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Transitions Quiz Questions with Answers 1. George the construction worker decided to leave the emergency room against medical advice. His nurse is an incredibly ethical Ameritech graduate. What did... the nurse do in this situation? A. His George’s clothes so that he couldn’t get dressed and walk away. B. Tied George to the bed so he wouldn’t leave. C. Informed George that he can return to the hospital if he changes his mind. D. Called George’s girlfriend to come and talk some sense into him. 2. George and his fellow construction workers were listening to the Trends class study for a quiz on ethics. What is NOT an ethical dilemma that the students are discussing? A. Parking B. Quality of life C. Passive euthanasia D. Abortion 3. The healthcare team responsible for deciding to move a critically ill patient out of the ICU so that a new patient may be admitted to the unit is faced with what principle of an ethical dilemma? A. Deontology B. Justice C. Veracity D. Autonomy 4. Where should a nurse go if they are facing a dilemma in patient care with no absolute right or wrong answer? A. The nurse’s religious leader B. The client’s insurance company review board C. The hospital ethics committee D. The hospital legal department 5. George the construction worker fell off a crane while working on the Ameritech roof. The students rushed to his aid, and decided not to move him in case he had sustained a neck injury. What ethical principle were the students following? A. Non-maleficence B. Autonomy C. Justice D. Fidelity 6. George was taken to the emergency room after falling off a crane in the Ameritech construction site. George’s buddies came to the emergency room to visit. A doctor told George’s buddies that George is HIV positive. What ethical principle did the doctor violate? A. Veracity B. Fidelity C. Beneficence D. Justice 7. What is the purpose of the nurse’s code of ethics? A. To guide the behavior of the professional nurse B. To differentiate between moral and immoral acts C. To identify acts that are legal for the nurse to perform D. To assist in clarifying the individual nurse’s personal values and growth 8. The ethical principle of autonomy is not applicable in which patient situation? A. The patient has been in a long-term care facility for 10 years. B. The patient does not speak or understand the English language. C. The patient has values that conflict with the caregiver’s values. D. The patient is unaware of who he is and where he is. 9. According to the American Hospital Association, what is the basic right of patients? A. Medical care regardless of ability to pay B. Information from nurses about diagnosis and prognosis C. Considerate and respectful care from all care providers D. Choice of diet to be eaten during hospitalization 10. George the construction worker tells the Ameritech students preparing for a quiz on ethics, “I find it easy to make the right decision. All life is sacred, and all decisions must be made with the intent to continue life.” What do we call the framework from which George approaches ethical reasoning? A. Deontological B. Confusional C. Teleological D. Situational 11. A nurse wants to avoid malpractice claims. What action can be taken to reduce the risk of a lawsuit? A. Reduce work status to part time B. Implicate fall precautions to an older adult patient C. Leave clutter on the floor in patient rooms D. Leave the patient’s bed in the highest position 12. Which one of the following actions is an example of an unintentional tort? A. Restraining a client who refuses care B. Taking photos of a client’s surgical wounds C. Leaving the siderails down and the client falls and is injured D. Talking about a client’s history of sexually transmitted diseases 13. When a nurse signs as a witness on an informed consent form, what is the nurse indicating regarding the client? A. Fully understands the details of the procedure B. Agrees with the procedure to be done C. Has voluntarily signed the consent form D. Has authorized the physician to continue with the treatment 14. Upon initial assessment of a 75-year-old patient, you identify bruises and scratches on the patient’s arms, legs, and trunk in various stages of healing. You notify your supervisor when you suspect the patient may be a victim of physical abuse. You are complying with which of the following state laws? A. Good Samaritan Law B. Mandatory Reporting Law C. Nurse Practice Act D. Nursing Standards of Practice 15. A registered nurse administers the wrong medication to a patient. She does not notify anyone of the error and documents that the correct medication was administered. The nurse was reported to the state board of nursing. Which of the following actions can the state board of nursing take against the nurse in this situation? A. Disciplinary action against the nurse’s license to practice B. Criminal misdemeanor charges against the nurse C. Medical malpractice lawsuit against the nurse D. Employment release from the institution 16. What is the legal source of rules and conduct for nurses? A. Agency policies and protocols B. Constitution of the United States C. American Nurses Association D. Nurse Practice Acts 17. A nurse is educating a student nurse on patient confidentiality. Teaching is effective when the nurse aid states that confidentiality will be maintained by a nurse who believes in which ethical principle? A. Veracity B. Beneficence C. Justice D. Fidelity 18. The case of a nurse accused of unethical nursing conduct will be heard by the state board of nursing. This is an example of what type of law? A. Civil law B. Criminal law C. Common law D. Administrative law 19. Which statement reflects an understanding of malpractice? A. “The elements of duty, breach of duty, and patient injury caused by the breach must be present for a malpractice claim.” B. “Negligent nursing care and failure to follow standards must be present for a malpractice claim.” C. Failure to report, defamation, and discrimination must be present for a malpractice claim.” D. “Error in judgement and invasion of privacy must be present for a malpractice claim.” 20. The nurse is reviewing I-SBAR-R with a coworker at the end of a shift. Which statement indicates that they are discussing the Situation component? A. The nurse states an opinion on what is happening with a patient. B. The oncoming nurse acknowledges the information that is being received. C. The nurse states the patients name using two identifiers. D. The nurse states that the patient was hospitalized for a broken tibia and that surgery is scheduled for later today. 21. The nurse manager is updating unit staff on findings by The Joint Commission. Which of the following statements shows an understanding of the primary cause of untoward events in the hospital setting? A. “Ineffective reporting of the untoward event.” B. “Unclear chain of communication for reporting.” C. “Lack of consistent supervision of nursing staff.” D. “Unclear, ineffective communication.” 22. Dr. Jones asks you to give a medication to one of his patients, and you know the patient is allergic to it. When you point this out, Dr. Jones says, “Give the medication or I’ll report this to your supervisor.” What is the best assertive response? A. Walk away and ignore him B. Say, “I won’t give the medication, and I don’t care who you talk to about it.” C. Say, “Perhaps you and I could talk this over with my supervisor together.” D. Agree to give the medication and hope no one finds out. 23. What is the primary role of The Joint Commission (TJC)? A. Granting magnet status to excellent hospitals. B. Ensuring medical facility meet patient safety guidelines. C. Lobbying congress on behalf of Medicare/Medicaid patients. D. Inspecting hospitals for compliance of infection control standards. 24. The nurse is receiving a phone order from a healthcare provider. How will the nurse make sure that the provider’s ordered is received without error? A. Ask the nurse in charge to come to the phone to take the order. B. Write the order without using any unclear or unapproved abbreviations. C. Repeat the order, write the order verbatim, and read it back to the provider. D. Advise the healthcare provider that the order must be written on the chart within the next hours. 25. How is assertive behavior described? A. Apologetic B. Coercive C. Direct D. Self-denying 26. A nurse is serving on a continuous quality improvement (CQI) committee that has been assigned to develop a program to reduce the number of medication administration errors following a sentinel event at the facility. Which of the following strategies should the committee plan to initiate first? A. Review the events leading up to each medication administration error. B. Provide an inservice on medication administration to all the nurses. C. Require staff nurses to demonstrate competency by passing a medication administration examination. D. Develop a quality improvement program for nurses involved in medication administration errors. 27. A nurse is providing an in-service program about preventing medication errors when transcribing a medication. The nurse is using a dosage example of two-tenths of a milligram. Which of the following examples should the nurse use to show appropriate transcription of this dosage? A. 2 mg B. 0.2 mg C. 0.20 mg D. 2.0 mg 28. The nurse is reviewing categories for improving client safety. Which categories should the nurse review? Select all that apply. A. Medication management B. Surgery on wrong body part C. Prevention of hospital-related infections D. Tubing misconnections E. Facilitating information transfer and clear communication 29. The nursing student is studying federal safety legislation. Which of the following is the main goal of the Patient Safety and Quality Improvement Act? A. Improving client safety by encouraging voluntary and confidential reporting of adverse events. B. Set up a plan of network safety databases to conduct research and development. C. Encourage healthcare providers to report errors with tiered retribution based on severity. D. Force communication about incidence that link workplace stress to healthcare errors. 30. The nursing student is studying about root cause analysis (RCA). Which of the following is a critical element in error reporting? A. Errors are documented as person focused. B. Individuals are encouraged to report near misses. C. Non-punitive action when errors are reported. D. Communication is linked to increased errors. 31. The new graduate nurse is working to create a culture of safety on the unit. What actions will exemplify a culture of safety. Select all that apply. A. Using the I-SBARR when collaborating with a provider. B. Refusing to be interrupted during medication administration. C. Look at systems and process to identify areas that need to be changed. D. Using universal protocol 3 steps prior to surgeries and procedures. E. Overriding the smart IV pump to save time. F. Adopt a work around when the system is not functioning to save time. 32. A nurse is interesting in moving into a management position. Which action would assist with accomplishing this? A. Use of expert power B. Use of coercive power C. Use of reward power D. Use of legitimate power 33. Which of the following statements by the nurse reflect transformational leaders? Select all that apply. A. Lifelong learners B. Slow to change C. Hesitant to follow D. Value-driven visionaries E. Courageous change agents 34. A nurse is respected by peers for clinical skills and effective interpersonal relationships. The nurse has studied diabetic patient educational needs and consults with several units. What type of power does this nurse possess? A. Informational B. Expert C. Legitimate D. Reward 35. The nurse manager is giving a presentation of the disadvantages of democratic leadership in group functioning. Which statement shows an understanding of this type of leadership? A. “It is frustrating to the leader because they cannot control all the decisions of the group.” B. “Discourages participation from quieter members of the group.” C. “Requires more time and effort to make decisions and accomplish goals.” D. “Increases the possibility of “scapegoating” or argumentative behavior.” 36. Which of the following actions is consistent with a nurse leader? A. A nurse who performs chart audits on her staff. B. A nurse who encourages staff to give excellent patient care. C. A nurse who gives pain medication to an assigned patient. D. A nurse who writes yearly staff evaluations. 37. Which of the following actions by the nurse manager would indicate an autocratic management style? A. Exerts little control over staff. B. Makes most of the decisions without input from the staff members. C. Emphasizes effective group functioning. D. Allows staff members to make most of the decisions. 38. A charge nurse explains to a student: “I tend to act differently depending on which nurses are working that particular shift. Some nurses need more direction from me than others.” What type of leadership style best describes this charge nurse’s approach? A. Transformational B. Situational C. Transactional D. Interactional 39. The nurse manager needs to let a nurse know that he will be put on probation if he continues to be tardy to work. Which type of power is the nurse manager using? A. Reward power B. Referent power C. Legitimate power D. Coercive power 40. Which of the following describes reward power used by the nurse manager? Select all that apply. A. A nurse manager who is perceived as an expert due to specialized knowledge. B. A nurse manager who is well liked by the majority of staff. C. A nurse manager who uses fear of consequences to motivate staff. D. A nurse manager who uses salary increases to motivate staff. E. A nurse manager who has information that others need to perform their job. 41. A nurse manager needs to purchase new thermometers for the nursing unit. What technique would demonstrate a laissez-faire style of leadership? A. Having the nurses on the day shift order any thermometers they want. B. Purchasing the brand that the nurse manager thinks is the best thermometer. C. Asking the nurses during staff meeting what they prefer in a thermometer. D. Having the nurses on the unit try several types and vote on their favorite. 42. As the interview is drawing to a close, the interviewer asks the applicant, “What questions could I answer for you?” Which of the following questions would it be most advisable to ask to create a favorable impression? A. “After completing orientation, how much and when will the first pay raise be given?” B. “Will you provide tuition reimbursement for all courses to obtain my terminal degree?” C. “What is the orientation process and what is the length of orientation?” D. “What will happen if I am unable to meet the outcomes for the competency-based orientation?” 43. During a job interview, the interviewee is asked, “What do you believe your weaknesses to be?” What is the best reply? A. “I’m looking forward to strengthening my ability to plan care for a group of patients.” B. “I’ve never thought about having any weaknesses.” C. “My biggest problem is getting to work on time.” D. “My instructors told me I was disorganized.” 44. Which statement by the graduate nurse indicates understanding of the importance of a cover letter? A. “It is optional.” B. “It is necessary only if your resume needs further explanation.” C. “It should recapitulate all of the important points of your resume.” D. “It should introduce you to the reader.” 45. Which of the following actions by the graduate nurse would be advised during an interview campaign?” A. For more exposure, post your resume on the public internet. B. Research the prospective employer and evaluate their mission statement. C. Plan 3-4 interviews in a day to save time. D. Make note cards with details to take with you to use during the interview. 46. A student in the last semester of nursing school has established a goal of making a successful role transition to graduate nurse. Which statement by the student indicates his/her understanding of how to achieve this goal during the capstone experience? A. “I will observe staff nurses as they perform nursing procedures to refine technique.” B. “I will evaluate my progress every 6 months to allow time for growth.” C. “I should care for increased numbers of patients to enhance work organization skills.” D. “I should seek increasingly close guidance from the nursing instructor to reduce errors.” 47. A nurse manager is giving a presentation at a local community college. The nurse manager understands the job expectations of a new graduate when making which of the following statements? A. "A graduate nurse should be able to perform as independently as was demonstrated the last semester of nursing." B. "A graduate nurse should be able to function competently as a registered nurse at the entry level." C. "A graduate nurse should be able to function in the role that was described in the curriculum for the school of nursing." D. "A graduate nurse should be able to be able to function independently with ability to make clinical nursing judgments." 48. The interviewer says, “We are looking for a bright, interested, empathetic, hard-working person for this position in oncology nursing. Do you fit this bill?” The new graduate nurse is interested, carried a straight C average and has worked full time while going to school. Assuming the following statements are true, what would be the best answer?” A. “I’m interested. My parents always told me I was bright. I work as hard as the next person. I’ve learned not to give too involved with patients.” B. “I worked full time while going to school, so my grades suffered. I’ve had my share of life disappointments, so I can sympathize with cancer patients. I will work hard, but have to make time for my family too.” C. “My previous employer rated my work as excellent. It was there that I became interested in helping support oncology patients as they cope with their illness. I chose to do an independent study on emotional reactions to the diagnosis of cancer during my capstone.” D. I’m definitely interested in oncology, and I think I’m a hard worker. My instructor said I was developing empathy. My grade point average of C doesn’t reflect my real ability.” 49. What action would help the graduate nurse when seeking out employment? Select all that apply. A. Determine the length of orientation. B. Find out what type of nursing care is delivered. C. Ask to speak to nurses who work on the unit. D. Plan out interviews. E. Wait until the interview day to gather all of the information. 50. Which statement by the nursing student indicates an understanding of the purpose in setting a career goal? A. “To keep you focused on your current job.” B. “To help you define the direction of your career.” C. “To guarantee you will achieve your goal.” D. “To impress those part of the interview process.” 51. What is expected of the new graduate across healthcare agencies? Select all that apply. A. To work effectively with assistive personnel, delegating and supervising nursing care tasks in an appropriate manner. B. Use communication skills effectively with clients and coworkers. C. Possess theoretic background for safe client care and for decision making. D. Recognize own abilities and limitations. E. Using the nursing process in a systematic way. F. Possess all knowledge regarding pathophysiology of all disease processes. 52. The senior nursing student is setting career goals. What should the student do first? A. A thorough self-assessment. B. Look five years ahead. C. Plan specific steps to the goal. D. Evaluate the career options. 53. A nurse manager is giving a presentation at a local community college. The nurse manager understands the job expectations of a new graduate when making which of the following statements? A. “A graduate nurse should be able to function in the role that was described in the curriculum for the school of nursing.” B. “A graduate nurse should be able to function independently with ability to make clinical nursing judgements and set priorities and handle all emergencies during all shifts.” C. “A graduate nurse should be able to function competently as an advanced beginner as a registered nurse at the entry level.” D. “A graduate nurse should be able to perform as independently as was demonstrated the beginning of the last nursing semester of nursing. 54. The new nurse would like to pursue a career in the Intensive Care Unit (ICU). What goal might be appropriate for this career? A. Credentialing as a Certified Critical Care Nurse (CCRN). B. Obtain employment at only magnet status facilities. C. Become a Family Nurse Practitioner (FNP). D. Complain to the clinical placement team regarding their assignment in a M/S unit. 55. The student nurse is preparing a resume. What elements would he/she include? A. Experience and education. B. Hobbies and interests. C. Marital status D. Nursing class grade point average. 56. The nursing student is preparing an application for employment. What would be the best reference for the student to include? Select all that apply. A. A recent clinical instructor B. Their preceptor C. A student mentor D. The school’s student support team member E. A previous employer 57. What does the “scope of nursing practice” refer to? A. Acts that permit some overlap between nursing and medicine. B. The specific duty the nurse owes to a patient. C. Those activities for which a nurse can be held liable for malpractice. D. The activities legally permissible for a nurse to perform in a particular state. 58. What is the legal source of rules of conduct for nurses? A. Agency policies and protocols B. Constitution of the United States C. Nurse Practice Acts D. American Nurses Association 59. What aspects define nursing as a profession? Select all that apply. A. Nurses work around the clock. B. Nurses have developed a code of ethics. C. Nurses are trusted by the public. D. Nurses possess a specialized body of knowledge. E. Nurses serve the public. 60. According to the Utah Nurse Practice Act Rule, how many hours must a licensed nurse practice without an additional requirement of contact hours to renew their license? A. 40/week B. 400 C. 1,000 D. 200 61. What are the key messages that structure the discussion and recommendations presented in the Robert Wood Johnson Institute of Medicine Report? Select all that apply. A. Nurses should practice to the full extent of their education and training. B. Nurses should achieve higher levels of education and training through an improved education system that promotes seamless academic progression. C. Nurses should be full partners with physicians and other health care professionals in redesigning healthcare in the U.S. D. Nurses should work to become transformation leaders through continuing education courses. E. Effective workforce planning and policy making require better data collection and an improved information infrastructure. 62. The soon to graduate nurse would like information about what to expect on the NCLEX-RN exam and how to apply to take the exam. Where would the student find information? A. NCSBN website B. A nursing unit manager C. RWJ IOM report D. State Board of Nursing 63. What is a correct statement regarding a nurse who acts beyond the scope of practice? A. May be disciplined by the state board of nursing. B. Demonstrates what a good nurse she or he can be. C. May make other nurses angry because of the increased expectations created. D. Provides enriched services to patients who would not otherwise receive them. 64. A nurse who commits an infraction of the Nurse Practice Act may be subject to discipline by what group? A. The state board of nursing B. The National League for Nursing C. A court of law D. The local chapter of the state nurse’s association 65. Which of the following is the most frequent reason for revocation or suspension of a nurse’s license? A. Mental impairment B. Criminal acts C. Fraud D. Alcohol or drug abuse 66. What is the purpose of the Robert Wood Johnson Institute of Medicine Report? A. To give physicians an opportunity to have input in the nursing profession. B. To force all nurses to obtain a bachelorette in nursing. C. To help congress pass laws and make changes in healthcare. D. To make recommendations for the nursing profession to transform healthcare. 67. After a nursing student has graduated from their program, what is the timeframe the applicant has to take and pass the NCLEX-RN? A. 1 year B. 90 days C. Indefinite D. 5 years 68. How does the Utah Nurse Practice Act Rule define a comprehensive nursing assessment? A. Conducting extensive initial and ongoing date collection. B. Assessing the patient’s care plan. C. Appraisal of a patient’s status and the situation at hand. D. Verification and evaluation of prescribed orders. 69. How does legislation define a profession? A. Someone who has a job. B. A person who strives for explanation. C. A person who has passed the NCLEX. D. Completion of courses in specialized intellectual instruction. 70. Why should nurses be concerned with the image of nursing? A. Nurses could be viewed as sex symbols. B. The images can influence the attitudes of the public. C. Because nursing is not just a profession for women. D. Because nursing will act more professional. 71. Which organization developed the most definitive statement on the competencies needed by the newly licensed RN? A. American Association of Colleges of Nursing (AAEN) B. National Counsel of State Boards of Nursing (NCSBN) C. Intermountain Healthcare (IHC D. Magnet Counsel for Nurses (MCN) 72. Where does the definition of nursing “One that would put the client in the best condition for nature to act upon him” come from? A. Florence Nightingale B. American Nursing Association C. NCSBN D. Google 73. What distinguishes nursing from medicine? A. Nurses use a holistic perspective of patient care. B. Nurses are concerned with treating the disease. C. Nursing is a profession with more women than men. D. Nurses care more than doctors. 74. What is a continuing education unit (CEU)? A. Nonacademic credit offerings. B. General education credits needed to achieve a BSN. C. Additional college credits to advance your career. D. Education required to keep your nursing license. 75. If the position paper from the ANA in 1965 had been adopted, which of the following would be true? A. Nurse training would only be completed in the hospital. B. There would be no nursing assistants. C. All RNs would have a BSN. D. All RNs would have an ASN. 76. What is the role of the NCSBN? A. To make getting a license difficult. B. Discipline nurses who breach the Nurses Code of Conduct. C. To prepare the NCLEX exam. D. To outline the laws related to nursing practice. 77. Which task could a staff nurse delegate to a certified nursing assistant (CNA)? A. Reporting on the color of nasogastric (NG) drainage B. Checking a patient’s response to pain medication C. Collecting a routine urine sample D. Making rounds with a physician 78. After receiving report on 4 patients, the RN may delegate which client’s needs to an assistive personnel? A. Reinforcing teaching with a client who is learning to walk using a quad cane B. Reapplying a condom catheter for a client who has urinary incontinence C. Feeding a client who was admitted 24 hours ago with aspiration pneumonia D. Applying a sterile dressing to a pressure ulcer 79. The nurse has several tasks to complete. Which task would the nurse NOT delegate to a certified nursing assistant? A. Sitting at the bedside of a confused patient to keep them from wandering B. Discussing the importance of deep breathing to a pre-operative patient C. Accompanying a patient being discharged by wheelchair to the front door D. Bathing an unconscious patient 80. The nurse understands that delegation and supervision are two concepts that go hand-in-hand. Which is the best example of the concept of supervision? A. Assigning a urinary catheterization and collection of sterile culture to an LPN B. Scheduling the LPN to administer medications on the unit for the afternoon C. Following up with a CNA on the assigned task of ambulation and feeding of two patients D. Assigning the nursing care for a group of five patients to an RN 81. Which situation could lead to performance inadequacy? A. The person to whom the task was assigned had appropriate educational qualifications to complete the task. B. The person who delegated the task confirmed the recipient’s ability to perform the task. C. The task was assigned to a person capable of carrying out the assignment. D. The person to whom the task was assigned did not understand what the task involved. 82. Which of the following represents appropriate feedback for an assignment to an LPN? A. “Have you completed the urinary catheterization and care of the new patient?” B. “I know you are busy; however, you need to get caught up with your pain medications.” C. “Did you understand the assignment that you received in the staff report?” D. “The patient in room 430 looks much better, and you did a good job of making her comfortable.” 83. The nurse on the unit is determining which activities may be delegated to assistive personnel. Assuming that the nurse’s assistant is competent, which one of the following activities may be safely delegated by the registered nurse? A. Vital signs on a stable client B. An admission history on a new client C. Administration of medications prepared by the nurse D. Initial transfer of a postoperative client 84. Which of the following actions best reflects maintaining accountability for the nursing process? A. Reassessing a client’s BP when the reported value is higher than usual B. Assisting a team member in providing a client with a complete bed bath C. Asking the CNA to take vital signs on a patient who just received pain medication D. Asking a client’s daughter to bring her father’s non-skid slippers to the hospital 85. Which does not reflect one of the “five rights” of delegation? A. Right communication B. Right route C. Right task D. Right person 86. An experienced nurse overhears a new graduate giving instructions to an unlicensed nursing assistant. What statement by the new graduate would cause the experienced nurse to be concerned? A. “Thank you for helping me turn my unconscious patient.” B. “Do not take the patient’s blood pressure on the same side as her IV line.” C. “Please document the amount of urine emptied from the foley.” D. “Let me know if any of my patients have a fever.” 87. Following an earthquake, patients are triaged by emergency medical personnel and are transported to the hospital. Which of these patients will the nurse need to assess first? A. A patient with a blue tag B. A patient with a red tag C. A patient with a green tag D. A patient with a yellow tag 88. A nurse is educating community members about how to prepare for a disaster. Which of the following supplies should the nurse instruct the clients to include in a disaster preparedness kid? Select all that apply. A. Clean clothing B. Prescription medications C. Three quarts of water per person D. Personal identification E. Antibiotics F. 3 boxes of vodka 89. A nurse is caring for a client involved in a suspected bioterrorism event involving exposure to cutaneous anthrax. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse anticipate? A. Flu like symptoms B. Bloody diarrhea C. Respiratory distress D. Skin lesions with pruritus 90. A nurse is reviewing treatment protocols for clients exposed to bioterrorism agents. For which of the following agents should the nurse plan to administer a vaccine following exposure? A. Botulism B. Plague C. Anthrax D. Smallpox 91. A nurse to preparing to care for a client who has suspected exposure to plague as a result of bioterrorism. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take first? A. Decontaminate the client B. Initiate contact precautions C. Prepare for drainage of lesions D. Notify the Center for Disease Control (CDC) 92. A nurse is caring for a client following exposure to inhalational anthrax due to bioterrorism. Which of the following medications should the nurse expect as a common medication to treat anthrax? Select all that apply. A. Cefotaxime B. Ciprofloxacin C. Doxycycline D. Penicillin G E. Amoxicillin 93. A nurse is working with an interdisciplinary disaster committee to develop a community-wide emergency response plan in the event of a nonbiological or chemical incident. The nurse should include which of the following agencies to be notified immediately after calling 911? A. Office of Emergency Management (OEM) B. Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) C. American Red Cross (ARC) D. U.S. Department of Homeland security (DHS) 94. A nurse is among the first responders to a mass-causality incident and does not know what type of personal protective equipment (PPE) is needed. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? A. Wait until the type of equipment needed is known B. Decontaminate victims before intervening C. Use a dosimeter to measure the level of radiation in the area before intervening D. Choose the highest level of protection equipment available 95. A nurse is performing triage for a group of clients following a mass casualty incident (MCI). Which of the following client should the nurse plan to care for first? A. A client who has a close upper extremity fracture B. A client who has agonal respirations C. A client experiencing a tension pneumothorax D. A client who has full-thickness burns over 80% of his body 96. A nurse is discussing emergency response with a newly licensed nurse. The nurse should identify which of the following as a triage officer during the time of a disaster? A. Members of the Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) B. Representatives of the American Red Cross C. Responding law enforcement officers D. Nurses and other emergency medical personnel 97. A nurse is caring for a client who suspects recent exposure to inhalation anthrax. Which of the following findings indicate possible exposure? A. Respiratory failure B. Flu-like symptoms C. Vesicles on the skin D. Sloughing of skin 98. A charge nurse is discussing staff nurses’ responsibilities in preplanning for response to a disaster. Which of the following responsibilities should the nurse include in the discussion? A. Identify potential community disasters. B. Link victims with support agencies to help with food, clothing, shelter, and counseling needs. C. Evaluate the impact of a disaster on the community. D. Assess survivors of a disaster for levels of psychological stress. 99. A nurse is teaching a group of newly hired nurses about the requirements for disaster planning. Which of the following statements by one of the newly hired nurses indicates an understanding of the teaching? A. “A physician must triage victims of a disaster in the emergency department.” B. “Disaster drills should be held on a regular basis.” C. “A staff nurse can function as the incident commander.” D. “An actual disaster cannot take the place of a disaster drill.” 100. A nurse is triaging clients injured during a tornado. The nurse assesses a client who has an open fracture of his arm. Which of the following tags would the nurse place on the client? A. Have the client’s wife drive him to the hospital B. Perform a rapid head-to-toe assessment C. Place a red tag on the client’s upper body D. Place a yellow tag on the client’s upper body 101.What is a correct statement regarding a nurse who acts beyond the scope of practice? A. Demonstrates what a good nurse she or he can be B. Provides enriched services to patients who would not otherwise receive them C. May make other nurses angry because of the increased expectations created D. May be disciplined by the board of nursing 102. In a malpractice suit, how may a breach of duty be established? A. Liability testimony of physician B. Testimony from state board of nurses C. Expert testimony D. Testimony of coworkers 103. What is the best legal safeguard for a nurse? A. Competent practice B. A legal contract C. A valid license D. Following management policies 104. What would be the most effective way for a nurse to validate “informed consent?” A. Check the chart for completed and signed consent form B. Determine from the physician what was discussed with the patient C. Ask the family whether the patient understands the procedure D. Ask the patient what he understands regarding the procedure 105. A nurse who commits an infarction of the Nurse Practice Act may be subject to discipline by which group? A. A court of law B. The state board of nursing C. The local chapter of the state nurses’ association D. The National League for Nursing 106. What does the “scope of nursing practice refer to?” A. Acts that permit some to overlap between nursing and medicine B. The activities legally permissible for a nurse to perform in a particular state C. The specific duty the nurse owes to a patient D. Those activities for which a nurse can be held liable for malpractice 107. A nurse is being sued for assault and battery. What does this mean? A. The nurse, without consent, touched the patient in an offensive, insulting, or injurious way. B. The nurse threatened to put the patient in restraints if he did not stay in bed. C. The nurse told the patient he could not leave until his bill was paid. D. The nurse failed to perform an act expected of a reasonable nurse. 108. What is the best definition of malpractice? A. A criminal act against society B. Doing something a reasonable person or nurse would not do C. An intentional professional act of negligence D. A professional act or failure to act that leads to injury of a patient 109. A nurse tells a patient, “If you don’t stop getting out of that chair, I’m going to put some restraints on you.” What may this nurse be accused of? A. Assault B. Defamation C. Invasion of Privacy D. Malpractice In a legal suit, what element is necessary to prove a tort has been committed? A. Intent B. Assault C. Injury D. Malpractice 110. An older adult woman of Chinese ancestry refused to eat at the nursing home, stating, “I’m just not hungry.” What factors should the staff access for this problem? A. The woman does not like to eat with other residents of the home. B. The woman is using this as a means of going home. C. The food may not be culturally appropriate D. The food served may violate religious beliefs. 111. The nurse is caring for a patient from Taiwan who constantly requests pain medication. What should the nurse consider when assessing the patient’s pain? A. Most people react to pain in the same way. B. Pain in adults is less intense than pain in children. C. The patient is a constant complainer. D. Pain is what the patient says it is. 112. A nurse is gathering data on a patient of a different culture. Which action can the nurse take to enhance communication while gathering cultural data? A. Ignore the patient’s culture and focus on the reason for the hospital admission. B. Use hand gestures to get points across to a patient with poor English. C. Use closed-ended questions to gather information. D. Determine the patient’s fluency in English. 113. When caring for a patient who is Native American, the best initial action by the nurse is to A. Avoid all eye contact with the patient B. Observe the patient’s use of eye contact C. Look directly at the patient when interacting D. Ask the family about the patient’s cultural beliefs. 114. When performing a cultural assessment with a patient of a different culture, the nurse’s first action should be to A. Wait until a cultural healer is available to help with the assessment. B. Obtain a list of any cultural remedies that the patient currently uses. C. Ask the patient about any affiliation with a particular cultural group. D. Tell the patient what the nurse already knows about the patient’s culture. 115. A nurse is developing an education program for a community group about dietary intake of vitamins and minerals in the diet. The nurse should include which of the following foods as sources of vitamin C? Select all that apply. A. Green pepper B. Orange C. Cabbage D. Strawberries E. Milk 116. A community health nurse is reviewing the levels of disease prevention. Which of the following activities is an example of tertiary prevention? A. Providing treatments for clients who have chronic obstructive pulmonary disease B. Performing screening for sexually transmitted infections C. Administering influenza immunizations at a local health fair D. Testing new nurses for exposure to tuberculosis 117. A nurse is teaching a class about preventative care to clients who are at risk for acquiring viral hepatitis. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the presentation? A. Avoid foods prepared with tap water B. Avoid eating meat C. Avoid hand washing after eating D. Avoid covering sores with bandages 118. An occupational health nurse in the clinic of an industrial plant is developing a guidebook for clinic workers. Which of the following actions should the nurse include as a secondary prevention strategy? A. Help plant workers to identify signs of carpal tunnel syndrome. B. Collaborate with physical therapists to develop programs for injured employees to return to work. C. Set up an influenza immunization campaign. D. Teach factory workers about proper lifting techniques. 119. A nurse in a community health center is assessing the results of a tuberculin skin test she performed for a client. Which of the following results indicates exposure to and a possible infection with tuberculosis (TB)? A. 15mm induration B. 10mm wheal C. 5mm duration D. 4mm erythema [Show More]

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