NURS 612 Final Exam Questions and Answers (100% correct answers)

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1. Assessing orientation to person, place, and time helps determine State of consciousness 2. under most conditions, adult patients should be able to repeat a series of numbers. five to eight... 3. Recent memory may be tested by showing the patient four items and asking him or her to list the items about 10 minutes later 4. Which condition is considered progressive rather than reversible? Dementia 5. An older adult is administered the Set Test and scores a 14. The nurse interprets this score as indicative of dementia 6. Which of the following is usually related to structural diseases of the brain? Dementia 7. A state of impaired cognition, consciousness, mood and behavioral dysfunction of acute onset refers to Delirium 8. The mini-mental state examination should be administered for a patient who gets lost in her or his neighborhood 9. The mini-mental state examination may be used to estimate cognitive changes quantitatively 10. While interviewing a 70-year-old female clinic patient, she tells you that she takes ginkgo biloba and St John's wort. You make a short note to check for results of the Mini-mental state examination 11. For purpose of examination and communication of physical findings, the breast is divided into four quadrants plus a tail 12. When conducting a clinical breast examination, the examiner should Inspect both breasts simultaneously 13. Which breast change is typical after menopause? thickening of the inframammary ridge 14. in a woman complaining of a breast lump, it is most important to ask about its relationship to menses 15. A 50 year old woman presents as a new patient. which finding in her personal and social history would increase her risk profile for developing breast cancer? nulliparity 16. To begin the clinical breast examination for a man, ask him to sit with his arms hanging at his sides. 17. Inspection of the breasts usually begins with the patient in which position? Sitting 18. Which finding, found on inspection, is related to fibrotic tissue changes that occur with breast carcinoma? Skin dimpling or retraction 19. Venous patterns on breasts are suggestive of pathology when they are unilateral 20. In a patient with breast cancer, pau d'orange skin is often first evident on or around the nipple 21. Recent unilateral inversion of a previously everted nipple suggests cancer 22. You are conducting a clinical breast exam for a 30 year old patient. Her breasts are symmetrical with bilateral, multiple tender masses that are freely moveable with well-defined borders. You recognize that these symptoms and assessment findings are consistent with fibrocystic changes 23. When palpating breast tissue, the examiner should use the at each site. finger pads 24. The largest amount of glandular breast tissue lies in the upper outer quadrant 25. The tail of spence extends into the axillae 26. When examining axillary lymph nodes, the patient's arm is flexed at the elbow 27. Lymphatic flow of the breast primarily drains radially 28. The greatest concern for breast cancer is when you palpate nodes supraclavicular 29. You are performing a clinical breast examination for a 55-year-old woman. While palpating the supraclavicular area, you suspect that you felt a node. To improve your hooked technique, you should ask the patient to turn her head toward that side 30. What structures are located at the 5 and 7 o'clock positions of the vaginal orifice and open onto the sides of the vesibule in the groove between the labia minora and the hymen? Bartholin glands 31. Which factor is associated with an increased risk of cervical cancer? Early parity 32. The risk of ovarian cancer is increased by a history of nulliparity 33. During digital examination of the vagina, the cervix is noted to be positioned posteriorly. Upon bimanual examination of this woman, you would expect to palpate a(n) uterus. Anteverted 34. The presence of cervical motion tenderness may indicate pelvic inflammatory disease 35. During a routine vaginal examination, you insert the speculum and visualize the cervix. the cervix projection into the vaginal vault is approximately 5 cm. Upon bimanual examination, you would expect to find the uterus 36. Small, pale yellow, raised, rounded areas are visualized on the surface of the cervix. You should chart this as nabothian cysts 37. The assessment of which structure is not part of the bimanual examination? Bladder 38. When a woman is not sexually active, cervical cancer screening should begin by age 21 years 39. During a pelvic examination for a postmenopausal woman, you would expect to assess absence of vaginal wall rugation 40. Which of the following is a risk factor for testicular cancer? cryptorchidism 41. the most common cancer in young men age 15-30 years is testicular 42. Self-examination of the male genitalia should be performed while bathing 43. Mr. L has an unusually thick scrotum with edema and pitting. He has a history of cardiac problems. The appearance of his scrotum is more likely a(n) indication of general fluid retention 44. An enlarged, painless testicle in an adolescent or adult may indicate a tumor 45. You palpate a soft, slightly tender mass in the right scrotum of a man. You attempt to reduce the size of the mass, and there is no change in the mass size. Your next assessment maneuver is to transilluminate the mass 46. An adolescent male is being seen for acute onset of left testicular pain. The pain started 3 hours ago. He complains of nausea and denies dysuria and fever. Your prioritized assessment should be to establish absent cremasteric reflex 47. A 12 year old boy says that his left scrotum has a soft swollen mass. The scrotum is not painful upon palpation. the left inguinal canal is without masses. The mass does transilluminate with a penlight. This collection of symptoms is consistent with hydrocele 48. A cremateric reflex should result in testicle and scrotal rise on the stroked side 49. Which technique is appropriate to detect an inguinal hernia? Move your finger upward along the vas deferens 50. Which type of hernia lies within the inguinal canal? indirect 51. What structure of the male genitalia travels through the inguinal canal and unites with the seminal vesicle to form the ejaculatory duct? vas deferens 52. A normal vas deferens should feel smooth 53. An adolescent male is being seen for acute onset of left testicular pain. The pain started 3 hours ago. He complains of nausea and denies dysuria and fever. Your prioritized assessment should be to establish absent cremasteric reflex 54. The most emergent cause of testicular pain in a young male is testicular torsion 55. The most common type of hernia occurring in young males is indirect inguinal 56. Percussion of the abdomen begins with establishing overall dullness and tympany in all quadrants 57. Before performing an abdominal examination, the examiner should have the patient empty his or her bladder 58. When examining a patient with tense abdominal musculature, a helpful technique is to have the patient flex his or her knees 59. After thorough inspection of the abdomen, the next assessment step is to auscultate 60. How long do you auscultate for bowel sounds? 5 minutes 61. To assess for liver enlargement in an obese person, you should auscultate using the scratch technique 62. Percussion at the right midclavicular line, below the umbilicus, and continuing upward is the correct technique for locating the lower liver border 63. When palpating the abdomen, you should note whether the liver is enlarged in the right upper quadrant 64. An examiner can recognize a friction rub in the liver by a sound that is high pitched and associated with respirations 65. CVA tenderness might be a sign of pyelonephritis 66. The autonomic nervous system coordinates which of the following? internal organs of the body 67. The major function of the sympathetic nervous system is to orchestrate the stress response 68. The parasympathetic nervous system maintains the day-to-day function of digestion 69. The motor cortex of the brain is in the frontal lobe 70. The thalamus is the major integration center for perception of pain 71. Which area of the brain is responsible for perceiving sounds and for determining their source? temporal lobe 72. Nerves that arise from the brain rather than the spinal cord are called cranial 73. If a patient cannot shrug shoulders against resistance, which cranial nerve requires further evaluation? CN XI spinal accessory 74. Normal changes of the aging brain include diminished perception of touch 75. The area of body surface innervated by a particular spinal nerve is called a dermatome 76. A neurologic past medical history should include data about circulatory problems 77. When assessing superficial pain, touch, vibration, and position perception, you are testing sensory function 78. You are examining a patient in the emergency department who has recently sustained head trauma. To initially assess this patient's neurologic status, you would test the six cardinal points of gaze 79. you are initially evaluating the equilibrium of Ms. Q. You ask her to stand with her feet together and arms at her sides. She loses her balance. Ms. Q has a positive Romberg sign 80. The finger to nose test allows assessment of coordination and fine motor function 81. You are performing a two-point discrimination test as part of a well physical examination. The area with the ability to discern two points in the shortest distance is the fingertips 82. As Mr. B enters the room, you observe that his gait is wide based and he staggers from side to side while swaying his trunk. You would document Mr. B's patterns as cerebellar ataxia 83. Deep pressure tests are used mostly for patients who are experiencing absent superficial pain sensation 84. To assess a cremasteric reflex, the examiner strokes inner thigh and observes whether the testicle and scrotum rise on the stroked side 85. You have asked a patient to close his eyes and identify an object placed in his hand. You are evaluating stereognosis 86. The ability to recognize a number traced on the skin is called graphesthesia 87. To assess spinal levels L2 L3 L4 which deep tendon reflex should be tested patellar 88. It is especially important to test for ankle clonus if deep tendon reflexes are hyperactive 89. Which sign is associated with meningitis and intracranial hemorrhage? Nuchal rigidity 90. When assessing a 17 year old patient for nuchal rigidity, you gently raise his head off the examination table. He involuntarily flexes his hips and knees. To confirm your suspicions associated with this positive test result, you would also perform a test for the sign. Kernig 91. On a sclae of 0-4+ which deep tendon reflex score is appropriate for a finding of clonus in a patient? 4+ 92. Cranial nerve XII may be assess in an infant by observing the infant suck and swallow 93. A positive Babinski sign is normal until what age? 16-24 months 94. Which of the following is a concern rather than an expected finding, in older adults? Bilateral pillrolling of the fingers 95. Ipsilateral Horner syndrome indicates a cerebrovascular accident (CVA) occurring in the posterior inferior cerebellar artery 96. An acute polyneuropathy the commonly follows a nonspecific infection occurring 10-14 days earlier and that primarily affects the motor and autonomic peripheral nerves in an ascending pattern is Guillain-Barre syndrome 97. The immune system attacks the synaptic junction between the nerve and muscle fibers blocking acetylcholine receptor sites it myasthenia gravis 98. Diabetic peripheral neuropathy will likely produce diminished pain sensation 99. Persons with Parkinson disease have an altered gait that is characterized by short shuffling steps 100. A clinical syndrome of intracranial hypertension that mimics brain tumors is psudotumor cerebri 101. Classic carpal tunnel syndrome would result in reduced abduction of the thumb 102. You note that a child has a positive Gower sign. You know that this indicates generalized muscle weakness 103. A tingling sensation radiating from the wrist to the hand on striking the median nerve is a positive sign. Tinel 104. Thrombosis of a leg vein should be suspected if the patient feels calf pain on dorsiflexion of the foot 105. Your patient presents with symptoms that lead you to suspect acute appendicitis. Which assessment finding is least likely to be associated with this condition? consistent right lower quadrant pain 106. A patient presents with symptoms that lead you to suspect acute appendicitis. which assessment finding is least likely to be associated with this condition early in its course? Obturator muscle test 107. Your patient is a 48 year old woman with complaints of serve cramping pain in the abdomen and right flank. Her past medical history includes a history of bladder calculi. You diagnose her with renal calculi at this time. Which of the following symptoms would you expect with her diagnosis? Abdominal pain on palpation, CVA tenderness, fever, hematuria 108. A 45 year old laborer presents with low back pain, stating that he pain comes from the right buttock and shoots down and across the right anterior thigh, down the shin to the ankle. Which examination finding is considered more indicative of nerve root compression Contralateral straight leg raise result 109. A positive straight leg raise test usually indicates lumbar nerve root irritation 110. The Thomas test is used to detect Flexion contractures of the hip 111. When performing the drawer test, the examiner would place the patient in a supine position and flex the knee 45-90 degrees, placing the foot flat on the table, and then grasp the lower leg with both hands and draw the tibia forward and then backward 112. Which one of the following techniques is used to detect a torn meniscus? McMurray test 113. During a football game, a player was struck on the lateral side of the left leg while his feet were firmly planted. He is complaining of left knee pain. To examine the left knee, you should initially perform the test. valgus stress 114. anterior cruciate ligament integrity is assessed via the test Lachman [Show More]

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