ATI Adult Health II Final Exam Study Guide, Study Guide Revisions, Updated Study Guide, Correctly Answered Questions, Test bank Questions and Answers with Explanations (latest Update), 100% Correct, Download to Score A

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Adult Health II Final Exam Exam 1 Material 1. When counseling a couple in which the man has an autosomal recessive disorder and the woman has no gene for the disorder, the nurse uses punnett square... s to show the couple the probability of their child having the disorder. Which statement by the nurse is accurate? A: “Each child would be a carrier of the disorder” 2) The sister of a pt diagnosed with BRCA gene- related to breast cancer asks the nurse “do you think I should be tested for this gene?” Which response by the nurse is most appropriate? A: “There are many things to consider” 3) A male pt with hemophilia (X-linked recessive) asks the nurse if his children will be hemophiliacs. The mother of the children does not carry the hemophilia gene. Which response by the nurse is accurate? A: “Your female children will be carriers” 4) When caring for a young adult pt who has abnormalities in the cytochrome P450 (CYP 450) gene, which action will the nurse include in the pt’s plan of care? A: Teach that some medications may not work effectively 5) Constance, an 81 year old pt with dehydration, explains to the nurse she does not understand how she became dehydrated. The nurse explains the following (choose): A: The loss of subcutaneous tissue, a reduced thirst drive, hormonal changes 6) A pt with a family history of CF asks for information about genetic testing. Which response is most appropriate? A: Refer the pt to a qualified genetic counselor 7) Which action will the nurse include in the plan of care for a pt who has thalassemia major? A: administer iron chelation therapy as needed 8) IV KCl 60 mEq is prescribed for treatment of a pt with severe hypokalemia. Which action should the nurse take? A: Infuse the KCl at a rate of 10 mEq/hr 9) A pt who was involved in a motor vehicle crash has had a tracheostomy placed to allow continued mechanical ventilation. How should the nurse interpret the following ABG’s: pH: 7.49, PaO2: 85 mmHg, PaCO2: 32 mm Hg, and HCO3: 25 mEq/L? A: resp. Alkalosis 10) A post op. Pt who had surgery for a perforated gastric ulcer has been receiving NG suctioning for 3 days. The pt has a serum sodium level of 127 mEq/L. Which prescribed therapy should the nurse question? A: Infuse 5% dextrose in water a 125 mL/hr 11) A pt receives 3% NaCl solution for correction of hyponatremia. Which assessment is most important for the nurse to monitor for while the pt is receiving this infusion? A: Lung sounds 12) A pt who is lethargic and exhibits deep, rapid respirations has the following ABG results: pH: 7.32, PaO2: 88 mm Hg, PaCO2: 37 mm Hg, HCO3: 16 mEq/L. How should the nurse interpret these results? A: metabolic acidosis 13) A pt who has been receiving diuretic therapy is admitted to the ER with a serum potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L. The nurse should alert the healthcare provider immediately that the pt is on what medication? A: Digoxin (Lanoxin) 0.25 mg/day 14) The nurse is caring for a patient who has a calcium level of 12.1 mg/dL. Which nursing action should the nurse include on the care plan? A: Encourage fluid intake up to 4000 mL every day. 15) The nurse is caring for a pt who has CVAD. Which action by the nurse is appropriate? A: Use push-pause method to flush CVAD 16) A patient with renal failure who arrives for outpatient hemodialysis is unresponsive to questions and has decreased deep tendon reflexes. Family members report that the patient has been taking aluminum hydroxide/magnesium hydroxide suspension (Maalox) at home for indigestion. Which action should the nurse take first? A: Notify the patient's health care provider. 17) A patient who had a transverse colectomy for diverticulosis 18 hours ago has nasogastric suction. The patient complains of anxiety and incisional pain. The patient's respiratory rate is 32 breaths/min, and the arterial blood gases (ABGs) indicate respiratory alkalosis. Which action should the nurse take first? A: Give the patient the PRN IV morphine sulfate 4 mg. 18) A patient has a serum calcium level of 7.0 mEq/L. Which assessment finding is most important for the nurse to report to the health care provider? A: The patient is experiencing laryngeal stridor. 19) Following a thyroidectomy, a patient complains of "a tingling feeling around my mouth." Which assessment should the nurse complete? A: Presence of the Chvostek's sign 20) A patient is admitted to the emergency department with severe fatigue and confusion. Laboratory studies are done. Which laboratory value will require the most immediate action by the nurse? A: Serum calcium is 18 mg/dL. 21) Which action should the nurse take first when a patient complains of acute chest pain and dyspnea soon after insertion of a centrally inserted IV catheter? A: Auscultate the patient's breath sounds. 22) A patient with chronic anemia comes in with increased fatigue, and occasional palpitations at rest-what are some labs you would expect? A: Hemoglobin 8.6 23) Food choice for a patient with iron-deficiency anemia A: omelette and whole wheat toast 24) A patient with pernicious anemia has a clear understanding of the teaching when they make what statement A: I could choose nasal spray rather than B12 injections 25) Nursing action for a patient with severe hemolytic anemia A: alternate rest and activity 26) Which statement by a patient taking oral ferrous sulfate indicates a need for further teaching? A: I will call the provider if my stools turn black 27) What is important in caring for a patient with sickle cell anemia crisis? A: Evaluate the effectiveness of opioid analgesics 28) What statement made by a patient indicates a good understanding of prevention of a sickle cell crisis? A: Risk for a crisis will decrease with an annual influenza vaccine 29) A patient has scleral jaundice and hemolytic anemia-what labs does the nurse need to check? A: bilirubin level 30) A patient is receiving IV heparin and warfarin for DVT and is diagnosed with HIT the platelet levels drop to 110,000. What action is appropriate? A:Discontinue heparin infusion 31) The nurse is caring for a pt who is in neutropenic precautions. The nurse understands that the following are important steps to protect someone in neutropenic precautions (choose) A: Enforce strict handwashing with all caregiver visitors, eliminate raw or unwashed foods, prohibit visitors who have been sick recently 32) A patient with AML asks the nurse if chemotherapy is worth undergoing. What is the nurses response? A: SE of chemo are difficult, but AML frequently goes into remission 33) A patient with pneumonia and respiratory acidosis is lethargic. What is the first action? A: start pt on oxygen 34) Ratio of balanced pH of carbonic acid to bicarbonate A: 1:20 35) A patient with heart failure has dyspnea and crackles. What are some other symptoms of fluid volume excess? A: increase in BP 36) A patient with a serum potassium of 5.9 would have what patterns on ECG? (choose) A: Peaked T wave, wide flat P wave 37) A patient that just had a blood transfusion is having back pain and difficult breathing 15 min after completion what is action? A: disconnect transfusion and administer normal saline 38) A nurse coming onto shift has several patient with neutropenia which should she assess first? A: Patient with a fever of 100.8 39) A patient that had traumatic bleeding begin 90 min ago would have what expected lab? A: a normal hemoglobin 40) SAA symptoms of stage IV-B Hodgkins lymphoma (choose) A: fever, night sweats, weight loss; involvement of multiple lymph 41) Nursing action to prepare patient for administration of potassium SAA (choose) A: Ensure to dilute potassium appropriately, monitor IV for infiltration and phlebitis 42) Symptoms of fluid volume deficit A: weight loss and poor skin turgor 43) Sex linked disorders appear more often in -than in - [Show More]

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