NAPSR Final Exam Questions Bank / NAPSR Final Exam Preparation Practice Set|Latest-2020: Verified Answers

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NAPSRX PRACTICE QUESTIONS- TEST PREP Quiz 1 , Chapter 1 1. Pharmaceuticals are arguably the most socially important healthcare product. i. TRUE ii. FALSE 2. Pharmaceutical development is a h... igh-risk undertaking, in which many promising leads prove disappointing. i. TRUE ii. FALSE 3. Pharmaceutical sales are highest in which geographical regions? i. The U.S., Saudi Arabia, and Japan ii. The U.S., Western Europe, and Japan iii. Western Europe, Australia, and Canada iv. Western Europe, Canada, and Saudi Arabia 4. The U.S. accounts for about ____ of the world’s pharmaceutical revenues. i. 30% ii. 50% iii. 80% iv. 95% 5. Which of the following has fueled recent growth in the pharmaceutical industry? i. increased international standardization and regulation ii. international legalization of DTC advertising iii. population growth and increased life expectancies iv. all of these 6. According to your manual, which statement accurately describes the predicted relationship between pharmaceutical companies and genomic research facilities? i. "Genomic research company" is another term for "ethical research company." ii. Partnerships between pharmaceutical companies and genomic companies will not prove immediately profitable. iii. Pharmaceutical companies have little to no interest in partnerships with genomic research companies. iv. Pharmaceutical companies will be genomic research companies' biggest competitors in the coming years. 7. Prescription drug therapy is not cost-effective for insurance companies and healthcare providers. i. TRUE ii. FALSE 8. The high price of healthcare is explained by the high price of medicines. i. TRUE ii. FALSE 9. One of the oldest and least effective pharmaceutical marketing techniques is DTC (direct-to-consumer) advertising. i. TRUE ii. FALSE 10. What influences the number of districts in a region? i. the number of qualified sales representatives who apply to represent that region ii. the region's population iii. both the district's population and the number of qualified sales representatives who apply to represent that region iv. none of these 11. What is an example of the regionalization of healthcare delivery systems? i. California and Florida have different demographics. ii. California and Florida have different drug companies. iii. California and Florida have different DTC advertisements. iv. California and Florida have different prescription reimbursement policies. 12. The heart of a pharmaceutical sales team is the Regional Manager. i. TRUE ii. FALSE 13. Most DMs did not start as representatives. i. TRUE ii. FALSE 14. How many territories are in a typical district? i. 1 to 2 ii. 8 to 12 iii. 30 to 40 iv. 50 to 100 15. What is the most effective method for grabbing market share? i. comparative selling ii. criticizing the competition iii. power point presentations iv. questioning doctors' choices Quiz 2 , Chapter 2 & 3 1. Pharmaceutical reps mainly visit pharmacies. i. TRUE ii. FALSE 2. It usually only takes 1-2 calls to a physician before he or she commits to prescribing your product. i. TRUE ii. FALSE 3. The pharmacist may dispense a product other than what the physician prescribed i. TRUE ii. FALSE 4. According to Chapter 12 of your manual, which of the following would classify as "payers"? i. employers ii. patients iii. pharmacists iv. physicians 5. According to your manual, what defines "ethical pharmaceutical companies"? i. donating a specified proportion of their revenue to consumer organizations ii. donating a specified proportion of their revenue to the NIH iii. manufacturing generics iv. researching and developing novel drugs 6. One of the most disappointing results of the pharmaceutical industry’s continued investment in R & D is the few new drugs being approved and in development. i. TRUE ii. FALSE 7. Thanks to modern medicines, how long are people newly diagnosed with HIV expected to live? i. another 10 years ii. another 20 years iii. another 5 years iv. another 50 years 8. How much has the average American lifespan increased since 1890? i. almost 10 years ii. almost 15 years iii. almost 30 years iv. almost 5 years 9. What is a treatment group? i. a group of patients assigned to receive a specified treatment ii. a group of patients who have volunteered to receive the active drug, but not the placebo iii. A group of substances being tested iv. A list of study protocols 10. What is the main difference between a blinded and double-blinded study? i. A blinded study is performed to control the placebo effect whereas a double-blinded study is performed to control the observer effect. ii. A double-blinded study has two control groups, but a blinded study only has one. iii. Blinded studies are more scientifically rigorous. iv. In a double blinded study, neither the study staff nor the study participants know which subjects are in the experimental group and which are in the control. 11. What does "asymptomatic" mean? i. exhibiting atypical signs or symptoms that were not indicated in the product packaging ii. not exhibiting signs or symptoms iii. refusing treatment for symptoms iv. toxic or harmful to the human body Quiz 3 , Chapter 4 1. Which term denotes the study of bodily functions (as opposed to structures)? i. anatomy ii. cytology iii. oncology iv. physiology 2. In its broadest definition, a drug is any substance that produces a physical or psychological change in the body. i. TRUE ii. FALSE 3. How does the Federal Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act (FFDCA) define a drug? i. any substance intended for use in the diagnosis, cure, mitigation, treatment or prevention of disease, or a substance other than food intended to affect the structure or function of the body ii. any substance that causes legitimate side effects iii. any substance that outperforms a placebo iv. any substance that produces a physical or psychological change in the body 4. Which statement about vitamins is CORRECT? i. Most of the body's required vitamins are manufactured in the bone marrow. ii. Most of the body's required vitamins are products of the body's metabolic processes. iii. Most of the body's required vitamins must be taken in from outside the body. iv. The body manufactures most of the vitamins it requires. 5. ADME testing measures the rate at which the body absorbs the drug, distributes it to the organs necessary to produce the desired effect, metabolizes it into waste material and then excretes it from the body. i. TRUE ii. FALSE 6. ADME testing is primarily used in what field? i. epidemiology ii. epigenetics iii. pharmacodynamics iv. pharmacokinetics 7. Which statement about placebos is CORRECT? i. By definition, placebos must b designed to affect everyone equally. ii. Placebo effects can be distinguished from drugs because they are always desirable. iii. Placebo effects can lead to withdrawal symptoms. iv. Placebos can be distinguished from drugs because they do not lead to withdrawal symptoms. 8. On average, only about 5 of 4,000 drugs studied in the laboratory are eventually studied in people. i. TRUE ii. FALSE 9. Which statement is TRUE about drugs taken sublingually? i. Sublingual administration is the most common route of administration. ii. Sublingual drugs are absorbed directly and almost immediately into the bloodstream. iii. Sublingual drugs are used primarily to treat the mouth. iv. Sublingual drugs must first pass through the intestinal wall and liver, just like oral drugs, but can be used in patients with swallowing problems. 10. What are 3 of the 7 rights of drug administration? i. the right patient, the right drug, and the right dose ii. the right supervision, the right patient, and the right dose iii. the right technique, the right documentation, and the right supervision iv. the right to information about one's medication, the right to question one's treatment, and the right to a second opinion 11. Pro-drugs are administered in an active form, which is metabolized into an inactive form. i. TRUE ii. FALSE 12. The kidney of an 85-year-old person excretes drugs only _____ as efficiently as that of a 35-year-old person. i. around 15% ii. around 30% iii. around 50% iv. This is impossible to predict because it depends on such a wide range of other factors. 13. The normal age-related decrease in kidney function can help doctors determine an appropriate dosage based solely on a person’s age. i. TRUE ii. FALSE 14. What DIFFERENTIATES a caplet from a tablet? i. Caplets are made of compressed powder. ii. Caplets are shaped like capsules and have film coatings to aid in swallowing. iii. Caplets are used for sustained-release drugs. iv. Caplets contain hard cylindrical granules, liquids, or some combination of these. 15. Where will you find the legend “Caution: Federal Law prohibits dispensing without a prescription”? i. on the label of all prescription drugs ii. on the labels of all generic drugs iii. only on the labels of drugs dispensed at pharmacies (as opposed to, e.g., product samples at doctors' offices) iv. only on the labels of product samples 16. What happens in slow acetylators? i. Drugs that are metabolized by N-acetyl transferase are less likely to reach toxic levels than in fast acetylators. ii. Drugs that are metabolized by N-acetyl transferase tend to reach higher blood levels and remain in the body longer. iii. Drugs that are metabolized by N-acetyl transferase tend to reach lower blood levels, but remain in the body longer. iv. None of these statements apply to slow acetylators. Quiz 4 , Chapter 4 1. About _____ of the people in the U.S. are "slow acetylators." i. 1% ii. 5% iii. 25% iv. 50% 2. Which of the following statements about drug-drug interactions is INCORRECT? i. Drug-drug interactions are always harmful. ii. Duplication can involve two drugs with the same effect causing toxicity when taken together. iii. Duplication can involve two drugs with the same effect intensifying each other's therapeutic effects without any serious side effects. iv. Opposition can involve two drugs with opposing actions interacting to reduce one's effectiveness but not the other's. 3. Smoking decreases the effectiveness of some drugs. i. TRUE ii. FALSE 4. Which of the following statements about dietary supplements is INCORRECT? i. Because dietary supplements are not drugs, interactions with drugs are not a concern. ii. Dietary supplements are regulated as foods. iii. Dietary supplements contain vitamins, minerals, amino acids, and/or herbs. iv. all of these 5. Which statement/s is/are INCORRECT about an ideal drug, or "magic bullet" as Ehrlich phrased it? i. It does not exist. ii. It would be aimed precisely at a disease site. iii. It would not harm healthy tissues. iv. All of these statements are correct. 6. Which statement accurately differentiates resistance from tolerance? i. Doctors can predict resistance but not tolerance. ii. There is no difference between tolerance and resistance. iii. Tolerance is caused by genetic mutations, but resistance is always innate. iv. Tolerance refers to a person's diminished response to a drug after repeated use, while resistance applies to microorganisms' or "cancel" cells' abilities to withstand drug effects. 7. Between 3% and 7% of hospital admissions in the United States are estimated to be for treatment of adverse drug reactions. i. TRUE ii. FALSE 8. Which statement is true about the universal scale for quantifying the severity of an adverse drug reaction? i. The severities of adverse drug reactions are quantified by their chronicity. ii. The severities of adverse drug reactions are quantified by their threat to life. iii. None of these statements are true because the scale uses different criteria. iv. None of these statements are true because there is no such scale. 9. Why is noncompliance a serious public health concern? i. It erodes trust between physicians and pharmaceutical sales representatives. ii. It increases the cost of medical care. iii. It indicates a lack of accountability among healthcare providers. iv. Noncompliance is a serious public health concern for all of these reasons. 10. Which of the following is NOT eligible for patent protection under U.S. regulations? i. the drug itself ii. the method of delivering and releasing the drug into the bloodstream iii. the way the drug is made iv. Companies can be granted patents for all of these things. 11. Drugs' trade names are often unrelated to their intended use. i. TRUE ii. FALSE 12. Like foods and household products, generic drugs are usually lower quality than the brand name drugs for which they are marketed as equivalents. i. TRUE ii. FALSE 13. Legally, bioequivalence of different versions of a drug can vary by up to ________. i. 3.50% ii. 10% iii. 20% iv. The drugs must be 100% equivalent. 14. Which of the following statements about biologics is INCORRECT? i. They are also called “large molecule" drugs. ii. They are derived from living materials. iii. They do not cause immune responses. iv. Vaccines are a type of biologic. 15. “Large molecule” products are developed and manufactured by a chemical process. i. TRUE ii. FALSE 16. What are drugs that attract or bind to cell receptors in order to mimic or enhance activities by endogenous chemical messengers? i. agonists ii. antagonists iii. orphan drugs iv. steroids Quiz 5 , Chapter 4 1. Which term denotes how an API works in the body? i. formulation ii. mechanism of action iii. site of action iv. therapeutic group 2. What cements the active and inert components together to maintain cohesive portions? i. binders ii. colors iii. disintegrants iv. lubricants 3. What does the medical abbreviation "BID" denote? i. as needed ii. bioavailable in diet iii. quality of drugs iv. twice a day 4. What is the medical abbreviation for "as needed"? i. BID ii. PRN iii. PSN iv. QID 5. Which components might cause patients' different reactions to brand name and generic drugs? i. differences in active ingredients ii. differences in inactive ingredients iii. differences in both active and inactive ingredients iv. Patients' reactions to a brand name and generic drugs are equivalent. 6. All cells have a nucleus. i. TRUE ii. FALSE 7. Which of the following does NOT affect drug response? i. the patient's genetic makeup, age, body size, and use of other drugs and dietary supplements. ii. the patient's other conditions or diseases. iii. whether or not the patient takes the drug properly iv. All of these factors influence drug response. 8. Drug reactions are predictable because they do not occur after a person has been previously exposed to the drug one or more times without any allergic reactions. i. TRUE ii. FALSE 9. What is the typical relationship between a drug's site of administration and site of action? i. They are usually somewhat removed from each other. ii. They are usually the same site. iii. They should not be the same site for economic reasons. iv. They should not be the same site for safety reasons. 10. What is CMAX? i. an abbreviation for the maximum concentration of white blood cells ii. the peak plasma concentration on a measuring curve iii. the time interval within which a given dose of a drug is expected to have a therapeutic effect iv. the time of peak plasma concentration on a measuring curve 11. Which of the following is NOT a main concept in clinical pharmacology? i. Drug Distribution and Elimination ii. Pharmacodynamics iii. Pharmacokinetics iv. Pharmacoprocesses 12. Which of the following is NOT a route of drug administration? i. buccal ii. Intramuscular iii. sublingual iv. transfugal 13. How are intradermal drugs delivered? i. by injection under the skin ii. through a skin patch iii. through a topical ointment iv. under the tongue 14. What is an example of intravenous drug delivery? i. a subcutaneous insulin injection ii. a transdermal nicotine patch iii. an injection of anesthetic directly into the bloodstream iv. any type of pre-surgery anesthetic 15. What are the major organs of the gastrointestinal system? i. the heart, the blood vessels, and the blood ii. the lymph nodes and lymph vessels iii. the mouth, esophagus, stomach, liver, pancreas, gallbladder, small and large intestines iv. the nasal passages, the trachea, the diaphragm, and the lungs Quiz 6 , Chapter 6 1. Who is normally responsible for selling to distributors? i. Floaters ii. Local Territory Representatives iii. NAMs iv. Pharmacy Benefit Managers 2. How often do secondary drug wholesale distributors buy their drugs directly from manufactures? i. always ii. almost always iii. sometimes iv. never 3. By FDA law, large chain pharmacies are not allowed to buy directly from drug manufactures. i. TRUE ii. FALSE 4. Only 3 companies account for nearly 90% of all drug wholesale sales. i. TRUE ii. FALSE 5. What type of sale bypasses the need for intermediary distributors? i. brokerage sales ii. drop shipment sales iii. integrated delivery network sales iv. manufacturer-direct sales 6. What is a group purchasing organization (GPO)? i. a company that owns and operates 3 or fewer pharmacies ii. a wholesaler that obtains drugs from manufacturers and delivers them directly to pharmacists' warehouses iii. an entity consisting of two or more hospitals or other health care entities that negotiates contracts on behalf of its members iv. any distributor of a prescription drug that conducts at least 22 transactions every 2 years 7. Prescriptions dispensed by mail-order pharmacies are, on average, around ____________ than those dispensed by retail pharmacies. i. 3 times smaller ii. just slightly smaller iii. 3 times larger iv. 10 times larger 8. Which of the following is NOT a type of non-stock sale? i. brokerage sales ii. dock-to-dock sales iii. drop shipments iv. All of these are examples of non-stock sales. 9. What is another term for rebates? i. after-market arrangements ii. in-state arrangements iii. mail-order arrangements iv. sell-side arrangements 10. The PDMA is the Prescription Drug Manufacturers Association. i. TRUE ii. FALSE 11. A company that owns and operates three or fewer pharmacies is an ____________. i. authorized distributor ii. independent drug store iii. in-state wholesaler iv. integrated drug store 12. Which section of a drug's package insert information covers the usual dosage range? i. clinical pharmacology ii. contraindications iii. description iv. indications and usage 13. Drug labels must include indications, usage information, and contraindications. i. TRUE ii. FALSE 14. What should be included in the "description" section of a drug's package insert information? i. the drug's proprietary name and the established name ii. the indications iii. the mechanism of action iv. warnings Quiz 7 , Chapter 7 1. Exclusivity gives exclusive _____, is granted by the FDA, and can run concurrently with a patent or not. i. marketing rights ii. research work iii. trademark assignment iv. values 2. What differentiates exclusivity from a patent? i. Exclusivity can be granted at any time during a drug's lifespan. ii. Exclusivity can encompass a wide range of claims, whereas patents do not. iii. Exclusivity is only granted upon the drug's FDA approval. iv. Exclusivity typically lasts longer than patents. 3. What is required of an invention for it to be worthy of patent protection? i. It must be novel, useful, and not obvious. ii. It must have been on the market for at least 3 months. iii. It must have competitors. iv. all of these 4. A generic drug is ______ to the originator brand-name drug in dosage, strength, safety, and quality. i. bioequivalent ii. biophysical iii. different iv. similar 5. Which of the following is NOT required by the FDA's Criteria for Equivalency? i. The drugs are adequately labeled. ii. The drugs contain identical amounts of the same active ingredients. iii. The drugs contain identical amounts of the same inactive ingredients. iv. The drugs involve the same dosage form and route of administration. 6. A generic drug is ______ to the originator brand-name drug in dosage, strength, safety, and quality. i. bioequivalent ii. biophysical iii. different iv. similar 7. What list is generally considered the most reliable source of information on therapeutically equivalent drug products? i. "International Council on Harmonization (ICH) Handbook" ii. “Approved Drug Products with Therapeutic Equivalence” iii. The Blue Book iv. The Red Book 8. Which of the following is an Orange Book rating? i. AA ii. B iii. BZ iv. CZ 9. What is the term for chemical equivalents which, when administered in the same amounts, will provide the same biological or physiological availability as measured by blood and urine levels? i. biological equivalents ii. branded generics iii. therapeutic alternatives iv. therapeutic equivalents 10. What term denotes a drug that is identical or bioequivalent to the originator brand-name drug in dosage form, safety, strength, route, quality, performance, characteristics, and intended use? i. generic ii. OTC iii. therapeutic alternative iv. vector-based 11. What term denotes the dispensing of an unbranded generic product for the product prescribed? i. chemical substitution ii. generic substitution iii. pharmaceutical license iv. Pharmacist's license 12. What is the duration of a patent challenge? i. 2 weeks ii. 4 weeks iii. 180 Days iv. 1 Year Quiz 8 , Chapter 8 1. Ho w is a drug sample closet or cabinet like a grocery store shelf? i. Drug sample closets are like grocery store shelves in all these ways. ii. The generic products are usually kept on the top shelf. iii. The more expensive products are always kept on the top shelf. iv. The more visibility you can give your drug, the more likely that it will be prescribed. 2. Pharmaceutical representatives do not typically store and secure their own drug samples. i. TRUE ii. FALSE 3. Sampling is sometimes the most important factor in a pharmaceutical rep’s success. i. TRUE ii. FALSE 4. The FDA approves storage conditions for drug products. i. TRUE ii. FALSE 5. Pharmaceutical representatives must always record the amount of drug samples left and obtain a signature for that amount. i. TRUE ii. FALSE 6. What is prohibited by Section 503 of the Federal Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act, as amended by the Prescription Drug Marketing Act? i. pharmaceutical companies providing research results directly to consumers ii. the purchase of another company's drug research without written permission from the FDA iii. the sale of pharmaceutical products to more than 8 different therapeutic classes iv. the sale, purchase, or trade or offer to sell, purchase, or trade prescription drug samples 7. The federal government does not regulate the drug sampling for a pharmaceutical representative. i. FALSE ii. TRUE 8. Which of the following is permitted by Section 503 of the Federal Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act? i. hospitals donating their prescription drug coupons to qualified charitable organizationss ii. hospitals donating their prescription drug samples to qualified charitable organizationss iii. hospitals selling their prescription drug samples to qualified charitable organizations at reduced costs iv. none of these 9. Which entity issues monographs that define how drugs should be stored, and what variance is allowed in their stated contents? i. FDA ii. Federal Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act iii. International Council on Harmonization (ICH) iv. United States Pharmacopoeial Convention 10. Storage conditions for drug products are based on information supplied by the manufacturer. i. TRUE ii. FALSE 11. Medications are usually unaffected by changes in temperature, light, humidity, and other environmental factors. i. TRUE ii. FALSE 12. In which cases can degraded drugs SOMETIMES still be used? i. always ii. never iii. when the amount of remaining drug has not fallen lower than 85-90% of that stated on the label iv. when the degraded drug causes additional side effects, but they are nonfatal 13. Drug recalls are almost always negotiated with the FDA beforehand. i. TRUE ii. FALSE 14. Which problem would NOT be improved by electronic prescribing systems? i. patients "doctor-shopping" for controlled substances ii. pharmacists misreading presciptions iii. physicians wasting time calling pharmacies iv. none of these 15. What should you do if you receive a shipment from your employer and you notice that there are twice as many samples as what is posted on the packing slip? i. Call your Sales Manager to inform him/her of the mistake and ask for instructions on proper procedure. ii. Give each physician twice as many samples as this will increase the promotion of this particular drug. iii. Store the samples for your next trade show. iv. Store the samples in your home office and use them as samples as needed. Quiz 9 , Chapter 9 1. Which area of drug R&D has seen the largest cost increases? i. animal testing ii. clinical trials iii. manufacturing iv. self regulation 2. On average, how long does it take for a new drug to be developed (i.e., from the discovery of the initial compound to FDA approval)? i. 3-5 years ii. 10-15 years iii. 15-20 years iv. 20-30 years 3. Which of the following regulatory agencies is industry-based (i.e., run mainly by the companies themselves)? i. Drug Enforcement Administration ii. European Medicines Agency iii. Pharmaceutical Research and Manufactures of America (PhRMA) iv. the FDA 4. Which of the following factors has simplified the pharmaceutical R&D process? i. an intensive regulatory process ii. growing demand in the medical community for more complex data about pharmaceuticals iii. the increasing number of procedures in Phase III trials iv. none of these 5. The landmark FDA Modernization Act of 1997 was a major step forward in enabling safe and effective new drugs and biologics to be made available sooner to patients. i. TRUE ii. FALSE 6. According to your manual, which type of system is the best way to deliver healthcare? i. a central-price system ii. a market-based system iii. a non-negotiable system iv. a patient-restrictive system 7. How would increased pharmaceutical price controls affect the U.S. healthcare system? i. Increased price controls would encourage the development of more life-saving medicines. ii. Increased price controls would limit the FDA's power. iii. Increased price controls would similarly increase companies' incentives to invest in R&D. iv. Increased price controls would stifle innovation. 8. Which of the following invests a greater percentage of sales in research than the biotech sector? i. the aerospace sector ii. the communications sector iii. the electronics sector iv. none of these 9. What was the intent of the Bayh-Dole Act and the Stevenson-Wydler Technology Innovation Act? i. to curb the commercialization of technologies ii. to hasten the commercialization of technologies that otherwise might not be used iii. to keep government-funded ideas under government control iv. to secure funding for public university-based research initiatives 10. According to your manual, what did the G10 Medicines Group recently report about the pharmaceutical industry in the European Union (EU)? i. The EU pharmaceutical industry has surpassed the US pharmaceutical industry because of increased price controls in the EU. ii. The EU pharmaceutical industry has surpassed the US pharmaceutical industry because of increased price controls in the US. iii. The EU should continue to discourage links between private and public research facilities. iv. There is poor collaboration between publicly- and privately-funded research centers. Quiz 10 , Chapter 10 1. The aim of preclinical pharmacological studies is to obtain data on the safety and effectiveness of the lead compound. i. TRUE ii. FALSE 2. Toxicity information in preclinical studies helps provide confidence about a drug's safety. i. TRUE ii. FALSE 3. Pharmacological studies using animals are regulated under Good Laboratory Practice. i. TRUE ii. FALSE 4. Why do drugs administered to patients only contain APIs? i. economic reasons ii. for reasons of safety and economics iii. safety reasons iv. They don't. 5. Which of the following does NOT affect a drug's ability to permeate membranes? i. the drug's chemical composition ii. the drug's polarity iii. the drug's size iv. the drug's vesicles 6. Through which barriers can lipid-soluble drugs usually pass? i. cell membranes ii. the blood brain barrier, but not the gastroinstestinal tract iii. the gastrointestinal tract, but not the blood brain barrier iv. neither the gastrointestinal tract nor the blood-brain barrier 7. How are weak acid drugs generally absorbed by the stomach? i. at about the same speed as weak basic drugs ii. more quickly than weak basic drugs iii. more slowly than weak basic drugs iv. not at all 8. Which of the following routes of administration do NOT completely bypass the liver? i. intravenous administration ii. rectal administration iii. transdermal administration iv. All of these completely bypass the liver. 9. Why are intravenous drug dosages easier to control than drugs administered transdermally? i. Intravenous drugs are neutralized by the pH conditions of the gastrointesinal tract. ii. Intravenous drugs are subject to first-pass metabolism by the liver. iii. The entire dose is available in the bloodstream to be distributed to the target site. iv. The site of administration is the same as the site of action. 10. Which of the following does NOT affect a drug's distribution to its target tissues? i. the drug's lipid-solubility ii. the drug's polarity iii. the vascular nature of the drug's target tissue iv. All of these factors affect a drug's distribution to its target tissues. 11. Which of these medical terms means “to apply the drug on the skin surface”? i. buccal ii. intramuscular iii. transdermal iv. vascular 12. Carcinogenicity studies are carried out to identify the tumor-causing potential of a drug. i. TRUE ii. FALSE Quiz 11 , Chapter 11 1. According to NIH ethical guidelines, which of the following is the most important criteria in selecting subjects for clinical studies? i. convenience ii. relative risk iii. scientific objectives iv. vulnerability 2. Which statement about the IRB is INCORRECT? i. The investigator must inform the IRB/IEC of any changes in the research activity. ii. The IRB/IEC acts as a third party to oversee the welfare of the trial subjects iii. The IRB/IEC has the right to stop a trial or require that procedures and methods be changed. iv. The members of the IRB/IEC must be experts in the topic of the study 3. Which phases of clinical studies are "open label" and which are blinded? i. All clinical trials are blinded except for Phase I. ii. All clinical trials are blinded except for Phase IV. iii. All clinical trials are blinded. iv. Phase I and IV trials are often open label, but Phase II and III are double-blinded or at least blinded. 4. If it is not possible to measure the direct effects of a drug, what is used instead? i. likelihood ratios ii. odds ratios iii. predictive values iv. surrogate markers such as blood pressure and cholesterol levels 5. Which of the following is an observational study that first identifies a group of subjects with a certain disease and a control group without the disease, and then looks to back in time (e.g., via chart reviews) to find exposure to risk factors? i. case series ii. case-control study iii. cross-sectional study iv. longitudinal cohort study 6. Which measure of central tendency is the sum of all observations divided by the number of observations? i. interquartile range ii. mean iii. median iv. mode 7. Which measurement describes the number of new events that occur during a specified period of time in a population at risk for the event (e.g., lung infections per year)? i. incidence ii. odds ratio iii. prevalence iv. relative risk 8. Which of the following measures is used to describe the variability of the population mean? i. prevalence ii. range iii. standard deviation iv. standard error of the mean 9. Which of the following terms denotes the extent to which a test actually measures what it is supposed to be measuring, or what we think it is measuring? i. relevance ii. sensitivity iii. specificity iv. validity 10. What are the Kaplan-Meier analysis and Cox proportional hazards analysis? i. measures of inference errors ii. methods for ensuring validity iii. methods of survival analysis iv. types of surrogate markers 11. What section of a clinical paper describes subjects' entry and exclusion criteria? i. conclusion ii. introduction iii. methods iv. results 12. Which document sets out how a trial is to be conducted (i.e., the study's general design and operating features)? i. case report ii. consent form iii. inclusion criteria iv. protocol 13. When designing and performing clinical trials, several ethical constraints must be considered. Which of the following is NOT one of these ethical constraints? i. geographic variations ii. independent review iii. scientific validity iv. social value Quiz 12 , Chapter 12 1. What is one way in which "large molecule" drugs DIFFER from "small molecule" drugs? i. Large molecule drugs are mainly protein-based drugs that develop in biological systems such as living cells. ii. Large molecule drugs are synthesized using techniques based on chemical reactions of reactants. iii. Small molecule drugs are also known as biopharmaceuticals. iv. Small molecule drugs are mainly protein-based drugs that develop in biological systems such as living cells. 2. Which of the following statements about vaccines is INCORRECT? i. After initial vaccination, booster doses may be needed to maximize vaccines' immunological effects. ii. Vaccine development focuses on how to reduce virulence while retaining the ability to produce immunity. iii. Vaccines are types of "small molecule" drugs. iv. Vaccines contain antigenic components that are obtained from or derived from the pathogen. 3. What is an advantage of attenuated vaccines over inactivated vaccines? i. Attenuated vaccines are less expensive to prepare. ii. Attenuated vaccines do not revert to virulence. iii. Attenuated vaccines have a more stable shelf life. iv. Attenuated vaccines require multiple doses. 4. How are toxoids derived? i. from a patients' own MHC markers ii. from the body's naturally occuring immune globulins iii. from the body's naturally occuring neurotransmitters iv. from the toxins secreted by a pathogen 5. What is the estimated annual death toll for malaria? i. 300 to 500 million people ii. 300,000 to 500,000 people iii. 500,000 to 1 million people iv. 1.5 to 3.5 million people 6. There are more white blood cells than red blood cells for the same volume in the human body. i. TRUE ii. FALSE 7. How was insulin primarily obtained from the 1930s to the 1980s? i. artificial human growth factors ii. non-diabetic human donors iii. porcine and bovine extracts iv. recombinant biopharmaceutical processes 8. Which of the following are NOT types of cytokines? i. interferons ii. interleukins iii. monokines iv. All of these are types of cytokines. 9. Which of the following is NOT a type of hormones? i. amino acid derivatives ii. blood glucose iii. polypeptides iv. steroids 10. Which of the following is a basic gene therapy technique? i. in situ, in which patients' genetically faulted tissues are removed, loaded with normal genes in vectors, and returned to the patients' bodies ii. in situ, in which patients' tissues are removed, transplanted into animal donors where the normal genes are produced, and then returned to the patients' bodies iii. in vitro, in which patients' genetically faulted tissues are removed, loaded with normal genes in vectors, and returned to the patients' bodies iv. in vitro, in which patients' tissues are removed, transplanted into animal donors where the normal genes are produced, and then returned to the patients' bodies 11. Which statement about stem cells is CORRECT? i. Multipotent stem cells are the most controversial because they can only be harvested from embryos. ii. Multipotent stem cells can develop into a much broader range of types of cells than pluripotent or totipotent cells. iii. Pluripotent stem cells can develop into many cell types, but not a new individual. iv. Totipotent stem cells can produce a number of specialized cells, but not a new individual. 12. Leukemia is a condition in which the stem cells in the bone marrow malfunction and produce an excessive number of immature white blood cells. i. TRUE ii. FALSE 13. Which of the following are types of vectors used in gene therapy? i. multipotent stem cells ii. pluripotent stem cells iii. retroviruses iv. totipotent stem cells 14. Which of the following is NOT a type of stem cell? i. multipotent ii. pluripotent iii. semipotent iv. totipotent 15. Traditional vaccines are prepared in a number of ways. Which of the following is NOT one of them? i. attenuated ii. insulin iii. inactivated iv. toxoids Quiz 13 , Chapter 13 1. Effective drug therapy is a cost-effective and highly valuable means of controlling total healthcare expenditures and improving quality of life. i. TRUE ii. FALSE 2. Drug utilization review (DUR) programs… i. ...have traditionally been used to ensure the appropriate, safe, and effective use of prescription drugs, but are increasingly shifting their focus to minimizing costs. ii. ...have traditionally been used to minimize costs, but are increasingly focused on ensuring the appropriate, safe, and effective use of prescription drugs.. iii. …are increasingly popular, and expected to be used by almost 90% of HMOs in the coming years. iv. …seldom require retrospective monitoring of physicians' prescribing patterns. 3. DUR programs involve retrospective monitoring of physicians’ prescribing patterns. i. TRUE ii. FALSE 4. A formulary is a list of prescription drugs approved by insurance coverage. i. TRUE ii. FALSE 5. The history of drug formularies in the U.S. extends back to… i. ...the 1980s. ii. ...the American Revolution. iii. ...the mid-twentieth century. iv. ...the Victorian era. 6. Which of these is NOT a type of formulary? i. a closed three-tier formulary in which generic drugs are listed on Tier 1 ii. a five-tier formulary that is supplemented by a step therapy program iii. an open formulary that places few restrictions on coverage or access iv. All of these are types of formularies. 7. Which of the following is NOT a recent formulary trend? i. multi-tier strategies ii. prior authorization iii. step therapy iv. the repeal of Hatch-Waxman 8. What did the Hatch-Waxman Act do? i. make it easier for generic manufacturers to compete with R&D companies ii. make it more difficult for generic manufacturers to compete with R&D companies iii. make it more difficult for generic manufacturers to manufacture and distribute off-patent drugs iv. none of these 9. What is opportunity cost? i. the resources required to have multiple opportunities ii. the resources required to make a decision iii. the value of a sacrificed alternative iv. the value of having multiple opportunities 10. According to your manual, the three primary entities that fund pharmaceuticals are employers, the government (Medicare and Medicaid), and ______. i. hospitals ii. individuals iii. pharmacies iv. physicians 11. Which of these individuals would NOT be a member of a P&T committee? i. a company's medical liaison ii. an attending physician iii. the physician who heads the surgery department iv. All of these people are typically members of the P&T committee. 12. Almost 98% of employed Americans are now covered by a HMO, a preferred provider organization, or a point-of-service plan. i. TRUE ii. FALSE Quiz 14 , Chapter 14 & 15 1. Pharmaceutical companies are more interested in acquiring and exploiting another’s brands than in acquiring another's R&D and sales and marketing assets. i. TRUE ii. FALSE 2. Ideally, when should brand strategy development for a new drug begin? i. as soon as a clinical need is identified ii. as soon as a lead compound has been discovered iii. during Phase II clinical trials iv. during Phase IV trials 3. Which of the following is an example of a "expressive" value? i. "I own a BMW because I like feeling the road." ii. "I own a BMW because I like the bells and whistles." iii. "I own a BMW because I want people to know that I'm a serious driving enthusiast." iv. "I own a BMW because it's German like I am." 4. According to your manual, which of the following is NOT an example of a "functional" value? i. convenience ii. efficacy iii. safety iv. uniqueness 5. It is rare for pharmaceutical companies to explore, develop, and promote expressive values with which patients might identify. i. TRUE ii. FALSE 6. To be competitive, pharmaceutical brands must be distinctive. They must possess defining characteristics that are perceived by customers to be unique, attractive, and relevant to their needs. i. TRUE ii. FALSE 7. With the global need for new drugs, pharmaceutical brand names are not subject to regulatory approval. i. TRUE ii. FALSE 8. How has DTC advertising changed over the last few decades? i. DTC advertising has become a tactic used only by large brands. ii. DTC advertising has become a tactic used only by small brands. iii. DTC advertising has become an essential marketing tactic for both large and small brands. iv. DTC advertising has become an important marketing tactic all over the world. 9. Which of the following MOST strongly influences physicians' prescribing habits? i. doctors' personal experiences, and their patients' unique situations ii. DTC advertising iii. other types of pharmaceutical marketing iv. patients' opinions about DTC advertising 10. Pharmaceutical companies spend more onpromotional activities than on R&D. i. TRUE ii. FALSE 11. Which of the following would be MOST well-served by mass-market print and TV ads? i. a brand that treats a rare, acute condition ii. a brand that treats a small but active patient base iii. a brand that treats a very common chronic condition iv. a very expensive brand Quiz 15 , Chapter 16 1. Which of the below is the least commonly analyzed fluid for conducting a medical diagnostic test? i. Blood ii. Urine iii. Fluid that surrounds the spinal cord iv. Salive 2. "Gold standard" testing achieves the greatest results among the diagnostic testing measurements. Gold standards provide the best understanding of what is happening to a patient so cost is not a factor when deciding to run these tests routinely. i. TRUE ii. FALSE 3. Every test has some risk. The risk may be the possibility of injury during the test, or it may be the need for further testing if the results are abnormal. i. TRUE ii. FALSE 4. For Genetic Testing, which of the below cell material is not commonly used for examination to check abnormalities of chromosomes, genes (including DNA), or both? i. Urine ii. Skin iii. Blood iv. Bone Marrow 5. There are 4 common test sites for Bone Marrow aspiration and biopsy. Which of the below is not one of them? i. Rear upper pelvic bone ii. Central flat bone of the chest iii. The bottom bone of the foot iv. The larger shin bone (tibia) 6. DEXA is the only method that may be used to make a definitive diagnosis of osteoporosis and to moniter the response to treatment. i. TRUE ii. FALSE 7. Which of the below tests uses a small needle censors (electrodes) to record the electrical activity in selected muscles and peripheral nerves during rest? i. Cranial test ii. Muscle biopsy (BP) iii. Gait test iv. Electromyography (EMG) 8. Wearable and implantable test technologies currently in development will allow for constant monitoring of body chemistry and collection of previously inaccessible data. i. TRUE ii. FALSE 9. Diagnostic tests are never used to detect, confirm, or rule out the presence of a disease or medical condition. i. TRUE ii. FALSE 10. Diagnostic tests are done for a variety of reasons, which of the below is not a reason to perform a diagnostic test? i. Screening ii. Provide a single purpose for scientific analysis iii. Evaluating the severity of a disorder so that treatment can be planned iv. Monitoring the response to treatment 11. Many diagnostic tests are considered to be of a general therapeutic are and are not specified. i. TRUE ii. FALSE 12. The most sensitive screening tool to detect osteoporosis- a disorder characterized by fragile, weak bones due to a drop in bone mass and increased risk of fracture is the Arthrocentesis diagnostic test. i. TRUE ii. FALSE 13. Neurodiagnostic tests are done because of a patients illness or condition are mostly based in the central nervous system (brain or spinal cord). Which of the below is not a sign of a nervous system disorder? i. Chronic headaches ii. Diarrhea iii. Seizures iv. Dizziness 14. The Electroencephalogram (EEG or brain wave test) is a non-invansive procedure used to detect and record brain wave cell activity. i. TRUE ii. FALSE 15. A coronary aniogram is obtained by injecting an iodine-based dye or other contrast agent into the bloodstream and takin x-rays of the coronary arteries. i. TRUE ii. FALSE Quiz 16 , Chapter 17 1. How do companies use prescriber data? i. in all of these ways ii. to conduct research iii. to identify individual patients who the physician should speak with about the product iv. to indentify patients who can be added to targeted mailing lists 2. Under PhRMA Code, which of the following is acceptable? i. cash for a meal if the food at an educational event has run out, given that the cash is from the rep's own pocket ii. cash for a meal if the food at an educational event has run out, given that the cash is NOT from the rep's own pocket iii. modest meals during recreational events at which some educational information is exchanged iv. modest meals for staff members attending educational events 3. Under the AMA Guidelines on Gifts to Physicians from Industry, which gifts are NOT permitted? i. clipboards and pens worth less than $100 ii. drug samples for personal use, given that the physician is retired iii. gifts that are only given to doctors with high prescribing volumes iv. None of these are permitted. 4. Under PhRMA Code, which of the following actions by sales reps are permitted? i. giving attendees cash from their companies so that they can purchase meals after event food has run out ii. giving attendees cash from their own pockets so that they can purchase meals after event food has run out iii. modest meals during recreational events at which some educational information is exchanged iv. providing modest meals to staff members attending educational events 5. The PhRMA Code on Interactions with Healthcare Professionals is only voluntary and not mandatory. i. TRUE ii. FALSE 6. Which of the following would NOT be considered acceptable promotional items under PhRMA Code? i. journal subscriptions ii. medical text books iii. pens and clipboards designed to be used by patients in doctors' offices iv. stethoscopes 7. Under PhRMA Code, what is one example of an acceptable patient education item? i. a pedometer valued under $100 ii. a stopwatch valued under $100 iii. an anatomical model valued under $100 iv. any of these 8. Under what circumstances does PhRMA Code permit a company to provide entertainment or recreational activities to healthcare practitioners? i. when the activity is intended to facilitate informational exchange ii. when the practitioner is acting as a bone fide advisory board consultant iii. when the practitioner is providing a legitimate service to the company iv. under none of these circumstances 9. Under PhRMA Code, may a company sponsor a lunch at a 3-day conference if part of it includes an educational program for which attendees may choose to receive CME credit? i. yes, as long as it is modest ii. yes, as long as the group sponsoring the event has approved it iii. yes, but only if if the lunch is clearly separate from the CME portion of the conference iv. no, under no circumstances 10. Which of the following is an arm of the Department of Health and Human Services that investigates regulatory infractions, provides compliance advice, and brings enforcement actions? i. American Medical Association ii. Drug Enforcement Agency iii. Federal Trade Commission iv. Office of Inspector General Quiz 17 , Chapter 18 1. It is illegal to ask receptionists for personal information about your clients such as home phone numbers, birthdays, or hobbies. i. TRUE ii. FALSE 2. Which of the following is NOT a primary goal or function of the P&T committee? i. to assist in research on investigational drugs ii. to budget the hospital's pharmaceutical expenses iii. to educate sales representatives on legal and ethical guidelines for professional behavior iv. to monitor drug utilization 3. Which of the following is a major challenge facing family medicine? i. fewer and fewer patients, because most people are opting to see specialists ii. managed care policies eroding patient-doctor relationships iii. too many medical students and not enough positions iv. Family medicine faces all of these challenges. 4. According to your manual, family physicians diagnose and treat approximately what proportion of patients they see (as opposed to referring them to specialists)? i. 5% ii. 20% iii. 50% iv. 95% 5. Which of the following is NOT one of the steps on the Product Adoption Continuum? i. adoption ii. awareness iii. evaluation iv. These are all steps on the continuum. 6. Which of the following would be classified as a type of somatic psychiatric treatment? i. drug therapy ii. family therapy iii. hypnosis iv. psychoanalysis 7. Why is the last 10 minutes of each hour usually the best time to make office visits to psychiatrists? i. Psychiatric research has shown that people are more open-minded at that time. ii. Psychiatric research has shown that people are more relaxed at that time. iii. Psychiatrist often see patients on the hour for 45 minutes. iv. Psychiatrists are usually on their way to the hospital at that time. 8. What is/are an advantage/s of selling to residents? i. All of these are advantages of selling to residents. ii. It is easier to meet one-on-one with residents than with more established physicians. iii. Residents are often more open-minded. iv. You do not need to face the challenges of a group-selling environments. 9. What is drug utilization review (DUR)? i. a PBM’s participation in a health plan ii. acceleration of recovery of patients iii. an MCO’s practice of monitoring prescribing patterns iv. the FDA’s approval process and dates of drug delivery 10. What is a Drug Utilization Review (DUR)? i. a FDA’s approval process and dates of drug delivery ii. a MCO’s practice of monitoring prescribing patterns iii. a PBM’s participation in a health plan iv. an individual physician's monitoring of his patients' recoveries Quiz 18 , Chapter 19 1. What is the focus of the short call protocol? i. asking a quick yes-or-no question so that you can move to the close ii. beginning with a specific clinical study iii. beginning with a specific patient type iv. just asking for a few more minutes so that you do not need to bother them again 2. Who is the Medical Science Liaison (MSL)? i. someone employed by a hospital who coordinates sales representatives' visits ii. someone employed by a hospital who heads the P&T committee and manages the formulary iii. someone employed by a pharmaceutical company who builds relationships with thought leaders and acts as an informational resources iv. someone employed by a university who coordinates privately funded clinical studies 3. What type of education do MSLs typically have? i. bachelor's degrees ii. graduate-level science degrees iii. master's degrees iv. only a little college, because their sales experience is far more important 4. How do companies typically judge the MSL team's contributions? i. deciling ii. return on education iii. the individual MSL's sales records iv. the projected sales potential of the MSL's sales representatives 5. What differentiates "push through" programs from "pull through" programs? i. "Push through" programs focus on individual patients. ii. "Push through" programs take place at the physician level. iii. Sales representatives are more involved in "pull through" programs. iv. Sales representatives are more involved in "push through" programs. 6. Which of these is NOT a type of "pull through" program? i. adherence/persistency ii. educational support iii. therapeutic intervention iv. All of these are types of "pull through" programs. 7. Because pharmaceutical sales reps work mostly out of their homes, it is not important that they work well in a team environment. i. TRUE ii. FALSE 8. What is the MOST LIKELY reason that a doctor would lack interest in one of your clinical studies? i. A competitor has told the doctor to ignore you. ii. The doctor does not like the way you are presenting it. iii. The doctor would prefer to feel like you are selling rather than educating. iv. The doctor's receptionist has warned him about you. 9. Which of the following is NOT an effective method for reaching the 65+ market? i. being a Medicare Part D information resource ii. knowing the physician-payer mix iii. taking advantage of partnership programs iv. All of these are effective methods for reaching the 65+ market. 10. When a physician visits your hospital display, you should begin conversation by asking, “Can I help you?”? i. TRUE ii. FALSE Quiz 19 , Chapter 20 1. Which of the following is NOT a rule in making the most out of your sales calls? i. counterpart coordination ii. no data dumping iii. reading the environment iv. your agenda, not theirs 2. Specialty care products are more often prescribed by generalist physicians. i. TRUE ii. FALSE 3. Side effects that might be considered merely minor annoyances in acute treatment can be a powerful barrier to adoption in chronic therapies. i. TRUE ii. FALSE 4. Acute medications, such as antibiotics, are used to address short-term illnesses or symptoms. i. TRUE ii. FALSE 5. In some medical cases, a therapy may be initiated by a specialist and monitored and maintained by a primary care physician. i. TRUE ii. FALSE 6. Blockbuster drug status typically translates into sales of just under $10 million annually. i. TRUE ii. FALSE 7. A generic drug manufacturer's greatest challenge is often to replicate drug formulation factors that affect the pharmacokinetic and pharmacodynamic characteristics of the original drug. i. TRUE ii. FALSE 8. What differentiates an "orphan" drug from a "blockbuster" drug? i. By FDA Law, orphan drugs have been previously rejected by the FDA ii. Orphan drugs are pediatric therapies. iii. Orphan drugs typically generate far more revenue. iv. Orphan drugs typically treat rare conditions. 9. How long are most calls and visits to physicians' offices (excluding waiting and driving time)? i. only a few minutes ii. 15-30 minutes iii. 30-45 minutes iv. about an hour 10. Which of the following is NOT a step in managing rumors? i. confirm ii. counter attack iii. search iv. transition 11. According to the text, which of the following is considered "going to the next level?" i. becoming a micro-thinker ii. meeting the clients' every need iii. minimizing rumors iv. staying focused 12. What is one of the primary job responsibilities of a retail pharmacist? i. dispensing pharmaceuticals ii. managing formularies iii. manufacturing pharmaceuticals iv. prescribing pharmaceuticals 13. What is NOT one of the ways in pharmaceutical companies and representatives categorize their customers? i. acute care vs. chronic care ii. office-based vs. hospital-based iii. primary care vs. specialty care iv. Companies and agents categorize their patients in all of these ways. Quiz 20 , Chapter 21 1. Which of the following are relatively new prescription drug benefits covered under the Medicare Prescription Drug Improvement & Modernization Act? i. HMO Plan 2006 ii. Medicare Part A iii. Medicare Part B iv. Medicare Part D 2. Which term means “disease producer”? i. enzyme ii. glidant iii. isomer iv. pathogen 3. Which type of blood cell plays the most prominent role in fighting infection and disease? i. red blood cell ii. stem cell iii. validated blood cell iv. white blood cell 4. Which of the following generally resides on a cell surface (or in the cytoplasm) and causes a biological change or activity when stimulated? i. glidant ii. leukocyte iii. receptor iv. tissue 5. Renal pertains to: i. heart ii. kidneys iii. ovaries iv. stomach 6. What term denotes the practice of locating genes on a chromosome? i. gene delivery ii. gene mapping iii. gene therapy iv. generics 7. What field is MOST concerned with drug effects due to slight genetic differences? i. genomics ii. pharmacogenomics iii. pharmacokinetics iv. pharmacoprosthetics 8. Which entity or entities fund/s the National Institutes of Health (NIH)? i. MDA ii. Pharmaceutical Companies iii. United Nations iv. United States Federal Government 9. With respect to the material in your manual, what does IDN stand for? i. immunodeficient drug ii. independent drug network iii. integrated delivery network iv. internal doctors network 10. What is SS an abbreviation for? i. semis ii. senior specialist iii. Stark Law I & II iv. successful sale 11. What term is used to denote drugs that are non-biological (i.e., chemical) in nature? i. generic ii. large molecule iii. parenteral drug iv. small molecule 12. When referring to medication dosage, which medical abbreviation denotes “hour”? i. H ii. H.S. iii. M iv. M.S. 13. Which of the following terms denotes the study of drugs' beneficial and toxic effects on living cells, tissues, and organisms? i. biology ii. genetics iii. microgenetics iv. pharmacology 14. What are specialized cells and tissues that work together to perform a specific body function for a common purpose? i. membranes ii. organs iii. plasma iv. proteins 15. What is the mechanism of action? i. a dose of medication that keeps/maintains the necessary plasma concentration levels for therapeutic benefit ii. the method by which a medication produces its therapeutic effects iii. time period between administering a medication and noticing a therapeutic effect iv. typically oral or parenteral 16. What is plasma? i. the fluid portion of the blood ii. the fluid portion of the lymphatic system iii. the lining of the lungs iv. the lining of the small intestine 17. What is anaphylaxis? i. a type of chemotherapy ii. An extreme sensitivity and reaction to a foreign substance, including medications iii. An interaction in which one medication reduces the effects of another medication iv. When a medication produces active metabolites Quiz 21 , Chapter 22 & 23 1. Which of the following is NOT a way in which CNS agents are used? i. as analgesics ii. as anesthetics iii. as anti-convulsants iv. They are used in all these ways. 2. How do cholinergic agonists work? i. by inhibiting the actions of acetylcholine ii. by inhibiting the actions of GABA iii. by mimicking the actions of acetylcholine iv. by mimicking the actions of GABA 3. Which of the following types of therapeutic agents is used to promote blood clot formation? i. anticoagulants ii. antiplatelet drugs iii. fibrinolytics iv. thrombolytic drugs 4. Which of the following is NOT a type of gastrointestinal agents? i. gallstone solubizing agents ii. H2 antagonists iii. laxatives iv. prolactin inhibitors 5. What is one of the main functions of a tocolytic agent? i. to decrease urine pH ii. to increase urine pH iii. to induce labor iv. to suppress labor 6. Which of these conditions is NOT treated with antiandrogens? i. acne ii. dyspepsia iii. masculinization in women iv. polycystic ovarian syndrome 7. which types of patients are MOST likely to receive immune globulins? i. patients with inflammatory conditions ii. patients with weakened immune systems iii. transplant recipients iv. all of these 8. What is iron's primary function in the body? i. carrying oxygen ii. inhibiting dopamine iii. mimicking dopamine iv. neutralizing gastric pH 9. Which of the following is NOT a type of anti-infectant? i. amebicides ii. antimalarial agents iii. antimetabolites iv. carbapanems 10. What is one difference between entry-level and experienced résumés? i. Entry-level résumés are more likely to begin with the education section than the experience section. ii. Entry-level résumés are more likely to contain a Summary of Qualifications. iii. Experienced résumés are more likely to contain an Objective. iv. Experienced résumés contain more extracurricular activities. 11. Which statement about targeted cover letters is true? i. Targeted cover letters are always solicited. ii. Targeted cover letters are always tailored to specific companies. iii. Targeted cover letters are only written for vacant positions. iv. Targeted cover letters should be written in the third-person. [Show More]

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