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NURS611 Patho Exam 3 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

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1. What are clinical manifestations of hypothyroidism? 2. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) is released to stimulate thyroid hormone (TH) and is inhibited when plasma levels of TH are adequate. T... his is an example of: 3. Lipid-soluble hormone receptors are located: 4. The releasing hormones that are made in the hypothalamus travel to the anterior pituitary via the: 5. Which mineral is needed for thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) to stimulate the secretion of thyroid hormone (TH)? 6. What effect does hyperphosphatemia have on other electrolytes? 7. Insulin transports which electrolyte in the cell? 8. Which second messenger is stimulated by epinephrine binding to a β-adrenergic receptor? 9. Regulation of the release of catecholamines from the adrenal medulla is an example of which type of regulation? 10. Which hormone does the second messenger calcium (Ca++) bind to activate phospholipase C through a G protein? 11. The control of calcium in cells is important because it: 12. Where is antidiuretic hormone (ADH) synthesized, and where does it act? 13. How does a faulty negative-feedback mechanism result in a hormonal imbalance? 14. A deficiency of which chemical may result in hypothyroidism? 15. What imbalance lessens the rate of secretion of parathyroid hormone 16. Which condition may result from pressure exerted by a pituitary tumor? 17. Which substance is a water-soluble protein hormone? 18. Which of the following is a lipid-soluble hormone? 19. Most protein hormones are transported in the bloodstream and are: 20. When insulin binds its receptors on muscle cells, an increase in glucose uptake by the muscle cells is the result. This is an example of what type of effect by a hormone? 21. Graves disease develops from a(n): 22. Pathologic changes associated with Graves disease include: 23. The signs of thyrotoxic crisis include: 24. The level of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) in individuals with Graves disease is usually: 25. Palpation of the neck of a person diagnosed with Graves disease would detect a thyroid that is: 26. The effects of the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) secretion include solute: 27. The common cause of elevated levels of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) secretion is: 28. Which laboratory value would the nurse expect to find if a person is experiencing syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH)? 29. A patient who is diagnosed with a closed head injury has a urine output of 6 to 8 L/day. Electrolytes are within normal limits, but his antidiuretic hormone (ADH) level is low. Although he has had no intake for 4 hours, no change in his polyuria level has occurred. These symptoms support a diagnosis of: 30. Diabetes insipidus, diabetes mellitus, and syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone all exhibit which symptom? 31. The cause of neurogenic diabetes insipidus (DI) is related to an organic 32. Which form of diabetic insipidus (DI) will result if the target cells for antidiuretic hormone (ADH) in the renal collecting tubules demonstrate insensitivity? 33. Which laboratory value is consistently low in a patient with diabetes insipidus (DI)? 34. Which form of diabetes insipidus (DI) is treatable with exogenous antidiuretic hormone (ADH)? 35. The term used to describe a person who experiences a lack of all hormones associated with the anterior pituitary is: 36. Diabetes insipidus is a result of: 37. Visual disturbances are a result of a pituitary adenoma because of the: 38. Which hormone is involved in the regulation of serum calcium levels? 39. Target cells for parathyroid hormone are located in the: 40. Renal failure is the most common cause of which type of hyperparathyroidism? 41. The most common cause of hypoparathyroidism is: 42. The most probable cause of low serum calcium after a thyroidectomy is: 43. A patient diagnosed with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) has the following laboratory values: arterial pH 7.20; serum glucose 500 mg/dl; positive urine glucose and ketones; serum potassium (K+) 2 mEq/L; serum sodium (Na+) 130 mEq/L. The patient reports that he has been sick with the “flu” for 1 week. What relationship do these values have to his insulin deficiency? 44. Polyuria occurs with diabetes mellitus because of the: 45. Type 2 diabetes mellitus is best described as a(an): 46. A person diagnosed with type 1 diabetes experiences hunger, lightheadedness, tachycardia, pallor, headache, and confusion. The most probable cause of these symptoms is: 47. When comparing the clinical manifestations of both diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) and hyperglycemic hyperosmolar nonketotic syndrome (HHNKS), which condition is associated with only DKA? 48. Hypoglycemia, followed by rebound hyperglycemia, is observed in those with: 49. The first laboratory test that indicates type 1 diabetes is causing the development of diabetic nephropathy is: 50. Which classification of oral hypoglycemic drugs decreases hepatic glucose production and increases insulin sensitivity and peripheral glucose uptake? 51. What causes the microvascular complications in patients with diabetes mellitus? 52. Retinopathy develops in patients with diabetes mellitus because: 53. Which disorder is caused by hypersecretion of the growth hormone (GH) 54. Which disorder is considered a co-morbid condition of acromegaly? 55. Giantism occurs only in children and adolescents because their: 56. Amenorrhea, galactorrhea, hirsutism, and osteoporosis are each caused by: 57. The signs of thyrotoxic crisis include: 58. A person has acne, easy bruising, thin extremities, and truncal obesity. These clinical manifestations are indicative of which endocrine disorder? 59. A person may experience which complications as a result of a reduction in parathyroid hormone (PTH)? (Select all that apply.) 60. A chronic complication of diabetes mellitus is likely to result in microvascular complications in which areas? (Select all that apply.) 61. Which compound or hormone is secreted by the adrenal medulla? 62. The secretion of adrenocorticotropic-stimulating hormone (ACTH) will result in the increased level of which hormone? 63. Aldosterone directly increases the reabsorption of: 64. Which is an expected hormonal change in an older patient? 65. What are actions of glucocorticoids? (Select all that apply.) 66. What is the most abundant class of plasma protein? 67. What is the effect of low plasma albumin? 68. The absence of parietal cells would prevent the absorption of an essential nutrient necessary to prevent which type of anemia? 69. Which nutrients are necessary for the synthesis of DNA and the maturation of erythrocytes? 70. Which substance is used to correct the chronic anemia associated with chronic renal failure? 71. What is plasmin’s role in the clotting process? 72. What changes to the hematologic system is related to age? 73. Which statements characterize albumin? (Select all that apply.) 74. The paresthesia that occurs in vitamin B12 deficiency anemia is a result of which of the following? 75. Which of the following is classified as a megaloblastic anemia? 76. Deficiencies in folate and vitamin B12 alter the synthesis of which of the following? 77. Which condition resulting from untreated pernicious anemia (PA) is fatal? 78. Considering sideroblastic anemia, what would be the expected effect on the plasma iron levels? 79. In aplastic anemia (AA), pancytopenia develops as a result of which of the following? 80. What is the most common pathophysiologic process that triggers aplastic anemia (AA)? 81. When considering hemolytic anemia, which statement is true regarding the occurrence of jaundice? 82. Which statement is true regarding the physical manifestations of vitamin B12 deficiency anemia? 83. A 2000 ml blood loss will produce which assessment finding? (Select all that apply.) 84. Which conditions are generally included in the symptoms of pernicious anemia (PA)? (Select all that apply.) 85. What are the clinical manifestations of folate deficiency anemia? (Select all that apply.) 86. Which diseases are commonly associated with anemia of chronic disease? (Select all that apply.) 87. Which type of anemia is characterized by fatigue, weakness, and dyspnea, as well as conjunctiva of the eyes and brittle, concave nails? 88. Which statement concerning erythrocytes is true? 89. Which of the following are formed elements of the blood that are not cells but are disk-shaped cytoplasmic fragments essential for blood clotting? 90. What is the life span of platelets (in days)? 91. Which blood cells are the chief phagocytes involved in the early inflammation process? 92. Which blood cells are biconcave in shape and have the capacity to be reversibly deformed? 93. What is the life span of an erythrocyte (in days)? 94. Local signs and symptoms of Hodgkin disease–related lymphadenopathy are a result of which of the following? 95. Which statement best describes heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT)? 96. Vitamin _____ is required for normal clotting factor synthesis by the________? 97. Which disorder is described as an unregulated release of thrombin with subsequent fibrin formation and accelerated fibrinolysis? 98. In disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), what activates the coagulation cascade? 99. Which proinflammatory cytokines are responsible for the development and maintenance of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)? 100. In disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), what are the indications of microvascular thrombosis? 101. What is the most reliable and specific test for diagnosing disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)? 102. When the demand for mature neutrophils exceeds the supply, immature neutrophils are released indicating: 103. Hodgkin disease is characterized by the presence of which of the following? 104. Reed-Sternberg (RS) cells represent malignant transformation and proliferation of which of the following? 105. Which description is consistent with acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL)? 106. Which description is consistent with chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML)? 107. Which description is consistent with chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)? 108. Which electrolyte imbalance accompanies multiple myeloma (MM)? 109. Which statements are true regarding leukemias? (Select all that apply.) 110. The two major forms of leukemia, acute and chronic, are classified by which criteria? (Select all that apply.) 111. Which chamber of the heart endures the highest pressures? 112. Oxygenated blood flows through which vessel? 113. The significance of the atrial kick is that it affects the contraction of the: 114. The coronary sinus empties into which cardiac structure? 115. During the cardiac cycle, which structure directly delivers action potential to the ventricular myocardium? 116. Where in the heart are the receptors for neurotransmitters located? 117. Within a physiologic range, what does an increase in left ventricular end-diastolic volume (preload) result in? 118. As stated in the Frank-Starling law, a direct relationship exists between the _____ of the blood in the heart at the end of diastole and the _____ of contraction during the next systole. 119. Pressure in the left ventricle must exceed pressure in which structure before the left ventricle can eject blood? 120. When the volume of blood in the ventricle at the end of diastole increases, the force of the myocardial contraction during the next systole will also increase, which is an example of which law or theory about the heart? 121. Reflex control of total cardiac output and total peripheral resistance is controlled by what mechanism? 122. What is the major effect of a calcium channel blocker such as verapamil on cardiac contractions? 123. What is the initiating event that leads to the development of atherosclerosis? 124. What is the effect of oxidized low-density lipoproteins (LDLs) in atherosclerosis? 125. When endothelia cells are injured, what alteration contributes to atherosclerosis? 126. Which factor is responsible for the hypertrophy of the myocardium associated with hypertension? 127. What pathologic change occurs to the kidney’s glomeruli as a result of hypertension? 128. What effect does atherosclerosis have on the development of an aneurysm? 129. What change in a vein supports the development of varicose veins? 130. What term is used to identify when a cell is temporarily deprived of blood supply? 131. The risk of developing coronary artery disease is increased up to threefold by which factor? 132. Which risk factor is associated with coronary artery disease (CAD) because of its relationship with the alteration of hepatic lipoprotein? 133. Nicotine increases atherosclerosis by the release of which neurotransmitter? 134. Which substance is manufactured by the liver and primarily contains cholesterol and protein? 135. Which elevated value may be protective of the development of atherosclerosis? 136. Which laboratory test is an indirect measure of atherosclerotic plaque? 137. An individual who is demonstrating elevated levels of troponin, creatine kinase–isoenzyme MB (CK-MB), and lactic dehydrogenase (LDH) is exhibiting indicators associated with which condition? 138. How does angiotensin II increase the workload of the heart after a myocardial infarction (MI)? 139. The pulsus paradoxus that occurs as a result of pericardial effusion is caused by a dysfunction in which mechanism? 140. A patient reports sudden onset of severe chest pain that radiates to the back and worsens with respiratory movement and when lying down. These clinical manifestations describe: 141. Ventricular dilation and grossly impaired systolic function, leading to dilated heart failure, characterize which form of cardiomyopathy? 142. A disproportionate thickening of the interventricular septum is the hallmark of which form of cardiomyopathy? 143. Amyloidosis, hemochromatosis, or glycogen storage disease usually causes which form of cardiomyopathy? 144. Which condition is a cause of acquired aortic regurgitation? 145. Which predominantly female valvular disorder is thought to have an autosomal dominant inheritance pattern, as well as being associated with connective tissue disease? 146. A patient is diagnosed with pulmonary disease and elevated pulmonary vascular resistance. Which form of heart failure may result from pulmonary disease and elevated pulmonary vascular resistance? 147. In systolic heart failure, what effect does the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS) have on stroke volume? 148. What is the cause of the dyspnea resulting from a thoracic aneurysm? 149. Which statement is true concerning the cells’ ability to synthesize cholesterol? 150. What is the trigger for angina pectoris? 151. Individuals being effectively managed for type 2 diabetes mellitus often experience a healthy decline in blood pressure as a result of what intervention? 152. Which statements are true regarding fatty streaks? (Select all that apply.) [Show More]

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