PN CAPSTONE NCLEX QUESTIONS 1_2022/2023 | PN_CAPSTONE NCLEX QUESTIONS 1_HIGH SCORE!

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PN CAPSTONE NCLEX QUESTION 1_LATEST – Rasmussen College 1. If a male client experienced a cerebrovascular accident (CVA) that damaged the hypothalamus, the nurse anticipate that the client has pr... oblems with: a) Body temperature control. b) Balance and equilibrium c) Visual acuity d) Thinking and reasoning 2. A female client admitted to an acute care facility after a car accident develops signs and symptoms of increased intracranial pressure (ICP). The client is intubated and placed on mechanical ventilation to help reduce ICP. To prevent a further rise in ICP caused by suctioning, the nurse anticipates administering which drug endotracheal before suctioning? a) Phenytoin (Dilantin) b) Mannitol (Osmitrol) c) Lidocaine (Xylocaine) d) Furosemide (Lasix) 3. After striking his head on a tree while falling from a ladder, a young man age 18 is admitted to the emergency department. He’s unconscious and his pupils are nonreactive. Which intervention would be the most dangerous for the client? a) Give him a barbiturate b) Place him a mechanical ventilation c) Perform a lumbar puncture d) Elevate the head of his bed 4. When obtaining the health history from a male client with retinal detachment, the nurse expects the client to report: a) Light flashed and floaters in front of the eye b) A recent driving accident while changing lanes c) Headaches, nausea, and redness of the eyes d) Frequent episodes of double vision 5. Which nursing diagnosis takes highest priority for a client with Parkinson’s crisis? a) Imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements b) Ineffective airway clearance c) Impaired urinary elimination d) Risk for injury 6. To encourage adequate nutritional intake for a female client with Alzheimer’s disease, the nurse should: a) Stay with the client and encourage him to eat b) Help the client fill out his menu c) Give the client privacy during meals d) Fill out the menu for the client 7. The nurse is performing a mental status examination on a male client diagnosed with subdural hematoma. This test assesses which of the following? a) Cerebellar function b) Intellectual function c) Cerebral function d) Sensory function 8. Shortly after admission to an acute care facility, a male client with a seizure disorder develop status epilepticus. The physician orders diazepam (Valium) 10 mg I.V. stat. How soon can the nurse administer a second dose of diazepam, if needed and prescribed? a) In 30 to 45 seconds b) In 10 to 15 minutes c) In 30 to 45 minutes d) In 1 to 2 hours 9. A female complains of periorbital aching, tearing, blurred vision, and photophobia in her right eye. Ophthalmologic examination reveals a small, irregular, nonreactive pupil - a condition resulting from acute iris inflammation (iritis). As part of the client’s therapeutic regimen, the physician prescribes atropine sulfate (Atropisol), two drops of 0.5% solution in the right eye twice daily. Atropine Sulfate belongs to which drug classification? a) Para sympathomimetic agent b) Sympatholytic agent c) Adrenergic blocker d) Cholinergic blocker 10. Emergency medical technicians transport a 27-year-old iron worker to the emergency department. They tell the nurse, “He fell from a two story building. He has a large contusion on his left chest and a hematoma on the left parietal area. He has a compound fracture of his left femur and he’s oximeter with a manual-resuscitation bag.” Which intervention by the nurse has the highest priority? a) Assessing the left leg b) Assessing the pupils c) Placing the client in Trendelenburg’s position d) Assessing level of consciousness 11. An auto mechanic accidentally has battery acid splashed in his eyes. His coworkers irrigate his eyes with water for 20 minutes, and then take him to emergency department of a nearby hospital, where he received emergency care for corneal injury. The physician prescribes dexamethasone (Maxidex Ophthalmic Suspension), two drops of 0.1% solution to be instilled initially into the conjunctival sacs of both eyes every hour; and polymyxin B sulfate (Neosporin Ophthalmis), 0.5% ointment to be places in the conjunctival sacs of both eyes every 3 hours. Dexamethasone exerts its therapeutic effect by: a) Increasing the exudative reaction of ocular tissue b) Decreasing leukocyte infiltration at the site of ocular inflammation c) Inhibiting the action of carbonic anhydrase d) Producing a miotic reaction by stimulation and contraction the sphincter muscles of the iris. 12. Nurse April is caring for a client who under a lumbar laminectomy 2 days ago. Which of the following findings should the nurse consider abnormal? a) More back pain than the first postoperative day b) Paresthesia in the dermatomes near the wounds c) Urine retention or incontinence d) Temperature of 99.2F (37.3C) 13. After an eye examination, a male client is diagnosed with open-angle glaucoma. The Physician prescribes pilocarpine ophthalmic solution (Pilocar), 0.25% gtt I, OU q.i.d. based on this prescription, the nurse should teach the client or a family member to administer the drug by: a) Instilling one drop of pilocarpine 0.25% into both eyes daily. b) Instilling one drop of pilocarpine 0.25% into both eyes four times a daily c) Instilling one drop of pilocarpine 0.25% into the right eye daily d) Instilling one drop of pilocarpine 0.25% into the left eye four times daily 14. A female client who’s paralyzed on the left side has been receiving physical therapy and attending teaching sessions about safety. Which behavior indicates that the client accurately understands safety measures related to paralysis? a) The client leaves the side rails down b) The client uses a mirror to inspect the skin c) The client repositions only after being reminded to do so. d) The client hangs the left arm over the side of the wheelchair 15. A male client in the emergency department has a suspected neurologic disorder. To assess gait, the nurse asks the client to take a few steps; with each step, the client’s feet make a half circle. To document the client’s gait, the nurse should use which term? a) Ataxic b) Dystrophic c) Helicopod d) Steppage 16. A client, age 22, is admitted with bacterial meningitis. Which hospital room would be the best choice for this client? a) A private room down the hall from the nurses’ station b) An isolation room three doors from the nurses’ station c) A semiprivate room with a 32-year-old client who has viral meningitis d) A two-bed room with a client who previously had bacterial meningitis 17. A physician diagnoses a client with myasthenia gravis, prescribing pyridostimine (Mestinon), 60 mg P.O. every 3 hours. Before administering this anticholinesterase agent, the nurse reviews the client’s history. Which preexisting condition would contraindicate the use of pyridostigmine? a) Ulcerative colitis b) Blood dyscrasia c) Intestinal obstruction d) Spinal cord injury 18. A female client is admitted to the facility for investigation of balance and coordination problems, including possible Meniere’s disease. When assessing this client, the nurse expects to note: a) Vertigo, tinnitus, and hearing loss b) Vertigo, vomiting, and nystagmus c) Vertigo, pain and hearing impairment d) Vertigo, blurred vision and fever 19. A male client with a conductive hearing disorder caused by ankyloses of the stapes in the oval window undergoes a stapedotomy to remove the stapes and replaces the impaired bone with a prosthesis. After the stapedotomy, the nurse should provide which client instruction? a) “Lie in bed with your head elevated, and refrain from blowing you nose for 2 hours.” b) “Try to ambulate independently after about 24 hours.” c) “Shampoo your hair every day for 10 days to help prevent ear infection.” d) “Don’t’ fly in an airplane, climb in high altitudes, make sudden movements, or expose yourself to loud sounds for 30 days.” 20. Nurse Oliver is monitoring a client for adverse reactions to dantrolene (Dantrium). Which adverse reaction is most common? a) Excessive tearing b) Urine retention c) Muscle weakness d) Slurred speech 21. A client exposed to Mycobacterium tuberculosis starts on chemoprophylaxis. The nurse provides which instruction to the client? a) “You take a single drug such as isoniazid (INH) by mouth every day for 6 to 12 months.” b) “You will be on at least two drugs effective against the tubercle bacillus for 3 months.” c) “You will be on a combination therapy in order to prevent development of drug resistance.” d) “You will need to learn to give yourself subcutaneous injections.” 22. The nurse delegates an unlicensed assistive person (UAP) to assist a client with a clean urinary catheterization procedure. The client was formerly able to perform the procedure but because of arthritis, he is no longer able to do so. Although the UAP has done this procedure before, which direction must the nurse emphasize to the UAP? a) Let the client do most of the procedure and report the expected output. b) Report immediately any unusual observations, such as bleeding. c) Complete in proper order the steps of the procedure. d) Perform health teaching while performing the procedure. 23. The nurse assisting in the operating room is monitoring the physiological integrity of a client undergoing surgery. Which activity is most appropriate? a) Determine client satisfaction with care received. b) Monitor client’s emotional status. c) Monitor asepsis in the environment. d) Calculate fluid loss and its effects. 24. The clinic nurse is assisting the RN with health screenings. Which client data indicates that client teaching is needed about the risk for stroke? Select all that apply. a) Weight 205lbs and height 5 feet 4 inches b) Blood pressure 164/92 mm Hg c) Eats bran for breakfast daily d) Smokes ½ pack of cigarettes per day e) Serum cholesterol levels is 172 mg/dL 25. Which action would the nurse take to maintain medical asepsis when caring for a client with diabetes mellitus on the medical nursing unit who requires irrigation of a leg ulcer and insulin injections? Select all that apply. a) Wash hands before and after client care. b) Wear personal protective equipment during the dressing change. c) Recap a needle after administrating insulin. d) Change the dressing for a diabetic ulcer using sterile gloves. e) Wipe the rubber stopped on the insulin vial before withdrawing dose. 26. Laboratory test results indicate a client is in the nadir period that follows administration of a chemotherapy drug. Which drug should the nurse avoid during administrating to this client at this time? a) Acetaminophen (Tylenol) b) Ibuprofen (Motrin) c) Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) d) Guaifenesin (Robitussin) 27. The rehabilitation unit has recently formed a unit policy and procedure committee. The nurse, while attending and participating in the meetings determines that which nurse exemplifies a situational leader? a) The nurse who offers suggestions, asks questions, and guides the group toward achieving groups goals b) The nurse who recognizes the group’s need for autonomy and abdicates responsibility c) The nurse who relies on the organization’s rules, policies, and procedures to direct the group’s work d) The nurse who recognizes that leadership style depends on the readiness and willingness of the group are the individuals to perform the assigned tasks 28. The nurse places highest priority on taking which action to reduce the spread of microorganisms when caring for a client at risk for infection? a) Wash hands before and after client care. b) Use clean gloves when implement client care. c) Institute transmission-based precautions. d) Place the client in a private room. 29. The nurse would report to the physician which of the following abnormal laboratory values for a 58 year old client newly admitted to the nursing unit with fever and diarrhea? Select all that apply? a) White blood cell count 12,260/mm3 b) Sodium 142 mEq/L c) Potassium 3.9 mEq/L d) Blood urea nitrogen 38 mg/dL e) Serum creatinine 0.9 mg/dL 30. The mental health nurse working with children anticipates that unrealistic expectations or a sense of failure to meet standards would cause a 10 year old child to develop a sense of the following? a) Shame b) Guilt c) Inferiority d) Role confusion 31. A postoperative client who has an order for heparin 5000 units SubQ for 3 doses wants to know why this drug is being ordered. What information would the nurse provide to the client to best answer the questions? a) Heparin is used as a common medication in many clients who have surgery. b) Heparin is essential during the postoperative period to maintain adequate blood clotting levels. c) The injections will be given in the abdomen and are not usually associated with discomfort. d) Heparin is being used to prevent blood clots from forming as a result of surgery of decrease mobility. 32. The nurse who is beginning the work shift is prioritizing the order in which to see five assigned clients. Place the clients in order they should be seen based on priority from first to last. a) A client admitted on the previous shift #4 b) A client with heart failure who gained 5 pounds today #2 c) A client who had frequent asthma attacks during the previous shift #1 d) A terminally ill but comfortable client with a do-not-resuscitate order #5 e) A client reporting mild abdominal pain #3 33. A 56-year-old client reports to the nurse that his sleep patterns are different than when he was younger. The nurse anticipates that this client is likely to be experiencing which normal developmental pattern? a) 6 to 8 hours of sleep per night with about 20-25% of rapid eye movement (REM) sleep and a marked decrease in stage IV non-REM (NREM) sleep b) 6 to 8 hours of sleep per night with about 20% REM sleep and a decrease in stage IV NREM sleep c) Erratic sleep because of work schedule with about 30% of REM sleep and no marked decrease in stage IV NREM sleep d) Light sleep with equal amounts of REM sleep and NREM sleep 34. A nurse concludes that teaching has been effective when the laboring client’s partner shouts "she's crowning!" as which of the following occurs? a) The nurse first starts to see a little of the baby's head b) The baby's head recedes upward between pushing contractions c) The perineum is thin and stretching around the occiput d) The mouth and nose are being suctioned 35. Nurse Janet is assigned in the oncology section of the hospital. Which of the following orders should the nurse question if the client is on radiation therapy? a) Analgesics before meals b) Saline rinses every 2 hours c) Aspirin every 4 hours d) Bland diet 36. Skin reactions are common in radiation therapy. Nursing responsibilities on promoting skin integrity should be promoted apart from: a) Avoiding the use of ointments, powders and lotion to the area b) Using soft cotton fabrics for clothing c) Washing the area with a mild soap and water and patting it dry not rubbing it d) Avoiding direct sunshine or cold. 37. Nausea and vomiting is an expected side effect of chemotherapeutic drug use. Which of the following drug should be administered to a client on chemotherapy to prevent nausea and vomiting? a) Metochlopramide (Metozol) b) Succimer (Chemet) c) Anastrazole (Arimidex) d) Busulfan (Myeleran) 38. Radiation protection is very important to implement when performing nursing procedures. When the nurse is not performing any nursing procedures what distance should be maintained from the client? a) 1 feet b) 2 feet c) 2.5 feet d) 3 feet 39. The following are teaching guidelines regarding radiation therapy except: a) The therapy is painless b) To promote safety, the client is assisted by therapy personal while the machine is in operation. c) The client may communicate all his concerns or needs or discomforts while the machine is operating. d) Safety precautions are necessary only during the time of actual irradiation. 40. Contact of client on radiation therapy should be limited only to how many minutes to promote safety of the therapy personnel? a) 1 minute b) 3 minutes c) 5 minutes d) 10 minutes 41. A client is taking Cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan) for the treatment of lymphoma. The nurse is very cautious in administering the medication because this drug poses the fatal side effect of: a) Alopecia b) Myeloma c) CNS toxicity d) Hemorrhagic cystitis 42. Cytarabine (Ara-C) is an antimetabolite that can cause a common cytarabine syndrome which includes the following apart from: a) Fever b) Myalgia c) Chest pain d) Diarrhea 43. To provide relief form the cytarabine syndrome, which drug is given? a) Analgesic b) Aspirin c) Steroids d) Allopurinol 44. Chemotherapeutic agents have different specific classification. The following medication are antineoplastic excepts: a) Doxorubicin (Adriamycin) b) Fluorouracil (Adrucil) c) Mitoxantrone (Novantrone) d) Bleomycin (Blenoxane) 45. Specific classification of the chemotherapeutic agent, Vincristine (Oncovin) is: a) Hormone modulator b) Mitotic inhibitor c) Antineoplastic antibiotic d) Antimetabolite 46. A client is diagnosed with progressive prostate cancer. The nurse expects which drug is given? a) Anstrazole (arimidex) b) Estramustine (Emcyt) c) Pclitaxel (Taxol) d) Irinotecan (Camptosar) 47. A client taking a chemotherapeutic agent understands the effects of therapy by stating: a) “I will avoid eating hot and spicy foods.” b) “I should stay in my room all the time.” c) “I should limit my fluid intake to about 500 ml per day.” d) “I should notify the physician immediately if a urine color change is observed.” 48. A client is diagnosed with breast cancer. The tumor size is up to 5cm with axillary and neck lymph node involvement. The client is in what state of breast cancer? a) Stage I b) Stage II c) Stage III d) Stage IV 49. The classic symptoms that define breast cancer includes the following except: a) “pink peel” skin b) Solitary, irregularly shaped mass c) Firm, nontender, nonmobile mass d) Abnormal discharge from the nipple 50. Surgical procedure to treat breast cancer involved the removal of the entre breast, pectoralis major muscle and the axillary lymph nodes is: a) Simple mastectomy b) Modified radical mastectomy c) Halstead surgery d) Radical mastectomy 51. A male has an abnormal result on a papanicolaou test. After admitting, he read his chart while the nurse was out of the room, the client asks what dysplasia means. Which definition should the nurse provide? a) Presence of completely undifferentiated tumor cells that don’t resemble cells of the tissues of their origin. b) Increase in the number of normal cells in a normal arrangement in a tissue or an organ c) Replacement of one type of fully differentiated cell by another in tissues where the second type normally isn’t found d) Alteration in the size, shape, and organization of differentiated cells 52. For a female client with newly diagnosed cancer, the nurse formulates a nursing diagnosis of Anxiety related to the threat of death secondary to cancer diagnosis. Which expected outcome would be appropriate for this client? a) “Client verbalizes feelings of anxiety.” b) “Client doesn’t guess at prognosis.” c) “Client uses any effective method to reduce tension.” d) “Client stops seeking information.” 53. A Male client with a cerebellar brain tumor is admitted to an acute care facility. The nurse formulates a nursing diagnosis of Risk for injury. Which “related-to” phrase should the nurse add to complete the nursing diagnosis statement? a) Related to visual field deficits b) Related to difficulty swallowing c) Related to impaired balance d) Related to psychomotor seizures 54. A female client with cancer is scheduled for radiation therapy. The nurse know that radiation at any treatment site may cause a certain adverse effect. Therefore, the nurse should prepare the client to expect: a) Hair loss b) Stomatitis c) Fatigue d) Vomiting 55. Nurse April is teaching a client who suspects that she has a lump in her breast. The nurse instructs the client that a diagnosis of breast cancer is confirmed by: a) Breast self-examination b) Mammography c) Fine needle aspiration d) Chest x-ray 56. A male client undergoes a laryngectomy to treat laryngeal cancer. When teaching the client how to care for the neck stoma, the nurse should include which instruction? a) “Keep the stoma uncovered.” b) “Keep the stoma dry.” c) “Have a family member perform stoma care initially until you get used to the procedure.” d) “Keep the stoma moist.” 57. A female client as receiving chemotherapy to treat breast cancer. Which assessment finding indicates a fluid and electrolyte imbalance induced by chemotherapy? a) Urine output of 400 ml in 8 hours b) Serum potassium levels of 3.6 mEq/L c) Blood pressure of 120/64 to 130/72 mm Hg d) Dry oral mucous members and cracked lips 58. Nurse April is teaching a group of women to perform breast self-examination. The nurse should explain that the purpose of performing the examination is to discover: a) Cancerous lumps b) Areas of thickness or fullness c) Changes from previous self-examinations d) Fibrocystic masses 59. A client, age 41, visits the gynecologist. After examing her, the physician suspects cervical cancer. The nurse reviews the client’s history for risk factors for this disease. Which history finding is a risk factor for cervical cancer? a) Onset of sporadic sexual activity at age 17 b) Spontaneous abortion at age 19 c) Pregnancy complication with eclampsia at age 27 d) Human papillomavirus infection at age 32 60. A female client is receiving methotrexate (Mexate), 12 g/m2 I.V. to treat osteogenic carcinoma. During methotrexate therapy, the nurse expects the client to receive which other drug to protect normal cells? a) Probenecid (Benemid) b) Cytarabine (ara-C, cytosine arabinoside [cytosar-U]) c) Thioguanine (6-thioguanine, 6-tg) d) Leucovorin (citrovorum factor or folinic acid [Wellcovorin]) 61. The nurse is interviewing a male client about his past medical history. Which preexisting condition may lead the nurse to suspect that a client has colorectal cancer? a) Duodenal ulcers b) Hemorrhoids c) Weight gain d) Polyps 62. Nurse Amy is speaking to a group of women about early detection of breast cancer. The average age of women in the group is 47. Following the American Cancer Society guidelines, the nurse should recommend that the women: a) Perform breast self-examination annually b) Have a mammogram annually c) Have a hormonal receptor assay annually d) Have a physician conduct a clinical examination every 2 years 63. For a female client newly diagnosed with radiation-induced thrombocytopenia, the nurse should include which intervention in the plan of care? a) Administering aspirin if the temperature exceeds 102 F (38.8 C) b) Inspecting the skin for petechiae once every shift c) Providing for frequent rest periods d) Placing the client in strict isolation 64. A male client with a nagging cough makes an appointment to see the physician after reading that this symptom is one of the seven warning signs for cancer. What is another warning sign of cancer? a) Persistent nausea b) Rash c) Indigestion d) Chronic ache or pain 65. Nurse Lucia is providing breast cancer education at a community facility. The American Cancer Society recommends at women get mammograms: a) Yearly after age 40 b) After the birth of the first child and every 2 years thereafter c) After the first menstrual period and annually thereafter d) Every 3 years between 20 and 40 and annually thereafter 66. A male client with a conductive hearing disorder caused by ankyloses of the stapes in the oval window undergoes a stapedotomy to remove the stapes and replaces the impaired bone with a prosthesis. After the stapedotomy, the nurse should provide which client instruction? a) “Lie in bed with your head elevated, and refrain from blowing you nose for 2 hours.” b) “Try to ambulate independently after about 24 hours.” c) “Shampoo your hair every day for 10 days to help prevent ear infection.” d) “Don’t’ fly in an airplane, climb in high altitudes, make sudden movements, or expose yourself to loud sounds for 30 days.” 67. Nurse Oliver is monitoring a client for adverse reactions to dantrolene (Dantrium). Which adverse reaction is most common? a) Excessive tearing b) Urine retention c) Muscle weakness d) Slurred speech 68. The nurse is monitoring a male client for adverse reaction to atropine sulfate (Atropine Care) eyedrops. Systemic absorption of atropine sulfate through the conjunctiva can cause which adverse reaction? a) Tachycardia b) Increased salivation c) Hypotension d) Apnea 69. A male client is admitted with a cervical spine injury sustained during a diving accident. When planning this client’s care, the nurse should assign highest priority to which nursing diagnosis? a) impaired physical mobility b) ineffective breathing pattern c) disturbed sensory perception (tactile) d) self-care deficient: Dressing/grooming 70. A male client has a history of painful, continuous muscle spasms. He has taken several skeletal muscle relaxants without experiencing relief. His physician prescribes diazepam (Valium), 2 mg P.O. twice daily. In addition to being used to relieve painful muscle spasm, diazepam also is recommended for: a) Long-term treatment of epilepsy b) Postoperative pain management of laminectomy clients c) Postoperative pain management of discectomy clients d) Treatment of spasticity with spinal cord lesions. NCLEX Review: Oncology Questions Part 1. (2010, May 9). Retrieved July 25, 2015, from http://nclexreviewers.com/nclex-review/oncology/nclex-review-oncology-questions-part-1.html [Show More]

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