classification of Joints 66. The periodontal membrane is associated with a gomphosis joint. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 282 TOP: Gomphoses 67. A spheroid joint is another name for a ball-and-socket joint.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank N R I ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 286 TOP: Multiaxial Joints 68. The glenoidal labrum is the part of the hip joint that reinforces the acetabulum. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 287 TOP: Humeroscapular Joint 69. The annular ligament is the ligament that helps connect the ulna and radius. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 288 TOP: Elbow Joint 70. The intercarpal joints occur at the points of articulation between the bones of the ankle. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 289 TOP: Intercarpal Joints 71. A sprained ankle is most often caused by a severe external rotation of the ankle joint. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 293 TOP: Ankle Joint 72. When a person is standing on her toes, dorsiflexion of the foot has occurred. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 296 TOP: Plantar Flexion and Dorsiflexion G B.C M U S N T O 73. A soldier standing at attention would have his arms fully adducted. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 296 TOP: Abduction and Adduction 74. Most of the symphysis joints in the body are in the appendicular skeleton. ANS: F DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 284 TOP: Symphyses 75. The ranking of joints from most movement to least movement would be synarthroses, amphiarthroses, and diarthroses. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 282 TOP: Classification of Joints 76. There are no gomphosis joints in the appendicular skeleton. ANS: T DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 282 TOP: Gomphoses 77. The true ribs form cartilaginous joints with the sternum. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 283 TOP: SynchondrosesAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank 78. A projection of one bone that articulates with a ring in another bone describes a condyloid joint. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 285 TOP: Pivot Joints 79. Ball-and-socket joints are multiaxial joints. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 286 TOP: Multiaxial Joints 80. The occipital bone’s joint with the atlas is an example of a condyloid joint. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 286 TOP: Condyloid Joints 81. The joints between the radius and carpal bones are examples of gliding joints. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 286 TOP: Condyloid Joints 82. Because hinge joints can be involved in both flexion and extension, they are considered biaxial joints. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 285 TOP: Uniaxial Joints 83. There are four bursae in the sNho uldeRUS rIj oint.GNT B.C OM ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 287 TOP: Humeroscapular Joint 84. A “pulled elbow” is more common in older adults, because the disk-shaped head of the radius begins to erode away. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 288 TOP: Elbow Joint 85. There are six categories of synovial joints between the bones of the forearm, wrist, hand, and fingers. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 288 TOP: Forearm, Wrist, Hand, and Finger Joints 86. Only the ulna articulates with the bones of the wrists. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 288 TOP: Radiocarpal Joint 87. The intercarpal joints are arranged in two rows of four bones each. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 289Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank TOP: Intercarpal Joints 88. The saddle joint allows for a unique movement called opposition. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 289 TOP: Carpometacarpal Joints 89. The gliding movement is the simplest of all movements. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 297 TOP: Gliding Movements 90. The terms inversion and eversion apply to movements of the hand. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 297 TOP: Inversion and Eversion 91. Closing one’s mouth would be an example of the movement of elevation. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 297 TOP: Elevation and Depression MATCHING Match each of the following terms with its main action. a. Abduction b. Adduction c. Extension d. Flexion e. Pronation f. Supination NURSINGTB.COM 1. Turn the hand palm posteriorly 2. Increase the angle of a joint 3. Move the bone away from midline 4. Decrease the angle of a joint 5. Turn the palm anteriorly 6. Move the part toward the midline 1. ANS: 2. ANS: TOP: E C Extension and DIF: Synthesis DIF: Application Hyperextension REF: REF: p. 296 p. 296 TOP: Supination and Pronation 3. ANS: A DIF: Application REF: p. 296 TOP: Abduction and Adduction 4. ANS: D DIF: Application REF: p. 296 TOP: Flexion 5. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 296 TOP: Supination and Pronation 6. ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 296 TOP: Abduction and Adduction Match each synovial joint structure term with its corresponding description. a. Articular cartilage b. Synovial membraneAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank U S N T O c. Joint cavity d. Menisci e. Joint capsule f. Ligaments g. Bursae 7. Thin layer of cartilage covering the articulating surfaces of the bones 8. Closed, pillowlike structures formed from synovial membrane 9. Small space between two articulating bones 10. Secretes a lubricating fluid into the joint capsule 11. Pads of fibrocartilage between articulating bones 12. Strong cords of dense white connective tissue that help stabilize a joint 13. Sleevelike extension of the periosteum of each of the articulating bones in a joint 7. ANS: TOP: A Structure of DIF: Memorization Synovial Joints REF: p. 285 8. ANS: TOP: G Structure of DIF: Memorization Synovial Joints REF: p. 285 9. ANS: TOP: C Structure of DIF: Memorization Synovial Joints REF: p. 285 10. ANS: TOP: B Structure of DIF: Memorization Synovial Joints REF: p. 285 11. ANS: TOP: D Structure of DIF: Memorization Synovial Joints REF: p. 285 12. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 285 TOP: Structure of Synovial Joints 13. ANS: E DIF: MNemoRrizaItionG B.C M TOP: Structure of Synovial Joints OTHER 1. Briefly describe how joints are classified. ANS: Answers will vary. REF: p. 284 DIF: Application REF: p. 282 TOP: Classification of Joints 2. Why is slight movement of the symphysis pubis necessary? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 284 TOP: Symphyses 3. List the structures that characterize synovial joints. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 284-285 TOP: Structure of Synovial JointsAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank 4. What purpose do ligaments serve? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 285 TOP: Structure of Synovial Joints 5. What is the function of bursae? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 285 TOP: Structure of Synovial Joints 6. Describe the anatomical structure of bursae. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: p. 285 TOP: Structure of Synovial Joints 7. Give an example of a ball-and-socket joint. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization N URSINGRTEBF:.C p.O28M6 TOP: Types of Synovial Joints 8. Differentiate among uniaxial, biaxial, and multiaxial joints. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: pp. 285-286 TOP: Types of Synovial Joints 9. What are joint mice? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: p. 303 TOP: Joint Mice (Box 14-2) 10. Describe the stability of the hip joint. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: p. 290 TOP: Hip Joint 11. Name and describe the three types of fibrous joints, and give a location of each type.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 282 TOP: Fibrous Joints (Synarthroses) 12. Name and describe the types of cartilaginous joints, and give a location of each type. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 282-284 TOP: Cartilaginous Joints (Amphiarthroses) 13. Define flexion and extension, and give an example of each. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 296 TOP: Angular Movements 14. Define abduction and adduction, and give an example of each. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 286 TOP: Abduction and Adduction 15. Define rotation and circumdu NUc tio RSn , a INnd GTgiv B.ean Ce O xaMmple of each. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 296 TOP: Rotation and Circumduction ESSAY 1. Ralph notices pain in his shoulder every time he reaches up high for things on a shelf. He informs his doctor, and she tells him that the small, fluid-filled sacs in his shoulder are inflamed. What condition does Ralph have, and what would the treatment be? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: pp. 284-285 | p. 287 TOP: Structure of Synovial Joints, Humeroscapular Joint 2. Dislocation of the hip can cause major damage to the hip joint, sometimes requiring surgical repair. Explain what the damage might be and why surgery might be required to repair the function of the joint.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 290 TOP: Hip Joint NURSINGTB.COMAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank Chapter 15: Axial Muscles Patton: Anatomy and Physiology, 10th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Skeletal muscles constitute approximately of our body weight. a. 10% b. 25% c. 50% d. 75% ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 311 TOP: Introduction 2. The connective tissue sheath that envelops bundles of muscle fibers is the: a. epimysium. b. endomysium. c. periosteum. d. perimysium. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 311 TOP: Connective Tissue Components 3. The covering of individual muscle fibers is the: a. epimysium. b. endomysium. c. periosteum. d. perimysium. NURSINGTB.COM ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 311 TOP: Connective Tissue Components 4. Groups of skeletal muscle fibers are bound together by a connective tissue envelope called the: a. endomysium. b. perimysium. c. epimysium. d. aponeurosis. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 311 TOP: Connective Tissue Components 5. An aponeurosis could be described as a: a. flat sheet of connective tissue connecting muscle to other structures. b. sheath that surrounds tendons. c. deep fascia that covers muscles. d. junction between a neuron and a muscle. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 311 TOP: Connective Tissue ComponentsAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank 6. Muscles that contract at the same time as the prime mover are called: a. synergists. b. fixators. c. antagonists. d. both A and B. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 314 TOP: Muscle Actions 7. Which of the following is not a component of a lever system? a. Fixator b. Bone c. Joint d. Pull ANS: A DIF: Application REF: p. 315 TOP: Lever Systems 8. The type of lever arrangement in which the pull is exerted between the fulcrum and resistance or weight to be moved is a -class lever. a. first b. second c. third d. fourth ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 316 TOP: Third-Class Levers 9. Muscles may be named accoNrdinRg toI: G B.C M a. function. b. direction of fibers. c. points of attachment. d. all of the above. U S N T O ANS: D DIF: Application REF: pp. 316-317 TOP: How Muscles Are Named 10. The sternocleidomastoid muscle is an example of a muscle named for its: a. function. b. number of attachments. c. size. d. points of attachment. ANS: D DIF: Application REF: p. 318 TOP: How Muscles Are Named 11. A muscle that assists with mastication is the: a. orbicularis oris. b. buccinator. c. platysma. d. masseter. ANS: D DIF: Application REF: p. 322 TOP: Muscles of Mastication 12. The muscle that draws the eyebrows together, producing vertical wrinkles above the nose (frowning), is called the:Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank a. epicranius. b. corrugator supercilii. c. orbicularis oculi. d. orbicularis oris. ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 322 TOP: Muscles of Facial Expression 13. Which of the following muscles has fibers on a transverse plane? a. Rectus abdominis b. External oblique c. Transverse abdominis d. Internal intercostals ANS: C DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 325 TOP: Trunk Muscles 14. Which of the following muscle(s) function(s) to protect the abdominal viscera? a. External oblique b. Internal oblique c. Transversus abdominis d. All of the above ANS: D DIF: Application REF: p. 325 TOP: Muscles of the Abdominal Wall 15. Which muscle(s) form(s) most of the pelvic floor? a. Levator ani b. Coccygeus c. Ischiocavernosus d. Both A and B NURSINGTB.COM ANS: A DIF: Application REF: p. 328 TOP: Muscles of the Pelvic Floor 16. Purposeful movement is determined by: a. the relationship of muscles to joints. b. how muscles are attached to the skeleton. c. the manner in which muscles are grouped. d. all of the above. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 311 TOP: Introduction 17. Which fibrous connective tissue structures have a lining of synovial membrane? a. Tendon sheaths b. Aponeuroses c. Fascicles d. Both B and C ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 311 TOP: Connective Tissue Components 18. A muscle is attached to the femur and the tibia. When the muscle contracts, the knee bends. That would mean that the:Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank a. tibia attachment is the origin. b. femur attachment is the insertion. c. tibia attachment is the insertion. d. Both A and B are correct. ANS: C DIF: Application REF: pp. 313-314 TOP: Attachment of Muscles 19. A muscle is attached to the femur and tibia. Its function or action is to bend the knee. When it contracts, it is acting as the: a. antagonist. b. prime mover. c. fixator. d. synergist. ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 314 TOP: Muscle Actions 20. The origin of a muscle is on the femur, and the insertion is on the tibia. When it contracts, it bends the knee. Which of the following is true? a. The knee is acting as a fulcrum. b. The movement is an example of a first-class lever. c. The movement is an example of a second-class lever. d. Both A and C are true. ANS: A DIF: Application REF: p. 315 TOP: Lever Systems 21. The origin of a muscle is on the femur, and the insertion is on the tibia. When it contracts, it bends the knee. Its fibers run parallel to the body. Which of the following terms might be part of its name? a. Extensor b. Abductor c. Flexor d. Adductor NURSINGTB.COM ANS: C DIF: Application REF: pp. 317-318 TOP: How Muscles Are Named 22. The origin of a muscle is on the femur, and the insertion is on the tibia. When it contracts, it bends the knee. Its fibers run parallel to the body. Which of the following terms might be part of its name? a. Rectus b. Oblique c. Femoris d. Both A and C ANS: D DIF: Application REF: pp. 316-317 TOP: How Muscles Are Named 23. There are more than skeletal muscles in the body. a. 1200 b. 900 c. 600 d. 1000 ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 311 TOP: IntroductionAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank 24. Another name for a skeletal muscle cell is a(n): a. muscle fiber. b. fascicle. c. aponeurosis. d. fascia. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 311 TOP: Connective Tissue Components 25. The rectus abdominal muscle is an example of a _ muscle. a. convergent b. parallel c. fusiform d. pennate ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 312 TOP: Size, Shape, and Fiber Arrangement 26. The brachioradialis muscle is an example of a muscle. a. convergent b. parallel c. fusiform d. pennate ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 312 TOP: Size, Shape, and Fiber Arrangement 27. The pectoralis major muscleNisUaR n a. convergent b. parallel c. fusiform d. pennate xIamNpGleToBf.aCOM muscle. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 312 TOP: Size, Shape, and Fiber Arrangement 28. The soleus muscle is an example of a muscle. a. convergent b. parallel c. fusiform d. pennate ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 312 TOP: Size, Shape, and Fiber Arrangement 29. Another name for a sphincter muscle is a muscle. a. spiral b. circular c. fusiform d. convergent ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 313Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank TOP: Size, Shape, and Fiber Arrangement 30. The most common type of lever in the body is a -class lever. a. first b. second c. third d. fourth ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 316 TOP: Lever Systems 31. Moving from superficial to deep, the connective tissue components would be: a. epimysium, perimysium, endomysium. b. endomysium, perimysium, epimysium. c. perimysium, epimysium, endomysium. d. perimysium, endomysium, epimysium. ANS: A DIF: Application REF: p. 311 TOP: Connective Tissue Components 32. The latissimus dorsi muscle is an example of a muscle. a. bipennate b. convergent c. spiral d. fusiform ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 313 TOP: Size, Shape, and Fiber Arrangement NURSINGTB.COM 33. Which of the following is not a group of pennate muscles? a. Bipennate b. Tripennate c. Multipennate d. All of the above are groups of pennate muscles. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 312 TOP: Size, Shape, and Fiber Arrangement 34. Which of the following statements is incorrect? a. The origin of the muscle is attached to the bone that does not move. b. The insertion of the muscle is attached to the bone that moves. c. When the muscle contracts, the insertion moves toward the origin. d. All of the above are correct. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 313-314 TOP: Attachment of Muscles 35. The prime mover can also be called the: a. antagonist. b. agonist. c. fixator. d. synergist.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 314 TOP: Muscle Actions 36. Which of the following statements about the muscles of the head is incorrect? a. They are paired muscles. b. They have different actions depending on whether one or both parts of the pair contract. c. The splenius capitis muscle is sometimes called the prayer muscle because it causes the head to bow. d. All of the above statements are correct. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 323 TOP: Muscles That Move the Head 37. Which of the following statements about the muscles of the thorax is incorrect? a. When the diaphragm contracts, it decreases the volume of the thoracic cavity and expels air from the lungs. b. The muscles of the thorax assist in respiration. c. The internal and external intercostal muscles have opposite effects on the ribs. d. All of the above statements are correct. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 323-324 TOP: Muscles of the Thorax 38. The trapezius muscle functions primarily to move the shoulders. However, when the occipital bone acts as the insertion, the trapezius can: a. bend and rotate the head toward the contracting side. b. help extend the neck. c. help flex the neck. NURSINGTB.COM d. return the head to the upright position after flexion. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 323 TOP: Muscles That Move the Head TRUE/FALSE 1. There are more than 600 muscles in the body. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 311 TOP: Introduction 2. When a muscle contracts, the bone moved is the bone of insertion. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 313 TOP: Attachment of Muscles 3. The insertion is that point of attachment that does not move when the muscle contracts. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 313 TOP: Attachment of Muscles 4. Tendons are continuous with the layer of connective tissue called the epimysium. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 311Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank TOP: Connective Tissue Components 5. The direction of the fibers composing a muscle is not significant to its function. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 317 TOP: Size, Shape, and Fiber Arrangement 6. Tipping the head back on its atlas is an example of a third-class lever. ANS: F DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 316 TOP: Lever Systems 7. Convergent muscles are said to be “featherlike” in appearance. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 312 TOP: Size, Shape, and Fiber Arrangement 8. Muscles usually act singly as a prime mover. ANS: F DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 314 TOP: Muscle Actions 9. In a lever system, the fixed pivot around which the rod moves is called the fulcrum. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 315 TOP: Lever Systems 10. A set of scales and a pair of scissors are both examples of second-class levers. ANS: F DIF: SyNnthe RsisI GREBF:.p.C31M6 TOP: Second-Class Levers U S N T O 11. The gluteus muscles are examples of muscles that are named by location. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 316 TOP: How Muscles Are Named 12. In muscle terminology, the term rectus means straight. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 317 TOP: How Muscles Are Named 13. Muscles usually originate distal to the point of insertion. ANS: F DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 314 TOP: Hints on How to Deduce Muscle Actions 14. The muscles of facial expression are unique in that at least one of their points of attachment is to the deep layers of skin over the face or neck. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 321 TOP: Muscles of Facial Expression 15. Contraction of the internal intercostal muscles elevates the ribs.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank ANS: F DIF: Application REF: pp. 323-324 TOP: Muscles of the Thorax 16. Just as individual bones are the organs of the skeletal system, individual muscles are the organs of the muscular system. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 311 TOP: Skeletal Muscle Structure 17. Muscle cells and muscle fibers are interchangeable terms. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 311 TOP: Connective Tissue Components 18. Groups of muscle cells held together by the perimysium are called fascia. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 311 TOP: Connective Tissue Components 19. Tendons and aponeuroses are both fibrous tissue extending from a muscle. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 311 TOP: Connective Tissue Components 20. Fascia is another term for epimysium. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 311 TOP: Connective Tissue Components 21. Fascia is a general term for tNheUfRibSroIusNcGoTnnBe. ctiCve OtMissue found under the skin and around muscle. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 311 TOP: Connective Tissue Components 22. The skeletal muscles are unique because they are the only organs made up of one kind of tissue. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 311 TOP: Size, Shape, and Fiber Arrangement 23. Most muscles span a joint. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 313 TOP: Attachment of Muscles 24. Muscle can have only one origin attachment and one insertion attachment. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 313 TOP: Attachment of Muscles 25. That which is considered the origin and insertion of a muscle may change under certain circumstances.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank U S N T O ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 313-314 TOP: Attachment of Muscles 26. Agonists and prime movers are interchangeable terms. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 314 TOP: Muscle Actions 27. Antagonist muscles oppose the movement of the agonist muscle. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 314 TOP: Muscle Actions 28. First- and second-class levers are not as common in the body as third-class levers. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 316 TOP: Lever Systems 29. The two parts of the epicranium are connected by an aponeurosis. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 322 TOP: Muscles of Facial Expression 30. No muscles are both muscles of facial expression and muscles of mastication. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 322 TOP: Muscles of Facial ExpreNssioRn, MIuscG les oBf M.CasticMation 31. If one of the sternocleidomastoid muscles contracts, it causes a different movement than if both of them contract. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 323 TOP: Muscles That Move the Head 32. The two muscle layers of the anterior and lateral abdominal wall have fibers running in different directions. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 325 TOP: Muscles of the Abdominal Wall 33. Movement is one of the most distinctive and easily observed “characteristics of life.” ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 311 TOP: Introduction 34. The fascia found on the surface of the muscle is called the superficial fascia. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 311 TOP: Connective Tissue Components 35. Tendons anchor muscles to bone by attaching to the periosteum of the bone.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank U S N T O ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 311 TOP: Connective Tissue Components 36. The difference between a tendon and an aponeurosis is that a tendon is composed of connective tissue and an aponeurosis is composed of muscle tissue. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 311 TOP: Connective Tissue Components 37. If a muscle causes the knee to bend, the insertion point is above the knee and the origin point is below the knee. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: pp. 313-314 TOP: Attachment of Muscles 38. If a muscle causes the knee to bend, the origin point is above the knee and the insertion point is below the knee. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: pp. 313-314 TOP: Attachment of Muscles 39. Fixator muscles would most likely be found at the origin points of muscles rather than at the insertion points of muscles. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: pp. 313-314 TOP: Attachment of Muscles, Muscle Actions 40. In a first-class lever, the fulcrum lies between the pull and the load. ANS: T TOP: Lever Systems N R I G B.C M DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 315-316 41. In a second-class lever, the pull is exerted between the fulcrum and the load. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 316 TOP: Lever Systems 42. There are more than twice as many muscles as there are bones in the body. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 311 TOP: Introduction 43. Circular muscles are sometimes called sphincter muscles. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 313 TOP: Size, Shape, and Fiber Arrangement 44. The rectus abdominis is an example of a bipennate muscle. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 312 TOP: Size, Shape, and Fiber Arrangement 45. The deltoid muscle is an example of a multipennate muscle.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 312 TOP: Size, Shape, and Fiber Arrangement 46. The latissimus dorsi muscle is an example of a fusiform muscle. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 312 TOP: Size, Shape, and Fiber Arrangement 47. The epimysium is deep to the perimysium. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 311 TOP: Connective Tissue Components 48. A fixator muscle can be seen as another type of synergist muscle. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 314 TOP: Muscle Actions 49. The deltoid is an example of a muscle named by its shape. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 317 TOP: How Muscles Are Named 50. The sternocleidomastoid muscle is an example of a muscle named by the number of heads. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 318 TOP: How Muscles Are Named 51. Muscles make up about 30%NtoU4R0S%IoNf GouTrBbo.dCyOwMeight. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 311 TOP: Introduction 52. A group of skeletal muscle fibers is called a fascicle. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 311 TOP: Connective Tissue Components 53. Tendon sheaths that surround certain tendons have a lining of slick epithelial membrane that reduces friction. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 311 TOP: Connective Tissue Components 54. The pectoralis major is an example of a convergent muscle. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 312 TOP: Size, Shape, and Fiber Arrangement 55. The sartorius is an example of a unipennate muscle. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 312 TOP: Size, Shape, and Fiber ArrangementAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank 56. To stabilize a joint, the antagonist must contract while the prime mover contracts. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 314 TOP: Muscle Actions 57. A synergist muscle can be defined as a muscle that facilitates or complements the prime mover. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 314 TOP: Muscle Actions 58. When a muscle contracts, the part of the body that moves is directly under the belly of the muscle. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 315 TOP: Lever Systems 59. When a muscle contracts, the part of the body that moves is usually distal to the belly of the muscle. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 315 TOP: Lever Systems 60. Muscles are sometimes named to reflect their function. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 317 TOP: How Muscles Are NameNd URSINGTB.COM 61. The occipitofrontalis muscle is actually three muscles. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 322 TOP: Muscles of Facial Expression 62. The orbicularis oris surrounds the eye and allows you to blink. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 322 TOP: Muscles of Facial Expression 63. The masseter and temporalis muscle are muscles of mastication that have opposite functions. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 322 TOP: Muscles of Mastication 64. The muscles that move the head are paired muscles on opposite sides of the body. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 323 TOP: Muscles That Move the Head 65. During inspiration, the diaphragm contracts and flattens, which increases the size of the thoracic cavity allowing air to enter the lungs.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 323-324 TOP: Muscles of the Thorax 66. The internal oblique muscle is the deepest muscle in the abdominal wall. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 325 TOP: Muscles of the Abdominal Wall 67. The linea alba is a band of connective tissue that runs over the rectus abdominis from the xiphoid process to the pubis. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 325 TOP: Muscles of the Abdominal Wall 68. Both the interspinales and the multifidus groups are muscles of the back. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 327 TOP: Muscles of the Back 69. The two levator ani and coccygeus muscles form most of the pelvic floor. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 328 TOP: Muscles of the Pelvic Floor 70. The main function of the trapezius muscle is to move the scapulae. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 323 TOP: Muscles That Move theNHeaRd I G B.C M U S N T O MATCHING The following features are used in the naming of muscles. Match each feature with the muscles named by that feature. a. Location b. Function c. Shape d. Direction of fibers e. Number of heads or divisions f. Points of attachment 1. Triceps 2. Rectus 3. Adductors 4. Brachialis 5. Deltoid 6. Sternocleidomastoid 1. ANS: E DIF: Application REF: p. 318 TOP: How Muscles Are Named 2. ANS: D DIF: Application REF: p. 317 TOP: How Muscles Are Named 3. ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 317 TOP: How Muscles Are Named 4. ANS: A DIF: Application REF: pp. 316-317 TOP: How Muscles Are NamedAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank U S N T O 5. ANS: C DIF: Application REF: p. 317 TOP: How Muscles Are Named 6. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 318 TOP: How Muscles Are Named Match each muscle with the corresponding description of its action. a. Buccinator b. Corrugator supercilii c. Epicranius d. Orbicularis oculi e. Pterygoid f. Sternocleidomastoid 7. Draw(s) the eyebrows together, producing vertical wrinkles (frowning) 8. Cause(s) sideways movement during mastication 9. Create(s) smile expression 10. Raise(s) the eyebrows (surprise) 11. Flex(es) the head (prayer muscle) 12. Close(s) the eye 7. ANS: TOP: B Muscles of DIF: Memorization Facial Expression REF: p. 322 8. ANS: TOP: E Muscles of DIF: Memorization Mastication REF: p. 316 9. ANS: TOP: A Muscles of DIF: Application Facial Expression REF: p. 322 10. ANS: C DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 322 TOP: Muscles of Facial Expression 11. ANS: F DIF: MNemoRrizaItionG B.C M TOP: Muscles that Move the Head REF: p. 323 12. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 322 TOP: Muscles of Facial Expression Match each term with its corresponding description. a. Antagonists b. Fixators c. Prime movers d. Synergists 13. Muscles that directly oppose prime movers 14. Muscles that play the major role in accomplishing a particular movement 15. Muscles that contract at the same time as the prime mover, producing a more effective movement 16. Muscles that help maintain posture or balance during contraction of muscles acting on joints in the arms and legs 13. ANS: A DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 314 TOP: Muscle Actions 14. ANS: C DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 314 TOP: Muscle Actions 15. ANS: TOP: D Muscle DIF: Actions Memorization REF: p. 314 16. ANS: TOP: B Muscle DIF: Actions Memorization REF: p. 314Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank U S N T O Match each body location with its corresponding muscle. a. Neck b. Back c. Chest d. Abdominal wall e. Shoulder f. Arm g. Forearm h. Buttocks i. Thigh j. Leg 17. Gluteus maximus 18. Biceps brachii 19. Trapezius 20. Pectoralis major 21. Adductor magnus 22. Pronator teres 23. External oblique 24. Deltoid 25. Sternocleidomastoid 26. Gastrocnemius 17. ANS: H DIF: Application REF: p. 317, Table 15-2 TOP: How Muscles Are Named 18. ANS: F DIF: A N pplicRatioIn GREBF:.p.C31M7, Table 15-2 TOP: How Muscles Are Named 19. ANS: TOP: B How Muscles DIF: Application Are Named REF: p. 317, Table 15-2 20. ANS: TOP: C How Muscles DIF: Application Are Named REF: p. 317, Table 15-2 21. ANS: TOP: I How Muscles DIF: Application Are Named REF: p. 317, Table 15-2 22. ANS: TOP: G How Muscles DIF: Application Are Named REF: p. 317, Table 15-2 23. ANS: TOP: D How Muscles DIF: Application Are Named REF: p. 317, Table 15-2 24. ANS: TOP: E How Muscles DIF: Application Are Named REF: p. 317, Table 15-2 25. ANS: TOP: A How Muscles DIF: Application Are Named REF: p. 317, Table 15-2 26. ANS: TOP: J How Muscles DIF: Application Are Named REF: p. 317, Table 15-2 Match each term with its corresponding description. a. Endomysium b. Tendon c. Epimysium d. Aponeurosis e. FasciaAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank U S N T O f. Perimysium g. Tendon sheath h. Fascicles 27. Tube-shaped structure of fibrous connective tissue 28. Delicate connective tissue that covers muscle cells 29. Connective tissue that bonds fascicles together 30. Tough connective tissue cord connecting muscle to the periosteum of a bone 31. Below the skin, it is called “superficial”; surrounding the muscle, it is called “deep” 32. Broad, flat sheet of tendonlike connective tissue 33. Coarse connective tissue that covers the entire muscle 34. Groups of skeletal muscle fibers 27. ANS: TOP: G Connective DIF: Memorization Tissue Components REF: p. 311 28. ANS: TOP: A Connective DIF: Memorization Tissue Components REF: p. 311 29. ANS: TOP: F Connective DIF: Memorization Tissue Components REF: p. 311 30. ANS: TOP: B Connective DIF: Memorization Tissue Components REF: p. 311 31. ANS: TOP: E Connective DIF: Memorization Tissue Components REF: p. 311 32. ANS: TOP: D Connective DIF: Memorization Tissue Components REF: p. 311 33. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 311 TOP: Connective Tissue ComN poneRntsI G B.C M 34. ANS: H DIF: Memorization REF: p. 311 TOP: Connective Tissue Components OTHER 1. Differentiate among the endomysium, perimysium, and epimysium. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 311 TOP: Connective Tissue Components 2. Define the terms insertion and origin, in relation to muscle movement. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 313 TOP: Attachment of Muscles 3. What is the “optimum angle of pull”? ANS: Answers will vary.DIF: Memorization REF: p. 315 TOP: Assessing Muscle Strength 4. Name and describe three of the six muscle shapes discussed in this chapter. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: pp. 312-313 TOP: Size, Shape, and Fiber Arrangement 5. Explain how muscles and the movement of the body help maintain stability or homeostasis. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: pp. 310-311 TOP: Introduction 6. Name and explain the three types of levers. Which type is the most common in the body? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 315-316 TOP: Lever Systems 7. Explain the way in which you could deduce the action of a muscle. ANS: Answers will vary. N URSINGTB.COM DIF: Memorization REF: p. 319 TOP: Hints on How to Deduce Muscle Actions 8. Describe or explain the following terms describing muscle action: prime mover, antagonist, synergist, and fixator. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 314 TOP: Muscle Actions 9. Name four features that are used in the naming of muscles. Give an example of each. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: pp. 316-318 TOP: How Muscles Are Named ESSAY1. Imagine that a new, unnamed muscle has been discovered. It inserts into the posterior aspect of the tibia and originates from two points in the center of the femur. Its fibers run parallel to the femur. Give a name to the muscle, and explain its function. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: pp. 317-318 TOP: How Muscles Are Named NURSINGTB.COMAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank ANS: B U S N T O Chapter 16: Appendicular Muscles Patton: Anatomy and Physiology, 10th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following muscles does not move the upper arm? a. Pectoralis major b. Latissimus dorsi c. Deltoid d. Trapezius ANS: D DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 336 TOP: Muscles That Move the Arm 2. All of the following muscles are part of the rotator cuff muscles except the: a. deltoid. b. infraspinatus. c. supraspinatus. d. teres minor. ANS: A DIF: Application REF: p. 337 TOP: Muscles That Move the Arm 3. The teres major and teres minor muscles move the: a. forearm. b. arm. c. shoulder. d. wrist. N R I G B.C M DIF: Application REF: p. 336, Table 16-2 TOP: Muscles That Move the Arm 4. The muscle that allows the thumb to be drawn across the palm to touch the tip of any finger is the: a. extensor digitorum. b. opponens pollicis. c. palmaris longus. d. flexor carpi radialis. ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 338 TOP: Muscles That Move the Wrist, Hand, and Fingers 5. The muscle that raises or lowers the shoulders or shrugs them is the: a. deltoid. b. latissimus dorsi. c. trapezius. d. pectoralis minor. ANS: C DIF: Application REF: p. 334 TOP: Muscles Acting on the Shoulder Girdle 6. The muscle that extends and adducts the arm is the: a. deltoid.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank b. latissimus dorsi. c. trapezius. d. pectoralis minor. ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 336, Table 16-2 TOP: Muscles That Move the Arm 7. The posterior arm muscle that extends the forearm is the: a. biceps brachii. b. triceps brachii. c. supinator. d. brachialis. ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 341, Table 16-3 TOP: Muscles That Move the Forearm 8. The muscle that flexes the semipronated or semisupinated forearm is the: a. biceps brachii. b. brachialis. c. brachioradialis. d. triceps brachii. ANS: C DIF: Application REF: p. 341, Table 16-3 TOP: Muscles That Move the Forearm 9. Muscles that move the upper arm originate on the: a. ulna and humerus. b. clavicle and scapula. c. humerus. d. ulna and radius. NURSINGTB.COM ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 336 TOP: Muscles That Move the Arm 10. In pushing (pressing) a weight from shoulder height to above the head, which of the following muscles is least utilized? a. Triceps brachii b. Biceps brachii c. Deltoid ANS: B DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 336 | p. 341 TOP: Muscles That Move the Arm, Muscles That Move the Forearm 11. The muscle(s) assisting in rotating the arm outward is (are) the: a. teres minor. b. latissimus dorsi. c. supraspinatus. d. All of the above are correct. ANS: A DIF: Application REF: p. 336 TOP: Muscles That Move the Arm 12. The action of the brachialis muscle is to the forearm. a. flex b. extendAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank c. pronate d. supinate ANS: A DIF: Application REF: p. 341 TOP: Muscles That Move the Forearm 13. The flexor muscles that move the fingers are mostly located on the: a. anterior lateral surface of the forearm. b. anterior medial surface of the forearm. c. posterior surface of the forearm. d. posterior surface of the hand. ANS: B DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 337 TOP: Muscles That Move the Wrist, Hand, and Fingers 14. Which of the following is not a muscle that moves the thigh? a. Adductor longus b. Gracilis c. Iliopsoas d. Sacrospinalis ANS: D DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 345 TOP: Muscles That Move the Thigh 15. Which of the following is not a muscle of the quadriceps femoris group? a. Rectus femoris b. Biceps femoris c. Vastus medialis d. Vastus intermedius NURSINGTB.COM ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 345 TOP: Muscles That Move the Thigh 16. When an athlete injures a muscle of the hamstring group, the injury is on the: a. upper arm. b. posterior lower leg. c. posterior thigh. d. anterior thigh. ANS: C DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 347 TOP: Muscles That Move the Thigh 17. Which of the following is not a muscle that moves the foot? a. Sartorius b. Peroneus longus c. Tibialis anterior d. Soleus ANS: A DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 351 TOP: Muscles That Move the Ankle and Foot 18. Muscles located on the lower leg move the: a. thigh.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank b. hip. c. knee. d. foot. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 341 TOP: Muscles That Move the Ankle and Foot 19. Which of the following body systems assists the muscles in maintaining posture? a. Digestive b. Endocrine c. Excretory d. All of the above ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 353 TOP: How Posture Is Maintained 20. Which of the following is not a posterior muscle that acts on the shoulder girdle? a. Trapezius b. Pectoralis minor c. Levator scapulae d. Rhomboideus ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 334 TOP: Muscles Acting on the Shoulder Girdle TRUE/FALSE 1. The deltoid is an example ofNaUmRulStiI fuNncGtiTonBm.uCsO cle M. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 334 TOP: Muscles That Move the Arm 2. Intrinsic foot muscles are responsible for movement of the ankle and foot. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 341 TOP: Muscles That Move the Ankle and Foot 3. The Achilles tendon is common to both the gastrocnemius and the soleus. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 341 TOP: Muscles That Move the Ankle and Foot 4. The soleus muscle is responsible for plantar flexion. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 351 TOP: Muscles That Move the Ankle and Foot 5. The gastrocnemius and soleus muscles act as antagonists. ANS: F DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 351 TOP: Muscles That Move the Ankle and FootAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank 6. The maintenance of body posture depends only on skeletal muscles and bones. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 353 TOP: How Posture Is Maintained 7. Muscles maintain posture by the property of tonicity. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 352 TOP: How Posture Is Maintained 8. The circulatory system is responsible for muscle tone. ANS: F DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 353 TOP: How Posture Is Maintained 9. Poor posture puts abnormal strain on bones and may eventually produce deformities. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 353 TOP: How Posture Is Maintained 10. With aging, connective tissue replaces some muscle fibers, causing decreased muscle strength. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 353 TOP: Cycle of Life: Muscular System 11. The respiratory, digestive, circulatory, excretory, and endocrine systems all contribute to the ability of muscles to maintain posture. ANS: T DIF: AN pp licaRU tionIS NGRTEBF:.C p.O35M3 TOP: How Posture Is Maintained 12. To give stability to the shoulder, both the clavicle and scapula have very limited movement. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 337 TOP: Muscles Acting on the Shoulder Girdle 13. Both the pectoralis minor and the serratus anterior help hold or “fix” the scapula in place. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 334 TOP: Muscles Acting on the Shoulder Girdle 14. Lumbrical muscles are examples of intrinsic muscles of the hand. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 338 TOP: Muscles That Move the Wrist, Hand, and Fingers 15. Muscles that move the forearm are found proximal to the elbow. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 341 TOP: Muscles That Move the Forearm 16. Extrinsic muscles of the hand originate in the wrist. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 338Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank TOP: Muscles That Move the Wrist, Hand, and Fingers 17. Muscles that move the thigh and lower leg can be divided into two groups, muscles that come from the hips and those that come from the gluteal muscles. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 341 TOP: Muscles That Move the Thigh and Leg 18. Four muscles, the deltoid, supraspinatus, infraspinatus, and teres minor, make up what is called the rotator cuff around the shoulder. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 334 | p. 337 TOP: Muscles That Move the Arm OTHER 1. What is tenosynovitis, and how is it caused? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 339 TOP: Carpal Tunnel Syndrome (Box 16-2) 2. Explain how, during sleep, the muscles of the throat relax and can allow the muscles to partially close the airway, causing sleep apnea. ANS: Answers will vary. NURSINGTB.COM DIF: Application REF: pp. 352-353 TOP: How Posture Is Maintained ESSAY 1. A nurse is preparing an injection for Amy. The amount of medication to be injected is 2 mL. What area of Amy’s body will the nurse most likely select for this injection, and why? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 349 TOP: Intramuscular Injections (Box 16-3)Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank Chapter 17: Muscle Contraction Patton: Anatomy and Physiology, 10th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following is not one of the major functions of muscles? a. Movement b. Protection c. Heat production d. Posture ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 357 TOP: General Functions 2. The plasma membrane of a muscle fiber is called the: a. sarcolemma. b. myofibril. c. sarcoplasm. d. sarcomere. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 357 TOP: Overview of Muscle Cells 3. Bundles of fine fibers that extend lengthwise along muscle fibers are called: a. myofibrils. b. myofilaments. c. striae. d. sarcoplasmic reticulum. NURSINGTB.COM ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 359 TOP: Overview of Muscle Cells 4. The smallest contractile unit of muscle is a: a. fiber. b. myofibril. c. sarcomere. d. myofilament. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 359-360 TOP: Overview of Muscle Cells 5. muscle is also known as striated muscle. a. Smooth b. Skeletal c. Involuntary d. Visceral ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 359 TOP: Overview of Muscle Cells 6. The ability of muscle cells to respond to nerve stimuli is called:Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank a. irritability. b. contractility. c. extensibility. d. elasticity. ANS: A DIF: Application REF: p. 357 TOP: Function of Skeletal Muscle Tissue 7. In the structure called a triad, the T-tubule is sandwiched between: a. actin filaments. b. myofibrils. c. sarcolemmas. d. sacs of sarcoplasmic reticulum. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 358 TOP: Overview of Muscle Cells 8. The chief function of the T-tubules is to: a. provide nutrients to the muscle fiber. b. allow for the fiber to contract. c. allow for electrical signals to move deeper into the cell. d. allow for the generation of new muscle fibers. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 357-358 TOP: Overview of Muscle Cells 9. Which of the following proteins found in myofilaments contains the cross-bridges? a. Myosin b. Actin c. Tropomyosin d. Troponin NURSINGTB.COM ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 361 TOP: Myofilaments 10. The protein molecule that has heads jutting out for cross-bridging is: a. actin. b. myosin. c. troponin. d. tropomyosin. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 361 TOP: Myofilaments 11. Thick myofilaments extend the length of the: a. A-band. b. Z-line. c. I-band. d. None of the above are correct. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 361 TOP: MyofilamentsAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank 12. The neurotransmitter(s) secreted at the motor end plates of skeletal muscles is (are): a. dopamine. b. norepinephrine. c. acetylcholine. d. any of the above. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 361 TOP: Excitation of the Sarcolemma 13. The first event to occur in muscle relaxation is that: a. tropomyosin returns to its original position. b. myosin cross-bridges are prevented from binding to actin. c. the sarcoplasmic reticulum begins actively pumping calcium back into its sacs. d. acetylcholine is released. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 365 TOP: Relaxation 14. The ion necessary for cross-bridging is: a. iron. b. sodium. c. potassium. d. calcium. ANS: D DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 365 TOP: Relaxation 15. The purpose of creatine phosphate in muscle contraction is to: a. carry oxygen. b. store calcium. c. replenish energy supply. d. rotate the cross-bridges. NURSINGTB.COM ANS: C DIF: Application REF: p. 365 TOP: ATP 16. Aerobic respiration: a. allows the body to avoid the use of oxygen for a short time. b. results in the formation of an incompletely catabolized molecule. c. results in the formation of lactate. d. produces the maximum amount of energy available from each glucose molecule. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 366 TOP: Catabolic Pathways 17. Skeletal muscles are innervated by: a. somatic motor neurons. b. autonomic motor neurons. c. both somatic and autonomic motor neurons. d. internal stimulation. ANS: A DIF: Application REF: p. 368 TOP: Motor Unit 18. A motor unit is most correctly described as and a motor neuron. a. sarcomere(s)Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank b. myofibril(s) c. muscle fiber(s) d. filament(s) ANS: C DIF: Application REF: p. 368 TOP: Motor Unit 19. White fibers are also called fibers. a. fast b. slow c. elongated d. intermediate ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 367 TOP: Types of Muscle Fibers (Box 17-4) 20. Most body movements are contractions. a. isotonic b. isometric c. a combination of isotonic and isometric d. single twitch ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 374 TOP: Isotonic and Isometric Contractions 21. Endurance training is also known as: a. isometrics. b. hypertrophy. c. aerobic training. d. strength training. NURSINGTB.COM ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 372 TOP: Effects of Exercise on Skeletal Muscles (Box 17-6) 22. During which phase of the twitch contraction is there a triggering of the release of calcium ions into the sarcoplasm? a. Latent period b. Contraction phase c. Relaxation phase d. None of the above ANS: A DIF: Application REF: p. 369 TOP: The Twitch Contraction 23. Physiological muscle fatigue may be caused by: a. a relative lack of ATP. b. high levels of lactate. c. failure of the sodium-potassium pumps. d. all of the above. ANS: D DIF: Application REF: p. 371 TOP: Muscle Fatigue (Box 17-5) 24. All of the following are true characteristics of an isometric contraction except: a. the muscle does not shorten. b. it can produce work by tightening to resist a force.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank c. movement is produced. d. the tension produced by the myosin cross-bridges cannot overcome the load placed on the muscle. ANS: C DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 375 TOP: Isometric Contractions 25. A contraction in which the tension within the muscle remains the same but the length changes is called a(n) contraction. a. tonic b. isotonic c. isometric d. tetanic ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 374 TOP: Isotonic Contractions 26. Attempting to pick up an object too heavy to lift would result in which type of muscle contraction? a. Isotonic b. Flaccid c. Treppe d. Isometric ANS: D DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 375 TOP: Isometric Contractions 27. The graded strength principle states that: a. muscle fibers either will contract with all the force possible under existing conditions or will not con NtracRt atIall.G B.C M b. skeletal muscles contract wUithSthe NsamTe degreOe of strength at all times, but the force generated is graded. c. muscle size is indirectly proportional to muscle strength. d. skeletal muscles contract with varying degrees of strength at different times. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 373 TOP: Graded Strength Principle 28. Painful muscle contractions or involuntary twitches are called: a. tetanic contractions. b. cramps. c. convulsions. d. fibrillations. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 379 TOP: Abnormal Muscle Contractions (Box 17-8) 29. The strength of a muscle contraction is influenced by the: a. amount of load. b. initial length of muscle fibers. c. recruitment of motor units. d. All of the above are correct. ANS: D DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 373 TOP: Graded Strength PrincipleAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank N R I G B.C 30. Which of the following types of muscle tissue contains cells that have a single nucleus? a. Cardiac b. Smooth c. Skeletal d. Both A and B ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 377 TOP: Smooth Muscle 31. All of the following are characteristics of smooth muscle except: a. there are no striations. b. there are no T-tubules. c. thin and thick filaments are aligned in sarcomeres like skeletal muscles. d. the sarcoplasmic reticula are loosely organized. ANS: C DIF: Application REF: p. 377 TOP: Smooth Muscle 32. From smallest to largest, which of the following is the correct order of arrangement? a. Fiber, myofibril, myofilament b. Myofibril, myofilament, fiber c. Myofilament, myofibril, fiber d. Fiber, myofilament, myofibril ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 359 TOP: Overview of Muscle Cells 33. Sarcolemma is a: a. system of transverse tubules that extend at a right angle to the long axis of the cell. b. segment of the myofibril beUtweSen NtwoTsuccessOive Z-lines. c. unique name for the plasma membrane of a muscle fiber. d. None of the above are correct. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 357 TOP: Overview of Muscle Cells 34. Which of the following is not associated with the thin myofilament? a. Troponin b. Tropomyosin c. Actin d. Myosin ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 359 TOP: Myofilaments 35. Cross-bridges are also called: a. myosin heads. b. motor end plates. c. synapses. d. motor neurons. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 361 TOP: MyofilamentsAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank 36. Treppe is also called: a. tetanus. b. electromyography. c. wave summation. d. staircase phenomenon. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 370 TOP: Treppe: The Staircase Phenomenon 37. Which of the following statements is incorrect about motor units? a. Some motor neurons stimulate only a few dozen muscle fibers. b. Some motor neurons stimulate a few thousand muscle fibers. c. The more muscle fibers stimulated by a motor neuron, the more precise the movements of that muscle can be. d. All of the above statements are correct. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 368-369 TOP: Motor Unit 38. A decrease in muscle size is termed: a. hyperplasia. b. atrophy. c. hypertrophy. d. treppe. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 372 TOP: Effects of Exercise on Skeletal Muscles (Box 17-6) 39. The characteristic of the musNclUeRceSllIthNatGdTirBec.tlCyOcaMuses movement is: a. excitability. b. irritability. c. contractility. d. extensibility. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 357 TOP: Functions of Skeletal Muscle Tissue 40. A sarcomere is a segment of myofibril between two successive: a. Z-lines. b. A-bands. c. I-bands. d. H-bands. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 359 TOP: Overview of Muscle Cells 41. The striations seen in skeletal muscle cells under the microscope are what part of the sarcomere? a. Z-lines b. A-bands c. I-bands d. All of the aboveAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 359 TOP: Overview of Muscle Cells 42. The myofilament that can be described as a globular protein strung together like beads to form two intertwined strands is: a. troponin. b. actin. c. myosin. d. tropomyosin. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 361 TOP: Myofilaments 43. The myofilament that can be described as bundled golf clubs with their heads sticking out from the bundle is: a. troponin. b. actin. c. myosin. d. tropomyosin. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 361 TOP: Myofilaments 44. After it is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum, the calcium combines with which protein? a. Troponin b. Actin c. Myosin d. Tropomyosin NURSINGTB.COM ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 363 TOP: Contraction 45. Glucose can be stored in the muscle as: a. creatine phosphate. b. ATP. c. myoglobin. d. glycogen. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 365-366 TOP: Glucose and Oxygen 46. The substance that attracts oxygen in the myoglobin molecule is: a. hemoglobin. b. calcium. c. iron. d. ATP. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 366 TOP: Glucose and Oxygen 47. The lactate produced by anaerobic respiration is converted back to glucose in the: a. lungs.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank N R b. liver. c. mitochondria. d. sarcoplasmic reticulum. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 366 TOP: Catabolic Pathways 48. Which of the following is not a factor in why a warm muscle contracts more forcefully than a cool muscle? a. ATP releases energy faster. b. Calcium diffuses through the sarcoplasm more quickly. c. Calcium tends to accumulate in the sarcoplasm. d. More actin-myosin reactions occur. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 370-371 TOP: Treppe: The Staircase Phenomenon 49. Which of the following terms describes an isometric contraction? a. Eccentric contraction b. Static tension c. Concentric contraction d. Both A and C ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 375 TOP: Isometric Contractions 50. A satellite cell in a muscle can become active: a. during isotonic contractions. I G B.C M b. during isometric contractioUns. S N T O c. after an injury to a muscle. d. when a muscle becomes fatigued. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 357 TOP: Overview of Muscle Cells 51. The myofibrils contain about how many sarcomeres? a. 150,000 b. 15,000 c. 1500 d. 150 ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 359 TOP: Myofilaments 52. The motor end plate makes up part of the: a. Z-line. b. T-tubules. c. sarcoplasmic reticulum. d. neuromuscular junction. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 361 TOP: Mechanism of ContractionAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank 53. Which part of the sarcomere stays almost the same size during contraction? a. A-band b. I-band c. H-band d. None of the parts of the sarcomere stay the same size during contraction. ANS: A DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 361 TOP: Myofilaments 54. Muscles usually contract to about of their length. a. 30% b. 40% c. 80% d. 90% ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 364 TOP: Contraction 55. Muscle contractions will continue as long as: a. the calcium ions are attached to the troponin. b. there is dopamine in the neuromuscular junction. c. there is ADP in the muscle cell. d. T-tubules are transmitting impulses. ANS: A DIF: Application REF: p. 365 TOP: Contraction, Relaxation 56. Which of the following is not an end-product of the breakdown of ATP? a. An inorganic phosphate b. Energy that can be used iNn mRusclIe coGntrB ac.tioCn M c. ADP U S N T O d. All of the above are end-products of the breakdown of ATP. ANS: D DIF: Application REF: p. 365 TOP: Energy Sources for Muscle Contraction 57. Which type of muscle does not have T-tubules? a. Smooth b. Cardiac c. Striated d. All muscles have T-tubules. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 377 TOP: Characteristics of Muscle Tissue 58. Which structure functions to temporarily store calcium ions? a. T-tubules b. Sarcolemma c. Sarcoplasmic reticulum d. Myofilaments ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 357 TOP: Overview of Muscle Cells 59. Which type of muscle is responsible for peristalsis?Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank N R I G B.C M a. Multiunit smooth b. Single-unit smooth c. Cardiac d. Striated ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 378 TOP: Smooth Muscle 60. Which of the following is not a name for a muscle cell? a. Muscle fiber b. Sarcocyte c. Myocyte d. All of the above are names for muscle cells. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 357 TOP: Overview of Muscle Cells 61. Which of the following is not a part of the neuromuscular junction? a. T-tubules b. Motor neuron c. Motor end plate d. All of the structures are part of the neuromuscular junction. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 361 TOP: Excitation of the Sarcolemma 62. Which of the following is an incorrect statement regarding heat production? a. The body temperature set point is established by the hypothalamus. b. Shivering will increase bodUy teSmpN eratT ure. O c. Body temperature functions on a negative-feedback mechanism. d. All of the above are correct. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 367-368 TOP: Heat Production 63. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding muscle tone? a. Tonic contractions is another name for muscle tone. b. Muscle tone is important in maintaining posture. c. Muscles with less than normal muscle tone are referred to as spastic. d. All of the above statements are correct. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 372-373 TOP: Muscle Tone 64. Which of the following statements about cardiac muscle is incorrect? a. Cardiac muscle requires nervous stimulation to contract. b. Cardiac muscle is also called striated involuntary muscle. c. Cardiac muscle contains intercalated disks. d. All of the above statements are correct. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 376 TOP: Cardiac MuscleAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank 65. Which of the following statements about cardiac muscle is incorrect? a. Cardiac muscle forms an electrically coupled mass called a syncytium. b. Much of the calcium necessary for contraction comes from outside the cell. c. In cardiac muscles, the T-tubules form dyads rather than the triads formed in skeletal muscles. d. All of the above statements are correct. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 375-377 TOP: Cardiac Muscle TRUE/FALSE 1. Myofibrils contain several sarcomeres lined up end to end. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 359 TOP: Overview of Muscle Cells 2. Another name for muscle cells is muscle fibers. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 357 TOP: Overview of Muscle Cells 3. Muscle cells have one nucleus and one mitochondrion. ANS: F DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 357 TOP: Overview of Muscle Cells 4. Muscle fibers of skeletal muscle contain several nuclei. ANS: T DIF: MNemUoRriSzaItioNnGTB.COM TOP: Overview of Muscle Cells REF: p. 357 5. A triad consists of a T-tubule sandwiched between sacs of the sarcoplasmic reticulum. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 358 TOP: Overview of Muscle Cells 6. The following are characteristics that allow muscles to function as they do: excitability, contractility, extensibility, and regulation. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 357 TOP: Functions of Skeletal Muscle Tissue 7. The cell membrane of a muscle fiber is called the sarcoplasmic reticulum. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 357 TOP: Overview of Muscle Cells 8. The protein molecule that has heads jutting out for cross-bridging is called myosin. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 361 TOP: Myofilaments 9. A neuromuscular junction is a type of connection called a synapse. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 361Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank TOP: Excitation of the Sarcolemma 10. The sliding-filament theory is the current model of muscle contraction. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 363 TOP: Contraction 11. Muscle fibers use creatine phosphate to restore their ATP population. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 365 TOP: ATP 12. ATP is made up of adenine, ribose sugar, and three phosphate groups. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 365 TOP: ATP 13. Hemoglobin carries oxygen in red blood cells, and myoglobin stores oxygen in muscle fibers. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 366 TOP: Glucose and Oxygen 14. Anaerobic respiration is the first choice of the muscle cell for the production of ATP. ANS: F DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 366 TOP: Energy Sources for Muscle Contraction 15. T-tubules are perpendicular to muscle fibers. ANS: T DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 358 TOP: Overview of Muscle Cells 16. Myosin filaments attach to thNeUZRdSiskI.NGTB.COM ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 360 TOP: A More Detailed Look at the Sarcomere (Box 17-1) 17. At rest, troponin covers the active sites on the actin molecules. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 361 TOP: Myofilaments 18. A compound that mimics the action of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction would cause muscles to become flaccid. ANS: F DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 361 | p. 363 TOP: Excitation of the Sarcolemma 19. Myosin filaments interact with actin filaments during muscle contraction. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 361 TOP: Myofilaments 20. When sarcomeres shorten, myofibrils also shorten. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 359 TOP: Overview of Muscle CellsAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank ANS: F U S N T O 21. For continued, efficient nutrient catabolism by muscle fibers, both glucose and oxygen are required. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 365 TOP: Glucose and Oxygen 22. Slow fibers are also called white fibers, because they contain a low concentration of myoglobin. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 367 TOP: Types of Muscle Fibers (Box 17-4) 23. A motor neuron plus the muscle fibers to which it attaches is called a motor unit. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 368 TOP: Motor Unit 24. The more precise the muscle movement, the greater the number of muscle fibers activated by a motor neuron. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 369 TOP: Motor Unit 25. Muscles contract more forcefully after they have contracted a few times. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 370 TOP: Treppe: The Staircase Phenomenon 26. Smooth, sustained contractions are called treppe. N R I G B.C M DIF: Application REF: p. 370 TOP: Treppe: The Staircase Phenomenon 27. In psychological muscle fatigue, an individual cannot contract his or her muscles. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 371 TOP: Muscle Fatigue (Box 17-5) 28. Muscles with less-than-normal tone are described as in tetanus. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 371 TOP: Muscle Tone 29. During an isotonic contraction, the tension produced by the myosin cross-bridges cannot overcome the load placed on the muscle. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 374 TOP: Isotonic Contractions 30. The degree of a muscle’s strength is influenced by many factors, including its metabolic condition and number of motor units recruited. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 377 TOP: Graded Strength Principle 31. A tetanic contraction is stimulated by a single stimulus.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 371 TOP: Tetanus 32. Skeletal muscle organs contract on the all-or-none principle. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 373 TOP: Graded Strength Principle 33. Treppe is a steep increase in the strength of contractions that can be seen in a series of twitch contractions. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 370 TOP: Treppe: The Staircase Phenomenon 34. The type of contraction exhibited by normal skeletal muscles most of the time is called tetanus. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 371 TOP: Tetanus 35. The study of muscle activity is called myography. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 369 TOP: Myography 36. The graded strength principle states that skeletal muscles contract with varying degrees of strength at different times. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 373 TOP: Graded Strength PrincipNle URSINGTB.COM 37. As resistance increases, the number of motor units needed to overcome that resistance has to increase. ANS: T DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 372 TOP: Graded Strength Principle 38. Endurance training usually results in muscle hypertrophy. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 372 TOP: Effects of Exercise on Skeletal Muscles (Box 17-6) 39. Convulsions are abnormal, uncoordinated tetanic contractions of varying groups of muscles. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 379 TOP: Abnormal Muscle Contractions (Box 17-8) 40. Cardiac muscle is similar to skeletal muscle in that both form strong, electrically coupled junctions with other fibers. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 375 TOP: Cardiac Muscle 41. Fibrillation is a tetanic contraction of cardiac muscle. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 379Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank TOP: Abnormal Muscle Contractions (Box 17-8) 42. T-tubules are found in all types of muscle tissue. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 357 TOP: Characteristics of Muscle Tissue 43. In visceral smooth muscle, gap junctions join individual smooth muscle fibers into large, continuous sheets. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 377 TOP: Smooth Muscle 44. A satellite cell can fuse with myocytes during strength training to make larger muscle fibers. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 357 TOP: Overview of Muscle Cells 45. Myocyte is another term for a muscle cell. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 357 TOP: Overview of Muscle Cells 46. Muscle pain may also be referred to as muscular dystrophy. ANS: F DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 379 TOP: Mechanisms of Disease 47. Duchenne (pseudohypertrophic) muscular dystrophy is the most common type of muscular dystrophy. N URSINGTB.COM ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 379 TOP: Mechanisms of Disease 48. A motor neuron is considered part of the neuromuscular junction. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 361 TOP: Excitation of the Sarcolemma 49. Cramps are painful, involuntary muscle spasms. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 379 TOP: Abnormal Muscle Contractions (Box 17-8) 50. The thin myofilament is myosin, whereas the thick myofilament is actin. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 359 | p. 361 TOP: Myofilaments 51. Skeletal muscle has a great ability to stretch. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 357 TOP: Functions of Skeletal Muscle TissueAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank 52. Muscle cells produce heat by the process of catabolism. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 357 TOP: General Functions 53. Actin, troponin, and tropomyosin are present on the thick myofilament. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 359 | p. 361 TOP: Myofilaments 54. One I-band resides within two sarcomeres. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 360 TOP: A More Detailed Look at the Sarcomere (Box 17-1) 55. Rigor mortis occurs because of damage done to the sarcolemma after death. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 366 TOP: Rigor Mortis (Box 17-3) 56. The cell membrane of a muscle fiber is called the sarcolemma. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 357 TOP: Overview of Muscle Cells 57. Oxygen molecules in the sarcoplasm are bound to the troponin molecule. ANS: F DIF: MNemoRrizaItionG B.C M REF: p. 365 TOP: Glucose and Oxygen U S N T O 58. Myoglobin gives red muscle fibers their red color. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 366 TOP: Glucose and Oxygen 59. Isometric contraction is a contraction in which the tone or tension within a muscle remains the same, but the length of the muscle changes. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 375 TOP: Isometric Contractions 60. The shorter a muscle before contraction, the more tension it will be able to generate. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 373 TOP: Graded Strength Principle 61. Muscles with less tone than normal are described as flaccid. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 375 TOP: Muscle Tone 62. The anabolism of protein by muscle cells produces heat for the body.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 357 TOP: Functions of Skeletal Muscle Tissue 63. Excitability and irritability are interchangeable terms in regard to muscle cells. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 357 TOP: Function of Skeletal Muscle Tissue 64. The sarcoplasmic reticulum in muscle cells is identical to the rough endoplasmic reticulum in other cells. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 357 TOP: Overview of Muscle Cells 65. T-tubules are formed by an inward extension of the sarcolemma. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 357 TOP: Overview of Muscle Cells 66. The sarcoplasmic reticulum continually pumps calcium ions out of the sarcoplasm and stores them in sacs. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 357 TOP: Overview of Muscle Cells 67. Myofibrils make up myofilaments. ANS: F DIF: M NRUemori SzaItioNnGTB.COM TOP: Myofilaments REF: p. 359 68. The H-zone in a relaxed sarcomere is composed of only myosin. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 361 TOP: Myofilaments 69. The A-band in a relaxed sarcomere is composed of only actin. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 361 TOP: Myofilaments 70. The motor end plate is part of the neuromuscular junction. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 361 TOP: Excitation of the Sarcolemma 71. When the sarcomere contracts, the A-bands become smaller. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 364 TOP: Contraction 72. When the sarcomere contracts, the I-bands become smaller. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 364 TOP: ContractionAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank U S N T 73. When troponin and calcium combine, it causes actin to shift and allows the myosin to form cross-bridges. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 363 TOP: Contraction 74. Because of the elasticity of the muscle fiber, as soon as the contraction stops, the sarcomere goes back to its precontraction length. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 365 TOP: Relaxation 75. Myosin heads detach from the actin molecule when ATP attaches to it. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 365 TOP: ATP 76. The difference between red and white fibers is the amount of glycogen. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 366 TOP: Glucose and Oxygen 77. An accumulation of lactate in the muscle is the result of an oxygen debt. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 366 TOP: Catabolic Pathways 78. The release of calcium by theNsarRcopIlasmGicBre.ticCuluMm begins the contraction phase of a twitch contraction. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 369 TOP: The Twitch Contraction 79. Tetanus will not occur in an individual with an up-to-date tetanus vaccination. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 371 TOP: Tetanus 80. Contraction of a small fraction of the total number of fibers in a muscle produces muscle tone. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 372 TOP: Muscle Tone 81. Maintaining muscle tone is one of the few examples of a positive-feedback mechanism in the body. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 373 TOP: Muscle Tone 82. Recruitment is the term used to describe the addition of more motor units to allow a muscle to increase its strength of contraction. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 373Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank TOP: Graded Strength Principle 83. The longer the initial length of a muscle, the stronger the contraction of that muscle can be. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 373 TOP: Graded Strength Principle 84. Cardiac fibers form a continuous electrically coupled mass called a syncytium. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 376 TOP: Cardiac Muscle 85. Because the heart is in almost constant contraction, its muscle cells have larger sarcoplasmic reticula that can hold higher concentrations of calcium ions. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 376 TOP: Cardiac Muscle 86. Smooth muscle can contract to shorter lengths than skeletal muscles. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 377 TOP: Smooth Muscle 87. When smooth muscles have rhythmic contractions called peristalsis, they are able to move food through the digestive tract. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 378 TOP: Smooth Muscle N URSINGTB.COM 88. Muscle cells are called fibers, because they are long and thin. They can be 40 mm long but only about 10 mm in diameter. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 357 TOP: Overview of Muscle Cells 89. T-tubules are unique to muscle cells. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 357 TOP: Overview of Muscle Cells 90. The liver has the ability to convert lactate back into glucose. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 366 TOP: Catabolic Pathways 91. Cardiac muscles require a stimulus from a motor neuron to contract, just as striated muscles do. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 375 TOP: Cardiac MuscleAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank U S N T O 92. In smooth muscle cells, the calcium needed for contraction comes from outside the cell rather than from inside the cell as it does in striated muscle contraction. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 377 TOP: Smooth Muscle 93. In smooth muscle cells, the protein calmodulin takes the place of the sarcoplasmic reticulum found in striated muscle cells. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 377 TOP: Smooth Muscle 94. Skeletal muscles produce a major share of the heat generated by the body. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 357 TOP: General Functions 95. When a muscle contracts, the muscle always becomes shorter. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 357 TOP: Functions of Skeletal Muscle Tissue 96. Muscle fibers have many nuclei, because they are the result of several precursor cells joining together to make a mature muscle fiber. 97.9 7 . ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 357 TOP: Overview of Muscle Cells N R I G B.C M Only striated and cardiac muscles have triads; smooth muscles do not contain T-tubules. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 358 | p. 376 TOP: Overview of Muscle Cells and Cardiac Muscle 98. The primary function of tropomyosin and troponin is to prevent a muscle from contracting. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 361 TOP: Myofilaments 99. Acetylcholine is the neurotransmitter that stimulates muscle contraction. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 361 | p. 363 TOP: Excitation of the Sarcolemma 100. When the muscle looks “at rest,” the ATP has already transferred its energy to the actin fiber. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 365 TOP: ATP 101. The aerobic catabolic pathway that can supply energy to muscle cells is called fermentation. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 366 TOP: Catabolic PathwaysAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank ANS: F U S N T O 102. A muscle using anaerobic respiration would lower the pH of the blood passing through the muscle. ANS: T DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 366 TOP: Catabolic Pathways 103. There are two types of isometric contractions: concentric contractions and eccentric contractions. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 375 TOP: Isometric Contractions 104. Eccentric muscle contractions actually result in the lengthening of the muscle. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 375 TOP: Isotonic Contractions 105. The term striated involuntary muscle refers to cardiac muscle. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 375 TOP: Cardiac Muscle 106. Single-unit smooth muscle is another term for visceral muscle. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 377 TOP: Smooth Muscle 107. Multiunit smooth muscle is more common in the body than single-unit smooth muscle. N R I G B.C M DIF: Memorization REF: p. 378 TOP: Smooth Muscle 108. There are three high-energy bonds in an ATP molecule. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 365 TOP: ATP 109. In muscles, oxygen can be transferred to the calcium by myoglobin molecules. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 365 TOP: Glucose and Oxygen 110. Muscle has the ability to store oxygen in myoglobin and store glucose as glycogen. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 365-366 TOP: Glucose and Oxygen 111. Because the process of catabolism is less than 100% efficient, some of the energy is given off as heat. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 367 TOP: Heat ProductionAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank 112. The pituitary gland is responsible for the homeostatic control of body temperature. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 368 TOP: Heat Production 113. Shivering in response to a drop in body temperature is an example of a positive-feedback mechanism in the body. ANS: F DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 368 TOP: Heat Production 114. Each motor neuron in the motor unit is able to stimulate as many as two dozen muscle fibers. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 368 TOP: Motor Unit 115. The three phases of muscle contraction are contraction, relaxation, and recovery. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 369 TOP: The Twitch Contraction 116. During the latent period of muscle contraction, the impulse is transmitted from the sarcolemma to the sarcomere. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 369 TOP: The Twitch Contraction 117. In the “warmed up” muscle, the calcium ions are able to be completely returned to the sarcoplasmic reticulum. N URSINGTB.COM ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 370-371 TOP: Treppe: The Staircase Phenomenon 118. Tonic contractions give the muscle its muscle tone. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 372 TOP: Muscle Tone 119. Muscles with less than normal muscle tone are called spastic. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 372 TOP: Muscle Tone 120. The T-tubules in the heart form dyads rather than the triads found in skeletal muscles. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 377 TOP: Cardiac Muscle 121. The result of endurance training is more blood vessels, not more muscle cells. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 372 TOP: Effects of Exercise on Skeletal Muscles (Box 17-6)Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank MATCHING Match each term with its corresponding definition or description. a. Actin b. Sarcolemma c. Contractility d. Tropomyosin e. Extensibility f. Myosin g. T-tubule h. Irritability i. Sarcomere j. Troponin k. Motor unit 1. Name given to the plasma membrane of a muscle cell 2. Inward extensions of the sarcolemma that allow impulses to go deeper into the cell 3. The ability of a muscle cell to be stimulated or excited 4. A neuron and all the muscle fibers it stimulates 5. Protein that blocks the receptor sites on the actin molecule 6. The ability of a muscle cell to shorten 7. Beadlike globular protein that makes up the thin myofilament 8. Protein that joins with calcium ions to allow cross-bridges to form 9. The ability of a muscle to stretch 10. Protein that looks like “bundled golf clubs”; makes up the thick myofilament 11. A segment of the myofilamenNt bR etweIenGtwoBZ.-lCinesM U S N T O 1. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 357 TOP: Overview of Muscle Cells 2. ANS: TOP: G DIF: Memorization Overview of Muscle Cells REF: p. 357 3. ANS: TOP: H DIF: Memorization Functions of Skeletal Muscle Tissue REF: p. 357 4. ANS: TOP: K DIF: Memorization Motor Unit REF: p. 368 5. ANS: TOP: D DIF: Memorization Myofilaments REF: p. 361 6. ANS: TOP: C DIF: Memorization Functions of Skeletal Muscle Tissue REF: p. 357 7. ANS: TOP: A DIF: Memorization Myofilaments REF: p. 361 8. ANS: TOP: J DIF: Memorization Contraction REF: p. 363 9. ANS: TOP: E DIF: Memorization Functions of Skeletal Muscle Tissue REF: p. 357 10. ANS: TOP: F DIF: Memorization Myofilaments REF: p. 361 11. ANS: TOP: I DIF: Memorization Overview of Muscle Cells REF: p. 359Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank Match each term with its corresponding description regarding the sliding-filament theory. a. Troponin b. Myosin c. Actin d. T-tubules e. ATP f. Calcium g. Cross-bridges h. Tropomyosin i. Acetylcholine 12. Protein that has active sites for cross-bridge heads 13. By energizing these structures, chemical energy is converted to mechanical energy 14. The stimulus to contract the muscle is carried inside the muscle by this structure 15. Protein that directly prevents the formation of cross-bridges in the sarcomere 16. Chemical released by the motor neuron that initiates the stimulus for a muscle contraction 17. Compound that supplies the energy for muscle contraction 18. Ion that is released by the sarcoplasmic reticulum 19. Protein that has cross-bridge heads that pull on the thin fiber 20. Protein that has receptor sites for an ion that causes it to change shape and pull another protein away from the receptor sites on the actin 12. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 363 TOP: 13. ANS: Contraction G DIF: Application REF: p. 363 TOP: Contraction TOP: Contraction U S N T O TOP: Excitation of the Sarcolemma 17. ANS: TOP: E ATP DIF: Memorization REF: p. 365 18. ANS: TOP: F Contraction DIF: Memorization REF: p. 363 19. ANS: TOP: B Contraction DIF: Memorization REF: p. 363 20. ANS: TOP: A Contraction DIF: Memorization REF: p. 363 OTHER 1. List and describe the three general functions of skeletal muscle tissue. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: p. 357 TOP: General Functions 2. List three characteristics of muscles. 14. ANS: D TOP: Contraction 15. ANS: H DIF: DIF: MemN oriR za tioI n G B.C M Memorization REF: p. 363 REF: p. 363 16. ANS: I DIF: Memorization REF: p. 361 | p. 363U S N T O ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 357 | pp. 375-378 TOP: General Functions, Functions of Cardiac and Smooth Muscle 3. Describe and/or diagram the sarcomere. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 359 TOP: Overview of Muscle Cells 4. Describe the physiological process of muscle contraction. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: pp. 361-365 TOP: Mechanism of Contraction 5. Define rigor mortis. Why does it occur? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 366 TOP: Rigor Mortis (Box 17-3) N R I G B.C M 6. Explain the role of ATP in muscle contraction. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 365 TOP: ATP 7. Explain how glycogen and myoglobin aid in muscle contraction. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 365-366 TOP: Glucose and Oxygen 8. Differentiate among slow, fast, and intermediate fibers. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 367 TOP: Types of Muscle Fibers (Box 17-4) 9. Explain how the treppe, or staircase, phenomenon applies to pre-exercise warm-up. ANS:Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 367 | pp. 370-371 TOP: Treppe: The Staircase Phenomenon, Effects of Exercise on Skeletal Muscles (Box 17-4) 10. Explain what is meant by the graded strength principle of muscle contraction. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: pp. 373-374 TOP: Graded Strength Principle 11. List three conditions that influence the strength of muscle contraction. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: pp. 373-374 TOP: Graded Strength Principle 12. Explain the process of anaerobic respiration in the muscle. What is the oxygen debt, and how is it “repaid”? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: p. 366 TOP: Catabolic Pathways 13. Name and describe the myofNilaUmRen StIfiNbeGrsTiBn.thCeOsaMrcomere. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 359 | p. 361 TOP: Myofilaments 14. Explain the role of the skeletal muscles in heat production for the body. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 367-368 TOP: Heat Production 15. Explain isometric muscle contractions and the two types of isotonic contractions. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 374-375 TOP: Isotonic and Isometric Contractions 16. Explain the similarities and differences between skeletal and cardiac muscle cells. How do these differences reflect the functioning of the heart?Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: pp. 375-377 TOP: Cardiac Muscle 17. Describe the structure of smooth muscle. Differentiate between single-unit and multiunit muscle tissue. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 377-378 TOP: Smooth Muscle ESSAY 1. Susie Swift, an avid jogger, is running down the beach when she comes upon Bobby Beachbum, a serious weight lifter. Bobby flirts with Susie, who decides he has more muscle than brains. She continues her run down the beach, and Bobby begins to run after her. After about a half mile, Bobby tires and gives up. Explain why Susie was able to continue to run despite having less muscle mass than Bobby has. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 367 TOP: Effects of Exercise on SNkeleRtal MIuscGles B (B.oxC17-M4) U S N T O 2. Based on your knowledge of the structure and function of the muscle cells, explain why you would expect to find multiple mitochondria and nuclei in them under microscopic examination. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 359 | p. 361 | pp. 365-366 TOP: Myofilaments, Glucose, and Oxygen 3. Both the skin, or integument, system and the muscle system are important in maintaining the body temperature. The skin function is homeostatic in nature. Explain why the muscle function is not. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: pp. 367-368 TOP: Heat ProductionAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank Chapter 18: Nervous System Cells Patton: Anatomy and Physiology, 10th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The efferent pathways of the autonomic nervous system consist of the nervous systems. a. peripheral and afferent b. sympathetic and parasympathetic c. sympathetic and efferent d. parasympathetic and somatic ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 391 TOP: Somatic and Autonomic Nervous Systems 2. A neuron that transmits a nerve impulse toward the central nervous system is called a(n): a. motor neuron. b. sensory neuron. c. interneuron. d. bipolar neuron. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 400 TOP: Afferent and Efferent Divisions 3. The largest and most numerous types of neuroglia are the: a. astrocytes. b. microglia. c. ependymal cells. d. oligodendrocytes. NURSINGTB.COM ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 391 TOP: Overview of Glia 4. Which of the following is not a function of the central nervous system (CNS)? a. Integrating sensory information b. Evaluating the information c. Initiating an outgoing response d. All of the above are functions of the CNS. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 389-390 TOP: Central and Peripheral Nervous Systems 5. The part of the nervous system that transmits impulses from the CNS to the skeletal muscle is the: a. somatic nervous system. b. autonomic nervous system. c. central nervous system. d. afferent division. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 390 TOP: Somatic and Autonomic Nervous SystemsAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank N R I G B.C M 6. The myelin sheath is formed by: a. Nissl bodies. b. nodes of Ranvier. c. Schwann cells. d. neuron cell bodies. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 393 TOP: Glia 7. Which is not true of the myelin sheath? a. It is associated with white fibers in the brain. b. It is important for nerve impulse conduction. c. It covers cell bodies in the brain and spinal cord. d. It is destroyed in those with multiple sclerosis. ANS: C DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 400 TOP: Nerves and Tracts 8. Neurons in the CNS have less chance of regenerating for all of the following reasons except: a. there is no neurolemma in cells of the CNS. b. astrocytes fill in the path of regrowth. c. microglia lay down scar tissue. d. All of these lessen the chance of healing in the CNS. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 401-402 TOP: Repair of Nerve Fibers 9. Along a neuron, the correct pathway for impulse conduction is: a. dendrite, axon, cell body, aUnd rSeceNptorT. O b. dendrite, cell body, and axon. c. axon, cell body, and dendrite. d. receptor, axon, and cell body. ANS: B DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 395 TOP: Neurons 10. A neuron that has only one axon but several dendrites is classified as a neuron. a. multipolar b. bipolar c. unipolar d. multidendritic ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 397 TOP: Structural Classification 11. Which is true of a reflex arc? a. It does not involve the brain. b. It always consists of an afferent neuron and an efferent neuron. c. It always consists of an afferent neuron, an efferent neuron, and an interneuron. d. It always consists of an afferent neuron, an efferent neuron, the brain, and the spinal cord. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 399 TOP: Reflex ArcAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank 12. Multipolar neurons have: a. multiple axons and multiple dendrites. b. multiple axons and one dendrite. c. multiple dendrites and one axon. d. one dendrite and one axon. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 397 TOP: Structural Classification 13. Most unipolar neurons are usually: a. motor neurons. b. neurons of the parasympathetic nervous system. c. sensory neurons. d. neurons of the sympathetic nervous system. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 395, Table 18-1 TOP: Structural Classification 14. Fascicles are held together by a connective tissue layer called the: a. endoneurium. b. perineurium. c. macroneurium. d. epineurium. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 400 TOP: Nerves and Tracts 15. Gray matter in the brain andNspUinRalScIorNdGcoTnBsi.stCs pOrM imarily of: a. nerve fibers. b. neuroglia. c. axons. d. cell bodies. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 401 TOP: Nerves and Tracts 16. The white matter of the nervous system is made up of: a. myelinated fibers. b. nuclei. c. unmyelinated fibers. d. ganglia. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 400 TOP: Nerves and Tracts 17. Regeneration of nerve fibers will take place only if the cell body is intact and the fibers have: a. nodes of Ranvier. b. a neurilemma. c. a myelin sheath. d. neurofibrils. ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 402 TOP: Repair of Nerve FibersAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank 18. Which of the following compounds cannot cross the blood-brain barrier? a. Water b. Carbon dioxide c. Glucose d. Dopamine ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 393, Box 18-1 TOP: The Blood-Brain Barrier (Box 18-1) 19. A lack of which neurotransmitter is associated with Parkinson’s disease? a. Norepinephrine b. Endorphins c. Dopamine d. Enkephalin ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 393, Box 18-1 TOP: The Blood-Brain Barrier (Box 18-1) 20. Dendrites conduct impulses cell bodies. a. toward b. away from c. within d. None of the above is correct. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 396 TOP: Dendrites 21. Interneurons reside in the: NURSINGTB.COM a. CNS and peripheral nervous system (PNS). b. CNS only. c. PNS only. d. None of the above is correct. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 398 TOP: Functional Classification 22. Which of the following is the deepest connective tissue layer of a nerve? a. Endoneurium b. Perineurium c. Epineurium d. Fascicle ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 400 TOP: Nerves and Tracts 23. Nerves that contain mostly afferent fibers are called nerves. a. sensory b. motor c. mixed d. Schwann ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 400Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank TOP: Functional Classification 24. Small distinct regions of gray matter in the CNS are called: a. nuclei. b. tracts. c. ganglia. d. axons. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 401 TOP: Nerves and Tracts 25. The nervous system is organized to do which of the following? a. Detect changes in the external environment. b. Detect changes in the internal environment. c. Evaluate changes in the environment. d. All of the above are true. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 405 TOP: Organization of the Nervous System 26. In the human nervous system: a. most of the cells are neurons. b. most of the cells are glia cells. c. there are almost equal numbers of glia cells and neurons. d. the ratio of cells is unknown because of the complexity of the nervous system. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 391 TOP: Glia 27. Astrocytes attach to: a. neurons. b. oligodendrocytes. c. blood vessels. d. both A and C. NURSINGTB.COM ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 391 TOP: Astrocytes 28. One of the components of the blood-brain barrier is: a. astrocytes. b. neurons. c. myelin. d. oligodendrocytes. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 393, Box 18-1 TOP: The Blood-Brain Barrier (Box 18-1) 29. Which of the following statements does not apply to ependymal cells? a. They form the sheets of cells that line fluid-filled cavities in the brain. b. They make up part of the blood-brain barrier. c. They produce fluid that fills the cavities in the brain. d. They have cilia to move fluid in the brain.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank N R I G ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 392 TOP: Ependymal Cells 30. Schwann cells have a function in the PNS that is similar to that of which cells in the CNS? a. Oligodendrocytes b. Astrocytes c. Microglia d. Ependymal cells ANS: A DIF: Application REF: p. 394 TOP: Peripheral Glia 31. The telodendria are: a. the receptor portion of the dendrite. b. where the dendrite attaches to the cell body. c. where the axon leaves the cell body. d. none of the above. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 396 TOP: Axon 32. What protein molecule very similar to hemoglobin temporarily stores a “backup” supply of oxygen in nervous tissue? a. Myoglobin b. Neuroglobin c. Nissl substance d. Neurofibril ANS: B DIF: Memorization B.C M REF: p. 395, Box 18-3 TOP: Neurons U S N T O 33. In a three-neuron reflex arc, the afferent neurons synapse with the: a. interneuron. b. efferent neuron. c. contralateral neuron. d. ipsilateral neuron. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 399 TOP: Reflex Arc 34. The nervous system can be divided: a. according to its structure. b. according to direction of information flow. c. by control of effectors. d. in all of the above ways. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 389 TOP: Organization of the Nervous System 35. The autonomic nervous system does not stimulate: a. skeletal muscles. b. smooth muscles. c. glands. d. cardiac muscle.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 391 TOP: Somatic and Autonomic Nervous Systems 36. The afferent pathways of the autonomic nervous system: a. stimulate the fight-or-flight response. b. maintain normal resting activity. c. carry feedback information to integrating centers in the brain. d. do both A and B. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 391 TOP: Somatic and Autonomic Nervous Systems 37. The other term for cell body is: a. telodendria. b. perikaryon. c. Nissl body. d. axon hillock. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 395 TOP: Neurons 38. Which of the following is not true of a three-neuron ipsilateral reflex? a. It contains an interneuron. b. The impulse leaves the CNS on the same side as the one on which it entered. c. The impulse leaves the CNS on the side opposite to the one from which it entered. d. It stimulates an action potential in a motor neuron. ANS: C DIF: AN ppUlicRatSioInNGRTEBF:.C p.O39M9 TOP: Reflex Arc 39. Which is the only glia cell that is found outside of the CNS? a. Schwann cell b. Oligodendrocyte c. Astrocyte d. Ependymal cell ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 392 TOP: Glia 40. The parasympathetic nervous system is part of the pathway of the nervous system. a. afferent; somatic b. afferent; autonomic c. efferent; somatic d. efferent; autonomic ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 390-391 TOP: Somatic and Autonomic Nervous Systems 41. Preparing the body for “fight or flight” describes the function of the nervous system. a. parasympathetic b. sympathetic c. somaticAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank N R I G B.C M d. Both B and C are correct. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 391 TOP: Somatic and Autonomic Nervous Systems 42. Which of the following structures is (are) not found on the axon? a. Axon hillock b. Telodendria c. Synaptic knob d. All of the above structures are found on the axon. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 396 TOP: Neurons 43. What is the relationship between the afferent and efferent neurons of the reflex arc? a. The afferent neurons move signals to the CNS, and the efferent neurons move signals away from the CNS. b. The afferent neurons move signals away from the CNS, and the efferent neurons move signals to the CNS. c. Afferent neurons are present in the brain, and efferent neurons are present at the sensory site. d. None. Efferent neurons are only present in gray matter of the brain and are needed for the reflex arc to work correctly. ANS: A DIF: Application REF: p. 399 TOP: Reflex Arc 44. If there were lesions on a bundle of myelinated fibers, what would occur? a. Nerve conduction would be enhanced with an increase in motor coordination. b. There would be no side effUectsSof tNhesTe typesOof lesions. c. Nerve conduction would be impaired, and weakness, loss of coordination, and visual impairment would occur. d. Nerve conduction would be impaired, and neuromas would develop. ANS: C DIF: Application REF: p. 394, Box 18-2 TOP: Multiple Sclerosis (MS) (Box 18-2) 45. Neurons have: a. complete regeneration capacity. b. no regeneration capacity. c. very limited capacity to repair themselves. d. none of the above. ANS: C DIF: Application REF: p. 401 TOP: Repair of Nerve Fibers 46. After a stroke, there is usually some damage to brain tissue. What type of neuroglia would you expect to find invading the affected area? a. Astrocytes b. Ependymal cells c. Microglia d. Oligodendrocytes ANS: C DIF: Application REF: p. 392 TOP: Peripheral GliaAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank TRUE/FALSE 1. The nervous system consists of the brain, spinal cord, and nerves. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 389 TOP: Introduction 2. The afferent nervous system consists of all outgoing motor pathways. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 390 TOP: Afferent and Efferent Divisions 3. Multiple sclerosis is the most common primary disease of the CNS. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 394 TOP: Multiple Sclerosis (MS) (Box 18-2) 4. Ependymal cells engulf and destroy microbes and cellular debris in inflamed or degenerating brain tissue. ANS: F DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 392 TOP: Repair of Nerve Fibers 5. Oligodendrocytes form myelin sheaths around nerve fibers in the CNS. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 393 TOP: Oligodendrocytes NURSINGTB.COM 6. Nerve fibers with many Schwann cells forming a thick myelin sheath are called myelinated fibers, or gray fibers. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 394 TOP: Peripheral Glia 7. Small, lipid-soluble molecules can diffuse easily across the blood-brain barrier. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 393, Box 18-1 TOP: The Blood-Brain Barrier (Box 18-1) 8. Most of the neurons in the brain and spinal cord are unipolar. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 397 TOP: Structural Classification 9. In a contralateral reflex arc, the receptors and effectors are located on opposite sides of the body. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 399 TOP: Reflex Arc 10. In an ipsilateral arc, the effectors and receptors are on opposite sides of the body.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank ANS: T U S N T O ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 399 TOP: Reflex Arc 11. Groups of cell bodies located in the brain or spinal cord are referred to as ganglia. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 400 TOP: Nerves and Tracts 12. Most injuries to the brain and spinal cord cause permanent damage. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 402 TOP: Repair of Nerve Fibers 13. In an adult, brain cells do not undergo mitosis, except to replace neurons that have been damaged or destroyed. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 402 TOP: Repair of Nerve Fibers 14. Regeneration of nerve fibers will occur only if the cell body is intact and the fibers have a neurilemma. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 401 TOP: Repair of Nerve Fibers 15. If a motor neuron is damaged, it can cause the muscle it innervates to atrophy because of lack of stimulation. N R I G B.C M DIF: Memorization REF: p. 402 TOP: Repair of Nerve Fibers 16. The nervous system is designed to detect stimuli from both the internal and external environment. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 389 TOP: Introduction 17. The nervous system can be divided according to structure, direction of information flow, and speed of conduction. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 389 TOP: Introduction 18. The efferent division of the nervous system consists of mostly sensory pathways. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 390 TOP: Somatic and Autonomic Nervous Systems 19. Small, distinct regions of gray matter within the CNS are called nuclei. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 401 TOP: Nerves and TractsAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank 20. Most nerves in the human nervous system are mixed. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 400 TOP: Nerves and Tracts 21. Neurons have, at best, a limited ability to repair themselves. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 401 TOP: Repair of Nerve Fibers 22. Regeneration of nerve fibers is impossible, even if the cell body is intact and the fibers have a neurilemma. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 401 TOP: Repair of Nerve Fibers 23. There are differences between the central and peripheral nervous systems concerning the repair of damaged fibers. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 402 TOP: Repair of Nerve Fibers 24. Bundles of unmyelinated fibers make up what is referred to as white matter. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 400 TOP: Nerves and Tracts 25. Rapid succession stimulation NUof RIGSNapostsyn BTapti .c CMOneur on by a synaptic knob is called an ipsilateral reflex. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 399 TOP: Reflex Arc 26. Cranial nerves are considered part of the CNS. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 390 TOP: Central and Peripheral Nervous Systems 27. Spinal nerves are considered part of the PNS. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 390 TOP: Central and Peripheral Nervous Systems 28. When “central” and “peripheral” are used as directional terms in the nervous system, a nerve fiber may be called peripheral if it extends from the cell body toward the CNS. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 389 TOP: Central and Peripheral Nervous Systems 29. When “central” and “peripheral” are used as directional terms in the nervous system, a nerve fiber may be called peripheral if it extends from the cell body away from the CNS.ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 390 TOP: Central and Peripheral Nervous Systems 30. The CNS is composed of efferent nerves only. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 390 TOP: Afferent and Efferent Divisions 31. The PNS includes both efferent and afferent nerves. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 390 TOP: Afferent and Efferent Divisions 32. Pathways from the autonomic nervous system that form the thoracic region of the spinal cord would be sympathetic pathways. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 391 TOP: Somatic and Autonomic Nervous Systems 33. Pathways from the autonomic nervous system that leave the CNS from the brain would be sympathetic pathways. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 391 TOP: Somatic and Autonomic Nervous Systems 34. The name for the astrocyte comes from its shape. ANS: T DIF: M NRUemori SzaItioNnGTB.COM TOP: Astrocytes REF: p. 391 35. Part of the function of the astrocyte is to help feed the neurons. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 391 TOP: Astrocytes 36. Microglia are functionally and developmentally very close to neurons. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 392 TOP: Microglia 37. The microglia engulf and destroy microorganisms and cellular debris. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 392 TOP: Microglia 38. Oligodendrocytes are found only around dendrites of neurons of the CNS. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 393 TOP: Oligodendrocytes 39. Gray fibers have no association with Schwann cells.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 394 TOP: Peripheral Glia 40. Gray fibers probably do not have nodes of Ranvier. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 394 TOP: Peripheral Glia 41. Cell body and perikaryon are interchangeable terms. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 395 TOP: Neurons 42. In neurons, microtubules are called neurofibrils. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 396 TOP: Neurons 43. Unipolar neurons have no axons. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 397 TOP: Structural Classification 44. Nerves are usually made up of a single large neuron. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 400 TOP: Nerves and Tracts 45. Whether a group of nerve fibNerUsRisScaIllNedGaTnBe.rvCeOorMa tract depends on its location. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 400 TOP: Nerves and Tracts 46. Astrocytes attempt to assist the neurons of the CNS in healing and regrowth. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 401 TOP: Repair of Nerve Fibers 47. Like other cells of the nervous system, glia cells have lost their capacity for cell division. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 391 TOP: Glia 48. Astrocytes, the star-shaped glia cells, may be able to transmit information along “astrocyte pathways.” ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 391 TOP: Astrocytes 49. The Greek word for tree correctly describes the shape of the axon. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 396 TOP: NeuronsAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank 50. Microtubules and microfilaments provide a type of “railway” for the rapid transport of organelles to and from the ends of the neuron. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 396 TOP: Neurons 51. The words nerve and neuron mean the same thing. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 400 TOP: Nerves and Tracts 52. Damage to a single neuron can have a “domino” effect causing the shutdown of an entire nerve pathway. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 402 TOP: Repair of Nerve Fibers 53. The afferent pathways of the autonomic nervous system stimulate muscles and do not have a sensory component. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 390-391 TOP: Somatic and Autonomic Nervous Systems 54. The nervous system and the endocrine system share a common function of communication. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 389 TOP: Introduction N URSINGTB.COM 55. The function of the parasympathetic nervous system is commonly described as preparing the body for “fight or flight.” ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 391 TOP: Somatic and Autonomic Nervous Systems 56. If a person were in a high-stress, emergency situation, the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system would be active. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 391 TOP: Somatic and Autonomic Nervous Systems 57. If a skeletal muscle moved, it would be responding to the somatic nervous system. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 390 TOP: Somatic and Autonomic Nervous Systems 58. Microglia are associated with the formation of the blood-brain barrier. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 392 TOP: Glia 59. The blood-brain barrier is so effective that only water molecules are able to cross it.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 393, Box 18-1 TOP: Blood-Brain Barrier (Box 18-1) 60. Schwann cells and oligodendrocytes share a common function, but in different parts of the nervous system. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 393 TOP: Glia 61. Satellite cells are oligodendrocytes that surround the cell bodies of neurons in the CNS. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 394 TOP: Peripheral Glia 62. Bipolar and multipolar are examples of the structural classification of neurons. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 397 TOP: Structural Classification 63. All reflex arcs contain an interneuron. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 399 TOP: Reflex Arc 64. One distinction between ipsilateral and contralateral reflexes is that contralateral reflexes have interneurons and ipsilateral reflexes do not. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 399 TOP: Reflex Arc N URSINGTB.COM 65. Only astrocytes, microglia, and oligodendrocytes are found in the CNS; Schwann cells and ependymal cells are found in the PNS. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 391-393 TOP: Glia 66. The endoneurium is deep to the epineurium. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 400 TOP: Nerves and Tracts 67. The epineurium is deep to the perineurium. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 400 TOP: Nerves and Tracts 68. It is now known that fresh new neurons are often added to existing networks of neurons. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 401 TOP: Repair of Nerve Fibers 69. The axon hillock is actually part of the cell body of the neuron. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 396 TOP: NeuronsAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank 70. The nervous system contains two types of cells, neurons and glia cells, but only neurons conduct nerve impulses. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 391 TOP: Glia 71. The word glia means “support,” which accurately describes their function in the nervous system. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 391 TOP: Overview of Glia 72. There are about 900 million glia cells in the nervous system. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 391 TOP: Overview of Glia 73. Ependymal cells act like epithelial cells in the CNS, forming thin sheets that line cavities. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 392 TOP: Glia 74. Only axons are covered in myelin. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 396 TOP: Neurons 75. There are more glia cells in t NRIGUSNhebrainthan BTthe .re COare Mne urons. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 391 TOP: Overview of Glia 76. Some astrocytes have cilia that help keep the fluid in the nervous system moving. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 391 TOP: Astrocytes 77. Dendrites carry impulses toward the cell body. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 391 TOP: Neurons 78. Dendrites have many synaptic knobs so they can receive impulses from several other neurons at the same time. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 396 TOP: Neurons 79. Interneurons are found only in the CNS. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 398Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank TOP: Functional Classification MATCHING Match each of the following cell types with its corresponding description. a. Astrocyte b. Oligodendrocyte c. Microglia d. Schwann cell e. Ependymal cell 1. Has the capability of phagocytosis 2. Helps form the blood-brain barrier 3. Type of neuroglia that forms neurilemma 4. Resembles epithelial cells and lines fluid-filled cavities in the brain and spinal cord 5. Produces the myelin sheath around nerve fibers in the CNS 1. ANS: TOP: C Glia DIF: Memorization REF: p. 392 2. ANS: TOP: A Glia DIF: Memorization REF: p. 391 3. ANS: TOP: D Glia DIF: Memorization REF: p. 393 4. ANS: TOP: E Glia DIF: Memorization REF: p. 392 5. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 393 TOP: Glia N URSINGTB.COM Match each part of the nervous system with its corresponding description. a. Afferent division b. Autonomic nervous system c. Central nervous system d. Efferent division e. Parasympathetic division f. PNS g. Somatic nervous system h. Sympathetic division 6. Consists of the brain and spinal cord 7. Consists of nerves that lie in the periphery of the nervous system 8. PNS subdivision that transmits incoming information from the sensory organs to the CNS 9. Produces the “fight-or-flight” response 10. Subdivision that carries information from the CNS to skeletal muscle 11. Subdivision of the efferent division that transmits information to smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glands 12. Consists of all the outgoing pathways 13. Sometimes called the “rest-and-repair” division 6. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 389 TOP: Central and Peripheral Nervous SystemsAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank ANS: Answers will vary. NURSINGTB.COM N R I G 7. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 390 TOP: Central and Peripheral Nervous Systems 8. ANS: TOP: A DIF: Memorization Afferent and Efferent Divisions REF: p. 390 9. ANS: TOP: H DIF: Memorization Somatic and Autonomic Nervous Systems REF: p. 391 10. ANS: TOP: G DIF: Memorization Somatic and Autonomic Nervous Systems REF: p. 391 11. ANS: TOP: B DIF: Memorization Somatic and Autonomic Nervous Systems REF: p. 391 12. ANS: TOP: D DIF: Memorization Afferent and Efferent Divisions REF: p. 390 13. ANS: TOP: E DIF: Memorization Somatic and Autonomic Nervous Systems REF: p. 391 Match each term with its definition or description. a. Cell body b. Axon c. Nodes of Ranvier d. Dendrite e. Myelin f. Neurofibrils 14. Nerve fiber that is highly branched; the name comes from the Greek word for tree 15. Fatty sheath around nerve fibers made by Schwann cells 16. Distal tips of these nerve fibers end in branches called telodendria 17. Microscopic gaps in the myelin sheath B.C M 18. Contains the nucleus and varioUus oSrgaNnellTes for thOe neuron 19. Bundles of intermediate filaments in the neuron 14. ANS: TOP: 15. ANS: TOP: D Neurons E Glia DIF: DIF: Memorization Memorization REF: REF: p. 396 p. 394 16. ANS: TOP: B Neurons DIF: Memorization REF: p. 396 17. ANS: TOP: C Glia DIF: Memorization REF: p. 394 18. ANS: TOP: A Neurons DIF: Memorization REF: p. 395 19. ANS: TOP: F Neurons DIF: Memorization REF: p. 397 OTHER 1. What two systems perform the vital functions of communication and integration of body processes?Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank ANS: Answers will vary. NURSINGTB.COM DIF: Memorization REF: p. 389 TOP: Introduction 2. What comprises the CNS? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 389 TOP: Central and Peripheral Nervous Systems 3. What is the major function of neurons? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 395 TOP: Glia 4. What type of neuron is always a sensory receptor? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 399 TOP: Neurons 5. Name two types of tissue that are effectors. ANS: Answers will vary. NURSINGTB.COM DIF: Memorization REF: p. 399 TOP: Reflex Arc 6. What is the difference between nuclei and ganglia? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 401 TOP: Nerves and Tracts 7. Describe the somatic and autonomic nervous systems. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 390-391 TOP: Somatic and Autonomic Nervous Systems 8. Name and briefly describe the types of glia cells found in the nervous system.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 391-394 TOP: Glia 9. Name and describe the three parts of the neuron. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 395-396 TOP: Neurons 10. Name the two ways in which neurons are classified. Name and describe the types of neurons in each classification. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: pp. 397-398 TOP: Classification of Neurons 11. Explain the types of reflex arc. Differentiate between a contralateral reflex arc and an ipsilateral reflex arc. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: p. 399 TOP: Reflex Arc 12. Explain how a neuron can repair itself. What increases the likelihood of repair; what decreases the likelihood of repair? If repair is not possible, what other options are possible to innervate the effector organ? ANS: Answers will vary. NURSINGTB.COM DIF: Application REF: pp. 401-402 TOP: Repair of Nerve Fibers ESSAY 1. Sue was in a severe car accident. She had injuries to her arm and lower spinal column. Her physician told her that she most likely would regain the use of her arm but her legs would be paralyzed. Why did he say that? Explain the differences in the neuron structures. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: pp. 401-402 TOP: Repair of Nerve FibersAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM Chapter 19: Nerve Signaling Patton: Anatomy and Physiology, 10th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which is true of a neuron with a resting potential? a. The cell membrane is permeable to Na+ but impermeable to K+ ions. b. The outer surface of the plasma membrane has a negative charge. c. The highest concentration of K+ is extracellular. d. The sodium pump has moved Na+ to the outside of the plasma membrane. ANS: D DIF: Application REF: pp. 409-410 TOP: Resting Membrane Potentials 2. The first event to occur when an adequate stimulus is applied to a neuron is: a. the membrane potential moves immediately to a value of +30 mV. b. the potassium channels open. c. the sodium channels are inactivated. d. some of the sodium channels at the point of stimulation open. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 411 TOP: Action Potential 3. Which is true of an action potential? a. The plasma membrane is impermeable to Na+ and K+ ions. b. Na+ ions move extracellularly. c. The charges become equaNlUonRtSheIoNuGtsTidBe .anCd inMside of the plasma membrane. d. The outside of the plasma membrane is negatively charged, and the inside is positively charged. ANS: D DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 414 TOP: Action Potential 4. The only ion(s) that can diffuse across a neuron’s membrane when the neuron is at rest is (are): a. sodium. b. potassium. c. proteins. d. phosphate. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 410 TOP: Resting Membrane Potentials 5. A slight shift away from the resting membrane potentials in a specific region of the plasma membrane is called a potential. a. membrane b. resting membrane c. local d. None of the above is correct. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 410 TOP: Local PotentialsAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM N R I G 6. During a relative refractory period: a. the action potential cannot be initiated. b. a resting potential exists. c. the cell membrane is impermeable to Na+ and K+. d. the action potential can be initiated with a strong stimulus. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 413 TOP: Refractory Period 7. Within the nervous system, coding for the strength of a stimulus is accomplished through: a. changes in the magnitude of the action potential. b. changes in the length or duration of the action potential. c. the frequency of nerve impulses. d. an increase in the number of opening sodium channels. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 413 TOP: Refractory Period 8. The fastest nerve fibers in the body can conduct impulses up to approximately meters per second. a. 60 b. 85 c. 130 d. 190 ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 414 TOP: Conduction of the Action Potential B.C M U S N T O 9. A synapse consists of: a. a synaptic knob. b. a synaptic cleft. c. the plasma membrane of a postsynaptic neuron. d. all of the above. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 415 TOP: Chemical Synapses 10. A synaptic knob would be located on a(n): a. cell body. b. axon. c. dendrite. d. cell body, axon, or dendrite. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 415 TOP: Chemical Synapses 11. When an impulse reaches a synapse: a. two nerve fibers come in direct contact. b. impulses will pass in either direction. c. an electrical spark will jump the gap. d. chemical transmitters are released.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 417 TOP: Mechanisms of Synaptic Transmission 12. Excitatory neurotransmitters are most likely to: a. increase the speed of impulse conduction. b. make the cell membrane impermeable. c. initiate an action potential. d. make the resting potential more negative. ANS: C DIF: Application REF: p. 418 TOP: Mechanisms of Synaptic Transmission 13. When current leaps across an insulating myelin sheath from node to node, the type of impulse conduction is called: a. repolarization. b. refraction. c. saltatory conduction. d. diffusion. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 414 TOP: Conduction of the Action Potential 14. For a neurotransmitter to produce an inhibitory postsynaptic potential, which of the following channels must open? a. Sodium and potassium channels b. Potassium and/or chloride channels c. Sodium and chloride channels d. Only the sodium channelNs URSINGTB.COM ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 417 TOP: Mechanisms of Synaptic Transmission 15. Which of the following is true of spatial summation? a. Simultaneous stimulation of more than one postsynaptic neuron occurs. b. Impulses are fired in a rapid succession by the same neuron. c. Neurotransmitters released simultaneously from several presynaptic knobs converge on one postsynaptic neuron. d. Speed of impulse transmission is increased when several neurotransmitters are released. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 418 TOP: Summation 16. Which of the following is not one of the main chemical classes of neurotransmitters? a. Triglycerides b. Amines c. Amino acids d. Neuropeptides ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 421 TOP: Classification of Neurotransmitters 17. Serotonin is an example of a(n):Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM N R I G B.C M a. amino acid neurotransmitter. b. amine neurotransmitter. c. acetylcholine derivative. d. neuropeptide neurotransmitter. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 419 TOP: Classification of Neurotransmitters 18. The neurotransmitter(s) that inhibit(s) the conduction of pain impulses is(are): a. acetylcholine. b. enkephalins. c. dopamine. d. norepinephrine. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 424 TOP: Classification of Neurotransmitters 19. Neurotransmitters are released in a synapse and bind to: a. presynaptic terminals. b. the synaptic cleft. c. the base of the axon. d. receptors on the postsynaptic neuron. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 417 TOP: Mechanisms of Synaptic Transmission 20. Which of the following statements about amino acid neurotransmitters is incorrect? a. They are among the most common neurotransmitters in the central nervous system (CNS). U S N T O b. They are all inhibitory neurotransmitters. c. Glycine is a widely distributed inhibitory neurotransmitter in the spinal cord. d. All of the above statements are correct. ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 423 TOP: Amino Acids 21. Severe depression can be caused by a deficit in certain brain synapses of: a. acetylcholine. b. amines. c. amino acids. d. neuropeptides. ANS: D DIF: Application REF: p. 421, Box 19-2 TOP: Antidepressants (Box 19-2) 22. Which of the following is not used by the body as a neurotransmitter? a. Nitric oxide b. Peroxide c. Carbon monoxide d. All of the above are used by the body as neurotransmitters. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 424 TOP: Other Small-Molecule TransmittersAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 23. Which of the following antidepressants acts by blocking the action of monoamine oxidase (MAO)? a. Phenelzine b. Imipramine c. Amitriptyline d. Cocaine ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 421, Box 19-2 TOP: Antidepressants (Box 19-2) 24. Compared with the outside of the neuron, the inside has a(n) charge. a. positive b. negative c. equal d. None of the above are correct. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 409 TOP: Membrane Potentials 25. Acetylcholine is in the same class of neurotransmitters as: a. serotonin. b. histamine. c. dopamine. d. none of the above. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 421 TOP: Acetylcholine 26. Dopamine, epinephrine, andNnoUreRpSinIepNhGrinTeBa.reCcOlaMssified as: a. acetylcholine. b. neuropeptides. c. catecholamines. d. none of the above. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 421-422 TOP: Amines 27. Stimulus-gated channels open in response to: a. sensory stimuli. b. the influx of potassium. c. hyperpolarization. d. both A and B. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 410 TOP: Local Potentials 28. The fastest nerve fibers in the body can conduct an impulse that is how much faster than the slowest fibers in the body? a. Almost 50 times faster b. Almost 100 times faster c. Almost 300 times faster d. Almost 500 times fasterAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 414 TOP: Conduction of the Action Potential 29. Which neuron could transmit a nerve impulse the fastest? a. A small-diameter neuron without myelin b. A large-diameter neuron without myelin c. A large-diameter neuron with myelin d. A small-diameter neuron with myelin ANS: C DIF: Application REF: p. 414 TOP: Conduction of the Action Potential 30. No impulse can be sent through a neuron: a. during the relative refractory period. b. when the charge of the neuron is –70. c. during the absolute refractory period. d. when the stimulus is too strong. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 413 TOP: Refractory Period 31. A synapse can occur only between an axon and: a. a dendrite. b. a cell body. c. another axon. d. any of the above. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 415 TOP: Chemical Synapses NURSINGTB.COM 32. The difference between sodium and potassium in the generation of action potential is that: a. sodium causes repolarization of the cell membrane, and potassium causes depolarization of the cell membrane. b. sodium causes unipolarization of the cell membrane, and potassium causes repolarization of the cell membrane. c. sodium causes repolarization, and potassium is not required in the action potential mechanism. d. sodium causes depolarization of the cell membrane, and potassium causes repolarization of the cell membrane. ANS: D DIF: Application REF: p. 411 TOP: Action Potential 33. A neurologist is using a voltmeter to measure potential. The membrane potential of a neuron was recorded at +30 mV. This is what type of membrane potential? a. Action b. Conduction c. Polarized d. Resting ANS: A DIF: Application REF: p. 411 TOP: Types of Membrane Potentials 34. Which membrane receptor acts to directly change ion permeability when stimulated?Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM a. Metabotropic receptor b. G-protein-coupled receptors c. Gated-channel receptor d. Ionotropic receptor ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 420 TOP: Functional Classification of Neurotransmitters TRUE/FALSE 1. Neurons are the only living cells that maintain a difference in the concentration of ions across their membranes. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 409 TOP: Membrane Potentials 2. When a neuron is resting, the inner surface of its plasma membrane is slightly positive compared with its outer surface. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 409-410 TOP: Resting Membrane Potentials 3. The sodium-potassium pump actively pumps three potassium ions out of the neuron and two sodium ions into the neuron. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 409-410 TOP: Resting Membrane Potentials 4. If the threshold potential is suNrUpaRssSedI,NthGeTfuBll.pCeaOkMof the action potential is always reached. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 412 TOP: Action Potentials 5. The magnitude of the action potential peaks when the sodium channels close. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 412 TOP: Action Potentials 6. The difference in electrical charge between the inside and outside of a membrane is called the membrane potential. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 409 TOP: Membrane Potentials 7. In depolarization the membrane potential moves toward zero, whereas in hyperpolarization the membrane potential moves away from zero. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 410-411 TOP: Local Potentials 8. Whether an impulse is continued through the neuron depends on the magnitude of the voltage in the axon hillock. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 418 TOP: Action PotentialsAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM U S N T 9. In a myelinated fiber, the action potential jumps from one node of Ranvier to the next. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 414 TOP: Conduction of the Action Potential 10. The speed of a nerve impulse depends on the neuron’s resting potential. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 414 TOP: Conduction of the Action Potential 11. In a myelinated neuron, the impulse can travel under the myelin between nodes of Ranvier. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 414 TOP: Conduction of the Action Potential 12. The action potential is called an all-or-none response, because if the threshold potential is surpassed, the full peak of the action is always reached; if the threshold potential is not surpassed, no action potential will occur. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 414 TOP: Action Potentials 13. Myelinated fibers conduct impulses faster than unmyelinated fibers. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 414 TOP: Conduction of the Action Potential 14. Many anesthetics produce thN eir eRffecIts bGy inBh. ibCitingMthe opening of the potassium channels, blocking the repolarization of nerve impulses. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 414, Box 19-1 TOP: Anesthetics (Box 19-2) 15. The sensory fibers from the skin generally conduct impulses up to about 130 meters per second. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 414 TOP: Conduction of the Action Potential 16. The receptors embedded in the plasma membrane of a postsynaptic neuron are protein molecules. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 416 TOP: Chemical Synapse 17. An inhibitory postsynaptic potential is produced through the hyperpolarization of the postsynaptic membrane. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: pp. 416-417 TOP: Mechanisms of Synaptic TransmissionAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM U S N T 18. Spatial summation is the effect produced by a rapid succession of stimuli on a single postsynaptic neuron. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 418 TOP: Summation 19. Excitatory neurotransmitters are most likely to initiate an action potential. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 417 TOP: Mechanisms of Synaptic Transmission 20. A neurotransmitter can be excitatory or inhibitory, not both. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 417 TOP: Functional Classification of Neurotransmitters 21. A neurotransmitter can be either excitatory or inhibitory depending on the postsynaptic receptor. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 417 TOP: Functional Classification of Neurotransmitters 22. The neurotransmitter acetylcholine always has an excitatory effect. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 421 TOP: Acetylcholine 23. When epinephrine and norepNinepRhrinIe aGre reBle.aCsedMinto the bloodstream, they are called hormones instead of neurotransmitters. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 421-422 TOP: Amines 24. Enkephalins and endorphins are subclasses of amines that are pain relievers. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 424 TOP: Neuropeptides 25. When a neuropeptide is secreted with one or two other neurotransmitters, it is thought to serve as a neuromodulator, regulating the effects of the other neurotransmitters. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 424 TOP: Neuropeptides 26. A membrane that exhibits a membrane potential is said to be depolarized. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 409 TOP: Membrane Potentials 27. Action potential and membrane potential are synonymous terms. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 411 TOP: Action PotentialAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 28. During the nerve impulse, the internal charge of the neuron becomes briefly positive. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 413 TOP: Action Potential 29. Action potentials travel in only one direction along a nerve fiber. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 414 TOP: Conduction of the Action Potential 30. Many biologists believe that amino acids are among the most common neurotransmitters in the CNS. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 422 TOP: Amino Acids 31. Cocaine produces a temporary feeling of well-being by blocking the release of dopamine. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 421. Box 19-2 TOP: Antidepressants (Box 19-2) 32. Glutamate is the most common excitatory neurotransmitter in the CNS. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 423, Table 19-4 TOP: Amino Acids 33. If a membrane exhibits a memNbrRaneIpoteGntiaBl,.itCis sMaid to be polarized. U S N T O ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 409 TOP: Membrane Potentials 34. When a neuron is resting, its membrane potential is zero. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 409 TOP: Resting Membrane Potentials 35. The resting potential of a neuron is maintained by having mostly negative ions on the inside and mostly positive ions on the outside. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 409-410 TOP: Resting Membrane Potentials 36. Action potential and nerve impulse are interchangeable terms. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 411 TOP: Action Potential 37. The opening of stimulus-gated channels is always followed by the opening of voltage-gated channels. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: pp. 411-412 TOP: Action PotentialAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 38. Myelinated axons without gaps in the myelin (nodes of Ranvier) conduct impulses more efficiently than axons with nodes of Ranvier. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 414 TOP: Conduction of the Action Potential 39. In a synapse, both the presynaptic cell and postsynaptic cell must be neurons. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 415 TOP: Structure of the Synapse 40. An electrical synapse occurs when a strong action potential is able to arc across a small synaptic cleft. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 415 TOP: Types of Synapses 41. In the mature nervous system, electrical synapses can occur only where there are gap junctions. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 415 TOP: Types of Synapses 42. All neurotransmitters are organic molecules. 43.4 3 . ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 424 TOP: Other Small-Molecule Transmitters NURSINGTB.COM + The neuron is able to maintain an internal negative charge by pumping out sodium (Na ) and pumping in chloride (Cl–). ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 409-410 TOP: Resting Membrane Potentials 44. There is a time when a neuron will not send a nerve impulse no matter how strong the stimulus is. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 413 TOP: Refractory Period 45. Electrical synapses can be found in muscle tissue. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 415 TOP: Types of Synapses 46. Chemical synapses involve neurotransmitters. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 415 TOP: Types of Synapses 47. Some neurotransmitters use cyclic adenosine monophosphate as a second messenger to cause a response in the postsynaptic cell.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 420 TOP: Neurotransmitters 48. Carbon monoxide is the only neurotransmitter that is a gas rather than a liquid. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 424 TOP: Neurotransmitters 49. Local potentials can also be called graded potentials. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 411 TOP: Local Potentials 50. Local potentials usually occur in the dendrite or soma of the neuron. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 410 TOP: Local Potentials 51. Action potentials usually occur in the axon of the cell. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 414 TOP: Conduction of the Action Potential 52. No impulse can be sent if a nerve cell is in the absolute refractory period. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 413 TOP: Refractory Period N URSINGTB.COM 53. Absolute refractory periods occur in the axon of the cell; relative refractory periods occur in the dendrite or soma of the cell. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 413 TOP: Refractory Period 54. The cell will send an impulse during the relative refractory period as long as the stimulus is below threshold. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 413 TOP: Refractory Period 55. How long a memory lasts is related to what occurs at a synapse. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 419 TOP: Synapses and Memory 56. Many anesthetics produce their effects by inhibiting the opening of sodium channels. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 414, Box 19-1 TOP: Anesthetics (Box 19-1) 57. Within the plasma membrane, ion channels called leak channels are always open.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM ANS: T U S N T O ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 410 TOP: Resting Membrane Potentials 58. A resting neuron has a positive internal charge. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 409-410 TOP: Resting Membrane Potentials 59. The depolarization of a neuron is caused by the influx of the positively charged sodium ion into the cell. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 409-410 TOP: Resting Membrane Potentials 60. The relative refractory period can determine the strength of a stimulus even if the axon functions on the “all-or-none” law. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 413 TOP: Refractory Period 61. Synapses between axons are the most common synapses in the nervous system. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 416 TOP: Chemical Synapses 62. Three structures make up a synapse: a synaptic knob, a synaptic cleft, and the plasma membrane of the postsynaptic neuron. N R I G B.C M DIF: Memorization REF: p. 415 TOP: Chemical Synapses 63. The influx of sodium ions causes the release of neurotransmitters from the synaptic knob. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 416-417 TOP: Mechanisms of Synaptic Transmission 64. Some neurotransmitters can be transported back to the synaptic knob and be reused by the neuron. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 416-417 TOP: Mechanisms of Synaptic Transmission 65. Serotonin and histamine are both in the monoamine subclass of neurotransmitters. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 421 TOP: Amines 66. The lack of dopamine is linked to the symptoms of Parkinson’s disease. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 421 TOP: AminesAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM U S N T O MATCHING Match each term with its definition or description. a. Presynaptic cell b. Neurotransmitter c. Postsynaptic cell d. Synaptic knob e. Electrical synapse f. Chemical synapse g. Synaptic cleft 1. Type of synapse that occurs when two cells are joined by a gap junction 2. Space between the presynaptic and postsynaptic cells 3. Tiny bulge at the end of the presynaptic cell 4. Cell that releases the neurotransmitter 5. Chemical that carries a nerve impulse across a synaptic cleft 6. Type of cell that could be a neuron or a muscle cell 7. Type of synapse in which the signal from the presynaptic to postsynaptic cell is carried by a neurotransmitter 1. ANS: E DIF: Memorization REF: p. 415 TOP: Types of Synapses 2. ANS: G DIF: Memorization REF: p. 415 TOP: Chemical Synapse 3. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 415 TOP: Chemical Synapse 4. ANS: A DIF: MNemoRrizaItionG B.C M TOP: Types of Synapses REF: p. 415 5. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 415 TOP: Chemical Synapse 6. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 415 TOP: Types of Synapses 7. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 415-416 TOP: Types of Synapses OTHER 1. Describe resting potential, including the position of potassium and sodium ions. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: pp. 409-410 TOP: Resting Membrane Potentials 2. Describe the process of impulse conduction across a synapse. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 414 TOP: Mechanisms of Synaptic TransmissionAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 3. Choose either IPSP or EPSP, and explain on a physiological basis how it will affect a postsynaptic neuron. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 417 TOP: Mechanisms of Synaptic Transmission 4. Define IPSP and EPSP. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 417 TOP: Mechanisms of Synaptic Transmission 5. Explain the ways in which the activity of the neurotransmitter is stopped at the postsynaptic receptor. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: pp. 416-418 TOP: Mechanisms of Synaptic Transmission 6. Explain both temporal and spatial summation. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization NURSINGTB.COM REF: p. 418 TOP: Summation 7. Name and briefly describe the different types of neurotransmitters used by the nervous system. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 419-424 TOP: Neurotransmitters 8. Other than their color, describe the differences between white matter and gray matter. Which is able to conduct impulses more rapidly? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: p. 414 TOP: Conduction of the Action Potential 9. Explain the process of an action potential moving down a neuron. ANS: Answers will vary.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 411-413 TOP: Action Potential 10. Explain the two types of refractory periods. Explain how the relative refractory period can help determine the strength of the stimulus. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: pp. 413-414 TOP: Refractory Period 11. Explain what characteristics of the neuron affect the speed at which action potentials are conducted. What is the range of speed at which an impulse can be conducted? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 414 TOP: Conduction of the Action Potential 12. Explain the neuron doctrine and the reticular theory of the nervous system. Which is currently held to be the most correct? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: pp. 424-425 TOP: Role of Nervous System Cells ESSAY NURSINGTB.COM 1. Explain a way that the nerve cell is able to respond to stimuli of different strengths. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: pp. 413-414 TOP: Refractory PeriodAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM Chapter 20: Central Nervous System Patton: Anatomy and Physiology, 10th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The layer of the meninges that serves as the inner periosteum of the cranial bone is the: a. pia mater. b. arachnoid membrane. c. dura mater. d. None of the above is correct. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 433 TOP: Coverings of the Brain and Spinal Cord 2. The innermost layer of the meninges is the: a. pia mater. b. arachnoid membrane. c. dura mater. d. None of the above is correct. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 433 TOP: Coverings of the Brain and Spinal Cord 3. The main divisions of the central nervous system are the: a. brain, spinal cord, and autonomic nerves. b. brain, spinal cord, and peripheral nerves. c. brain and spinal cord. NURSINGTB.COM d. sensory division and motor division. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 432 TOP: Introduction 4. Meningitis refers to inflammation of the: a. brain. b. meninges. c. spinal cord. d. cerebrospinal fluid. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 435 TOP: Meningitis 5. Cerebrospinal fluid is found in all of the following except the: a. subarachnoid space. b. central canal. c. third ventricle. d. subdural space. ANS: D DIF: Application REF: p. 435 TOP: Fluid Spaces 6. There are ventricles in the brain. a. twoAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM b. three c. four d. five ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 435 TOP: Fluid Spaces 7. Cerebrospinal fluid is formed by filtration of blood in the: a. central canal. b. choroid plexuses. c. subarachnoid space. d. arachnoid villi. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 435 TOP: Formation and Circulation of Cerebrospinal Fluid 8. Cerebrospinal fluid circulates through the ventricles, into the central canal and , and is absorbed back into the blood. a. subarachnoid space b. choroid plexuses c. spinal cord d. intraventricular foramen ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 437 TOP: Formation and Circulation of Cerebrospinal Fluid 9. If the ventral nerve root of a spinal nerve were destroyed, a person would lose related to that pathway. a. sensory perception b. willed movement c. only reflex activity NURSINGTB.COM d. both reflex activity and sensation ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 438 TOP: Structure of the Spinal Cord 10. If the dorsal root ganglia of the spinal nerve were destroyed, a person would lose related to that pathway. a. sensory perception b. willed movement c. only reflex activity d. both reflex activity and sensation ANS: A DIF: Application REF: p. 438 TOP: Structure of the Spinal Cord 11. Which of the following is not true of the lateral corticospinal tract fibers? a. Most decussate. b. Most inhibit the lower motor neuron. c. They are referred to as pyramidal pathways. d. They originate in the cerebral cortex. ANS: B DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 461 TOP: Somatic Motor Pathways in the Central Nervous SystemAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM N R 12. Impulses sent over which of the following tracts could result in voluntary movement, especially of the hands, fingers, feet, and toes of the opposite side? a. Medial reticulospinal b. Lateral reticulospinal c. Ventral corticospinal d. Lateral corticospinal ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 439 TOP: Functions of the Spinal Cord 13. The spinal tract that is located in the side of the cord, originates in the brain, and terminates in the spinal cord is the tract. a. lateral corticospinal b. ventral spinothalamic c. dorsal corticospinal d. lateral spinothalamic ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 438-439 TOP: Structure of the Spinal Cord 14. Nerve fibers of the spinothalamic tract are: a. sensory. b. motor. c. descending. d. none of the above. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 439 TOP: Functions of the Spinal Cord I G B.C M U S N T O 15. Which of the following is not true? a. The spinal cord does not completely fill the spinal cavity. b. The spinal cord extends from the foramen magnum to the first lumbar vertebra. c. One bundle of nerve fibers (nerve roots) projects from each side of the spinal cord. d. The spinal cord has anterior and posterior grooves that almost divide the cord into symmetrical halves. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 438 TOP: Structure of the Spinal Cord 16. The brain has major divisions. a. three b. five c. six d. eight ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 441 TOP: Brain 17. The brainstem does not include the: a. pons. b. medulla. c. midbrain.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM d. cerebellum. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 442 TOP: Structure of the Brainstem 18. The pyramids are formed in the: a. pons. b. medulla. c. midbrain. d. cerebellum. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 442 TOP: Medulla Oblongata 19. Several “vital centers” are located in the: a. basal ganglia. b. cerebrum. c. cerebellum. d. medulla. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 444 TOP: Vital Centers (Box 20-3) 20. The vomiting reflex is mediated by the: a. cerebrum. b. medulla. c. thalamus. d. cerebellum. NURSINGTB.COM ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 444 TOP: Functions of the Brainstem 21. The cerebellum acts with the to produce skilled movement. a. hypothalamus b. thalamus c. pons d. cerebrum ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 445 TOP: Functions of the Cerebellum 22. The part of the brain that assists in the maintenance of balance is the: a. medulla. b. pons. c. cerebellum. d. hypothalamus. ANS: C DIF: Application REF: p. 445 TOP: Functions of the Cerebellum 23. Impulses from the play a part in arousing or alerting the cerebrum. a. pons b. thalamus c. cerebellumAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM d. hypothalamus ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 448 TOP: Thalamus 24. The part of the brain that can directly influence or inhibit the release of hormones from the pituitary is the: a. hypothalamus. b. thalamus. c. medulla. d. midbrain. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 448 TOP: Hypothalamus 25. Which of the following is not a function of the hypothalamus? a. Production of hormones b. “Go between” of the psyche and the soma c. Appetite center d. Regulation of motor activity ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 448 TOP: Hypothalamus 26. Audition is a function of the lobe. a. occipital b. temporal c. parietal d. frontal N URSINGTB.COM ANS: B DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 453 TOP: Functional Areas of the Cortex 27. The cerebellum performs all of the following functions except: a. coordinates control of muscle action. b. helps control posture. c. controls cardiac function. d. controls skeletal muscles to maintain balance. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 447 TOP: Functions of the Cerebellum 28. Which part of the brain releases the hormone melatonin? a. Hypothalamus b. Thalamus c. Pineal gland d. Cerebellum ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 449 TOP: Pineal Gland 29. Impulses from which system play a part in arousing or alerting the cerebrum? a. Reticular activating system b. Limbic systemAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM c. Cerebral cortex d. Cerebellar cortex ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 455 TOP: Integrative Functions of the Cortex 30. The areas specializing in language functions are found in the left cerebral hemisphere in: a. about 10% of the population. b. about 50% of the population. c. about 90% of the population. d. all people. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 455 TOP: Integrative Functions of the Cortex 31. The part(s) of the cerebrum associated with anger, fear, and sorrow is (are) the: a. limbic system. b. corpus callosum. c. temporal lobes. d. caudate nucleus. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 455 TOP: Integrative Functions of the Cortex 32. The type of brain wave associated with deep sleep is: a. beta. b. theta. c. zeta. d. delta. NURSINGTB.COM ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 454 TOP: The Electroencephalogram (EEG) (Box 20-6) 33. A person who is awake, alert, and attentive would have a predominance of brain waves. a. beta b. theta c. zeta d. delta ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 454 TOP: The Electroencephalogram (EEG) (Box 20-6) 34. Which of the following is not a brain wave measurement? a. Theta b. Zeta c. Delta d. Beta ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 454 TOP: The Electroencephalogram (EEG) (Box 20-6) 35. A lesion in the cerebral cortex might result in:Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM a. motor deficits. b. sensory deficits. c. intellectual impairment. d. any of the above. ANS: D DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 455 TOP: Functional Areas of the Cortex 36. The falx cerebelli separates the: a. two hemispheres of the cerebrum. b. cerebellum from the cerebrum. c. two hemispheres of the cerebrum. d. dura mater from the arachnoid. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 433 TOP: Coverings of the Brain and Spinal Cord 37. The fourth ventricle is located: a. in the left cerebral hemisphere. b. in the right cerebral hemisphere. c. below and medial to the lateral ventricles. d. where the cerebellum attaches to the brainstem. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 435 TOP: Fluid Spaces 38. The layer of the meninges that adheres to the outer surface of the brain is the: a. pia mater. b. arachnoid membrane. c. dura mater. NURSINGTB.COM d. None of the above is correct. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 433 TOP: Coverings of the Brain and Spinal Cord 39. Going from superior to inferior, the structures of the brainstem would be: a. pons, midbrain, medulla oblongata. b. midbrain, pons, medulla oblongata. c. midbrain, medulla oblongata, pons. d. medulla oblongata, pons, midbrain. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 442 TOP: Structure of the Brainstem 40. The white matter of the cerebellum is called the: a. arbor vitae. b. vermis. c. peduncle. d. None of the above is correct. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 444 TOP: Structure of the CerebellumAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 41. The body’s biological clock is controlled by the: a. pons. b. thalamus. c. cerebellum. d. pineal body. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 449 TOP: Pineal Gland 42. The part of the cerebrum integral to articulating words is: a. Broca’s area. b. the reticular activating system. c. the limbic system. d. the insula. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 452 TOP: Integrative Functions of the Cortex 43. The corpus callosum connects the: a. cerebral hemispheres. b. hippocampus. c. mammillary body. d. central sulcus. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 451 TOP: Cerebral Tracts and Basal Nuclei 44. Axons from the gray horns o Nf theRspI inalGcorBd .terCminMate in: a. the cerebral cortex. b. sensory receptors. c. skeletal muscle. d. none of the above. U S N T O ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 460 TOP: Spinal Cord 45. Which of the following is not an inward extension of the dura mater? a. Falx callosum b. Falx cerebri c. Falx cerebelli d. Tentorium cerebelli ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 433 TOP: Coverings of the Brain and Spinal Cord 46. Besides protection, the cerebrospinal fluid helps regulate: a. oxygen content of the body. b. carbon dioxide content of the body. c. pH of the body. d. both B and C. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 435 TOP: Cerebrospinal FluidAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 47. A way to distinguish between the anterior and posterior parts of the spinal cord is that the: a. dura mater is thickest on the posterior side. b. posterior fissure is deeper and wider than the anterior fissure. c. anterior fissure is deeper and wider than the posterior fissure. d. Both A and B are correct. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 438 TOP: Structure of the Spinal Cord 48. The foramen magnum is the structure that divides the: a. medulla oblongata from the pons. b. pons from the midbrain. c. medulla oblongata from the spinal cord. d. brainstem from the cerebellum. ANS: C DIF: Application REF: p. 442 TOP: Medulla Oblongata 49. The central section of the cerebellum is called the: a. arbor vitae. b. vermis. c. central sulcus. d. longitudinal fissure. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 445 TOP: Structure of the Cerebellum 50. The corpus callosum is comp NoseRd ofI G Btr.acCts. M a. commissural b. projection c. association d. spinothalamic U S N T O ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 451 TOP: Cerebral Tracts and Cerebral Nuclei 51. Which of the following is not a somatic sense? a. Touch b. Pressure c. Proprioception d. All of the above are somatic senses. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 453 TOP: Sensory Functions of the Cortex 52. Which lobe of the cerebral cortex is not involved in language function? a. Frontal b. Occipital c. Temporal d. All of the above are involved in language function. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 455 TOP: Integrative Functions of the CortexAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 53. Which lobe of the cerebral cortex is not important in memory function? a. Frontal b. Occipital c. Temporal d. Parietal ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 446 TOP: Integrative Functions of the Cortex 54. The hypothalamus gives rise to a stalk, leading to the posterior lobe of the pituitary gland. This stalk is called the: a. dentate nuclei. b. infundibulum. c. internal capsule. d. pyramidal tract. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 448 TOP: Hypothalamus 55. The nervous system is divided into two major divisions, the: a. brain and spinal cord. b. central nervous system and the peripheral nervous system. c. cerebrum and cerebellum. d. afferent and efferent. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 432 TOP: Introduction NURSINGTB.COM 56. As you move from the spinal cord up the central nervous system, the: a. structural complexity increases. b. functional complexity increases. c. structural complexity decreases but the functional complexity increases. d. Both A and B occur. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 433 TOP: Introduction 57. The epidural space is: a. just below the dura mater. b. just below the arachnoid mater. c. found only in the area of the spinal cord. d. between the arachnoid mater and pia mater. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 434 TOP: Coverings of the Brain and Spinal Cord 58. The filum terminale is part of the: a. cerebellum. b. cerebrum. c. spinal cord. d. meninges.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 435 TOP: Coverings of the Brain and Spinal Cord 59. If a person received a lumbar puncture that removed 15 mL of cerebrospinal fluid from the spinal cord, that amount would be about what percent of the cerebrospinal fluid? a. 20% b. 10% c. 5% d. 25% ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 437 TOP: Formation and Circulation of Cerebrospinal Fluid 60. Which of the following structures is not part of the spinal cord? a. Gray commissure b. Conus medullaris c. Cauda equina d. All of the above are part of the spinal cord. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 438 TOP: Structure of the Spinal Cord 61. The corpora quadrigemina is a landmark of which part of the central nervous system? a. Midbrain b. Cerebellum c. Hypothalamus d. Cerebrum ANS: A DIF: MNemUoRriSzaItioNnGTB.COM TOP: Midbrain REF: p. 444 62. The dentate nuclei are an important pair of nuclei in which part of the central nervous system? a. Midbrain b. Cerebrum c. Cerebellum d. Hypothalamus ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 445 TOP: Structure of the Cerebellum 63. Which of the following structures is not part of the diencephalon? a. Thalamus b. Arbor vitae c. Pineal gland d. All of the above structures are part of the diencephalon. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 447 TOP: Diencephalon 64. What structure is the deepest groove in the cerebrum? a. Central sulcus b. Fissure of Rolando c. Fissure of SylviusAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM d. Longitudinal fissure ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 450 TOP: Structure of the Cerebrum 65. Which groove is between the frontal and parietal lobes? a. Central sulcus b. Lateral fissure c. Fissure of Sylvius d. Longitudinal fissure ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 450 TOP: Structure of the Cerebrum 66. What structure drains cerebrospinal fluid into the third ventricle? a. Cerebral aqueduct (of Sylvius) b. Interventricular foramen (of Monro) c. Lateral foramina (of Luschka) d. Cisterna magna ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 435 TOP: Formation and Circulation of Cerebrospinal Fluid 67. What structure drains cerebrospinal fluid into the fourth ventricle? a. Cerebral aqueduct (of Sylvius) b. Interventricular foramen (of Monro) c. Lateral foramina (of Luschka) d. Cisterna magna NURSINGTB.COM ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 435 TOP: Formation and Circulation of Cerebrospinal Fluid 68. The spinal cord ends at vertebra L1 in a narrowed area called the: a. cauda equina. b. filum terminale. c. conus medullaris. d. funiculi terminale. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 438 TOP: Structure of the Spinal Cord 69. The olive is found in what part of the brain? a. Medulla oblongata b. Pons c. Midbrain d. Cerebellum ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 443 TOP: Medulla Oblongata 70. Which of the following is an incorrect statement about the midbrain? a. It contains the inferior colliculi where auditory centers are located. b. It contains the superior colliculi where visual centers are located.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM c. It contains the red nucleus and black matter that are involved in muscle control. d. All of the above are correct statements about the midbrain. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 443-444 TOP: Midbrain 71. Which of the following is not a true statement about the cerebellum? a. Its name means “little brain.” b. It has more neurons than any other part of the nervous system. c. Gray matter makes up the exterior cortex. d. All of the above statements are true. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 444-445 TOP: Structure of the Cerebellum 72. What part of the brain can produce a hormone? a. Thalamus b. Pineal gland c. Hypothalamus d. Both B and C ANS: D DIF: Application REF: pp. 448-449 TOP: Hypothalamus and Pineal Gland 73. What lobe of the cerebrum cannot be seen in an exterior view? a. Temporal b. Insula c. Parietal d. Occipital NURSINGTB.COM ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 449 TOP: Cerebral Cortex 74. Secondary sensory neurons conduct impulses from the spinal cord or brainstem to the: a. hypothalamus. b. thalamus. c. cerebellum. d. parietal lobe of the cerebrum. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 450 TOP: Somatic Sensory Pathways in the Central Nervous System 75. William was recently involved in a serious automobile accident. As a result, he has had difficulty controlling his skeletal muscles and maintaining his balance. What part of the nervous system was most likely damaged? a. Cerebellum b. Cerebral cortex c. Myelin sheath of the peripheral neurons d. Pineal gland ANS: A DIF: Application REF: p. 445 TOP: Functions of the CerebellumAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 76. Which statement explains how the lack of dopamine physiologically affects those individuals suffering from Parkinson disease? a. Without dopamine, the excitatory effects of acetylcholine are not restrained, thus postural muscles are overstimulated. b. Without dopamine, the excitatory effects of acetylcholine are inhibited, thus relaxing postural muscles. c. Without dopamine, the inhibitory effects of acetylcholine are not restrained, thus postural muscles are overstimulated. d. Without dopamine, the inhibitory effects of acetylcholine are restrained, thus relaxing postural muscles. ANS: A DIF: Application REF: p. 452 TOP: Parkinson Disease (Box 20-5) 77. The distinction between the reticulospinal and rubrospinal tracts of the spinal cord is that the rubrospinal tract coordinates: a. body movement and posture, and the reticulospinal tract maintains posture during movement. b. head and neck movement, and the reticulospinal tract maintains posture. c. pain and temperature response, and the reticulospinal tract handles crude touch and pressure. d. unconscious kinesthesia, and the reticulospinal tract maintains posture. ANS: A DIF: Application REF: p. 440 TOP: Functions of the Spinal Cord 78. Since her fall several weeks ago, Juanita has drifted into and out of consciousness. Her arousal and/or alerting mechanisms apparently are not functioning properly. What specific area of the brain is most likely responsibNleUfRorSthIeNseGfTacBto.rsC?OM a. Cerebellum b. Corpora quadrigemina c. Reticular activating system d. Thalamus ANS: D DIF: Application REF: p. 448 TOP: Thalamus 79. When someone close to you dies, you feel a sense of sorrow among other emotions. Your ability to experience emotions is the result of the: a. caudate nucleus. b. limbic system. c. pineal gland. d. reticular activating system. ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 455 TOP: Integrative Functions of the Cortex 80. During your lifetime you are capable of remembering such things as telephone numbers, social security numbers, and song lyrics from many years ago. Your ability to perform these long-term memory tasks is possible because: a. the right and left hemispheres specialize in cerebral functions such as short-term and long-term recognition. b. repeated impulse conduction over a given neuronal circuit produces synaptic changes, which facilitates impulse transmission at the synapse.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM c. the spinothalamic pathway provides discrimination of short-term and long-term memories. d. extrapyramidal tracts consist of numerous relays of motor neurons that facilitate impulse transmission at the synapse. ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 456 TOP: Memory 81. The set of coordinated commands that control programmed muscle activity mediated by extrapyramidal pathways is called the: a. extrapyramidal tract. b. motor program. c. motor tract. d. pyramidal tract. ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 462 TOP: Extrapyramidal Tracts 82. Jeffery contracted bulbar poliomyelitis, and it has affected the medulla oblongata. The doctors warned the family that his condition is grave and death may be imminent. What function of the medulla oblongata has warranted such a dire prognosis? a. The medulla oblongata contains the vital centers that control heart action, blood vessel diameter, and respiration. b. The medulla oblongata contains the neural connections of the reticular activating system. c. The medulla oblongata contains the pineal gland, which controls vital centers. d. The medulla oblongata contains the corpora quadrigemina, which controls neural transmission of impulses along the spinal cord. ANS: A DIF: AN pp licaRU tionIS NGRTEBF:.C p.O44M4 TOP: Vital Centers (Box 20-3) 83. The extension of the dura mater that separates the cerebrum from the cerebellum is the: a. falx cerebella. b. falx cerebri. c. tentorium cerebella. d. falx centralis. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 433 TOP: Coverings of the Brain and Spinal Cord TRUE/FALSE 1. The central nervous system includes the brain, spinal cord, and autonomic nerves. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 432 TOP: Introduction 2. The central nervous system includes all of the nervous system except the peripheral nervous system. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 432 TOP: Introduction 3. The meninges are protective coverings, continuous around the brain and spinal cord.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM N R ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 433 TOP: Coverings of the Brain and Spinal Cord 4. Meningitis refers to inflammation of the brain. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 435 TOP: Meningitis 5. Cerebrospinal fluid circulates in the subarachnoid space of the meninges. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 435 TOP: Formation and Circulation of Cerebrospinal Fluid 6. Besides providing protection, the cerebrospinal fluid can influence the respiratory center. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 435 TOP: Cerebrospinal Fluid 7. Dural sinuses function as reservoirs for cerebrospinal fluid. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 434 TOP: Coverings of the Brain and Spinal Cord 8. The spinal cord completely fills the spinal cavity in the vertebrae. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 438 TOP: Structure of the Spinal Cord I G B.C M U S N T O 9. A physician can use lumbar puncture to withdraw cerebrospinal fluid from the subarachnoid space in the lumbar region of the spinal cord. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 436 TOP: Lumbar Puncture (Box 20-1) 10. The epidural space contains a layer of fat and other connective tissue. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 434 TOP: Coverings of the Brain and Spinal Cord 11. Funiculi consist of tracts divided into smaller bundles called nerve fibers. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 438 TOP: Structure of the Spinal Cord 12. Spinal reflex centers are located in the gray matter of the spinal cord. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 440 TOP: Functions of the Spinal Cord 13. Peripheral motor neuron cell bodies are located in the dorsal root ganglia of the spinal nerves. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 438 TOP: Structure of the Spinal CordAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM U S N T 14. For voluntary skeletal muscle activity, impulses originate in the cerebrum but coordination of the activity is a function of the cerebellum. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 445 TOP: Functions of the Cerebellum 15. The thalamus acts as a relay station for ascending sensory impulses. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 448 TOP: Thalamus 16. One of the major functions of the thalamus is its influence on the activity of the endocrine system. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 448 TOP: Thalamus 17. The central sulcus divides the cerebrum into two hemispheres. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 450 TOP: Structure of the Cerebrum 18. Basal ganglia are islands of gray matter deep in the cerebellum. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 451 TOP: Cerebral Cortex 19. The secondary motor area is found in the gyrus just posterior to the primary motor area. ANS: F DIF: AN pplicRatioIn GREBF:.C p. 45M4 TOP: Motor Functions of the Cortex 20. The vomiting reflex is mediated by the cerebellum. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 444 TOP: Functions of the Brainstem 21. The shallow grooves of the cerebrum are called sulci. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 444 TOP: Cerebral Cortex 22. The parieto-occipital fissure divides the cerebrum into two hemispheres. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 450 TOP: Cerebral Cortex 23. The secondary motor area activates groups of muscles rather than individual muscles. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 454 TOP: Motor Functions of the Cortex 24. The primary motor area, located in the precentral gyrus, is thought to activate individual muscles in the hands and feet.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 454 TOP: Motor Functions of the Cortex 25. A primary function of the reticular activating system (RAS) is to arouse or alert the cerebral cortex. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 455 TOP: Consciousness 26. Under normal brain functioning, activation of the reticular activating system (RAS) produces consciousness. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 455 TOP: Consciousness 27. Barbiturates and amphetamines are two drugs that can arouse the cerebral cortex. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 455 TOP: Consciousness 28. Cerebrospinal fluid is not found in the epidural space. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 435 TOP: Fluid Spaces 29. The fourth ventricle in the brain is an expansion of the central canal of the spinal cord. ANS: T DIF: MNemoRrizaItionG B.C M REF: p. 435 TOP: Fluid Spaces U S N T O 30. The limbic system of the brain primarily functions in the production of speech. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 455 TOP: Emotion 31. To describe sensory pathways as “crossed” refers to the fact that each side of the brain registers sensations from the opposite side of the body. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 459 TOP: Somatic Sensory Pathways in the Central Nervous System 32. The medial lemniscal system involves crude touch sensations, whereas the spinothalamic pathway involves more discriminating touch and pressure sensations. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 459 TOP: Somatic Sensory Pathways in the Central Nervous System 33. Extrapyramidal tracts can function either to inhibit or to facilitate lower motor neurons. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 462 TOP: Extrapyramidal TractsAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM ANS: T U S N T O 34. Pyramidal pathways are more often associated with smiles and frowns than are the extrapyramidal pathways. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 461 TOP: Pyramidal Tracts 35. Ascending tracts carry only sensory information, whereas descending pathways carry only motor information. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 439 TOP: Functions of the Spinal Cord 36. Repetition of nerve impulses on the same neuron circuitry produces memory. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 456 TOP: Memory 37. There are about 23 mL of cerebrospinal fluid in the nervous system. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 437 TOP: Formation of Cerebrospinal Fluid 38. Pyramidal tracts are motor pathways that form pyramids in the medulla. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 461 TOP: Pyramidal Tracts 39. Extrapyramidal pathways are more often associated with emotional expressions than are pyramidal pathways. N R I G B.C M DIF: Memorization REF: p. 462 TOP: Extrapyramidal Tracts 40. Formation of the cerebrospinal fluid occurs mainly in the choroid plexus. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 435 TOP: Formation and Circulation of Cerebrospinal Fluid 41. The lateral ventricles are located within the cerebellum. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 435 TOP: Fluid Spaces 42. Cerebrospinal fluid is absorbed into the venous blood via the choroid plexus. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 435 TOP: Formation and Circulation of Cerebrospinal Fluid 43. Cerebrospinal fluid is not found in the subarachnoid space. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 435 TOP: Fluid Spaces 44. The four large, fluid-filled spaces within the brain are called ventricles.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 435 TOP: Fluid Spaces 45. Disruption of cerebrospinal fluid circulation that causes the fluid to accumulate in the epidural space is known as hydrocephalus. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 437 TOP: Hydrocephalus 46. Both the dorsal and ventral root ganglia in the spinal nerves contain cell bodies. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 438 TOP: Structure of the Spinal Cord 47. The cerebrum is the second largest portion of the brain. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 449 TOP: Cerebral Cortex 48. Functions of the brainstem include language, memory, and emotions. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 444 TOP: Functions of the Brainstem 49. The vomiting reflex is mediated by the medulla. ANS: T DIF: MNemoRrizaItionG B.C M REF: p. 444 TOP: Functions of the BrainstemU S N T O 50. The shallow grooves of the cerebrum are called gyri. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 449 TOP: Cerebral Cortex 51. The islands of gray matter inside the hemispheres of the cerebrum are known as the cerebral cortex. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 451 TOP: Cerebral Tracts and Basal Nuclei 52. Poliomyelitis results in flaccid paralysis via destruction of posterior horn neurons. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 460 TOP: Somatic Motor Pathways in the Central Nervous System 53. The dura mater is the periosteum of the cranial bones, and the pia mater attaches the brain tissue. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 433 TOP: Coverings of the Brain and Spinal CordAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 54. The tentorium cerebelli is a sickle-shaped extension of the dura that separates the two hemispheres of the cerebellum. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 433 TOP: Coverings of the Brain and Spinal Cord 55. The deepest border of the subdural space is the arachnoid membrane. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 433 TOP: Coverings of the Brain and Spinal Cord 56. The most superficial border of the subarachnoid space is the dura mater. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 435 TOP: Coverings of the Brain and Spinal Cord 57. Filum terminale is the name given to the dura mater below the spinal cord. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 435 TOP: Coverings of the Brain and Spinal Cord 58. The spinal cord extends from the foramen magnum to the fifth lumbar vertebra. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 438 TOP: Structure of the Spinal Cord 59. The dorsal root ganglion consists of cell bodies of unipolar sensory neurons. ANS: T DIF: M NRUemori SzaItioNnGTB.COM TOP: Structure of the Spinal Cord 60. All spinal nerves are mixed nerves. REF: p. 438 ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 438 TOP: Structure of the Spinal Cord 61. Each white column in the spinal cord consists of large numbers of cell bodies divided into smaller bundles called tracts. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 438 TOP: Structure of the Spinal Cord 62. Based on the system of naming tracts in the spinal cord, the spinocerebellar tract would be an ascending tract. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 439 TOP: Functions of the Spinal Cord 63. Based on the system of naming tracts in the spinal cord, the corticospinal tract would be a descending tract. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 439 TOP: Functions of the Spinal Cord 64. Rapid mitosis stops at about age 9, but the brain grows in size until about age 18.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM U S N T O ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 441 TOP: Brain 65. The two “colorful” structures in the brain, the red nucleus and the substantia nigra, are located in the midbrain. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 444 TOP: Midbrain 66. All of the functions of the cerebellum have to do with control of smooth muscle or glands. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 445 TOP: Functions of the Cerebellum 67. The diencephalon is part of the brain located between the cerebrum and the top of the brainstem. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 447 TOP: Diencephalon 68. The infundibulum connects the hypothalamus and the pineal body. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 448 TOP: Hypothalamus 69. Because there is a strong link between the thalamus and emotion, it can produce symptoms of a psychosomatic disease. ANS: F TOP: Hypothalamus N R I G B.C M DIF: Memorization REF: p. 448 70. Most axons release neurotransmitters; however, some axons in the hypothalamus release hormones. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 448 TOP: Hypothalamus 71. A lesion or tumor in the hypothalamus may cause overeating and result in substantial weight gain. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 448 TOP: Hypothalamus 72. “Jet lag” occurs when the biological clock does not match up with the external clock. It is the job of the pineal body to correct this. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 449 TOP: Pineal Gland 73. All of the lobes of the cerebrum are named after the bones that cover them. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 449 TOP: Cerebral CortexAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 74. Association tracts connect parts of the same cerebral hemisphere. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 451 TOP: Cerebral Tracts and Cerebral Nuclei 75. Projection tracts pass through the corpus callosum from one hemisphere of the cerebrum to the other. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 451 TOP: Cerebral Tracts and Cerebral Nuclei 76. The fact that one part of the cerebrum can take on a new function in response to damage to another part of the cerebrum is an example of cerebral plasticity. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 452 TOP: Functional Areas of the Cortex 77. Consciousness may be defined as a state of awareness of one’s self, one’s environment, and other humans. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 454 TOP: Consciousness 78. The conus medullaris is located at about the first lumbar vertebrae. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 438 TOP: Structure of the Spinal CNo rdU R SINGTB.COM 79. The tertiary sensory neurons are entirely in the cerebrum. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 459 TOP: Somatic Sensory Pathways in the Central Nervous System 80. Decussation of sensory neurons usually occurs at the secondary neuron level before reaching the thalamus. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 460 TOP: Somatic Sensory Pathways in the Central Nervous System 81. Most of the motor tracts of the central nervous system do not decussate. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 459 TOP: Somatic Motor Pathways in the Central Nervous System 82. The outermost protective covering of the brain is the dura mater. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 433 TOP: Coverings of the Brain and Spinal Cord 83. The epidural space is found only in the area of the spinal cord.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 434 TOP: Coverings of the Brain and Spinal Cord 84. Changes in the oxygen content of the cerebrospinal fluid cause a homeostatic response in the respiratory control center. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 435 TOP: Cerebrospinal Fluid 85. The pyramids are two bulges of white matter on the ventral surface of the pons. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 442 TOP: Structure of the Brainstem 86. Both the inferior colliculi and superior colliculi are found in the midbrain. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 444 TOP: Midbrain 87. The “tree of life” (arbor vitae) is found in the cerebellum. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 444 TOP: Structure of the Cerebellum 88. The central nervous system directly or indirectly regulates or influences nearly every organ in the body. ANS: T DIF: MNemoRrizaItionG B.C M REF: p. 463 TOP: The Central Nervous SysteUm aSnd tNhe WThole BoOdy 89. The part of the dura that extends into the longitudinal fissure is the falx cerebri. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 433 TOP: Coverings of the Brain and Spinal Cord 90. The tentorium cerebelli separates the cerebellum from the cerebrum. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 433 TOP: Coverings of the Brain and Spinal Cord 91. The pia mater has three important inward extensions: the falx cerebri, the falx cerebelli, and the tentorium cerebelli. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 433 TOP: Coverings of the Brain and Spinal Cord 92. The ependymal cells are glia cells that assist in the production of cerebrospinal fluid. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 435 TOP: Formation and Circulation of Cerebrospinal Fluid 93. The interventricular foramen (the foramen of Monro) leads into the fourth ventricle.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 435 TOP: Formation and Circulation of Cerebrospinal Fluid 94. The cerebrospinal fluid is absorbed into the venous blood by the median foramen of Magendie. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 437 TOP: Formation and Circulation of Cerebrospinal Fluid 95. The dorsal nerve root carries motor impulses from the spinal cord to the skeletal muscles. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 438 TOP: Structure of the Spinal Cord 96. The deeper, wider groove on the spinal cord can be used to identify the ventral side of the spinal cord. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 438 TOP: Structure of the Spinal Cord 97. The nerve roots that extend below the spinal cord are called the filum terminale. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 438 TOP: Structure of the Spinal Cord 98. The structure in the brain called the olive is found in the midbrain of the brainstem. ANS: F DIF: MNemoRrizaItionG B.C M REF: p. 443 TOP: Medulla Oblongata U S N T O 99. The structure in the brain called the corpora quadrigemina is found in the midbrain. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 444 TOP: Midbrain 100. The vermis lies between the two hemispheres of the cerebellum. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 445 TOP: Structure of the Cerebellum 101. The cerebellum coordinates both incoming and outgoing motor information. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 446 TOP: Functions of the Cerebellum 102. The geniculate bodies are important nuclei in the hypothalamus. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 447 TOP: Thalamus 103. The hypothalamus is the only part of the brain able to release a hormone.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 444 NURSINGTB.COM ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 448-449 TOP: Hypothalamus and Pineal Gland 104. The hypothalamus is able to influence the functioning of both the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic nervous system. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 448 TOP: Hypothalamus 105. The corpus callosum is an example of a commissural tract of the cerebrum. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 451 TOP: Cerebral Tracts and Basal Nuclei 106. The gray commissure joins the spinal cord to the brain. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 438 TOP: Structure of the Spinal Cord 107. All spinal reflexes contain interneurons. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 440 TOP: Functions of the Spinal Cord 108. After birth, the brain grows only in size, not in number of neurons. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 441 TOP: Brain N URSINGTB.COM 109. Once a synapse is established in the brain, it remains for life. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 441 TOP: Brain 110. The adult brain weighs about 3 pounds. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 441 TOP: Brain 111. The brain contains about 200 billion cells. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 441 TOP: Brain 112. From superior to inferior, the brainstem is composed of the pons, midbrain, and medulla oblongata. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 442 TOP: Structure of the Brainstem 113. Both the inferior and superior colliculi contain sensory centers.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM TOP: Structure of the Brainstem 114. All of the 12 cranial nerves come from one of the three parts of the brainstem. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 442 TOP: Structure of the Brainstem 115. Both the pons and medulla oblongata have centers that help regulate respiration. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 444 TOP: Functions of the Brainstem 116. The cerebrum has more neurons than any other part of the nervous system. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 444 TOP: Structure of the Cerebellum 117. The lateral fissure separates the cerebellum from the rest of the brain. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 445 TOP: Structure of the Cerebellum 118. One source of the tracts entering the cerebellum and forming the inferior cerebellar peduncle is the medulla. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 445 TOP: Structure of the Cerebellum 119. The tracts that make up the mNidUdRleScIerNebGeTllaBr.peCdOunMcle come from the pons. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 445 TOP: Structure of the Cerebellum 120. The cerebellum controls skeletal muscles to maintain balance. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 445 TOP: Functions of the Cerebellum 121. The diencephalon consists of the thalamus and the hypothalamus. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 447 TOP: Diencephalon 122. The thalamus is responsible for the associating sensory impulses with feelings of pleasantness and unpleasantness. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 447 TOP: Thalamus 123. The hypothalamus plays an important role in maintaining proper body temperature. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 449Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM TOP: Hypothalamus 124. The hypothalamus plays a role in regulating water balance in the body. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 448 TOP: Hypothalamus 125. The hormone released by the hypothalamus, melatonin, helps regulate the biological clock. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 449 TOP: Pineal Gland 126. The location of the crossing of the left and right optic nerves is called the epithalamus. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 449 TOP: Pineal Gland 127. The term used to describe all of the connections within the human cortex to the rest of the brain is connectomes. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 451 TOP: Cerebral Tracts and Basal Nuclei 128. The somatic senses include vision, hearing, and olfaction. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 453 TOP: Sensory Functions of the Cortex 129. Damage to Broca’s area of thNeUbrRaS inIcaNuGseTsBa.peCrsOon Mto become unable to articulate words, but the person is still able to make vocal sounds. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 452 TOP: Language MATCHING Match each disorder with its corresponding definition. a. Alzheimer disease b. Cerebrovascular accident c. Epilepsy d. Huntington disease e. Spastic paralysis f. Hemiplegia g. Paraplegia h. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease 1. Inherited form of dementia in which the symptoms first appear at between 30 and 40 years of age 2. Disease that is caused by a prion and results in reduced brain function 3. Hemorrhage from or cessation of blood flow to the cerebral vessels, which destroys neurons; also called a strokeAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 4. Type of paralysis that affects one entire side of the body 5. Type of paralysis that affects both legs 6. Degenerative disease that affects memory; it generally develops during the middle to late adult years, causing characteristic lesions in the cortex 7. Recurring or chronic seizure episodes involving sudden bursts of abnormal neuron activity 8. Type of paralysis that is experienced by many people with cerebral palsy; characterized by the involuntary contraction of the affected muscles 1. ANS: TOP: D Mechanisms DIF: Memorization of Disease REF: p. 464 2. ANS: TOP: H Mechanisms DIF: Memorization of Disease REF: p. 465 3. ANS: TOP: B Mechanisms DIF: Memorization of Disease REF: p. 464 4. ANS: TOP: F Mechanisms DIF: Memorization of Disease REF: p. 464 5. ANS: TOP: G Mechanisms DIF: Memorization of Disease REF: p. 464 6. ANS: TOP: A Mechanisms DIF: Memorization of Disease REF: p. 464 7. ANS: TOP: C Mechanisms DIF: Memorization of Disease REF: p. 465 8. ANS: TOP: E Mechanisms DIF: Memorization of Disease REF: p. 464 Match each landmark of the brain with its description or location. a. Longitudinal fissure b. Lateral fissure c. Sulci d. Parieto-occipital sulcus e. Fissure f. Central sulcus g. Gyri NURSINGTB.COM 9. Frontal lobe lies in front of this groove and the parietal lobe lies behind it 10. Groove that separates the occipital and parietal lobes 11. General term for a convolution or raised area on the cortex 12. General term for a shallow groove in the cortex 13. Divides the cerebrum into right and left hemispheres 14. General term for a deep groove in the cortex 15. The deep groove above the temporal lobe 9. ANS: TOP: F Cerebral DIF: Cortex Memorization REF: p. 450 10. ANS: TOP: D Cerebral DIF: Cortex Memorization REF: p. 450 11. ANS: TOP: G Cerebral DIF: Cortex Memorization REF: p. 444 12. ANS: TOP: C Cerebral DIF: Cortex Memorization REF: p. 444Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 13. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 450 TOP: Cerebral Cortex 14. ANS: E DIF: Memorization REF: p. 449 TOP: Cerebral Cortex 15. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 450 TOP: Cerebral Cortex OTHER 1. Describe the three distinct layers that compose the meninges. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 433 TOP: Coverings of the Brain and Spinal Cord 2. What is a lumbar puncture? Why is it done? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 436 TOP: Lumbar Puncture (Box 20-1) 3. List the major ascending and descending tracts of the spinal cord, and identify the major function of each tract. ANS: Answers will vary. NURSINGTB.COM DIF: Application REF: p. 439 TOP: Functions of the Spinal Cord 4. Describe the structure and major functions of the brainstem. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: pp. 442-444 TOP: Structure of the Brainstem, Functions of the Brainstem 5. How are the cerebral nuclei involved in Parkinson disease? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: p. 452 TOP: Parkinson Disease (Box 20-5) 6. Briefly discuss one of the “integrative functions” of the cortex. ANS: Answers will vary.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM DIF: Application REF: pp. 454-456 TOP: Integrative Functions of the Cortex 7. Describe the four types of brain waves characterized by frequency and amplitude of the waves. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: p. 454 TOP: The Electroencephalogram (EEG) (Box 20-6) 8. Explain the functions, formation, and circulation of the cerebrospinal fluid. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: pp. 435-437 TOP: Fluid Spaces, Formation and Circulation of Cerebrospinal Fluid 9. Explain the functions of the thalamus. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 448 TOP: Thalamus 10. Explain the functions of the hypothalamus. ANS: Answers will vary. NURSINGTB.COM DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 448-449 TOP: Hypothalamus 11. Name and describe the three important inward extensions of the dura mater. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 433 TOP: Coverings of the Brain and Spinal Cord 12. Name the three spaces between and around the meninges. What does each space contain? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 434-435 TOP: Coverings of the Brain and Spinal Cord 13. If an injury occurred that damaged the lateral corticospinal tract on the right side of the body, what impact would this have on the voluntary movement of the body? ANS:Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: p. 439 TOP: Functions of the Spinal Cord 14. Name the three peduncles that enter or leave the cerebellum, and explain where they come from or go to. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 445 TOP: Structure of the Cerebellum 15. Give the location of the pineal gland and its most likely function. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 449 TOP: Pineal Gland 16. Explain the location and function of primary, secondary, and tertiary sensory neurons. Which of these neurons can decussate? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: p. 459 TOP: Somatic Sensory Pathways in the Central Nervous System NURSINGTB.COM ESSAY 1. Kathryn suffered a cerebrovascular accident. It was determined that the left side of her cerebrum was damaged. On which side of her body will she most likely notice paralysis? Explain why. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 464 TOP: Mechanisms of Disease 2. Explain how the cerebrum and cerebellum are similar to a negative-feedback mechanism in terms of controlling the movement of skeletal muscles. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: pp. 445-447 TOP: Functions of the CerebellumAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM Chapter 21: Peripheral Nervous System Patton: Anatomy and Physiology, 10th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. All of the following cranial nerves have a functional classification of motor except: a. oculomotor. b. trochlear. c. vestibulocochlear. d. accessory. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 487 TOP: Cranial Nerves 2. Tic douloureux is a painful neuralgia of the nerve. a. trigeminal b. vagus c. abducens d. olfactory ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 487, Box 21-4 TOP: Trigeminal Neuralgia (Box 21-4) 3. The nerve commonly called the vagus nerve is the cranial. a. ninth b. tenth c. eleventh d. twelfth NURSINGTB.COM ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 489 TOP: Vagus Nerve (X) 4. Which of the following cranial nerves is responsible for movements of the tongue? a. Olfactory b. Trigeminal c. Trochlear d. Hypoglossal ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 490 TOP: Cranial Nerves 5. All of the following cranial nerves are involved in proprioception except the: a. vagus. b. hypoglossal. c. accessory. d. abducens. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 485 TOP: Cranial Nerves 6. Which of the following is not a plexus of the spinal nerves?Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM N R I G a. Cervical b. Brachial c. Lumbar d. Thoracic ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 478-480 TOP: Nerve Plexuses 7. The cervical plexus: a. is found deep in the neck. b. is formed by the ventral rami of the first four cervical nerves and part of C5. c. includes the phrenic nerve. d. All of the above are correct. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 478 TOP: Cervical Plexus 8. Which plexus contains nerves that innervate the lower part of the shoulder and the entire arm? a. Brachial b. Cervical c. Lumbar d. Sacral ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 478 TOP: Brachial Plexus 9. The sensory cranial nerves include only the: a. optic, vestibulocochlear, and vagus. B.C M b. olfactory, optic, and facial.U S N T O c. olfactory, optic, and vestibulocochlear. d. optic, facial, and vestibulocochlear. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 484 TOP: Cranial Nerves 10. The cranial nerve that arises from the spinal cord is the: a. abducens. b. accessory. c. glossopharyngeal. d. vagus. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 489 TOP: Accessory Nerve (XI) 11. Nerve impulses over the nerve cause increased peristalsis and decreased heart rate. a. olfactory b. trigeminal c. vagus d. hypoglossal ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 488 TOP: Cranial NervesAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 12. The spinal nerves are connected to the spinal cord and consist of pairs. a. 12 b. 21 c. 31 d. 41 ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 477 TOP: Spinal Nerves 13. Spinal nerves are fibers. a. only sensory b. only motor c. completely autonomic d. motor and sensory ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 476-477 TOP: Structure of Spinal Nerves 14. A mixed nerve is one that: a. goes both to the skin surface and to the viscera. b. has its pathway mixed with other nerves. c. carries both sensory and motor fibers. d. carries large and small motor fibers. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 477 TOP: Structure of Spinal Nerves 15. Damage to the nerve c NoulRd mIakeGtheBdi.apChraMgm unable to function. a. phrenic b. axillary c. radial d. medial cutaneous U S N T O ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 480 TOP: Phrenic Nerves (Box 21-2) 16. The phrenic nerve is found in the plexus. a. cervical b. brachial c. lumbar d. sacral ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 478 TOP: Cervical Plexus 17. Which is(are) the neurotransmitter(s) in a somatic motor pathway? a. Acetylcholine b. Amines c. Amino acids d. Neuropeptides ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 490 TOP: Basic Principles of Somatic Motor PathwaysAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM U S N T O 18. Nerves that innervate the floor of the pelvic cavity and some of the surrounding areas are found in the plexus. a. sacral b. cervical c. coccygeal d. lumbar ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 481 TOP: Sacral Plexus and Coccygeal Plexus 19. The knee jerk can be classified as a segmental reflex because: a. the center of the reflex arc lies in the spinal cord gray matter. b. impulses that mediate it enter and leave the same segment of the cord. c. the impulses that mediate it come from and go to the same side of the body. d. of the kind of stimulation used to evoke it. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 491 TOP: Somatic Reflexes of Clinical Importance 20. Which of the following is not true of the knee jerk reflex? a. It is a flexor reflex. b. It is an ipsilateral reflex. c. It is a spinal cord reflex. d. It does not have to involve the brain. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 491 TOP: Somatic Reflexes of Clin icN al RImp IortaGnceB.C M 21. Normal infants will show the Babinski reflex up to the age of years. a. 1 b. 2 c. 2 d. 3 ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 492 TOP: Somatic Reflexes of Clinical Importance 22. Which of the following is a correct statement? a. There are 7 cervical nerve pairs. b. There are 11 thoracic nerve pairs. c. There are 5 lumbar nerve pairs. d. All of the above are correct statements. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 494 TOP: Spinal Nerves 23. The lumbar plexus gives rise to the nerve. a. median b. phrenic c. femoral d. None of the above is correct.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 480 TOP: Lumbar Plexus 24. The peripheral nervous system includes: a. only spinal nerves. b. only spinal nerves and their branches. c. only cranial nerves, spinal nerves, and their branches. d. cranial nerves, the spinal cord, spinal nerves, and their branches. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 475 TOP: Introduction 25. The peripheral nervous system includes nerves. a. autonomic b. sensory c. somatic d. all of the above ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 475 TOP: Introduction 26. Which part of the vertebral column has one more pair of nerves coming from it than it has vertebrae? a. Cervical b. Thoracic c. Lumbar d. Both B and C ANS: A DIF: MNemUoRriSzaItioNnGTB.COM TOP: Spinal Nerves 27. Which is not true of the ventral nerve root? a. It is also called the anterior root. b. It contains the spinal ganglion. c. It includes motor neurons. d. All of the above are true. REF: p. 475 ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 477 TOP: Structure of Spinal Nerves 28. Which is not true of the dorsal nerve root? a. It is also called the posterior root. b. It includes the spinal ganglion. c. It includes sensory fibers. d. All of the above are true. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 476 TOP: Structure of Spinal Nerves 29. Which is the only plexus that contains fibers from the thoracic region of the spinal cord? a. Cervical b. Brachial c. LumbarAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM d. Sacral ANS: B DIF: Application REF: pp. 478-480 TOP: Nerve Plexuses, Brachial Plexus 30. Which of the following is not associated with the oculomotor nerve? a. Movement of external eye muscles b. Closing and opening of the eye (blink reflex) c. Movement of intrinsic eye muscles d. Proprioception of eye muscles ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 486 TOP: Oculomotor Nerve 31. Which of the following is not a branch of the trigeminal nerve? a. Zygomatic nerve b. Ophthalmic nerve c. Maxillary nerve d. Mandibular nerve ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 486 TOP: Trigeminal Nerve 32. Which of the following cranial nerves is not associated with eye movement? a. Oculomotor b. Trochlear c. Trigeminal d. Abducens NURSINGTB.COM ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 486 TOP: Trigeminal Nerve 33. Afferent nerves or fibers are found only in the nervous system. a. sensory b. autonomic c. central d. Both A and B are correct. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 475 TOP: Introduction 34. Efferent nerves or fibers are found only in the system. a. central b. autonomic c. somatic d. Both B and C are correct. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 475 TOP: Introduction 35. The cauda equina: a. is part of the cervical plexus. b. refers to the nerves below the ending of the spinal cord.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM c. is part of the brachial plexus. d. is the term used to describe the groups of cranial nerves leaving the skull. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 476 TOP: Spinal Nerves 36. Which segment of the vertebral column generates more spinal nerve pairs than any other segment? a. Cervical b. Thoracic c. Lumbar d. Sacral ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 475 TOP: Spinal Nerves 37. The spinal ganglion can be found on the of the spinal nerve. a. dorsal nerve root b. dorsal ramus c. ventral nerve root d. ventral ramus ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 476 TOP: Structure of Spinal Nerves 38. Small branches from the cervical plexus join which two cranial nerves? a. Vagus and hypoglossal b. Vagus and accessory N R I G B.C M c. Hypoglossal and accessoryU S N T O d. Glossopharyngeal and hypoglossal ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 478 TOP: Cervical Plexus 39. By age 2 years in a normal infant, the stimulus that once caused the Babinski reflex now causes: a. the knee jerk reflex. b. the ankle jerk reflex. c. the plantar reflex. d. no reaction at all. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 492 TOP: Plantar Reflex 40. A gymnast is experiencing problems with balance and equilibrium. Which of the following cranial nerves may be causing this condition? a. Accessory b. Glossopharyngeal c. Hypoglossal d. Vestibulocochlear ANS: D DIF: Application REF: p. 482, Table 21-3 TOP: Cranial NervesAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM U S N T O 41. If a person is having problems with tongue movement, what would you predict as a possible cause and other potential problems? a. Hypoglossal nerve damage and a decrease in proprioception of the tongue b. Oculomotor nerve damage and a drooping eye c. Olfactory nerve damage and a decrease in the ability to smell d. Vagus nerve damage and a decrease in respiration ANS: A DIF: Application REF: p. 490 TOP: Cranial Nerves 42. Danielle has sustained an injury that has reduced her ability to complete simple tasks such as lifting a pencil, manipulating eating utensils, and brushing her hair. The injury has affected the motor pathways _ the central nervous system (CNS). a. involuntary; outside b. involuntary; within c. voluntary; outside d. voluntary; within ANS: C DIF: Application REF: p. 490 TOP: Basic Principles of Somatic Motor Pathways 43. In a healthy adult, a well-placed tap on the knee will result in a: a. contraction of the tendon and its muscles, the quadriceps femoris, and thereby stimulation of the muscle spindles. b. stretch of the blood vessels and decreased blood flow to the lower extremities. c. stretch of the tendon, the quadriceps femoris, and thereby stimulation of the muscle spindles. d. stretch of the tendon andNits mRusIclesG, theBr.ecCtusMfemoris, and thereby stimulation of the muscle spindles. ANS: C DIF: Application REF: pp. 491-492 TOP: Knee Jerk Reflex 44. What is the difference between a somatic reflex and an autonomic reflex? a. A somatic reflex is caused by contraction of smooth or cardiac muscles, whereas an autonomic reflex consists of skeletal muscle contraction. b. A somatic reflex is caused by the secretions of glands, whereas an autonomic reflex consists of contraction of smooth and skeletal muscles. c. A somatic reflex is caused by contraction of skeletal muscles, whereas an autonomic reflex consists of contraction of smooth or cardiac muscle or secretions of glands. d. A somatic reflex is caused by contraction of smooth or cardiac muscles, whereas an autonomic reflex consists of the secretions of glands. ANS: C DIF: Application REF: p. 491 TOP: Nature of a Reflex 45. What would the result be if the phrenic nerve received an impulse from the cervical plexus? a. The diaphragm would stop contracting. b. Sensation to the anterior abdominal wall would cease. c. Motor nerves to the thigh would not be able to receive impulses. d. Motor nerves to the back of the neck would not be able to receive impulses. ANS: A DIF: Application REF: p. 480 TOP: Phrenic Nerves (Box 21-2)Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 46. How is herpes zoster (shingles) a result of the reactivation of the varicella zoster virus? a. Adrenergic receptors of the cranial nerve send impulses to the brain, indicating pain at the nerve site. b. A cutaneous nerve is affected by the virus causing shingles, which remains dormant in the dorsal root ganglion for years. c. -receptors of the cranial nerve send impulses to the brain, indicating pain at the nerve site. d. A cranial nerve is affected by the virus causing shingles, which remains dormant in the dorsal root ganglion for years. ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 483 TOP: Herpes Zoster (Box 21-3) 47. After radiation treatment, Jake experienced a painful eruption of red, swollen plaques that ruptured and later crusted over. Soon after the eruption of the vesicles, Jake complained of burning and itching in the affected dermatome. These symptoms are most likely a result of what condition? a. Cranial nerve damage b. Herpes zoster c. Peripheral neuropathy d. Trigeminal neuralgia ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 483 TOP: Herpes Zoster (Box 21-3) 48. When responding to stimulation of the outer margin of the sole of the foot, a 1-year-old infant extends her great toe without fanning of the other toes. This happens because: a. the corticospinal fibers have become fully myelinated and the Babinski reflex becomes suppressed. NURSINGTB.COM b. the corticospinal fibers have not yet become fully myelinated and the Babinski reflex is activated. c. the sensory fibers in the ophthalmic branch of the fifth cranial nerve are mediated by reflex arcs. d. a deep reflex is mediated by a two-neuron spinal arc. ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 492 TOP: Plantar Reflex 49. Judy has sustained an injury that has damaged the vestibulocochlear nerve. This injury will have an effect on her ability to: a. hear. b. move her jaw. c. open and close her eyes. d. maneuver her tongue. ANS: A DIF: Application REF: p. 485 TOP: Vestibulocochlear Nerve 50. A patient complains of numbness in the skin of the buttocks and the posterior surface of the thigh and leg. The spinal nerve or peripheral branch most likely involved with this condition is the plexus. a. brachial b. cervical c. coccygealAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM U S N T O d. thoracic ANS: C DIF: Application REF: p. 481 TOP: Nerve Plexuses TRUE/FALSE 1. Each optic nerve contains fibers from both retinas. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 486 TOP: Optic Nerve (II) 2. Conduction by the sixth cranial nerve results in sensations of hearing. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 487 TOP: Abducens Nerve (VI) 3. The vagus nerve contains both sensory and motor fibers. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 488-489 TOP: Vagus Nerve (X) 4. Injury to the sixth cranial nerve causes the eye to turn in because of paralysis of the abducting muscle of the eye. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 488 TOP: Cranial Nerve Damage (Box 21-5) 5. There are 31 pairs of spinal nerves, all of which consist of both motor and sensory fibers. ANS: T DIF: MNemoRrizaItionG B.C M TOP: Spinal Nerves REF: p. 477 6. A herpes zoster (shingles) outbreak usually affects more than one dermatome pattern on the skin. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 483 TOP: Herpes Zoster (Box 21-3) 7. Trigeminal neuralgia, or tic douloureux, is characterized by stabbing pain radiating from the eyes. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 487 TOP: Trigeminal Neuralgia (Box 21-4) 8. The ventral rami of all spinal nerves subdivide to form complex networks called plexuses. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 477 TOP: Structure of Spinal Nerves 9. Each spinal nerve attaches to the spinal cord by means of two short roots—a ventral root and a dorsal root. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 477 TOP: Structure of Spinal NervesAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 10. The phrenic nerve exits from the brachial plexus. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 478 TOP: Cervical Plexus 11. Any disease or injury that damages the spinal cord between the first and fifth cervical segments also paralyzes the phrenic nerve and therefore the diaphragm. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 480 TOP: Phrenic Nerves (Box 21-2) 12. A dermatome is the skin surface area supplied by a single spinal nerve. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 482 TOP: Dermatomes and Myotomes 13. Approximately 3% of the population will suffer from shingles at some time in their lives. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 483 TOP: Herpes Zoster (Box 21-3) 14. Somatic reflexes are contractions of smooth muscles. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 491 TOP: Nature of a Reflex 15. At all stages of development,Na pRositIiveGBabBin.skCi reMflex always means destruction of pyramidal tract fibers. U S N T O ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 491 TOP: Somatic Reflexes of Clinical Importance 16. Each spinal nerve branches into three rami: a ventral branch, a dorsal branch, and an autonomic or visceral branch. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 476-477 TOP: Structure of Spinal Nerves 17. The spinal root that possesses a swelling is the dorsal root. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 476 TOP: Structure of Spinal Nerves 18. The dorsal root ganglion contains motor neuron cell bodies. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 476-477 TOP: Structure of Spinal Nerves 19. The lower end of the spinal cord bears the name lumbosacral plexus. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 481Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM TOP: Sacral Plexus and Coccygeal Plexus 20. There are 62 spinal nerves. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 496 TOP: Spinal Nerves 21. Herpes zoster is a unique viral infection that almost always affects the skin of a single dermatome. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 483 TOP: Herpes Zoster (Box 21-3) 22. Myotome is a term referring to a skeletal muscle group innervated by motor neuron axons from a given spinal nerve. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 483 TOP: Dermatomes and Myotomes 23. The sacral plexus is found deep within the shoulder. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 481 TOP: Sacral Plexus and Coccygeal Plexus 24. Skeletal muscles are somatic effectors. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 490 TOP: Basic Principles of SomNaticRMotIor PGathwBa.ysC M U S N T O 25. The Babinski reflex is evoked via stimulation of the outer sole of the foot and will cause a normal infant to extend the great toe. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 491 TOP: Plantar Reflex 26. Amines are the neurotransmitters in a somatic motor pathway. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 490 TOP: Basic Principles of Somatic Motor Pathways 27. Sympathetic chain and sympathetic rami refer to the same structure. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 477 TOP: Structure of Spinal Nerves 28. The peripheral nervous system includes cranial nerves. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 475 TOP: Introduction 29. The peripheral nervous system consists of 43 pairs of nerves and their branches. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 475 TOP: IntroductionAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 30. The peripheral nervous system contains only efferent nerves. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 475 TOP: Introduction 31. Even though there are only seven cervical vertebrae, that region generates eight cranial nerves. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 475 TOP: Spinal Nerves 32. The nerves emerging from the lower lumbar and sacral regions branch from a structure called the cauda equina, not the spinal cord itself. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 476 TOP: Spinal Nerves 33. The spinal ganglion is located only on the ventral nerve root. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 476 TOP: Structure of Spinal Nerves 34. Branches of the dorsal ramus innervate the skin and muscles of the posterior surface of the head, neck, and trunk. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 477 TOP: Structure of Spinal NervNes URSINGTB.COM 35. Nerve plexuses of the thoracic region innervate the abdominal organs. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 477-478 TOP: Nerve Plexuses 36. The brachial plexus is the only plexus that contains a thoracic spinal nerve. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 478-480 TOP: Nerve Plexuses, Brachial Plexus 37. There is almost no overlap in the dermatomes of the body. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 482 TOP: Dermatomes and Myotomes 38. Based on the numbering system of the cranial nerves, cranial nerve XI would be more anterior than cranial nerve III. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 484 TOP: Cranial Nerves 39. Most “motor” cranial nerves carry proprioceptive sensory fibers.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM ANS: T U S N T O ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 484 TOP: Cranial Nerves 40. The cochlear nerve is composed of axons that originate in the organ of Corti. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 487 TOP: Vestibulocochlear Nerve 41. The vestibulocochlear nerve is sometimes called the acoustic nerve. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 487 TOP: Vestibulocochlear Nerve 42. The glossopharyngeal nerve supplies fibers to the carotid sinus, which has a role in the control of blood pressure. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 488 TOP: Glossopharyngeal Nerve 43. Because the vagus nerve sends many fibers to the abdominal organs, it was given the name vagus, which means visceral. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 488 TOP: Vagus Nerve (X) 44. The accessory nerve is unique among the cranial nerves, because none of its fibers originate in the brain. N R I G B.C M DIF: Memorization REF: p. 490 TOP: Accessory Nerve (XI) 45. Reflexes are always unconscious or involuntary. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 490 TOP: Nature of a Reflex 46. A reflex always includes a muscle contraction or a gland secretion. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 491 TOP: Nature of a Reflex 47. The final efferent organ of the knee jerk reflex is the quadriceps femoris muscle. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 491 TOP: Somatic Reflexes of Clinical Importance 48. If a reflex causes cardiac muscle to contract, it can be either a somatic or an autonomic reflex. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 491 TOP: Nature of a ReflexAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM ANS: F U S N T O 49. The plantar reflex consists of a curling under of all the toes, plus a slight turning in and flexion of the anterior part of the foot. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 493 TOP: Somatic Reflexes of Clinical Importance 50. The plantar reflex and Babinski reflex are brought about by the same stimulus. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 492 TOP: Somatic Reflexes of Clinical Importance 51. The most common cause of peripheral neuropathy in the United States is diabetes mellitus. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 475 TOP: Peripheral Neuropathy (Box 21-1) 52. If you have never had chickenpox, it is unlikely that you will develop shingles. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 483 TOP: Herpes Zoster (Box 21-3) 53. There is one more thoracic spinal nerve than there are thoracic vertebrae. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 475 TOP: Spinal Nerves 54. When referring to a spinal nerve, the terms dorsal root and dorsal ramus refer to the same structure. N R I G B.C M DIF: Memorization REF: p. 475 TOP: Structure of Spinal Nerves 55. The term plexus comes from the Latin word meaning braid. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 476 TOP: Nerve Plexuses 56. Thoracic spinal nerves are the only segment of spinal nerves that do not participate in a plexus. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 478-480 TOP: Brachial Plexus 57. The last spinal nerve is Cx 1 (from the coccyx), which joins with sacral spinal nerves to form the coccygeal plexus. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 481 TOP: Sacral Plexus and Coccygeal Plexus 58. Only spinal nerves from the sacrum form the sacral plexus. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 481 TOP: Sacral Plexus and Coccygeal PlexusAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM U S N T O 59. Because the distribution of nerves to skeletal muscle is arranged into specific myotomes, a skeletal muscle can be innervated by axons from only one spinal nerve. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 482-483 TOP: Dermatomes and Myotomes 60. It would be normal to find a functioning Babinski reflex in an infant as young as 4 months old. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 492 TOP: Plantar Reflex 61. The corneal reflex refers to the eye reducing the size of the pupil in response to bright light. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 492 TOP: Corneal Reflex 62. Efferent neurons carry information away from the CNS; afferent neurons carry information toward the CNS. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 475 TOP: Introduction 63. The nerves from the cervical plexus innervate the lower part of the shoulder and the entire arm. ANS: F DIF: MNemoRrizaItionG B.C M TOP: Brachial Plexus REF: pp. 478-480 64. The largest nerve of the body, the sciatic nerve, has its source in the sacral plexus. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 481 TOP: Sacral Plexus and Coccygeal Plexus 65. The olfactory nerve, the optic nerve, and the oculomotor nerve are the only cranial nerves that do not come from the brainstem. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 485-486 TOP: Cranial Nerves 66. All reflexes have their interneurons in the spinal cord. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 490 TOP: Nature of a Reflex 67. The somatic motor pathway has two neurons between the CNS and the effector organs, just as the autonomic system does. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 490 TOP: Basic Principles of Somatic Motor PathwaysAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 68. The optic tract contains fibers from both retinas. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 486 TOP: Optic Nerve (II) 69. The two optic nerves join at the optic chiasma. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 486 TOP: Optic Nerve (II) 70. Most of the optic nerve fibers terminate in the cerebellum. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 486 TOP: Optic Nerve (II) 71. All of the cervical nerves contribute to the cervical plexus. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 476 TOP: Cervical Plexus 72. Two cranial nerves, the hypoglossal and the vagus, receive branches from the cervical plexus. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 476 TOP: Cervical Plexus 73. The first four lumbar nerves contribute to the lumbar plexus. ANS: T DIF: MNemoRrizaItionG B.C M REF: p. 480 TOP: Lumbar Plexus U S N T O 74. The femoral nerve, a major nerve in the lower extremity, exits from the lumbar plexus. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 480 TOP: Lumbar Plexus 75. The olfactory nerve has dendrites in the inferior turbinates of the nose. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 485 TOP: Olfactory Nerve 76. The axons of the olfactory nerve form about 20 small bundles that pierce the cribriform plate to enter the brain. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 485 TOP: Olfactory Nerve 77. The oculomotor nerve contains fibers from the autonomic nervous system. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 486 TOP: Oculomotor Nerve 78. The trochlear nerve stimulates movement of the eye.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 486 TOP: Trochlear Nerve 79. The trigeminal nerve gives rise to the ophthalmic nerve, the maxillary nerve, and the zygomatic nerve. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 486 TOP: Trigeminal Nerve 80. The abducens nerve fibers originate in the medulla oblongata. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 487 TOP: Abducens Nerve (VI) 81. The abducens nerve abducts the upper arm. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 487 TOP: Abducens Nerve (VI) 82. The facial nerve contains efferent fibers to the tear glands and afferent fibers from the taste buds. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 487 TOP: Facial Nerve 83. The glossopharyngeal nerve is the only cranial nerve that contains autonomic fibers. ANS: F DIF: M NRUemori SzaItioNnGTB.COM TOP: Glossopharyngeal Nerve 84. The vagus nerve originates in the pons. REF: p. 488 ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 489 TOP: Vagus Nerve (X) MATCHING Match each cranial nerve with its function or description. a. Olfactory nerve b. Optic nerve c. Oculomotor nerve d. Trochlear nerve e. Trigeminal nerve f. Abducens nerve g. Vestibulocochlear nerve h. Glossopharyngeal nerve i. Vagus nerve j. Hypoglossal nerve 1. Connects to various external muscles of the eyeAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 2. Involved in both hearing and equilibrium 3. Fibers are widely distributed in the body; name means “wanderer” 4. Dendrites and cell bodies are along the superior conchae 5. Supplies muscles of the tongue; name means “under the tongue” 6. Branches into three nerves: the ophthalmic, maxillary, and mandibular nerves 7. Sends fibers to the carotid sinus, which helps regulate blood pressure 8. Sends fibers to the occipital lobe and the superior colliculi 9. Sends fibers to the superior oblique muscle of the eye 10. Abducts the eye 1. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 486 TOP: Oculomotor Nerve 2. ANS: TOP: G DIF: Memorization Vestibulocochlear Nerve REF: p. 487 3. ANS: TOP: I DIF: Vagus Nerve (X) Memorization REF: pp. 488-489 4. ANS: TOP: A DIF: Olfactory Nerve Memorization REF: p. 485 5. ANS: TOP: J DIF: Hypoglossal Nerve Memorization REF: p. 490 6. ANS: TOP: E DIF: Trigeminal Nerve Memorization REF: p. 486 7. ANS: TOP: H DIF: Memorization Glossopharyngeal Nerve REF: p. 488 8. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 486 TOP: Optic Nerve (II) 9. ANS: D DIF: MNemUoRriSzaItioNnGTB.COM TOP: Trochlear Nerve REF: p. 486 10. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 487 TOP: Abducens Nerve (VI) Match each term with its description or definition. a. Cauda equina b. Ventral nerve root c. Dorsal nerve root d. Cervical plexus e. Brachial plexus f. Lumbar plexus g. Dermatome h. Myotome i. Somatic reflexes j. Autonomic reflexes 11. Plexus from which femoral nerve emerges 12. Nerve root that carries motor nerves away from the spinal cord 13. Skin surface area that is supplied by one spinal nerve 14. Reflexes that involve cardiac muscle, smooth muscle, and glands 15. Nerve root that carries sensory neurons into the spinal cord 16. Group or braid of nerves formed from spinal nerves C1 to C4Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 17. Group of skeletal muscles that receive axons from one spinal nerve 18. Reflexes that involve skeletal muscles 19. Group of nerves that extend from the bottom of the spinal cord 20. Group or braid of nerves formed from spinal nerves C5 to T1 11. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 480 TOP: Lumbar Plexus 12. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 477 13. TOP: ANS: Structure of Spinal Nerves G DIF: Memorization REF: p. 482 TOP: Dermatomes and Myotomes 14. ANS: TOP: J DIF: Memorization Nature of a Reflex REF: p. 491 15. ANS: TOP: C DIF: Memorization Structure of Spinal Nerves REF: p. 477 16. ANS: TOP: D DIF: Memorization Cervical Plexus REF: p. 478 17. ANS: TOP: H DIF: Memorization Dermatomes and Myotomes REF: p. 483 18. ANS: TOP: I DIF: Memorization Nature of a Reflex REF: p. 491 19. ANS: TOP: A DIF: Memorization Spinal Nerves REF: p. 476 20. ANS: TOP: E DIF: Memorization Brachial Plexus REF: pp. 478-480 OTHER NURSINGTB.COM 1. List the names, numbers, and functional classifications of the cranial nerves. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 484, Table 21-2 TOP: Cranial Nerves 2. Briefly describe the structure of the spinal nerves. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: pp. 476-477 TOP: Structure of Spinal Nerves 3. Why do the right and left phrenic nerves have considerable clinical interest? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 480 TOP: Phrenic Nerves (Box 21-2) 4. Outline the neural pathway involved in the patellar (knee jerk) reflex.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM U S N T O ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: pp. 491-492 TOP: Knee Jerk Reflex 5. Identify the major nerve plexuses and which spinal nerves join to form each of them. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: pp. 478-481 TOP: Nerve Plexuses 6. What is a dermatome? What is a myotome? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 482-483 TOP: Dermatomes and Myotomes 7. Explain the difference between the Babinski reflex and the plantar reflex. What does a positive Babinski reflex in an adult indicate? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: p. 493 TOP: Plantar Reflex N R I G B.C M 8. Explain how the nerve plexuses make the nervous system more efficient. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: p. 495 TOP: Nerve Plexuses 9. Describe the basic principles of somatic motor pathways. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 490 TOP: Basic Principles of Somatic Motor Pathways 10. Explain the difference between a spinal reflex and a cranial reflex. Explain the difference in effector organs between somatic reflexes and visceral reflexes. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 490-491 TOP: Nature of a Reflex ESSAYAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 1. A patient has a severe case of the hiccups. The physician injects an anesthetic solution into the neck about an inch above the clavicle. What nerve was injected, and what is the result? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: p. 480, Box 21-2 TOP: Phrenic Nerves (Box 21-2) NURSINGTB.COMAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM Chapter 22: Autonomic Nervous System Patton: Anatomy and Physiology, 10th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which generalization concerning the autonomic nervous system is not true? a. All of its axons are afferent fibers. b. It operates without conscious control. c. It regulates visceral activities. d. All of its neurons are motor. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 499-500 TOP: Divisions of the Autonomic Nervous System 2. Which of the following would not be a major effector of the autonomic nervous system? a. Skeletal muscles b. Blood vessels c. Sweat glands d. Iris of the eye ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 499 TOP: Overview of the Autonomic Nervous System 3. Somatic motor and autonomic pathways share all of the following characteristics except: a. direction of information flow. b. location of peripheral fibers. c. number of neurons betweNenUcReSntIraNl nGeTrvBou.sCsyOsMtem (CNS) and effector. d. acetylcholine. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 501 TOP: Basic Plan of Autonomic Pathways 4. The autonomic nervous system functions chiefly in the: a. coordination of muscular activity. b. innervation of smooth muscle in the viscera. c. reception of sensory impulses. d. arousal of alerting mechanism. ANS: B DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 499 TOP: Overview of the Autonomic Nervous System 5. Once inside the sympathetic chain ganglion, the preganglionic fiber may: a. synapse with a sympathetic postganglionic neuron. b. send ascending and/or descending branches through the sympathetic trunk to synapse with postganglionic neurons in other chain ganglia. c. pass through one or more ganglia without synapsing. d. do all of the above. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 500 TOP: Structure of the Autonomic Nervous SystemAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM N R I G B.C M 6. Sympathetic responses generally have widespread effects on the body because: a. they reach visceral effectors faster than parasympathetic impulses. b. myoneural junctions contain a substance that inactivates acetylcholine. c. preganglionic fibers are short and postganglionic fibers are long. d. preganglionic fibers synapse with several postsynaptic fibers. ANS: D DIF: Application REF: p. 503 TOP: Structure of the Sympathetic Pathways 7. Parasympathetic neuron cell bodies are located in: a. the white columns of the sacral segments of the spinal cord. b. the lateral gray columns of thoracic segments of the spinal cord. c. nuclei of the brainstem and the lateral gray columns of the sacral cord. d. collateral ganglia. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 503 TOP: Structure of the Parasympathetic Pathways 8. Which of the following is not an example of sympathetic stimulation? a. Constriction of the bronchioles b. Decreased secretion of the pancreas c. Constriction of the urinary sphincters d. Dilation of skeletal muscle blood vessels ANS: A DIF: Application REF: p. 510 TOP: Summary of Sympathetic “Fight-or-Flight” Reaction (Table 22-5) 9. All of the following are examples of parasympathetic stimulation except: a. contraction of the urinary bUladdSer.N T O b. relaxation of the sphincters of the digestive tract. c. increased salivation. d. increased heart rate. ANS: D DIF: Application REF: p. 507 TOP: Autonomic Functions 10. “Fight-or-flight” physiological changes include all of the following except: a. increased conversion of glycogen into glucose. b. constriction of respiratory airways. c. increased sweating. d. dilation of blood vessels in skeletal muscles. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 510 TOP: Functions of the Autonomic Nervous System 11. All of the following are characteristics of sympathetic preganglionic neurons except: a. they secrete acetylcholine. b. they have long fibers from CNS to ganglion. c. dendrites and cell bodies are found in the lateral gray columns of thoracic and the first four lumbar segments of the spinal cord. d. All of the above are correct. ANS: B DIF: Synthesis REF: pp. 500-501 TOP: Structure of the Sympathetic PathwaysAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 12. Norepinephrine is liberated at: a. the dendrite ending. b. parasympathetic preganglionic nerve endings. c. most sympathetic postganglionic nerve endings. d. sympathetic preganglionic nerve endings. ANS: C DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 505 TOP: Autonomic Neurotransmitters and Receptors 13. Beta receptors: a. are cholinergic. b. bind acetylcholine. c. bind norepinephrine. d. bind the toxin muscarine. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 505 TOP: Norepinephrine and Its Receptors 14. Propranolol is an example of a: a. beta blocker. b. drug used to treat irregular heartbeats. c. drug used to treat hypertension. d. All of the above are correct. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 505 TOP: Beta Blockers (Box 22-2) 15. A child was frightened by a lNarUgeRdSoIg.NTGhe TpBu.piClsOoMf the child’s eyes became dilated, and the heart and respiratory rates increased. These symptoms were caused by stimulation of: a. the parasympathetic nervous system. b. the sympathetic nervous system. c. both the parasympathetic and the sympathetic nervous systems. d. None of the above would account for the symptoms. ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 509 TOP: Functions of the Sympathetic Division 16. Which of the following might occur from the stimulation of parasympathetic fibers? a. Goose pimples b. Dilation of blood vessels to skeletal muscles c. Increased blood sugar d. Increased peristalsis in the digestive tract ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 508 TOP: Autonomic Functions (Table 22-4) 17. Parasympathetic stimulation has no effect on any of the following areas except: a. sweat glands. b. skin blood vessels. c. the liver. d. the urinary bladder.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM U S N T O ANS: D DIF: Application REF: p. 508 TOP: Autonomic Functions (Table 22-4) 18. Which of the following statements is not true? a. The parasympathetic division is the dominant controller of most autonomic effectors most of the time. b. Under quiet, nonstressful conditions, more impulses reach autonomic effectors by cholinergic parasympathetic fibers than by adrenergic sympathetic fibers. c. The major function of the parasympathetic division is to serve as an “emergency” system. d. Parasympathetic stimulation causes an increase in the secretion of pancreatic juice and insulin. ANS: C DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 509 TOP: Functions of the Autonomic Nervous System 19. Alpha receptors bind with: a. acetylcholine. b. norepinephrine. c. the toxin muscarine. d. none of the above. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 505 TOP: Norepinephrine and Its Receptors 20. Which is not true about sympathetic postganglionic neurons? a. They are usually longer than preganglionic neurons. b. They produce acetylcholiNne.R I G B.C M c. They produce norepinephrine. d. They have acetylcholine receptors on their dendrites. ANS: B DIF: Application REF: pp. 504-505 TOP: Autonomic Neurotransmitters and Receptors 21. Which is not true about parasympathetic postganglionic neurons? a. They are usually shorter than the preganglionic neurons. b. They produce acetylcholine as a neurotransmitter. c. They produce norepinephrine as a neurotransmitter. d. They have acetylcholine receptors on their dendrites. ANS: C DIF: Application REF: pp. 504-505 TOP: Autonomic Neurotransmitters and Receptors 22. Acetylcholine can stimulate receptors. a. alpha b. beta c. nicotinic d. both alpha and beta ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 505 TOP: Autonomic Neurotransmitters and Receptors 23. Norepinephrine can stimulate receptors.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM a. alpha b. beta c. nicotinic d. both alpha and beta ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 505 TOP: Autonomic Neurotransmitters and Receptors 24. How does a dually innervated autonomic effector differ from a singly innervated autonomic effector? a. A dually innervated effector receives input from both sympathetic and parasympathetic pathways. A singly innervated autonomic effector receives input from only the sympathetic division. b. A dually innervated effector receives input from both sympathetic and parasympathetic pathways. A singly innervated autonomic effector receives input from only the parasympathetic division. c. A dually innervated effector utilizes both acetylcholine and norepinephrine as neurotransmitters. A singly innervated autonomic effector utilizes only acetylcholine. d. A dually innervated effector utilizes both acetylcholine and norepinephrine as neurotransmitters. A singly innervated autonomic effector uses only norepinephrine. ANS: A DIF: Application REF: pp. 499-500 TOP: Divisions of the Autonomic Nervous System 25. Which of the following is a description of the principle of autonomic antagonism as it relates to the autonomic nervous sysNteUmR?SINGTB.COM a. If sympathetic impulses tend to inhibit the effector, parasympathetic impulses tend to stimulate it. b. If sympathetic impulses inhibit autonomic centers, parasympathetic impulses tend to stimulate them. c. If sympathetic impulses tend to stimulate an effector, parasympathetic impulses tend to inhibit it. d. If sympathetic impulses initiate nerve conduction, parasympathetic impulses stop nerve conduction. ANS: C DIF: Application REF: p. 508 TOP: Functions of the Autonomic Nervous System 26. Both sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions are tonically active, which means they: a. are hydrolyzed by the enzyme acetylcholine. b. continually conduct impulses to autonomic effectors. c. continually conduct impulses to the brain. d. have opposing effects. ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 508 TOP: Overview of Autonomic Functions 27. If you were to damage some of the preganglionic fibers that enter the celiac ganglion, what effect would this have on sympathetic stimulation? a. Hormones secreted by the adrenal medulla may reach the various sympatheticAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM U S N T O effectors, where they would enhance and prolong the effects of the sympathetic stimulation. b. Hormones secreted by the pituitary gland may reach various sympathetic effectors, where they would enhance and prolong the effects of the sympathetic stimulation. c. Hormones secreted by the adrenal medulla may not reach the various sympathetic effectors, thus delaying the effects of sympathetic stimulation. d. Hormones secreted by the pituitary gland may not reach the various sympathetic effectors, thus delaying the effects of sympathetic stimulation. ANS: C DIF: Application REF: p. 503 TOP: Structure of the Sympathetic Pathways TRUE/FALSE 1. Visceral effectors are innervated by sympathetic fibers. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 499 TOP: Overview of the Autonomic Nervous System 2. Effectors that have single innervation by the autonomic nervous system are innervated only by the parasympathetic division. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 499 TOP: Overview of the Autonomic Nervous System 3. The parasympathetic and sympathetic divisions always act with a cooperative influence, and through summation of the imNpulsRes,ItheGeffeBct.cCan bMe increased. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 499-500 TOP: Overview of the Autonomic Nervous System 4. Most effectors of the autonomic nervous system are dually innervated by sympathetic and parasympathetic neurons. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 499-500 TOP: Overview of the Autonomic Nervous System 5. The autonomic nervous system includes only efferent neurons. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 500 TOP: Overview of the Autonomic Nervous System 6. Sensory neurons can operate in autonomic reflex arcs. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 500 TOP: Structure of the Autonomic Nervous System 7. Preganglionic neurons conduct impulses from the brain or spinal cord to an autonomic ganglion. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 500 TOP: Structure of the Autonomic Nervous SystemAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 8. Conduction to autonomic effectors requires only one efferent neuron. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 500 TOP: Structure of the Autonomic Nervous System 9. Sympathetic responses are usually widespread, involving many organ systems at once. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 503 TOP: Sympathetic Postganglionic Neurons 10. The parasympathetic division is also called the thoracolumbar division. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 500 TOP: Structure of the Sympathetic Pathways 11. The effect of a neurotransmitter on any postsynaptic cell is determined by the characteristics of the receptor, not the neurotransmitter. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 505 TOP: Norepinephrine and Its Receptors 12. Parasympathetic stimulation has no effect on sweat glands. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 508 TOP: Autonomic Functions (Table 22-4) 13. The sympathetic division is tNhe dRomIinanGt coBn. troCllerMof the body at rest. U S N T O ANS: F DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 510 TOP: Functions of the Autonomic Nervous System 14. Nicotinic receptors are located on the dendrites of all preganglionic neurons of both the parasympathetic and sympathetic divisions. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 505 TOP: Acetylcholine and Its Receptors 15. All cell bodies of the autonomic nervous system are located within the CNS. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 503 TOP: Structure of the Autonomic Nervous System 16. Once inside the sympathetic chain ganglion, the preganglionic fiber will always synapse with a sympathetic postganglionic neuron. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 500 TOP: Structure of the Autonomic Nervous System 17. Some parasympathetic postganglionic neurons have their cell bodies in nuclei in the brainstem.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 504 TOP: Parasympathetic Postganglionic Neurons 18. The neurotransmitter released by both sympathetic and parasympathetic preganglionic neurons is acetylcholine. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 505 TOP: Autonomic Neurotransmitters and Receptors 19. Axon terminals that secrete acetylcholine are called cholinergic terminals. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 505 TOP: Autonomic Neurotransmitters and Receptors 20. Monoamine oxidase is an enzyme that enhances the action of norepinephrine. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 505 TOP: Norepinephrine and Its Receptors 21. The preganglionic neurons of both the sympathetic and the parasympathetic divisions are cholinergic. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 504 TOP: Autonomic Neurotransmitters and Receptors 22. Acetylcholine affects visceral effectors by first binding to alpha receptors. ANS: F DIF: MNemoRrizaItionG B.C M REF: p. 505 TOP: Acetylcholine and Its ReceUptoS rs N T O 23. Both the parasympathetic and the sympathetic divisions continually conduct impulses to visceral effectors. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 499 TOP: Overview of the Autonomic Nervous System 24. An effect of sympathetic stimulation on the eye is constriction of the pupil. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 508 TOP: Autonomic Functions (Table 22-4) 25. Blood vessels in both digestive organs and skeletal muscles are dilated by sympathetic stimulation. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 508 TOP: Autonomic Functions (Table 22-4) 26. The “fight-or-flight” reaction is a normal response in times of stress. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 509 TOP: Functions of the Sympathetic DivisionAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 27. Under normal, nonstressful conditions, the parasympathetic division is dominant. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 510 TOP: Functions of the Parasympathetic Division 28. Hormones released from the adrenal medulla produce effects similar to those of the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 509 TOP: Functions of the Sympathetic Division 29. Biofeedback involves willful control of specific effectors normally controlled only autonomically. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 509 TOP: Biofeedback (Box 22-3) 30. The autonomic nervous system is a part of the CNS but operates autonomously. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 499 TOP: Overview of the Autonomic Nervous System 31. Autonomic effectors require two efferent neurons. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 512 TOP: Structure of the Autonomic Nervous System 32. The parasympathetic divisionNi sU tRh eS dominaIGNT B nt.coCn trMO oller of the body at rest. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 510 TOP: Functions of the Parasympathetic Division 33. Sympathetic preganglionic neurons begin within the brain. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 500 TOP: Sympathetic Postganglionic Neurons 34. In most cases, the effects of the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic nervous system are antagonistic to each other. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 500 TOP: Overview of the Autonomic Nervous System 35. The somatic and autonomic nervous systems are similar in that they both have two efferent neurons between the CNS and the effector organ. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 500 TOP: Structure of the Autonomic Nervous System 36. The gray ramus consists of postganglionic fibers of the sympathetic nervous system. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 501Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM TOP: Sympathetic Postganglionic Neurons 37. The autonomic nervous system functions independently of the cerebral cortex. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 509 TOP: Functions of the Autonomic Nervous System 38. A new theory of autonomic neurotransmission says that most postganglionic fibers release two substances to transmit an impulse. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 506 TOP: Nonadrenergic-Noncholinergic Transmission 39. The postganglionic neurons of both the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems produce acetylcholine as their neurotransmitter. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 505 TOP: Autonomic Neurotransmitters and Receptors 40. A short postganglionic neuron is a characteristic of the sympathetic nervous system. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 503 TOP: Sympathetic Postganglionic Neurons 41. A short postganglionic neuron is a characteristic of the parasympathetic nervous system. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 504 TOP: Parasympathetic PostganNglioRnicINeuGronsB.C M U S N T O 42. If a nerve impulse is being sent to a gland, it will pass through two neurons. ANS: T DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 499 TOP: Overview of the Autonomic Nervous System 43. A sympathetic preganglionic neuron usually synapses with only one postganglionic neuron. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 501-503 TOP: Sympathetic Postganglionic Neurons 44. Norepinephrine can stimulate nicotinic or muscarinic receptors. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 505 TOP: Autonomic Neurotransmitters and Receptors 45. Nicotinic receptors are stimulated by acetylcholine. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 505 TOP: Autonomic Neurotransmitters and Receptors 46. Alpha receptors are stimulated by acetylcholine, whereas beta receptors are stimulated by norepinephrine.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 505 NURSINGTB.COM N R I G TOP: Autonomic Neurotransmitters and Receptors 47. The autonomic nervous system regulates subconscious body functions. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 499 TOP: Overview of the Autonomic Nervous System 48. Autonomic pathways do not connect with skeletal muscles. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 499 TOP: Overview of the Autonomic Nervous System 49. The gray rami of the spinal nerve are sympathetic fibers, and the white rami are parasympathetic fibers. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 500 TOP: Sympathetic Preganglionic Neurons 50. The sympathetic trunk runs from C8 to L4. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 500-501 TOP: Sympathetic Preganglionic Neurons 51. When the sympathetic fiber enters the sympathetic trunk, it can send branches up or down the trunk. ANS: T DIF: Memorization B.C M REF: pp. 500-501 TOP: Sympathetic PreganglionicUNeSuronNs T O 52. The splanchnic nerve is made up of preganglionic sympathetic fibers. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 502 TOP: Sympathetic Preganglionic Neurons 53. Some modified postganglionic sympathetic fibers act as endocrine glands. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 503 TOP: Sympathetic Preganglionic Neurons 54. The parasympathetic nervous system is also called the craniosacral division. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 503 TOP: Parasympathetic Preganglionic Neurons 55. All cranial nerves except nerves I and II contain parasympathetic fibers. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 503 TOP: Parasympathetic Preganglionic Neurons 56. About half of the parasympathetic fibers travel in the vagus nerve.ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 503 TOP: Parasympathetic Preganglionic Neurons 57. All postganglionic sympathetic fibers release the neurotransmitter norepinephrine. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 504 TOP: Autonomic Neurotransmitters MATCHING Match each term with its description or definition. a. Sympathetic nervous system b. Parasympathetic nervous system c. Alpha receptor d. Nicotinic receptor e. Sympathetic trunk f. Splanchnic nerve g. “Fight or flight” h. “Rest and repair” i. Acetylcholine j. Norepinephrine 1. Structure that lies on either side of the spinal cord and through which preganglionic sympathetic neurons enter 2. Neurotransmitter released by cholinergic fibers 3. One type of receptor stimulated by acetylcholine 4. Nervous system that is also cNalUleRdSthIeNthGorTaB co.luCmObaMr division 5. Informal term used to describe the response of the body to sympathetic nervous system stimulation 6. Structure through which preganglionic sympathetic neurons that did not synapse in the sympathetic chain ganglion continue 7. Informal term used to describe the response of the body to parasympathetic nervous system stimulation 8. Nervous system that is also called the craniosacral division 9. Neurotransmitter released by adrenergic fibers 10. One type of receptor stimulated by norepinephrine 1. ANS: E DIF: Memorization REF: p. 501 TOP: Sympathetic Preganglionic Neurons 2. ANS: I DIF: Memorization REF: p. 501 TOP: Autonomic Neurotransmitters and Receptors 3. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 505 TOP: Acetylcholine and Its Receptors 4. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 500 TOP: Sympathetic Preganglionic Neurons 5. ANS: G DIF: Memorization REF: p. 509 TOP: Functions of the Sympathetic Division 6. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 502 TOP: Sympathetic Preganglionic Neurons 7. ANS: H DIF: Memorization REF: p. 510TOP: Functions of the Parasympathetic Division 8. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 503 TOP: Parasympathetic Preganglionic Neurons 9. ANS: J DIF: Memorization REF: p. 503 TOP: Autonomic Neurotransmitters and Receptors 10. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 505 TOP: Norepinephrine and Its Receptors SHORT ANSWER 1. Explain physiologically how summation influences effectors doubly innervated by the autonomic nervous system. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 508 TOP: Functions of the Autonomic Nervous System 2. Explain the function of monoamine oxidase as related to the autonomic nervous system. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 505 TOP: Norepinephrine and Its Receptors 3. What is the name of the enzyme that terminates the action of acetylcholine? ANS: Acetylcholinesterase NURSINGTB.COM DIF: Memorization REF: p. 505 TOP: Acetylcholine and Its Receptors 4. Explain physiologically how a beta blocker affects heart muscle activity. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 505 TOP: Norepinephrine and Its Receptors 5. What brain structure acts as a “connection” between the cerebrum and the autonomic nervous system? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: p. 500 TOP: Structure of the Autonomic Nervous System 6. List four ways the body adapts itself for maximum energy expenditure during stress conditions.ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: p. 509 TOP: Functions of the Sympathetic Division 7. Contrast somatic motor pathways with autonomic pathways. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 500 TOP: Structure of the Autonomic Nervous System 8. What two enzymes terminate the activity of norepinephrine? How do they compare with the enzymes that terminate the activity of acetylcholine? What effect does this difference have on the body? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: p. 505 TOP: Norepinephrine and Its Receptors 9. Explain the source and possible synapse points for the sympathetic preganglionic neurons. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 500-503 TOP: Sympathetic PreganglionNicUNReSurIonNsGTB.COM 10. Explain the ways in which sympathetic postganglionic neurons travel to their effector organs. Compare the relative length between sympathetic pre- and postganglionic neurons. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 500-503 TOP: Sympathetic Postganglionic Neurons 11. Explain the way parasympathetic neurons travel from the CNS to their effector organs. Compare the relative length between the parasympathetic pre- and postganglionic neurons. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 503-504 TOP: Structure of the Parasympathetic Pathways 12. Explain the principle of autonomic antagonism and why it is important in maintaining homeostasis. ANS: Answers will vary.DIF: Application REF: p. 508 TOP: Overview of Autonomic Functions 13. Explain in general, what the function of the sympathetic nervous system is. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 509 TOP: Functions of the Sympathetic Division 14. Explain in general, what the function of the parasympathetic nervous system is. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 510 TOP: Functions of the Parasympathetic Division ESSAY 1. A small child runs in front of your car. You slam on the brakes, skid, and miss hitting the child by inches. What effects did your autonomic nervous system have on your body as you reacted to this situation? Explain why it will take you a while to calm yourself after this incident. ANS: Answers will vary. NURSINGTB.COM DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 509 TOP: Functions of the Sympathetic Division 2. Mrs. Fearful has surgery in the morning. At her preoperative checkup, her blood pressure and glucose level are elevated. What might be the cause of this temporary increase? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: p. 509 TOP: Functions of the Sympathetic Division 3. Explain why the cells of the adrenal medulla can be considered sympathetic postganglionic neurons with no specific effector organ. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: pp. 500-503 TOP: Sympathetic Preganglionic NeuronsChapter 23: General Senses Patton: Anatomy and Physiology, 10th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The special senses: a. are widely distributed throughout the body. b. enable us to detect pain. c. are dense in the fingertips. d. are grouped in the tongue, nose, eyes, and ears. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 515 TOP: Distribution of Receptors 2. Pain that is perceived as being superficial but actually is caused by an underlying organ is called pain. a. phantom b. referred c. chronic d. acute ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 518 TOP: Referred Pain (Box 23-1) 3. Visceroceptors are located in which of the following? a. Skin b. Tendons c. Internal organs d. Skeletal muscles NURSINGTB.COM ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 516 TOP: Classification by Location 4. The somatic senses enable us to detect sensations, including: a. touch. b. temperature. c. pain. d. all of the above. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 514 TOP: Introduction 5. Intense stimuli of any type that results in tissue damage will activate: a. mechanoreceptors. b. thermoreceptors. c. nociceptors. d. photoreceptors. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 517 TOP: Classification by Stimulus Detected6. Chemoreceptors are most likely to be activated by: a. cold temperatures. b. noxious odors. c. pain. d. a change of receptor position. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 516 TOP: Classification by Stimulus Detected 7. The receptors responsible for sensing crude and persistent touch are the: a. Meissner corpuscles. b. Krause end bulbs. c. Ruffini corpuscles. d. free nerve endings. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 521 TOP: Sense of Touch 8. Which of the following is true of proprioceptors? a. Function in relation to movement and position b. Are superficial receptors c. Are internal receptors d. Are receptors for general senses such as touch, pressure, heat, and cold ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 516 TOP: Classification by Location 9. Free nerve endings respond t No alRl ofItheGfollBow.iCng sMtimuli except: a. tickling. b. itching. U S N T O c. strength of muscle contractions. d. pain. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 517 | p. 520 TOP: Sense of Touch 10. Lamellar corpuscles are least numerous in the: a. palms of the hands. b. joints of the body. c. skin of the back. d. soles of the feet. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 521 TOP: Sense of Touch 11. Which of the following receptors are found in most body tissues? a. Free nerve endings b. Meissner corpuscles c. Krause end bulbs d. Ruffini corpuscles ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 517 TOP: Sense of Touch12. Proprioceptors can be found in: a. the urinary bladder. b. major blood vessels of the body. c. skeletal muscles. d. both A and C. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 516 TOP: Classification by Location 13. The word “deform” describes the stimulus detected by: a. chemoreceptors. b. mechanoreceptors. c. photoreceptors. d. thermoreceptors. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 516 TOP: Classification by Stimulus Detected 14. Which of the following is true about pain receptors? a. Alpha fibers respond to chronic pain. b. Alpha fibers are associated with dull, aching pain. c. Alpha fibers are associated with sharp, localized pain. d. Beta fibers are associated with sharp, localized pain. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 518 TOP: Sense of Pain 15. Which of the following is anNanUaRtoSmIicNalGvTarBia.ntCoOf Ma Meissner corpuscle? a. Krause end bulb b. Pacinian corpuscle c. Ruffini corpuscle d. Both A and C ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 521 TOP: Sense of Touch 16. The two general classes of sense organs are: a. auditory and visual. b. peripheral and central. c. general and special. d. chemoreceptors and mechanoreceptors. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 514 TOP: Introduction 17. Sensory impulses ending in what part of the central nervous system (CNS) may affect the so-called “vital sign” reflexes? a. Thalamus b. Cerebellum c. Brainstem d. Cerebral cortexANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 515 TOP: Receptor Response 18. Sensory impulses ending in what part of the CNS trigger imprecise or “crude” sensation awareness? a. Thalamus b. Cerebellum c. Brainstem d. Cerebral cortex ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 515 TOP: Receptor Response 19. Sensory impulses ending in what part of the CNS give specific awareness of a specific type of sensation, its exact location, and its level of intensity? a. Thalamus b. Cerebellum c. Brainstem d. Cerebral cortex ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 515 TOP: Receptor Response 20. The two-point discrimination test can be used to measure: a. visual acuity. b. the ability to determine the location of a sound. c. the sensitivity of the skin in various parts of the body. d. the ability to measure theNre UlaRtiSveItNemGpTeBra.tuCreOoMf two different objects. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 515 TOP: Distribution of Receptors 21. What types of receptors are important in stimulating the thirst center? a. Mechanoreceptors b. Osmoreceptors c. Chemoreceptors d. Thermoreceptors ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 517 TOP: Classification by Stimulus Detected 22. If you slammed your finger in a car door, it would stimulate pain fibers. a. chronic b. acute c. visceral d. both chronic and visceral ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 518 TOP: Sense of Pain 23. Which term is another name for a variant of a Meissner corpuscle called the bulboid corpuscle? a. Krause end bulb b. Ruffini corpuscleN R I G B.C c. Pacinian corpuscle d. Root hair plexus ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 521 TOP: Sense of Touch 24. Which term is another name for a variant of a Meissner corpuscle called the bulbous corpuscle? a. Krause end bulb b. Ruffini corpuscle c. Pacinian corpuscle d. Root hair plexus ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 521 TOP: Sense of Touch 25. Which large mechanoreceptor, when sectioned, shows thick laminated connective tissue capsules? a. Krause end bulb b. Ruffini corpuscle c. Pacinian corpuscle d. Root hair plexus ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 521 TOP: Sense of Touch 26. Which of the following defines or explains adaptation? a. The magnitude of a receptor response increases over time to a continuous stimulus. b. The magnitude of a receptoUr reSspoNnseTdecreasOes over time to a continuous stimulus. c. The stimulus is sent to the thalamus and redirected to the brainstem. d. None of the above defines or explains adaptation. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 515 TOP: Receptor Response 27. Which of the following statements is not true of exteroceptors? a. They send both tonic and phasic impulses to the CNS. b. They are also called cutaneous receptors. c. They are located on or near the surface of the body. d. All of the above statements are true of exteroceptors. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 516 TOP: Classification by Location 28. Tactile meniscus is another name for the: a. Meissner corpuscle b. Pacinian corpuscle c. Golgi receptor d. Merkel disk ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 521 TOP: Sense of Touch29. Which of the following is not true of a receptor potential? a. It follows the all-or-none law. b. It is a graded response. c. It occurs when an adequate stimulus acts on a receptor. d. It can stimulate an action potential in the axon of a sensory neuron. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 515 TOP: Receptor Response 30. Which of the following is considered a somatic sense? a. Smell b. Taste c. Equilibrium d. None of the above ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 515 TOP: Distribution of Receptors 31. The two general classes of sense organs are: a. auditory and visual. b. peripheral and central. c. general and special. d. chemoreceptors and mechanoreceptors. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 514 TOP: Introduction 32. When referring to the sensoryNnUeRurSoI nsN, tGheTtBer.mCeOndMorgan refers to the lobe of the brain. a. occipital b. temporal c. parietal d. None of the above is correct. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 515 TOP: Receptor Response 33. Which of the following is not true of a receptor potential? a. It follows the all-or-none law. b. It is a graded response. c. It occurs when an adequate stimulus acts on a receptor. d. It can stimulate an action potential in the axon of a sensory neuron. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 515 TOP: Receptor Response 34. Somatic sensory receptors are found in the: a. skin. b. muscles. c. eyes and ears. d. all of the aboveANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 516 TOP: Classification by Sensory Pathway TRUE/FALSE 1. Sensory receptors make it possible for the body to respond to stimuli caused by changes occurring in our external and internal environments. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 515 TOP: Sensory Receptors 2. Touch and pressure are examples of stimuli that activate mechanoreceptors. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 521 TOP: Sense of Touch 3. As we wear our sneakers, we lose the constant feeling of their presence; this is called adaptation. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 515 TOP: Receptor Response 4. Somatic sense receptors are distributed evenly throughout the body. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 515 TOP: Distribution of Receptors 5. Taste buds are both exterocepNto UrRs aSnIdNchGeTmBor.ecCep OtMors. ANS: T DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 516 TOP: Classification by Location 6. Somatic sense receptors located in muscles and joints are called visceroceptors. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 516 TOP: Classification by Location 7. Muscle spindles are stimulated by excessive muscle contraction. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 521 TOP: Sense of Proprioception 8. Proprioceptors are receptors for touch, pain, heat, and cold. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 516 TOP: Classification by Location 9. You feel hungry because of a proprioceptor. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 516 TOP: Classification by Location 10. Proprioceptors are activated by a change in temperature.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 516 TOP: Classification by Location 11. Mechanoreceptors are the simplest, most common, and most widely distributed sensory receptors. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 516 TOP: Classification by Structure 12. Somatic sense receptors located in muscles and joints are called proprioceptors. ANS: T DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 516 TOP: Classification by Location 13. Golgi tendon receptors are stimulated by touch. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 521 TOP: Sense of Touch 14. Exteroceptors are often called somatic senses. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 516 TOP: Classification by Location 15. Olfactory receptors and taste buds are chemoreceptors. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 516 TOP: Classification by StimulNus R I G B.C M U S N T O 16. Special sense organs can respond to only one type of stimuli, whereas general sense organs can respond to several different types of stimuli. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 515 TOP: Receptor Response 17. Adaptation by a receptor causes an increase in the rate of impulse but a decrease in its intensity. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 515 TOP: Receptor Response 18. Proprioceptors in muscles and joints tend to adapt faster than other types of receptors. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 515 TOP: Receptor Response 19. Proprioceptors are specialized types of visceroceptors. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 516 TOP: Classification by Location 20. Proprioceptors respond to pressure in such organs as the intestine and the urinary bladder.ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 516 TOP: Classification by Location 21. Referred pain may be caused by deep organ receptors and skin area receptors entering the same segment of the spinal cord. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 518 TOP: Referred Pain (Box 23-1) 22. In referring to proprioceptors, the terms tonic and phasic are interchangeable. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 516 TOP: Classification by Location 23. Nociceptors can respond to intense light. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 517 TOP: Classification by Stimulus 24. Nociceptors serve as the primary receptor for pain. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 517 TOP: Sense of Pain 25. Because of its importance to survival, the brain has a high concentration of pain receptors. ANS: F DIF: MNemoRrizaItionG B.C M REF: p. 518 TOP: Sense of Pain U S N T O 26. Lamellar corpuscle and Ruffini corpuscle refer to the same structure. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 521 TOP: Sense of Touch 27. Anatomically, each muscle spindle consists of a discrete grouping of about 5 to 10 modified muscle fibers called intrafusal fibers. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 521-522 TOP: Sense of Proprioception 28. The stretch reflex helps maintain posture. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 522 TOP: Sense of Proprioception 29. Golgi tendon receptors respond in a way similar to muscle spindles to maintain posture. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 522 TOP: Sense of Proprioception 30. The terms sensation and perception mean the same thing.NURSINGTB.COM ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 515 TOP: Receptor Response 31. Another term for a cutaneous receptor is an exteroceptor. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 516 TOP: Classification by Location 32. Another term for a visceroceptor is an interoceptor. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 516 TOP: Classification by Location 33. Tonic proprioceptors allow us to know the location of our body parts without having to look. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 516 TOP: Classification by Location 34. Merkel disks and muscle spindles provide the body with information about muscle and the strength of muscle contraction. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 521 TOP: Sense of Touch 35. Osmoreceptors measure the type of chemicals in the blood and stimulate the hypothalamus. ANS: F DIF: MNemoRrizaItionG B.C M REF: p. 517 TOP: Classification by StimulusU S N T O 36. Osmoreceptors detect changes in the concentration of electrolytes in body fluids and can stimulate the hypothalamic thirst center. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 517 TOP: Classification by Stimulus 37. Photoreceptors are found only in the eye. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 517 TOP: Classification by Stimulus 38. Mechanoreceptors are activated by stimuli that in some way deform or change the position of the receptor. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 516 TOP: Classification by Stimulus 39. Referred pain is psychosomatic pain brought on by intense stress. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 518 TOP: Referred Pain (Box 23-1)NURSINGTB.COM U S N T O 40. In referred pain, pain in a visceral organ is referred to skin sensors directly above it. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 518 TOP: Referred Pain (Box 23-1) 41. Pain that develops quickly and can be localized easily is called visceral pain. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 518 TOP: Sense of Pain 42. If you cut yourself on the finger, the fiber sending the message to your brain would be a type A pain fiber. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 518 TOP: Sense of Pain 43. An itch is caused by a rapidly adapting free nerve ending called a root hair plexus. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 520 TOP: Sense of Touch 44. The interpretation of the sensation of being tickled requires a complex interaction of many parts of the brain. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 520 TOP: Sense of Touch 45. The terms Merkel disk and tactile meniscus refer to the same structure. ANS: T DIF: MNemoRrizaItionG B.C M TOP: Sense of Touch REF: p. 521 46. The tactile receptor is made up of two cells: a tactile epithelial cell and a tactile disk. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 521 TOP: Sense of Touch 47. Tactile disks adapt rapidly to make sure current information is being sent to the brain. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 521 TOP: Sense of Touch 48. The Ruffini corpuscle is an example of a bulboid corpuscle. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 521 TOP: Sense of Touch 49. The ability to sense the presence of your books when you have been holding them for a long time depends on the functioning of the Krause end bulbs. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 521 TOP: Sense of Touch 50. A graded response is a response graded to the strength of a stimulus.NURSINGTB.COM ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 515 TOP: Receptor Response 51. Thermoreceptors are activated by changes in the concentration of electrolytes. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 516 TOP: Classification of Receptors 52. The function of a receptor is to turn a stimulus into a nerve impulse. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 515 TOP: Receptor Response 53. Receptors are often described as sensitive axons or end organs. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 515 TOP: Receptor Response 54. Special senses tend to be grouped into localized areas. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 515 TOP: Distribution of Receptors 55. Sensations produced by receptors of general senses are often called somatic senses. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 516 TOP: Classification of Sensory Pathway 56. Walking would stimulate tonNicUpRroSprIioNcGepTtoBrs.. COM ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 516 TOP: Classification by Location 57. Osmoreceptors monitor the concentration of glucose in the blood. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 517 TOP: Classification by Stimulus 58. The primary mechanism of fibromyalgia seems to be an abnormal amplification of pain information by the CNS. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 519 TOP: Sense of Pain 59. The treatment of fibromyalgia requires an increase of calcium ions in the pain centers of the spinal cord. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 519 TOP: Sense of Pain 60. Muscle tissue responds to efferent gamma motor neurons and afferent alpha motor neurons.NURSINGTB.COM U S N T O ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 522 TOP: Sense of Proprioception 61. Encapsulated nerve endings are encapsulated by cuboidal epithelial tissue. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 521 TOP: Sense of Touch MATCHING Match each receptor type with its corresponding description. a. Chemoreceptors b. Mechanoreceptors c. Nociceptors d. Photoreceptors e. Thermoreceptors 1. Activated by intense stimuli of any type that results in tissue damage 2. Found only in the eye and responds to light 3. Activated by stretch or pressure in muscle tissue 4. Could be activated by a concentration of blood glucose 5. Activated by heat or cold 1. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 517 TOP: Classification by Stimulus Detected 2. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 517 TOP: Classification by StimulNus DRetecItedG B.C M 3. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 516 TOP: Classification by Stimulus Detected 4. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 516 TOP: Classification by Stimulus Detected 5. ANS: E DIF: Memorization REF: p. 516 TOP: Classification by Stimulus Detected OTHER 1. Describe each of the receptor categories, based on the types of stimuli that activate them. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 516-517 TOP: Classification by Stimulus Detected 2. Identify the sensation or function of the following somatic sense receptors: free nerve endings, Meissner corpuscles, Krause end bulbs, Ruffini corpuscles, lamellar corpuscles, muscle spindles, and Golgi tendon receptors. ANS: Answers will vary.NURSINGTB.COM DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 519-522 TOP: Sense of Touch and Sense of Proprioception 3. Differentiate between exteroceptors, visceroceptors, and proprioceptors. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 516 TOP: Classification by Location 4. Differentiate between the pain receptors in the body—both fast and slow fibers and visceral and somatic pain. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 517-519 TOP: Sense of Pain 5. Explain the different functions of the muscle spindles and the Golgi tendon receptors. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 521-522 TOP: Sense of Pain NURSINGTB.COMNURSINGTB.COM Chapter 24: Special Senses Patton: Anatomy and Physiology, 10th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The olfactory tract carries impulses associated with: a. taste. b. equilibrium. c. smell. d. pain. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 527 TOP: Sense of Smell 2. There are openings into the middle ear. a. two b. three c. four d. five ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 531 TOP: Middle Ear 3. Both olfactory receptors and taste buds are: a. thermoreceptors. b. chemoreceptors. c. nociceptors. d. mechanoreceptors. NURSINGTB.COM ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 527-528 TOP: Sense of Smell and Sense of Taste 4. The number of pure, or “primary,” tastes is about: a. 5. b. 15. c. 30. d. 100. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 529 TOP: Taste Buds 5. All of the following are “primary” taste sensations except: a. sweet. b. sour. c. spicy. d. bitter. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 529 TOP: Taste Buds 6. The auditory ossicles include the:NURSINGTB.COM a. malleus. b. incus. c. stapes. d. All of the above are correct. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 531 TOP: Middle Ear 7. Which of the following is not a part of the bony labyrinth? a. Semicircular canal b. Malleus c. Vestibule d. Cochlea ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 532 TOP: Inner Ear 8. The organ of Corti is located in the: a. vestibule. b. semicircular canal. c. scala vestibuli. d. cochlear duct. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 533 TOP: Cochlea and Cochlear Duct 9. Movement of hair cells in the organ of Corti against the membrane can stimulate nerve impulse condition. a. tectorial b. basilar c. vestibular d. cochlear NURSINGTB.COM ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 533 TOP: The Process of Hearing 10. Which of the following structures is not a component of the external ear? a. Auricle b. Cerumen-secreting glands c. Eustachian tube d. External auditory meatus ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 530-531 TOP: External Ear 11. The tympanic membrane: a. leads from the auricle into the temporal bone. b. surrounds the cochlea and the semicircular canals. c. is continuous with the external auditory meatus. d. is also known as the inner ear. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 531 TOP: External EarNURSINGTB.COM 12. Impulses are transmitted from the inner ear to the brainstem by way of the nerve. a. vestibular b. cochlear c. tectorial d. oculomotor ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 532 TOP: The Process of Hearing 13. The sense organs responsible for static equilibrium are located in the: a. utricle. b. saccule. c. semicircular canals. d. Both A and B are correct. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 534 TOP: Balance 14. The semicircular canals are in planes of the body. a. two b. three c. four d. five ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 534 TOP: Vestibule and Semicircular Canals 15. The major function of the utrNicUleRaSndIsNacGcTulBe . inCthOeMvestibule is: a. transmitting sound waves through bones. b. changing sound waves into nerve impulses. c. detecting the position of the head. d. conducting sound waves through endolymph. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 534 TOP: Balance 16. Blood vessels are found in which of the following parts of the eye? a. Cornea b. Lens c. Choroid d. Aqueous humor ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 539 TOP: Layers of the Eyeball 17. The white of the eye is referred to as the: a. sclera. b. choroid. c. retina. d. cornea. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 538NURSINGTB.COM TOP: Layers of the Eyeball 18. The part of the eye containing nervous tissue is the: a. sclera. b. choroid. c. iris. d. retina. ANS: D DIF: Application REF: p. 540 TOP: Layers of the Eyeball 19. Which of the following is a true statement? a. Cones are more numerous than rods. b. Cones are most densely concentrated in the fovea centralis. c. Rods are most densely concentrated in the macula lutea. d. Cones increase in density toward the periphery of the retina. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 540 TOP: Layers of the Eyeball 20. To produce a clear image, the aqueous humor is involved in the process of: a. refraction. b. constriction. c. accommodation. d. convergence. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 542 TOP: Formation of Retinal Image 21. The function of the lacrimal N apUpaRra StuIsNisGtTo:B.COM a. secrete aqueous humor. b. secrete vitreous humor. c. drain aqueous humor. d. secrete tears. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 537 TOP: Structure of the Eye 22. Presbyopia is a condition resulting from: a. excessive aqueous humor. b. opacity of the lens. c. loss of lens elasticity. d. irregular curvature of the cornea. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 543 TOP: Formation of Retinal Image 23. Which of the following must happen for near vision to occur? a. Increased tension of the suspensory ligament b. Relaxation of the ciliary muscle c. Increased curvature of the lens d. Contraction of the superior rectus muscle ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 543NURSINGTB.COM TOP: Formation of Retinal Image 24. Strabismus is a problem related to: a. convergence. b. accommodation. c. refraction. d. constriction. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 544 TOP: Formation of Retinal Image 25. Which of the following is a primary photopigment? a. Green b. Orange c. White d. Purple ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 544 TOP: The Role of Photopigments 26. There are how many types of cones in the retina? a. One b. Two c. Three d. Four ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 544 TOP: The Role of Photopigments NURSINGTB.COM 27. The inability to focus the lens properly as we age is called: a. myopia. b. hyperopia. c. presbyopia. d. astigmatism. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 543 TOP: Formation of Retinal Image 28. Which is not true of nearsightedness? a. Light rays converge in front of the retina. b. The eyeball may be too long. c. Convex glasses are used for correction. d. If uncorrected, the image is blurred. ANS: C DIF: Application REF: p. 548 TOP: Mechanisms of Disease 29. Irregular curvature of the cornea can produce: a. myopia. b. glaucoma. c. hyperopia. d. astigmatism. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 548-549NURSINGTB.COM TOP: Mechanisms of Disease 30. Which of the following is not a structure of the middle ear? a. Incus b. Stapes c. Auditory tube d. Vestibule ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 531-532 TOP: Middle Ear 31. Which of the following structures is concerned with hearing? a. Utricle b. Saccule c. Semicircular canals d. Cochlear duct ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 532 TOP: The Process of Hearing 32. The passageway leading to the tympanic membrane is the: a. external auditory meatus. b. auditory tube. c. eustachian tube. d. oval window. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 530-531 TOP: External Ear NURSINGTB.COM 33. The eyelids and anterior surface of the eye are lined by the: a. cornea. b. iris. c. lens. d. conjunctiva. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 537 TOP: Structure of the Eye 34. Tongue papillae are classified by which of the following? a. scent b. structure c. location d. function ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 528 TOP: Sense of Taste 35. The word cochlea means: a. shell b. snail c. crest d. oceanAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 532 NURSINGTB.COM TOP: Process of Hearing 36. Taste buds can be found: a. in the lining of the mouth. b. on the soft palate. c. on the tongue. d. in all of the above locations. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 528 TOP: Taste Buds 37. Which of the following tongue papillae do not have taste buds? a. Fungiform b. Filiform c. Foliate d. All of the above contain taste buds. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 528 TOP: Taste Buds 38. Which structure is not inside the vestibule of the inner ear? a. Cochlear duct b. Utricle c. Saccule d. All of the above are in the vestibule. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 532 TOP: Inner Ear NURSINGTB.COM 39. Which of the following is not an accessory structure of the eye? a. Eyebrows b. Eyelashes c. The palpebrae d. All of the above are accessory structures. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 536 TOP: Structure of the Eye 40. Clearness or sharpness of visual perception is known as: a. control b. peripheral sense c. visual acuity d. visual balance ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 542 TOP: Visual Acuity (Box 24-2) 41. How many subdivisions does the anterior cavity of the eyeball have? a. one b. two c. four d. noneAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 541 TOP: Structure of the Eye 42. The sequence of auditory ossicles in the middle ear starting at the tympanic membrane and ending at the oval window is: a. malleus, incus, and stapes. b. malleus, stapes, and incus. c. stapes, malleus, and incus. d. stapes, incus, and malleus. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 531 TOP: Middle Ear 43. Which tongue papillae are huge dome-shaped bumps that form a transverse row near the back of the tongue? a. Fungiform papillae b. Circumvallate papillae c. Foliate papillae d. Filiform papillae ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 528 TOP: Taste Buds 44. Which tongue papillae do not contain taste buds but allow us to experience food texture and “feel”? a. Fungiform papillae b. Circumvallate papillae c. Foliate papillae d. Filiform papillae NURSINGTB.COM ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 528 TOP: Taste Buds 45. Which tongue papillae are large, mushroom-shaped bumps found in the anterior two-thirds of the tongue surface? a. Fungiform papillae b. Circumvallate papillae c. Foliate papillae d. Filiform papillae ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 528 TOP: Taste Buds 46. Of all the papillae on the tongue, which one contains the most taste buds? a. Fungiform papillae b. Circumvallate papillae c. Foliate papillae d. All papillae contain about the same number of taste buds. ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 528 TOP: Taste Buds 47. Cones that are sensitive to light in the blue wavelength wave are referred to as cones.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM NURSINGTB.COM a. B b. L c. S d. M ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 544 TOP: Cones 48. When you are looking at a large green field, which cones would be sending the green wavelength to the brain? a. G b. L c. S d. M ANS: D DIF: Application REF: p. 544 TOP: Cones 49. The photopigment melanopsin is found in: a. rods only. b. cones only. c. ganglion cells. d. both rods and cones. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 546 TOP: The Role of Photopigments 50. Which of the following statements is not true of the olfactory receptors? a. They are chemoreceptors. b. They are located in an area that is easily stimulated. c. The sense of smell in humans is less keen than in many other animals. d. All of the above statements are true. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 527 TOP: Olfactory Receptors 51. Which of the following statements is not true about the sense of hearing? a. The amplitude of the sound wave determines the volume. b. The frequency of the sound wave determines pitch. c. High-frequency sound waves cause the basilar membrane near the oval window to vibrate. d. All of the above statements are true. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 533 TOP: Sense of Hearing 52. Which of the following statements is not true of the eye? a. The anterior cavity is filled with vitreous fluid. b. The anterior cavity is divided into anterior and posterior chambers. c. The posterior cavity is larger than the anterior cavity. d. All of the above statements are true. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 541 TOP: Cavities and HumorsAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM TRUE/FALSE 1. Olfaction requires the chemical response of a dissolved substance for a stimulus. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 527 TOP: Sense of Smell 2. The olfactory receptor cells lie in an excellent position functionally to smell delicate odors. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 527 TOP: Olfactory Receptors 3. The transmission pathway for olfactory sensations is olfactory cilia, olfactory bulb, olfactory tract, and cerebral cortex. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 528 TOP: Olfactory Pathway 4. The tip of the tongue reacts best to bitter taste. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 528 TOP: Taste Buds 5. The tip of the tongue reacts best to a salty taste and, to a lesser extent, to a sweet taste. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 528 TOP: Taste Buds NURSINGTB.COM 6. The eustachian tube connects the inner ear with the trachea. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 531 TOP: Middle Ear 7. High-frequency sound waves cause the narrow portion of the basilar membrane near the oval window to vibrate. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 533 TOP: Sense of Hearing 8. The auditory ossicles include the malleus, incus, and stapes. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 531 TOP: Middle Ear 9. Movement of hair cells in the organ of Corti against the cochlear membrane can stimulate nerve impulse conduction. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 534 TOP: Neural Pathway of Hearing 10. The sense organs associated with the semicircular canals function in static equilibrium.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 534 TOP: Balance 11. Dynamic equilibrium depends on the functioning of the crista ampullaris. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 534 TOP: Balance 12. The retina is the incomplete innermost coat of the eyeball, in that it has no anterior portion. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 540 TOP: Layers of the Eyeball 13. The posterior cavity of the eye contains aqueous humor. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 541 TOP: Cavities and Humors 14. The eye is the only organ in the body in which both voluntary and involuntary muscles are found. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 538 TOP: Muscles of the Eye 15. Glaucoma is a disease in which the lens becomes opaque. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 542 TOP: Cavities and Humors N URSINGTB.COM 16. Movement of the eyeball in any desired direction is accomplished by several intrinsic muscles. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 538 TOP: Muscles of the Eye 17. All muscles of the eye are involuntary. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 538 TOP: Muscles of the Eye 18. Three processes focus light rays so that they form a clear image on the retina: refraction of the light rays, constriction of the pupil, and convergence of the eye. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 542 TOP: Formation of Retinal Image 19. Visual acuity is the clearness or sharpness of visual perception. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 542 TOP: Visual Acuity (Box 24-2) 20. Aqueous humor is a gelatinous substance that fills the posterior cavity of the eyeball.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 541 TOP: Cavities and Humors 21. Refraction means the deflection, or bending, of light rays. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 542 TOP: Formation of Retinal Image 22. Rhodopsin, the photopigment in rods, is less sensitive to light than cone pigments are. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 544 TOP: The Role of Photopigments 23. Color blindness is caused by mistakes in producing three photopigments in the cones. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 546 TOP: Color Blindness 24. The photo pupil reflex is an accommodation process normally used to see objects that are close. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 543 TOP: Formation of Retinal Image 25. Usually the closer an object is, the greater the degree of convergence that is necessary to maintain single vision. ANS: T DIF: M NRUemori SzaItioNnGTB.COM TOP: Formation of Retinal Image 26. Both rods and cones function to produce color vision. REF: p. 544 ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 544 TOP: The Role of Photopigments 27. Rhodopsin is a photopigment present in rods that is used for night vision. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 544 TOP: The Role of Photopigments 28. Strabismus is more of a problem with the internal ciliary muscle than with the external muscles. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 544 TOP: Formation of Retinal Image 29. Because rhodopsin is less sensitive to light than the cone photopigments, brighter light is necessary for its breakdown. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 544 TOP: The Role of PhotopigmentsAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 30. Convergence of impulses from cones is common. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 544 TOP: The Role of Photopigments 31. Each optic nerve contains fibers from both retinas. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 546 TOP: Neuronal Pathway of Vision 32. The number of pure, or “primary,” odorant receptors is about 15. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 527 TOP: Olfactory Receptors 33. Spicy is one of the “primary” taste sensations. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 528 TOP: Taste Buds 34. The tip of the tongue reacts best to sweet taste. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 528 TOP: Taste Buds 35. The sense organs responsible for the sense of balance are located in the vestibule and cochlea. ANS: F DIF: MNemoRrizaItionG B.C M REF: p. 534 TOP: Balance U S N T O 36. The membranous labyrinth is filled with perilymph. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 532 TOP: Inner Ear 37. The correct order of the auditory ossicles deep to the tympanic membrane is malleus, incus, and stapes. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 531 TOP: Middle Ear 38. There are three semicircular canals per ear. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 534 TOP: Vestibule and Semicircular Canals 39. From superficial to deep, the three layers of tissue that compose the eyeball are sclera, choroid, and retina. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 538 TOP: Layers of the EyeballAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 40. The white of the eye is called the choroid. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 538 TOP: Layers of the Eyeball 41. The function of the lacrimal gland is to secrete tears. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 537 TOP: Structure of the Eye 42. Light from red colors causes the breakdown of rhodopsin. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 544 TOP: The Role of Photopigments 43. Farsightedness, which is often the inability to focus the lens properly as we age, is also called presbyopia. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 543 TOP: Formation of Retinal Image 44. The canal of Schlemm drains the aqueous humor from the anterior chamber. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 538 TOP: Cavities and Humors 45. Aqueous humor is formed by secretion of the ciliary body into the posterior chamber. ANS: T DIF: M NRUemori SzaItioNnGTB.COM TOP: Cavities and Humors REF: p. 541 46. The correct order of the flow of tears is lacrimal gland, lacrimal duct, punctum, lacrimal sac, lacrimal canal, and nasolacrimal duct. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 537 TOP: Structure of the Eye 47. The opening and separation of opsin and rhodopsin in the presence of light is called bleaching. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 544 TOP: The Role of Photopigments 48. The retina is the complete outermost coat of the eyeball. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 540 TOP: Layers of the Eyeball 49. A person with 20/100 vision can see objects at 20 feet that a person with normal vision can see at 100 feet. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 542Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 533 NURSINGTB.COM TOP: Visual Acuity (Box 24-2) 50. The use of high-definition optical coherence tomography (HD-OCT) is used to give a detailed look at the condition of the retinal layers. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 541 TOP: Structure of the Eye 51. Unlike other neurons, olfactory receptors are replaced on a regular basis. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 527 TOP: Olfactory Receptors 52. Germinative epithelial basal cells constantly replace olfactory receptor neurons. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 527 TOP: Olfactory Receptors 53. Taste buds are stimulated by chemicals called tastants. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 528 TOP: Taste Buds 54. A new primary taste, called umami, found in protein foods has been proposed by researchers. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 529 TOP: Taste Buds 55. Chemical structure of a foodNisUthReSsI olNe dGeTteBrm.iCnaOntMof its flavor or taste. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 530 TOP: Neural Pathway of Taste 56. The terms auricle and pinna refer to the same anatomical structure of the ear. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 530 TOP: External Ear 57. The stapes rests on the inner surface of the tympanic membrane, or eardrum. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 531 TOP: Middle Ear 58. The function of the eustachian tube is to equalize all pressure on either side of the oval window. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 532 TOP: Middle Ear 59. The tectorial membrane is responsible for generating impulses to maintain static equilibrium.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM TOP: Inner Ear 60. As the frequency of a sound wave increases, it causes the basilar membrane to vibrate nearer the oval window. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 534 TOP: Sense of Hearing 61. Otoliths are “ear stones” that are found in the matrix of the macula of the ear. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 534 TOP: Static Equilibrium 62. The cell most likely to be found in the fovea centralis of the eye would be a rod cell. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 540 TOP: Layers of the Eyeball 63. Both the anterior and posterior chambers of the eye are found in the anterior cavity of the eye. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 541 TOP: Cavities and Humors 64. Chemically, all photopigments in rods can be broken down into opsin and retinal. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 544 TOP: The Role of Photopigments 65. The vitamin A derivative opsNinUiRs aSnIimNpGoTrtBan.tCcoOmMponent of photopigments in rods. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 544 TOP: The Role of Photopigments 66. The stapes fits into the round window in the middle ear. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 531 TOP: Middle Ear 67. The number of sound waves that occur during a specific timeframe is called its frequency. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 533 TOP: Sense of Hearing 68. The frequency of a sound determines its pitch. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 533 TOP: Sense of Hearing 69. Because rods only see in “black and white,” they are equally responsive to the entire range of visible wavelengths. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 544Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM TOP: Rods 70. Palpebrae is the scientific name for the eyelashes. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 537 TOP: Eyelids 71. Recovering from the effects of rapidly traveling through many time zones (jet lag) requires the functioning of the ganglion cells of the eye. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 546 TOP: Ganglion Cells 72. There are three structurally different taste buds: fungiform, circumvallate, and filiform. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 528 TOP: Taste Buds 73. All taste buds are located on the tongue. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 528 TOP: Taste Buds 74. Some ions are linked with a specific taste, such as H+ ions being sour and Na+ ions being salty. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 529 TOP: Taste Buds 75. The pinna and external acous Nti Uc R mSeaItuNsGreTfeBr t.oCthOeMsame structure. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 530 TOP: External Ear 76. The external ear ends at the eardrum. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 531 TOP: External Ear 77. The two fluids of the middle ear are perilymph and endolymph. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 532 TOP: Inner Ear 78. Perilymph is similar to cerebrospinal fluid and surrounds the membranous labyrinth. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 532 TOP: Inner Ear 79. The section above the cochlear duct is called the scala vestibuli. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 532 TOP: Cochlea and Cochlear DuctAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 80. The section below the cochlear duct is called the scala vestibuli. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 533 TOP: Cochlea and Cochlear Duct 81. The hearing sense organ is the organ of Corti. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 533 TOP: Cochlea and Cochlear Duct 82. The macula is involved in static equilibrium. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 534 TOP: Sense of Balance 83. The iris is the colored part of the eye. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 538 TOP: Layers of the Eyeball 84. The pupil is an opening in the middle of the iris. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 539 TOP: Layers of the Eyeball 85. In order to produce the sharpest image, light is focused on the optic disk of the eye. ANS: F DIF: MNemUoRriSzaItioNnGTB.COM TOP: Layers of the Eyeball REF: p. 544 86. The slow adaptation of the sense of smell is due to the adaptation inhibition of the granule cells in the olfactory bulb. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 527 TOP: Olfactory Receptors 87. Gustatory cells are responsible for the sense of taste. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 528 TOP: Taste Buds MATCHING Place in proper sequence the structures through which sound waves are conducted, starting with the number 1 and ending with 9. a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 e. 5Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM U S N T O f. 6 g. 7 h. 8 i. 9 1. Perilymph 2. Stapes 3. Tympanic membrane 4. Malleus 5. External auditory canal 6. Oval window 7. Round window 8. Incus 9. Organ of Corti 1. ANS: TOP: G Pathway of DIF: Memorization Sound Waves REF: p. 534 2. ANS: TOP: E Pathway of DIF: Memorization Sound Waves REF: p. 534 3. ANS: TOP: B Pathway of DIF: Memorization Sound Waves REF: p. 534 4. ANS: TOP: C Pathway of DIF: Memorization Sound Waves REF: p. 534 5. ANS: TOP: A Pathway of DIF: Memorization Sound Waves REF: p. 534 6. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 534 TOP: Pathway of Sound WaveNs R I G B.C M 7. ANS: I DIF: Memorization REF: p. 534 TOP: Pathway of Sound Waves 8. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 534 TOP: Pathway of Sound Waves 9. ANS: H DIF: Memorization REF: p. 534 TOP: Pathway of Sound Waves Match each outer ear term with its corresponding description. a. Auricle b. Cerumen c. External auditory meatus d. Tympanic membrane 10. Fleshy part of external ear on the outside of head 11. Earwax 12. Passageway that leads to the tympanic membrane 13. Thin membrane that separates the inner ear and middle ear; vibrates in response to sound waves 10. ANS: A TOP: External Ear DIF: Memorization REF: p. 530 11. ANS: B TOP: External Ear DIF: Memorization REF: p. 531Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 12. ANS: TOP: C External Ear DIF: Memorization REF: p. 531 13. ANS: TOP: D External Ear DIF: Memorization REF: p. 531 Match each middle ear term with its corresponding description. a. Auditory ossicles b. Auditory tube c. Mastoid air spaces d. Oval window e. Round window 14. Membrane-covered opening between the middle ear and inner ear; the stapes attaches to the membrane 15. Membrane-covered opening between the middle ear and inner ear; nothing attaches to the membrane 16. Spaces in the temporal bone that are connected to the middle ear 17. Structure that enables air pressure to be equalized between the outside air and the middle ear; also known as the eustachian tube 18. Ear bones that transmit and amplify vibrations of the tympanic membrane to the oval window; the malleus, incus, and stapes 14. ANS: TOP: D Middle Ear DIF: Memorization REF: p. 531 15. ANS: TOP: E Middle Ear DIF: Memorization REF: p. 531 16. ANS: TOP: C Middle Ear DIF: MNemoRrizaItionG B.C M U S N T O REF: p. 531 17. ANS: TOP: B Middle Ear DIF: Memorization REF: p. 532 18. ANS: TOP: A Middle Ear DIF: Memorization REF: p. 531 Match each inner ear term with its corresponding description. a. Basilar membrane b. Bony labyrinth c. Cochlea d. Cochlear duct e. Endolymph f. Membranous labyrinth g. Organ of Corti h. Perilymph i. Scala tympani j. Scala vestibule k. Semicircular canals l. Tectorial membrane m. Vestibular membrane n. Vestibule 19. The organ of hearing; located in the cochlea and filled with endolymphAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 20. Consists of vestibule, cochlea, and semicircular canals 21. Membranes that are found within the bony labyrinth 22. Fluid between the bony and membranous labyrinths 23. Fluid within the membranous labyrinth 24. Part of the inner ear involved with hearing 25. A part of the inner ear involved with equilibrium 26. Cavity at the entrance of the semicircular canal 27. Membrane that separates the scala vestibuli and the cochlear duct 28. Membrane that separates the scala tympani and the cochlear duct 29. Upper section of the cochlea 30. Lower section of the cochlea 31. Space that contains the organ of Corti 32. Membrane to which hair cells of the organ of Corti extend 19. ANS: TOP: G DIF: Memorization Cochlea and Cochlear Duct REF: p. 533 20. ANS: TOP: B Inner Ear DIF: Memorization REF: p. 533 21. ANS: TOP: F Inner Ear DIF: Memorization REF: p. 532 22. ANS: TOP: H Inner Ear DIF: Memorization REF: p. 532 23. ANS: TOP: E Inner Ear DIF: Memorization REF: p. 532 24. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 532 25. TOP: ANS: TOP: Inner Ear K Inner Ear DIF: NURSINGTB.COM Memorization REF: p. 532 26. ANS: TOP: N Cochlea and DIF: Cochlear Memorization Duct REF: p. 532 27. ANS: TOP: M Cochlea and DIF: Cochlear Memorization Duct REF: p. 532 28. ANS: TOP: A Cochlea and DIF: Cochlear Memorization Duct REF: p. 532 29. ANS: TOP: J Cochlea and DIF: Cochlear Memorization Duct REF: p. 532 30. ANS: TOP: I Cochlea and DIF: Cochlear Memorization Duct REF: p. 532 31. ANS: TOP: D Cochlea and DIF: Cochlear Memorization Duct REF: p. 532 32. ANS: TOP: L Cochlea and DIF: Cochlear Memorization Duct REF: p. 533 Match each structure of the eye with its corresponding description. a. Aqueous humor b. Choroid c. Cones d. Cornea e. Fovea centralisAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM f. Iris g. Optic disk h. Retina i. Rods j. Vitreous humor 33. Humor found in the posterior chamber 34. Humor found in the anterior chamber 35. Layer that includes the iris 36. Transparent portion of the anterior of the eye 37. Innermost layer of the eyeball 38. Receptors for day vision 39. Area of dense concentration of cones 40. Receptor that is more concentrated in the peripheral area of the retina 41. Referred to as the blind spot in the eye 42. Changes in size or shape determine the size of the pupil 33. ANS: J DIF: Memorization REF: p. 541 TOP: Cavities and Humors 34. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 541 TOP: Cavities and Humors 35. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 539 TOP: Layers of the Eyeball 36. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 538 TOP: Layers of the Eyeball 37. ANS: TOP: H DIF: Layers of the Eyeball Memorization REF: p. 540 38. ANS: C DIF: Application REF: p. 544 TOP: The Role of Photopigments 39. ANS: E DIF: Memorization REF: p. 540 TOP: Layers of the Eyeball 40. ANS: I DIF: Memorization REF: p. 540 TOP: Layers of the Eyeball 41. ANS: G DIF: Memorization REF: p. 540 TOP: Layers of the Eyeball 42. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 539 TOP: Muscles of the Eye OTHER 1. Describe the neuronal pathway for taste. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: p. 530 TOP: Neuronal Pathway of Taste 2. What is the function of the eustachian tube? ANS: Answers will vary.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 531-532 TOP: Middle Ear 3. Sound waves are transmitted through solids, liquids, and gases. Give a specific example of each of these states as related to hearing and the ear. Solid: Liquid: Gas: ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: p. 534 TOP: Pathway of Sound Waves 4. How does the ear differentiate between high- and low-frequency sound waves? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: p. 533 TOP: The Process of Hearing 5. What is the difference between static and dynamic equilibrium? Where are the sense organs for each located? ANS: Answers will vary. NURSINGTB.COM DIF: Memorization REF: p. 534 TOP: Balance 6. Where is the blind spot located? Why can’t light rays striking this area be seen? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 540-541 TOP: Layers of the Eyeball 7. Explain the processes that allow for the focusing of light rays so that they form a clear image on the retina. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: pp. 542-544 TOP: Formation of Retinal Image 8. Explain why watery eyes occur when a person gets a common cold. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: pp. 537-538 TOP: Lacrimal ApparatusAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 9. Describe how light is converted into action potentials that are transmitted to the brain and interpreted as vision. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: pp. 542-543 TOP: The Process of Seeing 10. In a generalized manner, describe the dual sensory functions of the ear. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 530 TOP: The Process of Hearing | Balance 11. Explain the olfactory pathway. Why is it possible to link odors so powerfully to memory? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 528 TOP: Olfactory Pathway ESSAY 1. Although Donald’s vision was normal, he had begun experiencing headaches and pain in his eyes. The ophthalmologist suggested a test to determine the pressure in the anterior cavity of Donald’s eyes. Why did the dNoctRor rIecomGme Bn.dCthisMtest, and what disease state was he anticipating? ANS: Answers will vary. U S N T O DIF: Synthesis REF: pp. 549-550 TOP: Mechanisms of Disease 2. Grandpa Joe notices that his vision is becoming cloudy. What is the likely cause of his problem? Provide a brief description of the cause and how it may be remedied. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 549 TOP: Mechanisms of Disease 3. Amanda repeatedly became ill with throat infections during her first few years of school. Lately she has noticed that whenever she has a throat infection, her ears become very sore also. What might be the cause of this additional problem? Explain the connection between the two problems. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: pp. 531-532 TOP: Middle EarAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 4. Explain why the smell of a newly painted room becomes less noticeable the longer you are in it but seems very strong again if you leave for a while and then return to the room. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 527 TOP: Olfactory Receptors 5. Explain why the smell of a hospital or dentist’s office can bring about negative emotions and why the smell of baking cookies or a baking turkey around Thanksgiving time can bring about positive emotions. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: p. 528 TOP: Olfactory Pathway NURSINGTB.COMAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM Chapter 25: Endocrine Regulation Patton: Anatomy and Physiology, 10th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Endocrine glands can be made up of: a. glandular epithelium. b. neurosecretory tissue. c. ducts leading to major arteries d. both A and B. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 557 TOP: Organization of the Endocrine System 2. In comparison with the nervous system, the regulatory effects of the endocrine system are: a. rapid to appear but short-lived. b. slow to appear but long-lasting. c. rapid to appear and long-lasting. d. slow to appear and short-lived. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 557 TOP: Organization of the Endocrine System 3. Which of the following is not a characteristic of the endocrine system? a. Chemical messenger travels a short distance. b. Effector tissues include virtually all tissues. c. Receptors are located onNthUeRplSasImNaGmTemBb.rCaneMor within the target cell. d. All of the above are characteristics of the endocrine system. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 557 TOP: Organization of the Endocrine System 4. Which of the following endocrine glands is located in the neck? a. Pineal b. Pituitary c. Thymus d. Thyroid ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 556 TOP: Introduction 5. Tropic hormones: a. target other endocrine glands and stimulate their growth and secretion. b. target reproductive tissues. c. stimulate anabolism in their target cells. d. do all of the above. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 558 TOP: Classification of Hormones 6. All of the following are nonsteroid hormones except:Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM N R a. oxytocin. b. calcitonin. c. cortisol. d. glucagon. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 558 TOP: Steroid Hormones 7. The last step in the nonsteroid hormone mechanism of action is: a. joining with the G protein on the cell membrane. b. protein kinases activate other enzymes. c. adenyl cyclase is activated. d. cAMP is formed. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 562 TOP: Mechanisms of Nonsteroid Hormone Action 8. Hormones can be: a. steroids. b. peptides. c. glycoproteins. d. all of the above. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 558 TOP: Classification of Hormones 9. Steroids are able to pass easily through a target cell’s plasma membrane because they are: a. synthesized from amino acids. I G B.C M b. synthesized from carbohydUrateSs. N T O c. lipid-soluble. d. synthesized from nucleic acids. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 558 TOP: Steroid Hormones 10. When a small amount of one hormone allows a second hormone to have its full effect, the phenomenon is called: a. synergism. b. permissiveness. c. antagonism. d. augmentation. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 561 TOP: General Principles of Hormone Action 11. Which of the following nonsteroid hormones bind to receptors associated with a DNA molecule within the nucleus of the target cell? a. Thyroxine b. Triiodothyronine c. Prolactin d. Both A and B ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 564Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM TOP: The Nuclear Receptor Mechanism 12. The compound that is referred to as a tissue hormone is: a. growth hormone. b. prostaglandin. c. adrenocorticotropic hormone. d. thyroxine. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 567 TOP: Prostaglandins 13. All of the following are true statements except: a. there are at least 16 different prostaglandins. b. the first prostaglandin was identified in semen. c. aspirin produces some of its effects by increasing PGE synthesis. d. PGFs have been used to induce labor and accelerate the delivery of a baby. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 567-568 TOP: Prostaglandins 14. The type(s) of prostaglandin that play(s) a role in the development of a fever is(are): a. PGA. b. PGE. c. PGF. d. PGA and PGE. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 568 TOP: Prostaglandins NURSINGTB.COM 15. Which of the following statements is false? a. Both the nervous system and endocrine system use chemicals to send messages. b. For the nervous and endocrine systems to function, the receiving cells must have the correct type of receptors. c. Cells can have receptors for hormones or for neurotransmitters but not for both. d. The nervous and endocrine systems can be seen as one system—the neuroendocrine system. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 557 TOP: Organization of the Endocrine System 16. The production of thyroid hormone is stimulated by another hormone from the: a. anterior pituitary. b. posterior pituitary. c. thyroid gland. d. parathyroid gland. ANS: A DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 565 TOP: Regulation of Hormone Secretion 17. The many hormones secreted by endocrine tissues can be classified simply as hormones. a. steroid or nonsteroid b. anabolic or catabolicAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM c. sex or nonsex d. tropic or hypotropic ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 558 TOP: Classification of Hormones 18. Which of the following is not true of steroid hormones? a. They are lipid-soluble. b. They are derived from a fatty acid molecule. c. They can pass through the cell membrane. d. All of the above are true about steroid hormones. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 558 TOP: Steroid Hormones 19. Which of the following is not a description of hormone interaction explained in the text? a. Suppression b. Antagonism c. Synergism d. Permissiveness ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 561 TOP: General Principles of Hormone Action 20. The immediate effect of a steroid hormone on a cell is the: a. formation of cAMP. b. increase of enzyme-controlled intracellular reactions. c. transcription of RNA. N R I G B.C M d. activation of adenyl cyclaseU. S N T O ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 561 TOP: Mechanisms of Steroid Hormone Action 21. One of the later effects of steroid hormones on the cell could be the: a. transcription of RNA. b. making of enzymes. c. formation of cAMP. d. activation of kinases. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 562 TOP: Mechanisms of Steroid Hormone Action 22. Which of the following does not act as a second messenger for nonsteroid hormones? a. Inositol triphosphate b. Guanosine monophosphate c. Calcium-calmodulin complex d. All of the above act as second messengers. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 562-563 TOP: Mechanisms of Nonsteroid Hormone Action 23. Which of the following is not a functional classification of hormones? a. SteroidAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM b. Tropic c. Anabolic d. Neither A nor B is a functional classification of hormones. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 558 TOP: Classification of Hormones 24. Which of the following is not a chemical classification of hormones? a. Steroid b. Anabolic c. Tropic d. Neither B nor C is a chemical classification of hormones. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 558 TOP: Classification of Hormones 25. The common molecule from which all steroid hormones are derived is: a. phospholipids. b. cholesterol. c. lecithin. d. triglycerols. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 558 TOP: Classification of Hormones 26. Which of the following is not a source of nonsteroid hormones? a. Cholesterol b. Protein N R I G B.C M c. Protein joined with a carboUhydSrateN T O d. Individual amino acids ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 558 TOP: Classification of Hormones 27. When a hormone attaches to a target cell, which of the following can occur? a. It can initiate protein synthesis. b. It can open or close ion channels. c. It can activate certain enzymes in the cell. d. All of the above can occur. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 561 TOP: General Principles of Hormone Action 28. The term downregulation refers to the: a. decrease in hormone production as we age. b. negative-feedback system of hormone regulation. c. reduction of the number of hormone receptors in a cell. d. movement of regulating hormones from the hypothalamus down to the pituitary gland. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 566 TOP: Regulation of Target Cell SensitivityAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 29. Synergism in hormone activity can be defined as: a. one hormone causing the opposite effect of another hormone. b. two hormones working together to enhance each other’s impact on a target cell. c. a small amount of one hormone allowing another hormone to have its full effect. d. none of the above; hormones do not work synergistically. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 561 TOP: General Principles of Hormone Action 30. Hormones that regulate activity in the secreting cell itself are called: a. prostaglandins. b. paracrine hormones. c. autocrine hormones. d. leukotriene hormones. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 567 TOP: Local Hormones (Box 25-3) 31. Which of the following is not a protein hormone? a. Oxytocin b. Insulin c. Parathyroid hormone d. All of the above are protein hormones. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 558 TOP: Nonsteroid Hormones 32. Which of the following is no Nt a pReptI ide hGormBo.nCe? M a. Oxytocin b. Insulin c. Antidiuretic hormone U S N T O d. All of the above are peptide hormones. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 558 TOP: Nonsteroid Hormones 33. Which of the following is not an amino acid derivative hormone? a. Epinephrine b. Norepinephrine c. Thyroid hormones d. All of the above are amino acid derivative hormones. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 558 TOP: Nonsteroid Hormones 34. Which of the following is not true of prostaglandins? a. Contain a 20-carbon unsaturated fatty acid chain b. Contain a 5-carbon ring c. Made from membrane phospholipid molecules d. All of the above are true of prostaglandins. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 567-568 TOP: ProstaglandinsAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM TRUE/FALSE 1. Most hormones are highly specific in their action. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 561 TOP: General Principles of Hormone Action 2. Endocrine glands release their hormones into ducts that eventually empty into the circulatory system. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 556 TOP: Introduction 3. The endocrine system can regulate most cells in the body. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 556 TOP: Introduction 4. Both the endocrine and nervous systems exhibit control via regulatory feedback loops. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 556 TOP: Introduction 5. The general effect of hormones is to produce regulatory changes within the target cell. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 561 TOP: General Principles of HoNrmUoRnS e AIcNtioGnTB.COM 6. All nonsteroid hormones operate according to the second-messenger model. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 562 TOP: Mechanisms of Nonsteroid Hormone Action 7. The “lock-and-key” mechanism allows hormones to bind only with target cells that have receptors that “fit” them exactly. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 561 TOP: General Principles of Hormone Action 8. Input from the nervous system influences secretion of some hormones. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 565 TOP: Regulation of Hormone Secretion 9. Short feedback loops tend to minimize wide fluctuations in hormone secretion rates. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 566 TOP: Regulation of Hormone Secretion 10. The chemical messengers of the endocrine system are neurotransmitters.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 556 TOP: Introduction 11. In comparison with the nervous system, the regulatory effects of the endocrine system are rapidly apparent, but short-lived. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 566 TOP: Introduction 12. The control of hormone secretion is usually a positive-feedback loop. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 564 TOP: Regulation of Hormone Secretion 13. The endocrine system functions at a much greater speed than the nervous system. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 556 TOP: Introduction 14. The most widely used method of hormone classification is by location in the body. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 558 TOP: Classification of Hormones 15. The anterior pituitary gland can be either stimulated to release hormones or inhibited from releasing hormones by secretions from the hypothalamus. ANS: T DIF: MNemoRrizaItionG B.C M REF: p. 565 TOP: Regulation of Hormone SeUcretSionN T O 16. Norepinephrine can be considered a neurotransmitter or a hormone, depending on what releases it and how far it must travel to reach a receptor. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 557 TOP: Organization of the Endocrine System 17. Hormones can be classified based on their chemical structure or their function. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 558 TOP: Classification of Hormones 18. Chemically, steroid hormones are derived from the cholesterol molecule. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 558 TOP: Steroid Hormones 19. Protein hormones, glycoprotein hormones, and peptide hormones all contain amino acids. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 558 TOP: Nonsteroid Hormones 20. The amino acid tyrosine is used to produce epinephrine and the hormones made in the thymus gland.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 558 TOP: Nonsteroid Hormones 21. Hormones are synergistic if they have opposite effects on the target cell. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 561 TOP: General Principles of Hormone Action 22. Hormones that are antagonistic to each other are able to “fine-tune” the activity of the target cell with great accuracy. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 561 TOP: General Principles of Hormone Action 23. The endocrine system is considered a very efficient system, because virtually every hormone molecule produced finds its target cell receptor. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 561 TOP: General Principles of Hormone Action 24. Steroid hormones frequently travel in the bloodstream attached to soluble plasma proteins. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 561 TOP: Mechanisms of Steroid Hormone Action 25. The specific role of cAMP is to activate kinases. ANS: T DIF: M NRUemori SzaItioNnGTB.COM TOP: Mechanisms of Nonsteroid Hormone Action REF: p. 562 26. Both steroid and nonsteroid hormones produce their effects by increasing the number of enzymes that catalyze cellular reactions. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: pp. 561-562 TOP: Mechanisms of Steroid Hormone Action, Mechanisms of Nonsteroid Hormone Action 27. Prostaglandins are lipid substances derived from cholesterol. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 568 TOP: Prostaglandins 28. Thromboxanes and leukotrienes can be called tissue hormones. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 567 TOP: Prostaglandins 29. Upregulating and downregulating hormone receptor proteins on the membrane of a target cell will change its sensitivity to a hormone. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 566 TOP: Regulation of Target Cell SensitivityAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 30. The target organs for tropic hormones are usually other endocrine glands. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 558 TOP: Classification of Hormones 31. In terms of affecting hormone action, synergism and permissiveness mean the same thing. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 561 TOP: General Principles of Hormone Action 32. Both synergism and permissiveness can increase the effect of a hormone. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 561 TOP: General Principles of Hormone Action 33. The cAMP system, the inositol triphosphate (IP3) system, and the mobile-receptor system are second-messenger systems used by nonsteroid hormones. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 562 TOP: Mechanisms of Nonsteroid Hormone Action 34. Cells make prostaglandins by breaking apart triglyceride molecules. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 568 TOP: Prostaglandins 35. The name prostaglandin comes from the prostate gland. ANS: T DIF: M NRUemori SzaItioNnGTB.COM TOP: Prostaglandins REF: p. 568 36. Aspirin and ibuprofen produce some of their effects by inhibiting PGA synthesis. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 568 TOP: Prostaglandins 37. Two specific prostaglandins are thromboxanes and leukotrienes. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 567 TOP: Prostaglandins 38. Protein hormones that contain lipid molecules can be classified as glycoprotein hormones. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 558 TOP: Nonsteroid Hormones 39. Most cells in the body can respond to many different types of hormones. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 561 TOP: General Principles of Hormone ActionAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM U S N T O 40. In areas of the body where circulation is poor, hormones are carried by small ducts called hormone channels. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 561 TOP: General Principles of Hormone Action 41. The nuclear-receptor model is used in describing the action of steroid hormones. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 561-562 TOP: Mechanisms of Steroid Hormone Action 42. If the cellular response to a hormone caused an increase in RNA synthesis, the hormone most likely was a steroid hormone. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: pp. 561-562 TOP: Mechanisms of Steroid Hormone Action 43. The fixed-membrane-receptor model is used in describing the action of nonsteroid hormones. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 562 TOP: Mechanisms of Nonsteroid Hormone Action 44. If a small amount of hormone produced a disproportionately great response in a cell, the hormone was most likely a nonsteroid hormone. 45.4 ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 563 TOP: Mechanisms of Nonsteroid Hormone Action N R I G B.C M Autocrine hormones have to travel farther to reach their target cell than do paracrine 5 hormones. . ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 567 TOP: Local Hormones (Box 25-3) 46. Both the endocrine system and nervous system are important in regulation of body function. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 556 TOP: Introduction 47. The target cell in the endocrine system is similar to the postganglionic neuron in the nervous system, because they both have receptors that respond to the presence of a chemical. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 557 TOP: Organization of the Endocrine System 48. The release of a hormone by a gland is called signal transduction. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 557 TOP: Organization of the Endocrine System 49. Cells either have receptors for neurotransmitters and respond to the nervous system or have hormone receptors and respond to the endocrine system, but not both.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 557 NURSINGTB.COM TOP: Organization of the Endocrine System 50. A hormone is able to stimulate more cells than a neurotransmitter. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 557 TOP: Organization of the Endocrine System 51. Some cases of hormone deficiency can be traced to an obstruction in the duct through which the hormone must pass. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 557 TOP: Organization of the Endocrine System 52. Some endocrine glands are actually made of nervous tissue. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 557 TOP: Organization of the Endocrine System 53. Many endocrine glands are made of epithelial tissue. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 567 TOP: Organization of the Endocrine System 54. Endocrine glands are located either in the head or the neck. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 567 TOP: Organization of the EndNocrinRe SIysteGm B.C M U S N T O 55. A hormone that stimulates the salivary glands (exocrine glands) would be a tropic hormone. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 558 TOP: Classification of Hormones 56. Examples of steroid hormones are cortisol, aldosterone, and testosterone. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 558 TOP: Steroid Hormones 57. Examples of nonsteroid hormones are insulin, oxytocin, and epinephrine. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 558 TOP: Nonsteroid Hormones 58. A list of the nonsteroid hormones from largest to smallest would read protein hormones, amino acid derivative hormones, and peptide hormones. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 558 TOP: Nonsteroid Hormones 59. One outcome of a nonsteroid hormone would be the synthesis of a specific enzyme.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM ANS: F U S N T O ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 562 TOP: Mechanisms of Steroid Hormone Action 60. With a steroid hormone, the amount of hormone is directly related to the magnitude of the response in the target cell. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 562 TOP: Mechanisms of Steroid Hormone Action 61. Steroid hormones tend to generate a rapid response in their target cells. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 562 TOP: Mechanisms of Steroid Hormone Action 62. Thyroid hormones are nonsteroid hormones but act more like steroid hormones when they reach their target cells. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 564 TOP: Mechanisms of Nonsteroid Hormone Action 63. In nonsteroid hormones, the hormone itself is the first messenger. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 562 TOP: Mechanisms of Nonsteroid Hormone Action 64. Some nonsteroid hormones attach to cell membrane sodium channels, causing them to open and allowing an influx of sodium into the cell. N R I G B.C M DIF: Memorization REF: p. 562 TOP: Mechanisms of Nonsteroid Hormone Action 65. Some nonsteroid hormones do not use a second messenger but are taken into the cell by endocytosis and act directly on their target cells. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 562 TOP: Mechanisms of Nonsteroid Hormone Action 66. Responses that result from endocrine feedback loops are called endocrine reflexes. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 564 TOP: Regulation of Hormone Secretion 67. Parathyroid hormone reflexively increases secretion of parathyroid hormone in response to an increase in blood calcium levels. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 565 TOP: Regulation of Hormone Secretion 68. The number of hormone receptors a cell has remains constant throughout the life of the cell. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 566 TOP: Regulation of Hormone SensitivityAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 1. ANS: A U S N T O 69. Because most cells secrete prostaglandins, there is usually a fairly high concentration of prostaglandins in the blood. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 567-568 TOP: Prostaglandins 70. There are 16 structural classes of prostaglandins, classes A though P. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 567 TOP: Prostaglandins MATCHING Match each chemical classification with a corresponding hormone. a. Steroid b. Protein c. Glycoprotein d. Peptide e. Amine 1. Cortisol 2. Melatonin 3. Insulin 4. Somatostatin 5. Luteinizing hormone N R I G B.C M DIF: Memorization REF: p. 558 TOP: Classification of Hormones 2. ANS: E DIF: Memorization REF: p. 558 TOP: Classification of Hormones 3. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 558 TOP: Classification of Hormones 4. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 558 TOP: Classification of Hormones 5. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 558 TOP: Classification of Hormones Match each term with its explanation or definition. a. Synergism b. Steroid hormone c. Second messenger d. Target cell e. Upregulation f. Antagonism g. Prostaglandin h. Tropic hormone i. Nonsteroid hormone j. Permissiveness 6. A cell with receptors for a specific hormoneAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM N R I G 7. A small amount of hormone allows another hormone to have its full effect 8. Usually requires a second messenger to function 9. Uses the mobile-receptor model to function 10. Sometimes called a tissue hormone 11. One hormone has the opposite effect of another hormone 12. cAMP is an example of this 13. Increasing the number of receptors on a target cell 14. Hormone that targets another endocrine gland 15. The combination of hormones have a greater effect than the sum of the effects of the two hormones separately 6. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 561 TOP: Organization of the Endocrine System 7. ANS: J DIF: Memorization REF: p. 561 TOP: General Principles of Hormone Action 8. ANS: I DIF: Memorization REF: p. 562 TOP: Mechanisms of Nonsteroid Hormone Action 9. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 561 TOP: Mechanisms of Steroid Hormone Action 10. ANS: G DIF: Memorization REF: p. 567 TOP: Prostaglandins 11. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 561 TOP: General Principles of Hormone Action 12. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 562 TOP: Mechanisms of Nonsteroid Hormone Action 13. ANS: E DIF: Memorization B.C M REF: p. 566 TOP: Regulation of Target CellUSensSitivN ity T O 14. ANS: H DIF: Memorization REF: p. 558 TOP: Classification of Hormones 15. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 561 TOP: General Principles of Hormone Action OTHER 1. Explain how a hormone can act specifically on one type of cell and not on others. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: p. 561 TOP: General Principles of Hormone Action 2. Explain how cAMP acts as a second messenger for certain nonsteroid hormones. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: p. 562 TOP: Mechanisms of Nonsteroid Hormone Action 3. How do the actions of prostaglandins differ from the actions of hormones?Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM U S N T O ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: pp. 567-568 TOP: Prostaglandins 4. Compare and contrast how the endocrine and nervous systems function to maintain homeostasis of the internal environment. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 556 TOP: Introduction 5. What are prostaglandins? From what substance are they made? Name two effects prostaglandins have on the body. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 567-568 TOP: Prostaglandins 6. Explain the mechanism of steroid hormone action. What is the end product of a steroid hormone? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization N R I GREBF:.C pp. 5M61-562 TOP: Mechanisms of Steroid Hormone Action 7. Explain how a cell can upregulate or downregulate its response to the presence of a hormone. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: p. 566 TOP: Regulation of Target Cell Sensitivity ESSAY 1. Compare and contrast steroid and nonsteroid hormones, and give an example of each. ANS: Answers may vary. DIF: Application REF: pp. 558-559 TOP: Classification of HormonesAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM Chapter 26: Endocrine Glands Patton: Anatomy and Physiology, 10th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The structure referred to historically as the master gland is the: a. pituitary. b. adrenals. c. hypothalamus. d. thyroid. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 576 TOP: Structure of the Pituitary Gland 2. Which of the following hormones is not secreted by the basophils? a. Prolactin b. Luteinizing hormone (LH) c. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) d. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 576 TOP: Prolactin 3. The hormone most likely to cause a shift from glucose catabolism to fat catabolism is: a. antidiuretic hormone (ADH). b. TSH. c. adrenocorticotropic hormNonUeR(ASCITNHG). d. somatotropin. B.COM ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 575 TOP: Growth Hormone 4. Gonadotrophs secrete: a. GH. b. LH and FSH. c. TSH. d. prolactin. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 581 TOP: Adenohypophysis (Anterior Lobe of Pituitary) 5. Growth of the ovarian follicle occurs because of: a. LH. b. estrogen. c. progesterone. d. FSH. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 576 TOP: Tropic Hormones 6. Prolactin affects:Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM a. the adrenal cortex. b. body growth. c. skin color. d. milk secretion. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 579 TOP: Prolactin 7. The principal action of thyrotropin-releasing hormone is stimulating the: a. release of ACTH. b. secretion of growth hormone. c. release of TSH. d. release of FSH and LH. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 577 TOP: Control of Secretions in the Adenohypophysis 8. The vascular link between the hypothalamus and the adenohypophysis is called the: a. circulatory system. b. hypophyseal portal system. c. vascular system. d. releasing-inhibiting connection. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 577 TOP: Control of Secretions in the Adenohypophysis 9. Which hormones are produced by the hypothalamus to control the adenohypophysis? a. Tropic hormones b. Releasing hormones NURSINGTB.COM c. Melanocyte-stimulating hormones d. Basophils ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 577 TOP: Control of Secretions in the Adenohypophysis 10. The hypothalamus produces: a. somatotropin. b. oxytocin. c. lactogenic hormone. d. melanocyte-stimulating hormone. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 580 TOP: Neurohypophysis (Posterior Lobe of Pituitary) 11. The neurohypophysis serves as a storage and release site for: a. ADH. b. oxytocin. c. prolactin. d. both A and B. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 580 TOP: Neurohypophysis (Posterior Lobe of Pituitary)Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 12. The principal thyroid hormone is: a. tetraiodothyronine (T4 or thyroxine). b. triiodothyronine (T3). c. calcitonin. d. PTH. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 583 TOP: Thyroid Hormone 13. Calcitonin: a. decreases calcium storage in bones. b. raises blood calcium levels. c. has the opposite effect of parathyroid hormone. d. reveals thyroid functioning in the protein-bound iodine (PBI) test. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 583 TOP: Calcitonin 14. Parathyroid hormone (PTH) increases calcium absorption in the intestines by activating: a. vitamin A. b. vitamin C. c. vitamin D. d. iron. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 585 TOP: Parathyroid Hormone 15. Which of the following depe NndsRon mIainGtainBin.gCnorMmal levels of calcium in the blood? a. Blood clotting b. Cell membrane U S N T O c. Neuromuscular excitability d. All of the above ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 585 TOP: Parathyroid Hormone 16. The hormone that causes ejection of milk into the mammary ducts is: a. prolactin. b. estrogen. c. oxytocin. d. progesterone. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 580 TOP: Oxytocin 17. An abnormally high metabolic rate could be associated with the functioning of the: a. thyroid gland. b. parathyroid gland. c. posterior pituitary. d. thymus. ANS: A DIF: Application REF: p. 583 TOP: Thyroid HormoneAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 18. The first step in the renin-angiotensin mechanism is: a. angiotensin II circulates to the adrenal cortex, stimulating the secretion of aldosterone. b. renin causes angiotensinogen to be converted to angiotensin I. c. the juxtaglomerular apparatus secretes renin into the blood in response to a fall in the blood pressure within the kidney. d. aldosterone causes increased reabsorption of sodium, which causes increased water retention. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 587 TOP: Mineralocorticoids 19. Which of the following is not true of glucocorticoids? a. Stress causes their release. b. They cause an increase in the body’s defense mechanisms. c. They stimulate gluconeogenesis. d. They are hyperglycemic. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 588-589 TOP: Glucocorticoids 20. The mineralocorticoids of the adrenal cortex regulate or influence balance. a. calcium and sodium b. sodium and chloride c. sodium, potassium, and hydrogen d. hydrogen and oxygen ANS: C DIF: MNemoRrizaItionG B.C M REF: p. 587 TOP: Mineralocorticoids U S N T O 21. Secretion of is controlled mainly by the renin-angiotensin mechanism and blood potassium concentration. a. aldosterone b. cortisol c. adrenal estrogens d. norepinephrine ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 587 TOP: Mineralocorticoids 22. The adrenal medulla secretes: a. ACTH. b. cortisol. c. epinephrine. d. glucagon. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 590 TOP: Adrenal Medulla 23. The gland that serves in both an exocrine and an endocrine capacity is the: a. pituitary. b. pancreas.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM c. adrenal. d. ovary. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 590 TOP: Structure of the Pancreatic Islets 24. Which of the following is a function of glucagon? a. Promotes the entry of glucose into tissue cells b. Tends to decrease blood glucose concentrations c. Tends to increase blood glucose concentrations d. Converts glucose into glycogen ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 591 TOP: Pancreatic Hormones 25. Insulin: a. tends to lower blood concentrations of glucose, amino acids, and fatty acids. b. promotes metabolism of glucose by tissue cells. c. is produced by beta cells. d. All of the above are true of insulin. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 591 TOP: Pancreatic Hormones 26. Insulin and glucagon affect the body’s use of: a. sodium. b. potassium. c. glucose. d. calcium. NURSINGTB.COM ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 591 TOP: Pancreatic Hormones 27. The major hormone produced by the corpus luteum is: a. progesterone. b. estrogen. c. LTH. d. chorionic gonadotropin. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 592 TOP: Ovaries 28. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is produced by the: a. testes. b. ovaries. c. heart. d. placenta. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 594 TOP: Placenta 29. Thymosin is a hormone that plays a role in: a. the rate of metabolism.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM b. body growth. c. immunity. d. maintaining early pregnancy. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 594 TOP: Thymus 30. Which of the following is true of T4? a. It contains three atoms of iodine. b. It binds more efficiently to target cell receptors than does T3. c. It is a prohormone for T3. d. All of the above are true of T4. ANS: C DIF: Application REF: p. 583 TOP: Thyroid Hormone 31. Which is not part of the pituitary gland? a. Sella turcica b. Infundibulum c. Adenohypophysis d. Neurohypophysis ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 574 TOP: Structure of the Pituitary Gland 32. The type of cells that secrete ACTH are: a. somatotrophs. b. lactotrophs. c. thyrotrophs. d. corticotrophs. NURSINGTB.COM ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 575 TOP: Adenohypophysis (Anterior Lobe of Pituitary) 33. High blood levels of ADH would be found in someone who has: a. just eaten a meal high in sugar or other carbohydrates. b. been working in high temperatures and is dehydrated. c. a high level of calcium in the blood. d. a low level of calcium in the blood. ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 580 TOP: Antidiuretic Hormone 34. One of the few hormones that functions on a positive-feedback loop is: a. ADH. b. calcitonin. c. oxytocin. d. insulin. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 580 TOP: Oxytocin 35. The structure in the body that provides the “mind-body” link is the: a. anterior pituitary gland. b. hypothalamus.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM U S N T c. posterior pituitary gland. d. pineal gland. ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 579 TOP: Control of Secretions in the Adenohypophysis 36. Release of PTH in the body would cause a(n): a. increase in blood calcium. b. decrease in blood phosphate. c. decrease in vitamin D production. d. All of the above are correct. ANS: A DIF: Application REF: p. 585 TOP: Parathyroid Hormone 37. Mineralocorticoids are released from which part of the adrenal gland? a. Zona fasciculata b. Zona reticularis c. Zona glomerulosa d. Adrenal medulla ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 587 TOP: Adrenal Cortex 38. High levels of hCG in the body would indicate: a. the production of thyroid hormone needs to be increased. b. there was too much calcium in the blood. c. a pregnancy. d. the glucose concentrationNofRtheIblooGd wBas.tCoo lMow. ANS: C DIF: Application REF: p. 594 TOP: Placenta 39. The target cells for ADH are found in the: a. kidney. b. muscles in the walls of arteries. c. osteoblasts in the bone. d. Both A and B are correct. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 580 TOP: Antidiuretic Hormone 40. Which hormone stimulates uterine contractions? a. Oxytocin b. FSH c. LH d. Both B and C ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 580 TOP: Oxytocin 41. Which of the following statements is not true of the pineal gland? a. It is located on the dorsal aspect of the diencephalon. b. Melatonin is stimulated by the presence of sunlight. c. It produces melatonin.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM d. All of the above are true of the pineal gland. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 581 TOP: Pineal Gland 42. Which of the following statements is not true of the thyroid gland? a. It usually consists of two lobes connected by an isthmus. b. It is located in the mediastinum in the chest. c. It contains a protein-iodine complex called thyroglobulin. d. All of the above are true of the thyroid gland. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 582 TOP: Structure of the Thyroid Gland 43. Glucocorticoids are released by which part of the adrenal glands? a. Zona glomerulosa b. Zona fasciculata c. Zona reticularis d. Both B and C ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 587 TOP: Adrenal Glands 44. Gonadocorticoids are released by which part of the adrenal gland? a. Zona glomerulosa b. Zona fasciculata c. Zona reticularis d. Adrenal medulla NURSINGTB.COM ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 589 TOP: Adrenal Glands 45. Which is not true of the hormone somatostatin? a. It is produced by the delta cells of the pancreas. b. It inhibits the secretion of glucagon. c. It stimulates the secretion of insulin. d. Both B and C are not true of the hormone somatostatin. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 591 TOP: Pancreatic Hormones 46. Which is not true about the testes? a. They are composed mainly of sperm-producing seminiferous tubules. b. Interstitial cells produce testosterone. c. Testosterone is regulated mostly by LH. d. All of the above are true of the testes. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 592 TOP: Testes 47. Which hormone is used by some people to keep themselves youthful or to boost athletic performance? a. Prolactin (PRL)Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM U S N T O b. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) c. Human growth hormone (hGH) d. Oxytocin ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 576 TOP: Growth Hormone 48. The hormones that are produced by muscle tissue are called: a. inhibins. b. cytokines. c. leptins. d. myokines. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 595 TOP: Other Endocrine Glands and Hormones TRUE/FALSE 1. Growth hormone indirectly increases glucose metabolism. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 576 TOP: Growth Hormone 2. Tropic hormones tend to have a generalized effect on the body. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 577 TOP: Tropic Hormones N R I G B.C M 3. Most hormones released by the hypothalamus enter the hypophyseal portal system. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 577 TOP: Control of Secretions in the Adenohypophysis 4. FSH and LH are called gonadotropins because they stimulate the growth and maintenance of the gonads. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 577 TOP: Tropic Hormones 5. Under stress conditions, the hypothalamus is a “go between,” linking the cerebrum and the pituitary. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 578 TOP: Control of Secretions in the Adenohypophysis 6. Specific chemical-releasing factors made in the adenohypophysis are responsible for the release of ADH and oxytocin into the blood. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 580 TOP: Neurohypophysis (Posterior Lobe of Pituitary) 7. The neurohypophysis is another name for the anterior pituitary.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 580 NURSINGTB.COM TOP: Neurohypophysis (Posterior Lobe of Pituitary) 8. When the amount of ADH increases, the body tries to get rid of excess fluid and the volume of urine increases. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 580 TOP: Antidiuretic Hormone 9. The pineal gland functions to support the body’s biological clock. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 581 TOP: Pineal Gland 10. A major function of the pineal gland is the development of the lymphatic system. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 581 TOP: Pineal Gland 11. The thyroid gland is the only endocrine organ that stores its hormones in another form for later release. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 583 TOP: Thyroid Hormone 12. Thyroid hormone stimulates growth and tissue differentiation. ANS: T DIF: M NRUemori SzaItioNnGTB.COM TOP: Thyroid Hormone 13. Calcitonin is a hypercalcemic hormone. REF: p. 583 ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 583 TOP: Calcitonin 14. Calcitonin decreases calcium storage in bones, thereby raising blood calcium levels. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 583 TOP: Calcitonin 15. Unlike thyroid hormone, calcitonin is said to have a “general” target. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 583 TOP: Calcitonin 16. An excess of parathyroid hormone can cause increased ossification of bone tissue. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 585-586 TOP: Parathyroid Hormone 17. The center of the adrenal gland is the cortex.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 586 NURSINGTB.COM TOP: Structure of the Adrenal Glands 18. Parathyroid hormone causes the kidney to retain calcium and excrete phosphate. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 585 TOP: Parathyroid Hormone 19. Hypercalcemia may be a cause of muscle spasms. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 585-586 TOP: Parathyroid Hormone 20. Sex hormones are produced by the ovaries, testes, and adrenal glands. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 587 | p. 592 TOP: Adrenal Glands | Gonads 21. Aldosterone influences the kidney tubules to retain sodium and potassium ions. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 587 TOP: Mineralocorticoids 22. The major mineralocorticoid is aldosterone. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 587 TOP: Mineralocorticoids N URSINGTB.COM 23. Some of the effects of aldosterone are water retention and increased blood pressure. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 587 TOP: Mineralocorticoids 24. Aldosterone secretion is controlled mainly by the renin-angiotensin mechanism and by the blood potassium concentration. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 587 TOP: Mineralocorticoids 25. Glucocorticoids are essential for maintaining a normal blood pressure. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 588 TOP: Glucocorticoids 26. The renin-angiotensin mechanism is a negative-feedback mechanism that helps maintain homeostasis of blood pressure. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 588 TOP: Mineralocorticoids 27. Cortisone is the only glucocorticoid that is secreted in significant quantities.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 588 NURSINGTB.COM TOP: Glucocorticoids 28. Both epinephrine and norepinephrine can bind to sympathetic effectors to prolong and enhance the effects of the autonomic nervous system. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 590 TOP: Adrenal Medulla 29. Norepinephrine accounts for about 80% of adrenal medulla secretions. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 590 TOP: Adrenal Medulla 30. The tissue of the pancreas is made up of both endocrine and exocrine tissues. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 590 TOP: Structure of the Pancreatic Islets 31. Insulin and glucagon exert antagonistic effects on blood levels of glucose. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 591 TOP: Pancreatic Hormones 32. Diabetics produce an excessive amount of insulin. ANS: F DIF: MNemoRrizaItionG B.C M REF: p. 591 TOP: Diabetes Mellitus U S N T O 33. Glucagon is secreted by the beta cells in the pancreatic islets. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 591 TOP: Pancreatic Hormones 34. Insulin lowers blood concentrations of glucose. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 591 TOP: Pancreatic Hormones 35. Glucagon, produced by alpha cells, tends to promote the movement of glucose, amino acids, and fatty acids out of the blood and into tissue cells. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 591 TOP: Pancreatic Hormones 36. Diabetes mellitus is one of the most common endocrine disorders. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 591 TOP: Diabetes Mellitus 37. Female sex hormones are collectively referred to as androgens.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 592 NURSINGTB.COM TOP: Testes 38. Secretin plays a regulatory role in the digestive process. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 594 TOP: Gastric and Intestinal Mucosa 39. The pituitary is attached to the hypothalamus by a stalk termed the pars intermedia. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 574 TOP: Structure of the Pituitary Gland 40. The vascular link between the hypothalamus and the adenohypophysis is termed the hepatic portal system. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 577 TOP: Control of Secretions in the Adenohypophysis 41. Hypersecretion of prolactin can cause impotence in men. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 576 TOP: Prolactin 42. Psychosomatic relationships between human body systems and the brain have been proven not to exist. ANS: F DIF: M NRUemori SzaItioNnGTB.COM TOP: Control of Secretions in the Adenohypophysis 43. T3 is the thyroid hormone released in greatest quantity. REF: p. 579 ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 583 TOP: Thyroid Hormone 44. The two lobes of the thyroid are connected by the infundibulum. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 582 TOP: Structure of the Thyroid Gland 45. PTH increases calcium absorption in the intestines by activating vitamin D. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 585 TOP: Parathyroid Hormone 46. Calcitonin acts to increase blood calcium levels. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 583 TOP: Calcitonin 47. The parathyroid glands are located on the posterior surface of the thymus gland.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 584 TOP: Structure of the Parathyroid Glands 48. The thyroid functions to support the body’s biological clock. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 581 TOP: Pineal Gland 49. Epinephrine is secreted by the adrenal cortex. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 590 TOP: Adrenal Medulla 50. The renin-angiotensin mechanism is a negative-feedback mechanism that helps maintain homeostasis of blood calcium levels. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 587-588 TOP: Mineralocorticoids 51. Ghrelin functions to reduce appetite and prevent an increase in blood glucose level. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 591 TOP: Pancreatic Hormones 52. Somatostatin has the primary role of inhibiting the secretion of adrenal hormones. ANS: F DIF: MNemoRrizaItionG B.C M REF: p. 591 TOP: Pancreatic Hormones U S N T O 53. The major hormone produced by the corpus luteum is LH. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 577 TOP: Tropic Hormones 54. Testosterone is produced by the seminiferous tubules of the testes. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 592 TOP: Testes 55. The hormone that can be detected during the early part of a woman’s pregnancy with an over-the-counter kit is hCG. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 594 TOP: Placenta 56. The thymus gland is smallest in children and reaches its maximum functional size in late adulthood. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 594 TOP: ThymusAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 57. The pituitary gland fits in the pituitary fossa in a structure called the sella turcica. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 574 TOP: Structure of the Pituitary Gland 58. The posterior pituitary gland is not composed of glandular tissue. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 574 TOP: Structure of the Pituitary Gland 59. Cells of the adenohypophysis can be classified as to their reaction to certain types of stain or their type of tissue (glandular or neurosecretory). ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 574 TOP: Structure of the Pituitary Gland 60. Both functions of oxytocin are regulated by a positive-feedback loop. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 580 TOP: Oxytocin 61. One difference between T3 and T4 is the number of iodine atoms attached to the molecule. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 583 TOP: Thyroid Hormone 62. Calcitonin inhibits the functioning of osteoblasts. ANS: F DIF: AN pplicRatioIn GREBF:.p.C58M3 TOP: Calcitonin U S N T O 63. Growth hormone and insulin are synergistic hormones. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 575 TOP: Growth Hormone 64. Growth hormone and insulin are antagonistic hormones. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 575 TOP: Growth Hormone 65. Because the target organs of FSH and LH are organs of the female reproductive system, males do not produce them. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 577 TOP: Tropic Hormones 66. The heart produces a hormone that promotes sodium loss. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 594 TOP: Heart 67. The corticotrophic cells of the adenohypophysis secrete growth hormone. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 575 TOP: Adenohypophysis (Anterior Lobe of Pituitary)Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 68. LH is an example of a tropic hormone. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 577 TOP: Tropic Hormones 69. Because growth hormone is always needed in the body to maintain muscle mass, it is released at a constant rate by the pituitary gland. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 578 TOP: Control of Secretions in the Adenohypophysis 70. Adipose tissue contributes to the functioning of the endocrine system by producing a hormone called leptin, which plays a role in energy balance. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 595 TOP: Other Endocrine Glands and Hormones 71. The anterior pituitary develops from the upward projection of the pharynx. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 574 TOP: Structure of the Pituitary Gland 72. The anterior pituitary develops from the downward projection of the brain. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 574 TOP: Structure of the Pituitary Gland 73. The adenohypophysis is divi NUded RISNintotw Go BTpart .s , COthe Mpa rs anterior and the pars posterior. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 574 TOP: Structure of the Pituitary Gland 74. Growth hormone is also called somatotropin. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 575 TOP: Growth Hormone 75. Growth hormone is also called insulin-like growth factor. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 575 TOP: Growth Hormone 76. Growth hormone increases protein anabolism in cells. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 575 TOP: Growth Hormone 77. Growth hormone has a hyperglycemic effect. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 576 TOP: Growth HormoneAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 78. Prolactin is produced by the acidophils in the pars anterior. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 576 TOP: Prolactin 79. The function of prolactin is to stimulate the secretion of milk. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 576 TOP: Prolactin 80. Tropic hormones are secreted by the acidophils of the pars anterior. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 577 TOP: Tropic Hormones 81. ACTH stimulates the adrenal medulla to produce and secrete its hormones. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 577 TOP: Tropic Hormones 82. Cells in the neurohypophysis make two hormones: ADH and oxytocin. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 580 TOP: Neurohypophysis (Posterior Lobe of Pituitary) 83. The release of ADH and oxytocin is controlled by nervous stimulation. ANS: T DIF: MNemUoRriSzaItioNnGTB.COM TOP: Neurohypophysis (Posterior Lobe of Pituitary) REF: p. 580 84. Hormones of the neurohypophysis are actually made by cells of the supraoptic or sella turcica nuclei. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 580 TOP: Neurohypophysis (Posterior Lobe of Pituitary) 85. Besides the cells of the kidney, target cells of ADH include muscle cells of the walls of the arteries. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 580 TOP: Antidiuretic Hormone 86. Oxytocin plays an important role in both birth and milk production. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 580 TOP: Oxytocin 87. Men do not produce oxytocin. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 581 TOP: OxytocinAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 88. The pineal gland is part of two systems, the endocrine system and the nervous system. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 581 TOP: Pineal Gland 89. The thyroid hormone T3 is more potent than T4, but less of it is produced. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 583 TOP: Thyroid Hormones 90. Going from superficial to deep, the layers of the adrenal cortex are zona glomerulosa, zona reticularis, and zona fasciculata. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 587 TOP: Adrenal Cortex 91. Glucocorticoids stimulate the conversion of protein to sugar. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 588 TOP: Glucocorticoids 92. Glucocorticoids have a hypoglycemic effect on blood sugar. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 588 TOP: Glucocorticoids 93. High concentrations of glucoNcortRicoiIds cGausBe.anCincMrease in white blood cells. U S N T O ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 588 TOP: Glucocorticoids 94. The adrenal medulla functions as postganglionic sympathetic neurons. They are even stimulated by preganglionic sympathetic neurons. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 590 TOP: Adrenal Medulla 95. The endocrine cells of the pancreas make up about 15% of the pancreas. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 590-591 TOP: Structure of Pancreatic Islets 96. Most of the pancreatic islets cells are alpha cells that produce insulin. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 591 TOP: Structure of Pancreatic Islets 97. The two major female hormones produced by the ovaries are estrogen and progesterone. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 592 TOP: OvariesAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 98. The thymus plays an important role in the development of T cells. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 594 TOP: Thymus MATCHING Match each hormone with its corresponding description. a. Antidiuretic hormone b. Adrenocorticotropic hormone c. Follicle-stimulating hormone d. Luteinizing hormone e. Lactogenic hormone f. Progesterone g. Somatotropin h. Oxytocin 1. Secreted by the corpus luteum 2. Stimulates the release of glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids 3. Promotes growth 4. Stimulates testosterone production in males 5. Stimulates development of ovarian follicle 6. Causes water retention 7. Causes muscle contraction of the uterus 8. Also known as prolactin N URSINGTB.COM TOP: Tropic Hormones 3. ANS: TOP: G DIF: Memorization Growth Hormone REF: p. 575 4. ANS: TOP: D DIF: Memorization Tropic Hormones REF: p. 577 5. ANS: TOP: C DIF: Memorization Tropic Hormones REF: p. 577 6. ANS: TOP: A DIF: Memorization Antidiuretic Hormone REF: p. 580 7. ANS: TOP: H DIF: Memorization Oxytocin REF: p. 580 8. ANS: TOP: E DIF: Memorization Prolactin REF: p. 576 Match each hormone with its structure, function, or the gland that produces it. a. Thyroid hormone b. Insulin c. Human chorionic gonadotropin d. Aldosterone e. Calcitonin 1. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 592 TOP: Ovaries 2. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 577Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM U S N T O f. Glucagon g. Cortisol h. Parathyroid hormone 9. Calcium-regulating hormone that is made in the thyroid gland 10. The only important mineralocorticoid hormone in humans 11. Hormone that is produced by the alpha cells of the pancreas 12. Hormone that regulates metabolism rate, processes of cell growth, and tissue differentiation 13. Hormone that causes an increase in blood calcium levels 14. Hormone that lowers the concentration of glucose in the blood 15. Hormone that is made by a fetal tissue component of the placenta 16. Hormone that is a chief glucocorticoid released by the adrenal gland 9. ANS: TOP: 10. ANS: E Calcitonin D DIF: DIF: Memorization Memorization REF: REF: p. 583 p. 587 TOP: Mineralocorticoids 11. ANS: TOP: F DIF: Memorization Pancreatic Hormones REF: p. 591 12. ANS: TOP: A DIF: Memorization Thyroid Hormone REF: p. 583 13. ANS: TOP: H DIF: Memorization Parathyroid Hormone REF: p. 585 14. ANS: TOP: B DIF: Memorization Pancreatic Hormone REF: p. 591 15. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 594 TOP: Placenta N R I G B.C M 16. ANS: G DIF: Memorization REF: p. 588 TOP: Glucocorticoids SHORT ANSWER 1. The anterior and posterior divisions of the pituitary develop from different embryonic structures. Identify the embryonic part from which each is derived. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: p. 574 TOP: Structure of the Pituitary Gland 2. Briefly summarize how growth hormone affects metabolism. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: pp. 575-576 TOP: Growth Hormone 3. Explain the negative-feedback principle for controlling anterior pituitary tropic hormone production. Give an example in your explanation.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM U S N T O ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: p. 578 TOP: Control of Secretions in the Adenohypophysis 4. What role does the hypophyseal portal system play in the control of secretions in the adenohypophysis? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: pp. 578-579 TOP: Control of Secretions in the Adenohypophysis 5. Identify the principal actions of the hormones of the thyroid and parathyroid glands. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: p. 582 | p. 584 TOP: Thyroid Gland | Parathyroid Gland 6. Explain how the renin-angiotensin mechanism operates to maintain blood pressure. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: pp. 587-588 TOP: Mineralocorticoids N R I G B.C M 7. What is the effect of glucagon on blood sugar level? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: p. 591 TOP: Pancreatic Hormones 8. Explain the negative-feedback loop of ADH that helps maintain water balance in the body. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: p. 580 TOP: Antidiuretic Hormone 9. List and briefly describe the tropic hormones produced by the pituitary gland. What is a tropic hormone? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 577 TOP: Tropic Hormones 10. Where is the pineal gland, and what hormone does it produce? What is the effect of this hormone?Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 581 TOP: Pineal Gland 11. What are the three regions of the adrenal cortex, and what types of hormones are produced by each region? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 587 TOP: Adrenal Cortex 12. Explain why it is equally likely that males and females can produce hCG. ANS: It is fetal tissue hormone; either sex can make it. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 594 TOP: Placenta ESSAY 1. Nancy had an annual physical last week, and her urine indicated a high level of chorionic gonadotropin. What does this mean for Nancy? ANS: Answers will vary. NURSINGTB.COM DIF: Application REF: p. 593 TOP: Mechanisms of Disease 2. Select a hormone that would cause a problem for the body if it were hyposecreted or hypersecreted. Name and describe the conditions caused by both hyposecretion and hypersecretion of that hormone. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: pp. 596-597 TOP: Mechanisms of DiseaseAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM Chapter 27: Blood Patton: Anatomy and Physiology, 10th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following is(are) involved in determining a person’s total blood volume? a. Age b. Body type c. Sex d. All of the above ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 609 TOP: Blood Volume 2. Blood volume per kilogram of body weight varies inversely with: a. skeletal volume. b. body fat. c. water weight. d. height. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 609 TOP: Blood Volume 3. A hematocrit of 56% would be an indication of: a. leukocytosis. b. anemia. c. leukemia. d. polycythemia. NURSINGTB.COM ANS: D DIF: Application REF: p. 610 TOP: Hematocrit 4. Which mature cell has no nucleus, mitochondria, or ribosomes? a. Erythrocyte b. Leukocyte c. Platelet d. Neutrophil ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 610 TOP: Red Blood Cells (Erythrocytes) 5. A normal adult red blood cell count ranges from _ million/cubic mm. a. 4.2 to 6.2 b. 5.5 to 6.5 c. 6.5 to 7.5 d. 7.5 to 8.5 ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 611 TOP: Red Blood Cells (Erythrocytes) 6. Which of the following cell types can carry oxygen? a. LeukocyteAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM b. Thrombocyte c. Platelet d. Erythrocyte ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 611 TOP: Function of Red Blood Cells 7. A hematocrit of 40% means that in every 100 ml of whole blood, there are: a. 40 red blood cells and the remainder is fluid plasma. b. 40 ml of fluid plasma and 60 ml of red blood cells. c. 40 ml of red blood cells and 60 ml of fluid plasma. d. 2 liters (40% of 5 liters total) of fluid plasma. ANS: C DIF: Application REF: p. 610 TOP: Hematocrit 8. Under the microscope, erythrocytes appear as: a. biconcave disks without nuclei. b. circular disks with centrally located nuclei. c. circular disks with several nuclei. d. oval disks with multilobed nuclei. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 610 TOP: Red Blood Cells (Erythrocytes) 9. Erythropoiesis is the formation of: a. platelets. b. red blood cells. c. white blood cells. d. all of the above. NURSINGTB.COM ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 613 TOP: Formation of Red Blood Cells 10. Many types of blood cells are produced in the: a. liver. b. red bone marrow. c. spleen. d. pancreas. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 613 TOP: Formation of Red Blood Cells 11. In the formation of blood cells, the megakaryoblast ultimately develops into: a. lymphocytes. b. platelets. c. monocytes. d. both A and B. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 620 TOP: Formation and Life Span of Platelets 12. Erythropoietin is a hormone: a. released by the kidney to stimulate red blood cell formation.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM b. released by the liver to stimulate red blood cell formation. c. released by the kidney to stimulate red and white blood cell formation. d. that causes the recycling of iron for production of red blood cells. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 613 TOP: Formation of Red Blood Cells 13. Which of the following is not a leukocyte? a. Basophil b. Reticulocyte c. Neutrophil d. Monocyte ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 618 TOP: White Blood Cells (Leukocytes) 14. Carbon dioxide is transported as bicarbonate ions because of a chemical reaction catabolized by the enzyme: a. albumin. b. fibrinogen. c. carbonic anhydrase. d. globulin. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 611 TOP: Function of Red Blood Cells 15. All blood cells are derived from: a. reticulocytes. b. proerythroblasts. c. basophilic erythroblasts. d. hemocytoblasts. NURSINGTB.COM ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 613 TOP: Formation of Red Blood Cells 16. Heme is broken down into what pigment, which is excreted in bile? a. Amino acids b. Iron c. Bilirubin d. Melanin ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 613 TOP: Life Cycle of Red Blood Cells 17. Which of the following cell types are classified as agranulocytes? a. Neutrophils and monocytes b. Basophils and lymphocytes c. Neutrophils and basophils d. Lymphocytes and monocytes ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 618 TOP: White Blood Cells (Leukocytes)Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM N R I G B.C M 18. Which types of white blood cells are thought to play a role in the prevention of clotting? a. Eosinophils b. Monocytes c. Basophils d. Neutrophils ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 619 TOP: Granulocytes 19. Which of the following is an example of a leukocyte? a. Monocyte b. Thrombocyte c. Platelet d. Erythrocyte ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 618 TOP: White Blood Cells (Leukocytes) 20. Which types of white blood cells play a major role in immunity to infectious diseases? a. Monocytes b. Eosinophils c. Lymphocytes d. Basophils ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 619 TOP: Agranulocytes 21. Which of the following are the most proficient at phagocytosis in the tissues? a. Neutrophils and basophils U S N T O b. Lymphocytes and eosinophils c. Basophils and monocytes d. Neutrophils and monocytes ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 618-619 TOP: Granulocytes, Agranulocytes 22. Thrombocytes are involved with: a. blood clotting. b. body defense. c. transport of glucose. d. transport of oxygen. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 620 TOP: Platelets 23. Which of the following Rh factor combinations could cause agglutination of an infant’s red blood cells? a. Mother–, father+, infant+ b. Mother–, father–, infant– c. Mother+, father–, infant+ d. Mother+, father+, infant– ANS: A DIF: Application REF: p. 617 TOP: The Rh SystemAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 24. People with type AB blood are considered universal recipients because their blood: a. does not contain the Rh antigen. b. does not contain either anti-A or anti-B antibodies. c. is absent of both antigen A and antigen B in the red blood cells. d. Both B and C are correct. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 615 TOP: The ABO System 25. Which type of protein constitutes more than half of the total proteins in blood plasma? a. Globulin b. Fibrinogen c. Albumin d. Heme ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 608 TOP: Blood Plasma 26. Which factor in the clotting process is the antihemophiliac factor? a. IV b. VIII c. IX d. X ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 623 TOP: Blood Clotting (Coagulation) 27. Which factor in the clotting pNroUcResSsIisNthGeTCBhr.isCtmOaMs factor? a. IV b. VIII c. IX d. X ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 623 TOP: Blood Clotting (Coagulation) 28. Calcium is used in the clotting process during: a. stage I. b. stage II. c. stages I and II. d. neither stage I nor stage II. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 622 TOP: Blood Clotting (Coagulation) 29. In stage II of clot formation, prothrombin is converted to: a. fibrin. b. fibrinogen. c. thrombin. d. thromboplastin. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 624Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM N R I G TOP: Blood Clotting (Coagulation) 30. In the formation of a clot, the insoluble network of fine threads in which the cellular elements of blood are trapped is called: a. fibrinogen. b. fibrin. c. thrombin. d. thromboplastin. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 624 TOP: Blood Clotting (Coagulation) 31. Which of the following is an anticoagulant? a. Calcium ions b. Vitamin K c. Thromboplastin d. Heparin ANS: D DIF: Application REF: p. 624 TOP: Conditions That Oppose Clotting 32. Which of the following statements is not true of plasma? a. It is about 90% water. b. It contains both electrolytes and nonelectrolytes. c. It contains both colloids and crystalloids. d. All of the above statements are true of plasma. ANS: D DIF: Memorization B.C M REF: p. 608 TOP: Blood Plasma U S N T O 33. Which plasma protein plays an important role in blood clotting? a. Fibrinogen b. Albumin c. Globulin d. Plasminogen ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 608 TOP: Blood Plasma 34. The major ingredient in hemoglobin that allows oxygen to be transported is: a. sodium. b. zinc. c. iron. d. copper. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 611 TOP: Hemoglobin 35. Which plasma protein plays an important role in the immune system? a. Fibrinogen b. Albumin c. Globulin d. PlasminogenAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM U S N T O ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 608 TOP: Blood Plasma 36. Which of the following formed elements assist in coagulation? a. Leukocytes b. Erythrocytes c. Thrombocytes d. Monocytes ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 620 TOP: Platelets 37. Which of the following are not found in the buffy coat? a. Erythrocytes b. Leukocytes c. Thrombocytes d. All of the above are found in the buffy coat. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 610 TOP: Hematocrit 38. A person with only antibody B in his or her plasma would have which blood type? a. A b. B c. AB d. O ANS: A DIF: MNemoRrizaItionG B.C M TOP: The ABO System 39. Which of the following does not hasten clotting? a. Rough spot in the endothelium b. Abnormally slow blood flow c. Heparin d. All of the above hasten clotting. REF: p. 615 ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 625 TOP: Conditions That Hasten Clotting 40. The function of blood is to: a. carry food to the cells. b. remove waste from the cells. c. assist the body in temperature regulation. d. do all of the above. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 607 TOP: Blood Composition 41. A hematocrit value of 38 ml/100 ml of blood would be: a. the average for a man. b. in the low normal range for a woman. c. in the high normal range for a woman.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM d. in the low normal range for a man. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 610 TOP: Hematocrit 42. When whole blood is spun down in a centrifuge, the buffy coat can be found: a. between the plasma and red blood cells. b. at the very top of the test tube. c. at the very bottom of the test tube. d. in the plasma below the water but above the soluble proteins. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 610 TOP: Hematocrit 43. One hemoglobin molecule contains: a. one molecule of heme. b. one molecule of globin. c. four iron atoms. d. all of the above. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 611 TOP: Hemoglobin 44. What part of the hemoglobin molecule combines with carbon dioxide? a. Globin b. Heme c. Iron atoms d. Hemoglobin does not com NbinRe wIithGcarbBo.nCdioxMide. ANS: A DIF: MemUoriSzatioNn T O TOP: Hemoglobin REF: p. 610 45. Which are the only cells in the differentiation process of red blood cells that can be found circulating in the blood? a. Proerythrocytes b. Reticulocytes c. Basophilic erythrocytes d. Polychromic erythrocytes ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 613 TOP: Formation of Red Blood Cells 46. Which is not an end product of the breakdown of hemoglobin? a. Amino acids b. Bilirubin c. Free oxygen d. Iron ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 613 TOP: Life Cycle of Red Blood Cells 47. Which of the following substances is not secreted by platelets? a. ATPAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM b. Thromboxane c. Arachidonic acid d. All of the above are secreted by platelets. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 620 TOP: Platelets 48. Whole blood constitutes about what percent of total body weight? a. 0.8% b. 5.3% c. 8% d. Between 12% and 15%, depending on body type ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 607 TOP: Blood Composition 49. Which characteristic of blood makes it especially effective in temperature regulation? a. Low specific heat capacity b. High specific heat capacity c. High evaporative potential d. Both A and C ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 607 TOP: Blood Composition 50. If you give a “unit” of blood in a blood drive and you are an average-sized adult, you have given about what percent of your blood? a. 1% b. 5% c. 10% d. 15% NURSINGTB.COM ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 609 TOP: Blood Volume 51. The approximate blood volume in a human can be determined by using: a. the direct method. b. the indirect method. c. a radioisotope. d. both B and C. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 609 TOP: Blood Volume 52. Which is not a formed element of the blood? a. Albumin b. Platelet c. Erythrocyte d. Neither A nor B are formed elements of the blood. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 608 TOP: Formed Elements of BloodAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 53. The presence of spectrin in the red blood cell makes it: a. better able to carry oxygen. b. more flexible. c. better able to carry carbon dioxide. d. able to produce hemoglobin. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 611 TOP: Red Blood Cells (Erythrocytes) 54. The sequence of developmental steps in the formation of red blood cells beginning with hematopoietic stem cells is: a. proerythroblasts, polychromic erythroblasts, basophilic erythroblasts, and reticulocytes. b. proerythroblasts, reticulocytes, polychromic erythrocytes, and basophilic erythrocytes. c. proerythroblasts, basophilic erythroblasts, polychromic erythroblasts, and reticulocytes. d. polychromic erythroblasts, basophilic erythroblasts, proerythroblasts, and reticulocytes. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 613 TOP: Formation of Red Blood Cells 55. Which of the following is not an agranulocyte? a. Monocyte b. Lymphocyte c. Eosinophil d. All of the above are agranNuUloRcySteIsN. GTB.COM ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 618 TOP: Agranulocytes 56. Which of the following is not true of white blood cells? a. More brightly colored than red blood cells b. Larger than red blood cells c. Contain a nucleus d. All of the above are true of white blood cells. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 618 TOP: White Blood Cells (Leukocytes) 57. Some white blood cells are capable of diapedesis, which means they can: a. “eat” bacteria or damaged cells. b. migrate out of blood vessels into tissue spaces. c. engage in protein synthesis because they have a nucleus. d. change from one type of white blood cell to another. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 618 TOP: Granulocytes 58. Which white blood cell helps protect against parasitic worms? a. EosinophilAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM b. Neutrophil c. Basophil d. Monocyte ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 618 TOP: Eosinophils 59. The most mature developing red blood cell that still contains a nucleus is a: a. reticulocyte. b. polychromic erythroblast. c. basophilic erythroblast. d. proerythroblast. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 613 TOP: Formation of Red Blood Cells 60. Which white blood cell contains granules filled with histamine? a. Eosinophil b. Neutrophil c. Basophil d. Monocyte ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 619 TOP: Basophils 61. A person with neither A, nor B antibodies in the blood plasma would have which blood type? a. A b. B c. AB d. O NURSINGTB.COM ANS: C DIF: Application REF: p. 615 TOP: The ABO System 62. A person with neither A, nor B antigens on the red blood cell would have which blood type? a. A b. B c. AB d. O ANS: D DIF: Application REF: p. 615 TOP: The ABO System 63. A person with an antigen on the red blood cell and a different antibody in the plasma might have which of the following blood type? a. A b. AB c. O d. Both A and C ANS: A DIF: Application REF: p. 615 TOP: The ABO System 64. What substance involved in the process of blood clot formation is not made by the liver? a. Fibrinogen b. ProthrombinAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM N R I G B.C c. Vitamin K d. All of the above are made by the liver. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 624 TOP: Blood Clotting (Coagulation) 65. What substance does not assist in the formation of a blood clot? a. Fibrinogen b. Plasmin c. Vitamin K d. All of the above assist in the formation of a blood clot. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 625 TOP: Clot Dissolution 66. A woman could have Rh antibodies in her blood if: a. Rh+ blood was given in a transfusion. b. an Rh+ fetus was developing within. c. RhoGAM was given. d. both A and B occurred. ANS: D DIF: Application REF: p. 617 TOP: The Rh System 67. Which of the following statements is not true of hemoglobin? a. Each red blood cell has between 200 million and 300 million molecules of hemoglobin. b. The hemoglobin in a red blood cell makes up about 70% of the cell’s dry weight. c. It has four globin and four heme chains in each molecule. d. All of the above statementsUareStruNe ofThemogOlobin. ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 611 TOP: Hemoglobin 68. Which of the following statements is not true of platelets? a. They develop from megakaryoblasts. b. They release substances that cause vasoconstriction. c. They have a life span of about 7 days. d. All of the above statements are true of platelets. ANS: D DIF: Application REF: p. 620 TOP: Platelets 69. After Martha’s baby was born, why did the physician apply a gauze dressing for a short time on the umbilical cord and give the baby a dose of vitamin K? a. Newborns do not have any platelets for the first 3 months and will bleed freely unless actions are taken to prevent bleeding. b. Newborns often show elevated platelet counts at birth, and both of the actions taken by the physician will help the umbilical cord stop bleeding. c. The physician knew that the baby would need vitamin K to replace the red blood cells lost during delivery. d. Newborns often have a reduced number of platelets, which are needed to clot blood, and both of the actions taken by the physician will help the umbilical cord stop bleeding. ANS: D DIF: Application REF: p. 625Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM TOP: Clinical Methods of Hastening Clotting (Box 27-3) 70. How does the body benefit from the breakdown of aged or damaged red blood cells? a. The by-products of bilirubin are excreted into the intestine and decrease the digestive process. b. Globin is released as vitamin K and can be used for clotting. c. The breakdown increases erythropoiesis, which results in an increase in red blood cells. d. Globin is converted to amino acids and used as an energy source or for protein building. ANS: D DIF: Application REF: pp. 613-614 TOP: Life Cycle of Red Blood Cells 71. Which kind of connective tissue makes blood cells for the body? a. Myeloid b. Lymphoid c. Reticular d. Both A and B ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 608 TOP: Hematopoiesis TRUE/FALSE 1. Another term for plasma is interstitial fluid. ANS: F DIF: MNemUoRriSzaItioNnGTB.COM TOP: Blood Composition REF: p. 607 2. Direct measurements of total blood volume involve the “tagging” of red blood cells or plasma components with radioisotopes. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 609 TOP: Blood Volume 3. The less fat in the body, the more blood there is per unit of body weight. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 609-610 TOP: Blood Volume 4. In men red blood cell counts average about 4,800,000 per cubic millimeter of blood. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 611 TOP: Red Blood Cells (Erythrocytes) 5. The survival of red blood cells depends on their ability to change their shape. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 611 TOP: Red Blood Cells (Erythrocytes) 6. Blood constitutes about 4% of total body weight.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 607 NURSINGTB.COM TOP: Blood Composition 7. Diapedesis is a process of phagocytosis and release of cytotoxic chemicals. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 618 TOP: Granulocytes 8. Eosinophils are the least numerous of the white blood cells, numbering only 0.5% to 1% of the total leukocyte count. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 618 TOP: Granulocytes 9. Monocytes are polymorphonuclear leukocytes. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 619 TOP: Granulocytes 10. Erythropoietinogen is released primarily by the kidneys. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 613 TOP: Formation of Red Blood Cells 11. The average healthy young female has about 4 to 5 liters of blood in her body. ANS: T DIF: MNemoRrizaItionG B.C M REF: p. 609 TOP: Blood Volume U S N T O 12. Platelets are important for blood clotting and hemostasis. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 620 TOP: Platelets 13. Under normal circumstances, there are no differences between the sexes in platelet count. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 620 TOP: Platelets 14. Platelets are formed only in red bone marrow. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 620 TOP: Formation and Life Span of Platelets 15. People with type O blood are considered universal donors and therefore crossmatching is not needed before transfusing their blood. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 615 TOP: The ABO System 16. People with type O blood are considered universal recipients.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 615 TOP: The ABO System 17. Type O blood contains both antigen A and antigen B on the red blood cells. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 615 TOP: The ABO System 18. If the recipient’s blood type is A, to avoid agglutination the donor’s blood type may be either type O or type A. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 615 TOP: The ABO System 19. The only people who can ever have anti-Rh antibodies in their plasma are Rh-positive men or women who have been transfused with Rh-negative blood or Rh-positive women who have carried an Rh-negative fetus. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 617 TOP: The Rh System 20. The volume of plasma is equal to the whole blood minus the formed elements. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 608 TOP: Blood Plasma 21. Plasma is a straw-colored fluNid thatRUS accouIGN ntT Bs f.oCr m oreMO than half of the blood volume. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 608 TOP: Blood Plasma 22. The major component of plasma is protein. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 608 TOP: Blood Plasma 23. The type of plasma protein that constitutes more than half of the total amount is fibrinogen. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 608 TOP: Blood Plasma 24. The synthesis of plasma protein takes place in the liver. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 608 TOP: Blood Plasma 25. Globulins constitute approximately 55% of the total plasma protein content. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 608 TOP: Blood PlasmaAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 26. Globulins play an important role in the body’s defense process. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 608 TOP: Blood Plasma 27. Antithrombins are important in clot formation. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 624 TOP: Conditions That Oppose Clotting 28. Streptokinase is an enzyme that can be used to dissolve clots. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 625 TOP: Clot Dissolution 29. Streptokinase, an enzyme from certain streptococci, can cause clot dissolution. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 625 TOP: Clot Dissolution 30. An extrinsic factor must be provided by the diet to prevent pernicious anemia. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 626 TOP: Mechanisms of Disease 31. Hematocrit and serum are synonymous terms. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 608 | p. 610 TOP: Hematocrit, Blood PlasmNa R I G B.C M U S N T O 32. Oxygen deficiency increases leukocyte numbers by increasing the secretion of erythropoietin by the kidneys. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 611 TOP: Formation of Red Blood Cells 33. The life span of circulating red blood cells is about 1 year. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 613 TOP: Life Cycle of Red Blood Cells 34. Hemoglobin is broken down into iron and bilirubin. The iron is returned to the bone marrow and the bilirubin is excreted by the kidneys. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 613 TOP: Life Cycle of Red Blood Cells 35. People with type O blood are considered universal donors because their blood has Rh antigen on the red blood cells. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 615 TOP: The ABO SystemAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 36. People with type AB blood are considered universal donors. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 615 TOP: The ABO System 37. Type AB blood contains both A and B antigens on its red blood cells. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 615 TOP: The ABO System 38. Rh-positive blood contains Rh antigens on its red blood cells. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 617 TOP: The Rh System 39. Plasma is a dark red fluid that accounts for more than half of the blood volume. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 608 TOP: Blood Plasma 40. Blood plasma contains colloids, crystalloids, electrolytes, and nonelectrolytes. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 608 TOP: Blood Plasma 41. Another name for blood cells is formed elements. ANS: T DIF: MNemoRrizaItionG B.C M REF: p. 607 TOP: Blood Composition U S N T O 42. If you donate a “unit” of blood at a blood bank, you have given about 5% of your total blood volume. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 609 TOP: Blood Volume 43. Direct measurement of blood volume is usually not done on normal, healthy people. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 609 TOP: Blood Volume 44. In the indirect measurement of blood volume, it is assumed that the radioisotope is uniformly distributed in the blood. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 609 TOP: Blood Volume 45. The terms packed cell volume and hematocrit are interchangeable. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 610 TOP: Hematocrit 46. Hematocrit includes red blood cells, white blood cells, and soluble proteins from the plasma.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM ANS: T U S N T O ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 610 TOP: Hematocrit 47. The buffy coat is composed of all the formed elements except red blood cells. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 610 TOP: Hematocrit 48. The buffy coat composes about 5% of the total blood volume. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 610 TOP: Hematocrit 49. The rate of protein synthesis in mature red blood cells is slightly higher than in most of the cells in the body. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 610 TOP: Red Blood Cells (Erythrocytes) 50. The protein spectrin helps keep the red blood cells rigid so they are not deformed when passing through a capillary. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 611 TOP: Red Blood Cells (Erythrocytes) 51. The bicarbonate ions formed in carbon dioxide transport move out to the plasma and help the body adjust pH. N R I G B.C M DIF: Memorization REF: p. 611 TOP: Function of Red Blood Cells 52. The part of the hemoglobin molecule that combines with oxygen is the heme. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 601 TOP: Hemoglobin 53. Maturation causes an increase in the size of red blood cells. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 613 TOP: Formation of Red Blood Cells 54. About 45% of whole blood is plasma. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 608 TOP: Blood Plasma 55. A drop in blood oxygen levels stimulates an increase in red blood cell formation. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 613 TOP: Formation of Red Blood Cells 56. A drop in blood oxygen levels stimulates the liver to release erythropoietin.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 613 TOP: Formation of Red Blood Cells 57. On average, women have a slightly higher hematocrit value than men. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 610 TOP: Hematocrit 58. Conditions that result in decreased red blood cell numbers are called anemias. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 610 TOP: Hematocrit 59. To maintain the homeostatic level of red blood cell production, the body must supply the bone marrow with recycled iron, amino acids, and bilirubin. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 613 TOP: Life Cycle of Red Blood Cells 60. The nuclei of red blood cells and white blood cells are almost identical in size. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 610 | p. 618 TOP: White Blood Cells (Leukocytes), Red Blood Cells (Erythrocytes) 61. The polymorphonuclear leukocytes are granulocytes. ANS: T DIF: MNemoRrizaItionG B.C M REF: p. 618 TOP: Granulocytes U S N T O 62. Another name for eosinophils could be acidophils. ANS: T DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 618 TOP: Eosinophils 63. Both the largest and smallest of the leukocytes are agranulocytes. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 619 TOP: Agranulocytes 64. The platelet count in the average adult is 500,000/mm3. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 620 TOP: Platelets 65. One of the ways platelets assist in blood homeostasis is to release chemicals that cause vasoconstriction in the blood vessels. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 620 TOP: Platelets 66. Blood agglutination and blood clotting are different names for the same process. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 615 | p. 622Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM TOP: The ABO System, Blood Clotting (Coagulation) 67. A woman who is pregnant for the first time cannot possibly have anti-Rh antibodies in her blood. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 617 TOP: The Rh System 68. A difference between a crystalloid and a colloid is the size of the particle. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 608 TOP: Blood Plasma 69. The difference between crystalloids and colloids is that crystalloids have a charge and colloids do not. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 608 TOP: Blood Plasma 70. One reason that blood is effective in heat regulation is that it has a high specific heat. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 607 TOP: Blood Composition 71. The buffy coat does not contain formed elements of the blood. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 610 TOP: Hematocrit 72. The shape of a red blood cell NRUincre ISase sNiGtsTsuBrf.acCeOaMrea. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 610 TOP: Red Blood Cells (Erythrocytes) 73. The enzyme carbonic anhydrase allows carbon dioxide to join with the heme portion of the red blood cell. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 611 TOP: Function of Red Blood Cells 74. The total surface area of all of the red blood cells in the body is about the size of a tennis court. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 611 TOP: Function of Red Blood Cells 75. One of the reasons that red blood cells are so efficient in carrying oxygen is that one hemoglobin molecule can carry two oxygen atoms. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 611 TOP: Hemoglobin 76. One of the functions of basophils is to protect the body from parasitic worms.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM U S N T O ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 619 TOP: White Blood Cells (Leukocytes) 77. In the red blood cell, oxygen combines with the heme portion of hemoglobin, whereas the globin portion of the hemoglobin combines with carbon dioxide. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 611 TOP: Hemoglobin 78. In the formation of red blood cells, reticulocytes develop directly from basophilic erythroblasts. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 613 TOP: Formation of Red Blood Cells 79. In the formation of red blood cells, polychromatic erythroblasts develop directly from basophilic erythroblasts. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 613 TOP: Formation of Red Blood Cells 80. Some white blood cells are named based on the types of substances that stain them for microscopic study. 81.8 1 . ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 618 TOP: White Blood Cells (Leukocytes) N R I G B.C M Neutrophils contain powerful lysosomes that assist them in their ability to be phagocytic cells. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 618 TOP: White Blood Cells (Leukocytes) 82. Both myeloid tissue and lymphatic tissue are considered hematopoietic tissue. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 620 TOP: Formation of White Blood Cells 83. Of the three proteins found in plasma, globulins are present in the smallest percentage. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 608 TOP: Blood Plasma 84. People who live and work in high altitudes often have elevated red blood cell numbers. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 610 TOP: Hematocrit 85. The difference in the number of red blood cells between the sexes is due to the stimulating effect of estrogen on red blood cell formation. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 610Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM U S N T O TOP: Red Blood Cells (Erythrocytes) 86. One hemoglobin molecule can unite with a total of four molecules of oxygen. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 611 TOP: Hemoglobin 87. The heme portion of the hemoglobin molecule can carry oxygen to the cells and carbon dioxide away from the cells. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 611 TOP: Hemoglobin 88. In the development of the red blood cell, polychromic erythroblasts are more mature cells than basophilic erythroblasts. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 613 TOP: Formation of Red Blood Cells 89. In the development of the red blood cell, the reticulocyte is the most mature cell that still contains a nucleus. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 613 TOP: Formation of Red Blood Cells 90. The mature red blood cell has no nucleus. ANS: T DIF: MNemoRrizaItionG B.C M TOP: Red Blood Cells (Erythrocytes) REF: p. 610 91. About half of the mature red blood cell is made up of hemoglobin. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 610 TOP: Red Blood Cells (Erythrocytes) 92. Neutrophils contain granules that are able to release the anticoagulant heparin. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 619 TOP: Basophils 93. Basophils contain granules that are able to release histamine. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 619 TOP: Basophils 94. A person with a parasitic worm infection might have an increase in the number of eosinophils in the blood. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 618 TOP: Eosinophils 95. A mature megakaryocyte can release as many as 3000 platelets into the blood.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 620 TOP: Formation and Life Span of Platelets 96. A person without A or B antibodies in the blood must have blood type O. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 615 TOP: The ABO System 97. A person without A or B antigens on the red blood cells must have blood type O. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 615 TOP: The ABO System 98. A person with an antigen on the red blood cell and a different antigen in the blood plasma could be either blood type A or blood type B. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 615 TOP: The ABO System 99. The end product of both the intrinsic and extrinsic clotting pathway is fibrin. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 624 TOP: Blood Clotting (Coagulation) 100. Whereas most vitamin K is synthesized by the liver, some is produced by bacteria in the small intestine. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 624 TOP: Blood Clotting (Coagulation) 101. Only mature red blood cells aNre foundRIUS intGN hecBT ir. culaCMO tory system. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 613 TOP: Formation of Red Blood Cells 102. In order to maintain a constant level of red blood cells, about 2 billion red blood cells must be made per day. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 613 TOP: Formation of Red Blood Cells 103. Vitamin B12 is needed for the production of red blood cells. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 614 TOP: Life Cycle of Red Blood Cells 104. Vitamin B12 is also called the intrinsic factor. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 614 TOP: Life Cycle of Red Blood Cells 105. Two conditions that hasten blood clotting are a rough spot on the endothelium and abnormally slow–moving blood. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 625Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM U S N T O TOP: Conditions That Hasten Clotting 106. A person with a condition such as appendicitis would have an increase in both neutrophils and in the total number of white blood cells. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 619 TOP: White Blood Cell Numbers 107. The general term for an overall decrease in white blood cells is leukocytosis. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 619 TOP: White Blood Cell Numbers 108. Most lymphocytes and monocytes come from hematopoietic adult stem cells in lymphatic tissue. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 620 TOP: Formation of White Blood Cells 109. Because they are formed in lymphatic tissue, there are no lymphocytes in bone marrow. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 620 TOP: Formation of White Blood Cells 110. If an Rh-negative mother carries a second Rh-positive fetus, a condition called erythroblastosis fetalis could seriously jeopardize her health. ANS: F DIF: MNemoRrizaItionG B.C M TOP: The Rh System REF: p. 617 111. A substance called RhoGam can stop a mother from developing anti-Rh antibodies and protect a future Rh-positive fetus. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 618 TOP: The Rh System 112. The function of blood clotting is hemostasis. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 622 TOP: Blood Clotting (Coagulation) 113. Blood that clots too slowly and blood that clots too quickly are both problems for the body. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 622 TOP: Blood Clotting (Coagulation) 114. Whether a blood clot event begins in or out of the circulatory system determines whether it is intrinsic or extrinsic. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 623 TOP: Activation PathwaysAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 115. A naturally occurring substance called plasmin is used by the body to dissolve clots. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 625 TOP: Clot Dissolution MATCHING Match each blood cell life span with the corresponding blood cell type. a. 105-120 days b. 10-12 days c. Months d. Days to years e. Hours to 3 days 1. Monocyte 2. Erythrocyte 3. Basophil 4. Eosinophil 5. Lymphocyte 1. ANS: TOP: C Classes of DIF: Memorization Blood Cells (Table 27-1) REF: p. 609 2. ANS: TOP: A Classes of DIF: Memorization Blood Cells (Table 27-1) REF: p. 609 3. ANS: TOP: E Classes of DIF: Memorization Blood Cells (Table 27-1) REF: p. 609 4. ANS: TOP: B Classes of Bl DIF: l MNemUoRriSzaItioNnGTB.COM REF: ood Cel s (Table 27-1) p. 609 5. ANS: TOP: D Classes of DIF: Memorization Blood Cells (Table 27-1) REF: p. 609 Match each term with its corresponding description. a. Agranulocytes b. Basophils c. Eosinophils d. Granulocytes e. Leukocytes f. Lymphocytes g. Megakaryoblasts h. Monocytes i. Neutrophils j. Platelets 6. Leukocytes containing large cytoplasmic granules that stain 7. Granulocytes that phagocytize microorganisms for cellular defense; most numerous leukocytes 8. Granulocytes that release heparin (to prevent clotting) and histamine (important in inflammatory response) 9. Granulocytes that protect against infections caused by parasitic worms and allergic reactions 10. Agranulocytes involved in immunity; produce antibodiesAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 11. Cells that enter tissues and are transformed into macrophages 12. Small, colorless bodies that function in blood clotting and hemostasis 13. Cells from which platelets are produced 14. Leukocytes without cytoplasmic granules 15. Group of nucleated cells that lack hemoglobin; also called white blood cells 6. ANS: D DIF: Application REF: p. 618 TOP: White Blood Cells (Leukocytes) 7. ANS: TOP: I DIF: Memorization Granulocytes REF: p. 618 8. ANS: TOP: B DIF: Memorization Granulocytes REF: p. 619 9. ANS: TOP: C DIF: Memorization Granulocytes REF: p. 618 10. ANS: TOP: F DIF: Memorization Agranulocytes REF: p. 619 11. ANS: TOP: H DIF: Memorization Classes of Blood Cells (Table 27-1) REF: p. 609 12. ANS: TOP: J DIF: Memorization Platelets REF: p. 620 13. ANS: TOP: G DIF: Memorization Formation and Life Span of Platelets REF: p. 620 14. ANS: TOP: A DIF: Memorization White Blood Cells (Leukocytes) REF: p. 618 15. ANS: TOP: E DIF: Memorization White Blood Cells (Leukocytes) REF: p. 618 Match each substance involv NRUedin SblIooNdGcTloBt f.orCmOaM tion with its description or function. a. Tissue factor b. Calcium c. Fibrinogen d. Prothrombin activator e. Fibrin f. Prothrombin g. Vitamin K h. Thrombin i. Plasmin 16. The soluble protein that is acted on to form the insoluble protein that actually forms the clot 17. Substance that combines with calcium to convert fibrinogen to fibrin 18. Ion that is necessary in two steps of the clotting process 19. Material that is composed of lipoproteins and phospholipids released by damaged cells 20. Substance needed by the liver to make prothrombin 21. Substance that hydrolyzes fibrin strands and dissolves blood clots 22. Substance that converts prothrombin to thrombin in the presence of calcium ions 23. Insoluble protein that forms fine threads in the blood needed to make a clot 24. Protein that is acted on to become thrombin 16. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 624 TOP: Blood Clotting (Coagulation)Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM N R I G B.C 17. ANS: H DIF: Memorization REF: p. 624 TOP: Blood Clotting (Coagulation) 18. ANS: TOP: B DIF: Memorization Blood Clotting (Coagulation) REF: p. 624 19. ANS: TOP: A DIF: Memorization Blood Clotting (Coagulation) REF: p. 624 20. ANS: TOP: G DIF: Memorization Blood Clotting (Coagulation) REF: p. 624 21. ANS: TOP: I DIF: Memorization Clot Dissolution REF: p. 625 22. ANS: TOP: D DIF: Memorization Blood Clotting (Coagulation) REF: p. 622 23. ANS: TOP: E DIF: Memorization Blood Clotting (Coagulation) REF: p. 624 24. ANS: TOP: F DIF: Memorization Blood Clotting (Coagulation) REF: p. 622 OTHER 1. Define hematocrit. How is it determined? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 610 TOP: Hematocrit 2. Considering only the blood antigens A, B, AB, and O, which blood type is considered the universal donor? Explain the pUhysiSoloN gicaTl basis oOf its being referred to as the universal donor. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 615 TOP: The ABO System 3. Considering only the blood antigens A, B, AB, and O, which blood type is considered the universal recipient? Explain the physiological basis of its being referred to as the universal recipient. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 615 TOP: The ABO System 4. What is the major ingredient constituting plasma? ANS: Water. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 608 TOP: Blood PlasmaAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 5. Diagram the three stages of blood coagulation. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: pp. 622-624 TOP: Blood Clotting (Coagulation) 6. Explain why a rough surface such as gauze, the application of heat, or gently squeezing the tissue may be helpful in clot formation. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: p. 625 TOP: Conditions That Hasten Clotting 7. Describe the factors that could result in a fetus contracting erythroblastosis fetalis. Be sure to consider both maternal and fetal conditions. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: pp. 617-618 TOP: The Rh System 8. Explain the negative feedback mechanism for the correction of low blood oxygen concentration. ANS: Answers will vary. NURSINGTB.COM DIF: Application REF: p. 613 TOP: Formation of Red Blood Cells 9. Name and give the function of the three blood-formed elements. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 611 | p. 620 TOP: Red Blood Cells (Erythrocytes), White Blood Cells (Leukocytes), Platelets 10. List the steps in the formation of a red blood cell. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 613 TOP: Formation of Red Blood Cells 11. Describe the shape of the red blood cell. How does this structure assist the cell in accomplishing its function? ANS: Answers will vary.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM DIF: Application REF: pp. 610-611 TOP: Red Blood Cells (Erythrocytes) 12. Explain the process by which the red blood cell assists in the transport of carbon dioxide in the blood. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 611 TOP: Function of Red Blood Cells 13. Describe the molecular structure of hemoglobin. What is hemoglobin called when it is united with oxygen? When it is united with carbon dioxide? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 611 TOP: Hemoglobin 14. What happens to the components of a red blood cell after it is broken down or fragments? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 613-614 TOP: Life Cycle of Red Blood Cells 15. Name and give the functionsNoUf eRac ShItyNpGeTofBg.raCnOulMocyte. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 618-619 TOP: Granulocytes 16. Name and give the functions of each type of agranulocyte. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 619 TOP: Agranulocytes 17. Describe the antigens and antibodies that would be found on the red blood cell and in the plasma for all four of the ABO blood groups. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 615 TOP: The ABO System 18. In general terms, explain the difference between the process of agglutination, when incompatible blood groups are mixed, and coagulation, the formation of a blood clot.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: p. 615 | p. 622 TOP: Blood Type (Blood Groups), Blood Clotting (Coagulation) 19. Explain the process by which a blood clot is dissolved. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 625 TOP: Clot Dissolution ESSAY 1. Mrs. Washington’s blood type is O positive. Her husband’s type is O negative. Her newborn baby’s blood type is O negative. Does this combination of blood types present any concerns related to future pregnancies Mrs. Washington may have? Explain your answer. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 617 TOP: The Rh System 2. After Martha’s baby was born, the physician applied a gauze dressing for a short time on the umbilical cord. She also gave the baby a dose of vitamin K. Why did the physician perform these two procedures? ANS: Answers will vary. NURSINGTB.COM DIF: Synthesis REF: pp. 622-624 TOP: Blood Clotting (Coagulation)Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM Chapter 28: Heart Patton: Anatomy and Physiology, 10th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The saclike structure around the heart is the: a. epicardium. b. myocardium. c. endocardium. d. pericardium. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 639 TOP: Coverings of the Heart 2. Which of the following is another name for the visceral layer of the pericardium? a. Endocardium b. Epicardium c. Fibrous pericardium d. Myocardium ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 639 TOP: Coverings of the Heart 3. The thickest layer of tissue in the heart wall is the: a. epicardium. b. pericardium. c. myocardium. d. endocardium. NURSINGTB.COM ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 640 TOP: Wall of the Heart 4. The muscular layer of the heart wall is the: a. epicardium. b. pericardium. c. myocardium. d. endocardium. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 640 TOP: Wall of the Heart 5. The internal layer of tissue in the heart is the: a. epicardium. b. pericardium. c. myocardium. d. endocardium. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 640 TOP: Wall of the Heart 6. The right atrioventricular valve is also called the:Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM a. bicuspid. b. tricuspid. c. mitral. d. aortic. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 642 TOP: Valves of the Heart 7. Which of the following is not an atrioventricular valve? a. Aortic b. Mitral c. Bicuspid d. Tricuspid ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 642 TOP: Valves of the Heart 8. The cavity of the heart that normally has the thickest wall is the: a. right atrium. b. left atrium. c. right ventricle. d. left ventricle. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 641 TOP: Chambers of the Heart 9. The valve that guards the left atrioventricular orifice is called the valve. a. bicuspid N R I G B.C M b. mitral U c. tricuspid d. Both A and B are correct. S N T O ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 642 TOP: Valves of the Heart 10. Which of the following is a semilunar valve? a. Aortic b. Mitral c. Tricuspid d. Bicuspid ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 643 TOP: Valves of the Heart 11. All of the following are true statements except: a. the right coronary artery is dominant in about 50% of all hearts. b. both atria receive their blood supply from branches of the right and left coronary arteries. c. the more abundant blood supply goes to the myocardium of the left ventricle rather than the right ventricle. d. only a few connections, or anastomoses, exist between the larger branches of the coronary arteries.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM ANS: B DIF: Application REF: pp. 644-645 TOP: Blood Supply of Heart Tissue 12. The structure referred to as the pacemaker of the heart is(are) the: a. AV node. b. SA node. c. cardiac plexuses. d. Both A and B are correct. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 646 TOP: Nerve Supply of the Heart 13. The structural components of the circulatory system include the: a. heart and lungs. b. heart and lymph nodes. c. heart and blood vessels. d. heart, vessels, and lymph nodes. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 634-635 TOP: Introduction 14. The correct order of the layers of the heart from deep to superficial is: a. myocardium, pericardium, and endocardium. b. epicardium, myocardium, and pericardium. c. epicardium, myocardium, and endocardium. d. endocardium, myocardium, and epicardium. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 640 TOP: Wall of the Heart NURSINGTB.COM 15. The pulmonary and aortic valves are also called _ valves. a. cuspid b. semilunar c. aortic d. pulmonary ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 641 TOP: Valves of the Heart 16. Respectively, the right and left atrioventricular valves are also known as: a. tricuspid, mitral. b. bicuspid, tricuspid. c. mitral, bicuspid. d. bicuspid, mitral. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 642 TOP: Valves of the Heart 17. Atrioventricular valves prevent backflow of blood into the: a. atria. b. lungs. c. vena cava. d. ventricles.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM U S N T O ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 642 TOP: Valves of the Heart 18. The ventricle of the heart that ejects blood toward the lungs is the: a. right atrium. b. right ventricle. c. left atrium. d. left ventricle. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 641 TOP: Structure of the Heart 19. Which of the following is a cuspid valve? a. Aortic b. Pulmonary c. Mitral d. Both A and B ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 642 TOP: Valves of the Heart 20. Chordae tendineae are associated with which structure? a. Aortic valve b. Mitral valve c. Tricuspid valve d. Both B and C ANS: D DIF: MNemoRrizaItionG B.C M TOP: Valves of the Heart 21. The pulmonary arteries carry blood to the: a. lungs. b. left atrium. c. right atrium. d. None of the above are correct. REF: p. 642 ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 643 TOP: Flow of Blood Through the Heart 22. The pulmonary arteries empty blood into the: a. right atrium. b. right ventricle. c. left atrium. d. left ventricle. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 643 TOP: Flow of Blood Through the Heart 23. Which of the following is not true of the myocardium? a. Cells are joined by intercalated disks. b. The muscle cells are autorhythmic. c. The muscle cells can quickly summate contractions to produce tetanus.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM d. It is made of electrically coupled functional units called syncytia. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 640 TOP: Wall of the Heart 24. Which of the following is not true of the atria? a. They have thinner myocardial walls than do ventricles. b. They are the same structure as the auricle. c. They are called receiving chambers of the heart. d. All of the above are true of the atria. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 640-641 TOP: Chambers of the Heart 25. Which of the following is not true of ventricles? a. They are the pumping chambers of the heart. b. The myocardium of the ventricles is thicker than that of the atria. c. The myocardium of the left ventricle is thicker than that of the right ventricle. d. All of the above are true of the ventricles. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 641 TOP: Chambers of the Heart 26. If damaged, which valve could allow blood to leak back into the left ventricle? a. Bicuspid b. Tricuspid c. Aortic semilunar d. Pulmonary semilunar NURSINGTB.COM ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 643 TOP: Valves of the Heart 27. If damaged, which valve could allow blood to leak back into the right atrium? a. Bicuspid b. Tricuspid c. Aortic semilunar d. Pulmonary semilunar ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 642 TOP: Valves of the Heart 28. Which of the following statements is not true about the nerve supply to the heart? a. The heart is autorhythmic. b. The heart receives both sympathetic and parasympathetic impulses. c. The vagus nerve serves as an inhibitory nerve. d. All of the above are true about the nerve supply to the heart. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 646 TOP: Nerve Supply of the Heart 29. The heart begins beating in the fetus at about what stage of development? a. Fourth month b. Second monthAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM N R I G c. After about 4 weeks d. After about 2 weeks ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 634 TOP: Introduction 30. Which of the following statements is not true of the location of the heart? a. It lies in the mediastinum. b. It lies to the right of the midline of the body. c. It lies behind the body of the sternum. d. All of the above are true about the location of the heart. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 635 TOP: Location of the Heart 31. Which of the following statements is not true of the heart? a. The heart of an adult is proportionally larger than the heart of an infant. b. The heart reaches its adult size between puberty and 25 years of age. c. The average weight of the heart is about 85 grams more in the male than in the female. d. The heart tends to take on the shape of the chest of the individual. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 635 TOP: Size and Shape of the Heart 32. Pericardial fluid can be found between the: a. myocardium and the epicardium. b. myocardium and the endocardium. B.C M c. pericardium and the ribs. U S N T O d. epicardium and the pericardium. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 639 TOP: Coverings of the Heart 33. Cuspid valves open into: a. the aorta. b. the pulmonary artery. c. the ventricles of the heart. d. both A and B. ANS: C DIF: Application REF: p. 641 TOP: Valves of the Heart 34. Semilunar valves open into: a. the aorta. b. the pulmonary artery. c. the ventricles of the heart. d. both A and B. ANS: D DIF: Application REF: p. 643 TOP: Valves of the Heart 35. Blood from the superior vena cava enters which part of the heart? a. Right atrium b. Right ventricleAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM c. Left atrium d. Left ventricle ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 643 TOP: Flow of Blood Through the Heart 36. If the chordae tendineae in the right side of the heart were damaged, it might cause blood to leak into the: a. pulmonary artery during heart contraction. b. right ventricle during heart contraction. c. right atrium during heart contraction. d. right ventricle during heart relaxation. ANS: C DIF: Application REF: p. 643 TOP: Atrioventricular Valves 37. What is the functional significance of large areas of cardiac muscle being electrically coupled to form a single functional syncytium? a. Because they form a syncytium, cardiac muscles can contract on their own. b. Because they form a syncytium, muscle cells can pass an action potential along a large area of the heart wall, stimulating contraction in each muscle fiber of the syncytium. c. Because they form a syncytium, muscle cells cannot summate contraction to produce tetanus, and thus do not fatigue. d. Because they form a syncytium, cardiac muscle cells can pass an action potential by way of internodal bundles contracting both atrial chambers. ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 640 TOP: Myocardium 38. The blood entering the aortaNhaUsRjuSstIleNftGwThBic.hCheOaMrt chamber? a. Right atrium b. Right ventricle c. Left atrium d. Left ventricle ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 643 TOP: Flow of Blood Through the Heart 39. What is the correct explanation for how cardiac tamponade can affect the heart? a. It causes a prolapsed mitral valve, one whose flaps extend back into the left atrium, causing incompetence (leaking) of the valve. b. It causes blood to not only eject forward into the aorta but also regurgitate back into the left ventricle because of a leaky aortic semilunar valve. c. It is a compression of the heart that impairs its pumping action and makes immediate pericardial drainage necessary. d. It is a delayed inflammatory response to streptococcal infection that results in stenosis or other deformities of the valves, chordae tendineae, or myocardium. ANS: C DIF: Application REF: pp. 653-654 TOP: Mechanisms of Disease 40. If the AV node were forced to assume pacemaker activity, the resulting pulse rate would be beats per minutes. a. 10 to 30Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM b. 20 to 40 c. 30 to 50 d. 40 to 60 ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 648 TOP: Conduction System of the Heart 41. The normal pattern of impulse conduction through the heart is: a. AV node, SA node, bundle of His, and Purkinje fibers. b. AV node, SA node, Purkinje fibers, and bundle of His. c. SA node, AV node, Purkinje fibers, and bundle of His. d. SA node, AV node, bundle of His, and Purkinje fibers. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 648 TOP: Conduction System of the Heart 42. Which of the following most accurately describes what is measured by an electrocardiogram? a. Electrical conductivity b. Number of contractions per minute c. The speed and strength of contractions d. Any abnormal functioning ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 648 TOP: Electrocardiogram (ECG) 43. Which of the following would not cause an ectopic beat? a. Bundle of His b. Purkinje fibers c. SA node d. AV node NURSINGTB.COM ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 648 TOP: Conduction System of the Heart 44. The QRS complex represents: a. depolarization of the atria. b. repolarization of the atria and depolarization of the ventricles. c. depolarization of both the atria and ventricles. d. repolarization of the ventricles. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 649-650 TOP: ECG Waves 45. Heart sounds are made by the valves. a. closing of the AV b. closing of the semilunar c. movement of blood through the d. Both A and B are correct. ANS: A DIF: Application REF: p. 653 TOP: Heart Sounds 46. A cause of a heart murmur may be: a. incomplete closing of a valve.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM N b. incomplete contraction of the atria. c. narrowing of a valve (stenosis). d. both A and C. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 653 TOP: Heart Sounds 47. Hypokalemia can cause an increase in the size of which of the following? a. P wave b. QRS complex c. T wave d. U wave ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 650 TOP: Electrocardiogram (ECG) 48. The first heart sound heard, or the “lub” sound, is caused by the and the valves closing. a. ventricles contracting; AV b. atria contracting; SL c. atria contracting; SA d. ventricles relaxing; AV ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 653 TOP: Heart Sounds 49. On an ECG, the T wave represents: a. depolarization of the atria. R I G B.C M b. repolarization of the atria. U S N T O c. depolarization of the ventricles. d. repolarization of the ventricles. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 650 TOP: ECG Waves 50. Depolarization of the ventricles is: a. clearly depicted by the QRS complex. b. masked by the massive ventricular depolarization. c. masked by the massive ventricular repolarization. d. none of the above. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 649 TOP: ECG Waves 51. Which part of the QRS complex represents the repolarization of the atria? a. Q wave b. R wave c. S wave d. None of the above ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 649-650 TOP: Electrocardiogram (ECG)Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 52. Which of the following is true of the conduction system of the heart? a. It is made of cardiac muscle. b. It is made of nervous tissue. c. It continues its contractile roll even while conducting an impulse. d. Both A and C are true of the conduction system of the heart. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 647-648 TOP: Conduction System of the Heart 53. Which part of the conduction system of the heart is referred to as the pacemaker? a. Purkinje fibers b. Sinoatrial node c. Atrioventricular node d. Atrioventricular bundles ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 648 TOP: Conduction System of the Heart 54. The period between the closure of the semilunar valve and the opening of the atrioventricular valves is called: a. atrial systole. b. isovolumetric ventricular contraction. c. isovolumetric ventricular relaxation. d. passive ventricular filling. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 651 TOP: Cardiac Cycle 55. The period between the fillinNgUofRtSheIvNenGtrTicBle.sCanOdMthe opening of the semilunar valves is called: a. atrial systole. b. isovolumetric ventricular contraction. c. isovolumetric ventricular relaxation. d. passive ventricular filling. ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 651 TOP: Cardiac Cycle 56. The period during which blood is pumped out of the atria and into the ventricles is called: a. atrial systole. b. isovolumetric ventricular contraction. c. isovolumetric ventricular relaxation. d. passive ventricular filling. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 651 TOP: Cardiac Cycle 57. Atrial systole causes blood to: a. leave the heart. b. move through the semilunar valves. c. move through the cuspid valves. d. do both A and B. ANS: C DIF: Application REF: p. 651 TOP: Atrial SystoleAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 58. Which of the following are considered great vessels of the heart? a. Aorta b. Pulmonary trunk c. Superior and inferior vena cavae d. All of the above are great vessels of the heart ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 640 TOP: Vessels of the Heart 59. How would relocating a vein for the purpose of bypassing a partial blockage in the coronary arteries support a better functioning heart? a. It would reduce the infection near the heart. b. It would reduce the size of an enlarged heart by removing venous blood from the damaged area, thus making the heart a better pump. c. It would increase the cardiac contraction ability of the heart muscle by removing venous blood from the damaged area. d. It would construct detours around blocked coronary arteries and return oxygen-rich blood flow to the coronary arteries. ANS: D DIF: Application REF: p. 644 TOP: Blood Supply of Heart Tissue TRUE/FALSE 1. The internal layer of the tissue in the heart is the epicardium. ANS: F DIF: MNemUoRriSzaItioNnGTB.COM TOP: Wall of the Heart REF: p. 640 2. The heart of the developing human embryo begins to beat regularly early in the fourth week after fertilization. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 634 TOP: Introduction 3. A major function of the pericardial sac is protection against friction. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 639 TOP: Coverings of the Heart 4. The mitral valve has three flaps. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 642 TOP: Valves of the Heart 5. Anastomoses are important for providing collateral circulation. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 645 TOP: Blood Supply of Heart Tissue 6. The value of an anastomosis is that it allows blood to bypass a blood vessel obstruction.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 645 TOP: Blood Supply of Heart Tissue 7. Cardiac tamponade is a serious compression of the heart. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 653-654 TOP: Mechanisms of Disease 8. The visceral pericardium adheres to the surface of the heart. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 639 TOP: Coverings of the Heart 9. The pacemaker of the heart is the SA node. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 646 TOP: Nerve Supply of the Heart 10. The “receiving chambers” of the heart are the atria. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 640 TOP: Chambers of the Heart 11. COPD refers to death of ischemic heart muscle cells. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 645 TOP: Mechanisms of Disease N URSINGTB.COM 12. The SA node resides primarily in the right atrial wall. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 646 TOP: Nerve Supply of the Heart 13. Angina pectoris and myocardial infarction are synonymous terms. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 654 TOP: Mechanisms of Disease 14. If today is your twenty-third birthday, your heart has been beating for more than 23 years. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 634 TOP: Introduction 15. The midline of the body divides the heart into equal right and left halves. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 635 TOP: Location of the Heart 16. Because the heart is positioned between two bony structures, CPR can be an effective, lifesaving procedure. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 635 TOP: Location of the HeartAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 17. The base of the heart is superior to the apex of the heart. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 635 TOP: Location of the Heart 18. As a person grows to adulthood, the heart increases in size and becomes a greater percentage of the body weight. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 635 TOP: Size and Shape of the Heart 19. The pericardium is able to stretch in response to the contraction and relaxation of the heart. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 639 TOP: Structure of the Heart Covering 20. Epicardium and fibrous pericardium are two names for the same structure. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 639 TOP: Structure of the Heart Covering 21. The bulk of the heart wall is myocardium. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 640 TOP: Wall of the Heart 22. The mitral valve has fewer flaps than the right atrioventricular valve. ANS: T DIF: AN pplicRatioIn GREBF:.pp.C 6M42-643 TOP: Valves of the Heart U S N T O 23. The general function of both sets of valves in the heart is to prevent blood from flowing back to the chamber it just left. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: pp. 642-643 TOP: Valves of the Heart 24. The veins in the heart are called cardiac, but the arteries in the heart are called coronary. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 644-646 TOP: Blood Supply of Heart Tissue 25. The heart is autorhythmic, which means it can generate its own action potential without outside nerve stimulation. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 646 TOP: Nerve Supply of the Heart 26. The cardiac plexus contains both parasympathetic fibers and sympathetic fibers. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 646 TOP: Nerve Supply of the Heart 27. When fibers of the vagus nerve stimulate the heart, the heart rate increases.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 646 TOP: Nerve Supply of the Heart 28. The left pump helps to move blood through the systemic circulation. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 647 TOP: The Heart as a Pump 29. The terms atria and auricle mean the same thing. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 640-641 TOP: Chambers of the Heart 30. Blood passing through a semilunar valve will enter an artery. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 643 TOP: Valves of the Heart 31. Blood passing through a semilunar valve will enter a heart chamber. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 643 TOP: Valves of the Heart 32. Chordae tendineae are cordlike structures that connect semilunar valves to papillary muscles. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 642 TOP: Valves of the Heart 33. One function of the skeleton of the heart is to assist in the conduction of an impulse from the atria to the ventricles. ANS: F DIF: M NRUemori SzaItioNnGTB.COM TOP: Skeleton of the Heart REF: p. 643 34. Atria receive blood from veins, and ventricles pump blood into arteries. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 640-641 TOP: Chambers of the Heart 35. The right and left coronary arteries are about equally dominant in hearts: 50% of hearts are right artery dominant and 50% of hearts are left artery dominant. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 645 TOP: Coronary Arteries 36. A drop in blood oxygen levels will stimulate an increase in the heart rate. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 646 TOP: Nerve Supply of the Heart 37. As you might expect, most of the nerves leading to the heart end in the sinoatrial node. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 646 TOP: Nerve Supply of the HeartAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM U S N T O 38. The epicardium and the visceral layer of the serous pericardium are the same structure. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 640 TOP: Epicardium 39. Because the muscle tissue of the heart forms a syncytium, electrical conduction through the heart is more efficient. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 640 TOP: Myocardium 40. To support maximum muscle contraction of the heart muscle, the blood flow to the heart is highest during the strongest contractions. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 644 TOP: Coronary Arteries 41. Endothelial cells are the only structures found in all parts of the circulatory system. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 640 TOP: Endocardium 42. The cardiovascular system is sometimes called the circulatory system. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 634 TOP: Introduction 43. The cardiovascular system consists of the heart and blood vessels. ANS: T DIF: MNemoRrizaItionG B.C M TOP: Introduction 44. The base of the heart lies on the diaphragm. REF: pp. 634-635 ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 635 TOP: Location of the Heart 45. The lower part of the heart forms a blunt point known as the base. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 635 TOP: Location of the Heart 46. The skeleton of the heart is made of cartilage rather than bone. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 643 TOP: Skeleton of the Heart 47. The trabeculae carneae are structures of the heart that help add force to the contraction of the heart. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 640 TOP: Endocardium 48. Ventricles are the pumping chambers of the heart.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM N R I ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 641 TOP: Chambers of the Heart 49. The right ventricle has the thickest wall of any of the heart chambers. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 641 TOP: Chambers of the Heart 50. Blood passing through the mitral valve has just left the right atrium. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 643 TOP: Blood Flow Through the Heart 51. Blood passing through the aortic semilunar valves has just left the left ventricle. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 643 TOP: Blood Flow Through the Heart 52. Blood leaving the right ventricle passes through the right atrioventricular valve. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 643 TOP: Flow of Blood Through the Heart 53. Blood in the left atria has just come from the lungs. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 643 TOP: Flow of Blood Through the Heart G B.C M U S N T O 54. Blood in both atria must pass through a semilunar valve to get to the next structure in the heart. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 643 TOP: Flow of Blood Through the Heart 55. The most abundant blood supply in the heart goes to the left ventricle. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 644 TOP: Coronary Arteries 56. Most of the blood vessels of the heart return to the heart via the coronary sinus. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 645-646 TOP: Cardiac Veins 57. Premature contractions, or extra systoles, often occur with lack of sleep, too much caffeine or nicotine, alcoholism, or heart damage. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 655 TOP: Mechanisms of Disease 58. Diastasis is associated with the rapid filling of the ventricles.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 656 NURSINGTB.COM TOP: Passive Ventricular Filling 59. Valvular insufficiency can cause heart murmurs. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 653 TOP: Heart Sounds 60. Residual volume refers to the blood that remains in the ventricle after the ejection period. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 651 TOP: Ejection 61. A heart murmur is one type of abnormal sound. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 653 TOP: Heart Sounds 62. Tachycardia is normal during sleep and in conditioned athletes while they are awake (but at rest). ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 655 TOP: Mechanisms of the Heart 63. The conduction system of the heart is composed of specialized motor neurons that are embedded in the heart muscle. ANS: F DIF: M NRUemori SzaItioNnGTB.COM TOP: Conduction System of the Heart REF: p. 647 64. The normal rhythm of the heart is set by the ectopic pacemaker. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 648 TOP: Conduction System of the Heart 65. A larger than normal U wave could indicate a high level of potassium in the blood. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 650 TOP: Electrocardiogram (ECG) 66. Because the ECG is not a direct measure of contraction, an ECG deflection could be recorded without the actual contraction of the heart muscle occurring. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 649 TOP: Electrocardiogram (ECG) 67. In electrocardiography, only the contraction of the cardiac muscle causes a deflection. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 649 TOP: Electrocardiogram (ECG) 68. A U wave on an ECG is an indication of damage to ventricular myocardial cells.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM N R I G ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 650 TOP: Electrocardiogram (ECG) 69. The P wave is named as such because it measures a positive deflection in the ECG. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 649 TOP: Electrocardiogram (ECG) 70. In an ECG both the deflections themselves and the interval between deflections can provide information about the electrical conduction through the heart. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 649 TOP: Electrocardiogram (ECG) 71. During the normal cardiac cycle, there is never a time when both the atria and ventricles are relaxed. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 650 TOP: Cardiac Cycle 72. Heart sounds are made by the closing of AV and semilunar valves. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 653 TOP: Heart Sounds 73. The AV node of the heart is known as the pacemaker. ANS: F DIF: Memorization B.C M REF: p. 648 TOP: Conduction System of theUHeaSrt N T O 74. As the action potential enters the AV node by way of the internodal bundles, the speed of the conduction increases to stimulate ventricular contraction. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 648 TOP: Conduction System of the Heart 75. During a normal ECG, the tracing should never go below the zero mark of the graph. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 649 TOP: Electrocardiogram (ECG) 76. The last wave in an ECG terminates the cardiac cycle; because of this, it is called the T wave. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 650 TOP: Electrocardiogram (ECG) 77. The repolarization of the atrium cannot be seen on the ECG because the size of the QRS complex blocks it out. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 650 TOP: Electrocardiogram (ECG)Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 78. During isovolumetric ventricular relaxation, both the semilunar valves and the AV valves are closed. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 651 TOP: Isovolumetric Ventricular Relaxation 79. Passive ventricular filling occurs immediately after isovolumetric ventricular contraction. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 652 TOP: Cardiac Cycle 80. The Purkinje fibers actually stimulate the ventricles to contract. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 648 TOP: Conduction System of the Heart 81. The interaterial bundles divide into right and left bundle branches. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 648 TOP: Conduction System of the Heart 82. The sinoatrial node is in the right atrium, where the superior vena cava attaches. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 648 TOP: Conduction System of the Heart 83. In both the atria and ventricles, the first cells to depolarize are also the first cells to repolarize. ANS: F DIF: M NRUemori SzaItioNnGTB.COM TOP: Electrocardiogram (ECG) 84. The contraction of the heart is referred to as systole. REF: p. 650 ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 650 TOP: Cardiac Cycle 85. The cardiac cycle is one complete heartbeat. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 650 TOP: Cardiac Cycle 86. During atrial systole the AV valves are closed. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 651 TOP: Cardiac Cycle 87. During isovolumetric ventricular contraction, the semilunar valves are closed but the AV valves are open. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 651 TOP: Cardiac CycleAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 88. Diastasis is a term used to describe a longer period of slow ventricular filling as ventricular diastole ends. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 652 TOP: Cardiac Cycle 89. Pacemaker cells in the heart possess intrinsic rhythm. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 648 TOP: Conduction System of the Heart 90. Under resting conditions, the SA node fires at an intrinsic rhythmical rate of 80 to 85 beats per minute. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 648 TOP: Conduction System of the Heart 91. The terms AV bundles and Purkinje fibers refer to the same structures. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 648 TOP: Conduction System of the Heart 92. The terms subendocardial fibers and Purkinje fibers refer to the same structures. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 648 TOP: Conduction System of the Heart 93. The contraction phase of theNc ardiRU accyclerefeIGB.SNT rs C toMO diastole. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 650 TOP: Cardiac Cycle 94. Tachycardia refers to a heart rate of more than 100 beats per minute. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 655 TOP: Mechanisms of Disease 95. The term ischemia refers to abnormal heart sounds. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 654 TOP: Mechanisms of Disease 96. Congestive heart failure causes fluid to accumulate in the lung due to the inability of the right side of the heart to generate a forceful contraction. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 657 TOP: Mechanisms of Disease 97. A third heart sound (S3), producing a “lubb-dupp-up” pattern, may be produced by a sudden myocardial stretching during rapid ventricular filling. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 653Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM U S N T O TOP: Heart Sounds MATCHING Match each term related to heart circulation with its corresponding location or description. a. Right ventricle b. Right atrium c. Left atrium d. Left ventricle e. Right atrioventricular valve f. Left atrioventricular valve g. Aortic semilunar valve h. Pulmonary semilunar valve i. Superior vena cava j. Aorta k. Pulmonary vein l. Pulmonary artery 1. Heart chamber that receives blood from the pulmonary vein 2. Heart chamber that pushes blood through the right atrioventricular valve when it contracts 3. Valve through which the left ventricle pumps blood 4. Blood vessel that empties into the right atrium 5. Blood vessel into which the right ventricle pumps blood through a semilunar valve 6. Blood vessel that carries blood from the lungs to the heart 7. Blood vessel into which the left ventricle pumps blood through a semilunar valve 8. Valve that opens into the leftNvenRtricIle G B.C M 9. Valve through which the right ventricle pumps blood 10. Heart chamber that pumps blood through the aortic semilunar valve 11. Valve that opens into the right ventricle 12. Heart chamber that receives blood that has just passed through the right atrioventricular valve 1. ANS: TOP: C Blood Flow DIF: Memorization Through the Heart REF: p. 643 2. ANS: TOP: B Blood Flow DIF: Memorization Through the Heart REF: p. 643 3. ANS: TOP: G Blood Flow DIF: Memorization Through the Heart REF: p. 643 4. ANS: TOP: I Blood Flow DIF: Memorization Through the Heart REF: p. 643 5. ANS: TOP: L Blood Flow DIF: Memorization Through the Heart REF: p. 643 6. ANS: TOP: K Blood Flow DIF: Memorization Through the Heart REF: p. 643 7. ANS: TOP: J Blood Flow DIF: Memorization Through the Heart REF: p. 643 8. ANS: TOP: F Blood Flow DIF: Memorization Through the Heart REF: p. 643 9. ANS: TOP: H Blood Flow DIF: Memorization Through the Heart REF: p. 643Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM G B.C M 10. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 643 TOP: Blood Flow Through the Heart 11. ANS: E DIF: Memorization REF: p. 643 TOP: Blood Flow Through the Heart 12. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 643 TOP: Blood Flow Through the Heart Match each part of the conduction system of the heart to the description of its location or function. a. Interatrial bundles b. Atrioventricular node c. Sinoatrial node d. Purkinje fibers e. Bundles of His f. Internodal bundles 13. Structure that is located below the atrial epicardium at its junction with the superior vena cava 14. Branches that are at the terminal ends of the bundles of His 15. Bundle that facilitates the rapid conduction to the left atrium 16. Structure through which conduction moves most slowly 17. Bundles that carry impulses to the atrioventricular node 18. Bundles that come from the atrioventricular node 13. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 648 TOP: Conduction System of the Heart 14. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 648 TOP: Conduction System of thNe HReartI 15. ANS: A DIF: MemUoriSzatioNn T O TOP: Conduction System of the Heart REF: p. 648 16. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 648 TOP: Conduction System of the Heart 17. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 648 TOP: Conduction System of the Heart 18. ANS: E DIF: Memorization REF: p. 648 TOP: Conduction System of the Heart Match each ECG wave or complex with the corresponding action in the cardiac cycle. a. QRS complex b. P wave c. T wave d. U wave 19. Late repolarization of the Purkinje fibers, larger with hypokalemia 20. Ventricular depolarization 21. Atrial depolarization 22. Ventricular repolarization 19. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 650 TOP: Electrocardiogram (ECG) 20. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 649 TOP: Electrocardiogram (ECG)Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 21. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 649 TOP: Electrocardiogram (ECG) 22. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 650 TOP: Electrocardiogram (ECG) OTHER 1. Describe the anatomic positioning of the heart. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: p. 635 TOP: Location of the Heart 2. Which chamber of the heart normally has the thickest wall? Why is this thick wall helpful in accomplishing its function? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: pp. 640-641 TOP: Structure of the Heart 3. Select one heart valve. Give its name, location, and function. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: ppN. 6U4R1-S64I3NGTTOBP:.C VaOlvMes of the Heart 4. Trace a drop of blood from the right atrium to the aorta. List the specific chambers, valves, blood vessels, and lungs in proper sequence. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 643 TOP: Flow of Blood Through the Heart 5. Define cardiac tamponade and explain how it can affect the heart. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: pp. 653-654 TOP: Mechanisms of Disease 6. Name, describe, and give the function of the heart coverings. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 639 TOP: Coverings of the HeartAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM U S N REF: T p.O647 7. Name and describe the three layers of the heart wall. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 640 TOP: Wall of the Heart 8. What is the skeleton of the heart? What is its function and what is its impact on the conduction of an electrical impulse through the heart? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 643 TOP: Skeleton of the Heart 9. Describe the passage of a normal impulse through the conduction systems of the heart. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 647-648 TOP: Conduction System of the Heart 10. What part of the heart should serve as the normal pacemaker? ANS: Answers will vary. N R I G B.C M DIF: Memorization TOP: Conduction System of the Heart 11. As compared with the body’s own heart pacemaker, what is the major disadvantage of a mechanical pacemaker? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 648 TOP: Artificial Cardiac Pacemakers 12. Draw a normal ECG. Identify the physiological activity within the heart during each ECG deflection and interval. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: pp. 648-649 TOP: Electrocardiogram (ECG) 13. Explain why a transplanted heart would beat even if the nerves to the heart were not reconnected. ANS:Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: pp. 646-647 TOP: Conduction System of the Heart 14. Explain what occurs during atrial systole, isovolumetric ventricular contraction, and isovolumetric ventricular relaxation. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 650-651 TOP: Cardiac Cycle ESSAY 1. Martha, a 63-year-old heavyset woman, was brought to the emergency room with chest pain and severe anxiety. After running some blood work, medical personnel noted that her cardiac enzyme levels were elevated. Why would this test be useful in diagnosing Martha’s condition, and what is her condition? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 640 TOP: Cardiac Marker Studies NURSINGTB.COMAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM Chapter 29: Blood Vessels Patton: Anatomy and Physiology, 10th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following vessels do not have the ability to constrict and dilate? a. Arterioles b. Arteries c. Capillaries d. Veins ANS: C DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 667 TOP: Structure of Blood Vessels 2. Both the tunica media and the tunica adventitia are absent in: a. arteries. b. veins. c. capillaries. d. both B and C. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 668 TOP: Structure of Blood Vessels 3. The tissue layers of blood vessels from exterior to interior are: a. tunica media, tunica intima, and tunica adventitia. b. tunica adventitia, tunica media, and tunica intima. c. tunica intima, tunica media, and tunica adventitia. d. tunica media, tunica adveNnU titRiaS, aInN d G tuTniBca.inCtO imMa. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 668 TOP: Structure of Blood Vessels 4. Smooth muscle in blood vessels is located in the tunica: a. adventitia. b. intima. c. media. d. All of the above are correct. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 668 TOP: Structure of Blood Vessels 5. Which of the following act as blood reservoirs? a. Arteries b. Arterioles c. Capillaries d. Veins ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 667 TOP: Veins 6. The structural components of the circulatory system include the: a. heart and lungs.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM N R I G B.C b. heart and lymph nodes. c. heart and blood vessels. d. heart, vessels, and lymph nodes. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 663 TOP: Introduction 7. In fetal circulation, the ductus arteriosus and foramen ovale: a. take blood from the fetus to the placenta. b. connect the pulmonary artery with the aorta. c. bypass the lungs. d. shunt blood from the right atrium into the left atrium. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 688 TOP: Fetal Circulation 8. After birth the umbilical vessels remaining in the infant’s body: a. become fibrous cords that remain throughout life. b. are shed in about 6 weeks. c. shrink to eventually become capillaries. d. remain as possible shunts for use later in life. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 689 TOP: Fetal Circulation 9. The order of blood flow through the vessels is: a. arterioles, venules, capillaries, arteries, and veins. b. arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, and veins. c. veins, venules, capillaries,UarteSrioleNs, aTnd arterOies. d. arterioles, arteries, capillaries, veins, and venules. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 664-667 TOP: Major Blood Vessels 10. Which of the following vessels carries blood from the lungs to the heart? a. Aorta b. Pulmonary artery c. Pulmonary vein d. Inferior vena cava ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 667 TOP: Major Blood Vessels 11. All arteries of the systemic circulation branch from the: a. superior vena cava. b. pulmonary artery. c. innominate artery. d. aorta. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 668 TOP: Systemic Circulation 12. As the external iliac artery enters the thigh, its name changes to the artery.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM a. subclavian b. brachial c. femoral d. popliteal ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 671 TOP: Systemic Arteries 13. A vein that returns blood from the head is the: a. carotid. b. innominate. c. azygos. d. jugular. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 682 TOP: Systemic Veins 14. Which of the following is a superficial vein in the lower arm? a. Great saphenous b. Cephalic c. Brachial d. Axillary ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 680 TOP: Systemic Veins 15. Blood from the stomach and intestines goes to the liver through the: a. hepatic portal vein. b. hepatic vein. c. renal vein. d. inferior vena cava. NURSINGTB.COM ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 683 TOP: Systemic Veins 16. Regarding fetal circulation, the small vessel connecting the pulmonary artery with the descending thoracic aorta is called the: a. ductus arteriosus. b. foramen ovale. c. ductus venosus. d. umbilical artery. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 688 TOP: Fetal Circulation 17. In fetal circulation, the ductus venosus: a. takes blood from the fetus to the placenta. b. connects the pulmonary artery with the aorta. c. bypasses the liver. d. shunts blood from the right atrium into the left atrium. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 688 TOP: Fetal CirculationAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 18. Atherosclerosis is characterized by the deposition of lipids in the tunica: a. intima. b. adventitia. c. media. d. All of the above are correct. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 691 TOP: Mechanisms of Disease 19. Which of the following is a stretching of the artery walls? a. Varicose veins b. Anastomosis c. Phlebitis d. Aneurysm ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 691 TOP: Mechanisms of Disease 20. The pulmonary arteries carry blood to the: a. lungs. b. left atrium. c. right atrium. d. None of the above are correct. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 669 TOP: Circulatory Routes 21. Which statement is true of arNteUrieRsS? INGTB.COM a. They always carry oxygenated blood. b. They always carry blood away from the heart. c. They are the capacitance vessels of the body. d. Both A and B are true of arteries. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 664 TOP: Types of Blood Vessels 22. Which statement is true of veins? a. They always carry nonoxygenated blood. b. They can be either muscular or elastic. c. They always carry blood back to the heart. d. All of the above are true of veins. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 667 TOP: Types of Blood Vessels 23. The most important blood vessels in the cardiovascular system are the: a. capillaries. b. arteries. c. veins. d. arterioles. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 665Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM TOP: Capillaries 24. The blood vessel connecting the two capillary beds in the hepatic portal system is called a(n): a. artery, because it is carrying blood to a capillary bed. b. arteriole, because it has a precapillary sphincter muscle. c. vein, because it is draining blood from a capillary bed. d. portal vessel, because it is not easily classified as an artery or vein. ANS: C DIF: Application REF: p. 683 TOP: Systemic Veins 25. Which of these blood vessels are called resistance vessels? a. Venules b. Muscular arteries c. Arterioles d. Metarterioles ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 664 TOP: Arteries 26. Which of these blood vessels contain precapillary sphincters? a. Venules b. Muscular arteries c. Arterioles d. Metarterioles ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 664 TOP: Arteries 27. After birth the ductus venosuNsUclRosSesIaNndG:TB.COM a. allows blood to flow to the lungs. b. allows blood to flow to the liver. c. prevents blood from moving from the right to the left atrium. d. stops blood flow to the placenta. ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 688 TOP: Fetal Circulation 28. Christopher, a 2-month-old infant, has a bluish tinge to his skin. Upon listening to the infant’s chest, the physician became concerned about a leakage of blood between the right and left atria. What might have caused this problem and what is the treatment? a. The ductus venosus may not have closed at birth, and immediate surgical repair may be needed. b. The ductus arteriosus may not have closed at birth, and immediate surgical repair may be needed. c. The foramen ovale may not be closed, causing backflow of blood into the lungs. The physician will reexamine the infant frequently because the foramen ovale may take as long as 9 months to heal. d. The foramen ovale may be closed, causing backflow of blood into the lungs. The physician will reexamine the infant frequently because the foramen ovale may take as long as 9 months to open. ANS: C DIF: Application REF: p. 689 TOP: Changes in Circulation at BirthAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM TRUE/FALSE 1. The tunica media is also called the tunica adventitia. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 668 TOP: Layers of the Blood Vessel Wall 2. Arteries always carry blood away from the heart. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 664 TOP: Types of Blood Vessels 3. The tunica intima of arteries provides a smooth lining with valves to ensure one-way flow. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 668 TOP: Layers of the Blood Vessel Wall 4. Veins always carry deoxygenated blood. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 667 TOP: Types of Blood Vessels 5. As the external iliac artery enters the thigh, its name changes to the femoral artery. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 671 TOP: Systemic Arteries NURSINGTB.COM 6. Precapillary sphincters increase the flow of blood through a tissue when they relax. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 664 TOP: Arteries 7. Precapillary sphincters are located in venules. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 664 TOP: Arteries 8. Pulmonary circulation is blood flow through the liver. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 669 TOP: Circulatory Routes 9. Systemic circulation includes blood flow to all parts of the body except the lungs. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 669 TOP: Circulatory Routes 10. The pulmonary artery carries oxygenated blood. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 668 TOP: Circulatory RoutesAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 11. The circle of Willis is an example of an anastomosis. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 673 TOP: Systemic Arteries 12. The ductus arteriosus allows fetal blood to bypass the nonfunctioning fetal liver. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 688 TOP: Fetal Circulation 13. Umbilical arteries carry blood from the placenta to the fetus. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 686 TOP: Fetal Circulation 14. There are two umbilical arteries and one umbilical vein. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 686 | p. 688 TOP: Fetal Circulation 15. A stenotic valve is a leaky valve. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 691 TOP: Mechanisms of Disease 16. One function of elastic fibers is to help maintain blood pressure. ANS: T DIF: MNemUoRriSzaItioNnGTB.COM TOP: Elastic Fibers 17. Arteriosclerosis means “chest pain.” REF: p. 667 ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 690 TOP: Mechanisms of Disease 18. Blood flow from the pulmonary arteries leads to the lungs. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 669 TOP: Circulatory Routes 19. The descending aorta is composed of the thoracic and abdominal aortas. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 671 TOP: Systemic Arteries 20. Smooth muscle is found in all parts of the vascular system except the capillaries. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 667 TOP: Structure of Blood Vessels 21. The tunica media in veins is thinner than the tunica media in arteries.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 668 TOP: Structure of Blood Vessels 22. Very large arteries are called sinuses. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 679 TOP: Types of Blood Vessels 23. The blood vessels that supply other blood vessels with blood are called the vasa vasorum. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 668 TOP: Structure of Blood Vessels 24. Microcirculation includes only the blood flowing through the capillaries. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 664 TOP: Capillaries 25. Capacitance is a characteristic of veins. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 667 TOP: Veins 26. All blood returns to the heart by way of either the superior vena cava or the inferior vena cava. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: pp. 668-669 TOP: Circulatory Routes 27. The first part of the aorta is cNalleRd thIe aoGrticBa.rcCh. M U S N T O ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 673 TOP: Systemic Arteries 28. Veins tend to have more anastomoses than do arteries. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 679 TOP: Systemic Veins 29. A portal system sends blood through two sets of capillaries. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 669 TOP: Systemic Veins 30. It is easier for material to pass through a continuous capillary than through a fenestrated capillary. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 666 TOP: Capillaries 31. Continuous, fenestrated, and sinusoid are all terms that can describe a type of capillary. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 665-666 TOP: CapillariesAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 32. The foramen ovale is a hole in the wall between the right and left ventricles in the fetus heart that facilitates blood being shunted away to avoid the nonfunctioning lungs. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 688 TOP: Fetal Circulation 33. Both the ductus venosus and ductus arteriosus are adaptations of the fetal circulatory system designed to shunt blood away from the nonfunctioning lungs. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 688 TOP: Fetal Circulation 34. Arteriovenous shunts can redirect blood through the skin to help regulate heat loss. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 669 TOP: Circulatory Routes 35. The aorta is an example of a muscular artery. ANS: F DIF: Memorization TOP: Arteries REF: p. 664 36. All veins carry blood back to the heart. ANS: T DIF: Memorization TOP: Veins REF: p. 667 37. Collagen fibers function to kNee UpRthSeIluNmGenToBf.thCeOblMood vessel open. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 667 TOP: Collagen Fibers MATCHING Match each artery to its correct anatomical location. a. Axillary b. Carotid c. Coronary d. Femoral e. Gastric f. Hepatic g. Radial h. Renal i. Suprarenal j. Tibial 1. Upper leg 2. Lower leg 3. Kidney 4. Liver 5. HeartAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 6. Forearm 7. Stomach 8. Upper arm 9. Brain 10. Adrenal gland 1. ANS: TOP: D Systemic DIF: Arteries Memorization REF: p. 671 2. ANS: TOP: J Systemic DIF: Arteries Memorization REF: p. 671 3. ANS: TOP: H Systemic DIF: Arteries Memorization REF: p. 671 4. ANS: TOP: F Systemic DIF: Arteries Memorization REF: p. 671 5. ANS: TOP: C Systemic DIF: Arteries Memorization REF: p. 671 6. ANS: TOP: G Systemic DIF: Arteries Memorization REF: p. 671 7. ANS: TOP: E Systemic DIF: Arteries Memorization REF: p. 671 8. ANS: TOP: A Systemic DIF: Arteries Memorization REF: p. 671 9. ANS: TOP: B Systemic DIF: Arteries Memorization REF: p. 671 10. ANS: TOP: I Systemic DIF: Arteries Memorization REF: p. 671 Match each term with its cor NRUrespo SndIinNgGdTesBcr.ipCtiOonM. a. Arteries b. Capillaries c. Pulmonary circulation d. Systemic circulation e. Tunica adventitia f. Tunica intima g. Tunica media h. Veins 11. Blood flow from the heart to the body (not the lungs) and back to the heart 12. Vessels that carry blood away from the heart 13. Vessel in which exchange occurs between the blood and tissue fluid 14. Innermost layer of a blood vessel, consisting of endothelium 15. Middle layer of blood vessel, containing smooth muscle 16. Outer connective tissue layer of a blood vessel 17. Vessels that carry blood toward the heart 18. Blood flow from the heart to the lungs and back to the heart 11. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 668 TOP: Circulatory Routes 12. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 664 TOP: Types of Blood VesselsAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 13. ANS: TOP: B Capillaries DIF: Memorization REF: p. 664 14. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 668 TOP: Structure of Blood Vessels 15. ANS: TOP: G DIF: Memorization Structure of Blood Vessels REF: p. 668 16. ANS: TOP: E DIF: Memorization Structure of Blood Vessels REF: p. 668 17. ANS: TOP: H DIF: Memorization Types of Blood Vessels REF: p. 667 18. ANS: TOP: C DIF: Memorization Circulatory Routes REF: p. 669 SHORT ANSWER 1. What function does the foramen ovale serve in fetal circulation? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 688 TOP: Fetal Circulation 2. Describe the anatomy of the circle of Willis. Why is this an advantageous anatomical configuration? ANS: Answers will vary. N URSINGTB.COM DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 673 TOP: Systemic Arteries 3. Describe the fetal circulation. Also, describe the changes in circulation at birth. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: pp. 686-688 TOP: Fetal Circulation 4. Name and describe the types of arteries from largest to smallest. What is the function of each? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 664 TOP: Arteries 5. Describe the various types of capillaries and the differences in the structure of their walls. Explain why capillaries are the most important of all the blood vessels. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: pp. 664-667 TOP: CapillariesAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 6. Describe the structure and function of a vein. Explain the term capacitance vessel. What is a venous sinus? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 667 TOP: Veins 7. Name and describe the types of cells or fibers that make up the structure of a blood vessel. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 667-668 TOP: Structure of Blood Vessels 8. Name the three layers of tissue that make up a blood vessel. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 667 TOP: Structure of Blood Vessels 9. Name and explain the two exceptions to the typical “artery-capillary-vein” type of circulation found in the circulatory system. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization NURSINGTB.COM REF: p. 669 TOP: Circulatory Routes ESSAY 1. Christopher, a 2-month-old infant, has a bluish tinge to his skin. After listening to the infant’s chest, the physician becomes concerned about a leakage of blood between the right and left atria. What might have caused this problem, and what is the treatment? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: p. 689 TOP: Fetal Circulation 2. Explain the differences between fetal and postnatal circulation. How do these differences make the circulation of the fetus more efficient? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: pp. 686-689 TOP: Fetal CirculationAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 3. Explain why the capillaries are the most important blood vessels in the circulatory system. Explain how their structure assists them in accomplishing their functions. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: pp. 664-667 TOP: Capillaries NURSINGTB.COMAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM Chapter 30: Circulation of the Blood Patton: Anatomy and Physiology, 10th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. All of the following will increase heart rate except: a. sympathetic stimulation. b. a decrease in aortic blood pressure. c. a decrease in carotid blood pressure. d. stimulation of cold receptors in the skin. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 702-703 TOP: Factors That Affect Heart Rate 2. Which of the following is not true of the baroreceptors? a. They are stretch receptors. b. They are sensitive to changes in the oxygen content of the blood. c. They send afferent nerve impulses to the cardiac control centers. d. They are located in the carotid sinus and the aorta. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 702 TOP: Factors That Affect Heart Rate 3. Which of the following factors increases heart rate? a. Sudden, intense pain of visceral organs such as the intestines and the gallbladder b. Stimulation of skin receptors by cold c. Anxiety and fear d. Grief NURSINGTB.COM ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 703 TOP: Factors That Affect Heart Rate 4. Peripheral resistance is affected primarily by: a. the length of myocardial fibers. b. blood viscosity and the diameter of arterioles. c. the capacity of the blood reservoirs. d. elasticity of the heart. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 704 TOP: Peripheral Resistance 5. Which of the following is not a mechanism that increases blood volume and therefore venous return of blood to the heart? a. Antidiuretic hormone b. Aldosterone c. Atrial natriuretic hormone d. Renin-angiotensin mechanism ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 712 TOP: Changes in Total Blood VolumeAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 6. Which of the following is not a true statement about cardiac output? a. It can be calculated by dividing the stroke volume by the heart rate. b. It is the amount of blood that flows out of a ventricle per unit of time. c. In can be computed by using Fick’s Formula. d. All of the above are true statements about cardiac output. ANS: C DIF: Application REF: p. 700 TOP: Cardiac Output 7. The primary fluid flow principle of circulation is based on all of the following except a fluid: a. flows only when a pressure gradient is absent. b. does not flow when the pressure is the same in all parts of it. c. flows only when its pressure is higher in one area than in another. d. flows always from its higher-pressure area toward its lower-pressure area. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 698-699 TOP: Primary Principle of Circulation 8. An increase in heart rate tends to increase: a. cardiac output. b. arterial blood volume. c. blood pressure. d. all of the above. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 700-701 TOP: Cardiac Output 9. Cardiac output is determined by the: a. return of blood to the hea Nrt anRd th Ie hGeartBr.ate. M b. strength of contraction of thUe leSft vNentrTicle. O c. stroke volume and heart rate. d. systolic discharge and stroke volume. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 700 TOP: Cardiac Output 10. Which of the following statements is true regarding local control of arterioles? a. Local vasodilation is also referred to as active hyperemia. b. Nitric oxide causes vasoconstriction. c. Endothelin causes vasodilation. d. All of the above statements are true regarding local control of arterioles. ANS: A DIF: Application REF: p. 709 TOP: Local Control of Arterioles 11. The Fick formula is used for determining: a. cardiac output. b. blood vessel resistance. c. mean pressure of the arteries. d. cardiac cycle. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 700 TOP: Cardiac Output 12. The greatest resistance to blood flow occurs in the:Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM N R I G B.C a. arteries. b. arterioles. c. venules. d. capillaries. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 704 TOP: Peripheral Resistance 13. Which of the following events would tend to cause a decrease in blood viscosity? a. An increase in red blood cell count b. Marked anemia c. An increase in blood protein concentration d. Both A and C ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 704 TOP: Peripheral Resistance 14. A decrease in total plasma volume results from the mechanism. a. atrial natriuretic hormone b. antidiuretic hormone c. renin-angiotensin d. aldosterone ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 712 TOP: Changes in Total Blood Volume 15. Minute volume is equal to the: a. central venous pressure divided by the resistance. b. mean arterial pressure dividUedSby tNhe cTentral vOenous pressure. c. pressure gradient divided by the resistance. d. difference between the mean arterial pressure and the resistance, divided by the central venous pressure. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 715 TOP: Minute Volume of Blood 16. Which artery in the arm is used for measuring blood pressure? a. Brachial b. Radial c. Ulnar d. Axillary ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 713 TOP: Measuring Blood Pressure 17. When you take a blood pressure reading, the first sound that you hear (top reading) is the: a. systolic sound, indicating the relaxation of the ventricles. b. systolic sound, indicating the contraction of the ventricles. c. diastolic reading, indicating the contraction of the atria. d. diastolic sound, indicating the relaxation of the ventricles. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 713-714 TOP: Measuring Blood PressureAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 18. Which of the following blood vessels has the largest total cross-sectional area? a. Capillary b. Aorta c. Vena cava d. Arteriole ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 716 TOP: Velocity of Blood Flow 19. The best description of pulse pressure is the: a. pressure of blood against artery walls during ventricular systole. b. pressure of blood against artery walls during ventricular diastole. c. pressure of blood against artery walls during atrial systole. d. difference between the systolic and the diastolic blood pressures. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 714 TOP: Measuring Blood Pressure 20. The pulse in the neck is felt over which artery? a. Temporal b. Common carotid c. Esophageal d. Vertebral ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 718 TOP: Where Pulse Can Be Felt 21. The pulse in the wrist is felt oNvUerRwShIicNhGarTteBry.?COM a. Radial b. Brachial c. Ulnar d. Axillary ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 718 TOP: Where Pulse Can Be Felt 22. Which of the following arteries is not one of the six major pressure points used to stop arterial bleeding? a. Brachial b. Femoral c. Subclavian d. Axillary ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 718 TOP: Where Pulse Can Be Felt 23. Vasomotor control mechanisms influence: a. diameter of capillaries. b. stroke volume. c. cardiac output. d. diameter of arterioles.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 704 TOP: Vasomotor Control Mechanism 24. A collection of mechanisms that influence the circulation of the blood is the definition for: a. baroreceptors. b. hemodynamics. c. minute volume. d. the Fick law. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 698 TOP: Hemodynamics 25. The blood in the subclavian vein of the chest had a P1 of 15 mm Hg. For the blood to flow back to the heart, the P2 in the superior vena cava: a. would have to be greater than 25. b. would have to be between 15 and 25. c. would have to be less than 15. d. could be at any value. ANS: C DIF: Application REF: p. 699 TOP: Primary Principle of Circulation 26. Which of the following statements is true? a. Stimulation by the vagus nerve slows the heart rate. b. Stimulation by the cardiac nerve slows the heart rate. c. Parasympathetic stimulation occurs through the cardiac nerve. d. Both B and C are true. ANS: A DIF: MNemUoRriSzaItioNnGTB.COM TOP: Factors That Affect Heart Rate 27. Peripheral resistance to blood flow comes about because of: a. friction between the blood cells and vessel walls. b. an increase in “arteriole runoff.” c. constriction of the veins at the end of the capillary bed. d. both A and C. REF: p. 702 ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 704 TOP: Peripheral Resistance 28. Which of the following is not part of the vasomotor control mechanism? a. The vasoconstrictor center in the medulla b. Sympathetic stimulation of smooth muscles surrounding the resistance vessels c. Sympathetic stimulation of the heart to increase cardiac output d. All of the above are part of the vasomotor control mechanism. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 704 | p. 706 | p. 709 TOP: Vasomotor Control Mechanism 29. Blood in the veins of which organ is not considered part of the “blood reservoir” system? a. Skin b. Skeletal muscle c. SpleenAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM d. Liver ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 704 TOP: Vasomotor Control Mechanism 30. The chemoreceptors in the carotid bodies are particularly sensitive to: a. hypercapnia. b. hypoxia. c. a decrease in blood pH. d. an increase in the hydrogen ion concentration of the blood. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 706 TOP: Vasomotor Control Mechanism 31. The effect of what substance is to increase the total blood volume? a. ADH b. ANH c. Aldosterone d. Both A and C ANS: D DIF: Application REF: p. 712 TOP: Changes in Total Blood Volume 32. Which of the following statements is not true of the cardiovascular system? a. For the body to survive, all parts of the body must be equally supplied with blood. b. The cardiovascular system contains much less blood than the system could hold. c. Blood must be directed to the cells that need it most. d. Blood must move constan tN ly thR ro uI gh GtheBc.arCdioMvascular system. ANS: A DIF: MemUoriSzatioNn T O TOP: Introduction REF: pp. 697-698 33. Which of the following tasks must the circulation control mechanism accomplish? a. Maintain circulation. b. Vary the volume and distribution of the blood circulated. c. Make sure that all cells receive the same amount of blood to maintain nutrient and oxygen levels. d. Both A and B are correct. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 698 TOP: Hemodynamics 34. The Latin word lamina means: a. pump b. heart c. layer d. flow ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 714 TOP: Focus on Turbulent Blood Flow (Box 30-2) 35. Which of the following is not a means by which venous blood is returned to the heart? a. The semilunar valves in the veinAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM b. Respiration, which reduces pressure in the thorax and increases pressure in the abdomen c. The contraction of skeletal muscles pushing blood through the veins d. All the above are means by which venous blood returns to the heart. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 709-710 TOP: Venous Pumps 36. Which of the following factors would cause fluid to leave the blood vessel at the arterial end of the capillary? a. High hydrostatic pressure of the blood b. High hydrostatic pressure of the interstitial fluid c. High colloid pressure of the plasma proteins d. All of the above ANS: A DIF: Application REF: p. 711 TOP: Total Blood Volume 37. Which of the following factors would cause fluid to be reabsorbed into the blood vessel at the venous end of the capillary? a. High hydrostatic pressure of the blood b. High colloid pressure of the plasma proteins c. Hydrostatic pressure of the interstitial fluid d. Both B and C ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 711 TOP: Total Blood Volume 38. Circulatory shock caused byNan aRcute IallGergiBc.reCactiMon is called shock. a. cardiogenic b. hypovolemic c. anaphylactic d. septic U S N T O ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 719 TOP: Mechanisms of Disease 39. Circulatory shock caused by the effects of infectious agents is called shock. a. cardiogenic b. hypovolemic c. anaphylactic d. septic ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 719 TOP: Mechanisms of Disease 40. Circulatory shock caused by a drop in the amount of blood in the circulatory system is called shock. a. cardiogenic b. hypovolemic c. anaphylactic d. septic ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 719Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM TOP: Mechanisms of Disease 41. When trying to stop arterial bleeding by applying pressure, why is it necessary to apply pressure between the bleeding part and the heart? a. Because blood flows from the heart through the arteries to the injured part, pressure placed between the heart and the bleeding point cuts off the source of blood flow to that point. b. Because blood pressure is greater in the arteries coming from the heart, pressure placed between the heart and bleeding point reduces pressure, thus cutting off the source of blood flow to that point. c. Because venous blood pressure changes by alternate contraction and relaxation of the atria, pressure placed between the heart and bleeding point cuts off the source of venous blood flow to that point. d. Because arterial blood pressure changes by alternate contraction and relaxation of the atria, pressure placed between the heart and bleeding point cuts off the source of arterial blood flow to that point. ANS: A DIF: Application REF: p. 718 TOP: Where Pulse Can Be Felt TRUE/FALSE 1. In order for all the cells of the body to survive, blood supplies to all cells must be equal. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 698 TOP: Hemodynamics 2. Two important baroreceptorsNa relocRUS Iat ediGN nT Bth.eCao rtaMO and the carotid artery. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 702 TOP: Factors That Affect Heart Rate 3. Emotional stress can influence heart rate by creating impulses that go from the cerebrum to the cardiac centers via the hypothalamus. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 703 TOP: Factors That Affect Heart Rate 4. An increase in blood temperature tends to slow down heart rate. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 703 TOP: Factors That Affect Heart Rate 5. Grief tends to make the heart beat faster. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 703 TOP: Factors That Affect Heart Rate 6. Pulse is defined as the alternate expansion and recoil of an artery. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 716 TOP: Pulse MechanismAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 7. A fluid flows because a pressure gradient exists between different parts of its volume. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 699 TOP: Primary Principle of Circulation 8. If the heart rate drops and the stroke volume increases, cardiac output will always show a decrease. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 700 TOP: Cardiac Output 9. Cardiac output and peripheral resistance are directly proportional to arterial blood volume. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 704 TOP: How Resistance Influences Blood Pressure 10. Because of the high concentration of protein in plasma, a decrease in the red blood cell count will cause an increase in blood viscosity. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 704 TOP: Peripheral Resistance 11. The blood-pumping action of respirations and skeletal muscle contractions are both important factors promoting the return of venous blood to the heart. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 710 TOP: Venous Pumps N URSINGTB.COM 12. Operation of the Starling law ensures that when the amount of blood returned to the heart is increased, stroke volume automatically increases to pump it out. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 701 TOP: Factors That Affect Stroke Volume 13. The vasomotor control mechanism regulates changes in the diameter of arteries. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 704 TOP: Vasomotor Control Mechanism 14. Hypoxic conditions act as the major stimulant to chemoreceptors. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 706 TOP: Vasomotor Control Mechanism 15. Diastolic pressure is the force of blood pushing against artery walls when the ventricles are contracting. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 713-714 TOP: Arterial Blood PressureAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM U S N T O 16. The atrial natriuretic hormone mechanism promotes water retention, thus increasing total plasma volume. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 712 TOP: Changes in Total Blood Volume 17. The volume of blood circulated per minute is equal to the difference between the mean arterial pressure and the central venous pressure, divided by the resistance. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 715 TOP: Minute Volume of Blood 18. The pulse wave is associated with left ventricular diastole. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 717 TOP: Pulse Wave 19. The velocity of blood flow slows in the capillaries in association with an increase in total cross-sectional area. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 716 TOP: Velocity of Blood Flow 20. The greater the cross-sectional area of a vessel, the greater the speed of the blood flow. 21.2 1 . ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 716 TOP: Velocity of Blood Flow N R I G B.C M Venous pulse is just as significant clinically as arterial pulse. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 718 TOP: Venous Pulse 22. To stop arterial bleeding, pressure must be applied between the damaged artery and the heart. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 718 TOP: Where Pulse Can Be Felt 23. The pressure gradient in the ventricles exceeds the pressure in the pulmonary artery and aorta. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 699 TOP: Primary Principle of Circulation 24. Pumping load can also be referred to as preload ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 701 TOP: Cardiac Output 25. Ejection fraction has no relation to the stroke volume. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 701 TOP: Cardiac OutputAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 26. Orthostasis means “standing upright.” ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 709 TOP: Venous Return to the Heart 27. The popliteal pulse point is found on the anterior surface of the elbow. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 718 TOP: Pulse 28. At rest most of the body’s blood supply resides in the pulmonary loop. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 704 TOP: Peripheral Resistance 29. Cardiac output is determined by multiplying stroke volume and heart rate. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 700 TOP: Cardiac Output 30. The resting cardiac output from the left ventricle is about 5 liters. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 700 TOP: Cardiac Output 31. Blood viscosity is highly variable in healthy individuals under resting conditions. ANS: F DIF: MNemUoRriSzaItioNnGTB.COM TOP: Peripheral Resistance 32. Exercise has little effect on cardiac output. REF: p. 704 ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 707 TOP: The Cardiovascular System and Exercise (Box 30-1) 33. The stress-relaxation effect occurs in all blood vessels but is most important in the arteries. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 709 TOP: Venous Return to Heart 34. Velocity of blood is relatively constant as blood flows from the aorta toward the capillaries. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 716 TOP: Velocity of Blood Flow 35. In a healthy adult, blood pressure at the union of the vena cavae and right atrium is about 80 mm Hg. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 714 TOP: Measuring Blood PressureAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 36. Parasympathetic control of the heart depends on the glossopharyngeal nerve (cranial nerve IX). ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 702 TOP: Factors That Affect Heart Rate 37. The difference between systolic and diastolic pressures is termed pulse pressure. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 714 TOP: Measuring Blood Pressure 38. The capillaries perform the transport function of the circulatory system. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 697 TOP: Introduction 39. Blood vessels can hold much more blood than is present in the body. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 697 TOP: Introduction 40. Stroke volume and systolic discharge mean the same thing. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 700 TOP: Cardiac Output 41. If the stroke volume remains constant, parasympathetic stimulation of the heart will cause an increase in cardiac output. N URSINGTB.COM ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 700 | p. 702 TOP: Cardiac Output, Factors That Affect Heart Rate 42. The Fick law of the heart says that, within limits, the longer the heart fibers are at the beginning of a contraction, the stronger the contraction will be. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 701 TOP: Factors That Affect Stroke Volume 43. Anger and fear have opposite effects on the heart rate. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 703 TOP: Factors That Affect Heart Rate 44. Because of their small diameter, capillaries account for almost all the resistance to blood flow in the circulatory system. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 704 TOP: Peripheral Resistance 45. Blood viscosity is caused by both red blood cells and the protein concentration of the blood. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 704Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM U S N T O TOP: Peripheral Resistance 46. An increase in arterial blood pressure causes an increase in parasympathetic impulses to the heart and blood vessels. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 706 TOP: Vasomotor Control Mechanism 47. As arterial blood pressure decreases, the number of impulses from the carotid baroreceptors to the medulla decreases. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 706 TOP: Vasomotor Control Mechanism 48. Local vasodilation or reactive hyperemia can be caused by the release of endothelin by the blood vessels. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 709 TOP: Local Control of Arterioles 49. The “pump” of the “respiratory pump” that moves blood to the central veins is the diaphragm. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 710 TOP: Venous Pumps 50. Venous valves would not be necessary in the jugular veins of the neck. 51.5 1 . ANS: T DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 710 TOP: Venous Pumps N R I G B.C M Osmotic pressure tends to move plasma out of the capillary and into the tissues. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 711 TOP: Capillary Exchange and Total Blood Volume 52. Hydrostatic pressure tends to decrease from the arterial end of the capillary to the venous end of the capillary. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 711 TOP: Capillary Exchange and Total Blood Volume 53. The first Korotkoff sound indicates the diastolic blood pressure. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 713 TOP: Arterial Blood Pressure 54. Bleeding that occurs at a relatively slow, steady rate would indicate that the damaged blood vessel is most likely a vein. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 715 TOP: Blood Pressure and Bleeding 55. Because the circulatory system is a closed system filled with fluid, the pulse wave is felt at the same time in any part of the body.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM ANS: F U S N T O ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 717 TOP: Pulse Wave 56. As the elasticity of the artery wall decreases, the magnitude of the pulse wave increases. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 717 TOP: Pulse Wave 57. If a pulse were taken at the popliteal and dorsalis pedis arteries at the same time, it would be felt at the popliteal artery first. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: pp. 717-718 TOP: Pulse Wave, Where Pulse Can Be Felt 58. The arterial pulse is caused by the ventricles of the heart; the venous pulse is caused by the atria of the heart. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: pp. 717-718 TOP: Pulse Wave, Venous Pulse 59. Hemodynamics is the term used to describe a collection of mechanisms that influence the active and changing circulation of the blood. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 698 TOP: Hemodynamics 60. By the time the blood reaches the venous end of the capillaries, the pressure on the blood has reached 0 mm Hg. N R I G B.C M DIF: Memorization REF: p. 699 TOP: Primary Principle of Circulation 61. SV (stroke volume)  HR (heart rate) = CO (cardiac output). ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 700 TOP: Cardiac Output 62. Based on the Starling law of the heart, the greater the venous return, the stronger the heart contraction. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 701 TOP: Factors That Affect Stroke Volume 63. When the amount of blood reaching the medulla drops, the medulla stimulates vasodilation to increase the flow of blood to the brain. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 707 | p. 709 TOP: Medullary Ischemic Reflex 64. Blood osmotic pressure and blood hydrostatic pressure are opposing forces in terms of moving fluid into and out of the circulatory system. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 711 TOP: Total Blood VolumeAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM ANS: T U S N T O 65. The drop in blood pressure is greater between the aorta and capillary bed than it is between the capillaries and the venae cavae. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 699 TOP: Primary Principle of Circulation 66. Deep, rapid breathing will increase the return of blood to the heart. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 710 TOP: Venous Pumps 67. If fluid were collecting at the venous end of a capillary, it could be caused by either a drop in hydrostatic pressure or an increase in osmotic pressure. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 711 TOP: Capillary Exchange and Total Blood Volume 68. In order for Korotkoff sounds to be heard, the cuff pressure must stay above systolic pressure. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 713 TOP: Measuring Blood Pressure 69. If resistance in the blood vessels remains constant, the minute volume of blood is directly related to the difference between arterial and venous pressure. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 716 TOP: Minute Volume of Blood 70. An increase in ADH in the blood would have a tendency to increase total blood volume. N R I G B.C M DIF: Memorization REF: p. 712 TOP: Changes in Total Blood Volume 71. ANH and ADH work synergistically to increase total blood volume. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 712 TOP: Changes in Total Blood Volume 72. ADH is short for antidiuretic hormone. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 712 TOP: Venous Return to the Heart/ADH Mechanism 73. The right atrium would have the lowest blood pressure in the systemic circulatory system. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 699 TOP: Primary Principle of Circulation 74. Arterial blood pressure is inversely related to blood volume. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 699 TOP: Arterial Blood Pressure 75. The cardiac output of the left ventricle is greater than the cardiac output of the right ventricle.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM ANS: F DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 700 TOP: Cardiac Output 76. In general, as stroke volume goes up, ejection fraction goes up. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 701 TOP: Factors That Affect Stroke Volume 77. In a typical healthy heart, ejection fraction is between 80% and 85%. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 701 TOP: Factors That Affect Stroke Volume 78. Acetylcholine can increase the strength of contractions and therefore increase ejection fraction. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 701 TOP: Factors That Affect Stroke Volume 79. An increase in aldosterone would cause an increase in blood volume. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 712 TOP: Changes in Total Blood Volume OTHER 1. Explain the primary principle of circulation as related to Newton’s first and second laws of motion. ANS: Answers will vary. NURSINGTB.COM DIF: Application REF: pp. 698-699 TOP: Primary Principle of Circulation 2. What are two functions that circulation control mechanisms must accomplish? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 698 TOP: Hemodynamics 3. Explain how the Starling law relates to cardiac output. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 701 TOP: Cardiac Output 4. List two factors that affect peripheral resistance. Explain how these factors influence arterial blood pressure. In normal blood flow, where is the major peripheral resistance encountered? ANS:Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 704-709 TOP: Peripheral Resistance 5. List two major factors that promote the return of venous blood to the heart. Explain how each facilitates venous return. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 709 TOP: Venous Return to Heart 6. Explain how the forces of osmotic pressure and hydrostatic pressure work to maintain a balance of fluid moving into and out of the capillary. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: p. 711 TOP: Capillary Exchange and Total Blood Volume 7. Explain how a drop in blood protein can cause edema (the collection of fluid) in the tissues. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: p. 712 TOP: Total Blood Volume 8. Name and explain the reflexeNsUthRatSaIffNecGt hTeBar.t rCatOe.M ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 702-704 TOP: Factors That Affect Heart Rate 9. Name and explain the vasomotor reflexes. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 704-709 TOP: Vasomotor Control Mechanism 10. Explain the role of the lymphatic system in maintaining blood volume. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 711 TOP: Capillary Exchange and Total Blood VolumeAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 11. Name and explain the relationship among the variables that impact the minute volume of blood. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 715-716 TOP: Minute Volume of Blood 12. Name and give the location of five places in the body where a pulse can be felt. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 718 TOP: Where Pulse Can Be Felt ESSAY 1. Nicole records her resting heart rate at sea level. She then climbs a mountain. After reaching 18,000 feet, she stops and records her resting heart rate again. Predict what change, if any, would be observed, and then explain the mechanisms involved. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: pp. 703-704 TOP: Factors That Affect Heart Rate NURSINGTB.COMAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM Chapter 31: Lymphatic System Patton: Anatomy and Physiology, 10th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The main difference between the composition of lymph and interstitial fluid and the composition of plasma is the percentage of in lymph and interstitial fluid. a. lower; proteins b. higher; proteins c. lower; fats d. higher; fats ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 727 TOP: Lymph and Interstitial Fluid 2. Which of the following is a true statement? a. The wall of the lymphatic capillary consists of a multiple layer of flattened endothelial cells. b. Lymphatic and blood capillary networks are dependent on each other. c. Lymph from the entire body, except the upper right quadrant, drains eventually into the thoracic duct. d. The thoracic duct is approximately the same size as the large veins. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 728 TOP: Lymphatic Vessels 3. Lymph capillaries called lactNeaUlsRaSreIloNcGatTedBi.nCthe:M a. spleen. b. liver. c. thymus. d. small intestine. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 728 TOP: Lymphatic Vessels 4. Lymphatics resemble veins except that lymphatics: a. have thinner walls. b. contain more valves. c. contain lymph nodes located at certain intervals along their course. d. All of the above are correct. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 728 TOP: Lymphatic Vessels 5. All of the following are functions of the lymphatic system except: a. transporting interstitial fluid back to the bloodstream. b. providing immunological defenses. c. transporting absorbed fats from the intestine to the blood. d. filtering metabolic wastes. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 729Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM TOP: Functions of Lymphatic Vessels 6. Which of the following is not a lymph organ? a. Thymus b. Spleen c. Pancreas d. Tonsils ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 726 TOP: Overview of the Lymphatic System 7. The thymus undergoes involution during: a. early childhood. b. puberty. c. old age. d. fetal development. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 736 TOP: Thymus 8. Lymph ducts empty into the circulatory system, draining into the: a. jugular vein. b. subclavian veins. c. superior vena cava. d. inferior vena cava. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 728 TOP: Distribution of Lymphatic Vessels NURSINGTB.COM 9. The percentage of the total proteins that leak out of the capillaries into the tissue fluid on a daily basis is: a. 40%. b. 50%. c. 60%. d. 70%. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 729 TOP: Circulation of Lymph 10. The lymph pressure gradient is established by: a. breathing movements. b. skeletal muscle contractions. c. parasympathetic stimulation. d. both A and B. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 730 TOP: The Lymphatic Pump 11. If lymphatic return is blocked: a. blood protein concentration soon falls below normal. b. blood osmotic pressure soon falls below normal. c. fluid imbalance and death will result. d. all of the above will occur.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 729 TOP: Functions of Lymphatic Vessels 12. Lymph flows through the thoracic duct and reenters the general circulation at the rate of about liter(s) per day. a. 1 b. 0.5 c. 3 d. 5 ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 731 TOP: Lymphatic Pump 13. Lymph circulation is maintained by all of the following except: a. the heart. b. inspiration. c. skeletal muscle contractions. d. valves. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 730 TOP: The Lymphatic Pump 14. The size of lymph nodes varies from mm to more than mm in diameter. a. 1; 20 b. 10; 35 c. 20; 45 d. 30; 65 NURSINGTB.COM ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 731 TOP: Structure of Lymph Nodes 15. Which of the following is a lymphokinetic factor? a. Arterial pulsations b. Postural changes c. Passive compression of the body soft tissues d. All of the above ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 730 TOP: Lymphatic Pump 16. Which of the following is a function of lymph nodes? a. Hematopoiesis b. Filtration c. Phagocytosis d. All of the above ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 734 TOP: Functions of Lymph Nodes 17. The lymph nodes located just above the bend of the elbow are called the lymph nodes. a. inguinal b. axillaryAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM N R c. superficial cervical d. supratrochlear ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 732 TOP: Locations of Lymph Nodes 18. The lymph nodes located in the groin are called the: a. inguinal lymph nodes. b. axillary lymph nodes. c. submaxillary group. d. submental group. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 732 TOP: Locations of Lymph Nodes 19. An infection in the thumb may result in enlargement of the nodes. a. submental b. inguinal c. superficial cervical d. superficial cubital ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 732 TOP: Locations of Lymph Nodes 20. The lymph nodes located in the neck along the sternocleidomastoid muscle are called the: a. submental and submaxillary groups. b. superficial cervical lymph nodes. c. supratrochlear lymph nodes. I G B.C M d. superficial cubital lymph nUodeS s. N T O ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 732 TOP: Locations of Lymph Nodes 21. The cluster of lymph nodes found in the underarm and upper chest regions is referred to as nodes. a. superficial cervical b. inguinal c. axillary d. superficial cubital ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 732 TOP: Locations of Lymph Nodes 22. A type of blood cell produced by lymph nodes is called a(n): a. eosinophil. b. erythrocyte. c. neutrophil. d. monocyte. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 734 TOP: Hematopoiesis 23. The breast—the mammary gland and surrounding tissue—is drained by the:Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM a. lymphatics that originate in and drain the skin over the breast with the exception of the areola and nipple. b. lymphatics that originate in and drain the substance of the breast itself, as well as the skin of the areola and nipple. c. inguinal lymph nodes. d. Both A and B are correct. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 735 TOP: Lymphatic Drainage of the Breast 24. of the lymph from the breast enters the lymph nodes of the axillary region. a. Less than 50% b. Less than 25% c. More than 85% d. More than 95% ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 735 TOP: Lymph Nodes Associated with the Breast 25. The cutaneous lymphatic plexus drains lymph from the: a. forearm. b. facial areas. c. breast. d. leg. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 735 TOP: Lymphatic Drainage of the Breast 26. In advanced old age, the thymNuUsRmSayIbNeGlaTrgBe.lyCre OpMlaced by: a. fat. b. protein. c. scar tissue. d. cartilage. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 736 TOP: Thymus 27. The thymus is located in the: a. right hypochondriac region. b. left hypochondriac region. c. mediastinum. d. neck. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 736 TOP: Thymus 28. The size of the thymus is the largest at: a. birth. b. 2 years of age. c. puberty. d. approximately 25 years of age. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 736Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM TOP: Thymus 29. The tonsils located near the posterior opening of the nasal cavity are called the tonsils. a. palatine b. pharyngeal c. lingual d. laryngeal ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 736 TOP: Tonsils 30. The tonsils located near the base of the tongue are called the tonsils. a. palatine b. pharyngeal c. lingual d. laryngeal ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 736 TOP: Tonsils 31. Which of the following is not true of the thymus gland? a. Relative size is largest in early childhood. b. It is the primary central organ of the lymphatic system. c. It functions in the immune mechanism. d. It functions mostly in adult life. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 736-737 TOP: Thymus NURSINGTB.COM 32. The spleen during infectious diseases and in old age. a. atrophies; hypertrophies b. hypertrophies; atrophies c. secretes hormones; stops functioning d. None of the above is correct. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 737 TOP: Spleen 33. The spleen is located in the region. a. right hypochondriac b. left hypochondriac c. epigastric d. left lumbar ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 737 TOP: Spleen 34. Which of the following is a function of the thymus? a. It serves as the final site of lymphocyte development before birth. b. Soon after birth, it begins to secrete a group of hormones that enable lymphocytes to develop into mature T cells. c. Soon after birth, it begins to secrete a hormone that actively stimulates the posterior pituitary to release oxytocin.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM d. Both A and B are functions of the thymus. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 737 TOP: Thymus 35. The part of the lymphatic system that secretes a hormone is the: a. spleen. b. thymus. c. lymph nodes. d. palatine tonsils. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 737 TOP: Thymus 36. The pulp of the spleen and its venous sinuses allow it to store up to ml of blood. a. 100 b. 150 c. 250 d. 350 ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 739 TOP: Spleen 37. Which of the following is not a function of the spleen? a. White blood cell destruction b. Platelet destruction c. Reservoir for blood d. Hematopoiesis NURSINGTB.COM ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 739 TOP: Spleen 38. The vast majority of the body’s lymph is drained by the duct. a. right lymphatic b. left lymphatic c. thoracic d. abdominal ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 728 TOP: Lymphatic Vessels 39. Adenitis is: a. an infected adenoid. b. an infected lymph node. c. tissue swelling. d. none of the above. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 734 TOP: Functions of Lymph Nodes 40. The lymph nodes perform which of the following functions? a. Control blood pressure b. DefenseAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM c. Hematopoiesis d. Both B and C ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 734 TOP: Lymph Nodes 41. Lymph enters a node via: a. afferent lymph vessels. b. efferent lymph vessels. c. sinuses. d. trabeculae. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 731 TOP: Lymph Nodes 42. The thymus secretes: a. T3. b. T4. c. thymosin. d. both A and C. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 737 TOP: Thymus 43. Relative to the rest of the body, the thymus is largest at years of age. a. 2 b. 10 c. 20 d. 50 NURSINGTB.COM ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 736 TOP: Thymus 44. Peyer patches are isolated nodules of lymph tissue in the: a. intestinal wall. b. bronchial tree of the lungs. c. throat. d. bladder and urethra. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 726 TOP: Overview of the Lymphatic System 45. The high concentration of protein in the thoracic duct results from the protein-rich lymph that drains from the: a. skeletal muscle groups. b. bronchial tree of the lung. c. liver. d. Both A and C are correct. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 727-728 TOP: Lymph and Interstitial Fluid 46. The cisterna chyli:Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM a. originates in the right lymphatic duct. b. originates in the thoracic duct. c. is the storage area for hormones made by the thymus gland. d. filters the chyle coming from the small intestine. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 728 TOP: Distribution of Lymphatic Vessels 47. Lacteals: a. drain into the right lymphatic duct. b. are the lymphatics in the villi of the small intestines. c. are able to absorb fat from the digestive system. d. Both B and C are correct. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 729 TOP: Functions of Lymphatic Vessels 48. Which of the following is not true of lymph nodes? a. They are oval or lima bean shaped. b. They have one afferent vessel. c. They act as a biological filter. d. They are divided by trabeculae. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 731 TOP: Structure of Lymph Nodes 49. Which tonsils are known as adenoids when they become swollen? a. Lingual b. Sublingual c. Pharyngeal d. Palatine NURSINGTB.COM ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 736 TOP: Tonsils 50. Hassall corpuscles are part of the: a. thymus. b. spleen. c. tonsils. d. thoracic duct. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 737 TOP: Structure of the Thymus 51. Which of the following is not part of the lymphatic system? a. Thymus b. Spleen c. Thyroid d. Peyer patches ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 726 TOP: Overview of the Lymphatic SystemAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 52. Which of the following is not part of the lymphatic system? a. Tonsils b. Bone marrow c. Liver d. All of the above are part of the lymphatic system. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 726 TOP: Overview of the Lymphatic System 53. The lymph taken from what location has the highest concentration of protein? a. Thoracic duct b. Cisterna chyli c. Spleen d. Thymus ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 727-728 TOP: Lymph and Interstitial Fluid 54. About half of the lymph flowing through the thoracic duct comes from the: a. liver. b. small intestine. c. spleen. d. Both A and B are correct. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 727-728 TOP: Lymph and Interstitial Fluid 55. What structure drains lymph NfromRabIoutGthre Be.foCurtMhs of the body into the subclavian vein? a. Right lymphatic duct b. Thoracic duct c. Cisterna chyli d. Spleen U S N T O ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 728 TOP: Distribution of Lymphatic Vessels 56. The tonsils found at the base of the eustachian tubes are called: a. palatine tonsils. b. tubal tonsils. c. lingual tonsils. d. adenoids. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 736 TOP: Tonsils 57. How are lymphatic capillaries related to the function of the lymphatic system? a. The wall of the lymphatic capillary consists of a multiple layer of flattened endothelial cells that prevents drainage of blood into the lymphatic system. b. The lymphatic capillary network allows lymph to flow from the larger-walled capillaries into the vessels with a thin wall diameter. c. The high degree of permeability of the lymphatic capillary wall permits very large molecules and even particulate matter, which cannot be absorbed into the bloodAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM ANS: C U S N T O capillary, to be removed from the interstitial space. d. The thoracic duct is approximately the same size as the large veins and forms an open circuit to drain fluid into the renal system. ANS: C DIF: Application REF: p. 729 TOP: Functions of Lymphatic Vessels 58. How do the reticuloendothelial cells compare to white blood cells as a defense against infection? a. Only white blood cells play a role in the body’s defense against infection. b. There is no comparison between these two types of cells; reticuloendothelial cells are in the lymphatic system and the white blood cells are part of the circulatory system. c. Reticuloendothelial cells (macrophages) lining the spleen remove microorganisms from the blood and destroy them by phagocytosis in a fashion similar to that of white blood cells. d. Reticuloendothelial cells (macrophages) lining the spleen prevent microorganisms from entering the blood in a similar fashion as do white blood cells, thus preventing infection. ANS: C DIF: Application REF: p. 739 TOP: Functions of the Spleen 59. Which would you predict would occur if a disease blocked the flow of lymph? a. Lymphokinesis would increase. b. Hematopoiesis would not occur. c. The liver might become enlarged or lymphedema may occur. d. The affected extremity would begin to shrink and become useless. N R I G B.C M DIF: Application REF: p. 740 TOP: Disorders Associated with Lymphatic Vessels 60. How would muscle contraction affect lymphokinetic action? a. There is no association between muscle contraction and lymphokinetic action. b. A decreased flow of lymph that occurs with increased physical activity helps return fluid to the cardiovascular system. c. Contraction of the smooth muscle in the thoracic vessel walls prohibits lymphatic vessels from pulsing rhythmically and, thus, helps to keep lymph from moving from one valved segment to the next. d. Increased external pressure from muscle contraction also increases lymphatic pressure, which results in keeping lymph moving in only one direction. ANS: D DIF: Application REF: p. 730 TOP: Circulation of Lymph 61. Why is having an understanding of the lymphatic drainage of the breast important in formulating the diagnosis and treatment of breast cancer? a. A single cell of a primary cancer tumor can spread to other areas of the body through the lymphatic system and cause metastasis. b. Removing the cancer can stop drainage of blood from the tumor and increase the flow of drainage of lymph from the breast area. c. The lymphatic drainage will start to clot and decrease further lymphatic drainage. d. The cancerous breast tissue will decrease lymphatic drainage, thus inhibiting the spreading of the tumor cells.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM ANS: A DIF: Application REF: p. 734 TOP: Lymphatic Drainage of the Breast 62. A person with thymus malfunction would: a. produce fewer B cells, thus reducing the effectiveness of the immune system. b. experience an inhibition of thymosin, thus creating an increased number of macrophages in the body. c. produce more T cells, thus reducing the effectiveness of the immune system. d. produce fewer T cells, thus reducing the effectiveness of the immune system. ANS: D DIF: Application REF: p. 737 TOP: Functions of the Thymus 63. Which best describes the mechanism involved with the central movement, or flow, of lymph? a. Movement is caused by gravity. b. Lymph flow is caused by relaxation of the skeletal muscles. c. Lymph flow in the body is the result of contracting skeletal muscles. d. Lymph flow is caused by the contraction of blood vessels. ANS: C DIF: Application REF: p. 730 TOP: Lymphatic Pump 64. Michael, a 43-year-old man, was in a serious car accident. He has a rigid and tender left hypochondrium region. His blood pressure is dropping, and he is in pain. What organ might be involved in this injury? a. Kidney b. Liver c. Pancreas d. Spleen NURSINGTB.COM ANS: D DIF: Application REF: p. 737 TOP: Spleen TRUE/FALSE 1. The two most important functions of the lymphatic system are immunity and the maintenance of fluid balance in the internal environment. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 726 TOP: Introduction 2. About 1.5 liters of lymph flows through the thoracic duct daily. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 727 TOP: Lymph and Interstitial Fluid 3. The lymphatic system, like the circulatory system, is a closed circuit. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 727 TOP: Overview of the Lymphatic System 4. Besides fluid balance and immunity, the lymphatic system plays an important role in the absorption of lipids.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 726 TOP: Introduction 5. The lymphatic system is actually a specialized component of the circulatory system because it consists of a moving fluid derived from the blood and tissue fluid and a group of vessels that return the fluid to the blood. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 726 TOP: Overview of the Lymphatic System 6. Both lymph and interstitial fluid contain a higher percentage of proteins than does plasma. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 727 TOP: Lymph and Interstitial Fluid 7. Lymph is derived from blood and tissue fluid. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 727 TOP: Lymph and Interstitial Fluid 8. Lymphatics have thicker walls than do veins. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 728 TOP: Structure of Lymphatic Vessels 9. Lymphatic vessels originate as microscopic, blind-end vessels called lymphatic capillaries. ANS: T DIF: MNemoRrizaItionG B.C M REF: p. 728 TOP: Distribution of LymphaticUVesSselsN T O 10. Lymphatic vessels contain more valves than do veins. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 728 TOP: Structure of Lymphatic Vessels 11. Lymph from the entire body drains eventually into the thoracic duct. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 728 TOP: Distribution of Lymphatic Vessels 12. Lymph contains platelets, which allow clots to form in lymphatic vessels. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 728 TOP: Loss of Lymphatic Fluid (Box 31-1) 13. Lymphatic capillaries (called lacteals) in the small intestine are important in the absorption of fats. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 728 TOP: Lymphatic Vessels 14. The cisterna chyli drains into the right lymphatic duct.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 728 TOP: Distribution of Lymphatic Vessels 15. Veins have more valves than do lymphatics. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 728 TOP: Structure of Lymphatic Vessels 16. Protein substances that have left the bloodstream return by way of lymph fluid. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 729 TOP: Functions of Lymphatic Vessels 17. Chyle is milky lymph that is high in fat content. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 729 TOP: Functions of Lymphatic Vessels 18. Damage to main lymphatic ducts may cause death from the loss of serum proteins. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 729 TOP: Lymphatic Vessels 19. Lymphatic capillaries and blood capillaries both play important roles in the absorption of proteins from tissue spaces. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 729 TOP: Lymphatic Vessels N URSINGTB.COM 20. Activities that result in central movement, or flow, of lymph are called lymphokinetic actions. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 730 TOP: Lymphatic Pump 21. Lymphatic vessels run parallel to veins and form frequent anastomoses with them. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 728 TOP: Distribution of Lymphatic Vessels 22. The valves in the lymphatics are more numerous in the larger vessels. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 728 TOP: Lymphatic Vessels 23. Lymph nodes, or glands, are perfectly round structures. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 731 TOP: Lymph Nodes 24. Lymph nodes may range from 1 mm to more than 20 mm in diameter. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 731 TOP: Lymph NodesAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 25. The passive compression of the body’s soft tissues may act as a lymphokinetic factor. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 730 TOP: Circulation of Lymph 26. When an infection is present, germinal centers form and the lymph node begins to release lymphocytes; some become antibody-producing plasma cells. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 731 TOP: Lymph Nodes 27. Lymph nodes contain reticuloendothelial cells that produce certain red blood cells. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 731 TOP: Lymph Nodes 28. Germinal centers are areas of rapidly dividing lymphocytes within a cortical node. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 731 TOP: Lymph Nodes 29. The supratrochlear lymph nodes are located in the neck along the sternocleidomastoid muscle. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 732 TOP: Locations of Lymph Nodes 30. The inguinal lymph nodes arNe loR cateId inGtheBg.roCin. M U S N T O ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 732 TOP: Locations of Lymph Nodes 31. Even though some lymph nodes occur in clusters, most occur as single nodes. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 732 TOP: Locations of Lymph Nodes 32. The lymphatic tissue of lymph nodes serves as the site of the final stages of maturation for some types of lymphocytes and monocytes that have migrated from the bone marrow. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 734 TOP: Hematopoiesis 33. The cutaneous lymphatic plexus drains lymph from the breast. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 735 TOP: Distribution of Lymphatics in the Breast 34. Cancer of the breast is one of the most common forms of malignancy in women. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 734 TOP: Lymphatic Drainage of the BreastAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM U S N T O 35. The majority of lymph from the breast enters the axillary lymph nodes. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 735 TOP: Lymph Nodes Associated with the Breast 36. The breast—the mammary gland and the surrounding tissues—is drained by six sets of lymphatic vessels. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 735 TOP: Distribution of Lymphatics in the Breast 37. Axillary node enlargement may be a sign that breast cancer cells have spread to the nodes. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 736 TOP: Lymph Nodes Associated with the Breast 38. The palatine tonsils are located on each side of the throat. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 736 TOP: Tonsils 39. The thymus appears yellowish early in childhood because of the high concentration of fat. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 736 TOP: Thymus 40. The fetal thymus forms immaNturRe lyImphGocyBte.s,Cwhich then move to the bone marrow for the final stages of lymphocyte development before birth. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 737 TOP: Thymus 41. The thymus plays an important role in “seeding” other lymphatic tissue such as the spleen and lymph nodes with lymphocytes. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 737 TOP: Thymus 42. The size of the spleen is relatively constant in different individuals, regardless of sex or age. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 737 TOP: Structure of the Spleen 43. The spleen removes imperfect platelets from the blood. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 739 TOP: Functions of the Spleen 44. The spleen is not classified as a vital organ. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 739Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM ANS: T U S N T O TOP: Functions of the Spleen 45. Anastomoses are not characteristic of lymphatic vessels, and therefore a malignant tumor in one breast cannot spread to the other breast. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 735 TOP: Lymphatic Anastomoses and Breast Cancer (Box 31-4) 46. Thymosin enables lymphocytes to develop into mature T cells, which attack foreign or abnormal cells. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 737 TOP: Functions of the Thymus 47. Lymphedema, a swelling of the tissues of the extremities, may be treated by diuretics, bed rest, and elevation of the involved extremities. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 740 TOP: Mechanisms of Disease 48. Hodgkin and non-Hodgkin are categories of lymphangitis. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 741 TOP: Mechanisms of Disease 49. Patients with immunodeficiencies such as AIDS often develop a malignancy of lymphoid tissue. N R I G B.C M DIF: Memorization REF: p. 741 TOP: Mechanisms of Disease 50. Lymphatic capillaries that operate in the villi of the small intestine are called lacteals. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 728 TOP: Lymphatic Vessels 51. The lymphatic system contributes to the circulatory system. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 726 TOP: Overview of the Lymphatic System 52. Peyer patches make up the structural framework of both the spleen and tonsils. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 726 TOP: Overview of the Lymphatic System 53. Lymph does not have the ability to clot. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 728 TOP: Loss of Lymphatic Fluid (Box 31-1) 54. The milky lymph found in lacteals after digestion is called chyle.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 729 TOP: Functions of Lymphatic Vessels 55. Activities that result in the flow of lymph are breathing movements and skeletal muscle contractions. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 730 TOP: Lymphatic Pump 56. The hilus is a small depression on a lymph node from which the efferent lymph vessel exists. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 731 TOP: Lymph Nodes 57. Even though some lymph nodes occur as single nodes, most occur in clusters. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 732 TOP: Locations of Lymph Nodes 58. Removal of the spleen will most likely render a patient ill for the rest of his or her life. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 739 TOP: Functions of the Spleen 59. More than 85% of the lymph from the breast enters lymph nodes at the lateral edge of the sternum. ANS: F DIF: M NRUemori SzaItioNnGTB.COM TOP: Lymph Nodes Associated with the Breast REF: p. 735 60. After puberty, the thymus decreases in size; this process is called involution. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 736 TOP: Thymus 61. The spleen’s two functions are defense against foreign microorganisms and provision of a blood reservoir. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 739 TOP: Functions of the Spleen 62. Almost all of the interstitial fluid filtered out by the capillaries enters the lymphatic system. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 726 TOP: Overview of the Lymphatic System 63. A large amount of interstitial fluid that collects in the tissue and causes swelling is called edema. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 726 TOP: Overview of the Lymphatic SystemAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 64. When interstitial fluid enters a lymph vessel, it is called lymph. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 726 TOP: Overview of the Lymphatic System 65. Interstitial fluid fills the spaces between the cells. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 727 TOP: Lymph and Interstitial Fluid 66. The cisterna chyli is in the thoracic cavity just inferior to the left subclavian vein. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 728 TOP: Distribution of Lymphatic Vessels 67. The tunica media of lymph vessels is similar to that of veins except the lymph vessels have no smooth muscle. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 728 TOP: Structure of Lymphatic Vessels 68. The semilunar valves of the lymph vessels are formed from folds of the tunica intima. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 728 TOP: Structure of Lymphatic Vessels 69. The “beaded” appearance ofNlymRph vIessGels Bis.caCuseMd by bands of smooth muscle tissue surrounding the vessel. U S N T O ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 728 TOP: Structure of Lymphatic Vessels 70. The high degree of permeability of lymphatic capillaries allows particulate matter to enter the capillary. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 729 TOP: Functions of Lymphatic Vessels 71. Blood in veins and lymph in lymph vessels are moved by the same kinds of “pumps.” ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 730 TOP: Lymphatic Pump 72. Even though the lymphatic system has no single muscular pump like the heart, lymph flows at about the same speed as blood. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 731 TOP: Lymphatic Pump 73. The lymphatic system returns about 3 liters of lymph back to the blood each day by consistently returning about 125 ml per hour.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM B.C M ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 731 TOP: Lymphatic Pump 74. There are between 10 to 15 axillary lymph nodes. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 732 TOP: Locations of Lymph Nodes 75. One function of the lymph node is to slow down the flow of lymph so that microorganisms and particulate matter can be phagocytized. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 734 TOP: Functions of Lymph Nodes 76. The thymus gland is a primary organ of the lymphatic system with an epithelial framework structure similar to that of the spleen. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 737 TOP: Structure of the Thymus 77. The reason the red pulp of the spleen is red is that it contains a great deal of blood. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 737 TOP: Structure of the Spleen 78. Peyer patches are isolated nodules of lymphatic tissue in the intestinal wall. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 726 TOP: Overview of the LymphNaticRSystIem G U S N T O 79. The highest concentration of protein in the lymphatic system is found in the cisterna chyli. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 727 TOP: Lymph and Interstitial Fluid 80. About half the lymph that passes through the thoracic duct comes from the liver and the small intestine. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 727-728 TOP: Lymph and Interstitial Fluid 81. The terms lacteal and Peyer patches refer to the same structures in the intestines. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 728 TOP: Distribution of Lymphatic Vessels 82. The larger lymph vessels are made up of three layers of tissue, just as the veins and arteries are in the circulatory system. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 728 TOP: Structure of Lymphatic VesselsAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 83. Like most other structures in the body, lymph vessels have the capacity for repair or regeneration when damaged. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 728 TOP: Structure of Lymphatic Vessels 84. Lymph from the lips, nose, and teeth drains through the submental and submandibular lymph nodes. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 731 TOP: Structure of Lymph Nodes 85. Lymph nodes provide both biological and mechanical filtration. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 734 TOP: Functions of Lymph Nodes 86. The lymph with the highest concentration of protein is found in the right lymphatic duct. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 727 TOP: Lymph and Interstitial Fluid 87. Most of the protein in lymph comes from the small intestine and the liver. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 727-728 TOP: Lymph and Interstitial Fluid 88. The right lymphatic duct origNin aU tRe sS aIs theGN cistBT e. rCna chyMO li. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 728 TOP: Distribution of Lymphatic Vessels 89. Small aggregates on lymphatic tissue are found throughout the body, especially in connective and muscle tissue. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 734 TOP: Hematopoiesis 90. Palatine tonsils are called adenoids when they become swollen. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 736 TOP: Tonsils 91. The tubal tonsils are located near the base of the eustachian tubes. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 736 TOP: Tonsils 92. Although the thymus is at its largest size at puberty, its largest size relative to the rest of the body occurs at age 2. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 736Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM TOP: Thymus 93. There can be as many as three vessels that carry lymph back to the right subclavian vein. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 728 TOP: Distribution of Lymphatic Vessels 94. Lymph containing chyle is equally likely to be found in either the thoracic duct or the right lymphatic duct. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 728 TOP: Distribution of Lymphatic Vessels 95. Lymph nodes are made of lymphatic tissue while lymph glands are actually made of epithelial glandular tissue. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 731 TOP: Lymph Nodes 96. Sentinel lymph nodes can be used to determine whether breast cancer has spread. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 736 TOP: Lymph Nodes Associated with the Breast 97. The sets of tonsils that surround the throat form what is called the laryngeal lymphoid ring. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 736 TOP: Tonsils N URSINGTB.COM 98. There are four sets of tonsils: the lingual, palatine, pharyngeal, and tubal. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 736 TOP: Tonsils 99. Tonsils are in deep recesses called tonsillar crypts. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 736 TOP: Tonsils 100. Elderly people have only about 10% function in their thymus gland. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 737 TOP: Functions of the Thymus 101. The medullary tissue in the thymus is composed of large spherical structures called thymic corpuscles. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 737 TOP: Structure of the Thymus 102. The spleen is located in the right hypochondrium just below the diaphragm and above the kidney.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM U S N T O ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 737 TOP: Location of the Spleen MATCHING Match each body location with the corresponding group of lymph nodes. a. In the neck along the sternocleidomastoid muscle b. In the floor of the mouth c. In the groin d. Just above the bend of the elbow e. Clustered deep within the underarm and upper chest regions 1. Inguinal lymph nodes 2. Submaxillary group 3. Axillary lymph nodes 4. Superficial cervical lymph nodes 5. Superficial cubital lymph nodes 1. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 732 TOP: Locations of Lymph Nodes 2. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 732 TOP: Locations of Lymph Nodes 3. ANS: E DIF: Memorization REF: p. 732 TOP: Locations of Lymph Nodes 4. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 732 TOP: Locations of Lymph NoNdes R I G B.C M 5. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 732 TOP: Locations of Lymph Nodes Match each structure or organ of the lymphatic system with its corresponding function or description. a. Tonsils b. Spleen c. Lymph node d. Cisterna chyli e. Lymph f. Thoracic duct g. Thymus h. Right lymphatic duct i. Peyer patches j. Hassall corpuscles k. Interstitial fluid 6. Duct through which most of the lymph is returned to the blood 7. Small, oval-shaped or bean-shaped structures that can be as small as 1 mm 8. Isolated nodules of lymphatic tissue in the intestinal wall 9. Fluid that is filtered before being returned to the blood 10. Fluid that fills the spaces between cells 11. Duct that carries only about one fourth of the lymph back to the bloodAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM U S N T O 12. Structure that has functions that include hematopoiesis and destruction of red blood cells and platelets 13. Lymphoid tissue that forms a protective ring around the mouth and back of the throat 14. Structure that goes through involution as we age 15. Structure in the abdominal cavity that is the origin of the thoracic duct 16. Part of the structure of the thymus gland 6. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 728 TOP: Distribution of Lymphatic Vessels 7. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 731 TOP: 8. ANS: TOP: Structure of Lymph Nodes I DIF: Memorization Overview of the Lymphatic System REF: p. 726 9. ANS: TOP: E DIF: Memorization Lymph and Interstitial Fluid REF: p. 727 10. ANS: TOP: K DIF: Memorization Lymph and Interstitial Fluid REF: p. 727 11. ANS: TOP: H DIF: Memorization Distribution of Lymphatic Vessels REF: p. 728 12. ANS: TOP: B DIF: Memorization Functions of the Spleen REF: p. 739 13. ANS: TOP: A DIF: Memorization Tonsils REF: p. 736 14. ANS: TOP: G DIF: Memorization Location and Appearance of the Thymus REF: p. 736 15. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 728 TOP: Distribution of LymphatNic VResseIls G B.C M 16. ANS: J DIF: Memorization REF: p. 737 TOP: Structure of the Thymus OTHER 1. Compare and contrast the compositions of the following: Lymph Interstitial fluid Plasma ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 727 TOP: Lymph and Interstitial Fluid 2. Compare and contrast the structures of veins and lymphatics. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 728 TOP: Structure of Lymphatic VesselsAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 3. Discuss the potential physiological effect that could result if blood proteins that escaped from the capillaries remained in the interstitial fluids without being returned to the blood. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: pp. 726-727 TOP: Overview of the Lymphatic System 4. Compare and contrast mechanisms for the movement of lymph through lymphatic vessels with the movement of blood through veins. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: pp. 730-731 TOP: Lymphatic Pump 5. Discuss the role lymphatic vessels and nodes can play in handling the healing process when swelling and infection are present. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 729 | p. 734 TOP: Lymphatic Vessels, Lymph Nodes 6. Why is having an understanding of the lymphatic drainage of the breast important in formulating the diagnosis and treatment of breast cancer? NURSINGTB.COM ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: pp. 734-736 TOP: Lymphatic Drainage of the Breast 7. What is the clinical significance of the anastomoses that occur between superficial lymphatics from both breasts across the middle line? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: p. 735 TOP: Lymphatic Anastomoses and Breast Cancer (Box 31-4) 8. Describe the important functions performed by the thymus. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: p. 737 TOP: Thymus 9. Identify each of the lymphatic organs, and give a generated function for each. ANS:Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: pp. 726-727 TOP: Overview of the Lymphatic System 10. Describe the structure of a lymph node, and explain what happens when lymph passes through it. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 731 | p. 734 TOP: Structure of Lymph Nodes | Functions of Lymph Nodes 11. Name and give the location of the major clusters of lymph nodes in the body. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 732 TOP: Locations of Lymph Nodes 12. Name and describe the two main lymphatic ducts of the body. What area of the body is drained by each? What is the cisterna chyli? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 728 TOP: Distribution of LymphatNicUVResSseIlsNGTB.COM ESSAY 1. Baby Ruth was born without a thymus gland. Immediate plans were made to perform a transplant. In the meantime, Baby Ruth was placed in strict isolation. Even her parents were not allowed to touch her. Why was she placed in the isolation unit? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 737 TOP: Thymus 2. Michael, a 43-year-old man, was in a serious car accident. He has a rigid and tender left hypochondriac region. His blood pressure is dropping, and he is in pain. What organ might be involved in this injury, and if it is involved, what treatment would be necessary? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: pp. 737-739 TOP: SpleenAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM Chapter 32: Innate Immunity Patton: Anatomy and Physiology, 10th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. All of the following represent examples of nonspecific immunity except: a. species resistance. b. phagocytosis. c. cell-mediated immunity. d. mechanical and chemical barriers. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 747 TOP: Organization of the Immune System 2. The body’s first line(s) of defense is(are) the: a. skin. b. mucous membranes. c. inflammatory response. d. Both A and B are correct. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 749 TOP: Mechanical and Chemical Barriers 3. Inflammation mediators include: a. histamine. b. kinins. c. prostaglandins. d. all of the above. NURSINGTB.COM ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 750 TOP: Inflammation 4. The most numerous type of phagocyte is the: a. neutrophil. b. histocyte. c. microglia. d. Kupffer cell. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 752 TOP: Phagocytosis 5. The type of immune mechanism that provides a general defense by acting against anything recognized as “not self” is called: a. nonspecific immunity. b. specific immunity. c. autoimmune. d. none of the above. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 747 TOP: Organization of the Immune SystemAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 6. All of the following are major types of interferon except interferon. a. cartilage b. leukocyte c. immune d. fibroblast ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 755 TOP: Interferon 7. Which of the following does not describe phagocytosis? a. The ingestion and destruction of microorganisms or other small particles b. Part of the inflammatory response c. A major component of the body’s third line of defense d. A nonspecific defense ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 752 TOP: Phagocytosis 8. Interferon inhibits the spread of: a. viruses. b. bacteria. c. cancer. d. yeast. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 755 TOP: Interferon 9. Which type of cells is not inv NolvRed iIn noGnspBec.ifCic imMmunity? a. Monocytes b. Lymphocytes c. Neutrophils d. Macrophages U S N T O ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 747 TOP: Organization of the Immune System 10. Which of the following is not a chemical used as a chemical barrier to pathogens? a. Hydrochloric acid b. Sebum c. Complement d. Hydrolyzing enzymes ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 749 TOP: Mechanical and Chemical Barriers 11. Which of the following is not a characteristic of inflammation? a. Heat b. Redness c. Swelling d. All of the above are characteristics of inflammation. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 750 TOP: The Inflammatory ResponseAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM N R I G 12. The ability of our immune system to attack abnormal or foreign cells but spare our own normal cells is called: a. innate immunity. b. nonspecific immunity. c. self-tolerance. d. adaptive immunity. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 747 TOP: Organization of the Immune System 13. Adaptive immunity is also called immunity. a. innate b. specific c. nonspecific d. species ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 747 TOP: Organization of the Immune System 14. Which substance produced by the skin contains pathogen-inhibiting agents? a. Hydrochloric acid b. Mucus c. Enzymes d. Sebum ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 749 TOP: Mechanical and Chemical Barriers B.C M U S N T O 15. Which substance can destroy pathogens by chemically hydrolyzing them? a. Hydrochloric acid b. Mucus c. Enzymes d. Sebum ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 749 TOP: Mechanical and Chemical Barriers 16. Which substance can destroy pathogens by lowering the pH to a level at which they cannot function? a. Hydrochloric acid b. Mucus c. Enzymes d. Sebum ANS: A DIF: Application REF: p. 749 TOP: Mechanical and Chemical Barriers 17. Which of the following is not part of the inflammation response? a. The release of chemicals that attract white blood cells b. The formation of antibodies c. The increase of blood flow to the inflamed areaAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM N R I G B.C d. All of the above are part of the inflammation response. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 750 TOP: The Inflammatory Response 18. Which of the following is not part of the inflammation response? a. The release of histamine b. The increase in vascular permeability c. The stimulation of fibroblast growth d. All of the above are part of the inflammation response. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 750 TOP: The Inflammatory Response 19. Which is the best explanation of how a white blood cell ingests and destroys a microorganism? a. The white blood cell engulfs the microorganism and then lysosomal enzymes destroy it. b. The white blood cell allows the microorganism to be absorbed by osmosis and then lysosomal enzymes destroy it. c. The white blood cell engulfs the microorganisms and chemotaxis destroys it. d. The white blood cell allows the microorganism to be absorbed by osmosis and then diapedesis destroys it. ANS: A DIF: Application REF: p. 752 TOP: Phagocytosis 20. Which is the best explanation of how complement—a group of about 20 inactive enzymes in the plasma and on cell surfaces—is activated and produces cytolysis? a. Complement is “turned on”UbyStheNpreTsence oOf bacteria. b. Complement is activated by antibodies to “drill a hole” into foreign cells, thus causing cytolysis. c. Complement causes vasoconstriction and inhibits phagocytosis. d. Both A and B are correct. ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 755 TOP: Complement 21. Two-year-old Jenny is undergoing treatment for leukemia and was exposed recently to chickenpox. Her oncologist decided to give her a dose of interferon. What effect was the physician hoping for with this approach? a. It would stop the virus from traveling over the sensory nerve of a single dermatome. b. It would cause an increase in white blood cells. c. It would inhibit the chickenpox infection from developing. d. It would assist in the development of lymphocytes in the spleen. ANS: C DIF: Application REF: p. 755 TOP: Interferon TRUE/FALSE 1. Cytokines include leukotrienes, interferons, and histamine. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 747Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM TOP: Organization of the Immune System 2. Diapedesis is the process by which microbes are marked for destruction by phagocytic cells. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 752 TOP: Phagocytosis 3. Phagocytosis is a nonspecific defense mechanism. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 749 TOP: Innate Immunity 4. Many of the inflammation mediators act as chemotactic factors. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 750 TOP: The Inflammatory Response 5. The inflammatory response is the body’s first line of defense. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 750 TOP: The Inflammatory Response 6. Neutrophils function in the immune system by producing immunoglobulins. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 752 TOP: Phagocytosis 7. Diapedesis is the process by which neutrophils migrate out of the bloodstream and around the tissue cells to the injury site.N URSINGTB.COM ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 752 TOP: Phagocytosis 8. Natural killer cells are a group of neutrophils that kill many types of tumor cells and cells infected by different kinds of viruses. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 753 TOP: Natural Killer Cells 9. Interferon mainly interferes with the ability of bacteria to produce disease. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 755 TOP: Interferon 10. Phagocytosis is the “first line of defense” in nonspecific immunity. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 752 TOP: Phagocytosis 11. Natural killer cells are 15% of the total lymphocyte cell number. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 753 TOP: Natural Killer CellsAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM U S N T O 12. The most numerous type of phagocyte is the macrophage. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 752 TOP: Phagocytosis 13. A macrophage can migrate out of the bloodstream. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 752 TOP: Phagocytosis 14. Macrophages are a group of lymphocytes that kill many types of tumor cells and cells infected by different kinds of viruses. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 753 TOP: Natural Killer Cells 15. The specific immune system has a more rapid response than the nonspecific immune system. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 747 TOP: Organization of the Immune System 16. Tobacco mosaic virus can destroy tobacco plants. It has no effect on humans. This is an example of species resistance. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 749 TOP: Species Resistance 17. One reason for species resistNanceRis tIhe dGiffeBre.nCce iMn molecules on the cell membrane of different species. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 749 TOP: Species Resistance 18. A chemotactic factor attracts antibodies to the site of infection. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 750 TOP: The Inflammatory Response 19. The characteristic signs of inflammation are the results of increased blood flow and increased vascular permeability. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 750 TOP: The Inflammatory Response 20. In phagocytosis, a footlike projection, called a phagosome, extends toward a microorganism. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 752 TOP: Phagocytosis 21. Digestive enzymes and hydrogen peroxide are added to a phagosome to digest the phagocytized microorganism. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 752Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM TOP: Phagocytosis 22. Most of the pus surrounding an inflammation site consists of dead or damaged tissue cells. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 752 TOP: Phagocytosis 23. Natural killer cells are lymphocytes that are actually part of nonspecific immunity. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 753 TOP: Natural Killer Cells 24. A person’s natural killer cells usually kill cells of their own body. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 753 TOP: Natural Killer Cells 25. Complement can be activated only by the specific immune system. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 755 TOP: Complement 26. The ability of our immune system to attack abnormal or foreign cells but spare our own normal cells is called innate immunity. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 747 TOP: Organization of the Immune System 27. Cytokines are chemicals releNasedRfroIm cGellsBto.tCriggMer or regulate both innate and adaptive immune responses. U S N T O ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 747 TOP: Organization of the Immune System 28. There are almost 100 billion lymphocytes in the body’s immune system. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 747 TOP: Organization of the Immune System 29. Species resistance refers to a phenomenon in which the genetic characteristics common to a species provide defense against certain pathogens. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 749 TOP: Species Resistance 30. The role of fibroblasts in the inflammation response is to lay down a collagen web to try to isolate the infecting organism. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 750 TOP: The Inflammatory Response 31. When pseudopods form a phagocyte, completely surrounding an organism and forming a sac around it, the structure formed is called a phagosome.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 752 TOP: Phagocytosis 32. One function of phagocytes is to function as antigen-presenting cells. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 752 TOP: Phagocytosis 33. The body identifies normal body cells by way of the unique major histocompatibility complex displayed by the cell as a surface protein. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 754 TOP: Natural Killer Cells 34. The membrane attack complex is used by macrophages to mark bacteria for phagocytosis and antibody attack. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 756 TOP: Complement 35. An autoimmune disease would indicate a problem with development of self-tolerance in the immune system. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 747 TOP: Organization of the Immune System 36. Parts of the first line of immuNn eU defenRIS seaGN reinB.T tChe iMO ntegumentary system. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 749 TOP: Mechanical and Chemical Barriers 37. Pyrogens are produced only by body cells that have been infected by a virus. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 750 TOP: Fever 38. Fever is always detrimental to the body and should be lowered as soon as possible. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 752 TOP: Fever 39. Aspirin is effective in lowering fever because it inhibits the growth of the disease-causing organisms. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 750 TOP: Fever 40. Toll-like receptors help facilitate the overall innate immune response. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 756 TOP: Toll-Like ReceptorsAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 41. The toll-like receptors on the cell membrane can be seen as a midpoint between specific and nonspecific immunity. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 756 TOP: Toll-Like Receptors 42. Mechanical and chemical barriers can be called the body’s first line of defense. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 749 TOP: Mechanical and Chemical Barriers 43. The epithelial barriers in the body are part of the innate, nonspecific defenses of the body and do not play a role in the specific immune system. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 749 TOP: Mechanical and Chemical Barriers 44. Heat, redness, swelling, and pain are characteristic signs of inflammation. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 750 TOP: The Inflammatory Response 45. T lymphocytes release histamine, kinins, and prostaglandins at the site of an infection. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 750 TOP: The Inflammatory Response 46. A fever is a reset of the bodyN’s theRU rmostatIGSN T. B.COM ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 750 TOP: Fever 47. One function of prostaglandins it to reduce fever caused by bacterial infection. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 750 TOP: Fever 48. Pavementing is the attraction of neutrophils to the site of an infection. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 752 TOP: Phagocytosis 49. About 10% to 15% of all cells in any organ are phagocytes. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 753 TOP: Phagocytosis 50. Apoptosis is a programmed cell death used by natural killer cells. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 754 TOP: Natural Killer CellsAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 51. Interferon production is stimulated by the presence of double-stranded DNA in a cell. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 755 TOP: Interferon 52. There are three types of interferon: leukocyte, fibroblast, and immune. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 755 TOP: Interferon 53. Interferon can act like a paracrine hormone that allows infected cells to send an alarm to other nearby cells. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 755 TOP: Interferon 54. Complement is a group of about 8 different inactive enzymes circulating in the plasma. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 755 TOP: Complement 55. To prevent accidental harm to the body, complement can be activated only by antibodies. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 755 TOP: Complement MATCHING NURSINGTB.COM Match each term with its corresponding definition. a. Phagocytosis b. Macrophage c. Nonspecific immunity d. Interferon 1. Ingestion and destruction of microorganisms or other small particles 2. Mechanisms that resist a variety of threatening agents or conditions 3. Protein produced by the immune system to interfere with the ability of viruses to cause disease 4. Phagocytic monocyte (nongranular WBC) in the immune system 1. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 752 TOP: Phagocytosis 2. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 747 TOP: Organization of the Immune System 3. ANS: D TOP: Interferon DIF: Memorization REF: p. 755 4. ANS: B TOP: Phagocytosis DIF: Memorization REF: p. 752 OTHERAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM REF: pp. 753-754 1. Explain how a white blood cell ingests and destroys a microorganism. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: p. 752 TOP: Phagocytosis 2. Explain the inflammatory response; include the chemicals released and the characteristic signs. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 750 TOP: The Inflammatory Response 3. Name and describe the mechanical and chemical barriers of the nonspecific immune system. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 749 TOP: Mechanical and Chemical Barriers 4. What is a natural killer cell? Explain the functioning of a natural killer cell. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization N URSINGTB.COM TOP: Natural Killer Cells 5. Explain how fever develops. How do various medicines like aspirin treat fever? What possible advantage does fever give the body? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: pp. 750-752 TOP: Fever 6. Explain the role of toll-like receptors in the nonspecific immune system. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 756 TOP: Toll-Like Receptors 7. The agent that causes tuberculosis is surrounded by a waxy layer that prevents water-soluble proteins from penetrating it. It is known that cells in the immune system have a very difficult time killing these agents through phagocytosis. Explain why this is true. ANS: Answers will vary.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 752 TOP: Phagocytosis ESSAY 1. Two-year-old Jenny was exposed to chickenpox. She was already undergoing treatment for leukemia. Her oncologist decided to give her a dose of interferon. What effect was the physician hoping for with this approach? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 755 TOP: Interferon NURSINGTB.COMAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM Chapter 33: Adaptive Immunity Patton: Anatomy and Physiology, 10th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. B cell mechanisms are classified as immunity. a. nonspecific b. antibody-mediated c. cell-mediated d. Both A and B are correct. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 760 TOP: Overview of Adaptive Immunity 2. Macromolecules that induce the immune system to make certain responses are called: a. antigens. b. plasma proteins. c. antibodies. d. prostaglandins. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 761 TOP: The Language of Adaptive Immunity (Box 33-1) 3. Memory cells: a. immediately secrete antibodies when they are formed. b. are supporting cells and are not related to antibody production. c. are a special type of T ceNll.URSINGTB.COM d. become plasma cells when exposed to an antigen. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 763 TOP: B Cells and Antibody-Mediated Immunity 4. The constant region of the light chain in an antibody consists of amino acids. a. 50 b. 77 c. 106 d. 168 ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 763 TOP: Antibodies (Immunoglobulins) 5. An immunoglobulin, or antibody molecule, consists of heavy and light polypeptide chains. a. two; two b. four; two c. two; four d. four; four ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 763 TOP: Antibodies (Immunoglobulins)Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 6. The antibody normally constituting the highest percentage of antibodies in the blood is: a. IgE. b. IgG. c. IgM. d. IgA. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 764 TOP: Classes of Antibodies 7. The antibody produced after initial contact with an antigen is: a. IgE. b. IgG. c. IgM. d. IgA. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 764 TOP: Classes of Antibodies 8. The antibody commonly found in tears and saliva is: a. IgE. b. IgD. c. IgM. d. IgA. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 764 TOP: Classes of Antibodies 9. The function of which antibo dyN isR ba IsicaGllyBun.kCnowMn? a. IgE b. IgD c. IgM d. IgA U S N T O ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 764 TOP: Classes of Antibodies 10. The antibody associated with allergic reaction is: a. IgE. b. IgG. c. IgM. d. IgA. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 764 TOP: Classes of Antibodies 11. The major class of antibody present in the mucous membranes of the body is: a. IgG. b. IgE. c. IgA. d. IgD. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 764 TOP: Classes of AntibodiesAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 12. The predominant antibody of a secondary response is: a. IgE. b. IgG. c. IgM. d. IgA. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 764 TOP: Classes of Antibodies 13. The most abundant circulating antibody, the one that normally makes up about 75% of all the antibodies in the blood, is: a. IgG. b. IgA. c. IgE. d. IgM. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 764 TOP: Classes of Antibodies 14. Complement can best be described as a(n): a. enzyme in blood. b. lymphokine. c. antibody. d. hormone. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 765 TOP: Complement NURSINGTB.COM 15. The complement system can be activated by: a. the binding of complement protein 1 to the complement-binding site on the antibody molecule. b. the binding of complement protein 3 to bacteria or viruses in the presence of properdin. c. nonspecific immune mechanisms. d. all of the above. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 765 TOP: Complement 16. According to the clonal selection theory, antigens select lymphocyte clones by: a. the chemicals secreted by the lymphocytes. b. the proximity of the lymphocytes to the antigens. c. the shape of receptors on the lymphocyte’s plasma membrane. d. producing toxins. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 766 TOP: Clonal Selection Theory 17. Which of the following can activate complement? a. T cells b. InterferonAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM c. Properdin d. Lymphokine ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 766 TOP: Complement 18. Which of the following is true of lymphokines? a. They are produced by B cells. b. They inhibit macrophage activity. c. Lymphotoxin is an example of a lymphokine. d. They are produced by helper T cells. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 769 TOP: Activation and Functions of T Cells 19. Specific immunity is controlled by two classes of lymphocytes called: a. antigens and antibodies. b. T cells and B cells. c. red blood cells and white blood cells. d. agglutinogens and agglutinins. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 760 TOP: Overview of Adaptive Immunity 20. Which of the following can activate, or turn on, an inactive B cell? a. Binding to its specific antibody b. Binding to its specific antigen c. Helper T cell N R I G B.C M d. All B cells are activated whUenSan iNnfanTt is borOn. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 763 TOP: Development and Activation of B Cells 21. The part of the antibody that combines with the antigen is the: a. variable region. b. constant region. c. carbohydrate chain. d. complement-binding site. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 763 TOP: Antibodies (Immunoglobulins) 22. The chemical messengers that T cells release into inflamed tissues are called: a. pathogens. b. lymphokines. c. lymphotoxins. d. suppressor cells. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 769 TOP: Activation and Functions of T Cells 23. The type of immunity produced by vaccination would be immunity. a. active naturalAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM b. passive natural c. active artificial d. passive artificial ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 764 TOP: Types of Adaptive Immunity 24. When a child develops measles and acquires immunity to a subsequent infection, this type of immunity is called immunity. a. acquired b. natural c. active d. All of the above are correct. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 771 TOP: Types of Adaptive Immunity 25. Examples of lymphocytes are: a. B cells. b. T cells. c. both A and B. d. none of the above. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 760 TOP: Overview of Adaptive Immunity 26. Macrophages sensitize: a. T cells. b. B cells. c. T cells and B cells. d. none of the above. NURSINGTB.COM ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 769 TOP: Activation and Functions of T Cells 27. Which antibody has 10 antigen-binding sites? a. IgM b. IgA c. IgD d. IgG ANS: A DIF: Application REF: p. 764 TOP: Classes of Antibodies 28. Which antibody has four antigen-binding sites? a. IgM b. IgA c. IgD d. IgG ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 764 TOP: Classes of Antibodies 29. Which antibody has two antigen-binding sites? a. IgMAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM b. IgA c. IgG d. Both A and B ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 764 TOP: Classes of Antibodies 30. Which of the following is not caused by complement protein activity? a. Vasodilation b. Agglutination of antigens c. Cytolysis d. All of the above are caused by complement protein activity. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 766 TOP: Complement 31. When an antigen attaches to a naïve B cell, it becomes a(n) cell. a. memory b. plasma c. effector B d. All of the above are correct. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 763 TOP: Development and Activation of B Cells 32. In the first stage of their development, B cells are known by all the following terms except B cells. a. effector b. naïve c. inactive d. virgin NURSINGTB.COM ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 763 TOP: Development and Activation of B Cells 33. If a blood test indicated that a person had a high level of IgM antibodies in the blood, it could be concluded that: a. the person’s body is responding to a reexposure to an antigen. b. the person’s body is responding to the initial exposure to an antigen. c. the person has an increasing likelihood that he will become allergic to an antigen. d. no conclusions could be made. ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 764 TOP: Classes of Antibodies 34. Systemic lupus erythematosus is an example of a(n): a. B cell–mediated condition. b. T cell–mediated condition. c. autoimmune condition that is caused by self-antigens being attacked. d. isoimmune condition that is caused by self-antigens being attacked. ANS: C DIF: Application REF: p. 775 TOP: Mechanisms of DiseaseAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM ANS: A U S N T O 35. When a patient starts to have rejection problems with a transplanted organ, the problems are usually caused by: a. a B cell–mediated condition. b. human leukocyte antigens (HALs). c. self-antigens. d. severe combined immune deficiency (SCID). ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 776 TOP: Mechanisms of Disease 36. The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) damages the immune system by cells. a. invading memory b. invading T c. overproduction of B d. overproduction of plasma ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 777 TOP: Mechanisms of Disease 37. Why is it difficult to predict the total number of acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) cases that will result from known HIV-infected patients? a. After a person is infected, the signs of AIDS infection might not be apparent for years. b. The current treatment of highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART) alters the infected cells. c. Infected cells begin to change only after azidothymidine (AZT) treatment is started. d. So many people have received the vaccine that there is no way to count who actually has the infection. N R I G B.C M DIF: Application REF: p. 777 TOP: Mechanisms of Disease 38. Which is the best explanation of how immune suppression can be helpful in preventing transplant rejection? a. The immune system sometimes reacts against foreign antigens in the grafted tissue, causing what is often called a rejection syndrome. Immune suppression drugs reduce the immune system’s ability to attack the foreign antigens in the donated tissue. b. Because rejection is caused by an inappropriate and excessive response to self-antigens, giving immune suppression drugs would reduce this effect. c. Rejection involves antigen-antibody reactions, mainly IgE triggered by repeated exposure to an allergen, so immune-suppression drugs would reduce the reaction to the allergen, which in this case is the transplanted organ. d. Delayed allergic response occurs with transplanted organs, so immune-suppressive drugs would reduce the allergic response and decrease rejection. ANS: A DIF: Application REF: p. 775 TOP: Mechanisms of Disease 39. Chris has very bad allergies, especially in the springtime, and is seeking help to overcome her allergic reactions. Why would an antihistamine help Chris be more comfortable? a. It would counter the effects of the self-antigen reaction. b. It would replace the allergen with a different chemical and thus reduce her symptoms.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM U S N T O c. It would reduce the antigen-antibody reactions caused by the allergen. d. It would reduce the amount of human leukocyte antigen in her system. ANS: C DIF: Application REF: p. 775 TOP: Mechanisms of Disease 40. Steven had mumps as a child. Why did he not experience symptoms at the age of 41 after he was again exposed to the mumps virus? a. He had an injection with weakened virus shortly before he was exposed. b. He had natural passive immunity to ward off the virus. c. He had artificial passive immunity that he received from his brother after he had the mumps. d. He developed active immunity as the result of having mumps as a child. ANS: D DIF: Application REF: p. 771 TOP: Types of Adaptive Immunity TRUE/FALSE 1. T cell immune mechanisms are classified as antibody-mediated immunity. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 760 TOP: Overview of Adaptive Immunity 2. To function independently in the immune process, both B cells and T cells must become thymocytes during development. ANS: F DIF: Synthesis REF: pp. 762-763 | p. 768 TOP: B Cells and Antibody-Mediated Immunity, T Cells and Cell-Mediated Immunity N R I G B.C M 3. Antigens are macromolecules that induce the immune system to take certain actions. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 761 TOP: The Language of Adaptive Immunity (Box 33-1) 4. Most antigens are large protein molecules foreign to the body. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 761 TOP: The Language of Adaptive Immunity (Box 33-1) 5. The combining site on an antibody determines the specificity of that antibody for an antigen. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 761 TOP: The Language of Adaptive Immunity (Box 33-1) 6. All antigens have epitopes of the same shape. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 761 TOP: The Language of Adaptive Immunity (Box 33-1) 7. Another name for antigenic determinants is epitopes. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 761 TOP: The Language of Adaptive Immunity (Box 33-1)Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 8. Inactive B cells produce antibodies that insert on their plasma membranes to serve as antigen receptors. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 763 TOP: Development and Activation of B Cells 9. The second stage of B cell development usually takes place in the lymph nodes and spleen. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 763 TOP: Development and Activation of B Cells 10. The heavy chains in an immunoglobulin molecule are about twice as long and weigh about twice as much as light chains. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 763 TOP: Antibodies (Immunoglobulins) 11. The cloning of T cells produces both memory cells and plasma cells. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 768 TOP: Activation and Functions of T Cells 12. All of the cells in a clone of plasma cells produce identical antibodies. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 763 TOP: Development and Activation of B Cells 13. An antigen consists of two he NRUSavyan Id NtwGoTliBgh.tCpoOlyMpeptide chains. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 763 TOP: Antibodies (Immunoglobulins) 14. Each light chain in an antibody molecule contains a constant region that consists of 446 amino acids. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 763 TOP: Antibodies (Immunoglobulins) 15. An antibody has one antigen-binding site. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 763 TOP: Antibodies (Immunoglobulins) 16. The somatic recombination hypothesis is one possible explanation for the diversity of antibodies. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 764 TOP: Diversity of Antibodies 17. Humoral immunity occurs within the plasma.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 764 NURSINGTB.COM TOP: Functions of Antibodies 18. When antibodies cause antigens to agglutinate, it allows them to be disposed of by phagocytes more easily. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 764 TOP: Functions of Antibodies 19. Haptens are sometimes called incomplete antigens. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 761 TOP: Language of Adaptive Immunity (Box 33-1) 20. Contact points between immune cells are sometimes called immunological synapses. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 769 TOP: Immunological Synapses (Box 33-3) 21. T cells, by definition, are lymphocytes that have passed through the thyroid gland. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 768 TOP: T Cells and Cell-Mediated Immunity 22. The fetal liver may act as the site for the first stage of T cell development. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 760 TOP: Overview of Adaptive ImNmuRnityI G B.C M U S N T O 23. Unlike B cells, T cells do not display antigen receptors on their surface membranes. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 768 TOP: Activation and Functions of T Cells 24. The surface membranes of cancer cells are thought to have abnormal antigens. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 771 TOP: Immunity and Cancer (Box 33-4) 25. Suppressor T cells function by inhibiting T cell formation. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 770 TOP: Activation and Functions of T Cells 26. Suppressor T cells help B cells differentiate into antibody-secreting plasma cells by secreting cytokines such as interleukin-2 and interleukin-4. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 770 TOP: Activation and Functions of T Cells 27. Inherited immunity and acquired immunity are forms of specific immunity.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 771 TOP: Types of Adaptive Immunity 28. Passive immunity generally lasts longer than active immunity. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 771 TOP: Types of Adaptive Immunity 29. The immune mechanism that provides a defense by acting against cancer is termed nonspecific immunity. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 771 TOP: Immunity and Cancer (Box 33-4) 30. Cell-mediated immunity involves T cells. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 760 TOP: Overview of Adaptive Immunity 31. CD4 and CD8 T cell subsets are clinically important in diagnosing AIDS. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 760 TOP: Overview of Adaptive Immunity 32. An antibody consists of two heavy and one light polypeptide chains. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 763 TOP: Antibodies (ImmunogloNbulinRs) I G B.C M U S N T O 33. T cells secrete antibodies. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 764 TOP: Development and Activation of B Cells 34. IgM is the most predominant class of immunoglobulins in the body. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 769 TOP: Classes of Antibodies 35. The chemical messengers that T cells release into inflamed tissues are called lymphotoxins. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 769 TOP: Activation and Functions of T Cells 36. Plasma cells can secrete as many as 2000 antibodies per minute. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 763 TOP: Development and Activation of B Cells 37. IgD is the most understood antibody. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 764 TOP: Classes of AntibodiesAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 38. The first vaccination provided immunity against the chickenpox virus. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 767 TOP: Immunization (Box 33-2) 39. Both B and T lymphocytes develop from hematopoietic stem cells. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 760 TOP: Overview of Adaptive Immunity 40. Even though tumor cells are part of your body, your immune system treats them as “foreign” and tries to destroy them. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 770 TOP: Activation and Functions of T Cells 41. In humans, bursa equivalent tissue is the site for B-cell development. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 762 TOP: Development and Activation of B Cells 42. Once released from the bone marrow, the B cells migrate to the bursa of Fabricius to complete their development. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 762 TOP: Development and Activation of B Cells 43. Antigens activate B cells. NURSINGTB.COM ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 763 TOP: Development and Activation of B Cells 44. Plasma cells must be in a constant state of protein synthesis to accomplish their function. ANS: T DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 763 TOP: B Cells and Antibody-Mediated Immunity, Development and Activation of B Cells 45. In an antibody the light chain makes up the variable region and the heavy chain makes up the constant region. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 764 TOP: Structure of the Antibody Molecule 46. Because of the random nature of antibody protein synthesis, it is possible to have an “anti-self” B cell. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 764 TOP: Diversity of Antibodies 47. Interleukins are cytokinins.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 769 TOP: Activation and Functions of T Cells 48. Passive immunity provides more rapid protection than does active immunity. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 771 TOP: Types of Adaptive Immunity 49. B cells are named after a structure in birds. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 762 TOP: Development and Activation of B Cells 50. An activated B cell can give rise to both plasma cells and memory cells. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 763 TOP: Development and Activation of B Cells 51. T cells react mainly to antigens that are dissolved in plasma. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 768 TOP: Activation and Functions of T Cells 52. One of the antigen-specific sites on the antibody is used to activate the complement cascade in the blood. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 764-765 TOP: Functions of AntibodiesN, CoRmple ImeGnt B.C M U S N T O 53. Memory cells do not actually produce antibodies. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 763 TOP: Development and Activation of B Cells 54. Antibody molecules can have as many as eight antigen-binding sites. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 764 TOP: Classes of Antibodies 55. An antibody molecule must have at least two antigen-binding sites. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 764 TOP: Classes of Antibodies 56. If a person had a severe shortage of antigen-presenting cells, it would have the greatest impact on the humoral or antibody-forming specific immune system. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 768 TOP: Activation and Functions of T Cells 57. A person with a nonfunctioning immune system could still benefit from both natural and artificial passive immunity. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 771 TOP: Types of Adaptive ImmunityAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 58. A mother passing antibodies to the fetus is an example of natural passive immunity. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 771 TOP: Types of Adaptive Immunity 59. A person without a functioning immune system would not benefit from an injection of antibodies developed by someone else. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 771 TOP: Types of Adaptive Immunity 60. B cells play an important role in humoral immunity. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 760 TOP: Overview of Adaptive Immunity 61. Adaptive immunity requires two signals: antigen and chemical. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 760 TOP: Overview of Adaptive Immunity 62. The letters “CD” following a T cell stand for “cellular diversity.” ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 760 TOP: Overview of Adaptive Immunity MATCHING NURSINGTB.COM Match each term with its corresponding definition. a. Specific immunity b. Antibody c. B cell d. Antigen e. T cell 1. Lymphocyte that attacks pathogens directly 2. Mechanisms that provide specific protection against types of bacteria or toxins 3. Macromolecule that induces the immune system to produce antibodies 4. Substance produced by the body that destroys or inactivates a specific antigen 5. Lymphocyte that produces antibodies that attack pathogens or direct other cells to attack them 1. ANS: E DIF: Memorization REF: p. 760 TOP: Overview of Adaptive Immunity 2. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 760 TOP: Overview of Adaptive Immunity 3. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 761 TOP: The Language of Adaptive Immunity (Box 33-1) 4. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 760 TOP: Overview of Adaptive Immunity 5. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 760 TOP: Overview of Adaptive ImmunityAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM NURSINGTB.C M O Match each antibody class with its description, function, or location. a. IgG b. IgM c. IgD d. IgE e. IgA 6. Antibody that is found in tears and saliva 7. The predominant class of antibody produced after initial contact with an antigen 8. Antibody that is associated with allergies 9. Antibody whose precise function is not yet known 10. Predominant class of antibody produced in the secondary response to an antigen 6. ANS: TOP: E Classes of DIF: Memorization Antibodies REF: p. 764 7. ANS: TOP: B Classes of DIF: Memorization Antibodies REF: p. 764 8. ANS: TOP: D Classes of DIF: Memorization Antibodies REF: p. 764 9. ANS: TOP: C Classes of DIF: Memorization Antibodies REF: p. 764 10. ANS: TOP: A Classes of DIF: Memorization Antibodies REF: p. 764 Match each type of specific immunity with its description or example. a. Natural active immunity b. Natural passive immunity c. Artificial active immunity d. Artificial passive immunity 11. A person gets a flu shot to keep from getting the flu 12. A person has had the mumps and is protected from getting them again 13. A mother passes antibodies to her baby 14. After exposure to hepatitis A, a person is given a gamma globulin (IgG) shot to keep him from getting hepatitis 11. ANS: TOP: C Types of DIF: Memorization Adaptive Immunity REF: p. 764 12. ANS: TOP: A Types of DIF: Memorization Adaptive Immunity REF: p. 764 13. ANS: TOP: B Types of DIF: Memorization Adaptive Immunity REF: p. 764 14. ANS: TOP: D Types of DIF: Memorization Adaptive Immunity REF: p. 764 OTHERAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 1. Antibody molecules may agglutinate antigens that are on the surface of microorganisms. Explain how agglutination can help promote the destruction of microorganisms such as bacteria. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: pp. 764-765 TOP: Functions of Antibodies 2. Explain how complement is activated and can produce cytolysis in the process of humoral immunity. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: pp. 765-766 TOP: Functions of Antibodies 3. Explain the apparent basis for autoimmune diseases. Give two examples of such diseases. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: p. 775 TOP: Mechanisms of Disease 4. Explain how the AIDS virus seems to affect the immune system. ANS: Answers will vary. NURSINGTB.COM DIF: Application REF: p. 776 TOP: Mechanisms of Disease 5. Why is it difficult to predict the total number of AIDS cases? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 776 TOP: Mechanisms of Disease 6. Describe the structure of an antibody molecule. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 763-764 TOP: Structure of the Antibody Molecule 7. Name the classes of antibodies, and give the function of each. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 764 TOP: Classes of AntibodiesAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 8. Describe the development and activation of B cells. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 762-763 TOP: Development and Activation of B Cells 9. Describe the development, activation, and functions of T cells. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 768-771 TOP: Development of T Cells Activation and Functions of T Cells 10. Compare and contrast the development of B cells and T cells. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: pp. 762-763 | p. 768 TOP: Development and Activation of B Cells, Development of T Cells 11. Name and explain the role of regulating cells in the immune system. ANS: Answers will vary. NURSINGTB.COM DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 768-771 TOP: Activation and Functions of T Cells 12. Explain the terms natural immunity, artificial immunity, active immunity, and passive immunity. Give an example of natural passive immunity. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: p. 771 TOP: Types of Adaptive Immunity 13. If a person had a nonfunctioning immune system, what types of adaptive immunity (artificial, natural, active, and passive) could be beneficial and which would not be beneficial or even harmful? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: p. 771 TOP: Types of Adaptive Immunity ESSAYAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 1. Chris has very bad allergic reactions, especially in the springtime. He decided to seek medical help to overcome these reactions. A physician explained that Chris needed an antihistamine to limit the allergic symptoms. Explain why an antihistamine will help Chris be more comfortable while he is experiencing spring hay fever. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 775 TOP: Mechanisms of Disease 2. Steven had mumps as a child. At age 41 he was again exposed to the mumps virus; however, he did not experience any symptoms of the mumps. Explain why. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 767 TOP: Immunization NURSINGTB.COMAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM Chapter 34: Stress Patton: Anatomy and Physiology, 10th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following is not characteristic of the Selye stress syndrome? a. Adrenal atrophy b. Shrinkage of the thymus c. Bleeding gastrointestinal ulcers d. Shrinkage of lymphatic organs ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 783 TOP: Development of the Stress Concept 2. Increased is characteristic of the alarm stage of stress. a. lymphocytes b. glucocorticoids c. parasympathetic activity d. eosinophils ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 785 TOP: General Adaptation Syndrome 3. Which of the following is the name for the second stage of the general adaptation syndrome? a. Reinforcement b. Transition c. Resistance d. Defense NURSINGTB.COM ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 785 TOP: General Adaptation Syndrome 4. Which of the following is not characteristic of the exhaustion stage of stress? a. It occurs less frequently than the other stages. b. It may develop over a long period of stress. c. It decreases the body’s ability to adapt. d. The body’s resistance eventually produces adaptation. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 785 TOP: General Adaptation Syndrome 5. The level of glucocorticoids would be at their lowest during which stage of stress? a. Exhaustion b. Alarm c. Resistance d. Recovery ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 785 TOP: General Adaptation SyndromeAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 6. The production of cortisol in response to stress can be initiated by which of the following pathways? a. Cerebral cortex, hypothalamus, anterior pituitary, adrenal cortex b. Cerebral cortex, hypothalamus, posterior pituitary, adrenal cortex c. Cerebral cortex, hypothalamus, sympathetic nerve fibers, adrenal cortex d. Cerebral cortex, hypothalamus, sympathetic nerve fibers, adrenal medulla ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 788 TOP: Stress Syndrome 7. All of the following are true statements except: a. stressors are extreme stimuli. b. stressors are always injurious, unpleasant, or painful. c. the emotions of fear, anxiety, and grief can act as stressors. d. stressors differ in different individuals. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 784-785 TOP: Stressors 8. An effect of cortisol is: a. increased protein catabolism. b. decreased blood sugar. c. increased immune response. d. increased allergic reactions. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 790 TOP: Stress Syndrome 9. Which of the following woulNdUnoRtSocIcNurGaTs a Bb.oCdyOrMesponse to stress? a. Increased systolic blood pressure b. Increased epinephrine in the urine c. Constriction of the pupils d. Increased adrenocorticoids in the urine ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 791 TOP: Indicators of Stress 10. Which of the following would not be a useful measure for assessing stress? a. Total blood cholesterol b. Eosinophil count c. Lymphocyte count d. Adrenocorticoid levels ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 792 TOP: Indicators of Stress 11. refers to the cumulative effect of long-term exposure to stress. a. Stress syndrome b. Stress response c. Allostatic load d. Allostatic overload ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 788Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM TOP: Allostatic Load Model 12. Corticotrophin-releasing hormone (CRH) is released by the in response to stress. a. adrenal medulla b. adrenal cortex c. anterior pituitary d. hypothalamus ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 788 TOP: Stress Syndrome 13. In response to stress, the adrenal cortex secretes: a. norepinephrine. b. norepinephrine and cortisol. c. cortisol and aldosterone. d. norepinephrine and aldosterone. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 788 TOP: Stress Syndrome 14. Severe stress may result in all of the following except: a. an overactive immune system. b. an increase in heart rate. c. a rise in adrenaline levels. d. changes in breathing patterns. ANS: A DIF: Application REF: p. 782 TOP: Stress Introduction 15. Which of the following condNitiUonRsSmIaNyGacTcoBm.pCanOyMstress? a. Depression b. Sleep disorders c. Low blood pressure d. Both A and B ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 783 TOP: Stress Introduction 16. All of the following are components of the “stress triad” observed by Hans Selye except: a. enlarged adrenals. b. hypertrophied skeletal muscles. c. shrunken lymphatic organs. d. bleeding gastrointestinal ulcers. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 783 TOP: Development of the Stress Concept 17. Which of the following determine(s) which stimuli are stressors for each individual? a. Heredity b. Past experiences c. Either extreme of a continuum d. All of the above ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 784-785Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM N R I G TOP: Stressors 18. The general adaptation syndrome includes all of the following stages except the: a. alarm reaction. b. immune response. c. stage of resistance or adaptation. d. stage of exhaustion. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 785 TOP: General Adaptation Syndrome 19. Alarm reaction responses resulting from the hypertrophy of the adrenal cortex include: a. hyperglycemia. b. decreased immunity. c. decreased allergic responses. d. all of the above. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 785 TOP: General Adaptation Syndrome 20. Alarm reaction responses resulting from increased sympathetic activity include all of the following except: a. decreased digestion. b. decreased and prolonged sympathetic responses. c. hyperglycemia. d. increased systolic blood pressure. ANS: B DIF: Memorization B.C M REF: p. 785 TOP: General Adaptation SyndrUomeS N T O 21. One characteristic of the stage of resistance of the general adaptation syndrome is: a. increased rate of secretion by the adrenal cortex. b. decreased allergic responses. c. hyperglycemia. d. normal rate of secretion by the adrenal medulla. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 785 TOP: General Adaptation Syndrome 22. Which of the following is(are) characteristic of the stage of exhaustion? a. Initially increased glucocorticoid secretion but eventually marked decreased secretion b. Loss of resistance to stressor; may lead to death c. Stress triad d. All of the above ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 785 TOP: General Adaptation Syndrome 23. Type A individuals have been found to be at greater risk for: a. elevated systolic blood pressure. b. coronary disease. c. heart attacks.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM d. all of the above. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 792 TOP: Type A Behavior and Stress (Box 34-2) 24. According to the current concepts of the stress syndrome, stress may be defined as any factor that stimulates the: a. posterior pituitary. b. anterior pituitary. c. hypothalamus to release CRH. d. hypothalamus to release ADH. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 788 TOP: Stress Syndrome 25. According to the current concepts of the stress syndrome, an example(s) of stress that stimulate(s) the hypothalamus indirectly would be: a. stress stimulating the limbic lobe first. b. stress stimulating other parts of the cerebral cortex first. c. hypoglycemia. d. both A and B. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 790 TOP: Stress Syndrome 26. Which of the following is a category that classifies stressful experiences? a. Positive stress b. Tolerable stress c. Toxic stress NURSINGTB.COM d. All of these are categories that classify stressful experiences ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 787 TOP: Allostatic Load Model 27. The stress triad refers to: a. alarm, exhaustion, and resistance. b. hypertrophied adrenals, atrophied thymus and lymph nodes, and bleeding ulcers. c. stressor, stress, and response. d. health, stress, and disease. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 785 TOP: General Adaptation Syndrome 28. Which of the following is not an alarm reaction response resulting from hypertrophy of the adrenal cortex? a. Hyperglycemia b. Decreased digestion c. Decreased immunity d. Decreased allergic responses ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 785 TOP: General Adaptation SyndromeAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 29. The anterior pituitary gland is stimulated by: a. CRH. b. ACTH. c. ADH. d. epinephrine. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 790 TOP: Stress Syndrome 30. Which of the following is not an effect of cortisol? a. Increased protein catabolism b. Decreased allergic responses c. Fight-or-flight responses d. Decreased immune responses ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 790 TOP: Stress Syndrome 31. The amount of stress a person is feeling can be directly measured by: a. an electrocardiogram. b. measuring the amount of adrenaline in the blood. c. measuring the systolic blood pressure. d. none of the above. ANS: D DIF: Application REF: p. 785 TOP: General Adaptation Syndrome 32. A person with a high blood le vN el Rof aIdreGnaliBne.wCouMld be in what stage of the general adaptation response? a. Alarm b. Resistance c. Exhaustion d. Either A or C U S N T O ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 785 TOP: General Adaptation Syndrome 33. Which is not a response to the release of the hormone neuropeptide Y? a. Platelet aggregation b. Atrophy of the vascular smooth muscle c. Vasoconstriction d. All of the above are responses to neuropeptide Y. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 790 TOP: Stress Syndrome 34. All of the following disciplines have added to our understanding of stress except: a. genetics. b. endocrinology. c. sociology. d. All of the above disciplines have added to our understanding of stress. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 783Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM N R I G B. C M TOP: Introduction 35. According to Selye, stress can be defined as a state or condition produced by: a. physical trauma. b. psychological trauma. c. diverse nocuous agents. d. emotional trauma. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 783 TOP: Definitions 36. Release of corticotrophin-releasing hormone directly causes: a. an increase in glucose, which corrects the hypoglycemia. b. the posterior pituitary gland to release ACTH. c. the release of cortisol. d. none of the above. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 790 TOP: Stress Syndrome 37. Hyperglycemia is a(n): a. indication that the alarm reaction response is finished and the body is moving on to the resistance stage. b. result of sympathetic activity in the alarm reaction. c. result of hypertrophy of the adrenal cortex in the alarm reaction. d. Both B and C are correct. ANS: D DIF: Application REF: p. 785 TOP: General Adaptation SyndrUomeS N T O 38. Which of the following is an indication that a person is in the exhaustion stage? a. Dissipation of the “fight-or-flight” response b. An increase in glucocorticoid secretions from the adrenal gland c. Development of a bleeding ulcer in the stomach or duodenum d. Both B and C ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 785 TOP: General Adaptation Syndrome 39. What is the relationship between stress and corticotrophin-releasing hormone (CRH)? a. Stress stimulates the hypothalamus to release CRH, which acts as a trigger that initiates many diverse changes in the body. b. Stress inhibits the release of CRH from the hypothalamus, which allows for the secretion of glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids. c. Stress stimulates the release of CRH from the hypothalamus, which then acts to simulate the sympathetic centers. d. Stress inhibits the release of CRH from the hypothalamus, which allows for the secretion of catecholamine in the blood. ANS: A DIF: Application REF: p. 790 TOP: Stress Syndrome 40. Changes in stress related to aging include:Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM a. decrease in potential for hypercoagulation. b. decrease in catecholamine and adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH). c. frequent decrease in coping skills, alteration of limbic lobe, and hypothalamus excitability. d. increase in testosterone, estrogen, and thyroxine. ANS: C DIF: Application REF: p. 791 TOP: The Stress-Age Syndrome (Box 34-1) 41. Because of the demands of his job, Frank has been under a great deal of stress. He was experiencing an increase in the secretion of glucocorticoids, and the number of lymphocytes and eosinophils decreased markedly. However, recently these changes disappeared. What stage in Selye’s general adaptation syndrome is Frank now experiencing? a. Alarm reaction b. Stage of resistance or adaptation c. Stage of exhaustion d. Stress triad ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 785 TOP: General Adaptation Syndrome 42. Joanne was admitted to the hospital for gallbladder surgery. The nurse noted a rapid pulse rate and elevated blood pressure while taking her vital signs. Joanne’s palms were sweating and her eyes were dilated. What mechanisms could be causing these conditions? a. A reaction to autoimmune response b. Antigen-antibody response c. Decrease in bile production d. Stress NURSINGTB.COM ANS: D DIF: Application REF: p. 791 TOP: Indicators of Stress 43. Which of the following is a condition that can produce allostatic load? a. Infrequent stress from multiple sources b. Failure to adapt to a repeated stress c. Ability to shut off allostatic responses when a threat is removed d. Adequate allostatic responses that trigger the release of chemical mediators ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 788 TOP: Allostatic Load Model TRUE/FALSE 1. Severe stress generally causes adrenaline levels to fall. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 785 TOP: General Adaptation Syndrome 2. Selye proved in his research that regardless of the type of stressor, the stress syndrome is always the same. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 783 TOP: Selye’s Concept of StressAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 3. As a result of applying various stressors to research animals, Selye was able to produce a triad of body changes. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 783 TOP: Development of the Stress Concept 4. Every individual responds somewhat differently to stress. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 783 TOP: Stressors 5. One of the components of the “stress triad” is hypertrophy of the lymphatic organs. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 785 TOP: General Adaptation Syndrome 6. Stress, according to Selye, is a state or condition of the body produced by “diverse noxious agents” and manifested by a syndrome of changes. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 783 TOP: Selye’s Concept of Stress 7. Stressors are always injurious, unpleasant, or painful stimuli. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 785 TOP: Stressors 8. A stressor for one individual NRIUSmayno t bNeGaTsB tre.ssCoOr fMor another. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 785 TOP: Stressors 9. Stressors differ in different individuals and in one individual at different times. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 785 TOP: Stressors 10. Because the body feels under attack when experiencing a stress response, the immune system becomes more active and vigilant. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 782 TOP: Introduction 11. The third stage of the stress syndrome rarely occurs in most individuals’ lifetimes. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 785 TOP: General Adaptation Syndrome 12. The classification of stimuli as stressors or nonstressors is very precise. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 784Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM TOP: Stressors 13. One of the alarm reaction responses resulting from hypertrophy of the adrenal cortex is an increase in allergic responses. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 785 TOP: General Adaptation Syndrome 14. Stress is considered a tangible phenomenon. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 785 TOP: General Adaptation Syndrome 15. A triad of stress changes occurs in all three stages of the general adaptation syndrome. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 785 TOP: General Adaptation Syndrome 16. The second stage in the general adaptation syndrome is the alarm reaction. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 785 TOP: General Adaptation Syndrome 17. Both the stage of resistance and the alarm reaction show very similar responses. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 785 TOP: General Adaptation Syndrome 18. Blood sugar level tends to deNcrUeaRseSaIsNaGgeTnBer.alCbOodMy response to stress. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 785 TOP: General Adaptation Syndrome 19. One of the alarm reaction responses resulting from increased sympathetic activity is decreased digestion. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 785 TOP: General Adaptation Syndrome 20. The “fight-or-flight” syndrome of changes is characteristic of the exhaustion stage. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 785 | p. 788 TOP: Stress Syndrome, General Adaptation Syndrome 21. During the alarm stage, the body exhibits lowered resistance to stressors. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 785 TOP: General Adaptation Syndrome 22. One characteristic of the stage of exhaustion in the general adaptation syndrome is increased glucocorticoid secretion, but eventually secretion is markedly decreased.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM ANS: T U S N T O ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 785 TOP: General Adaptation Syndrome 23. Normally, the second stage of the stress syndrome rarely occurs in most individuals’ lifetimes. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 785 TOP: General Adaptation Syndrome 24. In the Selye hypothesis about activation of the stress mechanism, the “alarm signals” act directly on the hypothalamus. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 787 TOP: Mechanism of Stress 25. Type B individuals have been found to be at greater risk for elevated systolic blood pressure and coronary disease. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 792 TOP: Type A Behavior and Stress (Box 34-2) 26. Whether stress is good or bad for an individual is determined primarily by the severity of the stressor. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 784 TOP: Stressors 27. In response to stress, the adrenal cortex secretes cortisol and aldosterone. N R I G B.C M DIF: Memorization REF: p. 788 TOP: Stress Syndrome 28. A physiological stressor is anything an individual perceives as a threat. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 784 TOP: Stressors 29. Individuals who are hard driving and competitive are said to have a type B personality. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 792 TOP: Type A Behavior and Stress (Box 34-2) 30. Stress stimulating the limbic lobe is an example of indirect stimulation of the hypothalamus. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 790 TOP: Stress Syndrome 31. According to the current concepts of the stress syndrome, hypoglycemia is an example of stress that indirectly stimulates the hypothalamus. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 788 TOP: Stress SyndromeAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM U S N T O 32. According to the current concepts of the stress syndrome, stress may be defined as any factor that directly stimulates the posterior pituitary to secrete ADH. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 783 TOP: Definitions 33. The level of adrenocorticoids in the urine is often used to measure stress. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 791 TOP: Indicators of Stress 34. Smoking has been shown to be a stressor that causes a marked rise in the plasma level of hormones from the adrenal cortex. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 792 TOP: Indicators of Stress 35. Water loss and a decrease in blood volume are common stress responses. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 789 TOP: Stress Syndrome 36. Levels of allostatic mediators rise during stressful events to enable the body to respond to potentially harmful stimuli. 37.3 ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 788 TOP: Allostatic Load Model N R I G B.C M Allostasis and allostatic load are not influenced by feelings of anticipation, anxiety, and worry 7 about an upcoming event. . ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 788 TOP: Allostatic Load Model 38. Frequent stress from multiple sources can produce an allostatic load. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 788 TOP: Allostatic Load Model 39. The brain is not a major target of allostatic load. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 789 TOP: Role of the Brain in Stress 40. Cerebral plasticity refers to the brain’s ability to adapt and change its structure based on repeated behaviors, environmental stimuli, emotions, and thoughts. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 790 TOP: Role of the Brain in Stress 41. Plasticity makes the brain resilient and adaptive and invulnerable to stress.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 790 TOP: Role of the Brain in Stress 42. The Selye stage of exhaustion immediately follows the alarm phase. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 785 TOP: General Adaptation Syndrome 43. High-stress, hard-driving, competitive individuals who may be at greater risk of coronary heart disease are classified as type A. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 792 TOP: Type A Behavior and Stress (Box 34-2) 44. The stage of exhaustion can be described as adaptation. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 785 TOP: General Adaptation Syndrome 45. Stressors are always bad stimuli. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 784 TOP: Stressors 46. The stress response commonly referred to as “fight or flight” is evoked by increased parasympathetic stimulation. ANS: F DIF: MNemoRrizaItionG B.C M REF: p. 788 TOP: Stress Syndrome U S N T O 47. The current definition of stress is any stimulus that directly or indirectly stimulates neurons of the hypothalamus to release cortisol. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 787 TOP: Some Current Concepts About Stress 48. Fetal programming refers to the relationship between events after fetal development. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 792 TOP: Effects of Intrauterine Stress 49. Stress while in utero can cause oversecretion of both maternal and fetal endocrine hormones. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 792 TOP: Effects of Intrauterine Stress 50. The stress response affirms the importance of mind/body interaction in health and disease. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 783 TOP: IntroductionAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 51. One outcome of long-term stress is a disruption in the body’s ability to maintain some of its homeostatic mechanisms. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 783 TOP: Introduction 52. Recent research suggests that the study of stress requires a more general or holistic approach. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 783 TOP: Introduction 53. According to Selye, anything that causes stress, either good or bad, is a stressor. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 783 TOP: Stressors 54. Stressors tend to be extreme stimuli of either extreme abundance or extreme deficiency. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 784 TOP: Stressors 55. Because stress requires an understanding of the possible threat, children younger than 1 year do not experience stress. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 785 TOP: Stressors 56. The terms stress triad and geNne rU a Rl aS Ida NpGtaTtioBn.sC ynOdrMome are interchangeable. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 785 TOP: General Adaptation Syndrome 57. In cases of prolonged stress, the exhaustion stage can end in the death of the individual. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 785 TOP: General Adaptation Syndrome 58. Prolonged stress causes the secretion of a hormone called neuropeptide Y from the sympathetic neurons and the adrenal glands. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 789 TOP: Stress Syndrome 59. Because of the wealth of life experiences, elderly adults are better able to physically deal with stress. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 791 TOP: The Stress-Age Syndrome (Box 34-1) 60. The brain does not have the ability to rearrange its neural networks in response to lifestyle experiences.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 790 TOP: Role of the Brain in Stress 61. The amygdala regulates activity of the HPA axis by shutting down the stress response when it is no longer needed. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 790 TOP: Role of the Brain in Stress 62. Stress causes shrinkage and loss of dendrites in the prefrontal cortex. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 790 TOP: Role of the Brain in Stress 63. The hypothalamus is sometimes referred to as the emotional brain. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 788 TOP: Stress Syndrome 64. From the alarm reaction to the resistance stage, there is a decrease in glucocorticoid secretion. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 785 TOP: General Adaptation Syndrome 65. In the article published in 1936, Selye coined the term stress as it is used today. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 783 TOP: Development of the StreNss CRoncIept G B.C M U S N T O 66. Both social isolation and overcrowding can cause stress. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 784 TOP: Stressors 67. The corticotrophin-releasing hormone has a direct effect on the hypothalamus. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 790 TOP: Stress Syndrome 68. A syndrome can be defined as a set of signs and symptoms that occur together and characterize one particular disease. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 783 TOP: Development of the Stress Concept 69. An indicator of stress is a drop in lymphocytes and an increase in eosinophils. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 792 TOP: Indicators of Stress 70. Short-term manageable stress can promote growth, neural adaptation, learning, and overall well-being.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM U S N T O ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 793 TOP: Summary of Allostatic Model 71. Anxiety level does not influence allostasis and allostatic load. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 793 TOP: Summary of Allostatic Model 72. Maternal malnutrition and smoking are two common stressors that influence the developing fetus. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 793 TOP: Effects on Intrauterine Stress 73. The relationship between events that occur during fetal development and the appearance of specific anatomical, physiological, or disease states that occur later in life is referred to as fetal programming. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 792 TOP: Effects on Intrauterine Stress 74. Allostasis is the body’s final response to stress when normal homeostasis can no longer be maintained. 75.7 5 . ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 787 TOP: Allostasis and Allostatic Load N R I G B.C M Allostatic load can be described as the physiological load placed on the body by stress. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 788 TOP: Allostasis and Allostatic Load MATCHING Match each term with its corresponding definition. a. Stage of resistance b. Stressors c. Adaptation d. Stress syndrome e. Alarm reaction f. Stage of exhaustion g. General adaptation syndrome h. Glucocorticoids 1. Name given by Selye to the group of changes that manifest the presence of stress 2. Agents that produce stress 3. Changes in the body that help it respond to changes in the environment 4. Third stage of the general adaptation syndrome 5. Changes in the body initiated as a response to stress 6. Initial stage of the general adaptation syndromeAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM REF: p. 787 7. Hormones secreted by the adrenal cortex in response to stress 8. Second stage of the general adaptation syndrome 1. ANS: TOP: G Definitions DIF: Memorization REF: p. 783 2. ANS: TOP: B Stressors DIF: Memorization REF: p. 783 3. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 785 TOP: General Adaptation Syndrome 4. ANS: TOP: F DIF: Memorization General Adaptation Syndrome REF: p. 785 5. ANS: TOP: D DIF: Memorization Definitions REF: p. 783 6. ANS: TOP: E DIF: Memorization General Adaptation Syndrome REF: p. 785 7. ANS: TOP: H DIF: Memorization General Adaptation Syndrome REF: p. 785 8. ANS: TOP: A DIF: Memorization General Adaptation Syndrome REF: p. 785 OTHER 1. Identify the three categories that classify stressful experiences. ANS: Answers will vary DIF: Memorization N URSINGTB.COM 2. List the changes that constitute Selye’s stress triad. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 785 TOP: General Adaptation Syndrome 3. Define stress. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 787 TOP: Some Current Concepts About Stress 4. Define stressor. ANS: Answers will vary. TOP: Allostatic Load Model DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 783-784 TOP: StressorsAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM REF: pp. 782-783 5. Explain why the precise classification of stimuli as stressors or nonstressors is not possible. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 784-785 TOP: Stressors 6. Identify and briefly describe the three stages in the general adaptation syndrome. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: p. 785 TOP: General Adaptation Syndrome 7. How is type A behavior related to stress, and what, if anything, may result? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 791 TOP: Type A Behavior and Stress (Box 34-1) 8. List the physical responses your body makes to stress. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization N URSINGTB.COM TOP: Introduction 9. What condition or behaviors by a mother can lead to increased stress on her fetus? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 792-793 TOP: Effects on Intrauterine Stress 10. Define fetal programming. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 793 TOP: Effects on Intrauterine Stress 11. Explain the “biological tradeoffs” that a fetus may make in response to a stressful pregnancy. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 793 TOP: Effects on Intrauterine Stress 12. Explain the research that led to the development of Selye’s theory on stress.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 783 TOP: Development of the Stress Concept ESSAY 1. Joanne was admitted to the hospital for gallbladder surgery. A nurse came to examine her and began with Joanne’s vital signs. The nurse noted a rapid pulse rate and elevated blood pressure. Joanne’s blood glucose level was slightly elevated also. What mechanisms could be causing these conditions? What is the stress in this situation, and how can she best deal with it? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: pp. 791-792 TOP: Indicators of Stress NURSINGTB.COMAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM Chapter 35: Respiratory Tract Patton: Anatomy and Physiology, 10th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following does not distribute air? a. Trachea b. Bronchus c. Alveolus d. Nose ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 800 TOP: Introduction 2. Which of the following is not a function of the respiratory system? a. Assists with homeostasis of body pH b. Distributes oxygen to cells c. Filters air d. Warms air ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 800-801 TOP: Introduction 3. Which of the following is true of the cribriform plate? a. It separates the nasal and cranial cavities. b. It forms the lateral aspects of the nose. c. It separates the internal nNosUeRfrSomINthGe TmBou.thC.OM d. It forms a midline separation in the nasal cavity. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 802 TOP: Structure of the Nose 4. The small openings in the cribriform plate function to: a. allow air to move between the nostrils. b. allow branches of the olfactory nerve to enter the cranial cavity and reach the brain. c. provide a filtering system for the inspired air. d. do both A and B. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 802 TOP: Structure of the Nose 5. The external openings to the nasal cavities can be referred to as: a. nostrils. b. anterior nares. c. external nares. d. all of the above. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 803 TOP: Structure of the NoseAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM N R I G B.C M 6. The upper respiratory tract includes all of the following structures except the: a. larynx. b. trachea. c. oropharynx. d. nasopharynx. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 801 TOP: Structural Organization 7. The hollow nasal cavity is separated by a midline partition called the: a. septum. b. conchae. c. cribriform plate. d. turbinates. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 803 TOP: Structure of the Nose 8. Which of the following is not lined with a ciliated mucous membrane? a. Vestibule b. Posterior nares c. Trachea d. Primary bronchi ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 803 TOP: Structure of the Nose 9. Which of the following lists the correct sequence of air as it passes through the nose into the pharynx? U S N T O a. Vestibule anterior nares inferior, middle, and superior meatus posterior nares b. Inferior, middle, and superior meatus nostrils vestibule posterior nares c. Anterior nares vestibule inferior, middle, and superior meatus posterior nares d. Anterior nares posterior nares vestibule inferior, middle, and superior meatus ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 803 TOP: Nose 10. The largest of the paranasal sinuses is the: a. maxillary. b. frontal. c. ethmoid. d. sphenoid. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 803 TOP: Structure of the Nose 11. The respiratory portion of the nasal passage is lined with a mucous membrane made up of epithelium. a. stratified columnar b. pseudostratified columnar c. simple squamous d. simple columnarAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 803 TOP: Structure of the Nose 12. Paranasal sinuses are normally filled with: a. bone marrow. b. a serous fluid. c. mucus. d. air. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 803 TOP: Structure of the Nose 13. Which of the following is not a function of the pharynx? a. Aids in forming vowel sounds b. Provides pathway for food c. Determines the quality of the voice d. Provides pathway for air ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 804-805 TOP: Functions of the Pharynx 14. Olfactory epithelium is found: a. lining the nasopharynx. b. covering the superior turbinate. c. lining the paranasal sinuses. d. in all of the above. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 803 TOP: Structure of the Nose NURSINGTB.COM 15. The more common name for the pharynx is the: a. throat. b. windpipe. c. voice box. d. nasal cavity. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 804 TOP: Pharynx 16. The structures that deflect air as it passes through the nose are called: a. choanae. b. paranasal sinuses. c. conchae. d. vibrissae. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 804 TOP: Functions of the Nose 17. The function of the vibrissae in the vestibule is to: a. provide a large, mucus-covered surface area over which air must pass before reaching the pharynx. b. provide an initial “filter” to screen particulate matter from air that is entering the system.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM c. produce copious quantities of mucus. d. serve as resonating chambers for speech. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 804 TOP: Functions of the Nose 18. The anatomical division of the pharynx that is located behind the mouth from the soft palate above to the level of the hyoid bone below is called the: a. nasopharynx. b. oropharynx. c. laryngopharynx. d. sphenopharynx. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 804 TOP: Structure of the Pharynx 19. The lower border of the cavity of the larynx is formed by the: a. epiglottis. b. cricoid cartilage. c. glottis. d. thyroid cartilage. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 805 TOP: Structure of the Larynx 20. The fauces, one of the seven openings found in the pharynx, opens into the: a. oropharynx. b. nasopharynx. N R I G B.C M c. esophagus. U d. Both A and B are correct. S N T O ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 804 TOP: Structure of the Pharynx 21. The structure in the neck known as the “Adam’s apple” is the: a. epiglottis. b. cricoid cartilage. c. glottis. d. thyroid cartilage. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 806 TOP: Cartilages of the Larynx 22. The eustachian tube connects the middle ear with the: a. trachea. b. nose. c. nasopharynx. d. oropharynx. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 804 TOP: Pharynx 23. The small, leaf-shaped cartilage behind the tongue and hyoid bone is the:Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM a. cricoid cartilage. b. thyroid cartilage. c. corniculate cartilage. d. epiglottis. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 806 TOP: Cartilages of the Larynx 24. The approximate length of the trachea, or windpipe, is cm. a. 5 b. 11 c. 17 d. 24 ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 807 TOP: Trachea 25. Which of the following is true of the intrinsic muscles of the larynx? a. Their origin is the hyoid bone. b. They move the larynx as a whole. c. They serve in voice production. d. Both A and B are correct. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 807 TOP: Muscles of the Larynx 26. The smallest branches of the bronchial tree are: a. primary bronchi. b. secondary bronchi. c. tertiary bronchi. d. bronchioles. NURSINGTB.COM ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 809 TOP: Structure of the Bronchi 27. Which of the following is not a true statement? a. When the diaphragm relaxes, it returns to a domelike shape. b. When the diaphragm contracts, it pulls the floor of the thoracic cavity downward. c. Changes in thorax size bring about inspiration and expiration. d. Raising the ribs decreases the depth and width of the thorax. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 815 TOP: Functions of the Thoracic Cavity 28. Gas exchange, the lungs’ main and vital function, takes place in the: a. bronchioles. b. secondary bronchi. c. primary bronchi. d. alveoli. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 814 TOP: Functions of the LungsAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 29. The function of surfactant is to: a. transport oxygen from the air to the blood. b. transport carbon dioxide from the blood to the air. c. prevent each alveolus from collapsing as air moves in and out during respiration. d. trap foreign particles as they enter the bronchial tree. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 810 TOP: Structure of the Alveoli 30. In the right lung, the superior and middle lobes are separated by the: a. horizontal fissure. b. oblique fissure. c. bronchopulmonary segments. d. hilum. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 813 TOP: Structure of the Lungs 31. The divisions of the thoracic cavity include all of the following except the: a. left pleural cavity. b. right pleural cavity. c. respiratory cavity. d. mediastinum. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 815 TOP: Thorax 32. Which of the following is no Nt a pRaran IasaGl sinBu.s?C M a. Frontal b. Maxillary c. Mandibular d. Sphenoid U S N T O ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 803 TOP: Structure of the Nose 33. Which of the following is not a subdivision of the thoracic cavity? a. Left pleural division b. Right pleural division c. Medial pleural division d. Mediastinum ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 815 TOP: Thorax 34. Which of the following statements is not true about the respiratory mucosa? a. The cilia can “taste” bitter toxins in the air. b. The cilia respond to toxins by moving more rapidly to remove the toxin. c. The longer a cilia is exposed to a toxin, the more effectively it moves to expel it. d. All of the above statements are true about the respiratory mucosa. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 811 TOP: Functions of the Bronchi and AlveoliAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 35. Which of the following is not an accessory structure of the respiratory system? a. Oral cavity b. Trachea c. Rib cage d. Diaphragm ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 801 TOP: Structural Organization 36. Cellular respiration occurs: a. in the alveoli. b. on the red blood cell. c. in the mitochondria. d. in both A and B. ANS: C DIF: Application REF: p. 801 TOP: Structural Organization 37. The vomeronasal organ: a. is the structure that joins the nasal cavity and the vomer bone. b. is vestigial with no known function in the adult. c. may be able to respond to complex chemicals called pheromones. d. Both A and C are correct. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 803 TOP: Vomeronasal Organ 38. Air inhaled through the mout Nh wRouldIbeG B.CthanMair inhaled through the nose. a. warmer b. dirtier c. moister U S N T O d. All of the above are correct. ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 804 TOP: Functions of the Nose 39. The length of the pharynx is about cm. a. 3.5 b. 8.5 c. 12.5 d. 17.5 ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 804 TOP: Structure of the Pharynx 40. Which of these is not an opening in the pharynx? a. Trachea b. Eustachian tube c. The fauces d. Esophagus ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 804 TOP: Structure of the PharynxAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM N R I G 41. Which of these structures is not a part of the glottis? a. True vocal cords b. Rima glottidis c. False vocal cords d. Both B and C ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 806 TOP: Structure of the Larynx 42. Which of the following is a paired cartilage in the larynx? a. Thyroid b. Cuneiform c. Epiglottis d. None of the above ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 806 TOP: Cartilages of the Larynx 43. Which of the following is not part of the respiratory membrane? a. Ciliated respiratory mucosa b. Alveolar epithelium c. Capillary epithelium d. All of the above are part of the respiratory membrane. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 810 TOP: Structure of the Alveoli 44. Ciliated cells lining the respiratory tract: B.C M a. help move air into and outUof thSe luNngsT. O b. trap and phagocytize microorganisms. c. help move the mucus blanket toward the pharynx. d. do both B and C. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 811 TOP: Functions of the Bronchi and Alveoli 45. The total number of lobes in both lungs is: a. 6. b. 5. c. 4. d. 3. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 813-814 TOP: Structure of the Lungs 46. Which of these structures is not part of the lower respiratory tract? a. Larynx b. Trachea c. Lungs d. All of the above are part of the lower respiratory tract. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 801 TOP: Structural OrganizationAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 47. Which of the following is not part of the external portion of the nose? a. Nasal bones b. Palatine bones c. Alar cartilages d. All of the above are part of the external portion of the nose. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 802-803 TOP: Nose 48. The cribriform plate is part of the: a. nasal bone. b. palatine bone. c. ethmoid bone. d. nasal conchae. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 802 TOP: Nose 49. Which of these structures is not part of the nasal septum? a. Perpendicular plate of the ethmoid bone b. Vomer bone c. Vomeronasal cartilage d. All of the above are part of the nasal septum. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 803 TOP: Nose 50. Which of the following is noNt aUcRhaSrIacNteGrisTtiBc.ofCthOeMparanasal sinuses? a. They are air filled. b. They are named after the bones in which they are located. c. They drain or open into the oropharynx. d. All of the above are true of the paranasal sinuses. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 803 TOP: Paranasal Sinuses 51. At the level of the hyoid bone, the: a. laryngopharynx becomes the esophagus. b. oropharynx becomes the laryngopharynx. c. nasopharynx becomes the oropharynx. d. nasopharynx becomes the laryngopharynx. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 804 TOP: Pharynx 52. Which is a pyramid-shaped cartilage that is an attachment point of the vocal cords? a. Arytenoid b. Thyroid c. Epiglottis d. Adam’s apple ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 806Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM TOP: Cartilages of the Larynx 53. Which is the most proximal part of the air distribution system that no longer contains cartilage? a. Primary bronchi b. Secondary bronchi c. Bronchioles d. Alveolar ducts ANS: C DIF: Application REF: p. 809 TOP: Structure of the Bronchi 54. For purposes of study, the respiratory system can be divided into what two parts? a. Air distribution and gas exchange b. Upper respiratory tract and lower respiratory tract c. Trachea and lungs d. Cranial and thoracic ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 801 TOP: Structural Organization 55. The more correct name for a sore throat is: a. rhinitis. b. laryngitis. c. pharyngitis. d. tonsillitis. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 816 TOP: Mechanisms of Disease N URSINGTB.COM 56. Which of these is the only opening to the oropharynx? a. The fauces b. Eustachian tubes (auditory tubes) c. Posterior nares d. The esophagus ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 804 TOP: Structure of the Pharynx 57. Which pair of tonsils is located in the oropharynx? a. Pharyngeal tonsils b. Palatine tonsils c. Lingual tonsils d. Both B and C ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 804 TOP: Structure of the Pharynx 58. Which pair of tonsils is located in the nasopharynx? a. Pharyngeal tonsils b. Palatine tonsils c. Lingual tonsils d. Both B and CAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 804 TOP: Structure of the Pharynx 59. Gas exchange occurs across the: a. respiratory mucosa. b. respiratory membrane. c. visceral pleura. d. pulmonary membrane. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 810 TOP: Structure of the Alveoli 60. Which of these structures is not found in the left lung? a. Oblique fissure b. Secondary bronchi entering the superior lobe c. Secondary bronchi entering the inferior lobe d. Horizontal fissure ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 813 TOP: Structure of the Lungs 61. Which statement describes the function of the turbinates in the respiratory tract? a. Turbinates contain the vibrissae, which serve as an initial “filter” to screen particulate matter from the air. b. Turbinates serve as baffles to provide a large, mucus-covered surface area over which air must pass before reaching the pharynx. c. Turbinates lighten the bones of the skull and serve as resonating chambers for speech. NURSINGTB.COM d. Turbinates are lined with a ciliated membrane and form two cartilaginous folds that serve as the vestibular vocal cords. ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 804 TOP: Functions of the Nose 62. Which describes the role of surfactant in the respiratory system? a. Surfactant helps increase surface tension within the alveoli, thus preventing each alveolus from collapsing as air moves in and out during respiration. b. Surfactant helps reduce surface tension within the alveoli, thus preventing each alveolus from collapsing as air moves in and out during respiration. c. Surfactant provides a layer of protective mucus that covers a large portion of the membrane that lines the respiratory tree, thereby purifying the air during inhalation. d. Surfactant helps increase surface area, which increases the rate of gas exchange within the alveoli. ANS: B DIF: Application REF: pp. 810-811 TOP: Structure of the Alveoli 63. Anatomically, how does the right bronchus differ from the left bronchus, and what effect might this have on the aspiration of objects? a. The right bronchus is the same size and shape as the left. Therefore, aspiration of foreign objects can occur equally often in either bronchus. b. The left bronchus is slightly larger and more vertical than the right. This anatomical fact helps explain why aspirated foreign objects frequently lodge in theAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM left bronchus. c. The right bronchus is slightly larger and more vertical than the left. This anatomical fact helps explain why aspirated foreign objects frequently lodge in the right bronchus. d. The right bronchus is slightly smaller and more vertical than the left. This anatomical fact helps explain why aspirated foreign objects frequently lodge in the left bronchus. ANS: C DIF: Application REF: p. 809 TOP: Bronchi and Alveoli 64. What aspects of the structure of lung tissue make efficient gas exchange possible? a. The enormous surface area of the bronchus and trachea, where the very thin-walled alveoli and equally thin-walled pulmonary capillaries make possible extremely rapid diffusion of gases between alveolar air and pulmonary capillary blood b. A small surface area and the respiratory membrane, where the very thin-walled alveoli and equally thin-walled pulmonary capillaries make possible lower diffusion of gases between alveolar air and pulmonary capillary blood and help retain oxygen in the body c. The enormous surface area and the respiratory membrane, where the very thin-walled alveoli and equally thin-walled pulmonary capillaries make possible extremely rapid diffusion of gases between alveolar air and pulmonary capillary blood d. A small surface area such as the pleura, where the very thin-walled alveoli and equally thin-walled pulmonary capillaries make possible extremely rapid diffusion of gases between alveolar air and pulmonary capillary blood ANS: C DIF: Application REF: pp. 814-815 TOP: Lungs NURSINGTB.COM 65. Which statement differentiates between the intrinsic and extrinsic muscles of the larynx and explains which one moves the larynx? a. Intrinsic muscles have both their origin and insertion on the larynx, whereas extrinsic muscles insert on the larynx but have their origin on some other structure; neither muscle moves nor displaces the larynx as a whole. b. Intrinsic muscles have both their origin and insertion on the larynx, whereas extrinsic muscles insert on the larynx but have their origin on some other structure; contraction of the extrinsic muscles actually moves or displaces the larynx as a whole. c. Intrinsic muscles have both their origin and insertion on the larynx, whereas extrinsic muscles insert on the larynx but have their origin on some other structure; contraction of the intrinsic muscles actually moves or displaces the larynx as a whole. d. Intrinsic muscles have both their origin and insertion outside of the larynx, whereas extrinsic muscles insert on the larynx but have their origin and insertions on the larynx and actually move or displace the larynx as a whole. ANS: A DIF: Application REF: pp. 806-807 TOP: Muscles of the Larynx TRUE/FALSE 1. When the palatine bones fail to unite completely, the resulting condition is called cleft palate.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 802 TOP: Structure of the Nose 2. The hollow nasal cavity is separated by a midline partition, the conchae, dividing it into a right cavity and a left cavity. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 803 TOP: Structure of the Nose 3. The external openings into the nasal cavities are called nares. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 803 TOP: Structure of the Nose 4. The cribriform plate is perforated by many small holes through which branches of the olfactory nerve pass, relaying smell to the brain. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 802 TOP: Structure of the Nose 5. The nose is surrounded by the frontal bone and the mandible. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 802 TOP: Structure of the Nose 6. When air leaves the posterior nares, it next enters the trachea. ANS: F DIF: M NRUemori SzaItioNnGTB.COM TOP: Structure of the Nose 7. The more common name for the pharynx is the voice box. REF: p. 803 ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 804 TOP: Pharynx 8. Hollow sinuses act to lighten the bones of the skull and serve as resonating chambers for speech. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 804 TOP: Functions of the Nose 9. There are eight paranasal sinuses. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 803 TOP: Paranasal Sinuses 10. The olfactory epithelium contains many nerve cells and a rich lymphatic supply. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 803 TOP: Structure of the NoseAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 11. The first structure with which the air comes in contact as it moves from the nose into the pharynx is the anterior nares. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 803 TOP: Structure of the Nose 12. The vibrissae serve as baffles to provide a large, mucus-covered surface area over which air must pass before reaching the pharynx. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 804 TOP: Functions of the Nose 13. The trachea is more commonly called the throat. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 804 TOP: Pharynx 14. Another name for the larynx is the throat. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 804 TOP: Pharynx 15. The lingual tonsils are the tonsils most commonly removed by a tonsillectomy. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 804 TOP: Pharynx 16. The palatine tonsils are locatNed atthRUS eIb aseofGBNT th. Ce t oO Mngue. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 804 TOP: Pharynx 17. Bony structures constitute the framework of the larynx. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 805 TOP: Larynx 18. The lower pair of folds in the mucous membrane of the larynx serve as the true vocal cords. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 806 TOP: Larynx 19. The pharynx serves as a passageway for both food and air. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 804 TOP: Pharynx 20. The trachea collapses between respirations. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 807 TOP: TracheaAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 21. The larynx filters, warms, and humidifies inspired air. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 807 TOP: Larynx 22. The arytenoid cartilages are the most important of the paired laryngeal cartilages. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 806 TOP: Larynx 23. The structure of the secondary and tertiary bronchi and bronchioles is nearly identical to the structure of the primary bronchi. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 809-810 TOP: Bronchi and Alveoli 24. Alveolar ducts consist of cartilage rings, smooth muscles, and endothelium. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 809-810 TOP: Structure of the Bronchi 25. The parts of the thoracic cavity occupied by the lungs are called the pleural divisions. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 815 TOP: Structure of the Thoracic Cavity 26. Air and blood are in direct contact in the alveoli. ANS: F DIF: M NRUemori SzaItioNnGTB.COM TOP: Structure of the Alveoli REF: p. 810 27. Surfactant is a unique fluid that helps increase the surface tension within the alveoli. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 810 TOP: Structure of the Alveoli 28. The main function of bronchioles is distribution. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 811 TOP: Functions of the Bronchi and Alveoli 29. Both the right lung and the left lung have an oblique fissure. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 813 TOP: Structure of the Lungs 30. Both the right lung and the left lung are subdivided into three lobes each. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 813 TOP: Structure of the Lungs 31. The apex of each lung is lateral and inferior.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM N R I ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 813 TOP: Structure of the Lungs 32. The oblique fissure is present only in the right lung. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 813 TOP: Structure of the Lungs 33. Raising the ribs enlarges the depth and width of the thorax. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 815 TOP: Functions of the Thoracic Cavity 34. In the thoracic cavity, the trachea is located in the mediastinum. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 815 TOP: Structure of the Thoracic Cavity 35. A pleural space containing a lubricating fluid separates two layers of pleura. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 815 TOP: Structure of the Thoracic Cavity 36. The parietal layer of the pleura lines the entire thoracic cavity. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 815 TOP: Structure of the Thoracic Cavity G B.C M U S N T O 37. When the diaphragm contracts, it pulls the ribs together and reduces the size of the thoracic cavity and expels air. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 815 TOP: Functions of the Thoracic Cavity 38. The thoracic cavity is lined by visceral pleura. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 815 TOP: Structure of the Thoracic Cavity 39. The bronchi, bronchioles, and alveoli all function as air distributors. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 811 TOP: Functions of the Bronchi and Alveoli 40. Vocal cords and epiglottis are synonymous terms. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 806 TOP: Larynx 41. Most of the structures in the bronchial tree are involved in air distribution rather than gas exchange.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 800 TOP: Introduction 42. The pharynx is a tubelike structure that opens only into the mouth and larynx. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 804 TOP: Pharynx 43. Enlarged pharyngeal tonsils are called sinusoids. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 804 TOP: Pharynx 44. The more common name for the thyroid cartilage is the “Adam’s apple.” ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 806 TOP: Cartilages of the Larynx 45. The oropharynx moves up and down during swallowing to prevent food or liquids from entering the trachea. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 806 TOP: Cartilages of the Larynx 46. Aspirated objects tend to lodge in the right bronchus. ANS: T DIF: MNemoRrizaItionG B.C M REF: p. 809 TOP: Structure of the Bronchi U S N T O 47. Surfactant is a fluid coating the alveoli that reduces surface tension. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 810 TOP: Structure of the Alveoli 48. Tuberculosis is a highly contagious lower respiratory bacterial infection that can permanently destroy lung tissue and cause death. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 818 TOP: Mechanisms of Disease 49. The rings of cartilage that form the trachea are incomplete rings that prevent it from collapsing and shutting off the vital airway. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 807 TOP: Structure of the Trachea 50. The bronchi divide into symmetrical trachea. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 809 TOP: Structure of the BronchiAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 51. The right lung is divided into three lobes by horizontal and oblique fissures. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 813 TOP: Lungs 52. The hilum of each lung is lateral and inferior. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 813 TOP: Structure of the Lungs 53. For gas exchange to occur at the cellular level, both the respiratory system and the circulatory system must be functional. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 800 TOP: Introduction 54. The respiratory system plays a crucial role in regulating the body’s pH. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 801 TOP: Introduction 55. The main characteristic shared by organs of the upper respiratory tract is that they are not in the thorax. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 801 TOP: Structural Organization 56. The nares are the flaring cartilaginous expansions forming and supporting the outer side of each nostril opening. N URSINGTB.COM ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 803 TOP: Structure of the Nose 57. The palatine bone is both the roof of the mouth and the floor of the nose. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 802 TOP: Structure of the Nose 58. A portion of the sphenoid bone called the cribriform plate forms the roof of the nose. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 802 TOP: Structure of the Nose 59. Because of the rapid blood loss, nosebleeds are frequently a serious problem. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 803 TOP: Structure of the Nose 60. The terms turbinates and conchae refer to the same structures. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 803 TOP: Structure of the NoseAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 61. All of the turbinates are processes of the ethmoid bone. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 803 TOP: Structure of the Nose 62. The olfactory epithelium is a special part of the respiratory mucosa. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 803 TOP: Structure of the Nose 63. The respiratory mucosa extends down to and lines the alveoli. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 803 TOP: Structure of the Nose 64. The paranasal sinuses are lined with respiratory mucosa. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 803 TOP: Paranasal Sinuses 65. All of the paranasal sinuses drain into the nasal cavity. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 803 TOP: Paranasal Sinuses 66. The laryngopharynx ends at the esophagus. ANS: T DIF: MNemoRrizaItionG B.C M REF: p. 804 TOP: Structure of the Pharynx U S N T O 67. There are nine openings in the pharynx. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 804 TOP: Structure of the Pharynx 68. All three sets of tonsils are located in the oropharynx. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 804 TOP: Structure of the Pharynx 69. The larynx lies ventral to the third, fourth, and fifth vertebrae and superior to the pharynx. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 805 TOP: Location of the Larynx 70. Both the thyroid gland and the carotid arteries touch the sides of the larynx. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 805 TOP: Structure of the Larynx 71. The false vocal cords are superior to the true vocal cords. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 805 TOP: Structure of the LarynxAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 72. Besides being the name of a heart chamber, ventricle is the name of a part of the larynx. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 806 TOP: Structure of the Larynx 73. When the intrinsic muscles of the larynx contract, the larynx moves up in the throat. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 807 TOP: Muscles of the Larynx 74. Both intrinsic and extrinsic muscles of the larynx are used to put tension on the vocal cords. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 806-807 TOP: Muscles of the Larynx 75. The trachea is slightly shorter than the pharynx. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 804-807 TOP: Structure of the Pharynx, Structure of the Trachea 76. Unlike the trachea, parts of the primary bronchi have complete cartilage rings. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 809 TOP: Structure of the Bronchi 77. There are almost 30 million alveoli in the two lungs. ANS: F DIF: MNemUoRriSzaItioNnGTB.COM TOP: Structure of the Bronchi REF: p. 809 78. The most important structure in the lower respiratory tract is the alveolus. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 811 TOP: Functions of the Bronchi and Alveoli 79. The apex of the lung rests directly on the diaphragm. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 813 TOP: Structure of the Lungs 80. The respiratory tract does not include a left middle secondary bronchus. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: pp. 812-813 TOP: Structure of the Lungs 81. The rib cage and the diaphragm are considered part of the accessory structures of the respiratory system. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 801 TOP: Structural OrganizationAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM U S N T 82. The olfactory epithelium can be distinguished from the rest of the respiratory mucosa in the nose by its bright pink or red color. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 803 TOP: Nasal Mucosa 83. When the palatine tonsils become enlarged, they are called adenoids. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 804 TOP: Pharynx 84. The changing shape of the pharynx allows the production of different vowel sounds. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 805 TOP: Functions of the Pharynx 85. All of the cartilages in the larynx are paired cartilages. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 806 TOP: Cartilages of the Larynx 86. The first part of the bronchial tree that does not contain cartilage as part of its structure is the alveolar ducts. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 809 TOP: Structure of the Bronchi 87. The mucus blanket and the cN iliaRthatImoGve iBt t.oCtheMpharynx act as a purification mechanism for the respiratory system. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 811 TOP: Functions of the Bronchi and Alveoli 88. Because cigarette smoke contains so many irritants, the longer someone smokes the more it acts as a stimulant for the cilia in the respiratory system to move more rapidly to clean out the bronchi. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 811 TOP: Functions of the Bronchi and Alveoli 89. The primary bronchi and the pulmonary blood vessels bound together by connective tissue form what is called the root of the lung. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 813 TOP: Structure of the Lungs 90. Gas exchange in the lung is efficient because both the alveoli and capillaries have very thin walls. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 814 TOP: Function of the LungsAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 91. Just as all of the circulatory system serves the capillaries, all of the respiratory system serves the alveoli. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 811 TOP: Functions of the Bronchi and Alveoli 92. The movement of oxygen from the alveoli to the red blood cells is called cellular respiration. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 801 TOP: Structural Organization 93. Research suggests that the function of the vomeronasal organ is the detection of pheromones. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 803 TOP: Vomeronasal Organ 94. The root of the lung and the hilum of the lung are the same structure. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 813 TOP: Structure of the Lungs 95. The nose is composed of two bones and two cartilages. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 802 TOP: Structure of the Nose 96. The paranasal sinuses have two functions: they lighten the bones of the skull and also drain trapped particles into the nasNop hU a Rr SynIxN. GTB.COM ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 804 TOP: Functions of the Nose 97. Both the origin and insertion of intrinsic muscles of the larynx are attached to the larynx itself. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 806 TOP: Muscles of the Larynx 98. The tension of the vocal cords is the sole determinant of the sound of the voice. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 807 TOP: Functions of the Larynx 99. There are seven cartilages of the larynx, three of which are paired. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 806 TOP: Cartilages of the Larynx 100. The epiglottis is a small, leaf-shaped cartilage that projects upward behind the tongue and hyoid bone. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 806 TOP: Cartilages of the LarynxAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 101. The laryngeal cavity above the vestibular folds is called the infraglottic cavity. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 806 TOP: Structure of the Larynx 102. Each vocal cord is covered by simple squamous epithelium that is surrounded by a strong vocal ligament. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 806 TOP: Structure of the Larynx 103. The narrowest part of the larynx is the slit between the right and left vocal folds. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 806 TOP: Structure of the Larynx 104. The trachea provides part of an open passage from the outside to the lungs. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 807 TOP: Functions of the Trachea 105. The diameter of the trachea is about 2.5 inches. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 807 TOP: Structure of the Trachea 106. There are 21 levels of branchNingRin tIhe bGronBch.iaCl treMe. U S N T O ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 809 TOP: Structure of the Bronchi 107. Ciliated mucus lines both the trachea and bronchi. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 809 TOP: Structure of the Bronchi 108. The respiratory cilia can “taste” bitter toxins and beat more rapidly to remove the toxins from the airway. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 811 TOP: Functions of the Bronchi and Alveoli 109. The respiratory escalator are a group of cilia that beat in unison to move air more effectively to the alveoli. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 811 TOP: Functions of the Bronchi and Alveoli MATCHING Match each term with its corresponding definition.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM U S N T O a. Larynx b. Pleura c. Turbinates d. Respiratory membrane e. Alveolus f. Trachea g. Pharynx h. Bronchial tree i. Respiratory mucosa j. Paranasal sinus k. Bronchiole l. Nares 1. Throat 2. Bony projections that divide each nasal cavity into three passageways; nasal conchae 3. Serous membrane in the thoracic cavity 4. Primary site of gas exchange in the lungs 5. Windpipe; extends from the larynx in the neck to the primary bronchi in the thorax 6. Voice box; located just below the pharynx 7. Small branch of a bronchus 8. Specialized ciliated mucous membrane that lines the respiratory tract down to the bronchioles 9. One of four pairs of air sinuses of the skull opening into the nose 10. Double layer of cells where gases are exchanged between alveolar air and blood 11. System of airways composed of the trachea and two primary bronchi and their many branches 12. External openings into the nasal cavities or the nostrils 1. ANS: G TOP: Pharynx N R I G B.C M DIF: Memorization REF: p. 804 2. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 803 TOP: 3. ANS: TOP: Structure of the Nose B DIF: Memorization Structure of the Thoracic Cavity REF: p. 815 4. ANS: TOP: E DIF: Memorization Structure of the Alveoli REF: p. 810 5. ANS: TOP: F DIF: Memorization Trachea REF: p. 807 6. ANS: TOP: A DIF: Memorization Larynx REF: p. 805 7. ANS: TOP: K DIF: Memorization Structure of the Bronchi REF: p. 809 8. ANS: TOP: I DIF: Memorization Nasal Mucosa REF: p. 803 9. ANS: TOP: J DIF: Memorization Paranasal Sinuses REF: p. 803 10. ANS: TOP: D DIF: Memorization Structure of the Alveoli REF: p. 810 11. ANS: TOP: H DIF: Memorization Structure of the Bronchi REF: p. 809 12. ANS: TOP: L DIF: Memorization Nose REF: p. 803Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM Match each term with its corresponding statement or definition. a. Alveoli b. Primary bronchi c. Secondary bronchi d. Tertiary bronchi e. Trachea 13. Extends from the larynx in the neck to the primary bronchi; the windpipe 14. Consists of the right and left bronchi, which branch off of the trachea 15. Tubes that supply each lobe of the lung 16. Primary gas exchange structures of the respiratory tract 17. Tubes that supply the respiratory bronchioles 13. 14. ANS: TOP: ANS: E Trachea B DIF: Memorization DIF: Memorization REF: REF: p. 807 p. 809 TOP: Structure of the Bronchi 15. ANS: TOP: C Structure of DIF: Memorization the Lungs REF: p. 809 16. ANS: TOP: A Structure of DIF: Memorization the Alveoli REF: p. 810 17. ANS: TOP: D Structure of DIF: Memorization the Bronchi REF: p. 809 OTHER NURSINGTB.COM 1. What part of the respiratory system serves as resonating chambers for speech? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: p. 804 TOP: Functions of the Nose 2. Name the three divisions of the pharynx, starting with the most superior. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 804 TOP: Pharynx 3. What structures are located at the superior and the inferior ends of the trachea? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: p. 805 | pp. 809-810 TOP: Larynx, Structure of the Bronchi 4. Anatomically, how does the right bronchus differ from the left bronchus? What effect might this have on the aspiration of objects?Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM U S N T O ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: pp. 809-811 TOP: Bronchi and Alveoli 5. Explain why the bronchial tree is described as resembling an inverted tree trunk. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 809 TOP: Structure of the Bronchi 6. Identify some factors about the structure of lung tissue that make efficient gas exchange possible. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: pp. 813-814 TOP: Lungs 7. What structures enter each lung at the hilum? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 813 TOP: Structure of the Lungs N R I G B.C M 8. What are bronchopulmonary segments? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 814 TOP: Structure of the Lungs 9. List the functions of the respiratory system. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 800-801 TOP: Introduction 10. List the functions of the nose. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 804 TOP: Functions of the Nose 11. Differentiate between the intrinsic and extrinsic muscles of the larynx, and give one function of each.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: pp. 806-807 TOP: Muscles of the Larynx 12. List two functions of the paranasal sinuses. ANS: Answers will vary DIF: Memorization REF: p. 804 TOP: Functions of the Nose 13. Explain the ways in which the volume of the thoracic cavity is increased. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: p. 815 TOP: Functions of the Thoracic Cavity 14. Name the structures through which air passes from the beginning of the trachea to the alveoli. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 807 | pp. 809-810 TOP: Trachea, Bronchi and Alveoli 15. Explain how the respiratory mNe mbranRIUS eallowsGBNT . fCor aMO n efficient exchange of gases in the lung. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: pp. 810-811 | pp. 814-815 TOP: Structure of the Alveoli, Functions of the Lungs 16. What is surfactant and what is its function? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 810-811 TOP: Structure of the Alveoli 17. What is the vomeronasal organ and what does research evidence suggest its function might be? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 803 TOP: Vomeronasal Organ 18. How does the structure of the trachea help it accomplish its function?Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM N R I G B.C ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: p. 807 TOP: Trachea 19. Explain the ways in which the bronchi assist in cleansing the air before it gets to the alveoli. What can lessen the effectiveness of the bronchi’s ability to clean the air? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 811 TOP: Functions of the Bronchi and Alveoli ESSAY 1. Richard is a heavy smoker. Recently he has noticed that when he gets up in the morning, he has a bothersome cough that brings up a large amount of mucus. The cough persists for several minutes and then stops until the next morning. What is an explanation for this condition? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 811 TOP: Functions of the Bronchi and Alveoli 2. Donald was a smoker but quit 17 years ago. He has developed a raspy cough, has chest pain with exertion, and is losing weUightS. X-NrayTexaminOation reveals darkened shadows on his lungs. What is the primary diagnosis? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 818 TOP: Mechanisms of Disease 3. Kelly is 5 years old and is a mouth breather. She has had repeated episodes of tonsillitis, and her pediatrician suggests removal of her tonsils and adenoids. He further suggests that the surgery may cure her mouth-breathing problem. Why is this a possibility? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 804 TOP: PharynxAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM Chapter 36: Ventilation Patton: Anatomy and Physiology, 10th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following is not a regulated process associated with the functioning of the respiratory system? a. Transport of gases b. Gas exchange in lungs and tissue c. Control of cell metabolism rate d. Pulmonary ventilation ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 824 TOP: Respiratory Physiology 2. Standard atmospheric pressure is mm Hg. a. 650 b. 700 c. 760 d. 800 ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 825 TOP: Mechanism of Ventilation 3. Boyle’s law states that the volume of a gas varies with pressure at a temperature. a. directly; constant b. inversely; constant NURSINGTB.COM c. directly; constantly changing d. inversely; constantly changing ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 825 TOP: Mechanism of Ventilation 4. Which muscles are used for forced expiration? a. Sternocleidomastoid and abdominal muscles b. Sternocleidomastoid and intercostals c. External intercostals and pectoralis muscles d. Abdominal muscles and internal intercostals ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 828 TOP: Mechanism of Ventilation 5. When the pressure in the lung is greater than atmospheric pressure: a. inspiration occurs. b. expiration occurs. c. lung tissue has collapsed. d. the bronchioles are obstructed. ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 828 TOP: Mechanism of Ventilation 6. The vital capacity is equal to the sum of the:Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM N R a. inspiratory capacity and the residual volume. b. inspiratory reserve volume, tidal volume, and expiratory reserve volume. c. tidal volume, residual volume, and expiratory reserve volume. d. inspiratory reserve volume, tidal volume, and inspiratory capacity. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 833 TOP: Pulmonary Capacities 7. The term used to describe the volume of air exchanged during normal inspiration and expiration is: a. inspiratory and expiratory reserve volume. b. vital capacity. c. tidal volume. d. residual volume. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 833 TOP: Pulmonary Capacities 8. During inspiration, the expansion of the lungs causes: a. cohesion of visceral and parietal pleura. b. a pressure gradient from alveoli to atmosphere. c. a decrease in alveolar pressure. d. an increase in intrathoracic pressure from about –6 to –4 mm Hg. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 825 TOP: Mechanism of Ventilation 9. Vital capacity is defined as the: I G B.C M a. maximum volume of air thU at caSn bNe mToved inOto and out of the lungs during forced respiration. b. volume of air that can be forcibly exhaled after a normal inspiration. c. volume of air that can be forcibly exhaled at the end of a normal expiration. d. total volume of air contained in the respiratory passages. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 833-834 TOP: Pulmonary Capacities 10. Excessive fluid in the pleural cavity would be most likely to cause: a. increased residual volume. b. decreased vital capacity. c. increased functional reserve volume. d. decreased tidal volume. ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 834 TOP: Pulmonary Capacities 11. Which of the following constitutes total lung volume? a. Residual volume and vital capacity b. Tidal volume, inspiratory reserve volume, and expiratory reserve volume c. Residual volume and tidal volume d. Vital capacity and tidal volume ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 834 TOP: Pulmonary CapacitiesAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM N R I 12. If the tidal volume of a given individual is 500 ml, then the anatomical dead space is approximately ml. a. 50 b. 100 c. 150 d. 200 ANS: C DIF: Application REF: p. 834 TOP: Pulmonary Capacities 13. A type of breathing characterized by gradually increasing tidal volume for several breaths followed by several breaths with gradually decreasing tidal volume is: a. dyspnea. b. apnea. c. Biot breathing. d. Cheyne-Stokes respiration. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 835 TOP: Types of Breathing (Box 36-4) 14. Normal, quiet breathing is known as: a. orthopnea. b. hyperpnea. c. dyspnea. d. eupnea. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 835 TOP: Types of Breathing (Box 36-4) G B.C M U S N T O 15. Which type of breathing is characterized by repeated sequences of deep gasps and apnea, and is usually seen in people with increased intracranial pressure? a. Hyperpnea b. Dyspnea c. Biot’s breathing d. Eupnea ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 835 TOP: Types of Breathing (Box 36-4) 16. Labored or difficult breathing is known as: a. apnea. b. hyperpnea. c. dyspnea. d. eupnea. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 835 TOP: Types of Breathing (Box 36-4) 17. A sudden rise in arterial blood pressure will: a. cause a reflex increase in rate and depth of respirations. b. cause a reflex slowing of respirations. c. have no effect on respirations because of the control mechanisms in the cerebralAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM cortex. d. cause an immediate decrease in respirations followed by a prolonged period of rapid and shallow respirations. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 840 TOP: Other Influences on Ventilation 18. Which of the following combinations in arterial blood could cause an increase in the respiratory rate? a. Increased PCO2, decreased arterial pressure, decreased pH, decreased PO2 b. Increased PCO2, decreased arterial pressure, increased pH, decreased PO2 c. Decreased PCO2, decreased arterial pressure, increased pH, increased PO2 d. Decreased PCO2, decreased arterial pressure, decreased pH, decreased PO2 ANS: A DIF: Application REF: p. 836 TOP: Regulation of Ventilation 19. Which muscle is not used in quiet inspiration? a. Serratus anterior b. External intercostal muscles c. Diaphragm d. Neither A nor B ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 825 TOP: Inspiration 20. Which muscle is used in quiet expiration? a. Internal intercostals b. External intercostals c. Abdominal muscles d. None of the above NURSINGTB.COM ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 828 TOP: Expiration 21. Which of the following will cause brief apnea? a. Sudden painful stimulus b. Increase in carbon dioxide in the blood c. Sudden cold stimulus applied to the skin d. Both A and C ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 840 TOP: Regulation of Ventilation 22. The tendency of the thorax and lungs to return to the preinspiration volume is called: a. compliance. b. elastic recoil. c. expiration. d. ventilation. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 828 TOP: Mechanism of Ventilation 23. Which gas law deals with the solubility of gases in solution?Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM a. Dalton b. Henry c. Boyle d. Charles ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 826 TOP: Gas Laws (Box 36-1) 24. Alveolar ventilation is inspired air minus: a. anatomical dead air space. b. tidal volume. c. reserve volume. d. residual volume. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 834 TOP: Pulmonary Volumes, Pulmonary Capacities 25. The amount of air left in the lung after a normal expiration is called: a. anatomical dead air space. b. physiological dead air space. c. functional residual capacity. d. vital capacity. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 834 TOP: Pulmonary Volumes, Pulmonary Capacities 26. If the tidal volume were 600 ml, the alveolar ventilation would be about ml. a. 550 b. 400 c. 300 d. 250 NURSINGTB.COM ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 833 TOP: Pulmonary Volumes, Pulmonary Capacities 27. The inspiratory center is located in what part of the nervous system? a. Pons b. Medulla c. Cerebellum d. Cerebrum ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 836 TOP: Respiratory Control Centers 28. The apneustic center is located in what part of the nervous system? a. Pons b. Medulla c. Cerebellum d. Cerebrum ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 837 TOP: Respiratory Control CentersAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 29. Internal respiration can be defined as: a. the exchange of gases between the lung and the blood capillaries in the lung. b. pulmonary ventilation. c. the exchange of gases between the blood capillaries and the tissues cells. d. both A and B. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 824 TOP: Respiratory Physiology 30. External respiration can be defined as: a. the exchange of gases between the lung and the blood capillaries in the lung. b. pulmonary ventilation. c. the exchange of gases between the blood capillaries and the tissue cells. d. both A and B. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 824 TOP: Respiratory Physiology 31. Which explains the relationship between the gas pressure gradient of the atmosphere and the alveolar air that allows inhalation? a. When atmospheric pressure is less than the pressure within the lung, air flows down this gas pressure gradient. Then air moves from the atmosphere into the lungs. b. When atmospheric pressure is greater than the pressure within the lungs, air flows down this gas pressure gradient. Then air moves from the atmosphere into the lungs. c. When atmospheric pressure is greater than the pressure within the lung, air flows away from this gas pressuNrUe gRrSadIieNntG. TThBe.n CaiOr mMoves from the lungs out into the atmosphere. d. When atmospheric pressure is less than the pressure within the lung, air flows up this gas pressure gradient. Then air moves from the atmosphere into the lungs. ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 825 TOP: Mechanism of Ventilation 32. Which of the following would you expect to happen to cellular respiration during exercise? a. Increased cellular respiration occurs during exercise, causing a rise in plasma PCO2, which is detected by central chemoreceptors in the brain and perhaps peripheral chemoreceptors in the carotid sinus and aorta to cause an increase in respiration rate. b. Decreased cellular respiration occurs during exercise, causing a rise in plasma PCO2, which is detected by central chemoreceptors in the brain and perhaps peripheral chemoreceptors in the carotid sinus and aorta to cause a decrease in respiration rate. c. Exercise causes a decrease in cellular respiration by shifting peripheral chemoreceptors in the heart to cause retention of oxygen. d. Increased cellular respiration occurs during exercise, causing a decrease in plasma PCO2, which is detected by central chemoreceptors in the brain and perhaps peripheral chemoreceptors in the carotid sinus and aorta to cause a decrease in respiration rate. ANS: A DIF: Application REF: p. 839 TOP: Regulation of VentilationAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 33. Why would a collapsed right lung, due to a pneumothorax, also collapse the left lung? a. The mediastinum is a mobile rather than a rigid partition between the two pleural sacs, thereby allowing the increased pressure in the side of the chest that is open to push the heart and other mediastinal structures toward the intact side, where they can exert pressure on the left lung. b. Subatmospheric pressure increases from its normal level and thereby moves from high pressure area (right lung) to low pressure area (left lung). c. When intrathoracic pressure increases, the mediastinum softens and thereby allows the increased pressure in the side of the chest that is open to push the heart and mediastinal structures toward the intact side, where they can exert pressure on the left lung. d. Intrathoracic pressure increases from its subatmospheric level to an atmospheric level, thereby allowing the pressure within the chest to increase in proportion to the volume of the thorax. ANS: A DIF: Application REF: p. 833 TOP: Pneumothorax (Box 36-3) TRUE/FALSE 1. The major factor that determines the movement of air into or out of the lungs is a pressure gradient. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 824 TOP: Mechanism of Ventilation 2. A primary function of the respiratory system is to supply tissue with adequate oxygen and to remove carbon dioxide. N URSINGTB.COM ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 823 TOP: Introduction 3. For air to remain in the lungs, the pressure in the lungs must be equal to or less than atmospheric pressure. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 824 TOP: Mechanism of Ventilation 4. Standard atmospheric pressure is usually about 760 mm Hg. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 825 TOP: Mechanism of Ventilation 5. The tendency of the lungs and thorax to return to their preinspiration volume is a physical phenomenon called elastic recoil. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 828 TOP: Expiration 6. The inspiratory capacity is equal to the sum of the tidal volume and the inspiratory reserve volume.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 834 TOP: Pulmonary Capacities 7. The amount of air that could be forcibly expired after normal expiration is called the functional residual capacity. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 834 TOP: Pulmonary Volumes 8. Vital capacity is the sum of inspiratory reserve volume, tidal volume, and expiratory reserve volume. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 833 TOP: Pulmonary Capacities 9. Anatomical dead space approximates 10% of the tidal volume. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 834 TOP: Pulmonary Capacities 10. With emphysema, the amount of dead space air increases. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 834 TOP: Pulmonary Capacities 11. Anatomical dead space contains air that does not ventilate the alveoli. ANS: T DIF: MNemoRrizaItionG B.C M REF: p. 834 TOP: Pulmonary Capacities U S N T O 12. The anatomical dead space is approximately equal to the same number of milliliters as the individual’s weight in pounds. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 834 TOP: Pulmonary Capacities 13. The residual volume is increased with a pneumothorax. ANS: F DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 833 TOP: Pulmonary Volumes 14. Orthopnea can be relieved by assuming an erect posture. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 835 TOP: Types of Breathing (Box 36-4) 15. Hypoventilation is characterized by low levels of carbon dioxide. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 835 TOP: Types of Breathing (Box 36-4) 16. Dyspnea is often associated with hyperventilation.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM U S N T O ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 835 TOP: Types of Breathing (Box 36-4) 17. The pneumotaxic center operates mainly to prevent overinflation of lung tissue. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 837 TOP: Respiratory Control Centers 18. The diving reflex is related to the effects of hydrostatic pressure on the body. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 840 TOP: Unusual Breathing Reflexes (Box 36-6) 19. Input from the apneustic center in the pons inhibits the inspiratory center, causing a decrease in the length and depth of inspiration. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 838 TOP: Respiratory Control Centers 20. The Hering-Breuer reflexes are activated by stretch receptors in the lungs that send messages to the inspiratory center. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 840 TOP: Other Influences on Ventilation 21. Cerebral impulses are a more powerful regulator of respirations than the carbon dioxide content of the blood. ANS: F DIF: MNemoRrizaItionG B.C M TOP: Respiratory Control Centers REF: p. 837 22. Both sudden painful stimulation and sudden cold stimulation to the skin can produce reflex apnea. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 840 TOP: Other Influences on Ventilation 23. The pneumotaxic center normally inhibits the apneustic center and the inspiratory center to permit a normal rhythm of breathing. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 824 TOP: Respiratory Control Centers 24. The Hering-Breuer reflex regulates tidal volume. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 840 TOP: Other Influences on Ventilation 25. In both inspiration and expiration, air moves down a pressure gradient. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 824 TOP: Mechanism of VentilationAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 26. The pressure between the visceral pleura and parietal pleura must always be positive to ensure the lung can expand. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 828 TOP: Expiration 27. As lung compliance decreases, the efficiency of respiration increases. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 828 TOP: Inspiration 28. As the blood volume in the lung increases, the vital capacity increases. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 833 TOP: Pulmonary Capacities 29. Anatomical dead air space and physiological dead air space are interchangeable terms. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 834 TOP: Pulmonary Capacities 30. A healthy respiratory system will still contain a certain amount of dead air space. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 834 TOP: Pulmonary Capacities 31. A large amount of physiological dead air space would indicate an abnormal condition in the respiratory system. N URSINGTB.COM ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 834 TOP: Pulmonary Capacities 32. Contraction of the diaphragm alone can produce quiet respiration. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 825 TOP: Mechanism of Ventilation 33. Charles law deals with the relationship between pressure and volume. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 826 TOP: Gas Laws (Box 36-1) 34. Quiet expiration is normally a passive process. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 828 TOP: Mechanism of Ventilation 35. Because residual volume cannot be voluntarily exhaled, it is not included as part of vital capacity. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 833 TOP: Pulmonary VolumesAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 36. A collapsed lung has no air in it and will sink if placed in water. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 825 TOP: Pulmonary Volumes 37. When the diaphragm contracts, it pulls the base of the ribs together, forcing air out of the lungs. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 837 TOP: Mechanism of Ventilation 38. The apneustic center is located in the medulla of the brain. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 837 TOP: Respiratory Control Centers 39. The expiratory center of the medulla seems to be inactive in normal, quiet breathing. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 837 TOP: Respiratory Control Centers 40. The pneumotaxic center is located in the pons of the brain. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 837 TOP: Respiratory Control Centers 41. The volume of inspired air thNat aRctuaIllyGreacBh.esCtheMalveoli is called alveolar ventilation. U S N T O ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 834 TOP: Pulmonary Capacities 42. Pulmonary ventilation is a technical term for what most people call breathing. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 824 TOP: Pulmonary Ventilation 43. The gas laws are based on the concept of a standard gas whose molecules are so far apart that they rarely collide. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 826 TOP: Gas Laws (Box 36-1) 44. A rise in the carbon dioxide partial pressure is frequently linked to a rise in pH. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 836 TOP: Regulation of Ventilation 45. A relatively small rise in arterial carbon dioxide partial pressure stimulates an increase in breathing rate. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 836Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM TOP: Regulation of Ventilation 46. A relatively large increase in arterial oxygen partial pressure stimulates an increase in breathing rate. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 836 TOP: Regulation of Ventilation 47. Compliance is the ability of the lungs and thorax to stretch. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 828 TOP: Mechanism of Ventilation 48. When the diaphragm relaxes, it increases the size of the chest cavity, causing air to move into the lung. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 825 TOP: Mechanism of Ventilation 49. Residual volume and minimal volume make up about 5% of vital capacity. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 833 TOP: Pulmonary Volumes 50. An apparatus called a spirometer is used to measure the volume of air exchanged in breathing. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 832 TOP: Pulmonary Volumes, PuNlmoRnaryICapGaciB tie.s C M U S N T O 51. A pulmonary volume is the sum of two or more pulmonary capacities. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 833 TOP: Pulmonary Volumes, Pulmonary Capacities 52. Normal tidal volume is about 500 ml. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 833 TOP: Pulmonary Volumes 53. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is a broad term used to describe conditions of progressive obstruction of expiratory airflow. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 841 TOP: Mechanisms of Disease 54. Both external respiration and internal respiration take place in capillaries. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 824 TOP: Respiratory Physiology 55. At the time between inspiration and expiration, the air in the lungs must be at atmospheric pressure.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 824 TOP: Pulmonary Ventilation 56. The contraction of the abdominal muscles and the sternocleidomastoid allow much more air to leave the lungs than does the simple recoil of the lungs. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 828 TOP: Expiration 57. In normal breathing, the inspiratory reserve volume is greater than the expiratory reserve volume. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 833 TOP: Pulmonary Volumes 58. In maximum inspiration and expiration, the inspiratory and expiratory reserve volumes would change but the residual volume would remain constant. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 833 TOP: Pulmonary Volumes 59. Physiological dead air space can never be less than anatomical dead air space. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 834 TOP: Pulmonary Capacities 60. If a person’s total minute volume is 7500 ml and the volume of air in one breathing cycle is 500 ml, the breathing rate must be 20 cycles per minute. ANS: F DIF: AN ppUlicRaS tioInNGRTEBF:.C ppO. 8M34-835 TOP: Pulmonary Airflow 61. Although the respiratory system is responsible for ventilation, the circulatory system is responsible for perfusion. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 836 TOP: Ventilation and Perfusion 62. Internal respiration and cellular respiration refer to the same thing. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 824 TOP: Respiratory Physiology 63. Peak flow can be measured by a simple, handheld spirometer. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 836 TOP: Pulmonary Airflow 64. The volume forcefully expired during the first second, FEV1, is usually about 70% of the vital capacity. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 835 TOP: Pulmonary AirflowAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 65. A person who is trapped underwater for a long enough time will drown, and this indicates that the cerebral cortex does not have complete control of breathing. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 838 TOP: Respiratory Control Centers 66. Chemoreceptors can be found in both the carotid bodies and the aorta. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 838 TOP: Regulation of Ventilation 67. The cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is much more influenced by carbon dioxide in the blood because there is no buffering system in the CSF as there is in the blood. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 838 TOP: Regulation of Ventilation 68. A well-perfused but poorly ventilated part of the lung wastes blood. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 836 TOP: Ventilation and Perfusion 69. A poorly perfused but well-ventilated part of the lung wastes blood. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 836 TOP: Ventilation and Perfusion MATCHING N URSINGTB.COM Match each type of breathing with its corresponding definition. a. Dyspnea b. Cheyne-Stokes respiration c. Eupnea d. Hypoventilation e. Biot breathing f. Hyperventilation g. Hyperpnea h. Orthopnea i. Apneusis j. Apnea 1. Temporary cessation of breathing at the end of a normal expiration 2. An increase in pulmonary ventilation in excess of the need for oxygen 3. Repeated sequences of deep gasps and apnea; indicates increased intracranial pressure 4. Normal, quiet breathing 5. Cycles of gradually increasing tidal volume for several breaths followed by several breaths with gradually decreasing tidal volume 6. Decrease in pulmonary ventilation that results in elevated blood levels of carbon dioxide 7. Cessation of breathing in the inspiratory position 8. Increased breathing that is regulated to meet an increased demand by the body for oxygen 9. Dyspnea while lying downAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 10. Labored or difficult breathing; often associated with hypoventilation 1. ANS: TOP: J Types of DIF: Memorization Breathing (Box 36-4) REF: p. 835 2. ANS: TOP: F Types of DIF: Memorization Breathing (Box 36-4) REF: p. 835 3. ANS: TOP: E Types of DIF: Memorization Breathing (Box 36-4) REF: p. 835 4. ANS: TOP: C Types of DIF: Memorization Breathing (Box 36-4) REF: p. 835 5. ANS: TOP: B Types of DIF: Memorization Breathing (Box 36-4) REF: p. 835 6. ANS: TOP: D Types of DIF: Memorization Breathing (Box 36-4) REF: p. 835 7. ANS: TOP: I Types of DIF: Memorization Breathing (Box 36-4) REF: p. 835 8. ANS: TOP: G Types of DIF: Memorization Breathing (Box 36-4) REF: p. 835 9. ANS: TOP: H Types of DIF: Memorization Breathing (Box 36-4) REF: p. 835 10. ANS: TOP: A Types of DIF: Memorization Breathing (Box 36-4) REF: p. 835 Match each pulmonary volume with its corresponding description or definition. a. Tidal volume b. Vital capacity c. Inspiratory reserve volume d. Expiratory reserve volumNeURSINGTB.COM e. Residual volume f. Minimal air 11. Volume of air equal to IRV + ERV + TV 12. Typical volume of air moved into and out of the lungs during normal, quiet breathing 13. Amount of air that cannot be forcibly expired and is trapped in the lung 14. Largest additional volume of air that can be expired after tidal volume 15. The largest amount of air that can be inspired after tidal inspiration 16. Air that would be trapped inside a collapsed lung 11. ANS: TOP: B Pulmonary DIF: Memorization Capacities REF: p. 833 12. ANS: TOP: A Pulmonary DIF: Memorization Capacities REF: p. 834 13. ANS: TOP: E Pulmonary DIF: Memorization Capacities REF: p. 834 14. ANS: TOP: D Pulmonary DIF: Memorization Capacities REF: p. 834 15. ANS: TOP: C Pulmonary DIF: Memorization Capacities REF: p. 834 16. ANS: TOP: F Pulmonary DIF: Memorization Capacities REF: p. 834Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM OTHER 1. Explain the mechanical process of breathing. Include in your discussion (1) any changes in volumes and pressures and the resulting effects, (2) muscles used for inspiration, and (3) muscles used for expiration. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: pp. 824-828 TOP: Mechanism of Ventilation 2. Define pneumothorax, and discuss its potential effect on respiration. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: p. 833 TOP: Pneumothorax (Box 36-3) 3. Explain the diving reflex. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 837 TOP: Unusual Breathing Reflexes (Box 36-6) 4. Identify and describe four noNnrUesRpSiraItoNry GbTrBea.thCinOgMreflexes. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 837 TOP: Unusual Breathing Reflexes (Box 36-6) 5. Name and explain the pulmonary volumes and capacities. Which of these increase and decrease as a person moves from normal breathing to forceful inspiration and expiration? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: pp. 832-834 TOP: Pulmonary Volumes | Pulmonary Capacities 6. Explain the terms ventilation and perfusion. Explain how they must work together to allow efficient gas exchange in the lung. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: p. 836 TOP: Ventilation and PerfusionAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM ESSAY 1. Steve used a spirometer to analyze his respiratory capacities. He found the following results: A. After normal inspiration, a normal expiration was 500 ml. B. After a normal expiration, he was able to expel an additional 1000 ml. C. Taking as deep a breath as possible, then forcefully exhaling all the air possible, he yielded an output of 4500 ml. Based on the outcome of these measurements, what is Steve’s inspiratory reserve? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: pp. 832-834 TOP: Pulmonary Volumes, Pulmonary Capacities 2. George, a heavy smoker for 30 years, has developed a decreased expiratory reserve volume and a large, barrel-shaped chest cavity. What is his probable diagnosis? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: pp. 841-842 TOP: Mechanisms of Disease 3. A man is at the bottom of a 20-foot tank filled with water and can breathe only through a rigid 15-foot tube. Using the concept of anatomical dead air space, explain why the man may soon begin to suffer from oxygen deprivation. ANS: Answers will vary. NURSINGTB.COM DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 834 TOP: Pulmonary CapacitiesAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM Chapter 37: Gas Exchange & Transport Patton: Anatomy and Physiology, 10th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The approximate partial pressure of oxygen at standard atmospheric pressure is about mm Hg. a. 23 b. 160 c. 300 d. 590 ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 848 TOP: Partial Pressure 2. If a person were skiing high up in the mountains, she might feel that she is having trouble breathing (getting enough oxygen in her blood). This is because the: a. thoracic cavity has a difficult time lowering the internal pressure below the lower atmospheric pressure. b. lower atmospheric pressure lowers the PO2 and the diffusion gradient between the blood and the atmosphere is less. c. lower atmospheric pressure lowers the PO2 and the diffusion gradient between the blood and the atmosphere is greater. d. physiological dead air space increases and atmospheric pressure decreases. ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 849 TOP: Partial Pressure NURSINGTB.COM 3. Dalton law states that the partial pressure of a gas in a mixture of gases is _ to the total pressure of the mixture. a. inversely related to the concentration of that gas in the mixture and b. directly related to the concentration of that gas in the mixture and c. directly related to the concentration of that gas in the mixture and inversely related d. inversely related to the concentration of that gas in the mixture and directly related ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 848 TOP: Partial Pressure 4. Which of the following helps determine the amount of oxygen that diffuses into the blood each minute? a. The total functional surface area of the respiratory membrane b. Alveolar ventilation c. The oxygen pressure gradient between alveolar air and incoming pulmonary blood d. All of the above help determine the amount of oxygen that diffuses into the blood each minute. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 849 TOP: Exchange of Gases in the Lungs 5. By the time the blood leaves the lung capillaries to return to the heart, what percentage of the blood’s hemoglobin has united with oxygen? a. 55%Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM b. 63% c. 82% d. 97% ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 852 TOP: Transport of Oxygen 6. One hundred milliliters of arterial blood contains approximately what volume percent of oxygen? a. 10% b. 15% c. 20% d. 25% ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 852 TOP: Transport of Oxygen 7. Which of the following would have the greatest accelerating effect on the dissociation of oxygen from hemoglobin? a. Increased PO2 b. Decreased PCO2 c. Decreased PO2 and decreased PCO2 d. Decreased PO2 and increased PCO2 ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 852 TOP: Transport of Oxygen 8. The major form by which car NbonRdioIxidGe isBtr.anCspoMrted in the circulatory system is: a. in solution. U b. as bicarbonate ions. c. as carbaminohemoglobin. d. none of the above. S N T O ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 854 TOP: Transport of Carbon Dioxide 9. Which of the following is not a means of transporting oxygen in the blood? a. As oxyhemoglobin b. Combined with the bicarbonate ion (HCO3–) c. Dissolved in the plasma d. All of the above are used to transport oxygen in the blood. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 852 TOP: Transport of Oxygen 10. Carbon dioxide is carried in three forms in the blood. Ranking them from greatest to least amount carried, the sequence would be: a. dissolved in the plasma, carbaminohemoglobin, and bicarbonate ion. b. carbaminohemoglobin, bicarbonate ion, and dissolved in plasma. c. bicarbonate ion, dissolved in plasma, and carbaminohemoglobin. d. bicarbonate ion, carbaminohemoglobin, and dissolved in plasma. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 852-854Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM TOP: Transport of Carbon Dioxide 11. The symbol HbNCOOH– is used for: a. carbonic anhydrase. b. carbaminohemoglobin. c. the heme group. d. the bicarbonate ion. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 853 TOP: Transport of Carbon Dioxide 12. The PCO2 in the atmosphere is: a. less than in the alveolar air. b. greater than in the alveolar air. c. equal to the alveolar air. d. greater than arterial blood. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 849 TOP: Partial Pressure 13. The PCO2 in alveolar air is blood. a. less than in the systemic venous b. greater than in the systemic venous c. equal to the systemic arterial d. Both A and C are correct. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 849 TOP: Partial Pressure NURSINGTB.COM 14. A drop in the body’s production of carbonic anhydrase would hinder the formation of: a. carbonic acid. b. oxyhemoglobin. c. carbaminohemoglobin. d. All of the above are correct. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 854 TOP: Transport of Carbon Dioxide 15. Each hemoglobin molecule can carry how many oxygen molecules? a. One b. Two c. Four d. Eight ANS: C DIF: Application REF: p. 851 TOP: Hemoglobin 16. Each hemoglobin molecule can carry how many carbon dioxide molecules? a. Two b. Four c. Eight d. Hemoglobin cannot carry carbon dioxide molecules. ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 851 TOP: HemoglobinAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 17. If anything decreases alveolar PO2, how does that affect the alveolar-blood oxygen pressure gradient? a. Anything that decreases alveolar PO2 tends to increase the alveolar-blood oxygen pressure gradient and, therefore, tends to increase the amount of oxygen entering the blood. b. Anything that decreases alveolar PO2 tends to decrease the alveolar-blood oxygen pressure gradient and, therefore, tends to decrease the amount of oxygen entering the blood. c. Anything that decreases alveolar PO2 tends to increase the alveolar-blood diffusion rate and, therefore, tends to increase the amount of oxygen entering the blood. d. Anything that decreases PO2 tends to increase arterial-blood PO2 and, therefore, tends to decrease the amount of oxygen entering the blood. ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 850 TOP: Exchange of Gases in the Lungs 18. About 98.5% of the oxygen carried by systemic arterial blood is attached to: a. bicarbonate ions. b. hemoglobin. c. carbaminohemoglobin. d. chloride ions. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 852 TOP: Transport of Oxygen TRUE/FALSE N URSINGTB.COM 1. The partial pressure exerted by oxygen in a liquid is called oxygen tension. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 848 TOP: Partial Pressure 2. The partial pressure of oxygen in an artery is always lower than the partial pressure of oxygen in a vein. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 849 TOP: Exchange of Gases in the Lungs 3. Because of tissue layers between alveolar air and the blood supply, arterial blood PO2 is always less than alveolar PO2. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 849 TOP: Partial Pressure 4. Blood is distributed through the capillaries in a layer so thin that each red blood cell comes in contact with the alveolar-capillary membrane. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 849 TOP: Exchange of Gases in the LungsAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank ANS: F TOP: Hemoglobin DIF: Memorization REF: p. 851 NURSINGTB.COM ANS: T U S N T O 5. Under usual conditions, the partial pressure of oxygen in systemic venous blood is approximately 87 mm Hg. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 848 TOP: Partial Pressure 6. The PO2 is higher in the femoral artery than in the femoral vein. ANS: T DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 848 TOP: Partial Pressure 7. Oxygenated blood contains equal amounts of both dissolved oxygen and oxygen combined with hemoglobin. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 851 TOP: Transport of Oxygen 8. When cells increase the rate of oxygen usage, there is an increase in the delivery of oxygen to the cells. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 855 TOP: Systemic Gas Exchange 9. If the PCO2 is greater in the cells than in the intercellular fluid, CO2 will remain in the cells. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: pp. 858-856 TOP: Systemic Gas Exchange 10. Under usual conditions, the oxygen saturation of systemic venous blood is 75%. N R I G B.C M DIF: Memorization REF: p. 856 TOP: Systemic Gas Exchange 11. An increase in the plasma PCO2 and a decrease in PO2 cause an increase in the dissociation of CO2 from hemoglobin. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 856 TOP: Systemic Gas Exchange 12. The Bohr effect describes the effect of an increased PCO2 causing a decreased affinity between hemoglobin and oxygen. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 857 TOP: Systemic Gas Exchange 13. The terms oxygen partial pressure and oxygen tension are interchangeable. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 848 TOP: Partial Pressure 14. Iron is important in hemoglobin because it carries oxygen to the cells and carbon dioxide away from the cells.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank ANS: F TOP: Hemoglobin DIF: Memorization REF: p. 851 NURSINGTB.COM U S N T O 15. For cells to get oxygen, they must have an oxygen partial pressure lower than the arterial blood serving them. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 855 TOP: Systemic Gas Exchange 16. On a percentage basis, there is more carbon dioxide dissolved in the plasma than there is oxygen dissolved in the plasma. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 852 TOP: Transport of Oxygen 17. About 20% of the carbon dioxide that is carried in the blood is carried on hemoglobin attached to the acid group of an amino acid. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 852-853 TOP: Transport of Carbon Dioxide 18. One reason that carbon monoxide gas is so dangerous is that it attaches to hemoglobin more readily than does oxygen gas. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 852 TOP: Carbon Monoxide Poisoning 19. The partial pressure of oxygen in the alveolar air is equal to the partial pressure of oxygen in the systemic venous blood. ANS: F DIF: MNemoRrizaItionG B.C M TOP: Partial Pressure REF: p. 849 20. One factor that determines the amount of oxygen transferred from the lungs to the blood is the total functional surface area of the respiratory membrane. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 849 TOP: Exchange of Gases in the Lungs 21. In the lung oxygen moves down its pressure gradient, whereas carbon dioxide moves up its pressure gradient. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 849 TOP: Exchange of Gases in the Lungs 22. In the lung as the partial pressure of oxygen of the blood goes up, the partial pressure of oxygen in the alveolar air goes down proportionally. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 849-850 TOP: Exchange of Gases in the Lungs 23. There are six iron atoms in a single hemoglobin molecule.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 24. There is one iron atom in one heme group. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 851 TOP: Hemoglobin 25. The presence of hemoglobin in the blood approximately doubles the oxygen-carrying capacity of plasma alone. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 852 TOP: Transport of Oxygen 26. About 10% of the carbon dioxide carried in the blood is simply dissolved in the plasma. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 852 TOP: Transport of Carbon Dioxide 27. The chloride shift is an important step of oxygen transport in the blood. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 854 TOP: Transport of Carbon Dioxide 28. The enzyme in blood plasma that helps form carbaminohemoglobin is carbonic anhydrase. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 853 TOP: Transport of Carbon Dioxide 29. According to the rate laws ofNcheRmisItry,GtheBm.oCre cMarbon dioxide in the blood, the more carbaminohemoglobin will beUformSed.N T O ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 853 TOP: Transport of Carbon Dioxide 30. Although interstitial fluid and intracellular fluid oxygen partial pressure values are not definitely established, they are known to stay within a very narrow range. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 855 TOP: Systemic Gas Exchange 31. White blood cells do not have a role in oxygen transport. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 852 TOP: Transport of Oxygen 32. The formation of carbaminohemoglobin is a reversible reaction. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 853 TOP: Carbon Dioxide Transport 33. Carbonic acid forms when carbon dioxide reacts with water in the blood plasma. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 854Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM G B.C M TOP: Carbon Dioxide Transport 34. In a resting person, the oxygen saturation in the systemic venous blood is still about 50%. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 856 TOP: Systemic Gas Exchange 35. An increase in the partial pressure of carbon dioxide decreases the affinity between hemoglobin and oxygen. This is called a right shift, or the Haldane effect. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 857 TOP: Systemic Gas Exchange 36. Hemoglobin is a quaternary protein consisting of four tertiary polypeptide chains. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 851 TOP: Hemoglobin 37. Hemoglobin is made up of four polypeptide chains: an alpha, a beta, a gamma, and a delta. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 851 TOP: Hemoglobin 38. To produce the highest possible oxygen concentration in the blood, gas exchange occurs in only one direction at the respiratory membrane—from the lung to the blood. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 849-850 TOP: Exchange of Gases in thNe LuRngsI U S N T O 39. Hemoglobin can carry oxygen more efficiently than it can carry carbon dioxide because all four polypeptide chains can carry oxygen, but only the beta chain can carry carbon dioxide. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 851 TOP: Hemoglobin 40. The transport of carbon dioxide will tend to lower blood pH. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 854 TOP: Carbon Dioxide and pH 41. An increase in carbon dioxide would have the opposite effect on oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation than would a drop in blood pH. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: pp. 856-857 TOP: Systemic Gas Exchange 42. The Bohr effect explains what happens to oxygen, whereas the Haldane effect explains what happens to carbon dioxide. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 857 TOP: Systemic Gas ExchangeAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 43. In order for the cells to get the correct amount of oxygen, the oxygen level in the interstitial fluid must be less than that of the cells. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 855 TOP: Systemic Gas Exchange 44. Increased cellular activity would increase the oxygen gradient between the cells and the arterial blood. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 855 TOP: Systemic Gas Exchange 45. Increased cellular activity would decrease the carbon dioxide gradient between the cells and the arterial blood. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: pp. 855-856 TOP: Systemic Gas Exchange OTHER 1. Explain Dalton law as it relates to the movement of oxygen from the lungs into the circulatory system. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: p. 848 TOP: Partial Pressure 2. Identify the major factors that help determine the amount of oxygen that diffuses into the blood each minute. ANS: Answers will vary. NURSINGTB.COM DIF: Memorization REF: p. 850 TOP: Exchange of Gases in the Lungs 3. Explain why less oxygen would enter the blood at a high altitude than would enter the blood at sea level. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 850 TOP: Exchange of Gases in the Lungs 4. The structural designs of alveoli and capillaries in lung tissue are such that they facilitate oxygen diffusion. List examples that support the concept that structure determines function. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 850 TOP: Exchange of Gases in the Lungs 5. Briefly describe and diagram the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 852-853 TOP: Transport of Oxygen 6. Explain the process by which oxygen is transported by the blood. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 851-852 TOP: Transport of Oxygen 7. Explain the process by which carbon dioxide is transported by the blood. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 853-854 TOP: Transport of Carbon Dioxide ESSAY 1. Assume the percent of oxygen in the air is constant (about 21%). What is the partial pressure of oxygen in the mountains, where the atmospheric pressure is 725 mm Hg? ANS: Answers will vary. NURSINGTB.COM DIF: Application REF: pp. 848-849 TOP: Partial PressureAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM Chapter 38: Upper Digestive Tract Patton: Anatomy and Physiology, 10th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The walls of the GI tract are composed of layers of tissue. a. two b. three c. four d. five ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 862 TOP: Organization of the Digestive System 2. All of the following are classified as accessory organs of the digestive system except the: a. tongue. b. mouth. c. liver. d. pancreas. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 861 TOP: Organization of the Digestive System 3. Which of the following organs has a mucosa layer composed of stratified squamous epithelium that resists abrasion? a. Esophagus b. Stomach c. Small intestine d. Large intestine NURSINGTB.COM ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 863 TOP: Modifications of Layers 4. The flap of tissue suspended from the midpoint of the posterior border of the soft palate is the: a. fauces. b. frenulum. c. uvula. d. gingiva. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 864 TOP: Structure of the Oral Cavity 5. The type of tissue designed for absorption and secretion found throughout much of the GI tract is epithelium. a. simple columnar b. stratified squamous c. simple squamous d. pseudostratified ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 863 TOP: Organization of the Digestive SystemAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 6. The hard palate consists of portions of: a. four bones: three maxillae and one palatine. b. two bones: one maxillae and one palatine. c. four bones: two maxillae and two palatines. d. two bones: two palatines. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 864 TOP: Structure of the Oral Cavity 7. An incision into the wall of the GI tract would cut, in order, from superficial to deep: a. mucosa, submucosa, muscularis, and serosa. b. serosa, submucosa, muscularis, and mucosa. c. serosa, muscularis, submucosa, and mucosa. d. muscularis, submucosa, mucosa, and serosa. ANS: C DIF: Application REF: pp. 862-863 TOP: Organization of the Digestive System 8. Which of the following organs has a mucosal layer that is composed of columnar epithelium with a brush border of microvilli to enhance absorption? a. Esophagus b. Large intestine c. Small intestine d. Stomach ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 863 TOP: Modifications of Layers N URSINGTB.COM 9. The more common term for deglutition is: a. chewing. b. swallowing. c. mechanical digestion. d. vomiting. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 866 TOP: Structure of the Oral Cavity 10. The extrinsic tongue muscles differ from the intrinsic tongue muscles in that the outside the tongue. a. extrinsic muscles have both their insertion and origin b. intrinsic muscles have their origin inside the tongue but their insertion c. extrinsic muscles insert into the tongue but have their origin d. intrinsic muscles have both their insertion and origin ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 866 TOP: Structure of the Oral Cavity 11. Approximately how much saliva do the three pairs of compound tubuloalveolar glands (parotids, submandibulars, and sublinguals) secrete each day? a. 200 ml b. 500 mlAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM c. 750 ml d. 1 liter ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 866 TOP: Salivary Glands 12. The numerous small elevations on the surface of the tongue that support taste buds are called: a. cilia. b. rugae. c. villi. d. papillae. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 864-865 TOP: Structure of the Oral Cavity 13. Which of the following papillae of the tongue lack taste buds? a. Vallate b. Fungiform c. Filiform d. Lingual ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 865 TOP: Structure of the Oral Cavity 14. The substance that forms the outer covering of the neck and root of a tooth is: a. enamel. b. dentin. c. cementum. d. pulp. NURSINGTB.COM ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 867 TOP: Teeth 15. Which of the following salivary glands produces only a mucus type of saliva? a. Sublinguals b. Parotids c. Submandibulars d. Both A and B ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 867 TOP: Salivary Glands 16. The greatest proportion of the tooth shell consists of: a. enamel. b. dentin. c. gingivae. d. cementum. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 868 TOP: Teeth 17. A permanent set of teeth normally consists of teeth. a. 26Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM b. 30 c. 32 d. 36 ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 868 TOP: Teeth 18. Under normal conditions, how many deciduous teeth are there? a. 16 b. 20 c. 24 d. 32 ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 868 TOP: Teeth 19. The tooth type that is not part of a deciduous set of teeth is: a. incisors. b. canines (cuspids). c. second molars. d. premolars (bicuspids). ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 868 TOP: Teeth 20. Which of the following structures controls the opening of the stomach into the small intestine? a. Fundus b. Cardiac sphincter c. Pyloric sphincter d. Body NURSINGTB.COM ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 872 TOP: Stomach 21. In the stomach, hydrochloric acid is secreted by the: a. chief cells. b. parietal cells. c. lymph nodules. d. Both A and B are correct. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 872 TOP: Stomach 22. Hydrochloric acid is released from cells in the: a. stomach. b. pancreas. c. small intestine. d. large intestine. e. All of the above are correct. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 872 TOP: StomachAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 23. The chief cells in the stomach secrete: a. gastrin. b. mucus. c. intrinsic factor. d. digestive enzymes. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 872 TOP: Stomach 24. Which of the following is not associated with the large intestine? a. Pyloric sphincter b. Cecum c. Appendix d. Transverse colon ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 872 TOP: Sphincter Muscles 25. The contents of the stomach are emptied into the: a. duodenum. b. ileum. c. jejunum. d. cecum. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 873 TOP: Stomach 26. Which of the following is no Nt a dRuctIleadGingBf.roCm thMe salivary glands to the oral cavity? a. Wharton ducts b. Ranvier ducts c. Stensen ducts d. Rivinus duct U S N T O ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 866 TOP: Salivary Glands 27. Which of the following is not a function of the stomach? a. It serves as a reservoir for storage of food. b. It destroys pathogenic bacteria. c. It begins the absorption of proteins. d. All of the above are functions of the stomach. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 873 TOP: Functions of the Stomach 28. The lamina propria is found in which level of the GI wall? a. Mucosa b. Submucosa c. Muscularis d. Serosa ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 862 TOP: Wall of the GI TractAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 29. The myenteric plexus is found in which layer of the GI wall? a. Mucosa b. Submucosa c. Muscularis d. Serosa ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 863 TOP: Wall of the GI Tract 30. Meissner plexus is found in which layer of the GI wall? a. Mucosa b. Submucosa c. Muscularis d. Serosa ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 862 TOP: Wall of the GI Tract 31. Heartburn is often caused by acid reflux. Which of the following might aggravate the reflux? a. Smoking b. Obesity c. Spicy foods d. All of the above ANS: D DIF: Application REF: p. 875 TOP: Mechanisms of Disease 32. Which of the following is no Nt a dRivisIionGof tBhe.sCtomMach? a. Rugae b. Body c. Pylorus d. Fundus U S N T O ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 872 TOP: Stomach 33. Which of the following is not a function of the stomach? a. Secretes gastric juices b. Secretes intrinsic factor c. Produces the hormone gastrin d. Begins deglutition ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 873 TOP: Functions of the Stomach 34. Which of the following is true about the main organs of the digestive system? a. They are involved in chemical digestion only, not mechanical digestion. b. They do not produce the enzymes used in digestion; enzymes are produced by associate organs. c. They form a tube through the body called the alimentary canal. d. All of the above are true about the main organs of the digestion system. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 861Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM N R I G TOP: Organization of the Digestive System 35. Which of the following is not made up of nerves running through the walls of the digestive system? a. Meissner plexus b. Auerbach plexus c. Intramural plexus d. All of the above are nerves running through the walls of the digestive system. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 862-863 TOP: Wall of the GI Tract 36. The oral fissure divides the: a. upper lip from the lower lip. b. cheek muscle from the teeth. c. right and left sides of the palate. d. right side of the tongue from the left side of the tongue. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 864 TOP: Structure of the Oral Cavity 37. Which structure helps anchor the tongue to the floor of the mouth? a. Philtrum b. Plica fimbriata c. Frenulum d. Fauces ANS: C DIF: Memorization B.C M REF: p. 865 TOP: Tongue U S N T O 38. Which of the following is not a main part of the tooth? a. Crown b. Enamel coat c. Root d. Neck ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 867 TOP: Teeth 39. Which part of the stomach actually lies above the entrance of the esophagus? a. Fundus b. Pylorus c. Body d. Lesser curvature ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 872 TOP: Divisions of the Stomach 40. The fauces opens into the: a. larynx. b. laryngopharynx. c. oropharynx. d. nasopharynx.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 869 TOP: Pharynx 41. Dentin comes in direct contact with what substance above the gum line? a. Enamel b. Cementum c. The periodontal membrane d. Both B and C ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 868 TOP: Typical Tooth 42. Dentin comes into direct contact with what substance below the gum line? a. Enamel b. Cementum c. The periodontal membrane d. Both B and C ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 868 TOP: Typical Tooth TRUE/FALSE 1. The function of the digestive system is to alter the chemical and physical composition of food so that it can be absorbed and used by body cells. ANS: T DIF: MNemoRrizaItionG B.C M REF: p. 860 TOP: Introduction U S N T O 2. The alimentary canal has two openings to the exterior of the body. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 861 TOP: Organization of the Digestive System 3. The lining of the digestive system consists of three layers. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 863 TOP: Wall of the GI Tract 4. The pancreas is a main organ of the digestive system. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 861 TOP: Organization of the Digestive System 5. After food is digested, it enters the alimentary canal. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 861 TOP: Organization of the Digestive System 6. The walls of the stomach and the small intestine have three layers of muscle tissue.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 872 NURSINGTB.COM TOP: Stomach Wall 7. The hard palate of the mouth consists of two maxillae and two palatine bones. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 864 TOP: Structure of the Oral Cavity 8. The hard palate is composed of muscle arranged in the shape of an arch. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 864 TOP: Structure of the Oral Cavity 9. During deglutition and speech, the only muscles of the tongue that contract are the intrinsic muscles. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 866 TOP: Structure of the Oral Cavity 10. The intrinsic muscles of the tongue are important for swallowing and speech. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 866 TOP: Tongue 11. Mumps is an acute viral disease characterized by swelling of the parotid salivary glands. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 874 TOP: Mechanisms of DiseaseN URSINGTB.COM 12. The hardest, most stable tissue in the body is the enamel of the tooth. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 867 TOP: Teeth 13. The tricuspids are the last of the permanent teeth to appear, usually erupting sometime after 17 years of age. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 869 TOP: Teeth 14. There are normally 20 deciduous teeth, also known as baby teeth. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 868 TOP: Teeth 15. Gingivitis is the general term for inflammation or infection of the gums. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 874 TOP: Mechanisms of Disease 16. Periodontitis is a type of tooth decay involving the pulp of the tooth.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 874 TOP: Mechanisms of Disease 17. The esophagus is prevented from collapsing by rings of cartilage. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 869 TOP: Esophagus 18. The esophagus is anterior to the trachea. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 869 TOP: Esophagus 19. The lesser curvature is located on the upper right border of the stomach. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 872 TOP: Curves of the Stomach 20. Most of the stomach lies to the left of the midline, below the diaphragm, and in the abdominal cavity. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 872 TOP: Size and Position of the Stomach 21. The esophagus is composed of striated and smooth muscles. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 870 TOP: Esophagus N URSINGTB.COM 22. The pyloric sphincter is located in the fundus portion of the stomach. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 872 TOP: Sphincter Muscles 23. The parietal cells secrete hydrochloric acid. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 872 TOP: Stomach Wall 24. The chief cells, located in the stomach, secrete hydrochloric acid and are thought to produce intrinsic factor. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 872 TOP: Stomach Wall 25. The gastric glands in the small intestine secrete enzymes and hydrochloric acid. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 872 TOP: Stomach Wall 26. Digestion must occur so food can pass through the wall of the alimentary canal.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 861 TOP: Introduction 27. The alimentary canal and the gastrointestinal tract refer to the same structure. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 861 TOP: Organization of the Digestive System 28. The group of blood vessels running through the submucosal layer is called the Meissner plexus. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 862 TOP: Wall of the GI Tract 29. The term intramural plexus includes both the Meissner and the Auerbach plexus. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 863 TOP: Wall of the GI Tract 30. The uvula is a small, cone-shaped process that is suspended from the hard palate of the mouth. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 864 TOP: Structure of the Oral Cavity 31. The foramen cecum is the opening of the small intestine into the large intestine. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 865 TOP: Tongue N URSINGTB.COM 32. Teeth are considered the organs of mastication. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 867 TOP: Teeth 33. Most enamel is made up of inorganic materials. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 876 TOP: Teeth 34. The muscle structure of the esophagus changes from the top of the esophagus to the bottom of the esophagus. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 870 TOP: Esophagus 35. A hiatal hernia is caused by a weakening of the wall of the large intestine. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 871 TOP: Esophagus 36. An overly full stomach can push against the small intestine and obstruct the movement of food.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 872 TOP: Stomach 37. One of the functions of the stomach is to kill pathogens that enter the body in food. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 873 TOP: Functions of the Stomach 38. Both the chemical composition and the physical state need modification so food can be absorbed. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 860 TOP: Introduction 39. The lumen of the gastrointestinal tract is considered to be outside the body. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 862 TOP: Organization of the Digestive System 40. The mucosa is actually made up of two layers: the mucous epithelium and the lamina propria. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 862 TOP: Wall of the GI Tract 41. The mucosa is made up of three layers: the mucous epithelium, the lamina propria, and the muscularis mucosae. ANS: T DIF: M NRUemori SzaItioNnGTB.COM TOP: Wall of the GI Tract REF: p. 862 42. The submucosal plexus is a group of parasympathetic nerves found in the submucosa. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 862 TOP: Wall of the GI Tract 43. The muscularis layer of the wall of the GI tract consists of a single layer of circular muscle. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 863 TOP: Wall of the GI Tract 44. The intramural plexus, which is also called the Auerbach plexus, is found in the muscularis layer. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 863 TOP: Wall of the GI Tract 45. The philtrum is a structure located at the rear of the soft palate. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 864 TOP: MouthAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 46. When the lips are closed, the line of contact is called the oral fissure. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 864 TOP: Lips 47. The tubercle is a slight prominence found on the lip. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 864 TOP: Lips 48. The cheeks are formed in large part by the buccinator muscles. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 864 TOP: Cheeks 49. A congenital condition in which the frenulum is too short to allow freedom of tongue movement is called ankyloglossia. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 865 TOP: Tongue 50. Food enters the oropharynx by passing through the fauces. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 869 TOP: Pharynx 51. One of the functions of the intrinsic factor of the stomach is to protect vitamin A from damage. NURSINGTB.COM ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 873 TOP: Stomach 52. The stomach wall is unique because it is made up of four layers of muscle rather than three. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 872 TOP: Stomach 53. A hiatal hernia is a condition that permits movement of the stomach upward through a weakened area of the diaphragm. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 871 TOP: Esophagus 54. Mastication is another word for chewing. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 867 TOP: Teeth 55. Dental caries is another name for tooth decay. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 874 TOP: Mechanisms of DiseaseAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 56. Even though the structure of the GI tract changes from one section to another, the composition and structure of the four layers remain the same. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 863 TOP: Modifications of Layers 57. All the papillae on the tongue contain taste buds. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 865 TOP: Tongue 58. The only salivary gland that produces both mucus and enzymes is the parotid gland. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 866 TOP: Salivary Glands 59. The neck is the exposed portion of the tooth. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 867 TOP: Teeth 60. The pulp cavity of the tooth consists of connective tissue, blood and lymphatic vessels, and nerves. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 868 TOP: Teeth 61. The esophageal hiatus is the NUope Rni ISNngin Gth TeBdi.apChrOaMgm through which the esophagus passes. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 870 TOP: Esophagus 62. In the average adult, when full, the stomach can hold as much as 3.5 liters of food. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 872 TOP: Stomach 63. Another name for the lower esophageal sphincter is the pyloric sphincter. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 872 TOP: Sphincter Muscles 64. The parotid salivary gland drains into the mouth through the parotid (Stensen) ducts. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 866 TOP: Parotid Glands 65. The sublingual salivary gland drains into the mouth through the Wharton ducts. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 867 TOP: Sublingual GlandsAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 66. The greater curvature of the stomach is inferior to the lesser curvature of the stomach. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 872 TOP: Stomach 67. The serosa layer of the alimentary canal is actually the parietal peritoneum. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 863 TOP: Serosa 68. In most of the alimentary canal, the epithelial layer is composed of stratified squamous epithelial cells. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 863 TOP: Modifications of Layers 69. The hard palate is composed of two maxillae: the ethmoid and sphenoid bone. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 864 TOP: Hard and Soft Palate 70. The soft palate forms an arch that leads into the nasopharynx and is called the fauces. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 864 TOP: Hard and Soft Palate 71. The intrinsic muscles of the tongue, by definition, have their origin and insertion in the tongue. NURSINGTB.COM ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 866 TOP: Tongue 72. There are three pairs of major salivary glands. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 866 TOP: Salivary Glands 73. The salivary glands produce about 500 ml of saliva a day. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 866 TOP: Salivary Glands 74. The sublingual glands are the smallest of the major salivary glands. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 867 TOP: Salivary Glands 75. The sublingual salivary glands can have as many as 20 ducts draining their secretions into the mouth. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 867 TOP: Salivary GlandsAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 76. There are 32 permanent teeth. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 868 TOP: Types of Teeth 77. In addition to enamel, the outer shell of the tooth has two additional dental tissues: dentin and gingivae. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 867 TOP: Teeth 78. The upper esophageal sphincter is called the cardiac sphincter because it is just posterior to the heart. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 870 TOP: Esophageal Sphincters 79. The stomach produces a hormone that increases appetite. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 873 TOP: Functions of the Stomach 80. The stomach has three major divisions: the fundus, the body, and the pylorus. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 872 TOP: Divisions of the Stomach NURSINGTB.COM MATCHING Match each of the following structures with its corresponding location or description. a. Sublingual salivary gland b. Submucosa layer c. Dentin d. Muscularis layer e. Mucosa layer f. Parotid salivary gland g. Enamel h. Submandibular salivary gland i. Tongue j. Serosa layer 1. Layer of the GI tract that contains Meissner plexus 2. Largest of the salivary glands; produces enzymes but not mucus 3. Layer of the GI tract that wraps around the submucosa and contains the myenteric plexus 4. Hard inorganic substance that covers the crown of the tooth 5. Mixed salivary gland that is drained by Wharton ducts 6. Outermost GI tract layer that is actually the visceral peritoneum 7. Smallest of the salivary glands 8. Innermost layer of the GI tract; contains the lamina propriaAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 9. Substance that makes up the greatest portion of the tooth shell 10. Structure whose intrinsic and extrinsic muscles help with mastication and deglutition 1. ANS: TOP: B Submucosa DIF: Memorization REF: p. 862 2. ANS: TOP: F Parotid Glands DIF: Memorization REF: p. 866 3. ANS: TOP: D Muscularis DIF: Memorization REF: p. 863 4. ANS: TOP: G Typical Tooth DIF: Memorization REF: p. 867 5. ANS: H DIF: Memorization REF: p. 866 TOP: Submandibular Glands 6. ANS: TOP: J DIF: Memorization Serosa REF: p. 863 7. ANS: TOP: A DIF: Memorization Sublingual Glands REF: p. 867 8. ANS: TOP: E DIF: Memorization Mucosa REF: p. 862 9. ANS: TOP: C DIF: Memorization Typical Tooth REF: p. 867 10. ANS: TOP: I DIF: Memorization Tongue REF: p. 866 Match each of the following structures with its corresponding description or location. a. Pharynx b. Body of the stomach c. Esophagus d. Fundus of the stomach e. Pylorus of the stomach 11. central part of the stomach NURSINGTB.COM 12. structure through which food passes after it exits the fauces 13. collapsible muscular tube that carries food from the pharynx to the stomach 14. the enlarged portion of the stomach that lies above the entrance of the esophagus 15. lower part of the stomach that connects to the small intestine 11. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 872 TOP: Divisions of the Stomach 12. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 869 TOP: Pharynx 13. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 869 TOP: Esophagus 14. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 872 TOP: Divisions of the Stomach 15. ANS: E DIF: Memorization REF: p. 872 TOP: Divisions of the Stomach OTHERAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM REF: p. 872 1. List the tissue layers that make up the alimentary canal, beginning with the interior layer. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 862-863 TOP: Organization of the Digestive System 2. Explain why soluble drugs can be absorbed rapidly if placed under the tongue. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: p. 866 TOP: Tongue 3. The pharynx functions in two systems. Name the systems and explain the function in each system. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 869 TOP: Pharynx 4. What two structures are joined by the cardiac sphincter? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization N URSINGTB.COM 5. Give the complete definition of digestion. ANS: Answers will vary. TOP: Sphincter Muscles DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 860-861 TOP: Introduction 6. Explain the cause of appendicitis. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 876 TOP: Mechanisms of Disease 7. Describe the role of the intrinsic and extrinsic muscles of the tongue in the performing of its function. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 866 TOP: TongueAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 8. Name and give the location of the three major pairs of salivary glands. Describe the secretions of each gland. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 866-867 TOP: Salivary Glands 9. Name the secretory cells of the stomach wall and describe the secretions from each. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 872 TOP: Gastric Mucosa 10. List the functions of the stomach. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 873 TOP: Functions of the Stomach ESSAY 1. Briefly explain the role of exocrine glands within the GI tract. ANS: Answers will vary NURSINGTB.COM DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 863 TOP: Modifications of LayersAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM Chapter 39: Lower Digestive Tract Patton: Anatomy and Physiology, 10th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. After leaving the stomach, food enters the: a. large intestine. b. small intestine. c. esophagus. d. rectum. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 882 TOP: Divisions of the Small Intestine 2. The longest portion of the small intestine is the: a. duodenum. b. ileum. c. jejunum. d. colon. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 882 TOP: Divisions of the Small Intestine 3. Which of the following is not an anatomical part of the small intestine? a. Duodenum b. Cecum c. Ileum d. Jejunum NURSINGTB.COM ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 882 TOP: Divisions of the Small Intestine 4. Which of the following structures is anatomically the longest? a. Esophagus b. Duodenum c. Jejunum d. Ileum ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 882 TOP: Divisions of the Small Intestine 5. The part of the colon that lies in the vertical position, on the left side of the abdomen, extending from a point below the stomach and spleen to the level of the iliac crest is the colon. a. ascending b. transverse c. descending d. sigmoid ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 885 TOP: Divisions of the Large IntestineAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 6. The proper anatomical order for the divisions of the colon is: a. descending, transverse, sigmoid, and ascending. b. ascending, transverse, sigmoid, and descending. c. sigmoid, ascending, transverse, and descending. d. ascending, transverse, descending, and sigmoid. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 885 TOP: Divisions of the Large Intestine 7. Microvilli can be found in the: a. stomach. b. small intestine. c. large intestine. d. Both B and C are correct. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 883 | p. 886 TOP: Small Intestine 8. The right angle between the transverse colon and the ascending colon is the: a. costal angle. b. hepatic flexure. c. left colonic bend. d. splenic flexure. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 885 TOP: Divisions of the Large Intestine 9. A barium enema study is useNdUtoRdSetIecNt GanTdBlo.caCteO:M a. polyps. b. tumors. c. diverticula. d. all of the above. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 884, Connect It TOP: Barium Enema 10. The fan-shaped projection of peritoneum that connects the small intestine to the posterior abdominal wall is the: a. visceral peritoneum. b. greater omentum. c. lesser omentum. d. mesentery. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 887 TOP: Peritoneum 11. Phagocytic cells lining liver sinusoids are called _ cells. a. chief b. alpha c. Kupffer d. hepaticAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 890 TOP: Liver Lobes and Lobules 12. Bile salts aid in the digestion and absorption of: a. fats. b. proteins. c. carbohydrates. d. calcium, magnesium, and certain other minerals. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 890-891 TOP: Bile Secretion by the Liver 13. Surgical removal of the gallbladder is referred to as: a. cholelithiasis. b. cholecystitis. c. cholecystectomy. d. choledochorrhaphy. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 892 TOP: Gallbladder 14. The most essential part of bile is: a. bile salts. b. bile pigments. c. cholesterol. d. bilirubin. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 890-891 TOP: Bile Secretion by the LivNeUr RSINGTB.COM 15. Bile is secreted by: a. parietal cells. b. crypts of Lieberkühn. c. Kupffer cells. d. hepatic cells. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 891 TOP: Bile Secretion by the Liver 16. Which of the following is not a lobe of the liver? a. Right lobe b. Medial lobe c. Left lobe d. Caudate lobe e. Quadrate lobe ANS: B DIF: Memorization TOP: Liver Lobes and Lobules REF: p. 888 17. Which of the following is not a function of the liver? a. Detoxification b. Secretion of insulin c. Storage of iron and vitaminsAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM d. Production of bile ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 890-891 TOP: Functions of the Liver 18. Which of the following organs is classified as a dual gland (both exocrine and endocrine)? a. Gallbladder b. Liver c. Pancreas d. Both A and C ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 892 TOP: Pancreas 19. The hormone glucagon is produced by: a. acinar units. b. beta cells. c. alpha cells. d. Brunner glands. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 892 TOP: Functions of the Pancreas 20. The cells that produce insulin are known as: a. acinar units. b. beta cells. c. alpha cells. d. Brunner glands. NURSINGTB.COM ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 892 TOP: Structure of the Pancreas 21. Which of the following is not a function of the pancreas? a. It produces digestive enzymes. b. It produces bile. c. It produces insulin. d. All of the above are functions of the pancreas. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 892 TOP: Functions of the Pancreas 22. The right angle formed by the transverse colon and the descending colon is called the: a. hepatic flexure. b. sigmoid colon. c. splenic flexure. d. secondary colonic flexure. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 885 TOP: Divisions of the Large Intestine 23. Which of the following statements is true? a. The cystic duct and the pancreatic duct join to form the common bile duct. b. The common bile duct is formed by the joining of the cystic duct from the liverAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM N R I G B.C M and the hepatic duct from the gallbladder. c. The pancreatic duct and the hepatic duct join to form the common bile duct. d. None of the above are true statements. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 890 TOP: Bile Ducts 24. Which of the following statements is not true? a. The gallbladder can hold between 30 and 50 ml of bile. b. The gallbladder lies on the undersurface of the liver. c. The walls of the gallbladder have rugae similar to the ones found in the stomach wall. d. The gallbladder empties bile into the stomach to assist in fat digestion. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 891 TOP: Gallbladder 25. Which of the following is not a function of the liver? a. Stores vitamin A b. Carries on numerous steps in the metabolism of fats, carbohydrates, and proteins c. Secretes bile d. Stores bile ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 890-891 TOP: Functions of the Liver 26. Which of the following is true about bile? a. It is made in the gallbladder, stored in the gallbladder, and emptied into the duodenum. U S N T O b. It is made in the liver, stored in the gallbladder, and emptied into the stomach. c. It is made in the gallbladder, stored in the liver, and emptied into the jejunum. d. It is made in the liver, stored in the gallbladder, and emptied into the duodenum. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 890-891 TOP: Liver | Gallbladder 27. Which statement explains what happens to toxic substances after detoxification by liver cells? a. They are used to increase pH for optimum amylase function. b. They are used to dilute food and other substances and facilitate mixing of foods in the small intestine. c. Small amounts are carried by mucus and sodium bicarbonate to the small intestine for use in digestion. d. They are changed into nontoxic compounds by a series of chemical reactions. ANS: D DIF: Application REF: p. 890 TOP: Functions of the Liver 28. The common bile duct merges with the pancreatic duct, forming an expansion called the: a. major duodenal papilla. b. greater omentum. c. hepatopancreatic ampulla. d. hepatic flexure. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 890Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM TOP: Bile Ducts TRUE/FALSE 1. The large intestine has a diameter of about 2.5 inches and a length of about 5 to 6 feet. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 884 TOP: Size of the Large Intestine 2. The brush border of the small intestine is formed by about 1700 ultra-fine microvilli per cell. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 882-883 TOP: Wall of the Small Intestine 3. The small intestine is so named because it is shorter than the large intestine. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 884 TOP: Size of the Large Intestine 4. Intestinal digestive enzymes are produced in the brush border cells toward the top of the villi of the small intestine. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 883 TOP: Wall of the Small Intestine 5. The presence of villi and microvilli increases the surface area of the large intestine. ANS: F DIF: MNemUoRriSzaItioNnGTB.COM TOP: Small Intestine REF: p. 883 6. The vermiform appendix is a wormlike projection extending from the cecum. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 886 TOP: Vermiform Appendix 7. The fan-shaped projection of peritoneum that connects the small intestine to the posterior abdominal wall is the mesentery. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 887 TOP: Peritoneum 8. The hepatic flexure of the large intestine is located in the left hypochondriac region. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 885 TOP: Divisions of the Large Intestine 9. Hemorrhoids are enlargements of the smaller arteries in the anal canal. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 895 TOP: Mechanisms of Disease 10. Hemorrhoids are enlargements of veins in the anal canal.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 895 TOP: Mechanisms of Disease 11. Bile is released from the gallbladder into the stomach to aid in the digestive process. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 891 TOP: Gallbladder 12. Surgical removal of the gallbladder is called cholecystectomy. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 892 TOP: Functions of the Gallbladder 13. In the pancreas, alpha cells produce insulin and beta cells produce glucagon. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 892 TOP: Functions of the Pancreas 14. The vermiform appendix is attached to the sigmoid part of the large intestine. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 886 TOP: Vermiform Appendix 15. The greater omentum is a fatty tissue covering the anterior surface of the intestines. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 887 TOP: Peritoneum N URSINGTB.COM 16. The hepatic lobules are the anatomical units of the liver and are tiny hexagonal or pentagonal shaped structures. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 889 TOP: Liver Lobes and Lobules 17. The liver is the largest gland in the body. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 887 TOP: Location and Size of the Liver 18. Cholesterol is a component of bile. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 890 TOP: Functions of the Liver 19. Most of the pancreatic tissue is exocrine, producing the hormones glucagon and insulin. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 892 TOP: Structure of the Pancreas 20. Glucagon and insulin assist the GI tract in the digestive process. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 892Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM G B.C M TOP: Functions of the Pancreas 21. The point at which the small intestine changes from the jejunum to the ileum is marked by a change in the diameter of the intestine. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 882 TOP: Divisions of the Small Intestine 22. Both the large and small intestine have microvilli. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 886 TOP: Wall of the Large Intestine 23. The liver occupies most of the right hypochondrium. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 888 TOP: Location and Size of the Liver 24. Both the stomach and gallbladder contain folds called rugae. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 891 TOP: Structure of the Gallbladder 25. The duodenum, jejunum, and ileum each make up about one third of the length of the small intestine. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 882 TOP: Divisions of the Small InNtestRine I U S N T O 26. There is no clear line of demarcation between the ileum and the jejunum. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 882 TOP: Divisions of the Small Intestine 27. Lymph vessels in the villi of the small intestine are called plicae. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 882 TOP: Wall of the Small Intestine 28. Goblet cells are mucus-secreting cells found in the crypts of the small intestine. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 883 TOP: Wall of the Small Intestine 29. The average diameter of the large intestine increases toward the lower end of the tube. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 884 TOP: Large Intestine 30. In the wall of the small intestine, the longitudinal muscles are grouped into tape-like strips called haustra.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 886 TOP: Wall of the Large Intestine 31. In the wall of the large intestine, the longitudinal muscles are grouped into tape-like strips called taeniae coli. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 886 TOP: Wall of the Large Intestine 32. In the wall of the small intestine, circular muscles are grouped into rings that produce pouch-like haustra between them. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 886 TOP: Wall of the Large Intestine 33. Crohn disease is an inflammatory disease of the bowel. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 894 TOP: Mechanisms of Disease 34. Anal fissures are a more serious condition than an anal fistula. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 895 TOP: Mechanisms of Disease 35. The microbiome is a name for the normal community of bacteria that inhabit the colon. ANS: T DIF: MNemoRrizaItionG B.C M REF: p. 886 TOP: Vermiform Appendix U S N T O 36. The formation of ulcers has been linked to the bacterium Streptococcus pylori. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 894 TOP: Mechanisms of Disease 37. The duodenum of the small intestine was named based on its length. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 882 TOP: Divisions of the Small Intestine 38. The peritoneum that covers the organs is called the visceral layer. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 887 TOP: Peritoneum 39. The peritoneum that lines the abdominal wall is called the parietal layer. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 887 TOP: Peritoneum 40. The word acinar refers to the grape-like shape of the structure in the pancreas.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM U S N T O ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 892 TOP: Structure of the Pancreas 41. The substances insulin and glucagon are both produced by the liver but have opposite effects on carbohydrate metabolism. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 892 TOP: Functions of the Pancreas 42. The cecum is the first part of the large intestine; it consists of a blind pouch located in the lower right quadrant of the abdomen. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 884 TOP: Divisions of the Large Intestine 43. The sigmoid colon gets its name from its shape. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 886 TOP: Divisions of the Large Intestine 44. As material moves through the large intestine, it will pass the hepatic flexure before it passes the splenic flexure. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 885 TOP: Divisions of the Large Intestine 45. The mesentery and the transverse mesocolon are both projections of the peritoneum. ANS: T TOP: Peritoneum N R I G B.C M DIF: Memorization REF: p. 887 46. Jaundice occurs when the pancreatic duct is blocked and the contents of the pancreas enter the blood. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 891 TOP: Functions of the Gallbladder 47. Both cholecystectomy and ultrasound lithotripsy are methods of eliminating gallstones. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 892 TOP: Functions of the Gallbladder 48. Villi in the small intestines contain arterioles, venules, and lacteals. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 882 TOP: Wall of the Small Intestine 49. The falciform ligament in the liver divides it into equal right and left halves. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 888 TOP: Liver Lobes and LobulesAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM U S N T O 50. The gallbladder has a maximum capacity of about 25 ml of bile. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 891 TOP: Structure of the Gallbladder 51. The diameter of the small intestine is about an inch and the length is about 12 feet. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 882 TOP: Small Intestine 52. The Paneth cells of the small intestine produce enzymes, but they are used for protection rather than digestion. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 884 TOP: Wall of the Small Intestine 53. The normal nonpathogenic bacteria in the intestine produce important molecules such as vitamin K and biotin. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 886 TOP: Vermiform Appendix 54. The kidneys and adrenal glands are unique because they are the only organs that are retroperitoneal. 55.5 5 . ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 887 TOP: Peritoneum N R I G B.C M Kupffer cells in the liver produce enzymes that are able to detoxify toxins such as alcohol. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 890 TOP: Liver Lobes and Lobules 56. One function of the gallbladder is to dilute the bile so it can more easily pass through the ducts into the intestine. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 891 TOP: Functions of the Gallbladder 57. The pancreas is located in the curve of the small intestine where the ileum joins the jejunum. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 892 TOP: Size and Location of the Pancreas MATCHING Match each of the following structures with its corresponding description or location. a. Liver b. Common bile duct c. Mesentery d. Ascending colonAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank ANS: NURSINGTB.COM NURSINGTB.C MO e. Jejunum f. Duodenum g. Cystic duct h. Ileum i. Gallbladder j. Descending colon k. Pancreas 1. Part of the small intestine through which food passes first 2. Duct that drains bile from the gallbladder 3. Part of the large intestine that lies in a vertical position on the right side of the abdomen and ends at the hepatic flexure 4. Duct that carries bile from both the liver and gallbladder to the small intestine 5. Division of the small intestine through which food passes second 6. A large, fan-shaped reflection of the peritoneum 7. Organ that produces bile and helps detoxify the blood 8. Organ that produces digestive enzymes, insulin, and glucagon 9. Part of the large intestine that lies in a vertical position on the left side of the abdomen and begins at the splenic flexure 10. Structure that stores and concentrates bile 11. Last division of the small intestine; connects to the cecum 1. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 882 TOP: Divisions of the Small Intestine 2. ANS: G DIF: Memorization REF: p. 890 TOP: Bile Ducts 3. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 885 TOP: Divisions of the Large Intestine 4. ANS: TOP: B Bile Ducts DIF: Memorization REF: p. 890 5. ANS: TOP: E Divisions of DIF: Memorization the Small Intestine REF: p. 882 6. ANS: TOP: C Peritoneum DIF: Memorization REF: p. 887 7. ANS: TOP: A Functions of DIF: Memorization the Liver REF: p. 890 8. ANS: TOP: K Pancreas DIF: Memorization REF: p. 892 9. ANS: TOP: J Divisions of DIF: Memorization the Large Intestine REF: p. 885 10. ANS: TOP: I Functions of DIF: Memorization the Gallbladder REF: p. 891 11. ANS: TOP: H Divisions of DIF: Memorization the Small Intestine REF: p. 882 OTHER 1. Where in the GI tract are villi and microvilli located? What purpose do they serve?Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank ANS: NURSINGTB.COM U S N T Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 882-883 TOP: Wall of the Small Intestine 2. Ducts from two organs join to form the common bile duct. Name the organs and the ducts from each organ. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 890 TOP: Bile Ducts 3. Liver cells detoxify substances. Explain what happens to the substances in the process of detoxification. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: p. 890 TOP: Functions of the Liver 4. What is the function of the gallbladder? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 891 TOP: Functions of the Gallbladder 5. What is an anatomical reasonNthaRt agIed iGndiv Bi.duCalsMhave a lower incidence of appendicitis than do children and young adults? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: p. 894 TOP: Mechanisms of Disease 6. Explain the difference between the greater omentum and lesser omentum. ANS: Answers will vary DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 887 TOP: Peritoneum 7. Describe the location, structure, and function of the pancreas. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 892 TOP: Pancreas 8. Explain the cause of appendicitis.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 894 TOP: Mechanisms of Disease 9. Name and give the location of the four parts of the colon. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 885-886 TOP: Divisions of the Large Intestine 10. Name and describe the reflections of the peritoneum. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 887 TOP: Peritoneum 11. List the functions of the liver. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 890-891 TOP: Functions of the Liver ESSAY NURSINGTB.COM 1. Briefly explain how the lining of the small intestine can be an example of fractal geometry. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: pp. 882-884 TOP: Small Intestine 2. Jeff was a successful country music star, but he worked too hard and was under great stress. His physician cautioned him that if he did not alter his lifestyle, he would be subject to hyperacidity. What could be the resulting condition of hyperacidity? Explain how hyperacidity develops. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 894 TOP: Mechanisms of Disease 3. Allen was an alcoholic. He had a condition known as alcoholic hepatitis. This condition causes inflammation of the liver and results in reduced production and secretion of bile. What digestive complication does this produce? ANS: Answers will vary.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 895 TOP: Mechanisms of Disease 4. Donna has Crohn disease, which results in inflammation and ulceration of the small intestine. Her physician recommended surgery to help in the management of this autoimmune disease. Could her entire small intestine be removed? Why or why not? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 894 TOP: Mechanisms of Disease NURSINGTB.COMAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM Chapter 40: Digestion and Absorption Patton: Anatomy and Physiology, 10th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following is not one of the openings that must be blocked when food moves from the pharynx into the esophagus? a. Oropharynx b. Nasopharynx c. Larynx d. Mouth ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 903 TOP: Mechanical Digestion 2. The process of swallowing is known as: a. mastication. b. deglutition. c. peristalsis. d. segmentation. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 903 TOP: Deglutition 3. Which of the following is a true statement? a. The oral stage of swallowing is involuntary and under the control of the cerebral cortex. NURSINGTB.COM b. The pharyngeal stage of deglutition is voluntary. c. The esophageal stage of swallowing is involuntary. d. Both B and C are correct. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 903 TOP: Deglutition 4. Which of the processes of mechanical digestion involves the esophagus? a. Deglutition b. Peristalsis c. Churning d. Both A and B ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 903-904 TOP: Mechanical Digestion 5. The enterogastric reflex causes: a. secretion of digestive enzymes in the small intestine. b. secretion of digestive enzymes in the stomach. c. inhibition of gastric peristalsis. d. acceleration of gastric peristalsis. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 905 TOP: Regulation of MotilityAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 6. Which of the following is not true of enzymes? a. They accelerate chemical reactions. b. They change chemically and are in the end products of the reaction. c. They are vital to chemical reactions. d. Many contain vitamins in their structure. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 906-908 TOP: Chemical Digestion 7. Which step of deglutition is under voluntary control? a. Oral stage b. Pharyngeal stage c. Esophageal stage d. Gastric phase ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 903 TOP: Mechanical Digestion 8. The purpose of peristalsis is to: a. break apart chunks of food and mix it in digestive juices. b. propel food forward along the GI tract. c. absorb food. d. enable swallowing. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 903-904 TOP: Peristalsis and Segmentation 9. The hormone that inhibits gaNstU ricRmSuIsc NleG,TslBow.iCngOpMassage of food into the duodenum, is called: a. gastric inhibitory peptide. b. enterogastrone. c. chyme. d. cholecystokinin. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 905 TOP: Regulation of Motility 10. Structurally, enzymes are: a. lipids. b. carbohydrates. c. proteins. d. inorganic compounds. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 907 TOP: Digestive Enzymes 11. When classified according to the kind of chemical reactions catalyzed, digestive enzymes are referred to as enzymes. a. oxidation-reduction b. hydrolyzing c. phosphorylatingAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM N R I G B.C d. hydrase ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 906 TOP: Digestive Enzymes 12. Hydrolysis refers to: a. breaking down a molecule of water to hydrogen and oxygen gas. b. using water to split larger compounds into smaller ones. c. using water to build larger compounds from smaller ones. d. none of the above. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 906 TOP: Chemical Digestion 13. Polysaccharides are hydrolyzed into disaccharides by enzymes known as: a. lipase. b. proteases. c. maltase. d. amylase. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 908 TOP: Carbohydrate Digestion 14. Which of the following is not a property of enzymes? a. Most enzymes catalyze a chemical reaction in only one direction. b. Enzymes function optimally at a specific pH. c. Many enzymes are synthesized as inactive proenzymes or zymogens. d. Enzyme action can be inhibited or inactivated by various physical and chemical agents that change the shapUe ofSenzNymTe molecOules. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 907 TOP: Properties of Digestive Enzymes 15. The final product of carbohydrate digestion is a: a. disaccharide. b. monosaccharide. c. polysaccharide. d. fatty acid. ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 908 TOP: Carbohydrate Digestion 16. Which of the following is a disaccharide? a. Glucose b. Starch c. Sucrose d. Glycogen ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 908 TOP: Carbohydrate Digestion 17. The major final product that results from the digestion of carbohydrates is: a. glucose. b. sucrose.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM c. lactose. d. maltose. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 908 TOP: Carbohydrate Digestion 18. The process of fat emulsification consists of: a. chemically breaking down fat molecules. b. the secretion of digestive juices for fat digestion. c. absorption of fats. d. breaking fats into small droplets. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 909 TOP: Fat Digestion 19. The enzyme pepsin begins the digestion of: a. carbohydrates. b. protein. c. fat. d. nucleic acids. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 908 TOP: Protein Digestion 20. An end product of fat digestion is: a. glycerol. b. glucose. c. glycogen. d. galactose. NURSINGTB.COM ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 911 TOP: Fat Digestion 21. Cellulose is a residue of digestion that comes from: a. carbohydrates. b. meat proteins. c. undigested fats. d. undigested connective tissue. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 911 TOP: Residues of Digestion 22. The hormone that stimulates the release of bicarbonate substance from the pancreas is: a. enterogastrone. b. secretin. c. gastrin. d. cholecystokinin-pancreozymin. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 918 TOP: Control of Gastric Secretions 23. The hormone that stimulates the gallbladder to release bile is: a. enterogastrone.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM b. insulin. c. gastrin. d. cholecystokinin. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 918 TOP: Control of Gastric Secretions 24. Which phase(s) of gastric secretion is(are) stimulated by the sight, taste, and smell of food? a. Intestinal phase b. Cephalic phase c. Gastric phase d. All of the above ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 918 TOP: Control of Gastric Secretions 25. The major site for the absorption of the end products of digestion is the: a. stomach. b. small intestine. c. cecum. d. large intestine. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 919 TOP: Process of Absorption 26. The sodium cotransport or coupled transport acts to transport sodium ions and glucose molecules the GI lumen. a. passively out of b. passively into c. actively out of d. actively into NURSINGTB.COM ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 920 TOP: Mechanisms of Absorption 27. The intestinal hormone cholecystokinin: a. causes the pancreas to increase exocrine secretions high in enzyme content. b. opposes the influence of gastrin on gastric parietal cells. c. stimulates the contraction of the gallbladder. d. does all of the above. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 918 TOP: Control of Gastric Secretions 28. Bicarbonates are useful in the GI tract to: a. neutralize hydrochloric acid. b. break down fats. c. activate secretin. d. activate pepsin. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 918 TOP: Control of Intestinal SecretionsAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 29. The hormone thought to be a messenger causing release of digestive enzymes from the intestinal mucosa is: a. vasoactive intestinal peptide. b. enterogastrone. c. secretin. d. cholecystokinin-pancreozymin. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 918 TOP: Control of Intestinal Secretions 30. Chylomicrons are formed to facilitate the transport of: a. amino acids. b. fats. c. glucose. d. vitamins. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 920 TOP: Mechanisms of Absorption 31. Glucose moves from the GI tract into the circulatory system by the process of: a. diffusion. b. cotransport. c. facilitated diffusion. d. filtration. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 920 TOP: Mechanisms of Absorption 32. Which blood vessel carries aNbsUorRbS edIfNooGdTfrBom.CthOeMGI tract to the liver? a. Hepatic artery b. Hepatic vein c. Portal vein d. Renal artery ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 920 TOP: Mechanisms of Absorption 33. Rotavirus can cause what life-threatening condition in infants? a. Constipation b. Diarrhea c. Cholera d. Pyloric stenosis ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 922 TOP: Infant Diarrhea 34. The substances absorbed into the lymph capillaries are: a. glycerol and fatty acids. b. glucose and glycerol. c. amino acids and fatty acids. d. glucose and amino acids. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 921Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM TOP: Mechanisms of Absorption 35. Which of these is not an example of mechanical digestion? a. Moistening the food b. Changing food from large to small particles c. Propelling food through the digestive tract d. All of the above are examples of mechanical digestion. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 902-903 TOP: Mechanical Digestion 36. Which of the following does not cause a decrease in gastric peristalsis? a. The release of GIP b. Increased deglutition c. Acid in the duodenum d. Distention of the duodenum ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 905 TOP: Regulation of Motility 37. An end product of the action of the enzyme phospholipase is: a. colipase. b. a triglyceride. c. a free fatty acid. d. both B and C. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 911 TOP: Fat Digestion NURSINGTB.COM 38. Which of the following is not a barrier to the absorption of glucose? a. Size of the molecule b. The molecule’s hydrophilia c. The molecule’s hydrophobia d. Cell membrane’s high concentration of lipids ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 920 TOP: Mechanisms of Absorption 39. Which of the following is not true of segmentation? a. It moves food back and forth in one segment of the GI tract. b. It moves food through the GI tract. c. It facilitates absorption. d. It mixes food with digestive juices. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 904 TOP: Peristalsis and Segmentation 40. The enzyme amylase functions best in a pH. a. slightly acid b. slightly base c. neutral d. Both A and C are correct.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 907 TOP: Properties of Digestive Enzymes 41. Contact digestion occurs in which location in the digestive system? a. Mouth b. Esophagus c. Stomach d. Small intestine ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 908 TOP: Carbohydrate Digestion 42. The disaccharide maltose is made up of which two saccharide units? a. Glucose and glucose b. Glucose and fructose c. Glucose and galactose d. None of the above ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 908 TOP: Carbohydrate Digestion 43. The disaccharide lactose is made up of which two saccharide units? a. Glucose and glucose b. Glucose and fructose c. Glucose and galactose d. None of the above ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 908 TOP: Carbohydrate DigestionNURSINGTB.COM 44. The disaccharide sucrose is made up of which two saccharide units? a. Glucose and glucose b. Glucose and fructose c. Glucose and galactose d. None of the above ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 908 TOP: Carbohydrate Digestion 45. The process of emulsification is important in the digestion of: a. proteins. b. fats. c. polysaccharides. d. disaccharides. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 909 TOP: Fat Digestion 46. Saliva contains all of the following substances except: a. amylase. b. lipase. c. intrinsic factor. d. mucus.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM U S N T O ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 912 TOP: Saliva 47. Gastric juice contains all of the following substances except: a. intrinsic factor. b. enterokinase. c. hydrochloric acid. d. pepsin. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 912-914 TOP: Gastric Juice 48. Pancreatic juice contains all of the following substances except: a. amylase. b. trypsinogen. c. enterokinase. d. lipase. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 914 TOP: Pancreatic Juice 49. Bile contains all of the following substances except: a. bile salts. b. lecithin. c. amylase. d. bilirubin. ANS: C DIF: MNemoRrizaItionG B.C M TOP: Bile REF: pp. 914-915 50. Pancreatic juice contains all of the following substances except: a. chymotrypsin. b. nucleases. c. amylase. d. pepsinogen. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 914 TOP: Pancreatic Juice 51. Digestion uses the following methods in which order to accomplish its function? a. Ingestion, absorption, secretion b. Ingestion, secretion, absorption c. Absorption, secretion, ingestion d. Absorption, ingestion, secretion ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 901 TOP: Overview of Digestive Functions 52. The most important function of the digestive system is: a. elimination. b. absorption. c. motility.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM U S N T d. secretion. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 901 TOP: Overview of Digestive Functions 53. The first phase of deglutition or swallowing occurs in the: a. pharynx. b. larynx. c. esophagus. d. None of the above are correct. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 903 TOP: Deglutition 54. Which of the following structures is not used to block an opening during swallowing? a. Glottis b. Epiglottis c. Soft palate and uvula d. Tongue ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 903 TOP: Deglutition 55. Segmentation is different from peristalsis because: a. segmentation only occurs in the stomach. b. it is a type of mechanical digestion. c. it does not move food through the digestive tract. d. there is no difference betw NeeRn seIgmeGntaBtio.nCandMperistalsis. ANS: C DIF: Application REF: pp. 903-904 TOP: Peristalsis | Segmentation 56. Which of the following works with gastric inhibitory peptide to inhibit gastric peristalsis? a. Retropulsion b. Cholecystokinin c. The enterogastric reflex d. Both B and C ANS: C DIF: Application REF: p. 905 TOP: Gastric Motility 57. Which monosaccharide is found in all three of the most common disaccharides? a. Fructose b. Glucose c. Galactose d. Levulose ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 908 TOP: Carbohydrate Digestion 58. Which of the following protein-digesting enzymes is made in the stomach? a. Trypsin b. Chymotrypsin c. Pepsin d. PeptidaseAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 908 TOP: Protein Digestion 59. Which of the following is not a digestive enzyme for lipids? a. Bile b. Lipase c. Phospholipase d. All of the above are digestive enzymes for lipids. ANS: A DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 909 TOP: Fat Digestion 60. Which of the following is not a stage in deglutition? a. Gastric b. Oral c. Pharyngeal d. Esophageal ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 903 TOP: Deglutition 61. The enzyme amylase is produced by the: a. stomach. b. pancreas. c. salivary glands. d. Both B and C are correct. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 908 TOP: Carbohydrate DigestionNURSINGTB.COM 62. The end product of carbohydrate digestion is: a. glucose. b. maltose. c. fructose. d. sucrose. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 908 TOP: Carbohydrate Digestion 63. The end product of fat digestion is: a. fatty acids. b. monoglycerides. c. glycerol. d. all of the above. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 911 TOP: Fat Digestion 64. The parietal cells of the stomach do not produce which of the following? a. Pepsinogen b. Hydrochloric acid c. Intrinsic factor d. The parietal cell of the stomach produces all of the above.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM N R I G B.C M ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 913 TOP: Gastric Juice 65. After the absorption of a large meal, high levels of glucose and amino acids would be found in the: a. lacteals of the villi. b. blood of the inferior vena cava. c. blood in the hepatic portal system. d. Both A and C are correct. ANS: C DIF: Application REF: p. 920 TOP: Mechanisms of Absorption 66. After the absorption of a large meal, high levels of chylomicrons would be found in the: a. lacteals of the villi. b. blood in the inferior vena cava. c. blood in the hepatic portal system. d. Both A and C are correct. ANS: A DIF: Application REF: p. 920 TOP: Mechanisms of Absorption 67. Most enzymes catalyze a chemical reaction in both directions. Which is the best explanation of this statement? a. Chemical reaction in both directions means the direction and rate of the reaction is being governed by gravity; for example, food in the lower digestive tract is moved by peristalsis, whereas food in the upper part of the digestive tract is moved by segmentation. b. Chemical reaction in both directions means that enzymes are both intracellular and extracellular, depending onUwhSetheNr thTey act wOithin cells or outside them in the surrounding medium. c. Chemical reaction in both directions means the direction and rate of the reaction is being governed by the rate law or law of mass action; for example, slowing of digestion when absorption is interfered with and the products of digestion accumulate. d. Both B and C are accurate explanations. ANS: C DIF: Application REF: p. 907 TOP: Properties of Digestive Enzymes 68. Which of the following best describes the enzymatic role in carbohydrate digestion? a. Amylase, sucrase, lactase, and maltase catalyze the breakdown of carbohydrates to glucose. b. Pepsin, trypsin, chymotrypsin, and peptidase catalyze the breakdown of carbohydrates to glucose. c. Amylase, peptidase, sucrase, and chymotrypsin catalyze the breakdown of carbohydrates to glucose. d. Lecithin mixes with water to catalyze the breakdown of carbohydrates to glucose. ANS: A DIF: Application REF: p. 908 TOP: Carbohydrate Digestion 69. Why can it be said that absorption is the reason for digestion? a. Even though digestion includes the processes of mechanical and chemicalAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM breakdown of ingested food, the optimum goal of digestion is to absorb nutrients. b. The absorption process facilitates the emulsification of fats by breaking large fat drops into small droplets. c. Absorption involves the grinding action of the teeth and the mechanical mixing of food as it passes through the gastrointestinal tract, thus allowing regulation of digestion. d. Fluid balance, maintenance of core body temperature, numerous circadian rhythms, and regulation of pH and metabolic rates are included as parts of the absorption process. ANS: A DIF: Application REF: p. 901 TOP: Overview of Digestive Functions 70. Which statement best explains the process of absorption? a. Absorption is the process of taking food into the mouth and starting it on its journey through the digestive tract. b. Absorption releases digestive juices (containing enzymes, acids, bases, mucus, bile, or other products that facilitate digestion). c. Absorption is the movement by the muscular components of the digestive tube, including processes of mechanical digestion; examples include peristalsis and segmentation. d. Absorption is the passage of substances (notably digested foods, water, salts, and vitamins) through the intestinal mucosa into the blood or lymph. ANS: D DIF: Application REF: p. 919 TOP: Absorption TRUE/FALSE N URSINGTB.COM 1. The bolus of food is formed during the pharyngeal stage of deglutition. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 903 TOP: Deglutition 2. Respiration is inhibited for the 1 to 3 seconds required for food to clear the pharynx during each swallowing. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 903 TOP: Deglutition 3. To propel food from the pharynx into the esophagus, three openings must be blocked. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 903 TOP: Deglutition 4. Peristalsis is a back-and-forth action that breaks apart chunks of food and mixes in digestive juices. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 903-904 TOP: Peristalsis and Segmentation 5. The process of emptying the stomach takes about 12 hours after a meal.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 905 TOP: Regulation of Motility 6. After leaving the stomach, chyme normally takes about 5 hours to pass all the way through the small intestine. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 905 TOP: Regulation of Motility 7. Enzymes are unique in that they can function optimally within a wide range of pH. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 907 TOP: Properties of Digestive Enzymes 8. Enzymes are usually defined as inorganic catalysts. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 906 TOP: Digestive Enzymes 9. Chemical digestion can be defined as all of the changes in chemical composition that food undergoes as it travels through the digestive tract. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 906 TOP: Chemical Digestion 10. Amylases are found in saliva and in pancreatic juice. ANS: T DIF: M NRUemori SzaItioNnGTB.COM TOP: Carbohydrate Digestion 11. Sucrose is an example of a disaccharide. REF: p. 908 ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 908 TOP: Carbohydrate Digestion 12. Most enzymes are able to work on more than one substance. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 907 TOP: Digestive Enzymes 13. Drinking large amounts of water works best as a means of replacing fluids quickly during exercise. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 905 TOP: Exercise and Fluid Uptake (Box 40-3) 14. Amino acids are the end products of protein digestion. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 909 TOP: Protein DigestionAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 15. Bile catalyzes the breakdown of fats. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 909 TOP: Fat Digestion 16. The main glucose-digesting enzyme is glucase. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 908 TOP: Carbohydrate Digestion 17. Large amounts of cool, dilute, or isotonic fluids are best for replacing fluids quickly during exercise. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 905 TOP: Exercise and Fluid Uptake (Box 40-3) 18. The main proteases found in gastric juice are pepsin and trypsin. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 908 TOP: Protein Digestion 19. Glycogen and sucrose are examples of polysaccharides. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 908 TOP: Carbohydrate Digestion 20. The stimulation of gastric juice secretions occurs in five phases controlled by reflex and chemical mechanisms. N URSINGTB.COM ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 916 TOP: Control of Digestive Gland Secretions 21. Sucrase hydrolyzes sucrose into glucose and fructose. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 912 TOP: Chemical Digestion (Table 40-3) 22. Secretin causes the production of pancreatic fluid high in enzyme content but low in bicarbonate. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 918 TOP: Secretions 23. The enterogastric reflex stimulates gastric motility as food enters the duodenum. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 905 TOP: Regulation of Motility 24. Salivary glands are stimulated only by olfactory and visual stimuli. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 916 TOP: Control of Digestive Gland SecretionsAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 25. Bicarbonates are useful in the GI tract for neutralizing hydrochloric acid. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 914 TOP: Pancreatic Juice 26. Vasoactive intestinal peptide inhibits the production of intestinal juice. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 918 TOP: Control of Intestinal Secretions 27. The only food that can be digested by gastric juice is protein. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 918 TOP: Control of Gastric Secretions 28. One of the functions of cholecystokinin is to enhance the influence of gastrin on gastric parietal cells. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 918 TOP: Control of Gastric Secretions 29. Vasoactive intestinal peptide inhibits the production of intestinal juice. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 918 TOP: Control of Intestinal Secretions 30. The sodium cotransport, whiNch cRarriIes bGothBso.dCiumMions and glucose molecules, is an active transport mechanism. U S N T O ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 920 TOP: Mechanisms of Absorption 31. Paracellular absorption is the absorption of nutrients between cells. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 921 TOP: Mechanisms of Absorption 32. Vitamins A, D, E, and K depend on bile salts for their absorption. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 921 TOP: Mechanisms of Absorption 33. Both simple sugars and amino acids are absorbed into the blood in the intestinal capillaries. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 922 TOP: Mechanisms of Absorption 34. Diarrhea occurs when the contents of the lower colon and rectum move at a rate that is slower than normal. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 922Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM TOP: Elimination 35. The formation of feces is the primary function of the rectum. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 921 TOP: Elimination 36. Nucleotidase digests nucleotides. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 912 TOP: Chemical Digestion (Table 40-3) 37. The process of elimination is simply the expulsion of the residues of digestion from the digestive tract. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 921 TOP: Elimination 38. Diarrhea is one of the leading causes of infant mortality in developing countries. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 922 TOP: Infant Diarrhea 39. Oral rehydration therapy can be used to replace fluids lost by way of diarrhea. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 922 TOP: Infant Diarrhea 40. Chewing and swallowing areNbUotRhScoInNsiGdeTreBd.mCeOchManical digestion. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 903 TOP: Mastication | Deglutition 41. Peristalsis and segmentation both involve movement of the GI tract. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 903-904 TOP: Peristalsis and Segmentation 42. An enzyme that is a hydrolase breaks water down into hydrogen and oxygen. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 907 TOP: Digestive Enzymes 43. Carbohydrates that are used for food are made up of one or more saccharide groups. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 908 TOP: Carbohydrate Digestion 44. The action of bile on fat would be an example of mechanical digestion. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 909 TOP: Fat DigestionAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM ANS: T U S N T O 45. “Dietary fiber” is a carbohydrate. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 911 TOP: Residues of Digestion 46. The lipase found in saliva is unable to digest much fat because the fat has not been emulsified. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 912 TOP: Saliva 47. Zymogenic cells secrete enzymes into the lumen of the small intestines. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 913 TOP: Gastric Juice 48. The blood surrounding the stomach would have a pH slightly higher than blood in other parts of the body. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 913 TOP: Gastric Juice 49. The blood surrounding the pancreas would have a slightly higher pH than blood in other parts of the body. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 914 TOP: Pancreatic Juice 50. The pancreatic duct, which connects the pancreas to the small intestines, does not carry the enzyme trypsin. N R I G B.C M DIF: Application REF: p. 914 TOP: Pancreatic Juice 51. Bile is involved in both secretion and excretion. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: pp. 914-915 TOP: Bile 52. Chylomicrons are usually not found in the lumen of the small intestine. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 920 TOP: Mechanisms of Absorption 53. The primary function of the digestive system is to bring essential nutrients into the internal environment so that they are available to the cells of the body. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 901 TOP: Overview of Digestive Functions 54. Mastication is another word for chewing. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 903 TOP: Mastication 55. During deglutition, the mouth is closed off by the soft palate and the uvula. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 903Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM I G B.C M TOP: Deglutition 56. During deglutition, the tongue closes off the nasopharynx. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 903 TOP: Deglutition 57. During deglutition, food is denied entry to the larynx by muscle action that causes the epiglottis to block that opening. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 903 TOP: Deglutition 58. The involuntary part of swallowing is regulated by the deglutition center of the medulla. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 903 TOP: Deglutition 59. Segmentation is described as a wavelike muscle contraction in a hollow organ that moves food through the digestive system. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 903-904 TOP: Peristalsis and Segmentation 60. The stomach releases gastric inhibitory peptide to slow down peristalsis in the duodenum. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 903-904 TOP: Peristalsis and SegmentaNtionR U S N T O 61. Intestinal motility includes both peristaltic contractions and segmentation. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 903-904 TOP: Peristalsis and Segmentation 62. Lipase can be called a hydrolase. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 907 TOP: Digestive Enzymes 63. Most enzymes in the body are intracellular. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 906 TOP: Digestive Enzymes 64. The specificity of enzyme function can be explained by the “key-in-a-lock” mode of action. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 907 TOP: Properties of Digestive Enzymes 65. Enzymes are pH sensitive because differences in the hydrogen ion concentration can affect the shape of the protein molecule.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 907 TOP: Properties of Digestive Enzymes 66. Because trypsin works in the small intestine, its optimal pH must be less than that of pepsin, which works in the stomach. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 907 TOP: Properties of Digestive Enzymes 67. Because enzymes are not changed by the chemical reactions they catalyze, digestive enzymes rarely need to be made. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 907 TOP: Properties of Digestive Enzymes 68. Substances that activate proenzymes are often called kinases. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 907 TOP: Properties of Digestive Enzymes 69. The digestion of triglycerides produces monoglycerides and phospholipids. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 910-911 TOP: Fat Digestion 70. The hydrophilic portion of lecithin is attracted to the interior fat of the micelle. ANS: F DIF: MNemoRrizaItionG B.C M REF: pp. 909-910 TOP: Fat Digestion U S N T O 71. The hydrophilic portion of lecithin is attracted to the exterior water of the micelle. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 910 TOP: Fat Digestion 72. The process of emulsification is important because it facilitates a greater contact area for the digestion of fat. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 909 TOP: Fat Digestion 73. Lysophosphatide is a possible end product of fat digestion. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 911 TOP: Fat Digestion 74. Colipase is a substance made by the small intestine, and it functions as a coenzyme in fat digestion. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 911 TOP: Fat DigestionAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 915 NURSINGTB.COM 75. When fat combines with magnesium, it becomes indigestible. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 911 TOP: Residues of Digestion 76. One important role of the salivary glands is the production of mucus, because they are the only glands that produce it. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 912 TOP: Salvia 77. Because acid would be harmful to enzymes, the salivary glands produce bicarbonate ions to lower the pH of saliva. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 912 TOP: Saliva 78. Hydrochloric acid converts pepsinogen into pepsin. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 913 TOP: Gastric Juice 79. Enterokinase converts trypsin into trypsinogen. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 907 TOP: Secretions 80. Enterokinase is converted toNtr UypRsiSnoIgNenGbTyBtr.ypCsOinM. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 914 TOP: Pancreatic Juice 81. Lecithin is secreted by the liver. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 914 TOP: Bile 82. Bilirubin is found in bile and assists in micelle formation, which assists in the digestion of fats. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 915 TOP: Bile 83. In the pancreas, base is secreted into the GI lumen and acid is secreted into the blood. This is the reverse of what happens in the stomach. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 914 TOP: Pancreatic Juice 84. Elimination of gray-colored feces is an indication of abnormal bile secretion.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM TOP: Bile 85. Gastric secretions are inhibited when chyme containing fats, carbohydrates, and a high pH is present in the duodenum. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 916 TOP: Control of Digestive Gland Secretions 86. The hormones GIP, secretin, and CCK are formed in the intestinal mucosa. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 918 TOP: Control of Digestive Gland Secretions 87. Micelles are formed in the GI lumen. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 920 TOP: Absorption 88. Chylomicrons are formed in the epithelial cells lining the small intestine. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 920 TOP: Absorption 89. Chylomicrons are absorbed by the blood vessels in the villi of the small intestine. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 920 TOP: Absorption 90. The nutrients absorbed by theNlUacRteSalIsNenGteTrBth.eCblOooMd by being dumped into the subclavian veins. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 920 TOP: Absorption 91. A small amount of ingested alcohol is absorbed by the stomach. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 921 TOP: Absorption 92. The only voluntary activity of the GI tract is swallowing. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 921 TOP: Elimination 93. Segmentation can be described simply as a mixing movement. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 904 TOP: Peristalsis and Segmentation 94. Retropulsion forces the chyme in the stomach to move backwards. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 905Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM U S N T O TOP: Gastric Motility 95. Gastric inhibitory peptide and the enterogastric reflex have opposite effects on gastric peristalsis. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 905 TOP: Gastric Motility 96. All digestive enzymes are classified as extracellular hydrolases. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: pp. 906-907 TOP: Overview of Digestive Enzymes 97. Most digestive enzymes are synthesized and secreted as inactive proenzymes. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 907 TOP: Properties of Digestive Enzymes 98. Although we eat six types of chemical substances (carbohydrates, proteins, fats, vitamins, mineral salts, and water), only carbohydrates, proteins, fats, and vitamins need to be digested. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 908 TOP: Properties of Digestive Enzymes 99. Of the four types of protein-digesting enzymes made by the body, only one is made by the small intestines. ANS: F DIF: MNemoRrizaItionG B.C M TOP: Protein Digestion REF: pp. 908-909 100. Chief cells and zymogenic cells are the same structures. They function to produce digestive enzymes in the stomach. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 913 TOP: Gastric Juice 101. Secretions of the digestive glands are mostly water. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 912 TOP: Secretions 102. Ingestion, digestion, secretion, and absorption are all necessary for the proper functioning of the digestive system. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 901 TOP: Overview of Digestive Functions 103. The last stage of deglutition is the pharyngeal stage. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 903 TOP: DeglutitionAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM U S N T O 104. Although both peristalsis and segmentation require movement of the alimentary canal, only peristalsis moves food through the alimentary canal. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: pp. 903-904 TOP: Peristalsis and Segmentation 105. To properly regulate the flow of food from the stomach to the small intestine, a balance is maintained between gastric inhibitory peptide that inhibits gastric motility and the enterogastric reflex that stimulates gastric motility. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 905 TOP: Gastric Motility 106. The enzymes amylase and lipase are found in saliva and are equally effective in their digestion of substrates. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 912 TOP: Saliva 107. Chief cells produce pepsin. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 913 TOP: Gastric Juice 108. The drug omeprazole (Prilosec) works by stimulating the H-K pumps, thereby reducing the amount of acid in the stomach. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 913 TOP: Gastric Juice N R I G B.C M 109. Some of the enzymes in pancreatic juice are inactive. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 914 TOP: Pancreatic Juice 110. Peptidase is a digestive enzyme that can function as an intracellular enzyme. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 909 TOP: Protein Digestion 111. Gastrin, an enzyme that stimulates gastric secretions, is made by G-cells. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 918 TOP: Control of Gastric Secretions 112. The hormone vasoactive intestinal peptide is released when hydrochloric acid and digested food products are in the small intestine. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 918 TOP: Control of Intestinal Secretions 113. Although the cotransport of sodium and glucose is a passive process, it would not be possible without the active transport of sodium out of the cell.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 920 TOP: Mechanisms of Absorption 114. Micelles contain mostly triglycerides. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 920 TOP: Mechanisms of Absorption 115. Chylomicrons contain almost all monoglycerides. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 920 TOP: Mechanisms of Absorption 116. The amount of fat being absorbed by the body can be determined by taking a blood sample from the hepatic portal system. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 920 TOP: Mechanisms of Absorption 117. Blood in the hepatic portal system is much more likely to reflect the amount of glucose and amino acid absorbed than is the blood in the inferior vena cava. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 920 TOP: Mechanisms of Absorption 118. Mechanical digestion pushes food against the wall of the small intestine so it can be absorbed. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 902-903 TOP: Mechanical Digestion 119. Mechanical digestion reduce NRIUSsthesize NofGiTngBe.steCdOfoMod, which increases the surface area of the food making chemical digestion more efficient. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 902 TOP: Mechanical Digestion 120. The three stages of deglutition are the oral stage, the laryngeal stage, and the esophageal stage. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 903 TOP: Deglutition 121. To increase absorption time, the hormone cholecystokinin slows motility in the small intestine. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 906 TOP: Intestinal Motility 122. Enzymes can be named based on the substance on which they act. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 907 TOP: Digestive Enzymes 123. The names of enzymes are easy to identify because they all end in “ase.”Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM ANS: F U S N T O ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 906-907 TOP: Digestive Enzymes 124. Most enzymes are able to catalyze reactions in both directions, but that rarely occurs in digestive enzymes. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 907 TOP: Digestive Enzymes 125. Lactose and maltose are examples of disaccharides. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 908 TOP: Carbohydrate Digestion 126. Intestinal amylase is attached to the brush borders of the villi and function in a process called contact digestion. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 908 TOP: Carbohydrate Digestion 127. Contact digestion makes absorption more efficient because the end products are then physically near the point of absorption, not floating around somewhere in the lumen. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 908 TOP: Carbohydrate Digestion 128. Paracellular absorption requires the expenditure of cellular energy. N R I G B.C M DIF: Memorization REF: p. 921 TOP: Mechanisms of Absorption MATCHING Match each primary mechanism of the digestive system with its corresponding definition. a. Motility b. Ingestion c. Elimination d. Secretion e. Digestion f. Absorption 1. Release of digestive juices; release of endocrine hormones that regulate digestion or metabolism of nutrients 2. Excretion of the residues of the digestive process (feces) from the rectum, through the anus; defecation 3. Movement by the muscular components of the digestive tube, including processes of mechanical digestion; examples include peristalsis and segmentation 4. Movement of digested nutrients through the GI mucosa and into the internal environment 5. A group of processes that breaks complex nutrients into simpler ones, thus facilitating their absorption (includes both mechanical and chemical processes) 6. Process of taking food into the mouth, starting it on its journey through the digestive tractAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 1. ANS: TOP: D Secretions DIF: Memorization REF: p. 912 2. ANS: TOP: C Elimination DIF: Memorization REF: p. 921 3. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 903-904 TOP: Peristalsis | Segmentation 4. ANS: TOP: F Absorption DIF: Memorization REF: p. 919 5. ANS: TOP: E Digestion DIF: Memorization REF: p. 902 6. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 901 TOP: Overview of Digestive Function Match each phase of gastric secretion with its corresponding statement or definition. a. Cephalic phase b. Gastric phase c. Intestinal phase 7. Phase that responds to taste, smell, thoughts of food, and sensations of chewing and swallowing 8. Phase that is controlled by the entrance of acidic chyme into the duodenum 9. Phase that is initiated by the presence of food in the stomach 7. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 918 TOP: Control of Gastric Secretions 8. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 918 TOP: Control of Gastric SecreNtioUnRs SINGTB.COM 9. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 918 TOP: Control of Gastric Secretions Match each of the digestive juices and enzymes with its corresponding description. a. Amylase b. Bile c. Lactase d. Maltase e. Pepsin f. Peptidase g. Sucrase h. Trypsin i. Lipase 10. Enzyme that works on starch 11. Converts maltose to glucose 12. Major enzyme in stomach associated with protein breakdown 13. Enzyme that works on milk sugars 14. Enzyme that works on cane sugars 15. Pancreatic enzyme that works on proteins 16. Enzyme from lining of small intestine whose end products are amino acids 17. Enzyme that chemically digests fatAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 18. Substance that emulsifies fat 10. ANS: TOP: A Chemical DIF: Digestion Memorization REF: p. 912 11. ANS: TOP: D Chemical DIF: Digestion Memorization REF: p. 912 12. ANS: TOP: E Chemical DIF: Digestion Memorization REF: p. 907 13. ANS: TOP: C Chemical DIF: Digestion Memorization REF: p. 912 14. ANS: TOP: G Chemical DIF: Digestion Memorization REF: p. 912 15. ANS: TOP: H Chemical DIF: Digestion Memorization REF: p. 907 16. ANS: TOP: F Chemical DIF: Digestion Memorization REF: pp. 908-909 17. ANS: TOP: I Chemical DIF: Digestion Memorization REF: pp. 910-911 18. ANS: TOP: B Chemical DIF: Digestion Memorization REF: p. 910 Match each digestive hormone with its action. a. Secretin b. Cholecystokinin (CCK) c. Gastrin d. Gastric inhibitory peptide (GIP) 19. Stimulates secretion of gastriNcUjuRicSeIricNhGinTpBe.psCinOaMnd hydrochloric acid 20. Inhibits gastric secretion; stimulates secretion of pancreatic juice low in enzymes and high in alkalinity; stimulates ejection of bile by the gallbladder 21. Stimulates ejection of bile from the gallbladder and secretion of pancreatic juice high in enzymes; opposes the action of gastrin, reducing the pH of gastric juice 22. Inhibits gastric secretion and motility 19. ANS: TOP: C Control of DIF: Memorization Digestive Gland Secretion REF: p. 918 20. ANS: TOP: A Control of DIF: Memorization Digestive Gland Secretion REF: p. 918 21. ANS: TOP: B Control of DIF: Memorization Digestive Gland Secretion REF: p. 918 22. ANS: TOP: D Control of DIF: Memorization Digestive Gland Secretion REF: p. 918 Match each structure with its function, description, or the enzyme it produces. a. Gallbladder b. Salivary gland c. Pancreas d. Stomach e. Small intestine f. LiverAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 23. Structure in which villi are located 24. Location of lipase production that is ineffective because the ingested lipids are still too large 25. Organ in which trypsinogen is made 26. Organ in which pepsinogen is made 27. Gland that makes and secretes bile 28. Organ in which bile is concentrated and stored 23. ANS: E DIF: Memorization REF: p. 908 TOP: Carbohydrate Digestion 24. ANS: TOP: B Saliva DIF: Memorization REF: p. 912 25. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 914 TOP: Pancreatic Juice 26. ANS: TOP: D DIF: Gastric Juice Memorization REF: p. 913 27. ANS: TOP: F DIF: Bile Memorization REF: p. 914 28. ANS: TOP: A DIF: Bile Memorization REF: p. 914 OTHER 1. What are the functions of mechanical digestion? ANS: Answers will vary. NURSINGTB.COM DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 902-903 TOP: Mechanical Digestion 2. Explain the physiological basis for diarrhea and constipation. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: p. 922 TOP: Elimination 3. What happens in the chemical process of hydrolysis? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: p. 906 TOP: Chemical Digestion 4. The prefix “amyl” comes from the Latin word for “starch.” How does that explain the name for an enzyme in carbohydrate digestion? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: pp. 907-908 TOP: Digestive Enzymes | Carbohydrate DigestionAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM U S N T O 5. Most enzymes catalyze a chemical reaction in both directions. Explain what this means. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: pp. 906-907 TOP: Digestive Enzymes 6. List the kinds of chemical substances that we eat. Which of these need to be digested? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 906-907 TOP: Digestive Enzymes 7. Explain why salivary amylase is able to digest such a small amount of carbohydrate. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: p. 912 TOP: Saliva 8. Explain the process of carbohydrate digestion. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 908 TOP: Carbohydrate Digestion N R I G B.C M 9. Explain the process of fat digestion. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 909-911 TOP: Fat Digestion 10. Explain the process of protein digestion. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 908-909 TOP: Protein Digestion 11. Explain the mechanism of absorption for water-soluble nutrients. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 920 TOP: Mechanisms of Absorption 12. Explain the mechanism of absorption for lipids. ANS:Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM U S N T Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 920 TOP: Mechanisms of Absorption 13. Explain the differences between peristalsis and segmentation. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 903-904 TOP: Peristalsis | Segmentation 14. Explain ways in which gastric motility is regulated. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 905 TOP: Gastric Motility 15. The optimal pH for the functioning of pepsin is 3; the optimal pH for the functioning of trypsin is 7. Explain why this difference would be expected. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: pp. 907-909 TOP: Properties of Digestive Enzymes | Protein Digestion 16. What is found in the secretioNns oRf thIe saGlivaBry.gClandMs? Why is the lipase found in saliva ineffective as a digestive enzyme in the mouth? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 912 TOP: Saliva 17. What substances are found in pancreatic juice? How are the inactive substances in pancreatic juice activated? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 914 TOP: Pancreatic Juice 18. Explain the difference between transcellular absorption and paracellular absorption. What can be absorbed by means of paracellular absorption? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 921 TOP: Mechanisms of AbsorptionAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM ESSAY 1. Explain how the hepatic portal system and liver help maintain the blood homeostasis. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: p. 920 TOP: Mechanisms of Absorption 2. Explain why trypsin and pepsin need to be made in an inactive form. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 914 TOP: Pancreatic Juice 3. Some drugs cannot be taken orally even if they are well absorbed by the small intestine because they are completely broken down by the liver. Explain why these drugs would never reach the general circulation. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: pp. 919-921 TOP: Absorption NURSINGTB.COMAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM Chapter 41: Nutrition and Metabolism Patton: Anatomy and Physiology, 10th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following is true of metabolism? a. It involves both a physical and a chemical breakdown of foods. b. It occurs both inside and outside of cells. c. It involves synthesis and decomposition. d. Energy is released from the process of anabolism and catabolism. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 931 TOP: Metabolic Pathways 2. Which of the following is not true of ATP? a. It is a high-energy substance. b. It is formed by the synthesis of ADP and phosphate. c. It releases energy when split. d. It cannot be recycled after it is broken down. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 931 TOP: Metabolic Pathways 3. Catabolism is a process involving the of energy. a. synthesis; release b. decomposition; release c. synthesis; use d. decomposition; use NURSINGTB.COM ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 931 TOP: Metabolic Pathways 4. ADP is an abbreviation for: a. aniline diphosphate. b. adenine diphosphate. c. adenosine diphosphate. d. adenosine triphosphate. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 931 TOP: Metabolic Pathways 5. Which of the following is true of energy released by the breakdown of food substances? a. It is used to synthesize ATP. b. It is used to decompose ATP. c. It is changed to heat energy and used for cell functioning. d. It is used directly for cell functioning. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 931 TOP: Metabolic Pathways 6. In which of the following cells is glucose phosphorylation reversible?Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM a. Heart b. Pancreas c. Kidney d. Muscle ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 933 TOP: Glucose Transport and Phosphorylation 7. The cycle in which an ATP high-energy bond is broken to yield a phosphate group, ADP, and energy and then recombined to form ATP is called the: a. conversion of monosaccharides. b. ATP conversion. c. ATP/ADP system. d. metabolic pathway. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 931 TOP: Metabolic Pathways 8. The preferred energy fuel of the body is: a. fructose. b. glucose. c. amino acids. d. fatty acids. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 932 TOP: Carbohydrate Metabolism 9. The process of splitting glyco NgenRis IcalleGd: B.C M a. glycogenesis. b. glycogenolysis. c. gluconeogenesis. U S N T O ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 939 TOP: Glycogenolysis 10. Glucose phosphorylation is catalyzed by which of the following enzymes? a. Amylase b. Glucokinase c. Phosphatase d. Phosphorylase ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 933 TOP: Glucose Transport and Phosphorylation 11. Which of the following is the correct order of the body’s energy fuel preference, starting with the first choice and ending with the third choice? a. Carbohydrates, fats, proteins b. Carbohydrates, proteins, fats c. Fats, carbohydrates, proteins d. Proteins, carbohydrates, fats ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 953 TOP: Energy Balance and Body WeightAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM N R I G 12. Which of the following statements is not true? a. Glycolysis occurs in the cytoplasm of all human cells. b. Glycolysis requires the use of oxygen. c. Glycolysis breaks the chemical bonds in glucose molecules and thereby releases about 5% of the energy stored in them. d. Glycolysis is an essential process because it prepares glucose for the second step in catabolism, namely, the citric acid cycle. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 933 TOP: Glycolysis 13. Which of the following is not true of glycolysis? a. It occurs in the mitochondria. b. Glucose is split into two pyruvic acid molecules. c. It is an anaerobic process. d. A specific enzyme catalyzes each step of the reaction. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 933 TOP: Glycolysis 14. The Citric Acid cycle takes place in the: a. ribosome. b. cytoplasm. c. mitochondria. d. Golgi apparatus. ANS: C DIF: Memorization B.C M REF: p. 933 TOP: Citric Acid Cycle U S N T O 15. Which of the following names is not a term used for the aerobic breakdown of food substances? a. Citric acid cycle b. Pyruvate cycle c. Krebs cycle d. Tricarboxylic acid cycle ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 933-934 TOP: Carbohydrate Metabolism 16. When the blood glucose level starts to decrease toward lower than normal: a. liver cells increase the rate at which they convert glycogen, amino acids, and fats to glucose. b. there is an increase in glycogenolysis. c. there is an increase in gluconeogenesis. d. all of the above occur. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 939 TOP: Carbohydrate Metabolism 17. Which of the following types of cells contains phosphatase? a. HeartAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM N R I G b. Brain c. Muscle d. Kidney ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 933 TOP: Glucose Transport and Phosphorylation 18. Which of the following is most indicative of a normal blood sugar level? a. 60 to 80 mg/100 ml b. 80 to 90 mg/100 ml c. 110 to 125 mg/100 ml d. 135 to 150 mg/100 ml ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 939 TOP: Glycogenesis 19. An increased blood sugar level stimulates which of the following to occur? a. Glycogenolysis b. Glycogenesis c. Gluconeogenesis d. Glycolysis ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 939 TOP: Glycogenesis 20. The action of phosphatase enzyme is to catalyze the: a. combination of phosphate with glucose. b. release of glucose from phosphate. B.C M c. movement of glucose throuUgh S the cNellTmembrO ane. d. formation of ATP. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 939 TOP: Glycogenolysis 21. The process of gluconeogenesis occurs in the: a. liver. b. skeletal muscle. c. brain. d. All of the above are correct. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 939 TOP: Gluconeogenesis 22. The conversion of proteins to glucose is an example of: a. glycogenesis. b. gluconeogenesis. c. glycogenolysis. d. glycolysis. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 939 TOP: Gluconeogenesis 23. The process by which proteins are synthesized by the ribosomes in all cells is called protein:Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM a. catabolism. b. anabolism. c. metabolism. d. transcription. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 945 TOP: Protein Metabolism 24. Deamination, the splitting off of an amino group from an amino acid molecule to form a molecule of ammonia and one of keto acid, is the first step in protein: a. catabolism. b. anabolism. c. metabolism. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 945 TOP: Protein Catabolism 25. Protein, or nitrogen, balance means protein: a. anabolism equals protein catabolism. b. anabolism exceeds protein catabolism. c. catabolism exceeds protein anabolism. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 945 TOP: Protein Balance and Nitrogen Balance 26. Glucagon increases the activity of: a. phosphorylase. b. phosphatase. c. amylase. d. glucokinase. NURSINGTB.COM ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 940 TOP: Control of Glucose Metabolism 27. The enzyme that catalyzes glucose phosphorylation is: a. phosphorylase. b. phosphatase. c. amylase. d. glucokinase. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 940 TOP: Control of Glucose Metabolism 28. A hormone that stimulates the conversion of proteins to glucose is: a. ACTH. b. growth hormone. c. thyroid hormone. d. TSH. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 946 TOP: Control of Protein Metabolism 29. ACTH affects metabolism by stimulating the release of:Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM a. epinephrine. b. thyroxine. c. glucagon. d. glucocorticoids. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 946 TOP: Control of Protein Metabolism 30. The hormone capable of causing both protein anabolism and catabolism is: a. thyroid hormone. b. growth hormone. c. insulin. d. ACTH. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 946 TOP: Control of Protein Metabolism 31. The hormone that raises blood sugar level by causing a shift to fat catabolism is: a. ACTH. b. growth hormone. c. thyroid hormone. d. both A and B. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 944 TOP: Control of Lipid Metabolism 32. Which of the following hormones is not hyperglycemic? a. Glucagon b. Glucocorticoids c. Insulin d. Epinephrine NURSINGTB.COM ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 940 TOP: Control of Glucose Metabolism 33. Diets high in saturated fats and cholesterol tend to increase the blood concentration. a. HDL b. LDL c. VLDL ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 942 TOP: Transport of Lipids 34. Excess glucose and amino acids are converted to: a. fatty acids. b. glycerol. c. triglycerides. d. phospholipids. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 943 TOP: Lipid Anabolism 35. The hormone that has a tendency to inhibit fat catabolism is:Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM a. ACTH. b. insulin. c. growth hormone. d. glucocorticoids. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 944 TOP: Control of Lipid Metabolism 36. The most common lipids in the diet are: a. phospholipids. b. cholesterol. c. triglycerides. d. prostaglandins. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 942 TOP: Dietary Sources of Lipids 37. All of the following hormones control lipid metabolism except: a. ACTH. b. glucocorticoids. c. epinephrine. d. insulin. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 944 TOP: Control of Lipid Metabolism 38. Catabolism of fatty acids, without any other food product availability, causes the production of: a. glucose. b. ketone bodies. c. cholesterol. d. ADP. NURSINGTB.COM ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 943 TOP: Lipid Catabolism 39. Which of the following stimulates protein synthesis? a. Testosterone b. Estrogen c. Glucagon d. ACTH ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 946 TOP: Control of Protein Metabolism 40. Which of the following vitamins is not stored in significant amounts in the body and must be continually supplied to the diet? a. D b. K c. C d. E ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 948Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM N R I G TOP: Vitamins 41. A deficiency in which of the following minerals leads to thyroid enlargement and a decrease in the metabolic rate? a. Potassium b. Iodine c. Calcium d. Phosphorus ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 949 TOP: Minerals 42. Metabolic rates are expressed as: a. normal or as a percentage above or below normal. b. the number of kilocalories of heat energy expended per hour or per day. c. kilocalories per pound of body weight. d. both A and B. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 950 TOP: Metabolic Rate 43. The basal metabolic rate is higher in all of the following situations except: a. youth compared with adult. b. male compared with female. c. hypothermia compared with fever. d. excess of thyroid hormone compared with the normal level. ANS: C DIF: Memorization B.C M REF: p. 952 TOP: Factors Influencing BasalUMetSabolNic RTate O 44. An increase of body temperature of 1 degree Celsius will necessitate an increase in metabolism of approximately: a. 7%. b. 11%. c. 13%. d. 15%. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 952 TOP: Factors Influencing Basal Metabolic Rate 45. The appetite center is located in the: a. stomach. b. small intestine. c. hypothalamus. d. cerebrum. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 953-954 TOP: Mechanisms for Regulating Food Intake 46. A person who consumes 6000 kilocalories per day and burns only 5000 kilocalories per day would gain approximately pounds over a 10-day period. a. 1 b. 3Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM N R c. 5 d. 7 ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 953 TOP: Energy Balance and Body Weight 47. Malnutrition includes a deficiency or imbalance of: a. water. b. food. c. vitamins. d. both B and C. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 929 TOP: Nutrition and Metabolism 48. If four molecules of glucose were broken down by glycolysis, the cell would receive molecules of ATP. a. 4 b. 8 c. 12 d. 16 ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 933 TOP: Glycolysis 49. Which of the following is not a result of insulin deficiency? a. Low glycogen storage b. Slow glycogenesis c. Increased glucose catabolism I G B.C M d. All of the above are resultsUof iSnsuNlin dTeficienOcy. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 940 TOP: Control of Glucose Metabolism 50. Which of the following substances is not transported as part of a chylomicron? a. Glucose b. Cholesterol c. Phospholipid d. All of the above are transported as part of a chylomicron. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 942 TOP: Transport of Lipids 51. Which of the following vitamins can the body make? a. Vitamin D b. Vitamin K c. Biotin d. The body can make all of the above vitamins. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 948 TOP: Vitamins 52. All of the following are a result of lipid anabolism except: a. cholesterol.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM b. ketone bodies. c. triglycerides. d. prostaglandins. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 943 TOP: Lipid Metabolism 53. Which of the following minerals is important in blood cell production? a. Magnesium b. Iron c. Manganese d. Iodine ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 949 TOP: Minerals 54. Which of the following minerals is important in stomach acid production? a. Iron b. Calcium c. Chlorine d. Sodium ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 949 TOP: Minerals 55. Which of the following minerals is important in the production of ATP, RNA, and DNA? a. Phosphorus b. Iron c. Calcium d. Cobalt NURSINGTB.COM ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 949 TOP: Minerals 56. Which of the following minerals is important in bone formation, blood clotting, and nerve function? a. Phosphorus b. Iron c. Calcium d. Cobalt ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 949 TOP: Minerals 57. Glucose cannot be secreted from what cells once glucose phosphorylation has occurred in them? a. Muscle cells b. Kidney cells c. Liver cells d. Intestinal mucosa cells ANS: A DIF: Application REF: p. 933 TOP: Glucose Transport and PhosphorylationAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 58. Which of the following is not considered a macronutrient? a. Carbohydrates b. Calcium c. Iron d. Neither B nor C is considered a macronutrient. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 929 TOP: Nutrition and Metabolism 59. Which of the following is not considered a micronutrient? a. Zinc b. Iodine c. Sodium d. All of the above are considered micronutrients. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 929 TOP: Nutrition and Metabolism 60. A term for substances such as sodium, chloride, calcium, and potassium is: a. bulk nutrient. b. trace element. c. macromineral. d. both A and C. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 929 TOP: Nutrition and Metabolism 61. A term for substances such aNs iUroRnS, iIodNinGeT, zBin.c,CaOndMmanganese is: a. bulk nutrient. b. trace element. c. macromineral. d. both A and C. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 929 TOP: Nutrition and Metabolism 62. “Occurs when nutrient molecules enter the cell and undergo many chemical changes” is the textbook definition of: a. metabolism. b. anabolism. c. assimilation. d. catabolism. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 931 TOP: Metabolic Pathways 63. Which of the following carbohydrates cannot be absorbed directly into the cells? a. Cellulose b. Polysaccharides c. Disaccharides d. None of the above carbohydrates can be absorbed directly into the cells.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM ANS: D DIF: Application REF: p. 932 TOP: Dietary Sources of Carbohydrates 64. Carbohydrates must be converted to which molecule before entering the citric acid cycle? a. Citric acid b. An acetyl group c. Coenzyme A (CoA) d. Pyruvate ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 934 TOP: Citric Acid Cycle 65. Which of the following is a characteristic of an unsaturated fat? a. It is a solid at room temperature. b. It contains all the hydrogen it can hold. c. It has at least one double bond. d. None of the above are characteristics of an unsaturated fat. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 942 TOP: Dietary Sources of Lipids 66. Which of the following is a characteristic of a saturated fat? a. It is a solid at room temperature. b. It contains all the hydrogen it can hold. c. It has at least one double bond. d. Both A and B are characteristics of a saturated fat. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 942 TOP: Dietary Sources of LipidNsURSINGTB.COM 67. Which of the following is a factor that reduces appetite? a. An increase in blood temperature reaching the hypothalamus b. A decrease in blood temperature reaching the hypothalamus c. A decrease in blood glucose d. None of the above factors has an effect on appetite. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 954 TOP: Mechanisms for Regulating Food Intake 68. Which of the following is not part of “basal conditions”? a. Awake but lying down and not moving a muscle b. In a preabsorptive state c. In a warm, comfortable environment d. All of the above are part of basal conditions. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 950 TOP: Basal Metabolic Rate 69. What process has pyruvic acid and two gained ATPs as end products? a. Krebs cycle b. Anaerobic pathway c. Glycolysis d. Electron transport chainAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 933 TOP: Glycolysis 70. What process uses high-energy electrons and hydrogen carriers to release energy? a. Krebs cycle b. Anaerobic pathway c. Glycolysis d. Electron transport chain ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 935 TOP: Electron Transport Chain 71. Which process produces lactate? (The Cori cycle helps repay the oxygen debt incurred by this process.) a. Krebs cycle b. Anaerobic pathway c. Glycolysis d. Electron transport chain ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 937 TOP: Anaerobic Pathway 72. Which process begins with acetyl CoA and produces high-energy electrons and hydrogen carrier molecules? a. Krebs cycle b. Anaerobic pathway c. Glycolysis d. Electron transport chain NURSINGTB.COM ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 934-935 TOP: Citric Acid Cycle 73. If 4 molecules of glucose were broken down by glycolysis, the cell would gain molecules of adenosine triphosphate (ATP). a. 4 b. 8 c. 12 d. 16 ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 933 TOP: Glycolysis 74. Which statement best explains how orexigenic factors affect appetite? a. Orexigenic factors are hormones, neurotransmitters, and other factors that affect feeding centers in the hypothalamus that decrease appetite. b. Orexigenic factors are hormones, neurotransmitters, and other factors that affect feeding centers in the hypothalamus that stimulate appetite. c. Orexigenic factors are neurons in the ventral medial nucleus of the hypothalamus that function as a satiety center—meaning that impulses from these neurons decrease appetite so that we feel sated, or satisfied. d. Orexigenic factors are neurons in the ventral medial nucleus of the hypothalamus that function as a satiety center—meaning that impulses from these neuronsAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM increase appetite. ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 954 TOP: Mechanisms for Regulating Food Intake 75. Which statement best compares the processes of anabolism and catabolism? a. Both catabolism and anabolism take place outside of the cells in the GI tract. b. Catabolism breaks food molecules down into smaller molecular compounds and, in so doing, releases energy from them. Anabolism does the opposite. c. Anabolism breaks food molecules down into smaller molecular compounds and, in so doing, releases energy from them. Catabolism does the opposite. d. Anabolism occurs when nutrient molecules enter cells, undergo many chemical changes, and release ATP for energy; catabolism doesn’t release ATP. ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 931 TOP: Metabolic Pathways 76. Which statement explains how a diet that is low in carbohydrates would reduce the amount of fat in the body? a. Carbohydrates act as a fat sparer; therefore, fat goes through anabolism to reduce body fat. b. Certain carbohydrates called peroxisome proliferator-activated receptors metabolize fat. c. Fewer carbohydrates would result in fats moving out of adipose tissue and being catabolized. d. Fat catabolism is inversely related to the rate of carbohydrate anabolism. ANS: C DIF: Application REF: p. 944 TOP: Control of Lipid Metabolism 77. If a person’s total metabolic N raUteR(TSMIRN)GwTeB re.2C40O0Mcalories, would his or her basal metabolic rate (BMR) be more or less than 2400 calories? a. Less because BMR is about 55% to 60% of the TMR. b. More because BMR is about 55% to 60% more than the TMR. c. Neither because BMR is equal to the TMR. d. Not enough information is given to determine the answer. ANS: A DIF: Application REF: pp. 952-953 TOP: Metabolic Rate TRUE/FALSE 1. Metabolism requires the use of enzymes to catalyze chemical reactions. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 931 TOP: Metabolic Pathways 2. Heat released in catabolism is used as an energy source for cell functions. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 931 TOP: Metabolic Pathways 3. All cells have basically the same metabolic rate. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 931Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM TOP: Metabolic Pathways 4. Products derived from anabolism may differ from cell to cell. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 931 TOP: Metabolic Pathways 5. All types of complex carbohydrates are broken down in the body into simpler carbohydrates before they are absorbed. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 932 TOP: Dietary Sources of Carbohydrates 6. Intermediate products formed during the Krebs cycle are all acids. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 935 TOP: Citric Acid Cycle 7. Oxidative phosphorylation refers to the breakdown of ATP into ADP, phosphate, and energy in the presence of oxygen. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 936 TOP: Electron Transport System and Oxidative Phosphorylation 8. Oxidative phosphorylation refers to the joining of a phosphate group to ADP to form ATP. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 936 TOP: Electron Transport SysteNm aRnd OIxidGativB e P.hCosphMorylation U S N T O 9. At the end of the cytochrome electron transport process, oxygen accepts two electrons and combines with two hydrogen ions. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 936 TOP: Electron Transport System and Oxidative Phosphorylation 10. Energy released and used for forming ATP comes from the ionization of oxygen. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 937 TOP: Anaerobic Pathway 11. All cells have the ability to digest glycogen and release glucose into the blood. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 939 TOP: Glycogenolysis 12. An evening meal is eaten at 6 PM. Nothing more is eaten until 8 AM. Glycogenolysis alone can maintain a normal blood sugar level between the two meals. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 939 TOP: GlycogenolysisAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 13. In the electron transport system, electrons moving down the carrier chain release bursts of energy used to pump neutrons into the compartment between the inner and outer membranes of the mitochondrion. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 936 TOP: Electron Transport System and Oxidative Phosphorylation 14. The conversion of proteins to glucose is an example of gluconeogenesis. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 939 TOP: Gluconeogenesis 15. Whereas insulin tends to decrease the blood glucose level, glucagon tends to increase it. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 940 TOP: Control of Glucose Metabolism 16. Hormones that cause the blood level of glucose to rise are called hypoglycemic. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 941 TOP: Control of Glucose Metabolism 17. Glucagon accelerates glycogenolysis in liver cells. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 940 TOP: Control of Glucose Metabolism 18. Insulin comes from the beta cNe UllsRoSfIthNeGpaTnBcr.eaCs.OM ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 940 TOP: Control of Glucose Metabolism 19. Both epinephrine and glucagon accelerate liver and muscle glycogenolysis. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 940-941 TOP: Control of Glucose Metabolism 20. Incretins are released by the pancreas into the small intestines in response to high glucose concentration in the chyme. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 941 TOP: Control of Glucose Metabolism 21. A high level of HDLs is associated with a low incidence of heart disease. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 942 TOP: Transport of Lipids 22. Both fatty acids and glycerol enter at the Krebs cycle to be catabolized. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 943 TOP: Lipid CatabolismAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 23. Lipoproteins are produced primarily in the liver. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 942 TOP: Transport of Lipids 24. Fats produce more than twice the amount of calories per gram than do carbohydrates. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 943 TOP: Lipid Catabolism 25. Fatty acids are converted to ketone bodies in the liver. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 943 TOP: Lipid Catabolism 26. Some essential acids are used in the formation of prostaglandins. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 944 TOP: Lipid Anabolism 27. Essential fatty acids are not synthesized by the body and thus must be obtained from the diet. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 944 TOP: Lipid Anabolism 28. Lipids are transported in blood as chylomicrons, lipoproteins, and free fatty acids. ANS: T DIF: MNemUoRriSzaItioNnGTB.COM TOP: Transport of Lipids REF: p. 942 29. Some essential acids are used in the formation of phospholipids. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 944 TOP: Lipid Anabolism 30. High blood concentrations of LDLs are associated with atherosclerosis. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 942 TOP: Transport of Lipids 31. Deamination, a process that occurs in the liver, is the first step in the catabolism of proteins. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 945 TOP: Protein Catabolism 32. Ammonia is a byproduct of the catabolism of fatty acids. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 945 TOP: Protein Catabolism 33. Keto acids are formed in protein catabolism and can be oxidized in the citric acid cycle.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 945 TOP: Protein Catabolism 34. Proteins and fats are used primarily for catabolism. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 945 TOP: Protein Metabolism 35. Growth hormone is considered an anabolic hormone. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 946 TOP: Control of Protein Metabolism 36. The metabolic rate refers to the amount of energy released by catabolism. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 950 TOP: Metabolic Rate 37. Waiting until after a 12- to 18-hour postabsorptive period had past would be necessary to obtain an accurate measure of the basal metabolic rate. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 950 TOP: Basal Metabolic Rate 38. Men and women who are the same age and the same body size usually oxidize food at the same rate. ANS: F DIF: MNemoRrizaItionG B.C M REF: p. 952 TOP: Factors Influencing BasalUMetSabolNic RTate O 39. When the metabolic rate decreases, the cells use less oxygen than normal. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 951 TOP: How BMR Is Determined (Box 41-9) 40. The basal metabolic rate usually constitutes about 85% to 90% of the total metabolic rate. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 953 TOP: Total Metabolic Rate 41. Carbohydrates and fats have a lower thermic effect than do proteins. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 953 TOP: Total Metabolic Rate 42. To maintain a constant body weight, caloric intake must equal caloric output. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 953 TOP: Energy Balance and Body Weight 43. Body weight increases when energy input is less than energy output.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 953 TOP: Energy Balance and Body Weight 44. The liver cells make some proteins for export. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 945 TOP: Protein Anabolism 45. Protein catabolism occurs at the ribosome. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 945 TOP: Protein Anabolism 46. Protein-poor diets, starvation, and wasting illnesses produce a negative nitrogen balance. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 946 TOP: Protein Balance and Nitrogen Balance 47. Strong evidence supports the usefulness of vitamin supplements for athletic performance. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 946 TOP: Vitamin Supplements for Athletes (Box 41-8) 48. Minerals function in various chemical reactions such as nerve conduction and contraction in muscle fibers. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 949 TOP: Minerals N URSINGTB.COM 49. It is correct to say that ATP functions as the universal biological energy currency. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 931 TOP: Metabolic Pathways 50. Adenosine triphosphate has three high-energy phosphate bonds. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 931 TOP: Metabolic Pathways 51. Nutrition can be defined in part as the process by which the organism ingests, digests, absorbs, transports, utilizes, and excretes food substances. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 929 TOP: Nutrition and Metabolism 52. Nutrition can be explained most simply by describing it as the way your body uses food. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 929 TOP: Nutrition and Metabolism 53. Assimilation is an intracellular event.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 931 TOP: Metabolic Pathways 54. In the human body, anabolism would not be possible without catabolism. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 931 TOP: Metabolic Pathways 55. Monosaccharides do not need to be digested but can be absorbed directly into the internal environment. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 932 TOP: Dietary Sources of Carbohydrates 56. The cells add phosphate to glucose so it can pass through the cell membrane more easily. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 932-933 TOP: Glucose Transport and Phosphorylation 57. Pyruvate has twice the number of carbon atoms as does glucose. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 933 TOP: Glycolysis 58. When the cell has sufficient oxygen, glycolysis does not occur. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 933 TOP: Glycolysis 59. The citric acid cycle begins with a molecule of pyruvate joining with a molecule of citric acid. ANS: F DIF: M NRUemori SzaItioNnGTB.COM TOP: Citric Acid Cycle REF: p. 934 60. One of the roles of pyruvate in anaerobic respiration is to convert NADH back to NAD. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 937 TOP: Anaerobic Pathway 61. In the electron transport system, the energy in one FAD molecule is used to form two ATP molecules. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: pp. 935-936 TOP: Electron Transport System and Oxidative Phosphorylation 62. The level of glucose in the blood has an impact on the appetite center. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 954 TOP: Mechanisms for Regulating Food Intake 63. Lipids can be broken down by glycolysis. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 943 TOP: Lipid CatabolismAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 64. Most vitamins are organic substances that act as coenzymes. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 946 TOP: Vitamins 65. The basal metabolic rate is the smallest amount of energy needed to maintain life. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 950 TOP: Basal Metabolic Rate 66. Adenosine diphosphate has only two high-energy phosphate bonds. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 931 TOP: Metabolic Pathways 67. Nutrient anabolism is required to rebuild ADP into ATP. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 931 TOP: Metabolic Pathways 68. Although cellulose has no nutrient value, it may be helpful in lowering the risk of some cancers. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 932 TOP: Dietary Sources of Carbohydrates 69. Polysaccharides, disaccharides, and monosaccharides have to be digested before they can be absorbed into the internal envNir oU RnmSeInN t. GTB.COM ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 932 TOP: Dietary Sources of Carbohydrates 70. The monosaccharides fructose, glucose, and galactose are all equally useful to the cell. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 932 TOP: Dietary Sources of Carbohydrates 71. ATP is useful for the long-term storage of chemical energy derived from nutrients. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 931 TOP: Transferring Chemical Energy (Box 41-1) 72. The cell can use both NAD and FAD to transfer energy. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 931 TOP: Transferring Chemical Energy (Box 41-1) 73. When NADH gains energy, it becomes NAD. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 931 TOP: Transferring Chemical Energy (Box 41-1)Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM ANS: T U S N T O 74. Carbohydrates are the body’s first choice of energy. As such, they are used exclusively for catabolism. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 932 TOP: Carbohydrate Metabolism 75. Oxygen is required for the last step of glycolysis. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 933 TOP: Carbohydrate Metabolism 76. Glycolysis releases only about 25% of the energy stored in the bonds of a glucose molecule. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 933 TOP: Carbohydrate Metabolism 77. The process of glycolysis produces four molecules of ATP, but the cell gains only two molecules of ATP. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 933 TOP: Carbohydrate Metabolism 78. The end product of glycolysis, pyruvate, is the starting substance for the citric acid cycle. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 933 TOP: Carbohydrate Metabolism 79. The acetyl group is carried to the citric acid cycle by coenzyme A. N R I G B.C M DIF: Memorization REF: p. 933 TOP: Carbohydrate Metabolism 80. Most vegetables are an excellent source of essential amino acids. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 945 TOP: Sources of Protein 81. Oxidative phosphorylation provides about 90% of the cell’s ATP. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 936 TOP: Carbohydrate Metabolism 82. An end product of the anaerobic pathway of glucose is lactic acid. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 938 TOP: Carbohydrate Metabolism 83. One function of lactate is to convert NADH back to NAD. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 938 TOP: Carbohydrate Metabolism 84. Glycogenesis is an example of carbohydrate anabolism.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 938 NURSINGTB.COM TOP: Carbohydrate Metabolism 85. Because red blood cells contain no mitochondria, they must get all of their energy through oxidative phosphorylation. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 938 TOP: Anaerobic Body Cells (Box 41-2) 86. Muscle cells are able to break down glycogen and release the resulting glucose back into the blood. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 939 TOP: Carbohydrate Metabolism 87. A saturated fat is saturated with hydrogen atoms. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 942 TOP: Dietary Sources of Lipids 88. Saturated fats are usually liquids at room temperature. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 942 TOP: Dietary Sources of Lipids 89. Unsaturated fats are usually liquids at room temperature. ANS: T DIF: M NRUemori SzaItioNnGTB.COM TOP: Dietary Sources of Lipids 90. Unsaturated fats have double bonds in their fatty acid chains. REF: p. 942 ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 942 TOP: Dietary Sources of Lipids 91. Cholesterol levels are particularly high in foods such as liver and egg yolk. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 942 TOP: Dietary Sources of Lipids 92. One benefit of exercise is that it tends to increase blood levels of LDL. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 942 TOP: Transport of Lipids 93. The smell of acetone on the breath is a sign of ketosis. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 943 TOP: Ketosis (Box 41-5) 94. Fatty acids are broken down by a process of beta oxidation.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 943 NURSINGTB.COM TOP: Lipid Metabolism 95. The body has an almost equal ability to store fats and carbohydrates. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 944 TOP: Lipid Metabolism 96. Just as there are essential amino acids, there are essential fatty acids. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 944 TOP: Lipid Metabolism 97. Fats have a “carbohydrate-sparing” effect, or more correctly, a “carbohydrate-storing” effect. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 944 TOP: Lipid Metabolism 98. Of the 20 amino acids used by the body, the body can synthesize 18. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 944 TOP: Sources of Protein 99. Vitamin C has an antioxidant effect. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 948 TOP: Vitamins N URSINGTB.COM 100. A larger individual has the same basal metabolic rate as a small person per square meter of body surface. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 950 TOP: Basal Metabolic Rate 101. Both the appetite and the satiety center are found in the hypothalamus. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 953-954 TOP: Mechanisms for Regulating Food Intake 102. Caffeine can be used to lower the basal metabolic rate. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 952 TOP: Basal Metabolic Rate 103. Both pregnancy and lactation can increase the basal metabolic rate. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 952 TOP: Basal Metabolic Rate 104. Thyroid hormone can promote protein anabolism or protein catabolism depending on the circumstances.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 946 TOP: Control of Protein Metabolism 105. Copper is an important mineral in the synthesis of thyroid hormone. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 949 TOP: Minerals 106. Calcium can be called both a macronutrient and a macromineral. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 929 TOP: Nutrition and Metabolism 107. Iodine can be called a trace element and a micromineral. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 929 TOP: Nutrition and Metabolism 108. Both pyruvate and lactate can be produced from the breakdown of glucose. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 933 | p. 937 TOP: Glycolysis | Anaerobic Pathway 109. In the anaerobic pathway, glucose can be converted to lactate without the use of oxygen. The lactate can then enter the citric acid cycle. ANS: F DIF: MNemoRrizaItionG B.C M REF: p. 937 TOP: Anaerobic Pathway U S N T O 110. There are lipids, carbohydrates, and amino acids that are needed by the body but cannot be made by the body. Because of this, they are called “essential” and must be included in the diet. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 944-945 TOP: Lipid Metabolism | Sources of Protein 111. ATP can be broken down and rebuilt in a process called the ATP/ADP cycle. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 931 TOP: Metabolic Pathways 112. Glycolysis is unique in carbohydrate metabolism in that it is the only process that does not occur in the mitochondrion. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 933 TOP: Glycolysis 113. The citric acid cycle, the tricarboxylic acid cycle, and the Krebs cycle all refer to the same process. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 935Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM TOP: Citric Acid Cycle 114. The Cori cycle is another term for the electron transport chain. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 938 TOP: Anaerobic Pathway 115. The Cori cycle rebuilds glucose from pyruvic acid to pay off the oxygen debt. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 938 TOP: Anaerobic Pathway 116. The group of hormones called incretins act to increase the amount of insulin produced by the pancreas, which would raise the blood level of glucose. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 941 TOP: Control of Glucose Metabolism 117. Both vitamins and minerals act as coenzymes for the body. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 946 TOP: Vitamins 118. The hormone leptin is frequently given to people undergoing chemotherapy to stimulate their appetite. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 944 TOP: Control of Lipid Metabolism 119. You would expect to find ver NRUyli ttlSeIfrNucGtoTseBi.nCthOeMgeneral circulation even after a meal that included fruit. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 932 TOP: Dietary Sources of Carbohydrates 120. The citric acid cycle is important because it produces more ATP than any other process in carbohydrate catabolism. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 934 TOP: Citric Acid Cycle 121. The conversion of NADH back to NAD so that if can function in anaerobic respiration is called the Cori cycle. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 938 TOP: Anaerobic Pathway 122. Only muscles store glycogen. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 939 TOP: GlycogenesisAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM U S N T O 123. The amount of glycogen being made must be regulated because too much glycogen can upset the osmotic balance in the cell. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 939 TOP: Glycogenesis 124. When the blood glucose levels rise to 80 to 90 mg/dl, it stimulates the formation of glycogen in cells. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 939 TOP: Glycogenesis 125. Epinephrine stimulates glycogenesis in the cells as part of the “fight-or-flight” response. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 939 TOP: Glycogenolysis 126. Foods coming from plants do not contain cholesterol. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 942 TOP: Dietary Sources of Lipids 127. Six or seven hours after eating, there would be very few chylomicrons in the blood. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 942 TOP: Transport of Lipids 128. Free fatty acids released intoNtheRbloIod fGromBa.diCposMe tissue are not actually free at all; they are attached to albumin in the blood. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 942 TOP: Transport of Lipids 129. The body has the ability to make two vitamins: vitamins D and K. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 948 TOP: Vitamins MATCHING Match each term with its corresponding statement or definition. a. Citric acid cycle b. Glycogenesis c. LDL d. Glycolysis e. Leptin f. Electron transport system g. HDL h. Incretins i. Cori cycleAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 1. Lipoprotein that is associated with low incidence of heart disease when present in high levels 2. A group of hormones that stimulates the pancreas to release insulin 3. Process that begins with acetyl CoA and produces high-energy electrons and NADH 4. Process that forms glycogen that can be stored by muscle and liver cells 5. Lipoprotein that is associated with high incidence of coronary artery disease when present in high levels 6. Process that rebuilds lactic acid formed under anaerobic conditions and transfers it back into glucose 7. First process in carbohydrate metabolism; occurs in the cytoplasm 8. Hormone, released by fat-storing cells, that seems to regulate satiety 9. Process that moves high-energy electrons from cytochrome to cytochrome and produces ATP and forms water 1. ANS: G DIF: Memorization REF: p. 942 TOP: 2. ANS: TOP: Transport of Lipids H DIF: Memorization Control of Glucose Metabolism REF: p. 941 3. ANS: TOP: A DIF: Memorization Citric Acid Cycle REF: pp. 934-935 4. ANS: TOP: B DIF: Memorization Glycogenesis REF: pp. 938-939 5. ANS: TOP: C DIF: Memorization Transport of Lipids REF: p. 942 6. ANS: TOP: I DIF: Memorization Anaerobic Pathway REF: p. 938 U S N T O TOP: Control of Lipid Metabolism 9. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 935 TOP: Electron Transport Chain Match each term with its corresponding statement or definition. a. Anabolism b. Catabolism c. Metabolism d. Nutrition e. Assimilation 10. Energy-requiring process by which small molecules are joined to form larger molecules 11. Energy-releasing process by which large molecules are broken down into smaller molecules 12. The use the body makes of foods after they have been digested, absorbed, and circulated to cells 13. Evaluation of food and drink (nutrient) requirements for normal body functions 14. Occurs when nutrient molecules enter the cell and undergo many chemical changes 10. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 931 TOP: Metabolic Pathways 11. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 931 TOP: Metabolic Pathways 7. ANS: TOP: D DIF: Glycolysis MemN oriR za tioI n G B.C M REF: p. 933 8. ANS: E DIF: Memorization REF: p. 944Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 12. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 931 TOP: Metabolic Pathways 13. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 931 TOP: Metabolic Pathways 14. ANS: E DIF: Memorization REF: p. 931 TOP: Metabolic Pathways OTHER 1. Explain why the mitochondria are referred to as power plants. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 936 TOP: Electron Transport System and Oxidative Phosphorylation 2. Explain what is meant by oxidative phosphorylation. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 936 TOP: Electron Transport System and Oxidative Phosphorylation 3. Explain how the lack of oxygen would inhibit the Krebs cycle. ANS: Answers will vary. NURSINGTB.COM DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 935 TOP: Citric Acid Cycle 4. Show in an equation form the end products of glucose catabolism. Use one molecule of glucose and six molecules of oxygen to begin the equation. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: p. 936 TOP: Electron Transport System and Oxidative Phosphorylation 5. Define the terms hyperglycemia and hypoglycemia. Identify various conditions in which each may occur. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 942 TOP: Abnormal Blood Glucose Concentration (Box 41-3) 6. List and explain factors that can influence BMR.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 950-952 TOP: Factors Influencing Basal Metabolic Rate 7. Ed has a bet with Bob that he can lose 5 pounds in 2 weeks (14 days). He increases his activity so he is burning 2500 calories a day. He has reduced his caloric intake to 1800 calories a day. How much weight will Ed lose in 14 days? Does he win the bet? ANS: Weight loss is 2.8 pounds; he will lose the bet. DIF: Application REF: p. 953 TOP: Energy Balance and Body Weight 8. Explain the difference between a macronutrient and a micronutrient. Give several examples of each. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 929 TOP: Nutrition and Metabolism 9. Explain the terms metabolism, anabolism, and catabolism. Give an example of an anabolic process and a catabolic process. ANS: Answers will vary. NURSINGTB.COM DIF: Memorization REF: p. 931 TOP: Metabolic Pathways 10. What is ATP and why is it important to the functioning of the cell? Describe the ATP/ADP cycle or system. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 931 TOP: Metabolic Pathways 11. What are the types of carbohydrates ingested as food? What are the sources of each type? What role does cellulose play in the functioning of the digestive system? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 932 TOP: Dietary Sources of Carbohydrates 12. Explain the process of glycolysis. What is the starting material and what are the end products of the process of glycolysis? ANS:Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM U S N T O Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 933 TOP: Glycolysis 13. Briefly explain the citric acid cycle. What is the starting material and what are the end products? In what form is most of the energy produced? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 933-935 TOP: Citric Acid Cycle 14. Explain the electron transport system. How is ATP produced in the mitochondria? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 935-936 TOP: Electron Transport System and Oxidative Phosphorylation 15. Explain what occurs in the anaerobic pathway. What is the Cori cycle? What is meant by the oxygen debt? ANS: Answers will vary. 16.1 6 . DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 937-938 TOP: Anaerobic Pathway N R I G B.C M What is glycogenesis? What cells in the body are able to store large amounts of glycogen? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 938-939 TOP: Glycogenesis 17. Name and explain the role of hormones in the regulation of glucose. What are incretins and what are their effects in the body? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 941 TOP: Control of Glucose Metabolism 18. Distinguish between saturated and unsaturated fats. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 942 TOP: Dietary Sources of LipidsAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM REF: p. 950 19. Name and describe the three types of lipoproteins found in the blood. What is the effect of different types of lipoproteins on health? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 942 TOP: Transport of Lipids 20. What is the usual function of vitamins? Name three vitamins and explain their function. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 946-948 TOP: Vitamins 21. Explain three functions that minerals have in the body. Name three minerals and explain their function. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 949 TOP: Minerals 22. Basal metabolic rate assumes three “basal” conditions; name and explain them. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization N URSINGTB.COM TOP: Basal Metabolic Rate 23. Name and explain three factors that influence the basal metabolic rate. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 950-952 TOP: Factors Influencing Basal Metabolic Rate ESSAY 1. Most of the illegal anabolic steroids used by athletes contain some form of testosterone. Why are these steroids so effective in building muscle mass? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: p. 946 TOP: Control of Protein MetabolismAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM Chapter 42: Urinary System Patton: Anatomy and Physiology, 10th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following is(are) classified as an accessory organ of the urinary system? a. Ureters b. Urinary bladder c. Urethra d. All of the above ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 964 TOP: Introduction 2. The shape of the kidney could best be described as -shaped. a. bean b. pear c. pea d. potato ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 964 TOP: Gross Structure 3. The calyces of the kidney join together to form a large collection reservoir called the: a. renal columns. b. renal pyramids. c. renal pelvis. d. hilum. NURSINGTB.COM ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 965 TOP: Gross Structure 4. There are how many openings in the urinary bladder? a. One b. Two c. Three d. Four ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 967 TOP: Urinary Bladder 5. The function of the urinary bladder is to: a. serve as a reservoir for urine before it leaves the body. b. expel urine from the body, aided by the urethra. c. help concentrate the urine in periods of dehydration. d. do both A and B. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 967 TOP: Gross Structure 6. One difference between the male urethra and the female urethra is the male urethra is:Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM a. shorter. b. part of two different body systems. c. unique in that there are no additional ducts that merge with it. d. both B and C. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 968 TOP: Gross Structure 7. At the beginning of the “plumbing system” of the urinary system, urine leaving the renal papilla is collected in the cuplike structures called: a. renal columns. b. renal pyramids. c. calyces. d. ureters. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 965 TOP: Gross Structure 8. Urine is conducted from the kidney to the urinary bladder through a tube called the: a. renal column. b. renal pelvis. c. urethra. d. ureter. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 966 TOP: Gross Structure 9. Substances travel from the gl NomeRrulIus inGto tBh. e gClomMerular capsule by the process of: a. diffusion. b. active transport. c. filtration. d. osmosis. U S N T O ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 975 TOP: Filtration 10. Of all the blood pumped per minute by the heart, approximately goes through the kidneys. a. 1/5 b. 1/3 c. 1/2 d. 3/4 ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 965 TOP: Gross Structure 11. Cells called podocytes make up the: a. parietal layer of the glomerular capsule. b. visceral layer of the glomerular capsule. c. glomerulus. d. proximal tubule. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 969Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM TOP: Microscopic Structure of the Nephron 12. The portion of the nephron that empties into a calyx is the: a. distal tubule. b. nephron loop. c. collecting tubule. d. proximal tubule. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 973 TOP: Microscopic Structure of the Nephron 13. Which of the following is not a part of the glomerular-capsular membrane? a. Parietal layer of the glomerular capsule b. Visceral layer of the glomerular capsule c. Glomerular endothelium d. Basement membrane ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 969 TOP: Microscopic Structure of the Nephron 14. A portion of the nephron that can lie within the medulla is the: a. proximal tubule. b. glomerular capsule. c. distal tubule. d. nephron loop. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 973 TOP: Microscopic Structure of the Nephron NURSINGTB.COM 15. Approximately how much blood flows through the kidneys per minute? a. 500 ml b. 750 ml c. 1200 ml d. 3500 ml ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 965 TOP: Gross Structure 16. In the kidney, blood flows from the interlobular artery into the: a. glomerulus. b. efferent arteriole. c. afferent arteriole. d. peritubular capillaries. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 965 TOP: Gross Structure 17. Reabsorption, as performed in the kidney, may be defined as the: a. movement of molecules out of the tubule and into the peritubular blood. b. movement of molecules out of the peritubular blood and into the tubule for excretion. c. movement of water and solutes from the plasma in the glomerulus, across the glomerular-capsular membrane, and into the capsular space of the glomerularAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM capsule. d. volume of plasma from which a substance is removed by the kidney per minute. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 977 TOP: Overview of Kidney Function 18. Which of these statements is not true of the kidney? a. The kidney is usually located next to the vertebrae from T12 to L3. b. The kidney is retroperitoneal. c. The kidney is protected by a heavy layer of fat. d. All of the above are true of the kidney. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 964-965 TOP: Gross Structure 19. Which of the following is not a normal function of the kidneys? a. Synthesize prostaglandins b. Regulate blood sugar c. Produce hormones d. Regulate blood electrolytes ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 974-975 TOP: Overview of Kidney Function 20. The normal osmotic pressure of the capsular filtrate is mm Hg. a. 60 b. 32 c. 18 d. 0 NURSINGTB.COM ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 976 TOP: Overview of Kidney Function 21. A drop in systemic blood pressure would cause the filtration rate to: a. increase. b. decrease. c. stay the same. d. vary depending on the level of AHD in the blood. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 977 TOP: Overview of Kidney Function 22. The ion most likely to be reabsorbed after the reabsorption of sodium ions is: a. potassium. b. chloride. c. phosphate. d. both B and C. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 977 TOP: Reabsorption 23. Under normal conditions, most nutrients are reabsorbed in which portion of the nephron? a. Proximal tubuleAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM b. Ascending nephron loop c. Distal tubule d. Collecting tubule ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 977 TOP: Reabsorption 24. Regarding reabsorption in the proximal tubules, which of the following statements is not true? a. Sodium is actively transported out of the tubule fluid and into the blood. b. Chloride ions are actively transported into the blood plasma. c. Glucose and amino acids are transported with sodium and passively move out of the tubule fluid by means of the sodium cotransport mechanism. d. About half of the urea present in the tubule fluid passively moves out of the tubule, leaving half the urea to move on to the nephron loop. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 979 TOP: Reabsorption 25. Which of the following is the approximate threshold level for the reabsorption of glucose? a. 100 mg/100 ml b. 300 mg/100 ml c. 200 mg/100 ml d. 250 mg/100 ml ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 978 TOP: Reabsorption 26. The substance most often me NasuRred Ito dGeterBm.inCe noMrmal kidney function is: a. creatinine. b. glucose. c. sodium. d. potassium. U S N T O ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 985 TOP: Blood Indicators of Renal Dysfunction (Box 42-4) 27. The portion of the nephron tubule that is essentially always impermeable to water is the: a. proximal tubule. b. distal tubule. c. collecting tubule. d. ascending nephron loop. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 979 TOP: Reabsorption 28. Filtrate in which part of the nephron tubule has the highest osmolality? a. Proximal tubule b. Ascending nephron loop c. Descending nephron loop d. Distal tubule ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 979 TOP: ReabsorptionAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 29. Urine formation involves all the following processes except: a. filtration. b. catabolism. c. reabsorption. d. secretion. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 975 TOP: Overview of Kidney Function 30. Which of the following statements is not true of the ureter? a. The ureter is approximately 28 cm long. b. The ureter conducts urine inferiorly from the kidney to the bladder. c. The ureter is composed of two layers of tissue—an inner mucous layer and an outer fibrous layer. d. All of the above are true of the ureter. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 966 TOP: Gross Structure 31. When aldosterone is released, secretion of occurs. a. ammonium b. hydrogen c. potassium d. sodium ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 982 TOP: Tubular Secretions NURSINGTB.COM 32. In the ascending limb of the nephron loop: a. sodium and chloride are reabsorbed from the tubule fluid. b. the tubule fluid becomes dilute (hypotonic). c. antidiuretic hormone causes the cells to become more permeable to water. d. both A and B occur. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 979 TOP: Reabsorption 33. ADH has the greatest effect on the reabsorption of water in the: a. proximal tubule. b. ascending nephron loop. c. descending nephron loop. d. distal tubule. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 982 TOP: Reabsorption 34. The movement of substances out of the best describes secretion in the formation of urine. a. blood into the tubule b. blood into the glomerular capsule c. tubules into interstitial fluidsAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM N R I G B.C M d. glomerulus into the tubules ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 982 TOP: Tubular Secretions 35. Which of the following ions is not normally secreted into the distal or collecting tubules? a. Potassium b. Hydrogen c. Ammonium d. Sodium ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 982 TOP: Tubular Secretions 36. The movement of molecules out of the tubules and into the peritubular blood defines: a. glomerular filtration. b. secretion. c. micturition. d. reabsorption. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 975 TOP: Overview of Kidney Function 37. In which parts of the nephron do all of the following functions occur: passive reabsorption, active reabsorption, passive secretion, and active secretion? a. Proximal tubule and the renal corpuscle b. Collecting duct and the distal tubule c. Collecting duct and the ascending nephron limb d. Collecting duct and the desUcenSdingNneTphron liOmb ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 982 TOP: Summary of Nephron Function 38. Water will move by osmosis only in the presence of ADH in the: a. distal tubule. b. collecting duct. c. ascending nephron limb. d. Both A and B are correct. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 982 TOP: Reabsorption 39. Which of the following is not a normal constituent of urine? a. Nitrogenous wastes b. Hormones c. Pigments d. Plasma proteins ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 985-986 TOP: Urine Composition 40. The percentage of water in urine is approximately %. a. 55Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM N R I b. 65 c. 80 d. 95 ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 985 TOP: Urine Composition 41. Which of the following statements is not true? a. The right kidney is slightly lower than the left kidney. b. The right kidney is often slightly larger than the left kidney. c. The kidneys extend above the level of the twelfth rib. d. The kidneys are retroperitoneal. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 964 TOP: Gross Structure 42. Which of the following structures does not enter or leave through the hilum of the kidney? a. Calyx b. Renal artery c. Renal vein d. Ureter ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 965 TOP: Gross Structure 43. Which of the following is not true of the proximal tubule? a. Highly convoluted b. Nearest to the glomerular capsule G B.C M c. Second part of the renal tubUuleSs N T O d. Contains microvilli ANS: C DIF: Application REF: p. 972 TOP: Microscopic Structure of the Nephron 44. If the Tmax for glucose in the nephron was 300 mg/100 ml and a person had blood glucose level of 380 mg/100 ml, there would be: a. 300 mg/100 ml of glucose in the urine. b. 80 mg/100 ml of glucose in the urine. c. 80 mg/100 ml of glucose in the blood leaving the kidney. d. both A and C. ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 978 TOP: Reabsorption in the Proximal Convoluted Tubule 45. The nitrogenous wastes in the urine are usually the result of protein catabolism. They include all except: a. urea. b. ammonia. c. creatinine. d. amino acids. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 985 TOP: Urine CompositionAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 46. A good description of the urinary system function is that it: a. produces urine. b. balances blood plasma. c. maintains the dynamic consistency of the internal fluid environment. d. does all of the above. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 963 TOP: Introduction 47. What is the first branch of the segmental artery? a. Interlobar arteries b. Afferent arterioles c. Lobar arteries d. Arcuate arteries ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 965 TOP: Blood Vessels of the Kidneys 48. Which blood vessels empty into the glomerulus? a. Interlobar arteries b. Afferent arterioles c. Lobar arteries d. Arcuate arteries ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 973 TOP: Blood Supply of the Nephron 49. Which blood vessel drains thNeUvaRsaSrIecNtaG?TB.COM a. Lobar vein b. Arcuate vein c. Interlobular vein d. Both B and C ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 973 TOP: Blood Supply of the Nephron 50. Fluid in the nephron would flow through these structures in which order? a. Proximal tubule, nephron loop, glomerular capsule, distal tubule, collecting duct b. Glomerular capsule, nephron loop, proximal tubule, distal tubule, collecting duct c. Glomerular capsule, proximal tubule, nephron loop, distal tubule, collecting duct d. None of the above are in the correct order. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 969 TOP: Microscopic Structure 51. Which structure of the kidney narrows as it exits the kidney to become the ureter? a. Renal pyramids b. Renal pelvis c. Renal columns d. Hilum ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 965Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM TOP: Gross Structure 52. In the average bladder, what amount of urine would cause a moderately distended sensation and the desire to void? a. 250 ml b. 100 ml c. 600 ml d. 150 ml ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 968 TOP: Micturition 53. The mechanism for voiding begins with: a. the relaxation of the internal sphincter. b. the contraction of the muscles of the bladder. c. the relaxation of the external sphincter. d. a parasympathetic impulse sent to the bladder. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 968 TOP: Micturition 54. Which nitrogenous waste is the most abundant found in urine? a. Uric acid b. Urea c. Ammonia d. Creatinine ANS: B DIF: A N pplicRatioIn GREBF:.p.C98M5 TOP: Composition of Urine U S N T O 55. Which hormone tends to increase the amount of urine produced? a. ANH b. Aldosterone c. ADH d. Both B and C ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 984 TOP: Regulation of Urine Volume 56. Which hormone tends to decrease the amount of urine produced? a. ANH b. Aldosterone c. ADH d. Both B and C ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 983 TOP: Regulation of Urine Volume 57. As the amount of sodium reabsorbed by the distal convoluted tubule increases, the amount of increases. a. potassium ions absorbed also b. hydrogen ions absorbed also c. potassium ions secretedAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM ANS: C U S N T O d. Both A and B are correct. ANS: C DIF: Application REF: p. 982 TOP: Tubular Secretions 58. If the glomerular hydrostatic pressure is 67 mm Hg, the glomerular osmotic pressure is 28 mm Hg, the capsular hydrostatic pressure is 17 mm Hg, and the capsular osmotic pressure is 0 mm Hg, the effective filtration pressure (EFP) would be mm Hg. a. 22 b. 56 c. 78 d. There is not enough information to determine the EFP. ANS: A DIF: Application REF: p. 976 TOP: Filtration 59. What effect do aldosterone and antidiuretic hormone (ADH) have on urine volume? a. Because water reabsorption in the distal and collecting tubules doesn’t require ADH, the aldosterone mechanism must work separately from the ADH mechanism to maintain homeostasis of the fluid content in the body. b. Both aldosterone and ADH decrease distal and collecting tubule absorption of sodium, which in turn causes an osmotic imbalance that drives the reabsorption of water from the tubule. c. Because water reabsorption in the distal and collecting tubules requires ADH, the aldosterone mechanism must work in concert with the ADH mechanism if homeostasis of the fluid content in the body is to be maintained. d. Both aldosterone and ADH increase distal and collecting tubule absorption of sodium, which in turn causes an osmotic imbalance that stops the reabsorption of water from the tubule. N R I G B.C M DIF: Application REF: p. 983 TOP: Regulation of Urine Volume 60. What effect on the treatment of secondary hypertension would you expect from angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor drugs? a. When secondary hypertension occurs, the cells of the juxtaglomerular apparatus secrete renin, which in turn results in angiotensin production and increased blood pressure, so giving ACE inhibitors may reduce the production of angiotensin and lower the blood pressure. b. Secondary hypertension is caused by stenosis of the renal artery, so ACE inhibitors will relax the vessel, thus reducing blood pressure. c. Secondary hypertension is caused by stenosis of the renal artery, so ACE inhibitors will decrease atherosclerotic plaque and result in a lower blood pressure. d. ACE inhibitors will not have any effect on secondary hypertension. ANS: A DIF: Application REF: p. 987 TOP: Mechanisms of Disease (Renal Hypertension) 61. Why would the response of the kidney to arteriosclerosis actually compound the problem of hypertension? a. When the kidney responds to narrowing of a renal artery due to this disease, it will not cause any changes in kidney function or status. b. When the kidney responds to widening of a renal artery due to this disease, it will cause an increase in blood pressure and an increase in kidney perfusion.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM c. When the kidney responds to narrowing of a renal artery due to this disease, it will cause a decrease in blood pressure and possibly even death. d. When the kidney responds to narrowing of a renal artery due to this disease, it will cause an increase in blood pressure and ischemia of kidney tissues. ANS: D DIF: Application REF: p. 987 TOP: Mechanisms of Disease (Renal Hypertension) 62. Which statement best explains the process of filtration in the nephron? a. Filtration occurs as a result of passive and active transport mechanisms from all parts of the renal tubules; a major portion of reabsorption occurs in the proximal tubule. b. Filtration is the movement of molecules out of peritubular blood and into the tubule for excretion. c. Filtration is the movement of molecules out of the tubule and into peritubular blood. d. Filtration is the movement of water and protein-free solutes from plasma in the glomerulus into the capsular space of the glomerular capsule. ANS: D DIF: Application REF: p. 975 TOP: Overview of Kidney Function 63. If a person becomes dehydrated, which hormone would you expect to find in high concentration in the blood? a. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) b. Atrial natriuretic hormone (ANH) c. Para-aminohippurate acid (PAH) d. Prolactin (PRL) NURSINGTB.COM ANS: A DIF: Application REF: p. 983 TOP: Regulation of Urine Volume 64. Which statement best explains why the insertion of a urinary catheter would be an ineffective treatment for renal suppression? a. Renal suppression occurs when effective filtration pressure falls to zero and the kidneys shut down, so a urinary catheter would not help this situation. b. Renal suppression occurs when effective filtration pressure is elevated and urine production is increased, thus allowing free-flowing urine. A urinary catheter isn’t needed in this situation. c. Renal suppression occurs when there is a disruption of nervous input to the bladder, resulting in loss of control of voiding. A urinary catheter would not be a treatment for the condition. d. Renal suppression is caused by a urinary tract infection, and a urinary catheter would not be effective in treating this condition. ANS: A DIF: Application REF: p. 976 TOP: Filtration 65. Which statement identifies two blood indicators of renal dysfunction and best explains why they can be as such? a. Increased urea and creatinine levels in the blood indicate the inability of the kidney to filter creatinine and urea. b. Glucose in urine and complete blood count elevations indicate the kidney’s inability to produce red blood cells.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM c. pH and specific gravity elevation indicate kidney dysfunction because an increase in solutes prevents the kidney from filtering correctly. d. Albumin and acetone decreases indicate that the kidney is unable to reabsorb these in the loop of Henle. ANS: A DIF: Application REF: p. 985 TOP: Blood Indicators of Renal Dysfunction (Box 42-4) 66. Which best explains why a person who has uncontrolled diabetes mellitus voids a large amount of urine? a. Excess glucose “spills over” into urine, thereby decreasing the solute concentration of urine (and decreasing the solute concentration of plasma), which in turn leads to diuresis. b. Excess glucose “spills over” into urine, thereby increasing the solute concentration of urine (and decreasing the solute concentration of plasma), which in turn leads to diuresis. c. Low levels of insulin stimulate the kidney to not reabsorb water in the tubules. d. Decreased glucose is caused by withdrawal of sugar from urine, causing an increase in urine production. ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 978 TOP: Reabsorption in the Proximal Convoluted Tubule 67. Within the male urethra, how is urine prevented from mixing with semen during ejaculation? a. Conscious control of a sphincter muscle guarding the bladder opening b. Contraction of the detrusor muscle of the bladder c. By the urinary meatus d. Reflex closure of sphinctNerUmRuSscIleNsGguTaBrd.inCgOthMe bladder opening ANS: D DIF: Application REF: p. 968 TOP: Urethra 68. The microvilli on the luminal surface of each epithelial cell in the proximal tubule wall will: a. form a brush border that increases absorptive surface area of the entire inner surface of the proximal tubule. b. form an electrical gradient that drives the diffusion of negative ions from the filtrate into the interstitial fluid. c. participate in the countercurrent mechanism, which allows the contents to flow in opposite directions. d. increase the secretory surface area of the entire inner surface of the proximal tubule. ANS: A DIF: Application REF: p. 977 TOP: Reabsorption in the Proximal Convoluted Tubule 69. Which of the following is not a primary function of the nephron loop? a. The nephron loop reabsorbs water from the tubule fluid in its descending limb. b. In addition to reabsorption, the nephron loop secretes hydrogen ions. c. By reabsorbing salt from its ascending limb, it makes the tubule fluid hypoosmotic. d. Reabsorption of salt in the ascending limb also creates and maintains a high osmotic pressure.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 967 NURSINGTB.COM ANS: B DIF: Application REF: pp. 980-981 TOP: Reabsorption in the Nephron Loop 70. Autoregulation of glomerular filtration by tubuloglomerular feedback helps protect the kidney: a. from rapid systemic arterial pressure variations that would otherwise cause large glomerular filtration rate changes. b. from rapid systemic venous pressure variations that would otherwise cause large glomerular filtration rate changes. c. by contracting the walls of the efferent arterioles, thus increasing systemic blood pressure. d. by relaxing the walls of the efferent arterioles, thus reducing systemic blood pressure. ANS: A DIF: Application REF: p. 984 TOP: Regulation of Urine Volume 71. Terry has lupus erythematosus and has been complaining of feelings of urgency, pain in urination, and the appearance of blood in the urine. More than likely, Terry is suffering from: a. interstitial cystitis. b. renal calculi. c. renal ptosis. d. renal sarcoma. ANS: A DIF: Application REF: p. 989 TOP: Mechanisms of Disease (Glomerular Disorders) TRUE/FALSE NURSINGTB.COM 1. A cushion of fat normally encases a kidney and helps hold it in position. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 965 TOP: Gross Structure 2. Generally, the right kidney is larger than the left kidney. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 964 TOP: Gross Structure 3. Each renal papilla juts into a cuplike structure called the renal pyramid. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 965 TOP: Gross Structure 4. The outer portion of the kidney is referred to as the cortex. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 965 TOP: Gross Structure 5. There are three openings in the floor of the urinary bladder—two from the ureters and one into the urethra.TOP: Gross Structure 6. The urinary meatus is the tube leading from the bladder to the exterior. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 967 TOP: Gross Structure 7. In both males and females, the urethra serves urinary and reproductive functions. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 968 TOP: Gross Structure 8. The principle organs of the urinary system are the kidneys. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 964 TOP: Gross Structure 9. A glomerulus is a group of capillaries located in a glomerular capsule. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 970 TOP: Microscopic Structure of the Nephron 10. The capsular space is a microscopic space between the glomerulus and the parietal layer of the glomerular capsule. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 969 TOP: Microscopic Structure of the Nephron 11. The renal corpuscle is anothe NrUnR amSeIfo NrGthTeBn.epChrOoMn. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 969 TOP: Microscopic Structure 12. The kidney could best be described as pear-shaped. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 964 TOP: Gross Structure 13. The kidneys are located in the right and left iliac regions of the abdomen. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 964 TOP: Gross Structure 14. The outer portion of the kidney is called the medulla. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 965 TOP: Gross Structure 15. As the basic functional unit of the kidney, the nephron’s function is blood plasma processing and urine formation. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 969TOP: Microscopic Structure of the Nephron 16. Blood leaves the glomerulus through efferent arterioles and then moves into peritubular capillaries. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 973 TOP: Blood Supply of the Nephron 17. Blood leaves the glomerulus through efferent venules. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 973 TOP: Blood Supply of the Nephron 18. Blood enters the glomerulus through afferent arterioles. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 973 TOP: Blood Supply of the Nephron 19. The renal tubule is made up of simple squamous and simple cuboidal epithelium. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 972 TOP: Microscopic Structure 20. The kidneys influence secretion of the hormone aldosterone. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 983 TOP: Regulation of Urine Volume 21. A hydrostatic pressure gradieNnUt cRauSsIesNfG luTidBs t.oCmOoMve from the glomerulus into the glomerular capsule. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 976 TOP: Filtration 22. A hydrostatic pressure gradient drives the filtration of much of the plasma into the nephron. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 976 TOP: Filtration 23. When compared with most other capillaries in the body, the capillaries in the glomerulus have many more pores. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 976 TOP: Filtration 24. Glomerular endothelium is similar to tissue capillary endothelium in that both have approximately the same number of pores, or fenestrations. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 976 TOP: Filtration25. The reabsorption of electrolytes by the peritubular capillaries will cause obligatory water reabsorption. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 977 TOP: Reabsorption 26. When the mean arterial blood pressure doubles, so does glomerular filtration. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 977 TOP: Filtration 27. The kidney filters out only harmful and excess material. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 975 TOP: Overview of Kidney Function 28. Glomerular hydrostatic pressure and filtration are directly related to systemic blood pressure. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 976 TOP: Filtration 29. Filtrate in the descending limb of the nephron loop has the highest osmolality. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 979 TOP: Reabsorption 30. Both ADH and aldosterone attempt to decrease normal urine output. ANS: T DIF: M NRUemori SzaItioNnGTB.COM TOP: Regulation of Urine Volume REF: p. 983 31. Creatinine is often measured to determine normal kidney function. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 985 TOP: Blood Indicators of Renal Dysfunction (Box 42-4) 32. Urine consists of approximately 75% water. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 985 TOP: Urinary Composition 33. Glycosuria refers to blood in the urine. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 978 TOP: Glucose in the Urine (Box 42-3) 34. In the proximal tubule of the nephron, glucose and amino acids are transported with sodium and actively move out of the tubule fluid by means of the sodium cotransport mechanism. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 978 TOP: Reabsorption35. Both sodium and glucose are moved into the peritubular capillaries by the active transport process. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 978 TOP: Reabsorption 36. With increased ADH, urine becomes hypoosmotic to blood. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 982 TOP: Reabsorption 37. An increase in ADH causes a decrease in the osmolarity of urine. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 982 TOP: Reabsorption 38. Aldosterone tends to increase urine volume, thereby promoting water loss. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 983 TOP: Regulation of Urine Volume 39. ADH and aldosterone both attempt to decrease urine output. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 983 TOP: Regulation of Urine Volume 40. An increase in solutes in the urine will cause an increase in the urine output. ANS: T DIF: M NRUemori SzaItioNnGTB.COM TOP: Regulation of Urine Volume REF: p. 983 41. A person with uncontrolled diabetes mellitus will have a higher-than-normal solute concentration in the urine. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 984 TOP: Regulation of Urine Volume 42. The volume of urine is normally determined by the glomerular filtration rate. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 984 TOP: Regulation of Urine Volume 43. Freshly voided urine is generally acidic. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 985 TOP: Characteristics of Urine 44. About 10% of the blood pumped by the heart per minute goes to the kidneys. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 965 TOP: Blood Vessels of the Kidneys45. The urinary system can be seen as a urine producer and a blood plasma balancer. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 963 TOP: Introduction 46. The connective tissue that anchors the kidney to the surrounding structures is called the renal cortex. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 965 TOP: Gross Structure 47. The renal pyramids are in the medulla of the kidney. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 965 TOP: Gross Structure 48. The calyx surrounds the renal papilla. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 965 TOP: Gross Structure 49. The nephron loop is a countercurrent structure. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 979 TOP: Reabsorption in the Nephron Loop 50. In the blood vessels in the kidney, lobar arterioles divide to become segmental arterioles. ANS: F DIF: M NRUemori SzaItioNnGTB.COM TOP: Gross Structure REF: p. 965 51. The kidney is similar to the hepatic portal system because it has a venule connecting two capillary beds—the glomerulus and the peritubular capillaries. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 965 TOP: Gross Structure 52. The renal artery branches directly from the abdominal aorta. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 965 TOP: Gross Structure 53. Gravity moves urine from the kidney to the bladder through the ureter. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 966 TOP: Ureter 54. The fibrous adventitia covers only the superior surface of the bladder; the rest is covered by the parietal peritoneum. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 967 TOP: Urinary Bladder55. The detrusor muscle is the name given to the smooth muscle that makes up the bladder. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 967 TOP: Urinary Bladder 56. Contraction of the bladder and relaxation of the internal sphincter are controlled by the sympathetic nervous system. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 968 TOP: Micturition 57. The proximal tubule is called “proximal” because it is nearest to the glomerular capsule. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 972 TOP: Microscopic Structure of the Nephron 58. One factor that influences the hydrostatic pressure of the glomerulus is the difference in diameter between the efferent and afferent arterioles. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 977 TOP: Filtration 59. The myogenic mechanism helps regulate GFR by regulating the diameter of the efferent arterioles. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 984 TOP: Regulation of Urine VolNum eRU SINGTB.COM 60. Nitrogen wastes are removed only by the urinary system. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 964 TOP: Excretion 61. Electrolytes are excreted by both the urinary and integumentary systems. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 964 TOP: Excretion 62. The respiratory system is the only system that removes carbon dioxide from the body. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 964 TOP: Excretion 63. The kidneys are surrounded by fat and are enclosed by the parietal peritoneum. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 965 TOP: Gross Structure 64. The hilum is a concave notch on the lateral side of the kidney. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 965TOP: Gross Structure 65. Structures such as the ureter and blood vessels enter and leave the kidney through the hilum. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 966 TOP: Gross Structure 66. The blood vessel that surrounds the nephron loop is called the vasa recta. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 973 TOP: Microscopic Structure 67. The urinary bladder is a collapsible bag located behind the symphysis pubis. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 966 TOP: Gross Structure 68. The folds in the bladder wall are called rugae. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 967 TOP: Gross Structure 69. The bladder has two main functions: to serve as a reservoir for urine until it leaves the body and, aided by the urethra, expels urine from the body. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 967 TOP: Urinary Bladder 70. The transitional epithelium thNaUt lRinSesItNheGbTlaBdd.eCr w OaMll is one factor that allows the bladder to distend. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 966 TOP: Gross Structure 71. The three openings on the bladder floor make up the trigone. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 967 TOP: Gross Structure 72. The prostatic urethra is found only in men. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 968 TOP: Gross Structure 73. Micturition is the process of voiding urine. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 968 TOP: Gross Structure 74. The mechanism of voiding urine begins with the involuntary relaxation of the external sphincter muscle.ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 968 TOP: Gross Structure 75. The male urethra is about twice as long as the female urethra. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 968 TOP: Gross Structure 76. The kidney and bladder are the principal organs of the urinary system. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 964 TOP: Gross Structure 77. When urine “backs up,” causing swelling in the renal pelvis and calyces, the condition is called hydronephrosis. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 987 TOP: Mechanisms of Disease 78. Proteinuria can indicate damage in the glomerular-capsular membrane. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 989 TOP: Mechanisms of Disease (Glomerular Disorders) 79. The primary cilium of the epithelial cells lining the renal tubules act as mechanoreceptors to regulate the flow of filtrate through the tube. ANS: F DIF: MNemoRrizaItionG B.C M REF: p. 972 TOP: Microscopic Structure of tUhe NSephNronT O 80. The function of the slit diaphragm is to prevent the filtration slits from closing under pressure. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 970 TOP: Microscopic Structure of the Nephron 81. The fenestrations increase the porosity of the glomerulus. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 970 TOP: Microscopic Structure of the Nephron 82. The proximal tubule is the second part of the nephron but the first part of the renal tubules. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 972 TOP: Microscopic Structure of the Nephron 83. Just as in the lumen of the small intestine, the lumen of the proximal tubule has microvilli. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 972 TOP: Microscopic Structure of the Nephron 84. In the nephron loop, the descending limb is thicker than the ascending limb.ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 972-973 TOP: Microscopic Structure of the Nephron 85. Cells in the juxtaglomerular apparatus release renin. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 973 TOP: Microscopic Structure of the Nephron 86. Renin is released in response to a rise in blood pressure in the afferent arteriole. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 973 TOP: Microscopic Structure of the Nephron 87. The macula densa is considered a mechanoreceptor. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 973 TOP: Microscopic Structure of the Nephron 88. The macula densa is considered a chemoreceptor. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 973 TOP: Microscopic Structure of the Nephron 89. The renal fasciae anchor the kidney to surrounding structures. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 965 TOP: Gross Structure 90. Urea is a nitrogenous waste pNroUdRucStIexNcGreTteBd .byCtOheMkidney. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 974 TOP: Overview of Kidney Function 91. Intense exercise causes temporary proteinuria. This is caused by minor kidney damage from the intense exercise. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 976 TOP: Changes in Glomerular Filtration Rate (Box 42-2) 92. Intense exercise causes temporary proteinuria. This is probably caused by an increase in permeability of the nephron’s filtration membrane. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 976 TOP: Changes in Glomerular Filtration Rate (Box 42-2) 93. Most reabsorption occurs in the nephron loop. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 977 TOP: Reabsorption 94. The nephron loop and the vasa recta have a countercurrent structure.ANS: T U S N T O ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 979 TOP: Reabsorption 95. The ion pumps in the ascending limb of the loop of Henle can maintain an osmotic difference of 400 mOsm/L across the wall of the tubule. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 979 TOP: Reabsorption 96. The descending limb of the nephron loop is usually in osmotic equilibrium with the interstitial fluid. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 979 TOP: Reabsorption 97. The fluid at the top of the ascending limb of the nephron loop is about 100 mOsm/L, which makes it hyperosmotic to most other body fluids. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 979 TOP: Reabsorption 98. Just like the kidneys, the ureters are retroperitoneal. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 966 TOP: Gross Structure 99. The yellowish pigment in the urine is derived from the breakdown of old red blood cells. N R I G B.C M DIF: Memorization REF: p. 986 TOP: Urinary Composition 100. The osmolality of the urine excreted by the body can be as high as the osmolality in the medulla’s interstitial fluid. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 979 TOP: Reabsorption 101. A hormone that affects reabsorption in the kidney is made in the wall of the heart. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 983 TOP: Regulation of Urine Volume 102. ANH reinforces and adds to the effect of aldosterone. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 983-984 TOP: Regulation of Urine Volume 103. The urochrome pigments impart a yellowish color to the urine. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 986 TOP: Urinary Composition 104. In the average bladder, about 500 ml of urine causes moderate distention and a desire to void.ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 968 TOP: Micturition 105. Chronic kidney failure is a condition that progresses through four stages; the last one is called uremic syndrome. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 989 TOP: Mechanisms of Disease (Kidney Failure) 106. Mesangial cells may have the same role in the nephron as the glial cells do in the nervous system. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 970 TOP: Microscopic Structure of the Nephron 107. Mesangial cells may have a role in regulating blood flow through the glomerular loop. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 970 TOP: Microscopic Structure of the Nephron 108. The interlobular artery carries blood directly to the glomerulus. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 973 TOP: Blood Supply of the Nephron 109. Voiding and micturition refer to the same process. ANS: T DIF: M NRUemori SzaItioNnGTB.COM TOP: Micturition REF: p. 968 110. Just as in the bladder, the ureter is lined with transitional epithelium, which allows it to stretch without damage. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 966 TOP: Ureter 111. About 85% of the nephrons are juxtamedullary nephron, which means that the nephron loop extends into the medulla of the kidney. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 973 TOP: Microscopic Structure of the Nephron 112. Podocytes on the parietal walls of the glomerular capsule help support the slit diaphragms that allow filtrate to leave the blood and enter the glomerular capsule. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 969 TOP: Glomerular Capsule 113. The juxtaglomerular apparatus has components in both the distal convoluted tubule and the afferent arterioles.U S N T ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 973 TOP: Distal Convoluted Tubule 114. The collecting duct receives filtrate from many different nephrons. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 973 TOP: Collecting Duct 115. One important function of the slit diaphragms is the prevention of large molecules such as proteins from passing through. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 970 TOP: Glomerular Capsule 116. If the Tmax for glucose was 300 mg/100 ml and a person had a glucose of 325 mg/100 ml, that person would have a glucose level of 25 mg/100 ml in the blood leaving the kidney and 300 mg/100 ml in the urine. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 978 TOP: Reabsorption in the Proximal Convoluted Tubule 117. Glomerular osmotic pressure and capsular osmotic pressure are equally important in determining the GFR. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 976 TOP: Filtration 118. Negative ions such as chloridNe anRd pIhosGphaBte.arCe puMlled out of the filtrate by the positive charge established by the sodium that was actively transported into the blood. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 977 TOP: Reabsorption in the Proximal Convoluted Tubule 119. Even though urea is a waste product, it is reabsorbed into the blood in the proximal convoluted tubule. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 978 TOP: Reabsorption in the Proximal Convoluted Tubule 120. The parts of the nephron most effected by the hormone ADH are the proximal and distal convoluted tubules. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 982 TOP: Reabsorption in the Distal Convoluted Tubule and Collecting Ducts 121. Any material such as water or glucose that enters the collecting duct will be lost to the body in the urine. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 981 TOP: Reabsorption in the Distal Convoluted Tubule and Collecting Ducts122. As the amount of sodium increases in the blood around the distal convoluted tubule, the amount of potassium or hydrogen ions in the filtrate increases. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 982 TOP: Tubular Secretions 123. The tubes of the nephron are about 3 cm long. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 969 TOP: Microscopic Structure 124. About 180 liters of filtrate is formed each day. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 976 TOP: Filtration 125. The sum of glomerular hydrostatic pressure and capsular hydrostatic pressure is the total force driving fluid from the glomerulus into the glomerular capsule. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 976 TOP: Filtration 126. About 99% of the fluid filtered into the glomerular capsule is reabsorbed. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 976 TOP: Filtration 127. Three processes are important in the formation of urine: filtration, tubular reabsorption, and tubular secretion. N URSINGTB.COM ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 975 TOP: Overview of Kidney Function 128. Capsular osmotic pressure can be assumed to be zero. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 976 TOP: Filtration 129. Glomerular filtration rate can never be zero. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 977 TOP: Filtration 130. Osmosis in the kidney relies on the availability of and proper function of aquaporins. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 977 TOP: Reabsorption in the Proximal Convoluted Tubule 131. As the aldosterone concentration increases, the amount of potassium reabsorbed into the blood increases. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 982 TOP: Tubular Secretions132. Penicillin can be cleared from the blood by tubular secretion. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 982 TOP: Tubular Secretions 133. Nitrogenous wastes such as urea, uric acid, and ammonia are lost in the urine, and of these, uric acid is the most abundant. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 985 TOP: Composition of Urine MATCHING Place in correct anatomical order the structures of the pathway of urine leaving the distal tubule, beginning with the number 1. a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 e. 5 f. 6 g. 7 1. Renal papilla 2. Calyx 3. Renal pelvis 4. Collecting duct 5. Ureter 6. Urethra 7. Urinary bladder NURSINGTB.COM 1. ANS: TOP: B Gross DIF: Structure Memorization REF: p. 965 2. ANS: TOP: C Gross DIF: Structure Memorization REF: p. 965 3. ANS: TOP: D Gross DIF: Structure Memorization REF: p. 965 4. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 969 TOP: Microscopic Structure of the Nephron 5. ANS: E DIF: Memorization REF: p. 966 TOP: Gross Structure 6. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 968 TOP: Gross Structure 7. ANS: G DIF: Memorization REF: p. 967 TOP: Gross Structure Starting with the afferent arteriole, place the parts of the nephron in correct anatomical order, beginning with the number 1. a. 1U S N T O b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 e. 5 f. 6 g. 7 8. Distal tubule 9. Glomerulus 10. Ascending limb of the nephron loop 11. Descending limb of the nephron loop 12. Proximal tubule 13. Glomerular capsule 14. Collecting tubules 8. ANS: TOP: F Microscopic DIF: Memorization Structure of the Nephron REF: p. 969 9. ANS: TOP: A Microscopic DIF: Memorization Structure of the Nephron REF: p. 969 10. ANS: TOP: E Microscopic DIF: Memorization Structure of the Nephron REF: p. 969 11. ANS: TOP: D Microscopic DIF: Memorization Structure of the Nephron REF: p. 969 12. ANS: TOP: C Microscopic DIF: Memorization Structure of the Nephron REF: p. 969 13. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 969 TOP: Microscopic Structure oNf theRNeI phroGn B.C M 14. ANS: G DIF: Memorization REF: p. 969 TOP: Microscopic Structure of the Nephron Match each of the structures of the nephron with its description, function, or location. a. Distal convoluted tubule b. Glomerulus c. Glomerular capsule d. Nephron loop e. Proximal convoluted tubule f. Collecting duct g. Peritubular capillary h. Vasa recta 15. Tube nearest to the glomerular capsule 16. Structure into which the proximal convoluted tubule empties 17. Name given to the blood vessel surrounding the nephron loop 18. Name given to the blood vessel in the glomerular capsule 19. Blood vessel that surrounds the tubules of the nephron 20. Structure other than the collecting duct in which adjustment of blood pH can occur 21. Part of the nephron that establishes a countercurrent multiplier mechanism 22. Cup-shaped structure surrounding the glomerulus 15. ANS: E DIF: Memorization REF: p. 969TOP: Microscopic Structure of the Nephron 16. ANS: TOP: F DIF: Memorization Nephron loop REF: p. 972 17. ANS: TOP: H DIF: Memorization Blood Supply of the Nephron REF: p. 973 18. ANS: TOP: B DIF: Memorization Microscopic Structure of the Nephron REF: p. 973 19. ANS: TOP: G DIF: Memorization Blood Supply of the Nephron REF: p. 970 20. ANS: TOP: A DIF: Memorization Summary of Nephron Function REF: p. 973 21. ANS: TOP: D DIF: Memorization Reabsorption REF: p. 982 22. ANS: TOP: C DIF: Memorization Microscopic Structure of the Nephron REF: p. 979 OTHER 1. List functions of the urinary bladder. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 969 TOP: Gross Structure 2. What structures make up the renal corpuscle? ANS: Answers will vary. NURSINGTB.COM DIF: Memorization REF: p. 967 TOP: Microscopic Structure of the Nephron 3. Outline the flow of blood through the kidney tissue. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 969 TOP: Gross Structure 4. Determine the filtration pressure based on the following values: A. The glomerular hydrostatic pressure is 55 mm Hg. B. The glomerular osmotic pressure is 27 mm Hg. C. The capsular hydrostatic pressure is 18 mm Hg. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: p. 965 TOP: Filtration5. Explain why a person who has uncontrolled diabetes mellitus voids a large amount of urine. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 976 TOP: Regulation of Urine Volume 6. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are a popular type of drug used to reduce high blood pressure. They act by preventing the activation of angiotensin. Briefly explain how the drugs can lower blood pressure. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 984 TOP: Microscopic Structure of the Nephron 7. Trace the movement of filtrate through the nephron from the afferent arteriole to the collecting duct. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 973 TOP: Microscopic Structure of the Nephron 8. Describe the internal structure of the kidney. ANS: Answers will vary. NURSINGTB.COM DIF: Memorization REF: p. 969 TOP: Kidney 9. Explain how the nephron loop establishes a solute concentration gradient from the top of the loop to the bottom of the loop. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 964-965 TOP: Reabsorption in the Nephron Loop 10. Explain how ADH regulates the amount of urine produced and explain how the nephron loop allows ADH to increase water absorption. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: pp. 979-980 TOP: Reabsorption in the Nephron Loop | Regulation of Urine Volume 11. Explain how the active transport of sodium out of the nephron tubules acts as the driving force for the passive transport of other materials.ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: pp. 979-980 | pp. 983-984 TOP: Reabsorption in the Proximal Convoluted Tubule ESSAY 1. Corky was in a diving accident that resulted in her spinal cord being severed. She was paralyzed from the waist down and, as a result, became incontinent. Her physician was concerned about the continuous residual urine buildup. What was the reason for this concern? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: pp. 977-978 TOP: Mechanisms of Disease (Neurogenic and Overactive Bladder) 2. While washing her picture window, Martha sustained a large, deep laceration to her leg when the ladder accidentally crashed through the window as she attempted to reposition it. She experienced a large loss of blood before the paramedics arrived. Her blood pressure was very low, and her heart rate was rapid and thready. The paramedics treated her aggressively with intravenous fluids and pressure to stop any more blood loss. They were also concerned about Martha’s renal function. Why? ANS: Answers will vary. NURSINGTB.COM DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 987-988 TOP: The Big Picture: Urinary System and the Whole Body 3. It is true that women suffer from urinary bladder infections more often than men do. Why? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 986 TOP: Mechanisms of Disease (Urinary Tract Infections) 4. Assume that the nephron is able to return 150 mg/100 ml of glucose back to the blood. If the blood entering the glomerulus contains 192 mg/100 ml of glucose, what is the glucose concentration of the blood leaving the nephron and the concentration of the urine being formed? ANS: Blood: 150 mg/100 ml of glucose Urine: 42 mg/100 ml of glucose DIF: Application REF: p. 988 TOP: Reabsorption5. A person had been working hard on a hot day and had been perspiring freely and drinking very little water. If a blood sample were taken, would you expect ANH or ADH to have the greater concentration? Explain your answer. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 978 TOP: Regulation of Urine Volume NURSINGTB.COMb. Chapter 43: Fluid and Electrolyte Balance Patton: Anatomy and Physiology, 10th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following is true of total body water? a. Overweight people have lower water content per kilogram of body weight than slender people. b. Women have higher water content than men. c. Elderly people have higher water content than younger people. d. Total body water ranges between 30% and 40% of the total body weight. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 997 TOP: Total Body Water 2. The total fluid or water content of the human body ranges from of its total weight. a. 15% to 25% b. 25% to 45% c. 45% to 75% d. 75% to 85% ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 997 TOP: Total Body Water 3. When comparing the volume of the various body fluids, the correct order going from highest to lowest in total volume would be: a. plasma, intracellular fluidN,UinRteSrsItitNiaGl fTluBid.. COM intracellular fluid, interstitial fluid, plasma. c. intracellular fluid, plasma, interstitial fluid. d. plasma, intracellular fluid, interstitial fluid. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 998 TOP: Body Fluid Compartments 4. In young adults, the percentage of body weight composed of water will average about for males and for females. a. 40%; 50% b. 60%; 50% c. 70%; 60% d. 60%; 70% ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 997 TOP: Total Body Water 5. Cerebrospinal fluid is part of the fluid. a. intracellular b. extracellular c. interstitial d. Both A and C are correct. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 997N R I G TOP: Body Fluid Compartments 6. Which of the following body fluid compartments has the same volume (percentage of body weight) in the infant, the adult male, and the adult female? a. Plasma b. Interstitial fluid c. Extracellular fluid d. Intracellular fluid ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 997 TOP: Body Fluid Compartments 7. Ringer solution is often described as normal saline solution modified by the addition of: a. sodium and potassium. b. potassium and calcium. c. sodium and calcium. d. glucose. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 999 TOP: Fluid and Electrolyte Therapy 8. Which of the following is not one of the seven basic solutions used for parenteral therapy? a. Ammonium chloride b. Lactate solutions c. Carbohydrate in water d. Liquid protein ANS: D DIF: Memorization B.C M REF: p. 999 TOP: Fluid and Electrolyte TherUapyS N T O 9. Which of the following is not a method used for parenteral administration? a. Intravenous b. Subcutaneous c. Intramuscular d. By mouth ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 999 TOP: Fluid and Electrolyte Therapy 10. Parenteral solutions are given to: a. meet current maintenance needs for nutrients, fluids, and electrolytes. b. replace past losses. c. replace concurrent losses (additional losses that are in excess of maintenance needs). d. do all of the above. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 999 TOP: Fluid and Electrolyte Therapy 11. Water normally leaves the body through exits. a. two b. three c. fourd. five ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1001 TOP: Avenues of Water Entry and Exit 12. The two factors that determine urine volume are: a. the amounts of ADH and aldosterone secretion. b. the amounts of ACTH and ADH secretion. c. fluid intake and ADH secretion. d. the glomerular filtration rate and the rate of water reabsorption by the renal tubules. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1002 TOP: Regulation of Urine Volume 13. Abnormal conditions that cause fluid and electrolyte output to exceed input include all the following except: a. vomiting. b. drinking liquids too fast. c. hyperventilating. d. diarrhea. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 1002-1003 TOP: Factors That Alter Fluid Loss 14. Which of the following substances is released by the juxtaglomerular cells? a. Cortisol b. Antidiuretic hormone c. Aldosterone d. Renin NURSINGTB.COM ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1001 TOP: General Principles of Fluid Balance 15. When the adrenal cortex is stimulated to increase its secretion of aldosterone, the first thing that happens is a(n): a. decrease in the kidney tubule reabsorption of sodium. b. increase in the kidney tubule reabsorption of sodium. c. decrease in arterial blood pressure. d. increase in urine volume. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1001 TOP: General Principles of Fluid Balance 16. Juxtaglomerular cells are located in the: a. kidney. b. adrenal cortex. c. liver. d. adrenal medulla. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1001 TOP: General Principles of Fluid Balance17. The thirst center, which contains specialized cells called osmoreceptors, is located in the: a. pons. b. anterior pituitary. c. posterior pituitary. d. hypothalamus. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1002 TOP: Regulation of Fluid Intake 18. Which of the following sites of fluid loss can be automatically adjusted according to fluid intake volume? a. Lungs b. Skin c. Intestine d. Kidney ANS: D DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 1002 TOP: Regulation of Urine Volume 19. Which of the following electrolytes is not a cation? a. Calcium b. Chloride c. Magnesium d. Potassium ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 998 TOP: Electrolytes in Body Fluids 20. The composition of sodium iNn thRe blIoodGplaBsm.aCis eMqual to mEq/L. a. 2 b. 5 c. 102 d. 142 U S N T O ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 999 TOP: Extracellular vs. Intracellular Fluids 21. Which of the following pairs are almost identical when compared chemically? a. Plasma and intracellular fluid b. Plasma and interstitial fluid c. Interstitial fluid and intracellular fluid d. Extracellular fluid and intracellular fluid ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 998 TOP: Extracellular vs. Intracellular Fluids 22. What is the most abundant cation in extracellular fluid? a. Sodium b. Chlorine c. Potassium d. Magnesium ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 999 TOP: Extracellular vs. Intracellular FluidsN R I G 23. What is the most abundant cation in intracellular fluid? a. Sodium b. Chlorine c. Potassium d. Magnesium ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 999 TOP: Extracellular vs. Intracellular Fluids 24. The most important difference between blood plasma and interstitial fluid, when compared chemically, is: a. blood contains appreciable amounts of protein anions. b. interstitial fluid contains appreciable amounts of protein anions. c. blood contains less sodium ions. d. interstitial fluid contains less chloride ions. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 999 TOP: Extracellular vs. Intracellular Fluids 25. What is the most abundant anion in the extracellular fluid? a. Bicarbonate b. Chloride c. Phosphate d. Protein ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 999 TOP: Extracellular vs. Intracellular Fluids B.C M U S N T O 26. In accordance with the physical laws governing filtration and osmosis, which of the following statements is true? a. Blood hydrostatic pressure tends to draw fluid into the capillaries from the interstitial fluid. b. Interstitial fluid hydrostatic pressure tends to force fluid out of the capillaries and into the interstitial fluid. c. Blood colloid osmotic pressure tends to draw fluid back into the capillaries. d. Interstitial fluid colloid osmotic pressure tends to draw fluid into the capillaries from the interstitial fluid. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1005 TOP: Regulation of Water and Electrolytes 27. Which of the following is the formula representing the Starling law of capillaries? a. (BHP + BCOP) – (IFCOP + IFHP) = EFP b. (BHP + IFHP) – (IFCOP + BCOP) = EFP c. (BHP + IFCOP) – (IFHP + BCOP) = EFP d. None of the above ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1006 TOP: Regulation of Water and ElectrolytesN R I G 28. As related to the Starling law, which of the following is the greatest pressure at the arterial end of the capillaries? a. Blood hydrostatic pressure b. Interstitial fluid hydrostatic pressure c. Blood colloid osmotic pressure d. Interstitial colloid osmotic pressure ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1005 TOP: Regulation of Water and Electrolytes 29. Which of the following statements is(are) not true? a. Men have less body water than women do. b. Adults have less body water than infants do. c. Overweight people have less body water than slender people do. d. All of the above are true statements. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 997 TOP: Total Body Water 30. As related to the Starling law, which of the following has the greatest effect on water reentering the capillaries? a. Blood hydrostatic pressure b. Interstitial fluid hydrostatic pressure c. Blood colloid osmotic pressure d. Interstitial colloid osmotic pressure ANS: C DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 1005 TOP: Regulation of Water and Electrolytes B.C M U S N T O 31. When the effective filtration pressure equals zero: a. fluid shifts out of the blood into the interstitial fluid. b. fluid shifts out of the interstitial fluid and into the blood. c. no net transfer of water occurs between blood and interstitial fluid. d. the extracellular fluid volume increases. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1006 TOP: Regulation of Water and Electrolytes 32. Edema is defined as abnormally large amounts of fluid in the: a. capillaries. b. cells. c. veins. d. intercellular spaces. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1006 TOP: Edema 33. Which large molecules are retained by the selectively permeable cell membrane? a. Sodium ions b. Potassium ions c. Proteins ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1007TOP: Regulation of Water and Electrolytes in ICF 34. Movement of water and solutes between ECF and ICF spaces is influenced by all of the following except: a. large protein molecules that cannot diffuse out of the cell. b. ion transport. c. positive charges attracting negatively charged ions. d. All of the above influence movement. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1008 TOP: Regulation of Water and Electrolytes in ICF 35. Edema may occur when: a. sodium is retained in the extracellular fluid as a result of increased aldosterone secretion or after serious renal disease such as acute glomerulonephritis. b. an increase in capillary blood pressure occurs. c. a decrease in the concentration of plasma proteins normally retained in the blood occurs. d. all of the above occur. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1006 TOP: Edema 36. Which body location is not one that is usually impacted by edema? a. Kidneys b. Lungs c. Dependent areas of the body d. All of the above body areNasUaRreSiImNpaGctTedBb.yCeOdeMma. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1006 TOP: Edema 37. When the posterior lobe of the pituitary is stimulated to increase its secretion of ADH, the first event to occur is a(n): a. increase in urine volume. b. increase in the kidney tubule reabsorption of water. c. decrease in the kidney tubule reabsorption of water. d. decrease in ECF volume. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1008 TOP: Regulation of Sodium and Potassium 38. The major organ that balances sodium and potassium in the body is the: a. kidney. b. skin. c. gastrointestinal tract. d. lungs. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1008 TOP: Regulation of Sodium and Potassium 39. Aged individuals of either sex may have less total body water because of their: a. reduced kidney function.b. decreased percentage of body fat. c. decreased muscle mass. d. Both A and B are correct. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 997 TOP: Total Body Water 40. Which of the following is not considered a “transcellular fluid”? a. Lymph b. Cerebrospinal fluid c. The humors of the eye d. Joint fluid ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 997 TOP: Body Fluid Compartments 41. The body fluid that stays constant as a percentage of body weight throughout life is: a. intracellular fluid. b. plasma. c. interstitial fluid. d. extracellular fluid. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 997 TOP: Body Fluid Compartments 42. If two electrodes charged with a weak current were placed in a solution of NaCl, the negative electrode would attract the: a. chloride ion. N R I G B.C M b. sodium ion. U c. anion. d. Both B and C are correct. S N T O ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 998 TOP: Electrolytes in Body Fluids 43. If two electrodes charged with a weak current were placed in a solution of NaCl, the negative electrode would attract: a. cations. b. anions. c. chloride ions. d. Both A and C are correct. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 998 TOP: Electrolytes in Body Fluids 44. If two electrodes charged with a weak current were placed in a solution of NaCl, the positive electrode would attract: a. cations. b. anions. c. chloride ions. d. Both B and C are correct. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 998TOP: Electrolytes in Body Fluids 45. If two electrodes charged with a weak current were placed in a solution of NaCl, the positive electrode would attract: a. cations. b. sodium ions. c. chloride ions. d. Both A and B are correct. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 998 TOP: Electrolytes in Body Fluids 46. The ion with the least total concentration in body fluids is: a. chloride. b. potassium. c. calcium. d. bicarbonate. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 999 TOP: Electrolytes in Body Fluids 47. With an equal milligram percent in solution, calcium would have a(n) milliequivalent than potassium. a. greater b. lesser c. equal d. There is not enough information to determine the milliequivalent. ANS: D DIF: MNemUoRriSzaItioNnGTB.COM TOP: Electrolytes in Body Fluids 48. Angiotensin I is converted to angiotensin II in the: a. kidney. b. liver. c. lung. d. intestine. REF: p. 1000 ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1001 TOP: General Principles of Fluid Balance 49. Which of the following two forces tend to move fluid out of the blood vessel? a. Blood hydrostatic pressure and blood colloid osmotic pressure b. Blood colloid osmotic pressure and interstitial fluid hydrostatic pressure c. Blood hydrostatic pressure and interstitial fluid colloid pressure ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1005 TOP: Regulation of Water and Electrolytes 50. Which of the following two forces tend to move fluid into the blood vessel? a. Blood hydrostatic pressure and blood colloid osmotic pressure b. Blood colloid osmotic pressure and interstitial fluid hydrostatic pressure c. Blood hydrostatic pressure and interstitial fluid colloid pressure d. Blood colloid pressure and interstitial fluid colloid pressureANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1005 TOP: Regulation of Water and Electrolytes 51. The mechanism of action for aldosterone and the mechanism of action for ADH differ because ADH regulates water whereas aldosterone regulates: a. potassium. b. chloride. c. calcium. d. sodium. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1008 TOP: Regulation of Sodium and Potassium 52. Which of the following is not a cause of hypervolemia? a. Renal failure b. Ascites c. Nephrotic syndrome d. Congestive heart failure ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1010 TOP: Mechanisms of Disease 53. An intravenous addition of sodium can be used to treat: a. hypokalemia. b. hypernatremia. c. hyponatremia. d. hyperkalemia. NURSINGTB.COM ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1011 TOP: Mechanisms of Disease 54. Potassium-rich foods can be used to treat: a. hypokalemia. b. hypernatremia. c. hyponatremia. d. hyperkalemia. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1011 TOP: Mechanisms of Disease 55. Which of the following is not true of sodium chloride (NaCl)? a. It will dissociate in water. b. It will form ions. c. It has the same type of bonds as glucose. d. All of the above are true about sodium chloride. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 997 TOP: Fluid and Electrolyte Balance 56. Which of the following is not true of glucose? a. It will dissociate in water. b. It will form ions.N R I G c. It has the same type of bonds as sodium chloride. d. None of the above are true of glucose. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 997 TOP: Fluid and Electrolyte Balance 57. Which type of tissue has the least amount of water? a. Muscle b. Adipose c. Bone d. Nervous ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 997 TOP: Total Body Water 58. Which of the following is not considered an extracellular fluid? a. Lymph b. Plasma c. The aqueous fluid of the eye d. All of the above are considered extracellular fluids. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 997 TOP: Body Fluid Compartments 59. The subfornical organ is located in what part of the central nervous system? a. Hypothalamus b. Parietal lobe of the brain c. Roof of the third ventricle of the brain B.C M d. Medulla U S N T O ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1002 TOP: Regulation of Fluid Intake 60. Angiotensinogen is converted to angiotensin I in the: a. kidney. b. blood. c. lung. d. adrenal glands. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1001 TOP: General Principles of Fluid Balance 61. Which of the following sites of fluid loss can be automatically adjusted according to fluid intake volume? a. Intestine b. Kidney c. Lungs d. Skin ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 1002 TOP: Regulation of Urine Volume 62. Cerebrospinal fluid is part of the: a. extracellular fluid because it consists mainly of plasma found in blood vessels andinterstitial fluids. b. interstitial fluid because it flows inside of cells. c. intracellular fluid because it consists mostly of water. d. Both B and C are correct. ANS: A DIF: Application REF: p. 997 TOP: Body Fluid Compartments 63. In accordance with the physical laws governing filtration and osmosis, which of the following statements is true? a. Blood hydrostatic pressure tends to draw fluid into the capillaries from the interstitial fluid. b. Interstitial fluid hydrostatic pressure tends to force fluid out of the capillaries and into the interstitial fluid. c. Blood colloid osmotic pressure tends to draw fluid back into the capillaries. d. Interstitial fluid colloid osmotic pressure tends to draw fluid into the capillaries from the interstitial fluid. ANS: C DIF: Application REF: p. 1005 TOP: Regulation of Water and Electrolytes 64. Osmoreceptors assist in controlling homeostasis of body fluids by: a. causing the anterior pituitary gland to secrete increased amounts of ACTH, thus decreasing more fluids. b. causing the posterior pituitary to stop releasing ADH. c. decreasing the function of the pons and reducing fluid losses. d. working in the hypothalamus to trigger a conscious sense of dry mouth and thirst. ANS: D DIF: AN pplicRatioIn GREBF:.p.C10M02 TOP: Regulation of Fluid Intake U S N T O 65. In patients with severe burn injuries, what mechanism is responsible for the increased risk of hypovolemic shock? a. An increase in capillary blood pressure b. An increase in capillary permeability with a resulting increase in flow of blood to the tissues c. An increase in interstitial fluid causing an increase in blood volume d. A loss of interstitial fluid causing a drain of blood plasma out of the vessels and into tissue spaces ANS: D DIF: Application REF: p. 1010 TOP: Mechanisms of Disease 66. A solution of sodium (Na+, atomic weight = 23) and a solution of calcium (Ca2+, atomic weight = 40) have equal mg%. The mEq/L of calcium would be about that of sodium. a. the same as b. four times c. twice d. six times ANS: C DIF: Application REF: p. 1000 TOP: Measuring Electrolyte Reactivity TRUE/FALSE1. Salt and glucose are examples of electrolytes found in the body. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 997 TOP: Fluid and Electrolyte Balance 2. Electrolytes are substances that dissociate in solution. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 997 TOP: Fluid and Electrolyte Balance 3. In infants, total body water constitutes approximately 40% of body weight. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 997 TOP: Total Body Water 4. Plasma, synovial fluid, and cerebrospinal fluid are all examples of extracellular fluid. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 997 TOP: Body Fluid Compartments 5. The volume of interstitial fluid is greater than the volume of plasma. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 997 TOP: Body Fluid Compartments 6. Intracellular fluids constitute about 50% of body weight. ANS: F DIF: MNemoRrizaItionG B.C M REF: p. 997 TOP: Body Fluid CompartmentsU S N T O 7. In recent years, Ringer solution has frequently been used instead of normal saline. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 999 TOP: Fluid and Electrolyte Therapy 8. The tonicity of a solution is not important when it is administered subcutaneously. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 999 TOP: Fluid and Electrolyte Therapy 9. Ingested liquids are the major source of water for the body, followed by water formed from a catabolism, with a smaller amount coming from water in foods. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1001 TOP: Typical Normal Values for Each Portal of Water Entry and Exit (Table 43-4) 10. The principle of fluid balance states that fluid intake normally equals fluid output. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1001 TOP: General Principles of Fluid Balance 11. Both ADH and aldosterone cause fluid retention.ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1002 TOP: Regulation of Urine Volume 12. The two major factors that determine urine volume are glomerular filtration rate and blood volume. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1002 TOP: Regulation of Urine Volume 13. The thirst center is located in the hypothalamus and SFO of the brain. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1002 TOP: Regulation of Fluid Intake 14. Osmoreceptors associated with thirst are located in the gastrointestinal tract. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1002 TOP: Regulation of Fluid Intake 15. Osmoreceptors are cells able to detect an increase in solute concentration in extracellular fluid caused by water loss. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1002 TOP: Regulation of Fluid Intake 16. The amounts of antidiuretic hormone and aldosterone secreted determine the amount of water reabsorbed in the tubules. N URSINGTB.COM ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1002 TOP: Regulation of Urine Volume 17. Because of unknown mechanisms, the secretion of saliva generally increases when there is a decrease in the total volume of body water. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1002 TOP: Regulation of Fluid Intake 18. Positive ions of electrolytes are cations and are attracted to a cathode. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 998 TOP: Electrolytes in Body Fluids 19. Urine volume is regulated mainly by hormones secreted by the posterior lobe of the pituitary gland and by the adrenal cortex. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1002 TOP: Regulation of Urine Volume 20. If a person takes nothing by mouth for several days, fluid output decreases to zero to compensate and maintain homeostasis.ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1002 TOP: Regulation of Fluid Intake 21. The body’s major fluid compartments are called the extracellular and intracellular fluid compartments. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 997 TOP: Body Fluid Compartments 22. Water is added to the body only through the digestive tract. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1001 TOP: Avenues of Water Entry and Exit 23. Thirst is associated with any condition that decreases total volume of body water, such as blood loss or hemorrhage. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1001 TOP: General Principles of Fluid Balance 24. The most crucial mechanisms for maintaining fluid balance adjust output to intake, as in the aldosterone mechanism and the renin-angiotensin mechanism. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1001 TOP: General Principles of Fluid Balance 25. Mechanisms for controlling water movement between the fluid compartments of the body constitute the slowest-actingNflUuiRdSbaIlaNnc GeTdBev.icCesO.M ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1002 TOP: General Principles of Fluid Balance 26. A person who hyperventilates could lose excessive amounts of water and electrolytes. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1002 TOP: Factors That Alter Fluid Loss 27. When compared chemically, interstitial fluid and intercellular fluid are almost identical. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 999 TOP: Extracellular vs. Intracellular Fluids 28. When compared chemically, intracellular fluid and plasma are almost identical. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 999 TOP: Extracellular vs. Intracellular Fluids 29. Vomiting or diarrhea each may cause fluid and electrolyte output to exceed intake. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1004 TOP: Dehydration (Box 43-1)U S N T 30. Chemical similarity predominates between the two extracellular fluids. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 999 TOP: Extracellular vs. Intracellular Fluids 31. The only functionally important difference between blood plasma and interstitial fluid is the presence of more protein anions in plasma. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 999 TOP: Extracellular vs. Intracellular Fluids 32. The reactivity or combining power of an electrolyte depends solely on the number of molecular particles present. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1000 TOP: Measuring Electrolyte Reactivity 33. The milliequivalent is a measure of the weight of an electrolyte. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1000 TOP: Measuring Electrolyte Reactivity 34. Blood hydrostatic pressure tends to force fluid out of capillaries and into interstitial fluid. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1006 TOP: Regulation of Water and Electrolytes 35. Interstitial fluid contains an aNpprReciaIbleGamoBu.ntCof M protein anions, whereas blood contains hardly any. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 999 TOP: Extracellular vs. Intracellular Fluids 36. Milliequivalents serve as an accurate measure of the physiological combining power, or reactivity, of a particular electrolyte solution. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1000 TOP: Measuring Electrolyte Reactivity 37. Burns, infections, and shock may lead to an increase in plasma proteins, which then causes fluid imbalance. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1007 TOP: Edema 38. The most common cause of edema is generalized venous congestion as a result of heart failure. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1006 TOP: Edema39. When the sum of the blood hydrostatic pressure and the interstitial fluid colloid osmotic pressure is greater than the sum of the interstitial fluid hydrostatic pressure and the blood colloid osmotic pressure, fluid shifts out of the interstitial fluid and into the blood. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1006 TOP: Regulation of Water and Electrolytes 40. The plasma membrane separates the intracellular and extracellular fluid compartments. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1006 TOP: Regulation of Water and Electrolytes 41. An imbalance of electrolytes between the cells and intercellular areas will cause an imbalance of fluids. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1006 TOP: Regulation of Water and Electrolytes 42. A decrease in interstitial fluid sodium concentration will cause an immediate increase in interstitial fluid colloid osmotic pressure. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1006 TOP: Regulation of Water and Electrolytes 43. A 70-kg (154-lb) adult has a total body sodium pool of approximately 2800 to 3000 mEq. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1009 TOP: Regulation of Sodium anNdUPRotSasIsiuNmGTB.COM 44. The release of ADH will cause an increase in the reabsorption of sodium and water by the kidney. ANS: F DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 1008 TOP: Regulation of Sodium and Potassium 45. The release of aldosterone can cause an increase in the blood colloid osmotic pressure. ANS: T DIF: Synthesis REF: pp. 1008-1009 TOP: Regulation of Sodium and Potassium 46. The chief means of regulating body sodium levels is through sweat loss. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1009 TOP: Regulation of Sodium and Potassium 47. Cell breakdown may lead to a potassium deficiency in the body. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1009 TOP: Regulation of Sodium and Potassium 48. Hypochloremia is frequently linked to cases of potassium loss.ANS: T U S N T O ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1009 TOP: Regulation of Sodium and Potassium 49. A person who is dehydrated will need replacement of water and electrolytes. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1004 TOP: Dehydration (Box 43-1) 50. A continuous movement of sodium occurs between a number of internal secretions, such as saliva, gastric and intestinal secretions, bile, and pancreatic fluid. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1009 TOP: Regulation of Sodium and Potassium 51. Extracellular fluid depletion is the last line of defense against dehydration. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1004 TOP: Dehydration (Box 43-1) 52. If the volume of fluid and electrolyte levels inside and outside the cell remains relatively constant, a condition of homeostasis exists. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 996 TOP: Introduction 53. The total charge in a solution of dissolved electrolytes and a solution of dissolved non-electrolytes would both be zero. N R I G B.C M DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 997 TOP: Fluid and Electrolyte Balance 54. A change in electrolyte balance will have little effect on fluid balance. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 997 TOP: Fluid and Electrolyte Balance 55. The dissociated particles of an electrolyte are called ions. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 997 TOP: Fluid and Electrolyte Balance 56. Organic compounds are important sources of electrolytes. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 997 TOP: Fluid and Electrolyte Balance 57. Functionally, total body water can be subdivided into two fluid compartments—plasma and interstitial. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 997 TOP: Body Fluid Compartments58. In parenteral therapy, it is equally important that both intravenous and subcutaneous solutions be isotonic to plasma. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 999 TOP: Fluid and Electrolyte Therapy 59. A normal saline solution consists of a 9% solution of NaCl. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 999 TOP: Fluid and Electrolyte Therapy 60. Acidosis can be rapidly treated by the intravenous administration of lactate. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 999 TOP: Fluid and Electrolyte Therapy 61. Acidosis can be treated rapidly by the intravenous administration of ammonium chloride. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 999 TOP: Fluid and Electrolyte Therapy 62. Intracellular fluid is the only fluid that usually contains protein. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 999 TOP: Electrolytes in Body Fluids 63. Whereas sodium is the predominant cation in blood plasma, potassium is the predominant cation in intracellular fluid. N URSINGTB.COM ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 999 TOP: Electrolytes in Body Fluids 64. Proteins in body fluids are considered anions. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 998 TOP: Electrolytes in Body Fluids 65. The total concentration of anions in blood plasma is slightly higher than the total concentration of cations. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 999 TOP: Electrolytes in Body Fluids 66. Milligram percent is the most common unit used to measure electrolyte concentration. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1000 TOP: Electrolytes in Body Fluids 67. Physiologically, the valence of an electrolyte is more important than the number of particles in a solution. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1000TOP: Electrolytes in Body Fluids 68. The amount of water removed by the kidney as urine is greater than all the other sources of water loss combined. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1001 TOP: Avenues of Water Entry and Exit 69. Angiotensin I and angiotensin II increase the secretion of aldosterone. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1001 TOP: General Principles of Fluid Balance 70. The skin is one of the areas of the body that contributes to obligatory water loss. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1002 TOP: Regulation of Fluid Intake 71. ANH assists in the regulation of urine volume. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1002 TOP: Regulation of Urine Volume 72. Skin “tenting” is a sign of possible dehydration. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1003 TOP: Factors That Alter Fluid Loss 73. When a 6% body weight lossNoUccRuSrsIbNecGauTsBe o.fCdOehMydration, it causes an increase in pulse rate, body temperature, and respiration rate. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1003 TOP: Homeostasis of Total Fluid Volume 74. A body weight loss of 7% due to dehydration is the most that can be tolerated and still sustain life. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1003 TOP: Homeostasis of Total Fluid Volume 75. If the other three forces that determine fluid movement were unchanged, an increase in blood hydrostatic pressure would cause edema. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1006 TOP: Regulation of Water and Electrolytes 76. Edema can be defined as the presence of an abnormally large amount of intracellular fluid. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1006 TOP: Regulation of Water and Electrolytes77. Fluid tends to be pushed out of the blood vessels at the venous end and reabsorbed at the arterial end. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1006 TOP: Regulation of Water and Electrolytes 78. Hydrostatic pressure serves as the chief regulator of water transfer between intracellular and interstitial fluid. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1007 TOP: Regulation of Water and Electrolytes in ICF 79. Colloid pressure is the chief regulator of water transfer between intracellular and interstitial fluid. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1007 TOP: Regulation of Water and Electrolytes in ICF 80. A decrease in solute concentration in the extracellular fluid will cause water to leave the cell in an attempt to compensate. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1007 TOP: Regulation of Water and Electrolytes in ICF 81. Aldosterone and ADH both regulate body fluid by causing absorption of sodium. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1008 TOP: Regulation of Sodium anNdUPRotSasIsiuNmGTB.COM 82. When chloride is secreted in the urine, it is often linked with sodium. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1009 TOP: Regulation of Sodium and Potassium 83. The total body potassium content may be 1000 times greater than the serum potassium level. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1009 TOP: Regulation of Sodium and Potassium 84. Potassium loss is rarely a problem because it is so well absorbed by the kidney. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1009 TOP: Regulation of Sodium and Potassium 85. In severe and prolonged water loss, the initial fluid shift will be from plasma to interstitial fluid. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1004 TOP: Dehydration (Box 43-1) 86. Strenuous physical activity on a hot day can generate as much as 5 L of sweat a day.ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1004 TOP: Dehydration (Box 43-1) 87. Extracellular fluid and intracellular fluid can each be reduced to 30% before death from dehydration occurs. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1004 TOP: Dehydration (Box 43-1) 88. Diuretics, used cautiously, can be used to treat hypovolemia. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1010 TOP: Mechanisms of Disease 89. Too much potassium can be more dangerous than too little potassium. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1011 TOP: Mechanisms of Disease 90. Cells in the roof of the third ventricle of the brain affect the functioning of the thirst center. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1002 TOP: Regulation of Fluid Intake 91. The body tissue with the least amount of water is bone. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 997 TOP: Total Body Water N URSINGTB.COM 92. Lymph, joint fluid, and the fluid in joint capsules is considered transcellular fluid. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 997 TOP: Body Fluid Compartments 93. Calcium has an atomic weight of 40, and a valance of +2. A 5 mg% solution would have a milliequivalence of 1.25. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 1000 TOP: Measuring Electrolyte Reactivity 94. Both a decrease in potassium ions and a decrease in blood pressure will stimulate the release of aldosterone. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1001 TOP: General Principles of Fluid Balance 95. Impulses from the subfornical organ stimulates the release of ADH. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1002 TOP: Regulation of Fluid IntakeU S N T O 96. Starling law of the capillaries explains the balance between fluid lost from the capillaries and fluid reabsorbed by the capillaries. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1005 TOP: Regulation of Water and Electrolytes 97. The nephron has the ability to produce almost sodium-free urine. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1008 TOP: Regulation of Sodium and Potassium 98. The most accurate measurement of the body’s store of potassium is an arterial blood sample. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1009 TOP: Regulation of Sodium and Potassium 99. Normal values for total body water as a percentage of body weight will vary from 45% to 75%. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 997 TOP: Total Body Water 100. Because fat tissue contains the least amount of water of any tissue in the body, obese people tend to have a lower percentage of body water. 101.1 ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 997 TOP: Total Body Water N R I G B.C M Extracellular fluid has two main functions—providing a relatively constant internal 0 environment for the cells and transporting materials to and from them. 1 . ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 997-998 TOP: Body Fluid Compartments 102. The lungs are a source of water loss for the body. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1001 TOP: Avenues of Water Entry and Exit 103. Angiotensin I is converted to angiotensin II by the liver. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1001 TOP: General Principles of Fluid Balance 104. Respiration contributes to the obligatory water loss of the body. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1002 TOP: Regulation of Fluid Intake 105. Because the GFR is almost constant, the amount of hormone in the blood has the biggest impact on urine volume.N R I G B.C ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1002 TOP: Regulation of Urine Volume MATCHING Match each term with its corresponding definition. a. Osmoreceptors b. Electrolyte c. Intracellular d. Parenteral e. Extracellular f. Milliequivalent g. Cation h. Anion i. Interstitial j. Blood hydrostatic pressure k. Interstitial fluid hydrostatic pressure 1. Force that acts to move fluid out of the tissue space and back into the blood 2. Type of compound that dissociates into ions when dissolved in water 3. Specialized cells in the hypothalamus that detect increased solute concentration in extracellular fluid caused by water loss 4. Outside the cell 5. Unit measuring the number of ionic charges or electrocovalent bonds in a solution; measure of reactivity of a particular electrolyte solution 6. Force that acts to move fluid out of the blood and into the tissue space 7. Substance that enters the bodyUthroSughNinjTection aOnd not through the alimentary canal 8. Within the cell 9. An ion with a negative charge 10. An ion with a positive charge 11. Surrounding the cell 1. ANS: K DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1005 TOP: Regulation of Water and Electrolytes 2. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 997 TOP: Fluid and Electrolyte Balance 3. ANS: TOP: A DIF: Memorization Regulation of Fluid Intake REF: p. 1002 4. ANS: TOP: E DIF: Memorization Body Fluid Compartments REF: p. 997 5. ANS: TOP: F DIF: Memorization Measuring Electrolyte Reactivity REF: p. 1000 6. ANS: TOP: J DIF: Memorization Regulation of Water and Electrolytes REF: p. 1005 7. ANS: TOP: D DIF: Memorization Fluid and Electrolyte Therapy REF: p. 999 8. ANS: TOP: C DIF: Memorization Body Fluid Compartments REF: p. 997 9. ANS: H DIF: Memorization REF: p. 998TOP: Electrolytes in Body Fluids 10. ANS: G DIF: Memorization REF: p. 998 TOP: Electrolytes in Body Fluids 11. ANS: I DIF: Memorization REF: p. 997 TOP: Body Fluid Compartments Match each term related to abnormal conditions with its corresponding definition or explanation. a. Dehydration b. Hypovolemia c. Hyponatremia d. Edema e. Hypervolemia f. Hyperkalemia g. Hypokalemia 12. A serum potassium level substantially above normal 13. An expansion of fluid volume in the body; a fluid volume excess 14. Condition when fluid output exceeds fluid intake and results in a decrease in total body water 15. An abnormally large amount of fluid in the intercellular tissue spaces of the body 16. Serum potassium levels substantially below normal; a potassium deficit 17. A fluid volume deficit that can lead to a state of dehydration 18. A condition of decreased serum sodium concentration below the normal range 12. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1011 TOP: 13. ANS: TOP: Mechanisms of Disease E DIF: MNem UoRriSzaItioNnGTB.COM Mechanisms of Disease REF: p. 1010 14. ANS: TOP: A DIF: Memorization Regulation of Urine Volume REF: p. 1002 15. ANS: TOP: D DIF: Memorization Edema REF: p. 1006 16. ANS: TOP: G DIF: Memorization Regulation of Sodium and Potassium REF: p. 1009 17. ANS: TOP: B DIF: Memorization Mechanisms of Disease REF: p. 1010 18. ANS: TOP: C DIF: Memorization Regulation of Sodium and Potassium REF: p. 1008 OTHER 1. Compare the volumes of the body fluid compartments in the infant, the adult male, and the adult female. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1009 TOP: Cycle of Life: Fluid and Electrolyte Balance2. Describe the functioning thirst center. Where is it located? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1002 TOP: Regulation of Fluid Intake 3. What are two means of obligatory water loss? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 1002-1003 TOP: Factors That Alter Fluid Loss 4. Compare the chemical compositions of plasma, interstitial fluid, and intracellular fluid. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 998-999 TOP: Extracellular vs. Intracellular Fluids 5. List the four pressures associated with the Starling law of the capillaries. Explain what the effects are of these pressures in terms of moving fluid into or out of the capillaries. ANS: Answers will vary. N URSINGTB.COM DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 1005-1006 TOP: Regulation of Water and Electrolytes 6. How does an electrolyte imbalance lead to fluid imbalances? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 1007-1008 TOP: Regulation of Water and Electrolytes in ICF 7. What are anions? What are cations? Give examples of each. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 998 TOP: Electrolytes in Body Fluids 8. Explain how the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone mechanism works to help maintain fluid balance. ANS: Answers will vary.DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1001 TOP: General Principles of Fluid Balance 9. Explain how various hormones impact the amount of urine produced. What are the sources of these hormones? Why is water reabsorption more important than GFR in regulating urine volume? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1002 TOP: Regulation of Urine Volume 10. Explain the relationship between the sodium concentration in the interstitial fluid and the chloride concentration, between the potassium concentration and the chloride concentration. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 1008-1009 TOP: Regulation of Sodium and Potassium ESSAY 1. To be effective, a diuretic (drug that increases water loss through the kidneys) should not only increase water loss but also increase sodium loss. Why? ANS: Answers will vary. NURSINGTB.COM DIF: Synthesis REF: pp. 1008-1009 TOP: Regulation of Sodium and Potassium 2. If a solution of sodium (Na+, atomic weight = 23) and a solution of calcium (Ca2+, atomic weight = 40) had equal mg%, what would be the mEq/L of each? ANS: The mEq/L of calcium would be about twice that of sodium. DIF: Application REF: p. 1000 TOP: Measuring Electrolyte ReactivityChapter 44: Acid-Base Balance Patton: Anatomy and Physiology, 10th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The regulation of acid-base balance in the body fluids refers to the control of ion concentration. a. hydrogen b. bicarbonate c. potassium d. chloride ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1016 TOP: Acid-Base Balance Introduction 2. Which of the following would have the greatest concentration of hydrogen ions? a. pH 2 b. pH 6 c. pH 8 d. pH 10 ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1017 TOP: Review of the pH Concept 3. Which of the following would indicate a neutral solution? a. pH 7 b. pH 6 c. pH 8 d. pH 10 NURSINGTB.COM ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1017 TOP: Review of the pH Concept 4. The most acidic substance in the body is: a. stomach acid. b. saliva. c. blood. d. cerebrospinal fluid. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1017 TOP: Review of the pH Concept 5. A solution with pH of 7 would contain times the number of hydrogen ions as a solution with a pH of 8. a. 2 b. 3 c. 5 d. 10 ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1017 TOP: Review of the pH Concept6. The pH of the blood is maintained at approximately: a. 7.1. b. 7.2. c. 7.3. d. 7.4. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1018 TOP: Review of the pH Concept 7. Ketone bodies are associated with cellular metabolism of: a. fats. b. carbohydrates. c. proteins. d. vitamins. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1018 TOP: Factors That Affect pH of Body Fluids 8. Which of the following types of acids would be produced as a result of glucose catabolism? a. Acetoacetic b. Phosphoric c. Lactic d. Sulfuric ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1018 TOP: Factors That Affect pH of Body Fluids 9. Which of the following is(areN)UclRasSsiIfiNedGaTsBan.aCciOd-Mforming food? a. Meat b. Eggs c. Poultry d. All of the above ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1018 TOP: Factors That Affect pH of Body Fluids 10. Hydrogen ions are continually entering the body fluids through: a. acidic ketone bodies. b. phosphoric acids. c. carbonic acids. d. all of the above. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1018 TOP: Factors That Affect pH of Body Fluids 11. An example of a physiological buffer system (with a delayed response time) would be the system. a. respiratory response b. protein buffer c. bicarbonate buffer d. phosphate bufferANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1019 TOP: Overview of pH Control Mechanisms 12. If the pH of the blood were 7.23, it would be a. within the normal range. b. slightly more acidic than normal. c. slightly more basic than normal. d. much more basic than normal. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1019 TOP: Integration of pH Control 13. Which of the following is considered a powerful physiological buffering system of the body? a. Skin b. Liver c. Kidney d. Intestine ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1019 TOP: Overview of pH Control Mechanisms 14. In the body, nonvolatile acids, or fixed acids, are buffered mainly by: a. hemoglobin. b. sodium hydroxide. c. sodium bicarbonate. d. plasma proteins. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1021 TOP: Buffer Activity NURSINGTB.COM 15. Which of the following ratios of base bicarbonate to carbonic acid will maintain a normal pH? a. 3:1 b. 5:1 c. 10:1 d. 20:1 ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1022 TOP: Buffer Activity 16. Potassium salts of hemoglobin are important in buffering acid. a. lactic b. carbonic c. sulfuric d. phosphoric ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1021 TOP: Buffer Activity 17. Which of the following is a true statement? a. Arterial blood has a higher hydrogen ion concentration than venous blood. b. Venous blood has a higher pH than arterial blood. c. Arterial blood has an average pH of 7.41. d. Venous blood has a lower hydrogen ion concentration than arterial blood.U S N T O ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1018 TOP: Review of the pH Concept 18. An increase in respiratory rate would result in a decrease in all of the following except: a. carbon dioxide. b. acidity. c. pH. d. hydrogen ions. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1023 TOP: Respiratory Mechanisms 19. Prolonged hyperventilation tends to: a. produce alkalosis. b. decrease blood pH. c. produce acidosis. d. stimulate increased production of carbonic acid. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1023 TOP: Respiratory Mechanisms 20. In acidosis, the renal tubule excretion of hydrogen ions: a. decreases. b. increases. c. does not change. d. decreases only when potassium ion excretion increases. ANS: B DIF: MNemoRrizaItionG B.C M TOP: Urinary Mechanisms REF: p. 1025 21. Which of the following is considered a direct acid-forming food? a. Citrus fruit b. Vinegar c. Cranberries d. All of the above are considered direct acid-forming foods ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1018 TOP: Factors That Affect pH of Body Fluids 22. A decrease in blood pH below normal tends to: a. stimulate increased respirations. b. produce hypoventilation. c. stimulate a compensatory increase in blood hydrogen ion concentration through the respiratory system. d. do both B and C. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1023 TOP: Respiratory Mechanisms 23. If the blood pH decreases below normal, the kidney tubules secrete urine. a. fewer hydrogen ions from blood to b. more hydrogen ions from blood toc. more sodium ions into the d. Both A and C will occur. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1024 TOP: Urinary Mechanisms 24. Hyperventilation can result in loss of consciousness because: a. oxygen levels become too high. b. oxygen levels become too low. c. carbon dioxide levels are elevated. d. of alkalosis. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1023 TOP: Respiratory Mechanisms 25. When the kidney secretes hydrogen ions, it primarily reabsorbs ions. a. potassium b. calcium c. chloride d. sodium ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1024 TOP: Urinary Mechanisms 26. Hyperkalemia may have a major effect on which of the following? a. Gastrointestinal tract b. Heart c. Kidney d. Liver NURSINGTB.COM ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1025 TOP: Urinary Mechanisms 27. When the renal tubules reabsorb sodium ions, they normally exchange (secrete) which of the following? a. Potassium ions b. Chloride ions c. Hydrogen d. Either potassium or hydrogen ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1025 TOP: Urinary Mechanisms 28. For the body to maintain an acid-base balance, which of the following is (are) necessary? a. Buffering b. Respirations c. Urine secretion d. All of the above ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1018 TOP: Factors That Affect pH of Body Fluids 29. The more hydrogen ions excreted by the renal tubules, the:N R I G B.C M a. more alkaline the urine. b. more potassium ions excreted. c. fewer potassium ions excreted. d. lower the pH of the blood becomes. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1025 TOP: Urinary Mechanisms 30. A decrease in blood pH: a. accelerates the renal tubule excretion of ammonia. b. causes a decrease in the renal tubule excretion of ammonia. c. produces an increase in the pH of the urine through the chloride shift. d. has no effect on the renal tubule excretion of ammonia (because of respiratory compensations). ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1024 TOP: Urinary Mechanisms 31. Which of the following would be important in treating metabolic alkalosis? a. Chloride ions b. Bicarbonate ions c. Sodium ions d. Potassium ions ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1021 TOP: Metabolic Alkalosis Caused by Vomiting (Box 44-2) 32. Which of these is true about the metabolism of glucose? a. Aerobic metabolism produU ces SlactiNc acTid. O b. Anaerobic metabolism produces lactic acid. c. Anaerobic metabolism produces carbonic acid. d. Both A and C are true about the metabolism of glucose. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1018 TOP: Factors That Affect pH of Body Fluids 33. Which of these is not an acid-forming element? a. Chloride b. Potassium c. Sulfur d. Phosphorus ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1018 TOP: Factors That Affect pH of Body Fluids 34. Which of the following is not a base-forming element? a. Chlorine b. Potassium c. Sodium d. Magnesium ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1018 TOP: Factors That Affect pH of Body Fluids35. A solution with a hydrogen ion concentration of 1  10–1 per liter would have a pH of: a. 10. b. –1. c. 1. d. none of the above. ANS: C DIF: Application REF: p. 1017 TOP: Review of the pH Concept 36. A solution with a hydrogen ion concentration of 1  10–4 per liter would be a(n): a. acid. b. base. c. neutral solution. d. There is not enough information to determine the type of solution it would be. ANS: A DIF: Application REF: p. 1017 TOP: Review of the pH Concept 37. A solution with a pH of 6 would have a hydrogen ion concentration of _ per liter. a. 0.000006 b. 0.0000001 c. 0.000001 d. None of the above is correct. ANS: C DIF: Application REF: p. 1017 TOP: Review of the pH Concept 38. A solution with a pH of 6 would have ions than a solution with a pH of 4. a. more hydrogen b. fewer hydrogen c. fewer hydroxide NURSINGTB.COM d. Both A and C are correct. ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 1017 TOP: Review of the pH Concept 39. Beta-hydroxybutyric acid results from the metabolism of: a. glucose. b. amino acids. c. fats. d. ribonucleotides. ANS: C DIF: Application REF: p. 1018 TOP: Factors That Affect pH of Body Fluids 40. Carbonic acid results primarily from the metabolism of: a. glucose. b. amino acids. c. fats. d. ribonucleotides. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1018 TOP: Factors That Affect pH of Body Fluids 41. Sulfuric acid results from the metabolism of: a. glucose.b. amino acids. c. fats. d. ribonucleotides. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1018 TOP: Factors That Affect pH of Body Fluids 42. Which of the following is not a weak acid? a. Hemoglobin b. Oxyhemoglobin c. Proteins d. Na2HPO4 ANS: D DIF: Memorization TOP: Buffer Pairs REF: p. 1019 43. In the body, which of the following substances might be used to buffer a strong acid such as HCl? a. H2CO3 b. Hemoglobin c. NaHCO3 d. None of the above ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1020 TOP: Buffer Activity 44. In the body, which of the following substances might be used to buffer a strong base such as NaOH? a. H2CO3 b. KHCO3 c. Proteins d. None of the above NURSINGTB.COM ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1020 TOP: Buffer Activity 45. Which of the following is most basic? a. Oven cleaner b. Baking soda c. Household ammonia d. Great Salt Lake water ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1017 TOP: Review of the pH Concept 46. The respiratory center is stimulated if the: a. amount of carbon dioxide in arterial blood increases. b. amount of carbon dioxide in venous blood increases. c. pH of the blood goes above 7.41. d. Any of the above will stimulate the respiratory center. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1023 TOP: Respiratory Mechanisms47. Which of the following statements is true? a. Hypoventilation can cause alkalosis. b. Hyperventilation can cause acidosis. c. Hyperventilation can cause a drop in pH. d. Hypoventilation can cause a drop in pH. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1023 TOP: Respiration Adjustment of Blood pH 48. Respiratory acidosis is also: a. carbonic acid excess. b. carbonic acid deficit. c. bicarbonate excess. d. bicarbonate deficit. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1028 TOP: Mechanisms of Disease 49. An abnormal change in pH in the body could disrupt the functioning of: a. enzymes. b. cell membrane receptors. c. hemoglobin. d. all of the above. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 1016-1017 TOP: Introduction 50. The functioning of the Na-KNpuUmRpStIraNnsGpoTrBt m.eCchOaMnism falls by 50% if the pH: a. falls by 1 unit. b. falls by 2 units. c. falls by 3 units. d. rises by 1 unit. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1017 TOP: Introduction 51. The biological activity of phosphofructokinase (an important enzyme in anaerobic respiration) falls by 90% if the pH: a. falls by 1 unit. b. falls by 0.5 units. c. falls by 0.1 units. d. rises by 1 unit. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1017 TOP: Introduction 52. The numerical value of pH represents the: a. hydrogen ion concentration squared. b. negative logarithm of the hydrogen ion concentration. c. logarithm of the hydrogen ion concentration. d. square root of the hydrogen ion concentration.ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1017 TOP: Review of the pH Concept 53. Phosphoric acid accumulates when what is broken down in the body? a. Fats b. Amino acids c. Ribonucleotides d. Carbohydrates ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1018 TOP: Factors That Affect pH of Body Fluids 54. Toxic accumulation of acidic ketone bodies is a common complication of untreated: a. kidney disease. b. diabetes mellitus. c. respiratory distress syndrome. d. deficiency of carbonic anhydrase in the blood. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1018 TOP: Factors That Affect pH of Body Fluids 55. The most rapidly acting buffer system in the body is the buffering system. a. chemical b. respiratory c. kidney d. Both physiological buffering systems act with equal speed and are faster than the chemical. ANS: A DIF: MNemUoRriSzaItioNnGTB.COM TOP: Overview of pH Control Mechanisms REF: p. 1019 56. If HCl were buffered by NaHCO3, the formation of would not occur. a. NaCl b. water c. H-HCO3 d. All of the above would occur. ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 1020 TOP: Buffer Activity 57. If HCl were buffered by NaHCO3, what would occur? a. There would be a slight rise in pH. b. There would be a large drop in pH. c. There would be a slight drop in pH. d. There would be a large rise in pH. ANS: C DIF: Application REF: p. 1020 TOP: Buffer Activity 58. If NaOH were buffered by H-HCO3, what would not occur? a. Concentration of NaHCO3 would increase. b. Water would be formed. c. The number of hydroxide ions would greatly increase. d. All of the above would occur.U S N T O ANS: C DIF: Application REF: p. 1020 TOP: Buffer Activity 59. If NaOH were buffered by H-HCO3, what would occur? a. There would be a slight drop in pH. b. There would be a large drop in pH. c. There would be a slight rise in pH. d. There would be a large rise in pH. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1020 TOP: Buffer Activity 60. How is the renal tubule excretion of ammonia involved in maintaining the acid-base balance? a. An increase in blood pH accelerates tubule excretion of both hydrogen and ammonia. A decrease in blood pH produces the opposite effects, thus maintaining pH balance. b. A decrease in blood pH accelerates tubule excretion of both hydrogen and ammonia. An increase in blood pH produces the opposite effects, thus maintaining pH balance. c. Renal tubule excretion of ammonia causes the combining of hydrogen to form ammonium ions that decrease the blood bicarbonate buffer pair ratio. d. Ammonia excreted by renal tubules has no effect on acid-base balance. ANS: B DIF: Application REF: pp. 1025-1026 TOP: Urinary Mechanisms 61. A decrease in blood pH: a. accelerates the renal tubule ion exchange mechanisms. b. causes a decrease in the rNenalRtubIuleGexcBre.tio Cn oMf ammonia. c. has no effect on the renal tubule excretion of ammonia (because of respiratory compensations). d. produces an increase in the pH of the urine through the chloride shift. ANS: A DIF: Application REF: p. 1024 TOP: Urinary Mechanisms 62. The respiratory center becomes stimulated if the: a. amount of carbon dioxide in arterial blood increases, so more CO2 is exhaled, thus lowering the blood pH. b. amount of carbon dioxide in venous blood increases to retain more CO2, thus lowering the blood pH. c. pH of the blood goes above 7.41. d. All of the above occur if the respiratory center becomes stimulated. ANS: A DIF: Application REF: p. 1023 TOP: Respiratory Mechanisms 63. If the blood pH decreases below normal, the kidney tubules secrete: a. fewer hydrogen ions from blood to urine. b. more hydrogen ions from blood to urine. c. more sodium ions into the urine. d. Both A and C are correct. ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 1024 TOP: Urinary MechanismsU S N T O 64. Why does arterial blood have a lower hydrogen ion concentration than venous blood? a. More carbon dioxide remains in the arterial blood leaving the lung capillaries, causing an increase in the amount of carbonic acid and the number of hydrogen ions. b. Because there are more red blood cells in arteries than veins, the arterial blood has a greater ability to carry fewer hydrogen ions. c. Less carbon dioxide remains in the arterial blood leaving the lung capillaries, causing a reduction in the amount of carbonic acid and the number of hydrogen ions. d. The carbon dioxide diffuses out of the venous blood as it moves through the lung capillaries. Therefore, more carbon dioxide remains in the arterial blood leaving the lung capillaries, causing a decrease in the number of hydrogen ions. ANS: C DIF: Application REF: pp. 1023-1024 TOP: Respiratory Mechanisms 65. Some athletes engage in a technique called bicarbonate loading that is said to counteract the lactic acid buildup. This practice raises concerns because excess bicarbonate intake: a. can trigger fluid and electrolyte imbalances, which may lead to metabolic acidosis. b. can trigger fluid and electrolyte imbalances, which may lead to metabolic alkalosis. c. may lead to uncompensated acidosis. d. may lead to “acid blood.” ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 1021 TOP: Bicarbonate Loading (Box 44-3) 66. Susan has been experiencingNproRlongIedGhypBov.eCntilaMtion. If not treated soon, Susan may develop what condition? a. Prolonged hypoventilation may decrease blood pH enough to produce acidosis. b. Prolonged hypoventilation may increase blood pH enough to produce alkalosis. c. Prolonged hypoventilation may reduce the renal tubule ion exchange mechanisms. d. Prolonged hypoventilation may lead to hyperkalemia. ANS: A DIF: Application REF: p. 1023 TOP: Principles Relating Respiration to pH 67. A rare but very serious complication of metformin therapy is: a. hyperkalemia. b. lactic acidosis. c. uncompensated acidosis. d. uncompensated alkalosis. ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 1022 TOP: Lactic Acidosis and Metformin (Box 44-4) 68. Kidney tubule base bicarbonate reabsorption and hydrogen ion excretion both tend to: a. acidify blood by creating alkaline urine. b. alkalinize blood by acidifying urine. c. increase blood pH, which accelerates tubule excretion of both hydrogen and ammonia. d. decrease blood pH, which reduces tubule excretion of both hydrogen andammonia. ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 1025 TOP: Urinary Mechanisms 69. Why are metabolic and respiratory acidosis treated by the intravenous infusion of solutions containing sodium lactate? a. The infused lactate ions are metabolized by the liver cells and converted to sodium ions, which help replace the depleted sodium reserves required to restore acid-base balance. b. The infused lactate ions are metabolized by the liver cells and converted to potassium ions, which help restore the depleted potassium reserves required to restore acid-base balance. c. The infused lactate ions are metabolized by the liver cells and converted to carbonic acid, which helps restore the depleted bicarbonate reserves required to restore acid-base balance. d. The infused lactate ions are metabolized by the liver cells and converted to bicarbonate ions, which help restore the depleted bicarbonate reserves required to restore acid-base balance. ANS: C DIF: Application REF: pp. 1027-1028 TOP: Mechanisms of Disease (Acid-Base Imbalance) 70. A pregnant patient who has been experiencing repeated vomiting episodes is admitted to the hospital by her obstetrician. After a series of tests determines that she is suffering from metabolic alkalosis, the physician orders intravenous administration of normal saline. How will this help the patient? a. It will reduce the vomiting episodes. b. The chloride ions of the sNolUuR tioSnIwNilGl rTepBla.cCe O thMe acidic ions and relieve the acidic excess responsible for her condition. c. The chloride ions of the solution will replace bicarbonate ions and relieve the bicarbonate excess responsible for her condition. d. The sodium ions of the solution will introduce more bicarbonate ions and relieve the bicarbonate shortage responsible for her condition. ANS: C DIF: Application REF: p. 1021 TOP: Metabolic Alkalosis Caused by Vomiting (Box 44-2) 71. A man was advised to acidify his urine to help reduce the development of kidney stones. To accomplish that, he has been drinking a large glass of grapefruit juice every day. Which of the following explains why this is ineffective and gives a food choice that will make his urine acidic? a. Grapefruit juice is not acid forming when metabolized; cranberry juice is acid forming and will acidify his blood, resulting in a decreased urine pH. b. Grapefruit juice is not acid forming when metabolized; orange juice is acid forming and will acidify his blood, resulting in a decreased urine pH. c. Grapefruit juice will acidify both blood and urine, thereby balancing the urine pH; beet juice will change the pH in the urine. d. Grapefruit juice is not acid forming when metabolized; a calcium carbonate tablet will acidify his blood resulting in a decreased urine pH. ANS: A DIF: Application REF: p. 1018 TOP: Factors That Affect pH of Body Fluids72. A minor bladder infection is often the result of urine not being acidic enough. Which of the following actions could correct this problem? a. Drinking orange juice b. Eating large amounts of high-protein foods such as meat, fish, poultry, and eggs, which are acid forming c. Eating fruits and vegetables d. Eating foods rich in acids, such as cranberries and rhubarb ANS: D DIF: Application REF: p. 1018 TOP: Factors That Affect pH of Body Fluids 73. Which of the following would be important in treating metabolic alkalosis? a. Increasing bicarbonate ions b. Increasing chloride ions c. Decreasing potassium ions d. Decreasing sodium ions ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 1021 TOP: Metabolic Alkalosis Caused by Vomiting (Box 44-2) 74. How does the body respond if respiratory mechanisms are unable to stop a pH shift? a. A renal physiological buffer system involving the excretion of either an acid or alkaline urine will be initiated within 24 hours. b. Bicarbonate buffers immediately combine with any added acid or alkali that enters the body fluids, thus preventing drastic changes in pH. c. Phosphate buffers immediately combine with any added acid or alkali that enters the body fluids, thus prevNenUtiRngSdIrNasGticTcBh.anCgesMin pH. d. Protein buffers immediately combine with any added acid or alkali that enters the body fluids, thus preventing drastic changes in pH. ANS: A DIF: Application REF: p. 1019 TOP: Overview of pH Mechanisms 75. Which of the following type(s) of acids would be produced as a result of glucose catabolism? a. Acetoacetic and lactic b. Lactic c. Phosphoric and sulfuric d. Sulfuric ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 1018 TOP: Factors That Affect pH of Body Fluids 76. Which statement best outlines the reason hyperventilation can result in loss of consciousness? a. Hyperventilation eliminates too little CO2, causes an increase in blood H2CO3 and consequently in blood H+, and thereby may produce acidosis. b. Increases in oxygen ion concentration above a certain level depress the central nervous system and, therefore, produce such symptoms as disorientation and coma. c. Decreases in hydrogen ion concentration above a certain level depress the central nervous system and, therefore, produce such symptoms as disorientation and coma. d. Increases in hydrogen ion concentration above a certain level depress the central nervous system and, therefore, produce such symptoms as disorientation and coma.ANS: D DIF: Application REF: p. 1023 TOP: Principles Relating Respiration to pH TRUE/FALSE 1. The kidney gets rid of excess hydrogen ions by the process of filtration. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1024 TOP: Urinary Mechanisms 2. A blood pH of 7.1 indicates the body is more acidic than normal. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1017 TOP: Review of the pH Concept 3. Stomach acid is the most alkaline substance in the body. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1017 TOP: Review of the pH Concept 4. CO2 entering venous blood gives it a slightly lower pH than arterial blood. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1017 TOP: Review of the pH Concept 5. Saliva is normally acidic. ANS: T DIF: M NRUemori SzaItioNnGTB.COM TOP: Review of the pH Concept REF: p. 1018 6. Venous blood returning from the lungs would have a higher pH than blood returning from the inferior vena cava. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1023 TOP: Respiratory Mechanisms 7. Arterial blood has a lower pH than venous blood. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1018 TOP: Review of the pH Concept 8. High-protein foods are referred to as acid forming. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1018 TOP: Factors That Affect pH of Body Fluids 9. Mineral elements that are acidic include potassium, calcium, and sodium. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1018 TOP: Factors That Affect pH of Body Fluids10. Citrus fruits are mainly acid forming when metabolized. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1018 TOP: Factors That Affect pH of Body Fluids 11. A vegetarian diet would tend to produce an alkaline state in body fluids. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1018 TOP: Factors That Affect pH of Body Fluids 12. Direct acid-forming foods contain acids that cannot be metabolized. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1018 TOP: Factors That Affect pH of Body Fluids 13. Potassium, calcium, sodium, and magnesium are all mineral elements that are acidic in solution. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1018 TOP: Factors That Affect pH of Body Fluids 14. The protein buffer system represents a chemical buffer system in the body with a delayed response time. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1019 TOP: Overview of pH Control Mechanisms 15. Most body fluid buffer pairsNco ntaRU inS Ia stronGNT B g . baCse aMO nd a weak acid. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1019 TOP: Buffer Pairs 16. The physiological buffers serve as a secondary defense against harmful shifts in the pH of body fluids. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1019 TOP: Overview of pH Control Mechanisms 17. The respiratory system is an important buffer system. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1020 TOP: Overview of pH Control Mechanisms 18. Normally the blood buffer system converts a strong acid to a weak acid. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1020 TOP: Buffer Activity 19. Blood buffers work primarily by preventing marked changes in blood pH. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1019 TOP: Buffers Defined20. A chloride shift that occurs in the neutralization of carbonic acid involves the replacement of a bicarbonate ion for chloride ions. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1021 TOP: Buffer Activity 21. Ketone bodies are buffered mainly by plasma proteins. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1021 TOP: Buffer Activity 22. The type of acid formed when carbon dioxide and water unite is carbonic acid. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1020 TOP: Buffer Activity 23. The chloride shift makes it possible for carbon dioxide to be buffered in the red blood cell and then carried as bicarbonate in the plasma. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1021 TOP: Buffer Activity 24. Under normal body conditions, the chemical buffer system can maintain normal body pH. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1022 TOP: Role of Buffers in pH Control 25. The process of exchanging a Nb iUcaRrbSoInaNteGiTonBf.orCmOeMd in the red blood cell with a chloride ion from the plasma is called the chloride shift. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1021 TOP: Buffer Activity 26. An increase in the base bicarbonate/carbonic acid ratio causes uncompensated acidosis. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1022 TOP: Buffer Activity 27. An increase in the base bicarbonate/carbonic acid ratio causes a decrease in the pH. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1022 TOP: Buffer Activity 28. Prolonged hypoventilation may increase blood pH enough to produce alkalosis. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1023 TOP: Principles Relating Respiration to pH 29. An increase in blood pH above normal may result in hypoventilation. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1023TOP: Principles Relating Respiration to pH 30. Overall, the kidney is less effective in controlling blood hydrogen ion concentration than is the respiratory system. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1019 TOP: Overview of pH Control Mechanisms 31. The respiratory mechanism is a much more effective device for adjusting hydrogen output to hydrogen input than is the urinary mechanism. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1024 TOP: Urinary Mechanisms 32. Carbonic anhydrase is an enzyme necessary for the formation of carbonic acid in the kidney tubules. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1024 TOP: Urinary Mechanisms 33. An elevated blood bicarbonate level may be an indication that the kidneys are excreting hydrogen ions. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1024 TOP: Urinary Mechanisms 34. The compensatory mechanisms that respond to acidosis may lead to hyperkalemia and cause heart blockage or death. NURSINGTB.COM ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1025 TOP: Urinary Mechanisms 35. The more hydrogen ions excreted by the renal tubules, the more potassium ions excreted. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1024 TOP: Urinary Mechanisms 36. Ammonia excretion causes the body to retain sodium ions. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1025 TOP: Urinary Mechanisms 37. An increase in blood pH accelerates the renal tubule excretion of both hydrogen and ammonia. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1024 TOP: Urinary Mechanisms 38. Cranberries are said to direct acid-forming foods. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1018 TOP: Factors That Affect pH of Body FluidsU S N T 39. An increase in ammonium ion excretion occurs when there is an increase in blood pH. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1025 TOP: Urinary Mechanisms 40. Strong evidence shows that bicarbonate loading counteracts the effects of lactic acid buildup in athletes. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1021 TOP: Sports and Fitness (Box 44-3) 41. A change in pH can make an important enzyme in the cell unable to function. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 1016-1017 TOP: Introduction 42. The function of a number of proteins in the body requires that the normal hydrogen ion concentration be maintained. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1016 TOP: Introduction 43. Distilled water (pure water) contains equal amounts of hydrogen and hydroxide ions. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 1017 TOP: pH of Body Fluids 44. Because intracellular fluid isNin eRquiI libriGumBw.ithCinM terstitial fluid and blood plasma, it also has a pH of 7.41. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1018 TOP: pH of Body Fluids 45. In clinical medicine, acidosis can occur when the arterial blood is still basic. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 1018 TOP: pH of Body Fluids 46. Protein catabolism can produce both phosphoric and sulfuric acid. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 1018 TOP: Factors That Affect pH of Body Fluids 47. A buffer would prevent any lowering of pH if a strong acid were added to a solution. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1019 TOP: Buffers Defined 48. When NaOH is added to a buffered solution, one of the substances produced is water. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1020 TOP: Buffer ActivityANS: T U S N T O 49. One of the potential serious side effects of taking the drug Glucophage is lactic acidosis. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1022 TOP: Lactic Acidosis and Metformin (Box 44-4) 50. The blood in the pulmonary artery has a lower pH than the blood in the aorta. ANS: T DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 1023 TOP: Respiratory Mechanisms 51. The control of acid and base levels is considered a homeostatic mechanism. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1016 TOP: Acid-Base Balance Introduction 52. pH is used to represent the logarithm of the concentration of hydrogen ions in a liter of solution. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1017 TOP: Review of the pH Concept 53. On the pH scale, as the value moves from 1 toward 7, the concentration of hydrogen ions increases. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 1017 TOP: Review of the pH Concept 54. On the pH scale, as the value moves from 1 toward 7, the concentration of hydrogen ions decreases. N R I G B.C M DIF: Application REF: p. 1017 TOP: Review of the pH Concept 55. On the pH scale, as the value moves from 14 toward 7, the concentration of hydroxide ions decreases. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 1017 TOP: Review of the pH Concept 56. On the pH scale, as the value moves from 14 toward 7, the concentration of hydroxide ions increases. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 1017 TOP: Review of the pH Concept 57. A solution with a pH of 7 would have no hydrogen ions in solution. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1017 TOP: Review of the pH Concept 58. The metabolism of ribonucleotides increases the hydrogen ion concentration of extracellular fluid. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1018 TOP: Factors That Affect pH of Body FluidsU S N T O 59. The metabolism of ribonucleotides increases the hydrogen ion concentration of intracellular fluid. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1018 TOP: Factors That Affect pH of Body Fluids 60. A diet that is very high in protein or very high in fruits and vegetables would tax the body’s ability to maintain acid-base balance. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1018 TOP: Factors That Affect pH of Body Fluids 61. Rhubarb is said to be a direct base-forming food. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1018 TOP: Factors That Affect pH of Body Fluids 62. Buffers are said to consist of a weak acid and its salt. When the ratio is written out, the salt goes above the line and the weak acid goes below the line. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1019 TOP: Buffer Pairs 63. Life-threatening vomiting can occur both in infants and in pregnant women. 64.6 4 . ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1021 TOP: Metabolic Alkalosis Caused by Vomiting (Box 44-2) N R I G B.C M Vomiting results in acidosis because of the loss of chloride from the stomach. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1021 TOP: Metabolic Alkalosis Caused by Vomiting (Box 44-2) 65. Vomiting results in alkalosis because of the loss of sodium from the stomach. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1021 TOP: Metabolic Alkalosis Caused by Vomiting (Box 44-2) 66. The loss of chloride from the stomach will tend to lower the pH of the body. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1021 TOP: Metabolic Alkalosis Caused by Vomiting (Box 44-2) 67. Because saline solutions have chloride in them, they can be used to treat metabolic alkalosis caused by vomiting. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1021 TOP: Metabolic Alkalosis Caused by Vomiting (Box 44-2) 68. The more an acid dissociates, the stronger the acid is said to be. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1020U S N T TOP: Buffer Activity 69. Bicarbonate loading can lead to diarrhea and electrolyte imbalance. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1021 TOP: Bicarbonate Loading (Box 44-3) 70. Bicarbonate loading can lead to metabolic acidosis and disastrous effects if used long-term. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1021 TOP: Bicarbonate Loading (Box 44-3) 71. In the bicarbonate buffer system, the weak acid carbonic acid is used to buffer a strong acid such as HCl. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 1020 TOP: Buffer Activity 72. In the bicarbonate buffer system, the weak acid carbonic acid is used to buffer a strong base such as NaOH. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 1020 TOP: Buffer Activity 73. In the bicarbonate buffer system, the weak base bicarbonate is used to buffer a strong base such as NaOH. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 1020 TOP: Buffer Activity 74. In the bicarbonate buffer systNem,RtheIweGak bBas.eCbicMarbonate is used to buffer a strong acid such as HCl. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 1020 TOP: Buffer Activity 75. The chloride shift occurs to correct an electrical imbalance, not an acid-base imbalance. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1021 TOP: Buffer Activity 76. For the bicarbonate buffer system to function, both the absolute amount and the ratio of the components must remain constant. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1022 TOP: Buffer Activity 77. To function properly, the bicarbonate buffer system must have 20 times more H2CO3 than NaHCO3. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1022 TOP: Buffer Activity 78. The kidney is able to secrete hydrogen ions, which causes an increase in urine pH but a decrease in blood pH.ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1024 TOP: Urinary Mechanisms 79. The proximal and distal tubules secrete hydrogen ions into the urine. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1024 TOP: Urinary Mechanisms 80. Both the distal tubule cells and the red blood cells use carbonic anhydrase to help combine carbon dioxide and water. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1024 TOP: Urinary Mechanisms 81. Kidney tubule base bicarbonate reabsorption and hydrogen ion excretion both tend to alkalinize the blood by acidifying the urine. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1024 TOP: Urinary Mechanisms 82. Kidney tubule base bicarbonate reabsorption and hydrogen ion excretion tend to lower the blood pH and raise the pH of the urine. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1024 TOP: Urinary Mechanisms 83. The linkage between the hydrogen and potassium ions in the kidney can cause a drop in blood potassium when large amounNtsUoRf hSyIdrNoGgeTnBio.nCnOeeMd to be excreted. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1025 TOP: Urinary Mechanisms 84. A change in pH damages an enzyme’s ability to function because it changes the shape of the enzyme. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 1016-1017 TOP: Introduction 85. In a solution with a pH of 7, the number of H+ ions equals the number of OH– ions. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1017 TOP: Review of the pH Concept 86. Acetone, acetoacetic acid, and lactic acid accumulate during the incomplete breakdown of fats. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1018 TOP: Factors That Affect pH of Body Fluids 87. The breakdown of ribonucleotides produces phosphoric acid. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1018TOP: Factors That Affect pH of Body Fluids 88. In the bicarbonate buffer pair, NaHCO3 acts as the weak acid. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 1019 TOP: Buffer Pairs 89. In the phosphate buffer pair, Na2HPO4 acts as the basic phosphate. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 1019 TOP: Buffer Pairs 90. If a strong acid were added to the phosphate buffer pair, the amount of Na2HPO4 in the solution would increase. ANS: F DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 1022 TOP: Buffer Activity MATCHING Match each term with it corresponding definition. a. Alkaline b. pH c. Buffer d. Acid e. Alkalosis f. Chloride shift g. Acidosis h. Metabolic alkalosis i. Metabolic acidosis j. Respiratory acidosis k. Respiratory alkalosis NURSINGTB.COM 1. Arterial blood pH greater than 7.45 2. Symbol indicating hydrogen ion concentration 3. Any substance that increases the hydrogen ion concentration of a solution 4. Process that allows carbon dioxide to be buffered in the RBC and then carried as bicarbonate in the plasma 5. Arterial blood pH of less than 7.35 6. Any substance that decreases the amount of the hydrogen ion concentration in a solution 7. Substance that prevents marked changes in the pH of a solution 8. Carbonic acid excess caused by conditions such as pneumonia or emphysema 9. Bicarbonate deficit that could be caused by untreated diabetes mellitus or starvation 10. Bicarbonate excess caused by excessive antacid use or excessive vomiting 11. Carbonic acid deficit that can be caused by hyperventilation from fever or hysteria 1. ANS: E DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1018 TOP: Review of the pH Concept 2. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1017 TOP: Review of the pH Concept 3. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1017 TOP: Review of the pH Concept 4. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1021TOP: Buffer Activity 5. ANS: G DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1018 TOP: Review of the pH Concept 6. ANS: TOP: A DIF: Memorization Review of the pH Concept REF: p. 1017 7. ANS: TOP: C DIF: Memorization Buffers Defined REF: p. 1019 8. ANS: TOP: J DIF: Memorization Mechanisms of Disease REF: p. 1028 9. ANS: TOP: I DIF: Memorization Mechanisms of Disease REF: p. 1027 10. ANS: TOP: H DIF: Memorization Mechanisms of Disease REF: p. 1027 11. ANS: TOP: K DIF: Memorization Mechanisms of Disease REF: p. 1028 OTHER 1. Explain the pH scale ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 1017-1018 TOP: Review of the pH Concept 2. Identify the main buffer pairsNpreRsenIt inGbodBy.flCuidsM. How do these buffer pairs function to limit large changes in pH? ANS: Answers will vary. U S N T O DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 1019-1020 TOP: Buffer Pairs | Buffer Activity 3. Why does arterial blood have a lower hydrogen ion concentration than venous blood? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1018 TOP: Review of the pH Concept 4. Describe the respiratory compensation for a change in blood pH. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1023 TOP: Respiration Adjustments of Blood pH 5. Explain the methods the kidney uses to help control the pH of the blood.ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1024 TOP: Urinary Mechanisms 6. Explain why a change in pH is so detrimental to the functioning of the body. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 1016-1017 TOP: Introduction 7. What substances or processes in the body might cause a change in the blood pH? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1018 TOP: Factors That Affect pH of Body Fluids 8. Name and explain the two types of pH control mechanisms used by the body. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization N R I GREBF:.p C. 10M19 TOP: Overview of pH Control MUechSanisNms T O 9. What is the chloride shift and what is its cause? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1021 TOP: Buffer Activity ESSAY 1. Edith is pregnant and experiencing repeated vomiting episodes. Her obstetrician becomes concerned, admits her to the hospital, and begins intravenous administration of normal saline. How will this help Edith? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1021 TOP: Metabolic Alkalosis Caused by Vomiting (Box 44-2)2. Vicki has a minor bladder infection. She has heard that this is often the result of urine not being acidic enough and that she should drink cranberry juice to correct the problem. She does not have any cranberry juice, so she substitutes orange juice. What is wrong with this substitution? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 1018 TOP: Acid-Forming and Base-Forming Potential of Foods (Box 44-1) 3. A patient was advised to acidify his urine to help reduce the development of kidney stones. He has been drinking a large glass of grapefruit juice every day to accomplish this. Explain why this is ineffective. What food choices might he make to help him acidify his urine? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: p. 1018 | p. 1024 TOP: Factors That Affect pH of Body Fluids | Acid-Forming and Base-Forming Potential of Foods (Box 44-1) | Urinary Mechanisms 4. Assume the strong base NaOH was added to a solution that contained the phosphate buffer pair Na2HPO4/NaH2PO4. Write out the chemical equation that shows how this buffer pair would react to the NaOH. ANS: Answers will vary. NURSINGTB.COM DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 1020 TOP: Buffer ActivityChapter 45: Male Reproductive System Patton: Anatomy and Physiology, 10th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. In the male reproductive system, the essential organs of reproduction are called: a. seminal vesicles. b. testes. c. vasa deferentia. d. Cowper glands. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1037 TOP: Male Reproductive Organs 2. The accessory organs of the male reproductive system include all the following except: a. epididymis. b. vasa deferentia. c. urethra. d. gonads. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1037 TOP: Male Reproductive Organs 3. Which of the following is not a supporting structure of the male reproductive system? a. Penis b. Scrotum c. Prostate d. Pair of spermatic cords NURSINGTB.COM ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1037 TOP: Male Reproductive Organs 4. Which of the following is not a secreting gland in the male reproductive system? a. Seminal vesicle b. Bulbourethral gland c. Prostate gland d. All of the above are secreting glands in the male reproductive system ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1037 TOP: Male Reproductive Organs 5. The supporting structures in the male reproductive system include: a. the penis. b. a pair of spermatic cords. c. the scrotum. d. all of the above. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1037 TOP: Male Reproductive Organs 6. Progesterone released by cells surrounding the ovum:a. assist in capacitation of the sperm. b. supply additional nutrient for the sperm. c. increase motility and attract sperm to the ovum. d. has no measurable effect on the sperm. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1043 TOP: Spermatozoa 7. Which of the following is(are) not classified as an accessory organ(s) of the reproductive system in the male? a. Testes b. Epididymides c. Urethra d. Seminal vesicles ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1037 TOP: Male Reproductive Organs 8. Which of the following statements is not true? a. Each testis is 4 to 5 cm long. b. Each testis weighs about 10 to 15 grams. c. The right testis is usually lower than the left testis. d. All of the above are true. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1038 TOP: Testes 9. The efferent ductules: N R I G B.C M a. surround and protect each tUestiSs. N T O b. are part of the tunica albuginea. c. drain the rete testis. d. do all of the above. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1038 TOP: Testes 10. Which of the following divides the testes into lobules? a. Seminiferous tubules b. Vas afferens c. Efferent ductules d. Tunica albuginea ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1038 TOP: Testes Structure and Location 11. The dense, white, fibrous capsule that encases each testis is called the: a. rete testis. b. efferent ductule. c. tunica albuginea. d. scrotum. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1038 TOP: Testes Structure and Location12. Testosterone: a. inhibits the anterior pituitary secretion of FSH and LH. b. helps regulate metabolism and stimulates protein anabolism. c. promotes kidney tubule secretion of potassium. d. does all of the above. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1041 TOP: Testes Functions 13. In the male, LH: a. stimulates the seminiferous tubules to produce sperm more rapidly. b. inhibits the secretion of FSH from the anterior pituitary. c. stimulates the interstitial cells to increase their secretion of testosterone. d. is referred to as “the anabolic hormone” because of its marked stimulating effect on protein anabolism. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1041 TOP: Testes Functions 14. Which of the following is not an effect of testosterone? a. Promotes excretion of potassium by kidneys b. Promotes anabolism of proteins c. Promotes growth of skeletal muscles d. Promotes lengthening of long bones ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1041 TOP: Testes Functions NURSINGTB.COM 15. The tightly coiled tube of the epididymis measures feet in length. a. 5 b. 10 c. 15 d. 20 ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1043 TOP: Epididymis 16. Mechanical support and protection for developing germ cells in the testis are provided by: a. tunica albuginea. b. Sertoli cells. c. interstitial cells. d. rete testes. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 1039-1040 TOP: Microscopic Anatomy of the Testes 17. Which of the following is not a function of testosterone? a. Initiation of spermatogenesis b. Development of secondary male sex characteristics c. Regulation of metabolism d. Inhibition of secretion of gonadotropinsANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1041 TOP: Testes Functions 18. To be capable of fertilizing an ovum, sperm must undergo a process called: a. epiphyseal closure. b. ejaculation. c. capacitation. d. gonadotropin secretion. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1042 TOP: Spermatozoa 19. Each of the following is a duct in the male reproductive system except: a. vas deferens. b. urethra. c. epididymis. d. inguinal canal. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1037 TOP: Male Reproductive Organs 20. Normally, capacitation occurs in sperm: a. in the testes. b. in the vas deferens. c. in the urethra. d. after they have been introduced into the vagina of the female. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1042 TOP: Spermatozoa NURSINGTB.COM 21. In spermatozoa, a helical arrangement of mitochondria is located in the: a. acrosome. b. head. c. cylindrical middle piece. d. tail. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1043 TOP: Spermatozoa 22. As part of the maturation process, sperm will stay in the epididymis for: a. 1 to 3 days. b. 4 to 7 days. c. 1 to 3 weeks. d. 1 to 2 months. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1043 TOP: Epididymis 23. The duct of the vas deferens is an extension of the: a. tail of the epididymis. b. urethra. c. ejaculatory duct. d. seminal vesicles.U S N T O ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1043 TOP: Vas Deferens (Ductus Deferens) 24. In the male, the urethra is: a. involved in the reproductive system. b. involved in the urinary system. c. classified as a genital duct. d. all of the above. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1044 TOP: Urethra 25. The structure that connects the epididymis with the ejaculatory duct is the: a. urethra. b. vas deferens. c. seminal vesicle. d. scrotum. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1044 TOP: Ejaculatory Duct 26. The temperature required for sperm production is about normal body temperature. a. 10 degrees below b. 3 degrees below c. 10 degrees above d. 3 degrees above ANS: B DIF: MNemoRrizaItionG B.C M TOP: Scrotum REF: p. 1046 27. The opening of the urethra at the tip of the glans is called the: a. prepuce. b. external urinary meatus. c. corpora cavernosa. d. glans penis. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1046 TOP: Penis 28. The urethra runs through the center of the: a. seminal vesicle. b. Cowper gland. c. bulbourethral gland. d. prostate gland. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1045 TOP: Prostate Gland 29. The male gland that secretes a fructose sugar used as an energy source for sperm is the: a. prostate gland. b. bulbourethral gland. c. seminal vesicle.d. Cowper gland. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1045 TOP: Seminal Vesicles 30. The gland that secretes an alkaline substance that constitutes about 30% of the seminal fluid is the: a. seminal vesicle. b. Cowper gland. c. bulbourethral gland. d. prostate gland. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1045 TOP: Prostate Gland 31. Contraction of both the dartos and cremaster muscles, which pull the testes upward against the perineum, is caused by: a. sexual arousal. b. cold temperatures. c. urination. d. both A and B. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1046 TOP: Scrotum 32. The foreskin in the male is also known as the: a. glans penis. b. urinary meatus. c. scrotum. d. prepuce. NURSINGTB.COM ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1046 TOP: Penis 33. Which of the following is a part of the supporting structures of the male reproductive system? a. Scrotum b. Spermatic cord c. Prostate d. Seminal vesicle ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1046 TOP: Scrotum 34. The main factor determining male fertility is the: a. size of the sperm. b. number of sperm ejaculated. c. shape of the sperm. d. motility of the sperm. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1048 TOP: Male Fertility 35. Which of the following is not enclosed in the spermatic cord?a. Vas deferens b. Ejaculatory ducts c. Blood vessels d. Nerves ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1047 TOP: Spermatic Cords 36. Which of the following glands is not a paired accessory gland of the male reproductive system? a. Prostate b. Seminal vesicle c. Bulbourethral gland d. Cowper gland ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1037 TOP: Male Reproductive Organs 37. Leydig cells is another name for: a. sustentacular cells. b. rete testis. c. interstitial cells. d. none of the above. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1038 TOP: Testes 38. Sertoli cells is another name foN r: R I G B.C M a. interstitial cells. b. sustentacular cells. c. rete testis. d. tunica albuginea. U S N T O ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1039 TOP: Testes 39. Which of the following is true of the essential organ in the reproductive system? a. It produces gametes. b. It is called the testis in the male. c. It is called the gonad in both sexes. d. All of the above are true. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1037 TOP: Male Reproductive Organs 40. The number of spermatids formed by one primary spermatocyte is: a. 2. b. 4. c. 6. d. 8. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1040 TOP: TestesN R I 41. Which of the following cells contain 46 chromosomes? a. Sperm cells b. Primary spermatocytes c. Secondary spermatocytes d. Spermatids ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1040 TOP: Testes 42. Which of the following is not true of FSH? a. It is produced in the anterior pituitary gland. b. It increases the production of sperm. c. It stimulates the secretion of testosterone. d. Its secretion is inhibited by high testosterone levels. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1041 TOP: Testes Functions 43. Which of the following statements is not true about the fluid produced by the seminal vesicles? a. It contains prostaglandins. b. It is alkaline and viscous. c. It contains glucose as an energy source for sperm cells. d. All of the above are true about the fluid produced by the seminal vesicles. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1045 TOP: Accessory Reproductive Glands G B.C M U S N T O 44. Which of the following statements is not true about prostate cancer? a. It is the most common nonskin cancer in American men. b. The cancer can sometimes be detected by palpation. c. The PSA test is used to detect prostate cancer. d. All of the above are true about prostate cancer. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1046, Box 45-1 TOP: Prostate Cancer Screening (Box 45-1) 45. Which of the following statements is not true of the bulbourethral gland? a. It joins the urethra at the prostate gland. b. It is also called the Cowper gland. c. It is a compound tubuloalveolar gland. d. It produces an alkaline secretion in semen. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1045 TOP: Accessory Reproductive Glands 46. Which structure is not found in the scrotum? a. Testes b. Seminal vesicles c. Lower part of the spermatic cord d. EpididymisANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1046 TOP: Supporting Structures of the Male Reproductive System 47. Functional sterility results when the sperm count per milliliter falls below million. a. 10 b. 25 c. 100 d. 150 ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1048 TOP: Male Fertility 48. Which term means “hidden testis”? a. Oligospermia b. Phimosis c. Cryptorchidism d. Spermatogonia ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1049 TOP: Disorders of the Testes (Mechanisms of Disease) 49. The male perineum extends from the pubis anteriorly to what structure posteriorly? a. Base of the scrotum b. Coccyx c. Anus d. Gluteal folds ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1037 TOP: Perineum NURSINGTB.COM 50. The function of Reinke crystalloids in the Leydig cells is: a. to initiate the release of testosterone. b. to assist in the process of spermatogenesis. c. to communicate with Sertoli cells. d. uncertain at this time. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1039 TOP: Microscopic Anatomy of the Testes 51. Which of the following is not a function of the Sertoli cells? a. They produce testosterone. b. They produce androgen-binding protein. c. They form the blood-testis barrier. d. All of the above are functions of the Sertoli cells. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 1039-1040 TOP: Microscopic Anatomy of the Testes 52. Which of the following is not true of interstitial cells? a. They produce testosterone. b. They contain Reinke crystalloids that appear after puberty. c. They form the blood-testis barrier. d. All of the above are true of the interstitial cells.ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 1038-1039 TOP: Microscopic Anatomy of the Testes 53. What reproductive duct is divided into the head, body, and tail? a. Vas deferens b. Ejaculatory duct c. Epididymis d. Seminal vesicle ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1043 TOP: Epididymis 54. What reproductive duct has thick, muscular walls and can be palpated in the scrotal sac as a smooth, movable cord? a. Vas deferens b. Ejaculatory duct c. Epididymis d. Seminal vesicle ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1043 TOP: Vas Deferens (Ductus Deferens) 55. What reproductive duct is a short tube about 1 cm long that passes through the prostate gland to terminate in the urethra? a. Vas deferens b. Ejaculatory duct c. Epididymis d. Seminal vesicle NURSINGTB.COM ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1044 TOP: Ejaculatory Duct 56. The main advantage of sexual reproduction over asexual reproduction is: a. only one parent is needed. b. all the offspring are identical. c. there is greater diversity in the offspring. d. more offspring are produced. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1037 TOP: Sexual Reproduction 57. Which of the following ducts are not paired? a. Urethra b. Ejaculatory duct c. Vas deferens d. Both A and B ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1037 TOP: Male Reproductive Organs 58. When the tight junctions of the sustentacular cells divide the seminiferous tubules into two compartments:a. meiotically active cells are near the basement membrane. b. meiotically active cells are near the lumen. c. spermatogonia are near the lumen. d. both A and C are true. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 1039-1040 TOP: Microscopic Anatomy of the Testes 59. When a male baby was born, the pediatrician discovered that the baby’s left testicle had not descended into the scrotum. If the situation is not corrected soon, might the baby be sterile? a. No, because the higher temperature inside the body cavity promotes spermatogenesis and will not impair fertility. b. No, because the lower temperature inside the body cavity promotes spermatogenesis and will not impair fertility. c. Yes, because the higher temperature inside the body cavity inhibits spermatogenesis, which could result in permanent sterility if untreated. d. Yes, because the higher temperature inside the body cavity inhibits the secretion of testosterone by interstitial or Leydig cells in the testes, which could result in permanent sterility if untreated. ANS: C DIF: Application REF: p. 1049 TOP: Disorders of the Testes (Mechanisms of Disease) 60. Which statement is the best explanation of “immune infertility”? a. The sperm contains hyaluronidase and other hydrolytic enzymes that destroy the female ovum. b. Once the egg and the sperm join, an antigen-antibody reaction occurs, which kills the sperm. NURSINGTB.COM c. An allergy to the female egg results in female infertility. d. Antigen-antibody reaction in males causes destruction of sperm, resulting in infertility. ANS: D DIF: Application REF: p. 1048 TOP: Male Fertility 61. Why is it important for adult men to have a regular prostate screening test? a. Death from prostate cancer can be reduced if detected early enough for effective treatment. b. Advanced cancerous growths in the gland cannot often be palpated through the wall of the rectum, and the lab tests will show whether metastatic tumors have started to grow. c. The prostate-specific antigen, or PSA, test will show whether there is a decrease in testosterone, which leads to cancer growth. d. Testing will show that an excess level of citrate found in the prostate fluid is a sign of cancer. ANS: A DIF: Application REF: p. 1046, Box 45-1 TOP: Prostate Cancer Screening (Box 45-1) TRUE/FALSE 1. In both sexes, the essential organs of reproduction are the testes.U ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1037 TOP: Male Reproductive Organs 2. Seminal vesicles convey sperm to the outside of the body. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1037 TOP: Male Reproductive Organs 3. The bulbourethral glands are a supporting structure of the male reproductive system. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1037 TOP: Male Reproductive Organs 4. The perineum in the male extends from the symphysis pubis anteriorly and to the coccyx posteriorly. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1037 TOP: Perineum 5. The penis is classified as an accessory organ of reproduction in the male. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1037 TOP: Male Reproductive Organs 6. The prostate and the testes are essential organs of reproduction in males. ANS: F DIF: MNemoRrizaItionG B.C M REF: p. 1037 TOP: Male Reproductive Organs S N T O 7. The major function of the reproductive system is propagation of the species. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1037 TOP: Introduction 8. The sustentacular cells produce and secrete testosterone. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1037 TOP: Male Reproductive Organs 9. The left testis is generally located about 1 cm lower in the scrotal sac than the right. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1038 TOP: Testes 10. Leydig cells produce both sperm and testosterone. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 1038-1039 TOP: Testes 11. Testosterone has a marked inhibiting effect on protein anabolism. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1041TOP: Testes Functions 12. A high blood concentration of testosterone stimulates the anterior pituitary to secrete both FSH and LH. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1041 TOP: Testes Functions 13. Testosterone is responsible for producing secondary sex characteristics. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1041 TOP: Testes Functions 14. Androgenic hormones are masculinizing hormones. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1041 TOP: Testes Functions 15. The anatomical structure of an epididymis consists of a head, neck, body, and tail. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1043 TOP: Epididymis 16. The acrosomal cap of the sperm contains a hydrolytic enzyme necessary for penetrating the egg. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1043 TOP: Spermatozoa N URSINGTB.COM 17. Sperm consist of a head, middle piece, and tail. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1042 TOP: Spermatozoa 18. In a spermatozoon, a highly compact package of genetic chromatin material is located in the cylindrical middle piece. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1043 TOP: Spermatozoa 19. Capacitation of sperm occurs as they pass through the genital ducts. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1042 TOP: Spermatozoa 20. Each epididymis consists of a single, tightly coiled tube enclosed in a fibrous casing. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1043 TOP: Epididymis 21. A vasectomy involves severing the ejaculatory ducts.ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1044 TOP: Vas Deferens (Ductus Deferens) 22. One function of an epididymis is to serve as a maturation area for sperm. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1043 TOP: Epididymis 23. A vasectomy involves the severing of the epididymis. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1044 TOP: Vas Deferens (Ductus Deferens) 24. The muscular layers of the vas deferens help in propelling sperm through the duct system. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1044 TOP: Vas Deferens (Ductus Deferens) 25. The vas deferens acts as a storage area and a conduction pathway for sperm. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1044 TOP: Vas Deferens (Ductus Deferens) 26. Sperm may remain in the vas deferens for over 3 weeks with no loss of fertility. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1044 TOP: Vas Deferens (Ductus Deferens) 27. The acidity of the female vagNinUalRtSraIctNcGanTinBc.reCasOeMsperm motility. ANS: F DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 1045 TOP: Seminal Vesicles | Bulbourethral Glands 28. Prostate cancer is the most common cancer in American men. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1046, Box 45-1 TOP: Prostate Screening (Box 45-1) 29. An enlargement of the prostate may cause urinary retention. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1045 TOP: Prostate Gland 30. The fructose found in the liquid secreted by the seminal vesicles serves as an energy source for sperm motility after ejaculation. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1045 TOP: Seminal Vesicles 31. The corpus spongiosum of the penis contains the male urethra. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1046 TOP: Penis32. Filling of the erectile tissue in the penis is necessary for coitus to occur. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1046 TOP: Penis 33. The prostate gland is a supportive structure of the male reproductive system. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1037 TOP: Male Reproductive Organs 34. The seminal vesicle secretes about 35% of the semen volume. ANS: F DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 1045 TOP: Seminal Vesicles | Bulbourethral Glands 35. The dartos and cremaster muscles contract in response to both cold temperatures and sexual arousal. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1046 TOP: Scrotum 36. The greatest percentage of seminal fluid volume is secreted in the seminal vesicles. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1047 TOP: Composition and Course of Seminal Fluid 37. In a warm environment, the sNcroRtumIelev GateBs.anCd bMecomes heavily wrinkled, effectively pulling the testes upward towaUrd thSe bNodyTwall. O ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1046 TOP: Scrotum 38. Secretions from the seminal vesicles contribute about 60% of the seminal fluid volume. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1047 TOP: Composition and Course of Seminal Fluid 39. Erection is the result of a sympathetic reflex activity. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1047, Box 45-2 TOP: Neural Control of the Male Sex Act (Box 45-2) 40. Emission and ejaculation refer to the same physiological process. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1047, Box 45-2 TOP: Neural Control of the Male Sex Act (Box 45-2) 41. Most cases of cryptorchidism can be successfully treated with the use of estrogen. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1049 TOP: Disorders of the Testes (Mechanisms of Disease)42. Millions of sperm are required for a man to be considered fertile. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1048 TOP: Male Fertility 43. Emission is always followed by ejaculation. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1047, Box 45-2 TOP: Neural Control of the Male Sex Act (Box 45-2) 44. Leydig cells and Sertoli cells are different names for the same structure. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 1038-1039 TOP: Testes 45. The tight junctions of the blood-testes barrier prevent the autoimmune reaction against sperm cells. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: pp. 1040-1041 TOP: Testes 46. The anterior pituitary gland and the testes is one of the few positive feedback mechanisms in the body. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1042 TOP: Testes 47. Sperm cells are functionally NRUSincomp Ile N teGatTthBe.tiCmOeMof ejaculation. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1042 TOP: Spermatozoa 48. Sperm carry DNA in a structure called the acrosome. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1043 TOP: Spermatozoa 49. The epididymis and seminiferous tubules are about the same length. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1038 | p. 1043 TOP: Testes | Epididymis 50. After about 6 weeks, any unused sperm are broken down by the epididymis. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1043 TOP: Epididymis 51. The ampulla of the vas deferens joins with the duct from the seminal vesicle to form the ejaculatory duct. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1044U S N T O TOP: Vas Deferens (Ductus Deferens) 52. The prostate gland produces about 30% of the seminal fluid volume. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1045 TOP: Prostate Gland 53. The citrate found in prostatic fluid is a nutrient for sperm cells. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1045 TOP: Prostate Gland 54. The perineum is a supporting structure of the male reproductive system. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1037 TOP: Male Reproductive Organs 55. The perineum is an accessory organ of the male reproductive system. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1037 TOP: Male Reproductive Organs 56. The lateral boundaries of the perineum are the ischial tuberosities. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1037 TOP: Male Reproductive Organs 57. A line drawn between the isc NhialRtubIerosGitieBs .diCvideMs the perineum into the larger anal triangle and the smaller urogenital triangle. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1037 TOP: Male Reproductive Organs 58. The urogenital triangle of the perineum contains the penis and scrotum. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1037 TOP: Male Reproductive Organs 59. The testicular blood vessels pass through the spermatic cord. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1038 TOP: Testes 60. Each testis is divided into 50 or 60 cone-shaped lobules. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1038 TOP: Testes 61. Testes are small ovoid glands that measure about 4 to 5 cm in length. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1038 TOP: TestesAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1043 NURSINGTB.COM U S N T O 62. Sertoli cells form tight junctions that divide the wall of the seminiferous tubule into four compartments. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 1039-1040 TOP: Testes 63. The rete testis refers to a group of highly branched blood vessels that serve the interior of the testes. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1038 TOP: Testes 64. The testes have two functions: spermatogenesis and the secretion of hormones. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1041 TOP: Testes Functions 65. Testosterone promotes bone growth and closure of the epiphyses. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1041 TOP: Testes Functions 66. Testosterone plays a part in fluid and electrolyte balance. It stimulates the kidneys to excrete sodium. 67.6 ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1041 TOP: Testes Functions N R I G B.C M A negative feedback mechanism exists between the testes and the hypothalamus in the 7 regulation of testosterone. . ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1042 TOP: Testes Functions 68. The cylindrical middle piece of a sperm provides the sperm with energy for locomotion. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1043 TOP: Spermatozoa 69. The cylindrical middle piece of a sperm contains mitochondria. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1043 TOP: Spermatozoa 70. The tail of a sperm appears to be a typical flagellum. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1043 TOP: Spermatozoa 71. The epididymis is an extension of the tail of the vas deferens.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM TOP: Reproductive Ducts 72. The wall of the vas deferens has two layers of muscle. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1044 TOP: Reproductive Ducts 73. The ampulla is a portion of the epididymis. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1044 TOP: Reproductive Ducts 74. The ampulla is a portion of the vas deferens. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1044 TOP: Reproductive Ducts 75. The ejaculatory ducts pass through the prostate and terminate in the ureter. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1044 TOP: Reproductive Ducts 76. A vasectomy is usually performed by making a small incision at the base of the penis. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1044 TOP: Vas Deferens (Ductus Deferens) 77. A vasectomy is done to inhibNit spRermIprGoduBct.ioCn, wMhich causes sterility. U S N T O ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1044 TOP: Vas Deferens (Ductus Deferens) 78. The PSA test is used to detect testicular cancer before a lump can be felt. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1046, Box 45-1 TOP: Prostate Cancer Screening (Box 45-1) 79. The PSA test is used in the detection of prostate cancer. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1046, Box 45-1 TOP: Prostate Cancer Screening (Box 45-1) 80. The penis is composed of four cylindrical masses of erectile tissue—two corpus cavernosa and two corpus spongiosa. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1046 TOP: Supporting Structures of the Male Reproductive System 81. Functionally, the scrotum is necessary to ensure the testes can be maintained at a slightly higher temperature than normal body temperature. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1046Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM TOP: Supporting Structures of the Male Reproductive System 82. The optimal temperature for the formation of sperm is about 3o C below normal body temperature. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1046 TOP: Scrotum 83. The total contribution of the epididymis and bulbourethral gland to the production of semen is less than 10%. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1047 TOP: Composition and Course of Seminal Fluid 84. Healthy males produce the hormone estrogen. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1042 TOP: Testes Functions 85. Most of the estrogen found in males is made in the interstitial cells of the testes. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1042 TOP: Testes Functions 86. Most of the estrogen found in males is probably made in the liver or other tissues. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1042 TOP: Testes Functions N URSINGTB.COM 87. A high sperm count is necessary for fertilization because the outer layer of the ovum needs to be digested and requires more than one sperm. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1043 TOP: Spermatozoa 88. One type of infertility occurs when a female makes an antibody against her partner’s sperm cells. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1048 TOP: Male Fertility 89. The sperm surface antigen, FA-1, can trigger antibody production in the male, which results in infertility. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1048 TOP: Male Fertility 90. The terms infertility and sterility have different functional meanings. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1049 TOP: Disorders of the Male Reproductive System (Mechanisms of Disease)Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 91. The usual treatment for phimosis is circumcision. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1050 TOP: Disorders of the Male Reproductive System (Mechanisms of Disease) 92. Impotence is caused by a reduction in the production of sperm cells. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1050 TOP: Disorders of the Male Reproductive System (Mechanisms of Disease) 93. In a vasectomy, the vas afferens is cut so the sperm cannot reach the ejaculatory duct. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1044 TOP: Vas Deferens (Ductus Deferens) 94. Most of the head of the sperm is made up of the sperm nucleus, which is released into the ovum during fertilization. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1043 TOP: Spermatozoa 95. Each testis is encased by a white fibrous capsule called the tunica albuginea. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1038 TOP: Testes Structure and Location 96. Interstitial cells are also called Sertoli cells. ANS: F DIF: M NRUemori SzaItioNnGTB.COM TOP: Microscopic Anatomy of the Testes REF: p. 1038 97. Reinke crystalloids are a unique cellular feature of Leydig cells that appear after puberty. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1039 TOP: Microscopic Anatomy of the Testes 98. Androgen-binding protein is a substance produced by the Sertoli cells that increases the concentration of testosterone in the seminiferous tubules. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1040 TOP: Microscopic Anatomy of the Testes 99. One function of testosterone is to stimulate the kidney tubules to excrete potassium. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1041 TOP: Testes Functions 100. In both males and females, the essential organs of reproduction are called gonads. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1037 TOP: Male Reproductive OrgansAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM U S N T 101. One important difference between asexual and sexual reproduction is that in asexual reproduction the offspring have more variation. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1037 TOP: Sexual Reproduction 102. One important difference between asexual and sexual reproduction is that in asexual reproduction there is one parent and in sexual reproduction there are two parents. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1037 TOP: Sexual Reproduction 103. The gonads of both males and females produce gametes. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1037 TOP: Male Reproductive Organs 104. The rete testis is drained by the efferent ductules into the vas deferens. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1038 TOP: Testes 105. Nurse cells, Sertoli cells, and sustentacular cells are different names for the same cells. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1039 TOP: Microscopic Anatomy of the Testes 106. Sustentacular cells produce tN he hRormIoneGinhBib.inCthaMt inhibits FSH secretions, which reduces sperm production. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1040 TOP: Microscopic Anatomy of the Testes 107. If the anabolic steroid testosterone is taken at a young age, the epiphyses of the bones will continue to grow and the person will grow taller. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1041 TOP: Testes Functions 108. One reason androgen-binding protein is needed to make testosterone more water soluble is that testosterone is a lipid and is not very soluble in water. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: pp. 1040-1041 TOP: Microscopic Anatomy of the Testes | Testes Functions 109. The urethra passes through an opening in the prostate gland. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1045 TOP: Prostate Gland 110. Another term for the Cowper glands is the seminal vesicle.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM ANS: T U S N T O ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1045 TOP: Bulbourethral Glands 111. The tunica vaginalis is a serous membrane that surrounds the testes. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1046 TOP: Scrotum 112. Sexual maturity and the ability to reproduce occur at puberty. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1037 TOP: Sexual Reproduction 113. When the nucleus of the sperm unites with the nucleus of the egg, the nucleus of a new offspring cell is formed. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1043 TOP: Spermatozoa 114. Progesterone and other molecules released by cells surrounding the ovum suppress the motility of sperm so that they stay in the area of the egg. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1043 TOP: Spermatozoa 115. The bulbourethral glands are about the size and shape of a pea with a duct about 1 inch long connecting them to the urethra. N R I G B.C M DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1045 TOP: Bulbourethral Glands 116. The distal part of the corpus spongiosum overlaps the terminal end of the two corpora cavernosa to form a slightly bulging structure called the prepuce. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1046 TOP: Penis MATCHING Match each of the terms with its corresponding definition. a. Semen b. Androgen c. Testes d. Prostate e. Gamete f. Testosterone g. Gonads h. Spermatogenesis i. Bulbourethral j. Spermatozoon k. Vas deferensAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM l. Seminal vesicles m. Sustentacular cells n. Epididymis o. Penis p. Scrotum q. Genitalia r. Corpus cavernosum 1. Tightly coiled tube in which sperm mature and develop the ability to swim; lies along the top and behind the testes 2. Male sex hormone produced by interstitial cells in the testes 3. Gland located below the bladder 4. Elongated cells to which spermatids become attached 5. Sex glands in which gametes are formed 6. Another name for Cowper gland 7. Male gonads 8. Male organ of copulation 9. General term for the masculinizing hormone 10. Pouchlike sac containing the testes 11. The male reproductive cell or gamete 12. External reproductive organs 13. Production of sperm cells 14. Sex cell 15. Male reproductive fluid 16. Duct connecting the epididymis and the ejaculatory duct 17. Paired glands that contributeNaUflRuiSdIricNhGinTfBru.cCtoOseMto seminal fluid 18. One of the masses of erectile tissue in the penis 1. ANS: TOP: N Epididymis DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1043 2. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1041 TOP: Testes Functions 3. ANS: TOP: D DIF: Prostate Gland Memorization REF: p. 1045 4. ANS: M DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 1039-1040 TOP: Microscopic Anatomy of the Testes 5. ANS: TOP: G DIF: Memorization Male Reproductive Organs REF: p. 1037 6. ANS: TOP: I DIF: Memorization Bulbourethral Glands REF: p. 1045 7. ANS: TOP: C DIF: Memorization Male Reproductive Organs REF: p. 1037 8. ANS: TOP: O DIF: Memorization Penis REF: p. 1046 9. ANS: TOP: B DIF: Memorization Male Reproductive System REF: p. 1041 10. ANS: TOP: P DIF: Memorization Scrotum REF: p. 1046 11. ANS: J DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1042Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM N R I G B.C TOP: Spermatozoa 12. ANS: TOP: Q Penis DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1047 13. ANS: H DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1041 TOP: Testes Functions 14. ANS: E DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1037 TOP: Male Reproductive Organs 15. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1043 TOP: Epididymis 16. ANS: K DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1037 TOP: Male Reproductive Organs 17. ANS: L DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1045 TOP: Seminal Vesicles 18. ANS: R DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1046 TOP: Penis OTHER 1. Describe the functions of the testes. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 1041-1042 TOP: Testes Functions 2. Explain the negative feedback mechanism that controls the anterior pituitary gland secretion of LH and the interstitial cell sU ecreStionNofTtestosteOrone. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: pp. 1041-1042 TOP: Testes Functions 3. Describe the structure of spermatozoa and give the function of each part. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: pp. 1042-1043 TOP: Spermatozoa 4. Define the term vasectomy. What does this procedure accomplish? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1044 TOP: Vas Deferens (Ductus Deferens) 5. Describe methods used to detect prostate cancer. Why is it important for adult men to have regular prostate examinations?Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: p. 1046, Box 45-1 TOP: Prostate Cancer Screening (Box 45-1) 6. Explain structure and the function of the scrotum. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1046 TOP: Scrotum 7. Define the terms erection, emission, and ejaculation. Include in each definition the neural control involved. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1047, Box 45-2 TOP: Neural Control of the Male Sexual Response (Box 45-2) 8. Explain why millions of sperm must be released for fertilization to occur even though usually only one sperm fertilizes an ovum. ANS: Answers will vary. N URSINGTB.COM DIF: Application REF: p. 1048 TOP: Male Fertility 9. Explain what is meant by “immune infertility.” ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: p. 1048 TOP: Male Fertility 10. What is cryptorchidism? Explain the potential effect of it when not corrected. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: p. 1049 TOP: Disorders of the Testes (Mechanisms of Disease) 11. Describe the macroscopic and microscopic structure and location of the testes. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1038 TOP: Testes Structure and LocationAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM U S N T 12. Describe the structure and function of the sustentacular cells. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 1039-1040 TOP: Microscopic Anatomy of the Testes 13. List and describe the reproductive ducts of the male reproductive system. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 1043-1044 TOP: Reproductive Ducts 14. Name and describe the accessory reproductive glands in the male reproductive system, and explain what each secretes. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1045 TOP: Accessory Reproductive Glands 15. Explain the difference between sexual and asexual reproduction. What effect does this have on the offspring and what adNvantRageIdoeGs seBx.uaCl reMproduction have in regard to survival of the offspring? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1037 TOP: Sexual Reproduction 16. Name and give the function of the hormones that regulate the male reproductive system. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 1041-1042 TOP: Testes Functions ESSAY 1. When baby Steven was born, the pediatrician discovered that Steven’s left testicle had not descended into the scrotum. If the situation is not corrected soon, might the baby be sterile or impotent, and why or why not? ANS: Answers will vary.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM DIF: Application REF: p. 1049 TOP: Disorders of the Testes (Mechanisms of Disease) 2. Jack went to his physician to request a vasectomy. His physician asked him to consider this decision very carefully and explained to Jack that this operation was very difficult to reverse. List the anatomical structures that form the pathway that sperm and seminal fluid follow from the seminal tubules to the external urethral orifice. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 1044 TOP: Vas Deferens (Ductus Deferens) NURSINGTB.COMAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM Chapter 46: Female Reproductive System Patton: Anatomy and Physiology, 10th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following is not an accessory sex organ of the female reproductive system? a. Ovary b. Vagina c. Fallopian tube d. Mammary glands ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 1055-1066 TOP: Overview of the Female Reproductive System 2. The tube connecting the ovaries to the uterus is called the: a. uterine tubes. b. oviducts. c. fallopian tubes. d. All of the above are correct. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1061 TOP: Uterine Tubes 3. Which of the following structures is not classified as internal genitals of the female reproductive system? a. Ovaries b. Uterine tubes c. Vagina d. Vulva NURSINGTB.COM ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1056 TOP: Overview of the Female Reproductive System 4. The fundus of the uterus is the: a. lower, narrow section. b. area above where the tubes enter. c. central portion. d. opening into the uterus. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1059 TOP: Structure of the Uterus 5. The layer of the uterus from which tissue is sloughed during menstruation is the: a. endometrium. b. myometrium. c. parietal peritoneum. d. visceral peritoneum. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1060 TOP: Structure of the UterusAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 6. The layer that is incomplete because it covers none of the cervix and only part of the body is called the: a. parietal peritoneum. b. myometrium. c. endometrium. d. symphysis pubis. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1060 TOP: Structure of the Uterus 7. Which of the following is not a division of the uterine tubes (fallopian tubes)? a. Isthmus b. Fundus c. Ampulla d. Infundibulum ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 1061-1062 TOP: Structure of the Uterine Tubes 8. The process of egg formation is called: a. ovulation. b. oogenesis. c. fertilization. d. germination. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1059 TOP: Microscopic Structure of the Ovaries 9. The uterus is suspended betwNeU enRtwSoIfNoGldTs oBf.pCarOieMtal peritoneum that form a partition across the pelvic cavity. These ligaments are ligaments. a. round b. uterosacral c. anterior and posterior d. broad ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1060 TOP: Position of the Uterus 10. Which of the following uterine ligaments form a deep pouch known as the posterior cul-de-sac of Douglas? a. Broad b. Uterosacral c. Posterior d. Anterior ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1060 TOP: Position of the Uterus 11. The region between the vaginal orifice and the anus is called the: a. mons pubic. b. labia majora. c. labia minora.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM d. perineum. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1056 TOP: Perineum 12. Which of the following is not true concerning the uterus? a. It produces estrogen. b. It sloughs compact and spongy layers of lining tissue. c. It is the site for embryo implantation. d. Uterine muscle contraction expels the infant. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1061 TOP: Functions of the Uterus 13. The funnel-shaped, open-ended portion of the oviduct is called the: a. isthmus. b. ampulla. c. infundibulum. d. fimbriae. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1062 TOP: Structure of the Uterine Tubes 14. Fertilization of an ovum most often occurs in the: a. ovary. b. fallopian tube. c. uterus. d. vagina. NURSINGTB.COM ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1062 TOP: Functions of the Uterine Tubes 15. Each of the following structures is a part of the vulva except the: a. mons pubis. b. labia majora. c. perineum. d. clitoris. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 1063-1064 TOP: Structure of the Vulva 16. The greater vestibular glands are also called _ glands. a. Bartholin b. Cowper c. Skene d. Huntington ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1064 TOP: Structure of the Vulva 17. The urethral orifice is to the vagina opening. a. posterior b. anteriorAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM c. medial d. lateral ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1064 TOP: Structure of the Vulva 18. Salpingitis is inflammation of the: a. ovaries. b. fallopian tubes. c. uterus. d. vagina. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1061 TOP: Structure of the Uterine Tubes 19. The division of the uterine tube that has an outer margin that resembles a fringe is called the: a. isthmus. b. ampulla. c. infundibulum. d. oviduct. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1062 TOP: Structure of the Uterine Tubes 20. The final stage in the process of ovarian follicle development is the: a. corpus hemorrhagicum. b. corpus luteum. c. corpus albicans. d. mature follicle. NURSINGTB.COM ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1058 TOP: Microscopic Structure of the Ovaries 21. Which of the following is not true of the vagina? a. It can act as a receptacle for seminal fluid from the male. b. It serves as the lower part of the birth canal. c. It is a passageway for urine. d. It acts as an excretory duct for uterine secretions. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1063 TOP: Functions of the Vagina 22. The part of the vulva that is composed of erectile tissue and is located just behind the junction of the labia minora is called the: a. mons pubis. b. clitoris. c. urinary meatus. d. labia majora. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1064 TOP: Structure of the VulvaAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 23. Which of the following hormones causes ejection of milk into the mammary ducts, making it accessible for the infant? a. Progesterone b. Oxytocin c. Prolactin d. Estrogen ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1075 TOP: Functions of the Breasts 24. The hormone that causes the alveoli of the mammary glands to secrete milk is: a. estrogen. b. oxytocin. c. prolactin. d. estrogen. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1075 TOP: Functions of the Breasts 25. During a 28-day menstrual cycle, ovulation would be most likely to occur on day of the cycle. a. 3 b. 8 c. 14 d. 21 ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1067 TOP: Recurring Cycles N URSINGTB.COM 26. The follicular phase of the menstrual cycle is the same as the: a. ovulatory phase. b. menstrual period. c. postmenstrual phase. d. postovulatory phase. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1066 TOP: Recurring Cycles 27. The phase of the menstrual cycle that occurs between the expulsion of the ovum from the ovary and the onset of menses is the phase. a. proliferative b. follicular c. luteal d. estrogenic ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1067 TOP: Recurring Cycles 28. The hormone that causes the follicle to rupture and the egg to be expelled is: a. luteinizing hormone (LH). b. follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH). c. estrogen.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM N R d. progesterone. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1067 TOP: Control of the Female Reproductive Cycle 29. The postmenstrual phase of the menstrual cycle is also called: a. menses. b. the follicular phase. c. the preovulatory phase. d. the luteal phase. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1066 TOP: Recurring Cycles 30. Which of the following is not a synonym for the premenstrual phase? a. Postovulatory phase b. Luteal phase c. Secretory phase d. Estrogen phase ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1067 TOP: Recurring Cycles 31. What is the name of the so-called ovulating hormone? a. Estrogen b. Progesterone c. Luteinizing hormone d. Follicle-stimulating hormone I G B.C M ANS: C DIF: MemUoriSzatioNn T O REF: p. 1068 TOP: Control of the Female Reproductive Cycle 32. Shortly before menstruation: a. blood levels of estrogen and progesterone decrease. b. blood levels of estrogen and progesterone increase. c. blood levels of FSH stabilize. d. the corpus luteum secretes progesterone. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1068 TOP: Control of the Female Reproductive Cycle 33. The average age at which menopause occurs is years. a. 40 b. 60 to 65 c. 45 to 50 d. 55 ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1072 TOP: Menarche and Menopause 34. A high blood concentration of estrogens: a. stimulates endometrial glands to secrete. b. stimulates epithelial cells of the endometrium to proliferate.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM c. stimulates FSH secretion by the anterior pituitary. d. causes development of the corpus luteum. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1068 TOP: Control of the Female Reproductive Cycle 35. The increase in blood estrogens during the postmenstrual phase of the menstrual cycle produces all of the following changes in the uterus except: a. growth of both the endometrial glands and the spiral arteries of the endometrium. b. decreased myometrial contractions. c. proliferation of endometrial cells producing a thickening of the endometrium. d. All of the above occur because of the increase in estrogen. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 1068-1069 TOP: Control of the Female Reproductive Cycle 36. During the postovulatory phase of the cycle, the greatest percentage of progesterone is produced by the: a. corpus albicans. b. corpus luteum. c. primary graafian follicle. d. uterus. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1067 TOP: Endometrial or Menstrual Cycle 37. The female reproductive system differs from the male reproductive system in that it: a. produces gametes. N R I G B.C M b. provides protection for theUdevSelopNingToffspriOng. c. provides nutrition to the developing offspring. d. does both B and C. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1055 TOP: Overview of the Female Reproductive System 38. Which of the following is not part of the primary egg follicle? a. Germinal epithelium b. Oocyte c. Follicular cells d. All of the above are part of the primary egg follicle. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1058 TOP: Microscopic Structure of the Ovaries 39. Which of the following does not contribute to the increase in the thickness of the endometrium during the endometrial cycle? a. Growth of the endometrium b. Fluid retention in the endometrium c. Endometrial gland growth d. All of the above contribute to the increase in the thickness of the endometrium during the endometrial cycle. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1066Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM N R I G TOP: Recurring Cycles 40. Which of the following organs is not considered part of the “duct system” of the female reproductive system? a. Vagina b. Uterine tubes c. Uterus d. All of the above are considered part of the “duct system.” ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1055 TOP: Overview of the Female Reproductive System 41. Which of the following structures is not in the urogenital triangle of the perineum? a. Anus b. Labia c. Vaginal orifice d. Urinary opening ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1056 TOP: Perineum 42. Which of the following is not true of the ovaries? a. They are located on either side of the uterus. b. They are attached to the mesovarial ligament. c. They are attached to the uterine ducts. d. All of the above statements are true of the ovaries. ANS: C DIF: Memorization B.C M REF: p. 1057 TOP: Location of the Ovaries U S N T O 43. Which of the following structures is not involved with the development of the ova in the ovary? a. Corpus albicans b. Follicular cells c. Zona pellucida d. All of the above structures are involved in the development of the egg cell. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1059 TOP: Ovaries 44. Which of the following functions is not usually associated with the uterus? a. Menstruation b. Fertilization c. Gestation d. All of the above functions are associated with the uterus. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1061 TOP: Functions of the Uterus 45. Going from the ovary to the uterus, the sequence of the divisions of the uterine tubes is: a. isthmus, ampulla, fimbriae, and infundibulum. b. ampulla, isthmus, infundibulum, and fimbriae. c. fimbriae, infundibulum, ampulla and isthmus.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM U S N T O d. fimbriae, ampulla, isthmus, and infundibulum. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 1061-1062 TOP: Structure of the Uterine Tubes 46. Which of the following glands is not part of the vulva? a. The greater vestibular glands b. Skene glands c. Bartholin glands d. All of the above glands are part of the vulva. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 1064-1065 TOP: Structure of the Vulva 47. Which of the following statements is not true about the mechanism controlling lactation? a. The anterior pituitary secretes prolactin. b. The posterior pituitary secretes oxytocin. c. Prolactin stimulates the ejection of milk into the ducts of the mammary glands. d. All of the above statements are true about the mechanism controlling lactation. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 1074-1075 TOP: Mechanisms Controlling Lactation 48. Which of the following is the least predictable method of determining ovulation time? a. The measurement of LH in the urine b. The length of previous cycles c. The change in basal body temperature d. All of the above methods aN re RequIallyGaccBu.raCte inMdetermining ovulation time. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1066 TOP: Fertility Signs Used in Predicting Ovulation (Box 46-5) 49. An episiotomy is an incision made: a. through the body of the uterus. b. through the cervix of the uterus. c. in the perineum. d. None of the above correctly describes an episiotomy. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1057 TOP: Perineum 50. An ectopic pregnancy can occur in the: a. uterus. b. pelvic cavity. c. uterine tubes. d. Either B or C are correct. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 1057-1058 TOP: Location of the Ovaries 51. Which of the following is not found in the medulla of the ovary? a. Lymphatics b. Ovarian folliclesAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM c. Blood vessels d. All of the above are found in the medulla of the ovary. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1058 TOP: Microscopic Structure of the Ovaries 52. Which of the following is not a function of the ovary? a. It produces estrogen. b. It produces ova. c. It produces follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH). d. All of the above are functions of the ovary. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1059 TOP: Functions of the Ovaries 53. Which of the following is not a layer of the endometrium of the uterus? a. Stratum myometrium b. Stratum compactum c. Stratum spongiosum d. Stratum basale ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1060 TOP: Walls of the Uterus 54. The inner most layer of the wall of the uterus is the stratum: a. myometrium. b. compactum. c. spongiosum. d. basale. NURSINGTB.COM ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1060 TOP: Walls of the Uterus 55. Which part of the uterus opens into the vagina? a. Fundus b. Cervical canal c. External os d. Internal os ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1061 TOP: Cavities of the Uterus 56. Which of the following ligaments does not assist in holding the ovaries in place? a. Broad b. Mesovarian c. Ovarian d. Round ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1057 TOP: Location of the Ovaries 57. The medulla of the ovary contains: a. theca cellsAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM b. granulosa cells c. blood vessels and lymphatics d. both A and B. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1058 TOP: Microscopic Structure of the Ovaries 58. Which of the following ligaments that support the uterus is a single ligament? a. Broad b. Posterior c. Round d. Uterosacral ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1060 TOP: Position of the Uterus 59. At puberty, the reproductive hormones stimulate the organs of the reproductive tract. Which statement best describes what happens to the ovaries at this time? a. The ovaries become functional and produce mature ova one at a time. b. The mature follicles will stop developing, and luteinizing hormone (LH) levels required to initiate ovulation do not occur. c. Supraovulation will occur to increase chances of pregnancy. d. The ovaries begin a process of involution that results in a decrease in size and position deep in the pelvis. ANS: A DIF: Application REF: p. 1066 TOP: Female Reproductive System (Ovarian Cycle) 60. What are the factors that expNlaUinRwShIy Na GwoTmBa.nCisOfeMrtile only a few days out of each monthly cycle? a. (1) Sperm usually cannot survive in the female reproductive tract for more than a few days, (2) an ovum must unite with a sperm during the first 24 hours after ovulation, before it reaches the uterus, so it will be ready for implantation, and (3) the cyclical mechanisms of female reproductive function limit the release of ova. b. (1) Sperm usually cannot survive in the female reproductive tract for more than 24 hours, (2) an ovum must unite with a sperm within the first 12 hours after ovulation, before it reaches the uterus, so it will be ready for implantation, and (3) the cyclical mechanisms of female reproductive function limit the release of ova. c. (1) Sperm usually cannot survive in the female reproductive tract for more than a few days, (2) an ovum must unite with a sperm within 12 hours after ovulation, before it reaches the uterus, so it will be ready for implantation, and (3) the cyclical mechanisms of female reproductive function limit the release of ova. d. (1) Sperm usually cannot survive in the female reproductive tract for more than 12 hours, (2) an ovum must unite with a sperm immediately after ovulation, before it reaches the uterus, so it will be ready for implantation, and (3) the cyclical mechanisms of female reproductive function limit the release of ova. ANS: A DIF: Application REF: p. 1070 TOP: Importance of Female Reproductive Cycles 61. Why might salpingitis cause infertility? a. The ovaries will not produce an ovum.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM U S N T O b. It can cause obstruction of the lumen and marked dilation at the end of the uterine tube, preventing the ovum from entering the uterine tube. c. The uterus is prevented from forming a protective sac for the ovum. d. It causes a decrease in lactate dehydrogenase (LDH), which is needed to release the ovum from the ovaries. ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 1061 TOP: Wall of the Uterine Tubes 62. It is not uncommon for at least some fibers of the levator ani to become stretched or damaged in women who have experienced vaginal delivery of a full-term infant. What are the possible results of this damage? a. Urinary or fecal incontinence, dysmenorrhea, or salpingitis b. Prolapse of the uterus into the vagina, rectal prolapse through the anus, or hydrosalpinx c. Prolapse of the uterus into the vagina, rectal prolapse through the anus, or salpingitis d. Urinary or fecal incontinence, prolapse of the uterus into the vagina, or rectal prolapse through the anus ANS: D DIF: Application REF: p. 1063 TOP: Location of the Vagina TRUE/FALSE 1. Mammary glands are considered accessory organs of the female reproductive system. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1056 TOP: Overview of the Female RN epRrodu IctivGe Sy Bs.temC M 2. The mammary glands are essential organs of reproduction in women. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1056 TOP: Overview of the Female Reproductive System 3. Retroflexion, or backward flexion, is the normal position of the uterus. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1059 TOP: Position of the Uterus 4. A prolapsed uterus results from weakening of the supporting ligaments of the uterus, which permits retroflexion (backward tilt) and descent of the uterus into the vagina. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1060 TOP: Position of the Uterus 5. The fringelike projections, called fimbriae, are located in the ampulla of the uterine tubes. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1062 TOP: Structure of the Uterine Tubes 6. The wide upper portion of the uterus is called the cervix. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1059Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM TOP: Structure of the Uterus 7. The external os opens into the vagina. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1061 TOP: Structure of the Uterus 8. The posterior ligament forms a deep pouch known as the perineal body. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1060 TOP: Position of the Uterus 9. The uterine tubes are extensions of the uterus that communicate with the vagina and vulva. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1061 TOP: Uterine Tubes 10. The ovaries are also endocrine organs. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1059 TOP: Functions of the Ovaries 11. The vagina is a tubular organ situated anterior to the urethra and bladder and posterior to the rectum. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1062 TOP: Location of the Vagina 12. The ovaries are attached to thNeUoRviSduIctNs.GTB.COM ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1057 TOP: Location of the Ovaries 13. Ova are produced in the germinal epithelial layer of the ovary. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1058 TOP: Microscopic Structure of the Ovaries 14. After the oocyte is released from the ovary, it is known as an ovum. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1059 TOP: Microscopic Structure of the Ovaries 15. The “G spot” is synonymous with the clitoris in the female. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1063, Box 46-3 TOP: The “G Spot” (Box 46-3) 16. The vagina is composed mainly of skeletal muscle. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1063 TOP: Structure of the VaginaAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 17. The mons pubis is a skin-covered pad of fat over the symphysis pubis. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1063 TOP: Structure of the Vulva 18. The greater vestibular glands in the female are homologous to the bulbourethral glands in the male. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1065 TOP: Structure of the Vulva 19. Bartholin gland is homologous to the bulbourethral gland in the male. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1065 TOP: Structure of the Vulva 20. The clitoris is homologous to the corpora cavernosa and the glans of the penis in the male. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1064 TOP: Structure of the Vulva 21. In light-skinned women, the areola and nipple of the breasts change color from pale pink to brown early in pregnancy. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1074 TOP: Structure of the Breasts 22. The mammary glands producNe theRU hS ormIN oneGT Bs p.rCog OesMterone and prolactin. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 1074-1075 TOP: Functions of the Breasts 23. Human milk provides infants with immunity to all diseases. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1076 TOP: Functions of the Breasts 24. Breast size basically determines the functional ability of the breast. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1074 TOP: Location and Size of the Breasts 25. As part of the mechanisms that control lactation, estrogen acts on the progesterone-primed breasts to promote completion of the development of the ducts and development of the alveoli. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1074 TOP: Functions of the Breasts 26. The main hormone produced by the growing primary follicle is progesterone. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1067Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM TOP: Recurring Cycles 27. During the postmenstrual phase of the menstrual cycle, the blood level of estrogen is high because of the secretion from the developing follicle. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1066 TOP: Recurring Cycles 28. The corpus luteum secretes mostly estrogen. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1068 TOP: Control of the Female Reproductive Cycle 29. The postmenstrual phase is also called the proliferative phase. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1066 TOP: Recurring Cycles 30. The anterior pituitary gland secretes estrogen. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1068 TOP: Control of the Female Reproductive Cycle 31. The placenta functions as the site of exchange of materials between mother and offspring. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1061 TOP: Functions of the Uterus 32. A woman is fertile throughouNtUheRrSmIenNsGtruTaBl c.yCclOe.M ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1067 TOP: Recurring Cycles 33. Climacteric is another name for menarche. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1072 TOP: Menarche and Menopause 34. The ruptured primary follicle becomes the corpus luteum. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1066 TOP: Recurring Cycles 35. FSH stimulates the rupturing of the mature follicle and the expulsion of its ovum. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1068 TOP: Control of the Female Reproductive Cycle 36. As part of the cyclical changes occurring in the uterus, both estrogen and progesterone cause an increase in myometrial contractions. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 1068-1069Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM TOP: Control of the Female Reproductive Cycle 37. Birth control pills prevent pregnancy by preventing implantation of the fertilized ovum. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1070, Box 46-6 TOP: Methods of Contraception (Box 46-6) 38. After menopause, the follicular cells are extremely sensitive to the increased gonadotropin levels. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1072 TOP: Menarche and Menopause 39. For reproduction to occur successfully, two systems involving two different individuals must function properly. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 1055 TOP: Introduction 40. The female reproductive system can provide nutrition for the offspring even after birth. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1056 | p. 1074 TOP: Overview of the Female Reproductive System | Functions of the Breasts 41. The ovaries resemble almonds in size and shape and are located behind the uterus and above the uterine tubes. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1057 TOP: Location of the OvariesN URSINGTB.COM 42. The lack of attachment between the uterine tubes and the ovaries makes it possible for an ectopic pregnancy to occur in the pelvic cavity. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 1057-1058 TOP: Location of the Ovaries 43. The antrum is the shell-like covering surrounding the developing oocyte. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1058 TOP: Microscopic Structure of the Ovaries 44. Ovulation is the event that ends the process of oogenesis. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1059 TOP: Functions of the Ovaries 45. The fundus of the uterus is part of the body of the uterus. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1059 TOP: Structure of the Uterus 46. The uterine tubes enter the uterus at the top of the fundus.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1059 TOP: Structure of the Uterus 47. The stratum compactum attaches the endometrium to the myometrium. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1060 TOP: Structure of the Uterus 48. The endometrium is about 10 times thicker near the end of the endometrial cycle than just after the menstrual flow. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1060 TOP: Structure of the Uterus 49. The cervical canal is between the external os and the vagina. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1061 TOP: Structure of the Uterus 50. The uterus is held in the normal position by four pairs of uterine ligaments. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1060 TOP: Position of the Uterus 51. Womb is another name for the uterus. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1061 TOP: Functions of the UterusN URSINGTB.COM 52. The time it takes for a fertilized egg to develop in the uterus is called gestation. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1061 TOP: Functions of the Uterus 53. Another name for the uterine tubes is the fallopian tubes. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1061 TOP: Uterine Tubes 54. The uterine tubes have the same three tissue layers as the uterus. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1061 TOP: Structure of the Uterine Tubes 55. Each breast has 5 to 10 lactiferous ducts. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1074 TOP: Structure of the Breasts 56. Climacteric is another name for menopause. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1065 TOP: Recurring CyclesAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM U S N T O 57. The meiotic division differs from the mitotic division in that in the mitotic division, the number of chromosomes is reduced by half. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1065 TOP: Ovarian Cycle 58. Most of the increase in thickness of the endometrium after ovulation occurs as a result of fluid retention. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1066 TOP: Recurring Cycles 59. A function of the female reproductive system is to ensure the continued existence of the genetic code. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1055 TOP: Functions of the Female Reproductive System 60. Organs can be classified as essential or accessory reproductive organs depending on how directly they are involved with producing offspring. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1055 TOP: Overview of the Female Reproductive System 61. A line drawn between the two ischial tuberosities divides the perineum into a urogenital and anal triangle. ANS: T TOP: Perineum N R I G B.C M DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1056 62. The perineum has great clinical importance because of the danger of it being torn during childbirth. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1057 TOP: Perineum 63. An episiotomy is routinely done to prevent damage to the perineum during childbirth. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1057 TOP: Perineum 64. The development of the fetus in a location other than the uterus is called an ectopic pregnancy. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 1057-1058 TOP: Location of the Ovaries 65. The ovarian follicles are located in the layer of connective tissue in the ovaries called the tunica albuginea. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1058Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM TOP: Microscopic Structure of the Ovaries 66. The ovaries are similar to the testes in that they produce both reproductive cells and hormones. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1059 TOP: Functions of the Ovaries 67. The endometrium is attached to the myometrium by the stratum compactum. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1060 TOP: Structure of the Uterus 68. The myometrium is thickest at the cervix and thinnest at the fundus. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1060 TOP: Structure of the Uterus 69. The visceral peritoneum is incomplete because it covers the entire cervix but only part of the body of the uterus. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1060 TOP: Structure of the Uterus 70. The internal os is formed by the opening of the uterine tubes into the uterus. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1061 TOP: Structure of the Uterus N URSINGTB.COM 71. The cervical canal is bordered by the internal os above and the external os below. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1061 TOP: Structure of the Uterus 72. “Uterine milk” is produced by the placenta while it is in the uterus. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1061 TOP: Functions of the Uterus 73. The sloughing of the myometrial layer of the uterus occurs about once every 28 days. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 1060-1061 TOP: Structure of the Uterus | Functions of the Uterus 74. Salpingitis may readily spread to become peritonitis. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1061 TOP: Structure of the Uterine Tubes 75. Tubal ligation can be used to improve fertility. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1062, Box 46-2Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM U S N T O TOP: Tubal Ligations (Box 46-2) 76. The hymen is a fold of mucous membrane that forms a border around the opening of the cervix. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1063 TOP: Structure of the Vagina 77. An imperforate hymen may prevent the escape of menstrual flow from the body. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1063 TOP: Structure of the Vagina 78. Although the clitoris is in some ways homologous to the penis, no structure in the vulva is homologous to the scrotum. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1064 TOP: Structure of the Vulva 79. Both estrogen and progesterone stimulate the growth of the ducts of the mammary glands. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1074 TOP: Location and Size of the Breasts 80. The process of lactation is an example of hormonal permissiveness because estrogen permits progesterone to have its full effect. ANS: T DIF: MNemoRrizaItionG B.C M TOP: Functions of the Breasts 81. Milk production begins shortly after the beginning of labor. REF: p. 1074 ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1075 TOP: Functions of the Breasts 82. In the female, meiotic division of the egg cell begins before birth and is not completed until fertilization. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1065 TOP: Recurring Cycles 83. The corpus albicans gradually diminishes until it becomes the corpus luteum. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1066 TOP: Recurring Cycles 84. After ovulation, the endometrium grows another 2 to 3 mm because of rapid cell proliferation. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1066 TOP: Recurring Cycles 85. The estrogenic phase follows ovulation.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1067 NURSINGTB.COM U S N T O TOP: Recurring Cycles 86. The luteal phase follows ovulation. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1067 TOP: Recurring Cycles 87. The low body fat in some female athletes may cause amenorrhea. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1077, Box 46-7 TOP: The Sports Triad in Elite Female Athletes (Box 46-7) 88. Long-term amenorrhea may be linked to the development of osteoporosis. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1077, Box 46-7 TOP: The Sports Triad in Elite Female Athletes (Box 46-7) 89. The myometrium contracts mildly but frequently after ovulation. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1067 TOP: Myometrial Cycle 90. One effect of estrogen is increase of myometrial contractions. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1069 TOP: Control of the Female R NeproRducItiveGCycBle.C M 91. One effect of progesterone is increase of myometrial contractions. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1069 TOP: Control of the Female Reproductive Cycle 92. Hormonal methods of contraception work by using the negative feedback system that controls the female reproductive cycle. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1070, Box 46-6 TOP: Methods of Contraception (Box 46-6) 93. The hormones in the contraceptive pills and implants can have widespread side effects on systems other than the reproductive system. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1070, Box 46-6 TOP: Methods of Contraception (Box 46-6) 94. The average age of both menarche and menopause has decreased in recent years. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1072 TOP: Menarche and Menopause 95. After menopause, the production of estrogen and gonadotropin drop off drastically.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1072 NURSINGTB.COM U S N T TOP: Menarche and Menopause 96. Like many other organs in the body, the ovaries consist of two major layers of tissue—the cortex and the medulla. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1058 TOP: Microscopic Structure of the Ovaries 97. Another name for the primary follicle is the graafian follicle. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1058 TOP: Microscopic Structure of the Ovaries 98. The granulose cells secrete the zona pellucida, which is a clear, gel-like shell that surrounds the oocyte. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1059 TOP: Microscopic Structure of the Ovaries 99. The peristalsis of the muscle layer in the uterine tube moves the ovum from the ovary to the uterus. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1062 TOP: Histology of the Uterine Tubes 100. Besides the nutritional and imNmuRnityIadGvanB tag.eCs ofMnursing, nursing may enhance the emotional bond between mother and child. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1076 TOP: The Importance of Lactation 101. Failure to conceive after 1 year of regular unprotected intercourse is the definition of sterility. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1072 TOP: Infertility 102. The ultimate effect of the fertility drug Clomid is to cause the pituitary to release FSH and LH. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1072 TOP: Infertility 103. The gonads of the female are the ovaries. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1055 TOP: Overview of the Female Reproductive System 104. The accessory organs of the female reproductive system include the uterine tubes, uterus, vagina, and vulva. The uterine tubes and uterus are considered the internal genitals and the vagina and vulva are considered the external genitals.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM U S N T ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1055 TOP: Overview of the Female Reproductive System 105. Ovaries are anchored by the mesovarian and ovarian ligaments. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1057 TOP: Location of the Ovaries 106. The outer layer of theca cells in the ovary produce an androgen that is converted to estrogen by the granulosa cells. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1059 TOP: Microscopic Structure of the Ovaries 107. A clump of granulosa cells called cumulus cells attach the oocyte to the follicle when it is surrounded by fluid. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1059 TOP: Microscopic Structure of the Ovaries 108. After ovulation, the corpus luteum secretes inhibin, which inhibits uterine contraction so the fertilized ovum has a better chance of successful implantation. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1059 TOP: Microscopic Structure of the Ovaries 109. Going from closest to the myNomRetriuIm tGo thBe.caCvityMof the uterus, the layers of the endometrium are stratum basale, stratum compactum, and stratum spongiosum. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1060 TOP: Walls of the Uterus 110. Going from medial to lateral, the parts of the uterine tubes are isthmus, ampulla, and infundibulum. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: pp. 1061-1062 TOP: Divisions of the Uterine Tube 111. As an oocyte matures, it moves to the medulla of the ovary to complete its development. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 1066 TOP: Ovarian Cycle 112. The endometrium of the uterus increases in size until ovulation and then slowly decreases in size until menstruation. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1066 TOP: Endometrial or Menstrual Cycle 113. Ovulation always occurs on the 14th day of the menstrual cycle. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1067Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM ANS: T U S N T O TOP: Endometrial or Menstrual Cycle 114. The spike in estrogen on about day 12 of the menstrual cycle stimulates the LH surge, which triggers ovulation. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1068 TOP: Control of Cyclical Changes in the Ovaries 115. Changes in the uterus are influenced most by estrogen in the preovulatory phase and by progesterone in the postovulatory phase. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 1068-1069 TOP: Control of Cyclical Changes in the Uterus 116. The release of LH from the anterior pituitary is a rare example of a positive feedback loop in the body. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1069 TOP: Control of Cyclical Changes in Gonadotropin Secretions 117. The medulla of the ovary contains the primary oocytes that will eventually develop into the ova, the female gamete. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1058 TOP: Microscopic Structure of the Ovaries 118. Cumulus cells secrete progesterone, which helps attract sperm toward the ovum. N R I G B.C M DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1059 TOP: Microscopic Structure of the Ovaries 119. The uterine tubes are about 4 inches long and are located at the upper free margin of the broad ligament. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1059 TOP: Location of the Uterus 120. Fertilization usually occurs in the infundibulum of the uterus. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1062 TOP: Function of the Uterine Tubes 121. Functions of the vagina include being a receptacle for semen and being the last part of the birth canal. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1063 TOP: Functions of the Vagina 122. The clitoris contains erectile tissue that becomes filled with blood during the sexual response. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1064 TOP: VulvaAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 123. Prolactin stimulates the myoepithelial cells in the breast to eject milk into the ducts. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1075 TOP: Mechanisms Controlling Lactation 124. The main lactiferous ducts converge toward the nipple of the breast but empty into lactiferous sinuses before reaching the nipple. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1074 TOP: Structure of the Breasts MATCHING Match each of the terms with its corresponding definition. a. Uterus b. Estrogen c. Ovulation d. Vulva e. Ovary f. Endometrium g. Vagina h. Uterine tube i. Lactation j. Progesterone k. Menopause l. Menstruation NURSINGTB.COM 1. External reproductive organ in the female 2. Accessory organ of reproduction in the female; hollow, muscular organ in which a fertilized egg implants and grows 3. Monthly shedding of the outer layers of the endometrium 4. Innermost lining of the uterus 5. One of a pair of tubes that conduct ova from the ovary to the uterus; also called fallopian tube 6. Female sex hormone secreted by the ovaries; highest levels in the postmenstrual phase of the reproductive cycle 7. Hormone secreted mainly by the corpus luteum 8. Internal tube from the uterus to the vulva 9. Essential organ of reproduction (gonad) in the female; produces ova 10. The secretion of milk for the nourishment of newborn infants 11. Release of ovum at the end of oogenesis 12. Permanent termination of menstrual cycle activity 1. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1056 TOP: Overview of the Female Reproductive System 2. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1055 TOP: Overview of the Female Reproductive System 3. ANS: L DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1066 TOP: Recurring CyclesAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 4. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1060 TOP: Structure of the Uterus 5. ANS: TOP: H DIF: Memorization Uterine Tubes REF: p. 1061 6. ANS: TOP: B DIF: Memorization Functions of the Ovaries REF: p. 1059 7. ANS: TOP: J DIF: Memorization Control of the Female Reproductive Cycle REF: p. 1068 8. ANS: TOP: G DIF: Memorization Location of the Vagina REF: p. 1062 9. ANS: TOP: E DIF: Memorization Overview of the Female Reproductive System REF: p. 1055 10. ANS: TOP: I DIF: Memorization Functions of the Breasts REF: p. 1074 11. ANS: TOP: C DIF: Memorization Recurring Cycles REF: p. 1067 12. ANS: TOP: K DIF: Memorization Menarche and Menopause REF: p. 1072 Match each of the following terms with its corresponding statement or definition. a. Clitoris b. Labia majora c. Mons pubis d. Urinary meatus e. Vestibule 13. The small opening of the urethra, located between the clitoris and the vaginal orifice 14. Area between the labia minoNraURSINGTB.COM 15. Small organ of erectile tissue 16. Skin-covered pad of fat over the symphysis pubis 17. Homologous to the scrotum in the male 13. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1064 TOP: Structure of the Vulva 14. ANS: E DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1064 TOP: Structure of the Vulva 15. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1064 TOP: Structure of the Vulva 16. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1063 TOP: Structure of the Vulva 17. ANS: TOP: B Structure of DIF: Memorization the Vulva REF: p. 1063 Match each of the following terms with its corresponding statement or definition. a. Estrogen b. FSH c. GnRH d. LH e. ProgesteroneAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 18. Hormone that causes sloughing of the endometrium when its secretion declines, which results in menstruation 19. Increased secretion of this hormone from developing follicles causes the endometrium to thicken during the proliferative phase 20. Hormone that results in ovulation when released in a large quantity 21. Hormone that at the time of ovulation acts on immature follicles and causes them to start developing; the follicles mature in the next menstrual cycle 22. Hormone that stimulates the secretion of FSH and LH from the anterior pituitary gland 18. ANS: E DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1066 TOP: Recurring Cycles 19. ANS: TOP: A DIF: Memorization Recurring Cycles REF: p. 1066 20. ANS: TOP: D DIF: Memorization Control of the Female Reproductive Cycle REF: p. 1068 21. ANS: TOP: B DIF: Memorization Control of the Female Reproductive Cycle REF: p. 1068 22. ANS: TOP: C DIF: Memorization Control of the Female Reproductive Cycle REF: p. 1069 Match each phase of the menstrual cycle with its corresponding event. (Assume a normal 28-day cycle.) a. Menses b. Postmenstrual phase c. Ovulation d. Premenstrual phase 23. Phase during which prolifera N tioUnRoSf I enNdoGmTeBtr.ialCcOelMls occurs 24. Phase during which the corpus luteum secretes progesterone 25. Phase that occurs frequently on cycle day 14 in a 28-day cycle 26. Phase that occurs on days 1 to 5 of a new cycle 23. ANS: TOP: B Recurring DIF: Cycles Memorization REF: p. 1066 24. ANS: TOP: D Recurring DIF: Cycles Memorization REF: p. 1067 25. ANS: TOP: C Recurring DIF: Cycles Memorization REF: p. 1067 26. ANS: TOP: A Recurring DIF: Cycles Memorization REF: p. 1066 OTHER 1. What are the main functions of the uterus? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1061 TOP: Functions of the UterusAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 2. List and describe the various components of the vulva. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 1063-1065 TOP: Structure of the Vulva 3. Discuss the ideas behind predicting the time of ovulation. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1066, Box 46-5 TOP: Fertility Signs Used in Predicting Ovulation (Box 46-5) 4. Give an example of how the negative feedback process can influence the release of a gonadotropin. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 1069-1070 TOP: Control of the Female Reproductive Cycle 5. Explain the physiological basis of why a pill containing estrogen and progesterone can prevent pregnancy. ANS: Answers will vary. NURSINGTB.COM DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1070, Box 46-6 TOP: Methods of Contraception 6. Describe the structure of the uterus. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 1059-1061 TOP: Structure of the Uterus 7. Describe the structure of the breasts. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1074 TOP: Structure of the Breasts 8. Explain how the process of lactation is regulated. ANS:Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM U S N REF: T pp.O1058-1059 Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 1074-1075 TOP: Mechanisms Controlling Lactation 9. Explain the importance of lactation. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 1075-1076 TOP: The Importance of Lactation 10. Describe and give the location of the ovaries. Name and describe the ligaments that hold the ovaries in place. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 1057-1058 TOP: Location of the Ovaries 11. Describe the microscopic structure of the ovaries. Explain the roles of the granulose cells and the theca cells in the functioning of the ovaries. ANS: Answers will vary. N R I G B.C M DIF: Memorization TOP: Microscopic Structure of the Ovaries 12. Describe the location, structure, and function of the uterine tube. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 1061-1062 TOP: Uterine Tubes 13. Describe the endometrial or menstrual cycle. Name and describe the phases in this cycle. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 1066-1067 TOP: Endometrial or Menstrual Cycle 14. Describe how the cyclic changes in the ovaries are regulated. ANS: Answers will vary.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1068 TOP: Control of Cyclical Changes in the Ovaries 15. Describe how the cyclic changes in the uterus are regulated. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 1068-1069 TOP: Control of Cyclical Changes in the Uterus ESSAY 1. Describe one complete female reproductive cycle. Include the hormones, their source and effect, and give an approximate time line for the cycle. Assume that fertilization did not occur. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Knowledge REF: pp. 1065-1067 TOP: Female Reproductive Cycles NURSINGTB.COMAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM Chapter 47: Growth, Development, and Aging Patton: Anatomy and Physiology, 10th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Regarding human developmental biology, which of the following statements is(are) true? a. The study of human developmental biology includes the prenatal period. b. The study of human developmental biology includes the postnatal period. c. Human developmental biology is the study of the many changes that occur during the cycle of life from conception to death. d. All of the above are true regarding human developmental biology. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1087 TOP: Introduction 2. The normal phenomenon of “crossing over” occurs: a. during meiosis I. b. during meiosis II. c. in both meiosis and mitosis. d. in both A and B. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1087 TOP: Meiosis 3. The process of spermatogenesis forms spermatozoa, each with _ chromosomes. a. two; 23 b. four; 23 c. two; 46 d. four; 46 NURSINGTB.COM ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1089 TOP: Spermatogenesis 4. The main difference between oogenesis and spermatogenesis is that in oogenesis: a. the primary oocytes contain 46 chromosomes. b. the cytoplasm is equally divided among the daughter cells. c. meiosis I does not occur. d. only one ovum is produced from each primary oocyte, plus three polar bodies. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1089 TOP: Production of Sex Cells 5. After leaving the graafian follicle, the ovum lives approximately day(s). a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1092 TOP: FertilizationAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 6. Fertilization takes place in the: a. vagina. b. uterus. c. uterine tube. d. ovary. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1092 TOP: Fertilization 7. Implantation occurs during the stage. a. zygote b. morula c. blastocyst d. trophoblast ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1093 TOP: Cleavage and Implantation 8. The inner cell mass of the blastocyst contains the: a. yolk sac. b. amniotic cavity. c. trophoblast. d. Both A and B are correct. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1094 TOP: Cleavage and Implantation 9. The solid mass of cells forme dN whR en ItheGzygBo.teCbegMins to divide is called the: a. blastocyst. b. trophoblast. c. morula. d. embryo. U S N T O ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1093 TOP: Cleavage and Implantation 10. The structure known as the “bag of waters” is the: a. placenta. b. amniotic cavity. c. yolk sac. d. chorion. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1094 TOP: Cleavage and Implantation 11. Which of the following is not a function of the placenta? a. Excretory organ b. Respiratory organ c. Endocrine organ d. Barrier to alcohol ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1096 TOP: PlacentaAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 12. The normal length of gestation for humans is approximately weeks. a. 37 b. 39 c. 41 d. 43 ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1118 TOP: Periods of Development 13. The chorion, which develops from the trophoblast, becomes: a. an important fetal membrane in the placenta. b. the inner cell mass. c. the amniotic cavity. d. the yolk sac. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1094 TOP: Cleavage and Implantation 14. The secretion of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) by the placental tissue peaks about weeks after fertilization. a. 2 to 3 b. 3 to 4 c. 8 to 9 d. 13 to 14 ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1096 TOP: Placenta NURSINGTB.COM 15. The function of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is to: a. act as a gonadotropin. b. stimulate the corpus luteum. c. maintain high luteal estrogen and progesterone levels. d. do all of the above. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1096 TOP: Placenta 16. All organ systems are formed and functioning by the month of fetal development. a. second b. third c. fourth d. fifth ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1098 TOP: Periods of Development 17. In the developing human embryo, the heart begins to beat at about weeks. a. 5 b. 10 c. 15 d. 20Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1098 TOP: Periods of Development 18. Which of the following is derived from mesoderm during embryonic development? a. Bones and muscles b. Epithelium of GI tract c. Nervous tissue and skin d. Nervous tissue and bones ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1102 TOP: Formation of the Primary Germ Layers 19. The primary germ layer that forms many of the structures around the periphery of the body is the: a. endoderm. b. mesoderm. c. ectoderm. d. epiderm. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1102 TOP: Formation of the Primary Germ Layers 20. Histogenesis may be defined as the process during which: a. implantation occurs. b. the tissues arrange themselves into organs. c. the primary germ layers develop into many different kinds of tissues. d. both B and C occur. ANS: C DIF: MNemUoRriSzaItioNnGTB.COM TOP: Histogenesis and Organogenesis 21. The third stage of labor is the: REF: p. 1102 a. period of uterine contractions until dilation of the cervix is complete. b. period of maximal cervical dilation. c. period when the baby exits the vagina. d. process of expulsion of the placenta through the vagina. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1106 TOP: Stages of Labor 22. In most cases, stage one of labor lasts from hours. a. 2 to 4 b. 6 to 12 c. 6 to 24 d. 24 to 36 ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1106 TOP: Stages of Labor 23. Identical twins result from the: a. splitting of embryonic tissue from the same zygote early in development. b. inner cell mass dividing into two masses during the blastocyst stage of development.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM c. fertilization of two different ova by two different spermatozoa. d. Both A and B are correct. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1106 TOP: Multiple Births 24. The second stage of labor is the: a. period from the onset of contractions until dilation of the cervix is complete. b. period from the time of maximal cervical dilation until the baby exits through the vagina. c. point at which the amniotic sac ruptures. d. process of expulsion of the placenta through the vagina. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1106 TOP: Stages of Labor 25. As the body develops, the: a. head becomes proportionately smaller. b. face decreases from one half to one eighth of the skull surface. c. trunk becomes proportionately longer. d. thoracic and abdominal contours become more rounded. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1107 TOP: Postnatal Period 26. Birth weight generally doubles during the first months and then . a. 3; triples by 1 year b. 4; triples by 1 year N R I G B.C M c. 6; doubles again by 1 yearU d. 6; triples by 18 months S N T O ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1108 TOP: Infancy 27. At what age do boys generally complete rapid growth stage? a. 12 b. 14 c. 16 d. 18 ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1108 TOP: Adolescence and Adulthood 28. At what age do girls generally begin to menstruate? a. 10 b. 12 to 13 c. 14 d. 15 to 16 ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1109 TOP: Adolescence and Adulthood 29. Fraternal twins:Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM N R I G B.C M a. have only one placenta. b. have two placentas. c. must always have the same biological father. d. are genetically identical. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1106 TOP: Multiple Births 30. During infancy, the lumbar curvature appears between the months. a. second and fourth b. fourth and sixth c. sixth and tenth d. twelfth and eighteenth ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1108 TOP: Infancy 31. An infant is able to follow a moving object with its eyes by the end of the month. a. first b. second c. third d. fourth ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1108 TOP: Infancy 32. The deciduous teeth: a. begin to appear at about 6 months of age. b. are lost during childhood. U S N T O c. start to erupt at about 6 years of age. d. Both A and B are correct. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1108 TOP: Childhood 33. Between the ages of 30 and 75, the number of nephron units in the kidney decreases by almost: a. 20%. b. 30%. c. 40%. d. 50%. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1112 TOP: Urinary System 34. The condition caused by buildup of fatty deposits in blood vessel walls is: a. arteriosclerosis. b. atherosclerosis. c. myocardial infarction. d. hypertension. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1112 TOP: Cardiovascular SystemAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 35. Clouding of the lens of the eye is called: a. presbyopia. b. myopia. c. glaucoma. d. cataract. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1113 TOP: Special Senses 36. The most serious age-related eye disorder is: a. presbyopia. b. glaucoma. c. cataract. d. hyperopia. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1113 TOP: Special Senses 37. If a creature had 36 chromosomes in its normal body cells, its gametes would contain chromosomes. a. 72 b. 36 c. 18 d. 9 ANS: C DIF: Application REF: pp. 1087-1088 TOP: Meiosis NURSINGTB.COM 38. If a creature had 36 chromosomes in its normal body cells, the zygote of the creature would contain chromosomes. a. 72 b. 36 c. 18 d. an indeterminable number of ANS: B DIF: Application REF: pp. 1087-1088 TOP: Meiosis 39. The most potent stem cells, those that can generate many types of human tissue, can be found in the: a. red bone marrow. b. zygote c. blastocyst stage. d. Both B and C are correct. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1098 TOP: Stem Cells 40. DNA replication occurs during: a. prophase I. b. prophase II.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM c. interphase before prophase I. d. both A and B. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1087 TOP: Production of Sex Cells 41. Crossing over occurs to: a. reduce the chromosome number in a gamete. b. assist in tetrad formation. c. allow chromatin to condense into chromosomes. d. transfer genes from one chromosome to another. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1087 TOP: Meiosis 42. After puberty, about how many primary oocytes resume meiosis each month? a. 10 b. 100 c. 1000 d. 10,000 ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1089 TOP: Oogenesis 43. At ovulation, the ovum is at which stage of meiosis? a. Telophase II b. Anaphase II c. Telophase I d. None of the above NURSINGTB.COM ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1089 TOP: Oogenesis 44. In the female reproductive system, which of the following does not assist the sperm in reaching the egg? a. Cilia in the uterine tubes b. Polar bodies produced by the egg c. Mucus strands in the cervical canal d. All of the above assist the sperm in reaching the egg. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1092 TOP: Fertilization 45. Meiosis I produces what in oogenesis? a. Ovum b. Primary polar body c. Primary oocyte d. Both B and C ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1089 TOP: Oogenesis 46. The sequence of early development of the fetus is:Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM a. morula, zygote, and blastocyst. b. zygote, morula, and blastocyst. c. zygote, blastocyst, and morula. d. morula, blastocyst, and zygote. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1093 TOP: Cleavage and Implantation 47. A nonfunctioning yolk sac could hinder the fetus in: a. receiving proper nutrition. b. producing blood cells. c. receiving enough oxygen. d. all of the above. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1094 TOP: Cleavage and Implantation 48. Which of the following hormones is not produced by the placenta? a. FSH b. hCG c. Estrogen d. All of the above hormones are produced by the placenta. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1096 TOP: Placenta 49. Which of the following structures is not formed by the endoderm? a. Tonsils b. Kidneys NURSINGTB.COM c. Lining of the pancreatic duct d. Glandular epithelium of the thyroid gland ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 1099-1102 TOP: Formation of the Primary Germ Layers 50. Which of the following structures is not formed by the mesoderm? a. Skeletal muscles b. Bones c. Kidneys d. All of the above structures are formed by the mesoderm. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1102 TOP: Formation of the Primary Germ Layers 51. Which of the following structures is not formed by the ectoderm? a. Cornea of the eye b. Dermis of the skin c. Brain d. Enamel of the teeth ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1102 TOP: Formation of the Primary Germ LayersAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 52. Which of the following conditions associated with the eye does not directly involve the lens? a. Glaucoma b. Presbyopia c. Cataracts d. All of the above conditions directly involve the lens. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1113 TOP: Special Senses 53. A condition in which the placenta grows too close to the cervical opening is called: a. ectopic pregnancy. b. abruptio placentae. c. placenta previa. d. eclampsia. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1115 TOP: Mechanisms of Disease 54. A condition in which the placenta separates from the uterine wall is called: a. ectopic pregnancy. b. abruptio placentae. c. placenta previa. d. eclampsia. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1115 TOP: Mechanisms of Disease 55. In the human, the haploid nu NmbeRr ofIchrGomoBs.omCesMis: a. 23. b. 46. c. the result of meiosis. d. both A and C. U S N T O ANS: D DIF: Application REF: p. 1088 TOP: Production of Sex Cells 56. In the human, the diploid number of chromosomes is: a. 23. b. 46. c. the result of meiosis. d. both B and C. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1087 TOP: Production of Sex Cells 57. A tetrad is: a. formed only in spermatogenesis. b. formed only in oogenesis. c. homologous pairs of chromosomes that are moved together. d. None of the above describe a tetrad. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1087 TOP: Production of Sex CellsAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 58. During human oogenesis, which structure contains 46 chromosomes? a. Ovum b. Secondary oocyte c. First polar body d. Both B and C ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1089 TOP: Oogenesis 59. Theca cells produce: a. an androgen that is converted to estrogen. b. the granulosa cells. c. the oogonia. d. none of the above. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1089 TOP: Oogenesis 60. Only about what percent of the sperm deposited in the female reproductive tract actually reach the ovum? a. 10% b. 5% c. 1% d. Less than 0.1% ANS: D DIF: Application REF: p. 1092 TOP: Fertilization 61. At fertilization, what part ofNthe R sperIm cGell eBn.teCrs thMe egg? a. Nucleus of the sperm b. RNA from the sperm c. Proteins from the sperm d. All of the above U S N T O ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1092 TOP: Fertilization 62. If the process of oogenesis goes to completion, how many polar bodies will be produced? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 ANS: C DIF: Application REF: p. 1089 TOP: Oogenesis 63. What layer of the ovum has receptors for sperm cells? a. Zona pellucida b. Corona radiata c. Theca cells d. Both A and B ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1092 TOP: FertilizationAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 64. The term used for the fertilized ovum is: a. morula. b. zygote. c. fetus. d. blastocyst. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1093 TOP: Cleavage and Implantation 65. Which of the following describe the development of the female reproductive system? a. Gonads attach to the mesonephrotic duct. b. Gonads attach to the paramesonephrotic duct. c. It develops along with the urethra in the reproductive system. d. Both A and C describe the development of the female reproductive system. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1102 TOP: Histogenesis and Organogenesis 66. The primary germ layers developed from stem cells are referred to as: a. omnipotent. b. pluripotent. c. totipotent. d. multipotent. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1099 TOP: Stem Cells 67. Stem cells in adults are referr Ned tRo asI: G B.C M a. totipotent. b. pluripotent. c. multipotent. U S N T O d. Adults do not have stem cells. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1099 TOP: Stem Cells TRUE/FALSE 1. Meiosis reduces the number of chromosomes in each daughter cell to half the number present in the parent cell. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1087 TOP: Meiosis 2. Ova are produced by spermatogenesis. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1087 TOP: Production of Sex Cells 3. Crossing over can add almost infinite variety to the genetic makeup of an individual. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1087Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM U S N T O TOP: Meiosis 4. Theca cells produce androgen, a steroid that is converted by granulosa cells into testosterone. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1089 TOP: Oogenesis 5. Insemination is the expulsion of the mature ovum from the mature ovarian follicle into the uterine tubes. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1092 TOP: Ovulation and Insemination 6. Fertilization most often occurs in the outer one third of the oviduct. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1092 TOP: Fertilization 7. Peristaltic contractions of the female reproductive tract and thermotaxis are mechanisms that assist the process of sperm movement within the female reproductive tract. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1092 TOP: Fertilization 8. An acrosome reaction occurs when enzymes from the acrosome break down the outer layers of the ovum, rendering it inactive. ANS: F DIF: MNemoRrizaItionG B.C M TOP: Fertilization REF: p. 1092 9. Complex mechanisms in the egg are activated by sperm proteins to ensure that no more sperm enter. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1093 TOP: Fertilization 10. The prenatal period of development begins at the time of ovulation. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1093 TOP: Fertilization 11. The cells of the morula form a hollow ball of cells called a blastocyst. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1093 TOP: Cleavage and Implantation 12. The science of the development of the offspring before birth is called gerontology. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1109 TOP: Fertilization 13. The trophoblast is the inner wall of the blastocyst.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1094 TOP: Cleavage and Implantation 14. The yolk sac does not have a nutritive function. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1094 TOP: Cleavage and Implantation 15. The chorionic villi bring the embryonic circulation to the placenta. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1094 TOP: Cleavage and Implantation 16. The chorion develops from the blastocyst to become an important fetal membrane of the placenta. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1094 TOP: Cleavage and Implantation 17. While the placenta has an effective “barrier” that protects the developing baby from many harmful substances, some infectious organisms may penetrate this protective placental barrier. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1096 TOP: Placenta 18. The placental tissues secrete large amounts of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) early in pregnancy. N URSINGTB.COM ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1096 TOP: Placenta 19. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) stimulates the corpus luteum to secrete FSH and LH. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1096 TOP: Placenta 20. Over-the-counter “early pregnancy” tests detect the presence of the hCG that is excreted in the urine during the first couple of months of a pregnancy. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1096 TOP: Placenta 21. Cortisol helps trigger the onset of labor. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1097 TOP: Placenta 22. The length of pregnancy is called the gestation period. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1097 TOP: Periods of DevelopmentAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 23. Embryo is used to describe the ovum just after fertilization by a sperm cell. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1098 TOP: Periods of Development 24. The embryonic phase of development extends from fertilization until the end of the eighth week of gestation. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1098 TOP: Periods of Development 25. At the end of the first trimester of gestation the fetus becomes known as a fetus. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1098 TOP: Periods of Development 26. A pluripotent cell is the ancestor to all body cell types. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1099 TOP: Stem Cells 27. Adult stem cells are usually called multipotent and are found in many tissues of the body. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1099 TOP: Stem Cells 28. Multipotent cells can be founNd inRtheIskiGn, fBat,.mCanyMglands, muscles, bone, and the gastrointestinal tract. U S N T O ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1099 TOP: Stem Cells 29. The primary germ layers include the endoderm, ectoderm, and mesoderm. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 1099-1102 TOP: Formation of Primary Germ Layers 30. The outer germ layer, or endoderm, forms many of the structures around the periphery of the body. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1099 TOP: Formation of Primary Germ Layers 31. Glandular epithelium of the thymus and thyroid are derived from the mesoderm. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1102 TOP: Formation of Primary Germ Layers 32. The dermis of the skin, skeletal muscles, and bones are derived from the mesoderm. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1102Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM U S N T O TOP: Formation of Primary Germ Layers 33. The process by which the primary germ layers develop into many different kinds of tissues is called organogenesis. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1102 TOP: Histogenesis and Organogenesis 34. As embryonic development continues in the male, the gonads attach to the mesonephric (wolffian duct). ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1103 TOP: Histogenesis and Organogenesis 35. Upward pressure of the pregnant uterus may lead to a condition called hiatal hernia. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1104 TOP: Histogenesis and Organogenesis 36. Labor begins when contractions cause the amniotic sac to rupture. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1104 TOP: Birth 37. An injection of prostaglandins E2 and F2 can stimulate labor contractions in a difficult or delayed delivery. ANS: F DIF: MNemoRrizaItionG B.C M TOP: Birth REF: p. 1104 38. Stage two of labor is the period from onset of uterine contractions until dilation of the cervix is complete. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1106 TOP: Stages of Labor 39. A cesarean section is a surgical procedure in which the newborn is delivered through an incision in the abdomen and uterine wall. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1106 TOP: Stages of Labor 40. Multiple-birth babies are often born prematurely. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1106 TOP: Multiple Births 41. Fraternal twins result from the splitting of embryonic tissue from the same zygote early in development. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1106 TOP: Multiple BirthsAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 42. Identical twins usually share the same placenta. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1106 TOP: Multiple Births 43. Fraternal twins may have different biological fathers. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1106 TOP: Multiple Births 44. The postnatal period begins at birth and lasts until infancy. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1107 TOP: Postnatal Period 45. The infant head is approximately one eighth of the total height. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1107 TOP: Postnatal Period 46. Neonatology is the medical and nursing specialty concerned with the diagnosis and treatment of disorders of the newborn. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1108 TOP: Infancy 47. The stimulus to breathe resulNts pRrimaIrilyGfroBm.tC he inMcreasing amounts of oxygen in the blood after the umbilical cord is cut aUfterSdelNiverTy. O ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1108 TOP: Infancy 48. The Apgar score in a completely healthy newborn is 5. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1108 TOP: Infancy 49. Early in infancy the baby has only two spinal curvatures. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1108 TOP: Infancy 50. Deciduous teeth begin to appear during the childhood period of development. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1108 TOP: Childhood 51. The stage of adolescence when a person becomes sexually mature is called puberty. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1109 TOP: Adolescence and AdulthoodAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 52. Menstruation is often the first sign of approaching puberty in girls. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1109 TOP: Adolescence and Adulthood 53. The enlargement of the testes is often the first sign of puberty in boys. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1109 TOP: Adolescence and Adulthood 54. The maturation of bone, resulting in the closure of the growth plates, is not completed until early or middle years of adulthood. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1109 TOP: Adolescence and Adulthood 55. Adolescence is characterized by the maintenance of existing body tissues. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1109 TOP: Adolescence and Adulthood 56. The study of aging is called gerontology. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1109 TOP: Aging 57. In older adulthood many deaNd ceRlls aIre nGot rBep.laCcedMcausing a degeneration of tissues. U S N T O ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1109 TOP: Aging 58. Cell death is defined as apoptosis. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1109 TOP: Aging 59. In older adulthood, most dead cells are replaced, resulting in a maintenance of body tissues. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1109 TOP: Aging 60. Nutrition typically does not have any effect on aging. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1110 TOP: Aging 61. Some gerontologists believe that aging is “preprogrammed.” ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1110 TOP: AgingAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM U S N T O 62. Cellular aging may be a result of oxygen free radicals that may damage cells. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1110 TOP: Aging 63. Even as free-radical production increases, mitochondrial function increases and ATP supplies remain constant. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1110 TOP: Aging 64. In older adulthood, lipping restricts movement because of the piling up of bone tissue around the joints. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1111 TOP: Effects of Aging 65. With advancing age, the degrees of calcification of bones reduce the bone mineral density (BMD). ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1111 TOP: Effects of Aging 66. As people get older, muscle mass typically remains the same. 67.6 7 . ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1112 TOP: Effects of Aging N R I G B.C M As we age, muscle fibers develop into “fast type” fibers. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1112 TOP: Effects of Aging 68. Body fat under the skin increases as we age. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1112 TOP: Effects of Aging 69. Muscle atrophy in the bladder wall results in decreased capacity to void completely. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1112 TOP: Effects of Aging 70. The effects of aging cause the ribs to gradually become “fixed” to the sternum and breathing becomes more difficult. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1112 TOP: Effects of Aging 71. As we advance in age, the atrophy of muscle tissue takes place and is replaced by connective tissue.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1112 TOP: Effects of Aging 72. Hypertension becomes less common as we advance in age. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1112 TOP: Effects of Aging 73. The presence of glaucoma increases with age. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1113 TOP: Effects of Aging 74. As we age, the lens becomes softer, which explains the need for bifocals. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1113 TOP: Effects of Aging 75. Advanced aging may result in hearing impairment and decreased sense of taste. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1113 TOP: Effects of Aging 76. Evidence shows that older people are much better than younger people at spotting small movements in a visual scene. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1113 TOP: Effects of Aging N URSINGTB.COM 77. Increased blood testosterone is typical among older men. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1113 TOP: Effects of Aging 78. The decrease in estrogen levels associated with menopause may offset the effects of osteoporosis. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1113 TOP: Effects of Aging 79. As we age, problem-solving ability often decreases. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1113 TOP: Benefits of Aging 80. As one ages, anxiety and hostility increases, control over fear lessens, and resistance to happiness increases. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1113 TOP: Effects of Aging MATCHINGAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM U S N T O Match each term with its corresponding definition. a. Parturition b. Chorion c. Neonate d. Zygote e. Organogenesis f. Blastocyst g. Gestation h. Morula i. Senescence j. Primary germ layers k. Histogenesis l. Embryology m. Implantation n. Fertilization 1. Three layers of specialized cells that give rise to definite structures as the embryo develops 2. Length of pregnancy; approximately 39 weeks in humans 3. Fertilized ovum 4. Study of prenatal development; study of the development of an individual before birth 5. Formation of organs from tissue derived from the primary germ layers of the embryo 6. Post-morula stage of developing embryo; hollow ball of cells 7. Aging; older adulthood 8. Infant during its first 4 weeks of life 9. When a fertilized ovum attac NhesRto tIhe uGteruBs.C M 10. Develops into an important fetal membrane in the placenta 11. Formation of tissues from the primary germ layers of the embryo 12. Solid mass of cells formed after several divisions of a fertilized egg 13. Moment at which the ovum and sperm unite 14. Giving birth 1. ANS: J DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1099 TOP: Formation of the Primary Germ Layers 2. ANS: TOP: G DIF: Memorization Periods of Development REF: p. 1097 3. ANS: TOP: D DIF: Memorization Fertilization REF: p. 1098 4. ANS: TOP: L DIF: Memorization Developmental Biology REF: p. 1094 5. ANS: TOP: E DIF: Memorization Histogenesis and Organogenesis REF: p. 1102 6. ANS: TOP: F DIF: Memorization Cleavage and Implantation REF: p. 1093 7. ANS: TOP: I DIF: Memorization Older Adulthood REF: p. 1109 8. ANS: C DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 1108 TOP: Infancy 9. ANS: TOP: M DIF: Memorization Cleavage and Implantation REF: p. 1093Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM U S N T 10. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1093 TOP: Cleavage and Implantation 11. ANS: TOP: K DIF: Memorization Histogenesis and Organogenesis REF: p. 1102 12. ANS: TOP: H DIF: Memorization Cleavage and Implantation REF: p. 1093 13. ANS: TOP: N DIF: Memorization Fertilization REF: p. 1092 14. ANS: TOP: A DIF: Memorization Birth or Parturition REF: p. 1104 Match each term with its corresponding definition or description. a. Atherosclerosis b. Arteriosclerosis c. Stroke d. Osteoarthritis e. “Barrel chest” f. Lipping g. Cataract h. Hypertension i. Glaucoma j. Presbyopia 15. “Old eye” 16. Degenerative joint disease 17. Condition in which fatty deposits build up on the walls of blood vessels 18. Disease characterized by an iNncreRaseIin tGhe pBr.esCsureMinside the eyeball; can cause blindness 19. Process by which older bones develop bone margins that become indistinct and shaggy-appearing 20. Condition that results from clouding of the lens, which causes a loss of transparency that impairs vision 21. “Hardening of the arteries”; occurs when the fatty deposits calcify 22. Results when the costal cartilage connecting the ribs and sternum hardens and the ribs become fixed 23. High blood pressure 24. Results from a ruptured blood vessel in the brain 15. ANS: J DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1113 TOP: Special Senses 16. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 1111-1112 TOP: Skeletal System 17. ANS: TOP: A DIF: Circulatory System Memorization REF: p. 1112 18. ANS: TOP: I DIF: Special Senses Memorization REF: p. 1113 19. ANS: TOP: F DIF: Skeletal System Memorization REF: pp. 1111-1112 20. ANS: TOP: G DIF: Special Senses Memorization REF: p. 1113 21. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1112Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM TOP: Circulatory System 22. ANS: TOP: E DIF: Respiratory System Memorization REF: p. 1112 23. ANS: TOP: H DIF: Circulatory System Memorization REF: p. 1112 24. ANS: TOP: C DIF: Circulatory System Memorization REF: p. 1112 OTHER 1. Compare and contrast spermatogenesis and oogenesis. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 1089 TOP: Production of Sex Cells 2. Describe (or diagram) the hormone levels during pregnancy. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 1096-1097 TOP: Placenta 3. Briefly discuss the three stages of labor. ANS: Answers will vary. NURSINGTB.COM DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1106 TOP: Stages of Labor 4. Compare and contrast the two different processes that can result in twinning. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1106 TOP: Multiple Births 5. Discuss the major developmental changes that occur during infancy, childhood, adolescence, and adulthood. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Synthesis REF: pp. 1108-1109 TOP: Postnatal Period 6. What is the function of polar bodies in oogenesis? ANS: Reduction of the chromosome number.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM U S N T DIF: Application REF: p. 1089 TOP: Oogenesis 7. Some home pregnancy tests measure the amount of hCG in a woman’s urine. Why is this substance an accurate sign of pregnancy? What structure produces hCG? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: p. 1096 TOP: Placenta 8. Explain what occurs in the phases of meiosis. How does this process differ from mitosis? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 1087-1088 TOP: Meiosis 9. Explain the process of fertilization. How does the female reproductive system assist the sperm in reaching the ovum? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1092 TOP: Fertilization 10. Explain the development of tNhe fRertilIizedGovBum.CfromMthe time of fertilization to implantation in the wall of the uterus. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 1093-1094 TOP: Cleavage and Implantation 11. What are stem cells? Differentiate between totipotent, pluripotent, and multipotent stem cells. Which types of stem cells are found in adults? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 1098-1099 TOP: Stem Cells 12. Name the three primary germ layers and name several structures or systems that develop from each. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 1099-1102Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM U S N T O TOP: Formation of the Primary Germ Layers 13. Select four systems and explain the effects of aging on each system. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1112 TOP: Effects of Aging 14. Explain the theories of aging discussed in this chapter. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 1109-1110 TOP: Older Adulthood ESSAY 1. Bob has a condition that may require a kidney transplant. He is not concerned because he has a twin sister and he knows that twins are genetically the same. Is Bob correct in his thinking? Explain why or why not. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: p. N110R6 I GTOBP:.C MulMtiple Births 2. Tommy’s mother told the pediatrician during Tommy’s 1-year visit that he had tripled his birth weight, was crawling actively, and could stand alone. Is Tommy’s development normal, retarded, or advanced? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1108 TOP: Infancy 3. Polly is 70 years old. She has always enjoyed food and has had a hearty appetite. Lately, however, she has complained that “food just doesn’t taste as good anymore.” What is a possible explanation? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1113 TOP: Special Senses 4. Stan and Dan are twins. Stan suffers from kidney disease. The physicians said Stan can receive Dan’s kidney with very little chance of rejection. Explain why. ANS: Answers will vary.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1106 TOP: Multiple Births NURSINGTB.COMAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM Chapter 48: Genetics and Heredity Patton: Anatomy and Physiology, 10th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Gregor Mendel began the scientific study of genetics in the: a. 1760s. b. 1800s. c. 1860s. d. 1920s. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1122 TOP: The Science of Genetics 2. Each DNA molecule may be called a: a. chromatin strand. b. chromosome. c. gene. d. Both A and B are correct. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1122 TOP: Mechanisms of Gene Function 3. Which of the following is not a true statement? a. The gametes contain only 23 chromosomes. b. A zygote has a haploid number of chromosomes. c. The pair of sex chromosoNmUesRmSaIyNnGotTmBa.tcCh.OM d. The 22 pairs of autosomes always appear to be nearly identical to each other. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1125 TOP: Meiosis 4. The principle of independent assortment states that: a. each offspring from a single set of parents is very likely to be genetically unique. b. genetic variation is likely to occur during reproduction. c. after meiosis, each gamete produced is likely to have a different set of 23 chromosomes. d. all of the above are true. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1125 TOP: Distribution of Chromosomes to Offspring 5. Crossing over is the process during which: a. similar gametes fuse together. b. dissimilar gametes fuse together. c. meiosis stops after meiosis I. d. pairs of matching chromosomes line up along the equator of the cell and exchange genes with one another. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1126 TOP: Distribution of Chromosomes to OffspringAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 6. If “A” stands for the dominant gene that prevents albinism and “a” stands for the recessive albinism trait, then an individual with the genotype of “aa” will express: a. albinism and will be a carrier. b. albinism and will not be a carrier. c. normal pigmentation and will be a carrier. d. normal pigmentation and will not be a carrier. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1126 TOP: Hereditary Traits 7. A DNA molecule is a: a. gene. b. chromosome. c. genome. d. gamete. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1122 TOP: Mechanism of Gene Function 8. An individual possessing the sex chromosome combination “XY” is genetically: a. a male. b. a female. c. both. d. neither. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1128 TOP: Sex-Linked Traits NURSINGTB.COM 9. Assume that “A1” is the gene for light hair and that “A2” is the gene for dark hair. Also assume that these genes demonstrate codominance. Then, the heterozygous genotype “A1A2” will exhibit the phenotype of: a. light hair. b. dark hair. c. hair color somewhere between light and dark. d. red hair, because of the phenomenon of crossing over. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1127 TOP: Codominance 10. The sickle cell/malaria relationship demonstrates the concept in medical genetics that “disease” genes: a. are always codominant. b. are never dominant. c. often provide some biological advantage for a human population in certain circumstances. d. never provide a biological advantage for human populations. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1127 TOP: Codominance 11. If an individual has only an X chromosome (“XO”), then that person is genetically:Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM a. male. b. female. c. neither male nor female. d. The condition of “XO” can never occur. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1127 TOP: Chromosomal Diseases 12. Red-green color blindness shows X-linked recessive inheritance. Assume “X” is normal, “X1” is recessive for the trait, and “Y” is normal. Then, an individual with the genotype “XX1” will be a: a. normal female and a carrier. b. color-blind male. c. normal female and not a carrier. d. normal male. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1128 TOP: Sex-Linked Traits 13. A female can inherit an X-linked recessive trait if her father: a. is dominant and her mother is heterozygous for the trait. b. is dominant and her mother is homozygous for the trait. c. exhibits the trait and her mother is homozygous for the trait. d. Both A and B are correct. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1128 TOP: Sex-Linked Traits 14. Which of the following statemNU enRtsSisInNoGt tTruBe.ofCmOiM tochondrial DNA? a. The DNA is in the form of a circle. b. The usual “stop” code in nuclear DNA codes for an amino acid in mitochondrial DNA. c. The mitochondrial DNA in the zygote comes only from the mother. d. All of the above statements are true of mitochondrial DNA. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 1131-1132 TOP: Mitochondrial Inheritance 15. The condition called trisomy results from a(n): a. mistake in mitosis called nondisjunction. b. mistake in meiosis called nondisjunction. c. abnormality in a single gene. d. genetic predisposition. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1131 TOP: Nuclear Inheritance 16. Mitochondrial DNA (mDNA): a. is inherited as a result of both the sperm and the ovum. b. has the potential for carrying mutations that produce disease. c. is present only in lower forms of life. d. Both A and B are correct.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM U S N T O ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1131 TOP: Mitochondrial Inheritance 17. Cystic fibrosis, caused by recessive genes in chromosome pair 7, results in the impairment of the: a. chloride ion transport across cell membranes. b. sodium-potassium pump. c. calcium-storing capacity of the body. d. oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1132 TOP: Single-Gene Diseases 18. All of the following diseases demonstrate single-gene inheritance and are autosomal recessive except: a. Tay-Sachs disease. b. total albinism. c. Huntington disease. d. severe combined immune deficiency (SCID). ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1133 TOP: Single-Gene Diseases 19. Which of the following statements is(are) true regarding Tay-Sachs disease? a. Tay-Sachs disease results in the failure to make an essential lipid-processing enzyme. b. This disease is most prevalent in Jewish populations. c. This disease results in sevNereRretaIrdaGtionBa.ndCdeMath by age 4. d. All of the above are true regarding Tay-Sachs disease. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1132 TOP: Single-Gene Diseases 20. A group of symptoms called Down syndrome results from trisomy: a. 15. b. 19. c. 21. d. 23. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1135 TOP: Chromosomal Diseases 21. The syndrome that results from the genotype “XXY” is: a. Turner. b. Klinefelter. c. Down. d. Parkinson. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1135 TOP: Chromosomal Diseases 22. Phenylketonuria (PKU), caused by recessive genes in chromosome pair 12, is a condition characterized by:Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM a. impairment of chloride ion transport across all membranes. b. failure to produce an enzyme needed to generate the amino acid tyrosine. c. impairment of the blood’s capacity to store oxygen. d. impairment of the body’s capacity to store calcium. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1132 TOP: Single-Gene Diseases 23. A chart that illustrates genetic relationships in a family over several generations is called a: a. Punnett square. b. pedigree. c. genetic grid. d. karyotype. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1136 TOP: Pedigree 24. The hypothesis regarding tumor suppressor genes states that these genes: a. can transform a cell into a cancer cell only when certain environmental conditions occur. b. regulate cell division so that it proceeds normally. c. govern the cell’s ability to repair damaged DNA. d. Both A and C are correct. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1136 TOP: Genetic Basis of Cancer 25. An ordered arrangement of p NhotoRgraIphsGof cBh.roCmosMomes from a single cell is called a: a. genome. b. karyotype. c. Punnett square. d. pedigree. U S N T O ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1137 TOP: Karyotype 26. In the therapy called gene augmentation: a. genes that specify production of abnormal, disease-causing proteins are replaced by normal, or “therapeutic,” genes. b. hormones are used to treat the genetic disease. c. diet is used to alleviate the symptoms of the genetic disease. d. genetically altered cells are added to the body. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1138 TOP: Treating Genetic Diseases 27. About which percentage of the cell’s DNA carry functional genes? a. 1% b. 10% c. 25% d. 50% ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1123Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM N R I G TOP: The Human Genome 28. The shorter segment of a chromosome is called the: a. centromere. b. s-arm. c. p-arm. d. q-arm. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1141 TOP: The Human Genome 29. “A” is the dominant allele for normal skin color; “a” is recessive for albinism. If a couple were “AA” and “Aa,” which of the following statements is not true? a. Both parents have the same phenotype. b. Both parents have the same genotype. c. They could not have a child with albinism. d. All of the above are true statements. ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 1126 TOP: Dominant and Recessive Traits 30. Which of the following is (are) not (a) mutagen(s)? a. Radiation b. Viruses c. Chemicals d. All of the above are mutagens. ANS: D DIF: Memorization B.C M REF: p. 1129 TOP: Genetic Mutations U S N T O 31. When one or more DNA nucleotides are missing in a gene, it can be called a(n): a. deletion. b. insertion. c. mutation. d. Both A and C are correct. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1142 TOP: Genetic Mutations 32. Carriers of cystic fibrosis are thought to be protected from: a. malaria. b. tuberculosis. c. cholera. d. the toxic effects of mold growing on grain. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1132 TOP: Single-Gene Diseases 33. Carriers of Tay-Sachs disease have a higher resistance to: a. malaria. b. tuberculosis. c. cholera. d. the toxic effects of mold growing on grain.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM U S N T O ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1132 TOP: Single-Gene Diseases 34. Which of the following conditions does not occur as a result of nondisjunction? a. Tay-Sachs disease b. Down syndrome c. Turner syndrome d. Klinefelter syndrome ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1135 TOP: Chromosomal Diseases 35. A karyotype would not be helpful in determining: a. whether an individual has Down syndrome. b. whether an individual has Turner syndrome. c. whether an individual has PKU. d. the sex of the offspring. ANS: C DIF: Application REF: p. 1135 TOP: Karyotype 36. Genes determine the structure and function of the body by regulating the body’s production of: a. carbohydrates. b. lipids. c. enzymes. d. all of the above. ANS: C DIF: MNemoRrizaItionG B.C M TOP: Chromosomes and Genes REF: p. 1122 37. Which of the following processes does not aid in increasing the genetic variability of offspring? a. Independent assortment b. Gene linkage c. Crossing over d. All of the above aid in increasing the genetic variation of offspring. ANS: B DIF: Application REF: pp. 1125-1126 TOP: Principle of Independent Assortment 38. Assume that “A” is dominant for normal skin color and “a” is recessive for albinism. The parents with which of the following genotypes could have a child with albinism? a. AA x AA b. Aa x AA c. AA x aa d. Aa x Aa ANS: D DIF: Application REF: p. 1126 TOP: Gene Expression 39. The parents with which of the following genotypes could not have a child with albinism? a. AA x aa b. Aa x AaAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM c. Aa x aa d. Both B and C ANS: A DIF: Application REF: p. 1126 TOP: Gene Expression 40. In human blood type, types A and B are codominant, producing type AB. They are both dominant to the recessive O type. Which of the following parental genotypes could produce a child with type O blood? a. AB x AO b. AO x BO c. AO x BB d. None of the above genotypes can produce a type O offspring. ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 1126 TOP: Gene Expression 41. In human blood type, A and B are codominant, producing type AB. They are both dominant to the recessive O type. If parents had genotypes AO and BO, a child with which blood type could be theirs? a. A child with type A blood b. A child with type B blood c. A child with type O blood d. All of the above children could be theirs. ANS: D DIF: Application REF: p. 1126 TOP: Gene Expression 42. Color blindness is a sex-linked trait. Which of the following parental genotypes could produce a color-blind female? (X’ indicates the color-blind trait.) a. X’X x XY b. XX x X’Y c. X’X x X’Y d. X’X’ x XY NURSINGTB.COM ANS: C DIF: Application REF: p. 1126 TOP: Sex-Linked Traits 43. If a man had Leber hereditary optic neuropathy, a mitochondrial DNA-carried disease, what is the probability of him passing the trait on to his offspring? a. 100% b. 75% c. 0% d. There is not enough information to determine the probability. ANS: C DIF: Application REF: p. 1132 TOP: Mitochondrial Inheritance 44. Diet soda containing NutraSweet should not be given to people with: a. Tay-Sachs disease. b. phenylketonuria. c. osteogenesis imperfecta. d. Diet soda would have no effect on any of the above conditions. ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 1132 TOP: Single-Gene Diseases 45. Which of the following diseases is not a single-gene dominant trait? a. Huntington diseaseAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM b. Cystic fibrosis c. Osteogenesis imperfecta d. All of the above are single-gene dominant traits. ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1133 TOP: Single-Gene Diseases 46. Which of the following diseases is not a single-gene recessive trait? a. Huntington disease b. Tay-Sachs disease c. PKU d. All of the above are single-gene recessive traits. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1133 TOP: Single-Gene Diseases 47. Which of the following diseases is carried by mitochondrial DNA? a. Retinitis pigmentosa b. Severe combined immune deficiency c. Ocular albinism d. None of the above diseases is carried by mitochondrial DNA. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 1131-1132 TOP: Mitochondrial Inheritance 48. The genetic code is transmitted to offspring in discrete, independent units that are called: a. chromosomes. b. genes. c. gametes. d. nucleosomes. NURSINGTB.COM ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1122 TOP: Chromosomes and Genes 49. The subunits of chromatin wound around a histone protein is called a: a. gene. b. chromosome. c. nucleosome. d. nucleotide. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1122 TOP: Chromosomes and Genes 50. Which of the following is not a type of RNA? a. Mitochondrial RNA b. Ribosomal RNA c. Transfer RNA d. All of the above are types of RNA. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1122 TOP: Chromosomes and Genes 51. The entire collection of genetic material in each typical cell of the human body is called:Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM a. diploid. b. haploid. c. nucleosomes. d. genome. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1123 TOP: The Human Genome 52. The human genome contains about genes. a. 200,000 to 300,000 b. 150,000 to 250,000 c. 75,000 to 100,000 d. 20,000 to 25,000 ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1123 TOP: The Human Genome 53. Chromosome 1 contains the most number of genes, nearly: a. 3000. b. 2000. c. 1000. d. 5000. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1123 TOP: The Human Genome 54. Coding portions of DNA tend to lie in clusters rich in which two nucleotides? a. Thymine and cytosine b. Cytosine and guanine c. Cytosine and adenine d. Thymine and adenine NURSINGTB.COM ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1123 TOP: The Human Genome 55. Which is a simple cartoon of a chromosome used to show the overall physical structure of a chromosome? a. Genome b. Transcriptome c. Ideogram d. Karyotype ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1125 TOP: The Human Genome 56. The chromosome that has the fewest genes contains only 200 genes and is called: a. chromosome 1. b. chromosome 7. c. Y chromosome. d. X chromosome. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1123 TOP: The Human GenomeAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 57. The products of meiosis are: a. gametes. b. haploid cells. c. made only of autosomes. d. both A and B. ANS: D DIF: Application REF: p. 1125 TOP: Meiosis 58. In a pedigree, a half-shaded circle indicates a: a. female that is a carrier for a trait. b. male that is a carrier for a trait. c. female with the trait. d. male with the trait. ANS: A DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1136 TOP: Pedigree 59. If a pedigree tracing the albinism trait showed a square that was filled in, it would indicate a: a. female had albinism. b. male had albinism. c. female had normal skin color. d. male was a carrier for albinism. ANS: B DIF: Application REF: p. 1136 TOP: Pedigree 60. If a karyotype found an X chromosome, a Y chromosome, and three 21st chromosomes, it would indicate a syndNromRe. I G B.C M a. female with Down b. female with Turner c. male with Klinefelter d. male with Down U S N T O ANS: D DIF: Application REF: p. 1135 TOP: Chromosomal Diseases and Karyotype TRUE/FALSE 1. Gregor Mendel proved that “independent units” are responsible for the inheritance of biological traits. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1122 TOP: The Science of Genetics 2. Exons are removed from transcribed RNA to form the functional mRNA strand. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1122 TOP: Mechanisms of Gene Function 3. Every cell in the human body, both male and female, contains 46 chromosomes. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1125Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM B.C M TOP: Meiosis 4. In the human, the 22 pairs of autosomes always appear to be nearly identical to each other. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1125 TOP: Meiosis 5. The principle of independent assortment states that each gamete formed is likely to have the same set of 23 chromosomes. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1125 TOP: Principle of Independent Assortment 6. Crossing over is a unique phenomenon that prevents genetic variation among offspring of a single set of parents. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 1125-1126 TOP: Principle of Independent Assortment 7. DNA molecules are segments of a gene. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1122 TOP: Mechanisms of Gene Function 8. Each offspring from a single set of parents is likely to be genetically unique. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1125 TOP: Principle of IndependentNAssRortmIentG U S N T O 9. Gene linkage decreases the likelihood of genetic variation among the offspring of a single set of parents. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1125 TOP: Principle of Independent Assortment 10. A person who is heterozygous for albinism will have the abnormal phenotype for the condition. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1126 TOP: Gene Expression 11. Both males and females have an X chromosome. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1128 TOP: Sex-Linked Traits 12. The X chromosome and the Y chromosome are the same size. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1128 TOP: Sex-Linked Traits 13. Genetic mutations are always harmful.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1130 TOP: Genetic Mutations 14. The manner in which the genotype is expressed is called the phenotype. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1126 TOP: Gene Expression 15. Sickle cell inheritance is a good example of how codominance works. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1127 TOP: Codominance 16. Disease genes never provide biological advantages for human populations, regardless of the circumstances. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1127 TOP: Codominance 17. Theoretically, the best chance for producing a girl infant would be for insemination to occur on the day of ovulation. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1128, Box 48-2 TOP: Timing and Sex Determination (Box 48-2) 18. A sperm containing a Y chromosome swims faster than a sperm containing an X chromosome. N URSINGTB.COM ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1128, Box 48-2 TOP: Timing and Sex Determination (Box 48-2) 19. The Y chromosome is larger than the X chromosome. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1128 TOP: Sex-Linked Traits 20. The X chromosome contains few genes other than those that determine female sexual characteristics. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1128 TOP: Sex-Linked Traits 21. Red-green color blindness, which involves a deficiency of photopigments in the retina, is an example of a recessive X-linked condition. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1128 TOP: Sex-Linked Traits 22. A genetic carrier is someone who has the gene but does not express the trait. An example would be someone who is heterozygous for a dominant/recessive trait.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1126 TOP: Dominant and Recessive Traits 23. Some disease conditions, such as trisomy, always require the combined effects of inheritance and environmental factors. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 1130-1131 TOP: Nuclear Inheritance 24. Mitochondrial inheritance is known to transmit genes for several degenerative nerve and muscle disorders. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1131 TOP: Mitochondrial Inheritance 25. Phenylketonuria is caused by dominant genes that fail to produce the enzyme phenylalanine hydroxylase. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1132 TOP: Single-Gene Diseases 26. Thalassemia is an example of a chromosomal abnormality involving trisomy of the 23rd chromosome. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1130 TOP: Examples of Genetic Conditions 27. Osteogenesis imperfecta is aNdoUmRiS naIntNgGenTeBtic.dCisOoMrder of connective tissue. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1134 TOP: Examples of Genetic Conditions 28. Nondisjunction results in gametes that produce either trisomy or monosomy in the cells of offspring. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1131 TOP: Nuclear Inheritance 29. All congenital disorders are inherited disorders. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1131, Box 48-3 TOP: Congenital Disorders (Box 48-3) 30. Genetic diseases may be caused by abnormality in a single gene or by a chromosomal defect. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1131 TOP: Nuclear Inheritance 31. Cystic fibrosis commonly occurs among all ethnic groups. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1130 TOP: Single-Gene DiseasesAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 32. Tay-Sachs disease is a dominant condition involving failure to make a lipid-producing enzyme. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1132 TOP: Single-Gene Diseases 33. Osteogenesis imperfecta is a recessive disorder of connective tissues. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1134 TOP: Single-Gene Diseases 34. Nondisjunction results in gametes that produce trisomy but not monosomy in the cells of offspring. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1135 TOP: Nuclear Inheritance 35. Chorionic villus sampling is a newer procedure than amniocentesis. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1137 TOP: Karyotype 36. After age 35, a mother’s chances of producing a trisomic child increase dramatically. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1135 TOP: Chromosomal Diseases 37. The genotype XXY results in NRUSTurne IGBNTrsyndrom .e C. OM ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1135 TOP: Chromosomal Diseases 38. Fortunately, individuals with Klinefelter syndrome generally are not sterile. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1135 TOP: Chromosomal Diseases 39. One hypothesis regarding cancer involves the presence of oncogenes that, under normal conditions, regulate cell division so that it proceeds normally. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1136 TOP: Genetic Basis of Cancer 40. A pedigree is a chart that illustrates genetic relationships in a family over several generations. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1136 TOP: Pedigree 41. A karyotype is a grid used to determine the mathematical probability of inheriting genetic traits.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1136 TOP: Punnett Square 42. Fetal tissue can be collected by amniocentesis, a procedure in which fetal cells floating in the amniotic fluid are collected with a syringe. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1137 TOP: Karyotype 43. People who inherit the gene for hemophilia have an increased risk factor for a blood clotting disease that will express itself in the correct environmental conditions. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1122 TOP: The Science of Genetics 44. Many of the polypeptides formed by encoded genes are enzymes that control and regulate chemical reactions in the cell. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1122 TOP: Mechanisms of Gene Function 45. If PKU victims avoid large amounts of phenylalanine in their diets, especially during critical stages of development, severe complications can be avoided. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1138 TOP: Treating Genetic Diseases 46. Gene replacement therapy attNemUR ptSs tIoNadGdTgBen.eCticOalMly altered cells to the body. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1138 TOP: Treating Genetic Diseases 47. The ultimate goal behind gene augmentation is to change existing body cells. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1138 TOP: Treating Genetic Diseases 48. Because there have been tragic setbacks is some gene therapy clinical trials, there are presently no approved gene therapies available. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1138 TOP: Treating Genetic Diseases 49. The inheritance of a genetic risk factor is not sufficient to cause a disease. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 1122 TOP: The Science of Genetics 50. The Genome Project discovered that the human genome contains about 30,000 genes, about three times the number that was expected. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1123 TOP: Mechanisms of Gene FunctionAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM 51. Because of our greater complexity, the human genome carries about eight times as many genes as the fruit fly does. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1122 TOP: Mechanisms of Gene Function 52. Genomics is the science of the analysis of the genome’s code. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1124 TOP: The Human Genome 53. The proteome is to proteins in the cell what the genome is to the DNA in the cell. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 1124 TOP: The Human Genome 54. An ideogram and a pedigree show almost the same information. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1125 TOP: The Human Genome/Pedigree 55. The process of mitosis in humans produces gametes that contain only 23 chromosomes. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1125 TOP: Meiosis 56. A color-blind woman must have had a color-blind father. ANS: T DIF: A NRUpplica S tioInNGRTEBF:.C p.O11M28 TOP: Sex-Linked Traits 57. Crossing over increases genetic variation by forming new linkage patterns. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: pp. 1125-1126 TOP: Principle of Independent Assortment 58. People with sickle-cell trait must be heterozygous. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 1127 TOP: Codominant Traits | Dominant and Recessive Traits 59. The sickle-cell gene produces an abnormal protein chain in the hemoglobin molecule. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1127 TOP: Codominance 60. All female gametes carry the X chromosome. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1128 TOP: Sex-Linked Traits 61. A female who is red-green color blind must be heterozygous for the condition.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 1128 TOP: Sex-Linked Traits 62. A person with heterozygous sex chromosomes is a female. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 1128 TOP: Sex-Linked Traits 63. The term mutation simply means “change.” ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1129 TOP: Genetic Mutations 64. A disease carried on mDNA must be received from the mother. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1131 TOP: Mitochondrial Inheritance 65. For an individual to have Down syndrome, one of the gametes had to have contained 24 chromosomes. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 1135 TOP: Chromosomal Diseases 66. A Punnett square or a pedigree can only predict the probability or possibility of passing on a trait to an offspring. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 1136-1137 TOP: Pedigree | Punnett Square 67. A Punnett square can be usedNt oU detecRIS tDownGBNT s. yndrCMO ome. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 1136-1137 TOP: Punnett Square | Karyotype 68. Pseudogenes are gene fragments that can be reassembled to form a variety of polypeptides. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1123 TOP: The Human Genome 69. A person who received a human-engineered chromosome as a form of gene therapy would have 47 chromosomes in that cell. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1138 TOP: Treating Genetic Diseases 70. One form of gene therapy uses bacteria-like DNA plasmids to carry therapeutic genes to a cell. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1138 TOP: Treating Genetic Diseases 71. A strand of DNA wound around a histone is called a nucleosome. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1122Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM TOP: Chromosomes and Genes 72. The function of DNA is to transcribe the genetic code to tRNA. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 1122-1123 TOP: Chromosomes and Genes 73. Genes are segments of DNA molecules. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1122 TOP: Chromosomes and Genes 74. Chromatin and chromosomes are both forms of DNA. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1122 TOP: Chromosomes and Genes 75. The term pedigree refers to the entire collection of genetic material in each typical cell of the human body. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1136 TOP: Pedigree 76. There are 44 autosomes in most human cells. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: pp. 1122-1123 TOP: Chromosomes and Genes 77. Autosomes not only carry theNsUamReSgIeNneGsTbuBt.alCsoOaMre carried in the same location on the chromosome. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 1122-1123 TOP: Chromosomes and Genes 78. In a dominant/recessive trait, the heterozygous person would look like the homozygous person. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1126 TOP: Dominant and Recessive Traits 79. Homozygous refers to a trait that is determined by a single gene pair. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1126 TOP: Dominant and Recessive Traits 80. Polygenic traits have more than one gene pair that contributes to their expression. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1127 TOP: Dominant and Recessive Traits 81. The beta chain in hemoglobin remains normal in a person with sickle cell anemia.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1127 TOP: Codominance 82. There are no normal alpha hemoglobin chains in a person with sickle cell anemia. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1127 TOP: Codominance 83. A person with sickle cell trait has some normal beta hemoglobin chains in his or her blood. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1127 TOP: Codominance 84. The father determines the sex of the offspring. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 1128 TOP: Sex-Linked Traits 85. There is no such thing as a heterozygous color-blind female. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 1128 TOP: Sex-Linked Traits 86. There is no such thing as a homozygous color-blind female. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 1128 TOP: Sex-Linked Traits 87. Statistical evidence supports a link between time of insemination and the sex of the offspring. ANS: T DIF: MNemoRrizaItionG B.C M REF: p. 1128, Box 48-2 TOP: Timing and Sex DeterminaUtionS(BoNx 4T8-2) O 88. Because the Y chromosome is smaller than the X chromosome, geneticists have found that only about 25% of the clinically significant sex-linked traits are found on the Y chromosome. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1128 TOP: Sex-Linked Traits 89. A mutagen causes a change in the genetic code. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1129 TOP: Genetic Mutations 90. The terms genetic disorder and congenital disorder are interchangeable. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1131, Box 48-3 TOP: Congenital Disorders (Box 48-3) 91. Fetal alcohol syndrome can be classified as both a congenital and genetic disorder. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1131, Box 48-3 TOP: Congenital Disorders (Box 48-3) 92. Cleft palate can be classified as both a congenital and genetic disorder.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank NURSINGTB.COM ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1131, Box 48-3 TOP: Congenital Disorders (Box 48-3) 93. Fatal mutations are the least harmful to the population as a whole. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1132 TOP: Genetic Mutations 94. A genetic disease or condition that requires a specific environmental condition for expression is called a genetic predisposition. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1131 TOP: Nuclear Inheritance 95. Trisomy conditions that involve about 75% of the autosomes are fatal to the offspring. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1131 TOP: Nuclear Inheritance 96. The sperm cytoplasm rather than the sperm nucleus is responsible for transmission of mitochondrial DNA. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: pp. 1131-1132 TOP: Mitochondrial Inheritance 97. The egg cytoplasm rather than the egg nucleus is responsible for transmission of mitochondrial DNA. N URSINGTB.COM ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1132 TOP: Mitochondrial Inheritance 98. The effect on the body of uncontrolled PKU is damage to the liver and kidneys. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1132 TOP: Single-Gene Diseases 99. By restricting fat intake, persons with Tay-Sachs disease can successfully manage the disease. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1132 TOP: Single-Gene Diseases 100. The symptoms of osteogenesis imperfecta frequently disappear after puberty. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1134 TOP: Single-Gene Diseases 101. Transcriptomics is the analysis of all the mRNA codes actually transcribed from the human genome. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1124 TOP: The Human GenomeAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank TOP: Chromosomes and Genes NURSINGTB.COM 102. Klinefelter syndrome can be treated with reproductive and growth hormones. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1135 TOP: Chromosomal Diseases 103. It may be that women of any age have an equal likelihood of nondisjunction, but in younger women, the fetuses would spontaneously abort. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1135 TOP: Chromosomal Diseases 104. Oncogenes are altered forms of normal genes. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1136 TOP: Genetic Basis of Cancer 105. Xeroderma pigmentosum is a genetic disease that affects the ability to form pigments in the eye, leading to color blindness. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1136 TOP: Genetic Basis of Cancer 106. People with xeroderma pigmentosum have a high risk of developing skin cancer. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1136 TOP: Genetic Basis of Cancer 107. In a pedigree, a partially shad Ne UdRciSrcIleNwGou TlBd .inCdiOcaMte a female carrier for the trait. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1136 TOP: Pedigree 108. In a pedigree, a completely empty square would indicate a male that had the trait. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1136 TOP: Pedigree 109. A karyotype is effective only in identifying chromosomal abnormalities. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 1137 TOP: Karyotype 110. For a karyotype to be an effective predictor of genetic problems, it must be able to go back several generations. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 1137-1138 TOP: Karyotype 111. One specific transcribed mRNA strand will always produce the same polypeptide. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1122Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank TOP: Chromosomes and Genes NURSINGTB.COM U S N T 112. The chromosome with the fewest number of genes is carried by about only half the population. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1123 TOP: The Human Genome 113. Several human genes seem to have originated in bacteria. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 1123 TOP: The Human Genome 114. You would expect the p-arm of a chromosome to carry more genes than the q-arm of the chromosome. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1125 TOP: The Human Genome 115. Only about half of the human population has 23 pairs of chromosomes in their cells. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 1125 TOP: Meiosis 116. If a child is albino, at least one of the parents must be albino. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 1126 TOP: Dominant and Recessive Traits 117. In determining blood type, type A and type B are codominant to the recessive O type. If one parent had type A blood andNoneRparIentGhadBty.pCe BMblood, they could not have a child with type O blood. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 1127 TOP: Codominant Traits 118. A mutation caused by the loss of nucleotide bases in DNA sequence is called a deletion mutation. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1132 TOP: Genetic Mutations 119. All mutations are caused by some external force such as radiation or certain viruses. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1129 TOP: Genetic Mutations 120. The scientific study of inheritance is called genetics. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1122 TOP: Introduction 121. When DNA is in its chromosomal form, it is non-functional. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 1122-1123Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank 122. The human genome contains about 200,000 genes. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1123 TOP: Human Genome 123. Most of the coding sections of DNA contain T-A–rich sections. ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1123 TOP: The Human Genome 124. In order for reproduction to be successful, all gametes must be haploid cells. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 1125 TOP: Distribution of Chromosomes to Offspring 125. Gene linkage and crossing over have opposite effects on genetic variation. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: pp. 1125-1126 TOP: Principle of Independent Assortment 126. If a mother is homozygous for normal skin color and the father is albino, none of their offspring will be albino. ANS: T DIF: Application REF: p. 1126 TOP: Dominant and Recessive Traits 127. About 1% of the sperm and 1N0%Rof tIhe oGocyBte.sChavMe extra, missing, or broken chromosomes. U S N T O ANS: F DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1135 TOP: Chromosomal Diseases 128. RNA interference, or iRNA, is being studied as a way to treat genetic disorders. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1138 TOP: Treating Genetic Diseases 129. An adult who is homozygous for Tay-Sachs disease is more resistant to TB. ANS: F DIF: Application REF: p. 1132 TOP: Single-Gene Diseases 130. A missing part of the q-arm of the Y chromosome may cause an inherited problem with spermatogenesis and possible infertility. ANS: T DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1128 TOP: Sex-Linked Traits MATCHING Match each of the terms with its corresponding definition. a. Recessive b. CodominanceAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank U S N T c. Monosomy d. Autosome e. Karyotype f. Sex-linked trait g. Dominant h. Trisomy i. Punnett square j. Genome k. Sex chromosome l. Heterozygous m. Homozygous n. Genetics 1. Ordered arrangement of photographs of chromosomes from a single cell; used in genetic counseling to identify chromosomal disorders 2. Genes that have effects that do not appear in the offspring when they are masked by a dominant gene 3. Type of dominance in which two dominant versions of a trait are both expressed in the same person 4. Triplet of autosomes resulting from a mistake in meiosis 5. One of 44 chromosomes in the human genome besides the two sex chromosomes 6. Grid used in genetic counseling to determine probability of inheriting genetic traits 7. Nonsexual trait carried on sex chromosomes 8. Genotype with two different genes for one trait 9. Genes that have effects that always appears in the offspring 10. Pair of chromosomes in the hNumRan gIenoGmeBth.atCdetMermine sex 11. Genotype with two identical genes for a single trait 12. Presence of only one autosome of a pair 13. Entire set of chromosomes in a cell 14. The scientific study of inheritance 1. ANS: TOP: 2. ANS: TOP: E DIF: Memorization Karyotype A DIF: Memorization Dominant and Recessive Traits REF: REF: p. 1137 p. 1126 3. ANS: TOP: B DIF: Memorization Codominance REF: p. 1127 4. ANS: TOP: H DIF: Memorization Nuclear Inheritance REF: p. 1131 5. ANS: TOP: D DIF: Memorization Meiosis REF: p. 1125 6. ANS: TOP: I DIF: Memorization Punnett Square REF: pp. 1136-1138 7. ANS: TOP: F DIF: Memorization Sex-Linked Traits REF: p. 1128 8. ANS: TOP: L DIF: Memorization Dominant and Recessive Traits REF: p. 1126 9. ANS: TOP: G DIF: Memorization Dominant and Recessive Traits REF: p. 1126Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank 10. ANS: K DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1128 TOP: Sex-Linked Traits 11. ANS: M DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1126 TOP: Dominance 12. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1131 TOP: Nuclear Inheritance 13. ANS: J DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1123 TOP: The Human Genome 14. ANS: N DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1122 TOP: Introduction Match each condition with its corresponding statement or definition. a. Down syndrome b. Huntington disease c. Klinefelter syndrome deficiency d. Multiple neurofibromatosis e. Parkinson disease f. Retinitis pigmentosa g. Severe combined immune deficiency h. Tay-Sachs disease 15. Caused by the presence of two or more X chromosomes in a male 16. Lymphocytes fail to develop properly 17. Nervous disorder characterized by involuntary trembling and muscle rigidity 18. Condition characterized by mental retardation and multiple defects, caused by trisomy 21 19. Condition in which abnormal lipids accumulate in the brain and cause tissue damage leading to death by age 4 NURSINGTB.COM 20. Degenerative brain disorder characterized by chorea, progressing to severe dementia and death generally by age 55 21. Condition that causes blindness; characterized by lumps of melanin in the retina of eyes 22. Disorder characterized by multiple tumors of the Schwann cells that surround nerve fibers 15. ANS: TOP: C DIF: Memorization Chromosomal Diseases REF: p. 1135 16. ANS: G DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1133, Table 48-1 TOP: Examples of Genetic Conditions (Table 48-1) 17. ANS: TOP: E DIF: Memorization Examples of Genetic Conditions (Table 48-1) REF: p. 1133, Table 48-1 18. ANS: TOP: A DIF: Memorization Chromosomal Diseases REF: p. 1135 19. ANS: TOP: H DIF: Memorization Single-Gene Diseases REF: p. 1132 20. ANS: TOP: B DIF: Memorization Examples of Genetic Conditions (Table 48-1) REF: p. 1133, Table 48-1 21. ANS: TOP: F DIF: Memorization Examples of Genetic Conditions (Table 48-1) REF: p. 1133, Table 48-1 22. ANS: TOP: D DIF: Memorization Examples of Genetic Conditions (Table 48-1) REF: p. 1133, Table 48-1 Match each term with its corresponding definition or description.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank a. Proteome b. Ideogram c. Genome d. Genomics e. P-arm f. Proteomics g. Q-arm 23. Long arm of the chromosome 24. Entire group of proteins encoded by the DNA of a cell 25. Simple cartoon of a chromosome 26. Analysis of proteins encoded by the genome 27. Short arm of the chromosome 28. The entire collection of genetic material in a typical cell 29. Analysis of the genome code 23. ANS: TOP: G The Human DIF: Genome Memorization REF: p. 1125 24. ANS: TOP: A The Human DIF: Genome Memorization REF: p. 1124 25. ANS: TOP: B The Human DIF: Genome Memorization REF: p. 1125 26. ANS: TOP: F The Human DIF: Genome Memorization REF: p. 1124 27. ANS: TOP: E The Human DIF: Genome Memorization REF: p. 1125 28. ANS: TOP: C The Human DIF: Genome MNem UoRriSzaItioNnGTB.COM REF: p. 1123 29. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1124 TOP: The Human Genome OTHER 1. When did the scientific study of genetics begin? Give a brief summary of what happened. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1122 TOP: The Science of Genetics 2. Explain the principle of independent assortment. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 1125-1126 TOP: Principle of Independent Assortment 3. What is codominance? Give an example of this phenomenon in your explanation.ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: p. 1124 TOP: Mechanism of Gene Function NURSINGTB.COM U S N T O ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1127 TOP: Codominance 4. What is meant when a trait is classified as sex-linked? Give an example of such a trait. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1128 TOP: Sex-Linked Traits 5. Define the term congenital disorder. Are these disorders always inherited? Explain. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1131, Box 48-3 TOP: Congenital Disorders (Box 48-3) 6. Give a brief description of one genetic disorder that is the result of nondisjunction during formation of the gametes. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1135 TOP: Nuclear Inheritance N R I G B.C M 7. Describe three possible hypotheses for the genetic basis of cancer. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1136 TOP: Genetic Basis of Cancer 8. Discuss genetic counseling. Include in your discussion an explanation of a pedigree, the Punnett square, and a karyotype. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 1136-1138 TOP: Genetic Counseling 9. Why must DNA transcription stop during mitosis?ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: p. 1124 TOP: Mechanism of Gene Function NURSINGTB.COM 10. Explain the structure of the chromosome. What is the difference between a chromosome and chromatin? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1122 TOP: Chromosomes and Genes 11. What is a genetic mutation? What types of genetic mutations are there and what are some causes of mutation? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 1129-1130 TOP: Genetic Mutations 12. What is mitochondrial inheritance? Why does it only involve the mother and what type of diseases or deficiencies are caused by mitochondrial genes? ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Application REF: p. 1132 TOP: Mitochondrial Inheritance 13. The use of a karyotype would be helpful in determining the possibility of what type of genetic condition? The use of a pedigree would be helpful in determining the possibility of what type of genetic condition? ANS: Answers will vary. NURSINGTB.COM DIF: Application REF: pp. 1136-1138 TOP: Pedigree and Karyotype 14. Describe three types of gene therapy that may be used to treat a genetic disorder. ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization REF: p. 1138 TOP: Using Gene Therapy ESSAY 1. Explain how the regulation of enzyme production can regulate cell activity.Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank 2. A man with type B blood and normal skin pigment married a woman with type A blood and normal skin pigment. They had a child with type O blood who was albino. Give the genotypes for blood type and skin pigment for each parent. ANS: AO Aa  BO Aa TOP: Dominant and Recessive Traits, Codominant TraitsAnatomy and Physiology 10th Edition Patton Test Bank THE END BEST OF LUCK @SMARTGRADES [Show More]

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