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NURS 4211 Role of the Nurse Leader in Population Health Midterm Exam, Questions and Answers. Walden University. Verified Q&A

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NURS 4211 – Midterm Exam, Questions and Answers 1- Which client should the nurse document as exhibiting signs and symptoms of primary dysmenorrhea? 1. 17-year-old, has never had a menstrual cycle.... 2. 19-year-old, regular menses for 5 years that have suddenly become painful. 3. 14-year-old, irregular menses for 1 year, experiences cramping every cycle. 4. 16-year-old, had regular menses for 4 years, but has had no menses in 4 months. 2- The nurse is presenting a session on intimate partner violence. Which statement indicates a need for further education? 1. “The ‘honeymoon period’ follows an episode of violence.” 2. “Everyone experiences anger and hitting in a relationship.” 3. “Abusers can be either husbands or boyfriends or wives or girlfriends.” 4. “My daughter is not to blame for the violence in her marriage.” 3- During the hospital admission process, a child’s parent asks for information about family-centered care. What should the nurse explain to this parent? 1. Mother is the principal caregiver in each family. 2. Father is the leader in each home; thus, all communications should include him. 3. Family serves as the constant influence and continuing support in the child’s life. 4. Child’s physician is the key person in ensuring the health of a child is maintained. 4- A 12-year-old pediatric client is in need of surgery. Which healthcare member is legally responsible for obtaining informed consent for an invasive procedure? 1. The nurse. 2. The physician. 3. The social worker. 4. The unit secretary. 5- A genetic screening test completed on a newborn is found to be positive. What should the nurse anticipate the next action will be for this infant? 1. Scheduling for diagnostic testing. 2. Discussing the need for major intervention. 3. Nothing, since further action is not necessary. 4. Instructing the parents on expression of the genetic disorder. 6- The nurse learns that a client from a different country and culture was married to her first cousin before moving to the United States. The couple is expecting their first child in 4 months. What should the nurse consider when counseling this client? 1. Birth control. 2. Carrier testing. 3. Pregnancy termination. 4. Legal issues in the United States. 7- The nurse is teaching a client who recently learned that she is pregnant. Which hormone should the nurse instruct as being secreted by the fertilized egg? 1. Estrogen. 2. Progesterone. 3. Luteinizing hormone. 4. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG). 8- The nurse is presenting a community education session on female hormones. Which participant statement indicates the need for further information? 1. “Estrogen is what causes females to look female.” 2. “Prostaglandin is responsible for achieving conception.” 3. “Progesterone is present at the end of the menstrual cycle.” 4. “The presence of some hormones causes others to be secreted.” 11- Which statement indicates that client teaching about vaginal infections has been effective? 1. “The fishy vaginal odor I have is caused by a bacterial infection.” 2. “I can use this antiyeast medication weekly to prevent another infection.” 3. “My diabetes is unrelated to the frequency of my vaginal yeast infections.” 4. “I should douche weekly to prevent a recurrence of my bacterial vaginosis.” 14- During an assessment, the nurse notices that an African American baby has a darker, slightly bluish patch about 5 by 7 cm on the buttocks and lower back. What should the nurse do? 1. Chart the presence of a Mongolian spot. 2. Ask the mother about the cause of the bruise. 3. Confer with the physician about the possibility of a bleeding tendency. 4. Call the Department of Social Services (DSS) to report this sign of abuse. 16- A woman has been unable to complete a full-term pregnancy because the fertilized ovum failed to implant in the uterus. Which hormone is most likely causing this client’s issues with pregnancy? 1. Estrogen. 2. Progesterone. 3. LH (luteinizing hormone). 4. FSH (follicle-stimulating hormone). 18- The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with endometriosis. Which statement by the client requires immediate follow-up? 1. “I’ve noticed my voice is lower since I started taking danazol.” 2. “I am having many hot flashes since I had the Lupron injection.” 3. “The pain I experience with intercourse is becoming more severe.” 4. “My leg has become painful and swollen since I started taking birth control pills.” 20- Which client is at greatest risk for developing Chlamydia trachomatis infection? 1. 35-year-old woman on oral contraceptives. 2. 22-year-old mother of two, developed dyspareunia. 3. 16-year-old, sexually active, using no contraceptive. 4. 48-year-old woman with hot flashes and night sweats. 21- Which diagnostic test should the nurse question if prescribed for a client with pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)? 1. RPR (rapid plasma reagin). 2. Throat culture for streptococcus A. 3. Vaginal culture for Neisseria gonorrhoeae. 4. CBC (complete blood count) with differential. 23- The nurse is preparing an education session for women on prevention of urinary tract infections (UTIs). Which statement should be included? 1. Lower urinary tract infections rarely occur in women. 2. Back pain often develops with a lower urinary tract infection. 3. The most common causative organism of cystitis is Escherichia coli. 4. Wiping from back to front after a bowel movement will help prevent a UTI. 24- A client who has been unable to conceive asks the nurse if it is her fault or her husband’s fault that they have not been able to become pregnant. What is the nurse’s best response? 1. “The male infertility factors are more common than female.” 2. “Female infertility issues are more common than male issues.” 3. “The testing the doctor will order will determine who is at fault.” 4. “We will know more about what is causing your infertility after some tests are done.” 25- A 31-year-old woman with normal ovaries, a normal prolactin level, and an intact pituitary gland is undergoing initial pharmacologic treatment of anovulation. Which medication should the nurse anticipate being prescribed for this client? 1. Bromocriptine (Parlodel). 2. Metformin (Glucophage). 3. Clomiphene citrate (Clomid or Serophene). 4. Human menopausal gonadotropins (hMGs). 31- A nurse is assessing a young man who is being treated for sterility and inquires whether the young man had any common childhood disease that may be the cause of sterility. What childhood disease might result in sterility? a. Mumps. b. Chicken pox. c. Measles. d. Scarlet fever. 32- A nurse is teaching a health class for 12- and 13-year-old girls about routine vaginal hygiene. What should the nurse be sure to include? a. Wear clean polyester panties daily and at night. b. Douche weekly with a mild vinegar solution. c. Wash the external and internal genitalia daily. d. Wipe the perineal–anal area from front to back. 34- A patient tells a nurse that she is afraid of getting cervical cancer because her mother died of cervical cancer. What is the most appropriate response by the nurse? a. “You need to a have a pelvic examination every 6 months because of your history.” b. “If you have regular Pap smears, cervical cancer is usually diagnosed early and cured.” c. “There’s no need to worry so much. Cervical cancer does not run in families.” d. “Cervical cancer is sexually transmitted. Don’t switch partners often, and you don’t have to worry.” 35- A nurse is instructing a patient on breast self-examination. When is the best time of the month to instruct this patient to perform a breast self-examination? a. Before the menstrual period. b. During the menstrual period. c. After the menstrual period. d. On the first day of the month. 36- A 16-year-old girl seen in the student health clinic has been diagnosed with Trichomonas vaginalis and given medication for the infection. What should a nurse explains about treatment of the girl’s sexual partner? a. He will require a 1-day treatment with the same drug. b. He will not develop the infection or require treatment. c. He will be treated, although he is asymptomatic. d. He is required by law to be examined by a physician. 37- A female student, seen in the campus clinic, states that she uses feminine hygiene douches every day and after intercourse. What is the best response from the nurse? a. “Douching has been used as an effective means of birth control for years.” b. “Commercially prepared douches will neutralize the female vaginal tract.” c. “Douching should only be done when ordered by a physician or nurse practitioner.” d. “Douching protects the vaginal tract from microorganisms.” 38- A nurse collecting data on the reproductive system from a female patient is told that the patient has a vaginal discharge that is cottage cheese–like in appearance. What should the nurse recognize this as a common sign of? a. Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). b. Trichomonas vaginalis infection. c. Atrophic vaginitis. d. Candida albicans infection. 40- A woman calls the clinic office and asks the nurse why she is having spotting between her monthly periods when she is taking birth control pills to control the menorrhagia. What is the nurse’s most appropriate response? a. “It is important to take the pill at the same time each day.” b. “Irregular spotting is to be expected with oral contraceptives.” c. “The pills are still safe. Continue to take them, regardless.” d. “Physicians are still uncertain as to how oral contraceptives function.” 41- A patient has been diagnosed with herpes simplex virus, type 2 (HSV type 2). What instruction should the nurse provide? a. Avoid telling anyone about the condition. b. Wear close-fitting undergarments. c. Wash towels and personal items daily. d. Soak the sores with peroxide every day. 42- A woman diagnosed with gonorrhea is astounded and states that she had no idea that she had an STI. What should the nurse explain about gonorrhea? a. It produces no symptoms in half of those in the early stages of the infection. b. It always produces a foul vaginal discharge. c. It causes a vaginal chancre that is not easily detected. d. It may appear to be an upper respiratory infection in the early stages of the infection. 44- A pregnant patient with HSV type 2 has a Herp-Test performed in the physician’s office 1 day before she is due to deliver by cesarean section. The test result is negative. What should the nurse know this means? a. The delivery must be by cesarean section. b. The patient must start on an antiviral protocol today. c. The baby will have to have antiviral medication 24 hours after birth. d. The delivery may be accomplished vaginally. 45- What is characteristic of the primary stage syphilis? a. Chancre. b. Alopecia. c. Pruritus. d. Dry skin. 46- A patient with a chlamydial infection is taking a 7-day course of doxycycline (Vibramycin). What information should the nurse provide? a. Return in 1 month for a follow-up culture. b. Take the drug on an empty stomach with a minimum of fluid. c. Delay sexual activity until cured. d. Expect genital or anal itching or burning. 47- A patient who has undergone treatment for herpes simplex virus type 2 (HSV type 2) expresses relief that she is cured. What should the nurse include in her teaching? a. Daily douches of Burow solution are needed. b. HSV is permanently cured by acyclovir (Zovirax). c. Sexual partners are now safe from infection from her. d. HSV lies dormant and can be triggered without any sexual contact. 48- The nurse is teaching a class to women who were recently diagnosed with benign breast disease (BBD), commonly known as fibrocystic breast disease. One of the participants reports increased swelling, pain, and pressure in her breasts just before menstruation. What is the best response by the nurse? 1. “It’s best to make an appointment with an oncologist.” 2. “The pain may be caused by thinning of the normal breast tissue.” 3. “Consider asking your healthcare provider about adding a mild diuretic to your regimen.” 4. “Breast swelling, and pressure are expected symptoms, but pain is abnormal and should be evaluated by your physician.” 49- The nurse is creating a care plan for a client who is unable to conceive as a consequence of endometriosis. Which statement accurately reflects a nursing diagnosis that may apply to the care of this client? 1. Acute pain related to dysuria and renal pain secondary to endometriosis. 2. Compromised family coping related to depression secondary to infertility. 3. Infertility related to endometrial inflammation and adhesions secondary to endometriosis. 4. Hyperandrogenism related to elevated serum androgen levels secondary to endometriosis. 50- The nurse manager is interviewing nurses for a position in an infertility clinic. Which statement best indicates that the interviewee understands the role of the nurse when working with infertile clients? 1. “This position is an assistant to the physician during diagnostic testing for infertility.” 2. “My job will be teaching clients how to take their medications and scheduling tests.” 3. “I will both teach and support families struggling with emotions as they attempt to become pregnant.” 4. “Many of my duties will involve forming therapeutic relationships with clients struggling with infertility.” 51- A client is diagnosed with a uterine prolapse. Which treatments should the nurse prepare to discuss with this client? 1. Oophorectomy. 2. Kegel exercises. 3. Cervical cerclage. 4. Topical antibiotics. 52- The nurse learns that a client is being considered for a total abdominal hysterectomy. Which health problem should the nurse suspect this client is experiencing? 1. Small ovarian cysts. 2. Ovarian cancer 3. PID. 4. Vaginal Atrophy. 53- What should the gynecology clinic nurse recommend for the client experiencing premenstrual syndrome (PMS)? 1. “Increase your consumption of red meat when you feel symptoms, and eat three large meals per day.” 2. “Engage in aerobic activity often throughout the month, and continue exercising when your symptoms begin.” 3. “Decrease your dietary intake of dairy and soy slightly during the month, and especially during your days of bleeding.” 4. “Eat more chocolate and drink more caffeine beginning a week prior to when your menstrual cycle bleeding should begin.” 54- A client comes to the clinic complaining of severe menstrual cramps. She has never been pregnant, has been diagnosed with ovarian cysts, and has had an intrauterine device (IUD) for 2 years. What is the most likely reason for this client’s complaint? 1. Menorrhagia. 2. Hypermenorrhea. 3. Primary dysmenorrhea. 4. Secondary dysmenorrhea. 55- Which issues should the nurse consider when counseling a client on contraceptive methods? 1. Age at menarche. 2. Anxiety level. 3. Future childbearing plans 4. Whether the client is a vegetarian. 56- Which client is not a good candidate for Depo-Provera (DMPA)? 1. One with a vaginal prolapse. 2. One who weighs 200 pounds. 3. One who wishes to breastfeed. 4. One who wishes to get pregnant within 3 months. 57- When a woman who has been raped is admitted to the emergency department, which nursing intervention has priority? 1. Contact family members. 2. Create a safe, secure atmosphere for the woman. 3. Assure the woman that everything will be all right. 4. Explain exactly what will need to be done to preserve legal evidence. 58- From genetic testing a client learns of having a X-linked recessive genetic disorder. Which health problem would be explained by this finding? 1. Infertility. 2. Hemophilia A. 3. Beta-thalassemia. 4. Tay-Sachs disease. 59- The nurse is reviewing a list of families scheduled for clinic visits. Which family would benefit from genetic counseling? 1. Family who has a child with cystic fibrosis. 2. Family whose youngest child is overweight. 3. Family whose oldest child wears eyeglasses. 4. Family who has a neighbor with Down syndrome. 60-A nurse is teaching a classroom of teenage girls about the female reproductive system. After teaching, the nurse asks the students to describe the release of an ovum during ovulation. Which response indicates that teaching has been effective? 1. “Ovulation is when the uterus releases an unfertilized egg or ovum.” 2. “During ovulation, an egg is released from the ovary and enters the fallopian tube.” 3. “The endometrium is where the eggs are formed and released into the fallopian tube.” 4. “Around the middle of the menstrual cycle, one of the fallopian tubes releases an egg.” 61- The school nurse is teaching a health class to middle school children. Which structure should the nurse explain as secreting follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH)? 1. Hypothalamus. 2. Anterior pituitary. 3. Posterior pituitary. 4. Ovaries and testes. 66- A male student comes to the campus clinic complaining of painful scrotal edema, nausea, vomiting, chills, and fever. What should the nurse recognize these signs and symptoms as being associated with? a. UTI. b. Epididymitis. c. Urethritis. d. Cystitis. 67- Which instruction should increase the comfort of a patient who is recovering from prostatitis? a. Avoid bathing for 2 days. b. Exercise. c. Take stool softeners. d. Limit fluid intake. 68- The emergency room nurse is caring for a victim of sexual assault. What pharmacologic intervention should the nurse prepare to discuss with the victim? Select all that apply. 1. Prophylactic analgesics. 2. Postcoital contraceptive therapy. 3. Prophylactic immunizations for tetanus. 4. Postexposure prophylaxis with HIV antiviral medications. 5. Prophylactic treatment for sexually transmitted infections (STIs). 69- The nurse is reviewing the embryonic primary germ layers with a group of students. Which structures should the nurse identify as being formed from the mesoderm? Select all that apply. 1. Nails. 2. Liver. 3. Spleen. 4. Muscles. 5. Skeleton. 70- A nurse teaching a seminar on breast cancer lists the signs that would alert a woman to the possibility of a tumor. What should those signs include? Select all that apply. a. Dimpling. b. Nipple discharge. c. Thickening of tissue. d. Red bruise. e. Dry rash around nipple. 71- A female client is considering ovulation-inducing medications to achieve pregnancy. What should the nurse explain as potential adverse effects of this type of assisted reproductive technology (ART)? Select all that apply. 1. Miscarriage. 2. Preterm birth. 3. Neonatal morbidity. 4. Multifetal pregnancy. 5. Pelvic inflammatory disease. 72- During an assessment the nurse suspects that a client is at risk for developing a cystocele. What findings did the nurse use to come to this conclusion? Select all that apply. 1. Age 68. 2. Body mass index (BMI) 32. 3. Pregnant seven times. 4. History of diabetes. 5. Takes hormone replacement therapy. 2. A nurse is caring for a pregnant woman who has come to the prenatal clinic for a follow-up visit. During the visit, the woman asks the nurse, "I've heard about something called a doula. Can you explain what this is? Which response by the nurse would be most appropriate? a. "A doula is someone with advanced medical training who helps you during birth." b. "A doula is just like a midwife except usually a family member." c. "A doula is someone who assists you during birth and afterwards offers support to you and your family." d. "A doula is a nurse with an advanced training in caring for women having a normal pregnancy and birth." 3. A nurse educator is conducting a class on intimate partner violence for a group of new graduate nurses during orientation. Which statement by the educator best reflects current practice regarding these problems in women's health? a. "Asking every client about intimate partner and family violence is the best way to elicit accurate infor-mation." b. "The nurse should screen for these problems at every client encounter." c. "The nurse is not legally responsible for reporting suspected intimate partner violence." d. "Since families are more stable than in the past, nurses are not as concerned about these problems as they used to be." 8. As a result of loss of estrogen, perimenopausal women have decreased vaginal lubrication. What may occur as a result? a. frequent urination b. excess fatigue c. painful intercourse d. painful menses 9. In the female reproductive system, the hormones estrogen and progesterone are produced by the: a. vagina. b. Bartholin's glands. c. Skene's glands. d. ovaries. 13. When teaching a group of postmenopausal women about hot flashes and night sweats, the nurse would address which primary cause? a. poor dietary intake b. estrogen deficiency c. active lifestyle d. changes in vaginal pH 15. A male client asks the nurse to explain which structure is cut during a vasectomy. What response should the nurse give the client? a. the vas deferens b. the epididymis c. the ejaculatory ducts d. the scrotum 16. Which hormone stimulates the release of the follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) from both male and female glands? a. growth hormone-releasing hormone (GHRH) b. thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) c. gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) d. prolactin-releasing hormone (PRH) 17. The nurse is reviewing with a group of high school students that the hypothalamus, pituitary gland, and gonads all contribute to hormonal regulation of the female reproductive system. Based on this information, what is the specific hormone that functions primarily during pregnancy? a. estradiol b. estriol c. estrone d. progesterone 18. A 12-year-old girl expresses concern to the nurse because she has not begun her period yet, whereas almost all of her friends have already begun menstruating. She asks when the nurse thinks she will begin her period. The nurse notes that the girl has grown 6 inches in the past year and a half and has developed breast buds and pubic hair in the past year. Which response would be best for the nurse to give the girl? a. "Your body is giving a lot of signs that you will probably start your period in no more than a year, which is completely normal." b. "It looks like you are a late bloomer! It's difficult to say when you'll get your period; some girls start as late as age 17." c. "Most girls have already begun their period by your age. We should run a few tests to make sure you don't have a hormone problem." d. "The age that you start your period is highly genetic; ask your mother when she began her period." 20. The nurse is teaching a client about fertility and the various phases of the menstrual cycle. The nurse should point out that ovulation usually occurs on which day of a 28-day cycle? a. 1 b. 10 c. 12 d. 14 21. When describing the process of fertilization, the nurse would explain that it normally occurs in which structure? a. endometrium b. vagina c. cervix d. fallopian tube 22. An intrauterine device has been inserted into a client as a requested birth control method. What is an advantage of intrauterine devices (IUDs)? a. decreased incidence of tubal pregnancies b. decreased incidence of pelvic inflammatory disease c. continuous protection without client's active participation d. protection against sexually transmitted infections 23. A client in the clinic requests birth control pills to prevent pregnancy. Upon taking a sexual history, the nurse realizes that the client has multiple partners. Which type of contraception would be the best for the nurse to suggest? a. birth control pills b. condoms c. calendar method d. natural method 24. A woman and her partner have been trying to conceive for over 2 years without success. Ultrasound imaging reveals scarring of her fallopian tubes, which appears to be the primary cause of subfertility. What is the most likely cause of the scarring? a. pelvic inflammatory disease b. ruptured appendix c. abdominal surgery d. Turner syndrome 25. A client in her second trimester of pregnancy asks the nurse for information regarding certain oral medications to induce a miscarriage. What information should this client be given about such medications? a. They are available only in the form of suppositories. b. They can be taken only in the first trimester. c. They present a high risk of respiratory failure. d. They are considered a permanent end to fertility. 26. A nurse is caring for a female client who has a history of recurring vulvovaginal candidiasis. Which instruction should the nurse include in the teaching session with the client? a. Use superabsorbent tampons. b. Douche the affected area regularly. c. Wear white, 100% cotton underpants. d. Increase intake of carbonated drinks. 27. The community health nurse presents information to an elementary school parents' association about the vaccines available for both preteen boys and girls. The nurse determines the presentation a success when the parents identify which STI as having an available vaccine? a. human papillomavirus (HPV) b. human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) c. genital herpes simplex virus (HSV) d. chlamydia 28. Working at the college health care clinic, the nurse recognizes the importance of educating students that the human papillomavirus has been confirmed to be the cause of essentially all cases of which type of cancer? a. cervical b. uterine c. ovarian d. vaginal 29. While obtaining a health history from a male adolescent during a well checkup, the nurse assesses his sexual behavior and risk for sexually transmitted infections. Based on the information, the nurse plans to teach the adolescent about using a condom. What statement would the nurse include in the teaching plan? a. “You can reuse a condom if it's within 3 hours.” b. “Store your condoms in your wallet so they are ready for use.” c. “Put the condom on before engaging in any genital contact.” d. “Use petroleum jelly with a latex condom for extra lubrication.” 30. Which test would be most appropriate for detecting a yeast infection in a client with irritation of the vagina and vulva? a. enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay test b. hormone receptor assay test c. microscopic examination of a swab sampling d. transvaginal ultrasound screening test 31. A client with genital herpes asks the nurse about what to expect with the infection. Which response would be mostappropriate? a. “Once you take the medication, the infection will be gone for good.” b. “Even though you don’t have symptoms, you could still spread the infection.” c. “You can expect other outbreaks, each of which will be longer than the first.” d. “You might have to try several different medications before finding one that works.” 33. A client is undergoing routine screening for breast cancer. The nurse would provide teaching about which test? a. mammography b. magnetic resonance mammography c. fine-needle aspiration biopsy d. sterotactic needle-guided biopsy 34. A client is scheduled to have a screening mammogram. When teaching the woman about this test, the nurse should include which instruction? a. "Schedule the procedure just before your menses." b. "Don't use deodorant that day because it may interfere with the X-ray image." c. "You can leave your necklace on, but you'll need to take off your watch and earrings." d. "You'll need to take a narcotic analgesic for any discomfort afterwards." 35. The nurse explains to a client with a family history of breast cancer the difference between benign and malignant neoplasms. Which description is a characteristic of a malignant neoplasm? a. round or oval shape b. irregular shape and hard c. movable d. smooth border 36. When preparing a teaching plan for a woman with mastitis, the nurse would include which instruction? a. Cease breastfeeding to prevent transmission to the infant. b. Limit fluid intake to minimize swelling. c. Apply warm compresses to the affected breast. d. Avoid the use of a supportive bra to prevent pressure on the inflamed breast. 37. A nurse is preparing a presentation for a health fair about preventing breast cancer. Which suggestion would the nurse include? a. delaying having children until after age 30 b. maintaining an ideal weight c. opting for estrogen only replacement therapy during menopause d. increasing the intake of caffeinated drinks 38. A breast biopsy indicates the presence of malignant cells, and the client is scheduled for a mastectomy. Which nursing diagnosis would the nurse most likely include in the client's preoperative plan of care as the priority? a. risk for deficient fluid volume b. activity intolerance c. disturbed body image d. impaired urinary elimination 39. A woman who is 6 months postpartum calls the clinic and reports flu-like symptoms, an elevated temperature, and pain and redness throughout her left breast. What would the nurse suspect first? a. mastitis b. inflammatory breast cancer c. intraductal papilloma d. duct ectasia 40. A nurse is providing education to a woman about screening for breast cancer. The woman has no symptoms and no family history of breast cancer. Which recommendation would the nurse make based on the guidelines from the American Cancer Society? a. biennial mammography beginning at age 50 b. annual mammogram beginning at age 40 c. clinical breast exam starting at age 30 d. no breast self-exam 41. A small amount of breast milk is obtained for culture and sensitivity testing from a client with mastitis. The nurse would expect the results to identify which organism as the most likely cause? a. Chlamydia trachomatis b. group A streptococcus c. Escherichia coli d. Staphylococcus aureus 42. When teaching a woman how to perform Kegel exercises, the client asks what muscles are being helped with these exercises. The nurse would include reference to which muscles in the response? a. gluteus b. lower abdominal c. pelvic floor d. diaphragmatic 43. A woman is scheduled for an anterior and posterior colporrhaphy as treatment for a cystocele. When the nurse is explaining this treatment to the client, which description would be most appropriate to include? a. “This procedure helps to tighten the vaginal wall in the front and back so that your bladder and urethra are in the proper position.” b. “Your uterus will be removed through your vagina, helping to relieve the organ that is putting the pressure on your bladder.” c. “This is a series of exercises that you will learn to do so that you can strengthen your bladder muscles.” d. “These are plastic devices that your primary care provider will insert into your vagina to provide support to the uterus and keep it in the proper position.” 44. A nurse is explaining to a client that pessaries have been used through the ages as a nonsurgical means of treating pelvic organ prolapse. The nurse describes the pessaries of today as being primarily constructed of: a. silicone. b. rubber. c. porcelain. d. metal. 45. A 40-year-old client arrives at the community health center experiencing a strange, dragging feeling in the vagina. She stated that “at times it feels as if there is a lump” there as well. Which condition do these symptoms indicate? a. urinary incontinence b. endocervical polyps c. pelvic organ prolapse d. uterine fibroids 46. The nurse would expect which client to be at a high risk for developing a pelvic support disorder? a. an 18-year-old college freshman b. a 29-year-old mother of one son c. a 60-year-old mother with four children d. a 30-year-old who just gave birth to twin girls 47. When assessing a client, a nurse determines that the client has a rectocele based on which finding? a. protrusion of the bladder wall through the anterior vaginal wall b. bulging of the small intestine through the posterior vaginal wall c. sagging of the rectum, which pushes against or into the posterior vaginal wall d. downward movement of the uterus through the pelvic floor and into the vagina 48. The nurse is reviewing with a new client the diagnosis of polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS). Which long-term health problems would the nurse review as a risk with this syndrome? a. migraine b. celiac disease c. type 2 diabetes d. cellulitis 49. A 25-year-old woman is at the primary care provider for her annual check up. The nurse educated the woman on risks for cervical cancer. Which question would be important to ask as part of a risk screening? a. “Were you sexually active at an early age?” b. “Do you have a history of high blood pressure?” c. “Have you had problems trying to get pregnant?” d. “How long have you been severely overweight?” 50. A nurse is speaking to a local women’s group about the various types of cancer affecting the female reproductive tract. The nurse explains that ovarian cancer is the leading cause of death from gynecologic malignancies based on the understanding that this type of cancer: a. spreads more easily than other female reproductive cancers. b. arises from extremely rare types of cells that are resistant to treatment. c. typically manifests with vague symptoms resulting in late diagnosis. d. is closely associated with highly resistant sexually transmitted infections. 51. A middle-aged woman is seen in the OB/GYN clinic and reports abdominal bloating, fatigue, abdominal pain, urinary frequency, and constipation. She also says that she had lost 24 pounds in the last month without trying to lose. For which disease should the primary care provider screen this client? a. pelvic organ prolapse (POP) b. ovarian cancer c. breast cancer d. fibroids 52. A female client has been admitted to the inpatient psychiatric facility with a diagnosis of posttraumatic stress disorder after a history of violence by her boyfriend. During the initial assessment interview, which assessment would be the priority? a. nutritional status b. hydration status c. sleep patterns d. suicide risk 53. A newly pregnant 41-year-old woman is requesting genetic testing of the baby. She is concerned that due to her age the baby has an increased risk for which condition? a. Down syndrome b. Patau syndrome c. cystic fibrosis d. muscular dystrophy 54. An older pregnant woman has come to the clinic for her first prenatal visit. She asks the nurse about age guidelines for genetic counseling and prenatal testing. The nurse informs the client that genetic counseling and prenatal testing should be performed for all pregnant women in which age group? a. 18 to 25 b. 25 to 30 c. 35 and older d. 18 and under 55. The nurse is caring for a client and her partner who are considering a future pregnancy. The client reports her last two pregnancies ended in stillbirth related to an underlying genetic disorder. What response by the nurse is mostappropriate? a. “You should contact a geneticist after you become pregnant to closely watch your condition.” b. “Your risk of repeated occurrences likely increases with future pregnancies.” c. “You are strong to consider such an undertaking.” d. “Consultation with a genetic counselor before you become pregnant would likely be beneficial.” 56. After teaching a pregnant woman about the hormones produced by the placenta, the nurse determines that the teaching was successful when the woman identifies which hormone produced as being the basis for pregnancy tests? a. human placental lactogen (hPL) b. estrogen (estriol) c. progesterone (progestin) d. human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) 57. Down syndrome may occur because of a translocation defect. This means the: a. infant inherits chromosomal material from only one parent. b. parents have a chromosomal pattern that is exactly alike. c. additional chromosome was inherited because it was attached to a normal chromosome. d. parents are such close relatives that their genes are incompatible. 58. A number of inherited diseases can be detected in utero by amniocentesis. Which disease can be detected by this method? a. diabetes mellitus b. trisomy 21 c. phenylketonuria d. impetigo 62. When a woman is pregnant she often craves specific things, like pickles or ice cream. There is one craving that is associated with iron deficiency anemia and should be reported to the registered nurse if it occurs. What is this craving called? a. Chocolate mania b. Carnivorous craving c. Pica craving d. Lactose mania 65. What is the term that refers to a woman who has never been pregnant? a. gravida b. parity c. nulligravida d. multigravida 70. A nurse working in a pediatrician's office has requested that a generic brand of cotton swabs be ordered in place of a more expensive brand name. Which trend in today's health care environment is most related to this nurse's action? a. initiating cost containment b. increasing health insurance coverage cost c. increasing use of technology d. increasing reliance on home care 80. A nurse is reviewing sperm count results for a couple trying to conceive. Which results would concern the nurse? a. 10 million per mL of seminal fluid b. 20 million per mL of seminal fluid c. 30 million per mL of seminal fluid d. 40 million per mL of seminal fluid 81. A nurse is caring for a pregnant woman in her third trimester. The woman is HIV positive and voices concerns about passing the infection on to her baby. What is the nurse's best response? a. "There is nothing you can do. You will just have to wait and see if your baby is born HIV positive." b. "If you are taking antiretroviral medications and you don't breastfeed your baby, you greatly reduce the risk of perinatal transmission of the disease." c. "Do you have other children? Your baby has a one-in-four chance of having HIV at birth, so if you have three other children who are not HIV positive, then this one will be HIV positive." d. "Perinatal transmission of the virus is a real fear. Would you like to talk to a social worker?" 82. The nurse is assessing a couple who have come to the health care facility because they have been unable to conceive a child. When assessing the woman, the nurse would identify which factor as increasing the woman's risk for infertility? a. endometriosis b. age of 25 years c. dysmenorrhea d. patent fallopian tubes 83. Which factor in a client’s history indicates she is at risk for candidiasis? a. nulliparity b. menopause c. use of corticosteroids d. use of spermicidal jelly 84. A client presents with vulvar itching and diffuse green vaginal discharge. Upon evaluation, she is prescribed metronidazole. What is the paramount nursing intervention in discharge planning? a. Instruct the client not to drink alcohol with this treatment. b. Counsel the client to refrain from sex for one week. c. Advise the client to take medication with a glass of milk. d. Reassure the client further STI testing is not indicated. 85. Which instruction should the nurse give to a client with genital herpes to help control the infection? a. Avoid sexual contact until sores heal. b. Apply antibacterial medication. c. Avoid people with upper respiratory infections. d. Apply imiquimod cream. 86. Which stage of syphilis occurs when the infected person has no signs or symptoms of syphilis? a. primary b. latency c. secondary d. tertiary 87. A nurse is required to assess a client reporting unusual vaginal discharge for bacterial vaginosis. For which classic manifestation of this condition should the nurse assess? a. characteristic “stale fish” odor b. heavy yellow discharge c. dysfunctional uterine bleeding d. erythema in the vulvovaginal area 88. A nurse is teaching personal hygiene care techniques to a client with genital herpes. Which statement by the client indicates the teaching has been effective? a. “I will wear loose cotton underwear.” b. “I will apply a water-based lubricant to my lesions.” c. “I should rub rather than scratch in response to itching.” d. “I can pour hydrogen peroxide and water over my lesions.” 89. A woman is diagnosed with endometrial polyps after undergoing a hysteroscopy. When reviewing the documentation about the findings of this procedure, the nurse would expect to see the polpys being described as which color? a. Cherry-red b. Grayish-white c. Mucopurulent d. Greenish-yellow 90. A nurse is conducting a presentation for a local women's group about pelvic organ prolapse. When describing the different types, which information would the nurse incorporate into the description of a cystocele? a. sagging of the rectum, pushing against or into the posterior vaginal wall b. protrusion of the bladder wall through the anterior vaginal wall c. bulging of the small intestine through the posterior vaginal wall d. downward movement of the uterus through the pelvic floor and into the vagina 91. A woman is admitted for repair of cystocele and rectocele. She has nine living children. In taking her health history, what would the nurse expect to find? a. sporadic vaginal bleeding accompanied by chronic pelvic pain b. heavy leukorrhea with vulvar pruritus c. menstrual irregularities and hirsutism on the chin d. stress incontinence with feeling of low abdominal pressure 94. Assessment of a client reveals evidence of a cystocele. The nurse interprets this as: a. herniation of the rectum into the vagina. b. protrusion of intestinal wall into the vagina. c. downward displacement of the cervix. d. bulging of the bladder into the vagina. 95. A client comes to the genitourinary clinic with very mild symptoms of pelvic organ prolapse (POP) that has just started in the last several days. What would be the treatment of choice for this client? a. surgery b. Kegel exercises c. nothing d. colpexin sphere 96. An elderly woman is seen in the clinic reporting a lesion on her labia majora and states that she has experienced some bleeding and itching as well. She states that this has been going on for approximately three months. She tells the nurse that she has not been to a health care provider in over 10 years. What diagnosis would the nurse expect the primary care provider to make? a. cervical cancer b. vaginal cancer c. vulvar cancer d. polyps 97. A client has been diagnosed with cervical cancer during her second trimester of pregnancy. She decides to delay treatment until after the baby is born. The nurse prepare her for birth by explaining the birth will most likely be: a. via cesarean section. b. vaginally. c. per her choice. d. induced at 37 weeks. 98. A 30-year-old female is attending a health fair for women. The nurse at the fair is reviewing risk factors for cervical cancer. Which important risk factor should the nurse include at the fair? a. one life partner b. first intercourse after age 25 c. exposure to diethylstilbestrol (DES) in utero d. protected sexual intercourse 99. A nurse is assessing a 20-year-old female. Which data finding taken during the history would indicate endometrial cancer? a. vaginal bleeding that is painless and abnormal b. diagnosis of diabetes mellitus c. diagnosis of liver disease d. severe back pain 100. The client has just been diagnosed with cervical cancer, and after discussing her options with her primary care provider and husband she chooses to have cryotherapy. What does this procedure do? a. removes a section of cervical tissue b. destroys abnormal cervical tissue by freezing it with liquid nitrogen c. destroys diseased cervical tissue by using a focused beam to vaporize it d. uses a cold knife (surgical scapel) to remvove tissue [Show More]

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