NEURO - TEST BANKS - BRUNNER & SUDDARTH'S TEXTBOOK OF MEDICAL-SURGICAL NURSING 14E CHAPTER 65 – 70 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 2022

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NEURO - TEST BANKS - BRUNNER & SUDDARTH'S TEXTBOOK OF MEDICAL-SURGICAL NURSING 14E CHAPTER 65 – 70 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 2022 1. A patient is brought to the ER following a motor vehicle acciden... t in which he sustained head trauma. Preliminary assessment reveals a vision deficit in the patients left eye. The nurse should associate this abnormal finding with trauma to which of the following cerebral lobes? A) Temporal B) Occipital C) Parietal D) Frontal - Correct Answer-B Feedback: The posterior lobe of the cerebral hemisphere is responsible for visual interpretation. The temporal lobe contains the auditory receptive areas. The parietal lobe contains the primary sensory cortex, and is essential to an individuals awareness of the body in space, as well as orientation in space and spatial relations. The frontal lobe functions in concentration, abstract thought, information storage or memory, and motor function. 2. A patient scheduled for magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) has arrived at the radiology department. The nurse who prepares the patient for the MRI should prioritize which of the following actions? A) Withholding stimulants 24 to 48 hours prior to exam B) Removing all metal-containing objects C) Instructing the patient to void prior to the MRI D) Initiating an IV line for administration of contrast - Correct Answer-B Feedback: Patient preparation for an MRI consists of removing all metal-containing objects prior to the examination. Withholding stimulants would not affect an MRI; this relates to an electroencephalography (EEG). Instructing the patient to void is patient preparation for a lumbar puncture. Initiating an IV line for administration of contrast would be done if the patient was having a CT scan with contrast. 3. A gerontologic nurse planning the neurologic assessment of an older adult is considering normal, age related changes. Of what phenomenon should the nurse be aware? A) Hyperactive deep tendon reflexes B) Reduction in cerebral blood flow C) Increased cerebral metabolism D) Hypersensitivity to painful stimuli - Correct Answer-B Feedback: Reduction in cerebral blood flow (CBF) is a change that occurs in the normal aging process. Deep tendon reflexes can be decreased or, in some cases, absent. Cerebral metabolism decreases as the patient advances in age. Reaction to painful stimuli may be decreased with age. Because pain is an important warning signal, caution must be used when hot or cold packs are used. 4. The nurse has admitted a new patient to the unit. One of the patients admitting orders is for an adrenergic medication. The nurse knows that this medication will have what effect on the circulatory system? A) Thin, watery saliva B) Increased heart rate C) Decreased BP D) Constricted bronchioles - Correct Answer-B Feedback: The term adrenergic refers to the sympathetic nervous system. Sympathetic effects include an increased rate and force of the heartbeat. Cholinergic effects, which correspond to the parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system, include thin, watery saliva, decreased rate and force of heartbeat, and decreased BP. 5. A nurse is assessing reflexes in a patient with hyperactive reflexes. When the patients foot is abruptly dorsiflexed, it continues to beat two to three times before settling into a resting position. How would the nurse document this finding? A) Rigidity B) Flaccidity C) Clonus D) Ataxia - Correct Answer-C Feedback: When reflexes are very hyperactive, a phenomenon called clonus may be elicited. If the foot is abruptly dorsiflexed, it may continue to beat two to three times before it settles into a position of rest. Rigidity is an increase in muscle tone at rest characterized by increased resistance to passive stretch. Flaccidity is lack of muscle tone. Ataxia is the inability to coordinate muscle movements, resulting in difficulty walking, talking, and performing self-care activities. 6. The nurse is doing an initial assessment on a patient newly admitted to the unit with a diagnosis of cerebrovascular accident (CVA). The patient has difficulty copying a figure that the nurse has drawn and is diagnosed with visual-receptive aphasia. What brain region is primarily involved in this deficit? A) Temporal lobe B) Parietal-occipital area C) Inferior posterior frontal areas D) Posterior frontal area - Correct Answer-B Feedback: Difficulty copying a figure that the nurse has drawn would be considered visualreceptive aphasia, which involves the parietal-occipital area. Expressive aphasia, the inability to express oneself, is often associated with damage to the frontal area. Receptive aphasia, the inability to understand what someone else is saying, is often associated with damage to the temporal lobe area. 7. What term is used to describe the fibrous connective tissue that hugs the brain closely and extends into every fold of the brains surface? A) Dura mater B) Arachnoid C) Fascia D) Pia mater - Correct Answer-D Feedback: The term meninges describes the fibrous connective tissue that covers the brain and spinal cord. The meninges have three layers, the dura mater, arachnoid, and pia mater. The pia mater is the innermost membrane that hugs the brain closely and extends into every fold of the brains surface. The dura mater, the outermost layer, covers the brain and spinal cord. The arachnoid, the middle membrane, is responsible for the production of cerebrospinal fluid. 8. The nurse is caring for a patient with an upper motor neuron lesion. What clinical manifestations should the nurse anticipate when planning the patients neurologic assessment? A) Decreased muscle tone B) Flaccid paralysis C) Loss of voluntary control of movement D) Slow reflexes - Correct Answer-C Feedback: Upper motor neuron lesions do not cause muscle atrophy, flaccid paralysis, or slow reflexes. However, upper motor neuron lesions normally cause loss of voluntary control. 9. The nurse is admitting a patient to the unit who is diagnosed with a lower motor neuron lesion. What entry in the patients electronic record is most consistent with this diagnosis? A) Patient exhibits increased muscle tone. B) Patient demonstrates normal muscle structure with no evidence of atrophy. C) Patient demonstrates hyperactive deep tendon reflexes. D) Patient demonstrates an absence of deep tendon reflexes. - Correct Answer-D Feedback: Lower motor neuron lesions cause flaccid muscle paralysis, muscle atrophy, decreased muscle tone, and loss of voluntary control. 10. An elderly patient is being discharged home. The patient lives alone and has atrophy of his olfactory organs. The nurse tells the patients family that it is essential that the patient have what installed in the home? A) Grab bars B) Nonslip mats C) Baseboard heaters D) A smoke detector - Correct Answer-D Feedback: The sense of smell deteriorates with age. The olfactory organs are responsible for smell. This may present a safety hazard for the patient because he or she may not smell smoke or gas leaks. Smoke detectors are universally necessary, but especially for this patient. 11. The patient in the ED has just had a diagnostic lumbar puncture. To reduce the incidence of a postlumbar puncture headache, what is the nurses most appropriate action? A) Position the patient prone. B) Position the patient supine with the head of bed flat. C) Position the patient left side-lying. D) Administer acetaminophen as ordered. - Correct Answer-A Feedback: The lumbar puncture headache may be avoided if a small-gauge needle is used and if the patient remains prone after the procedure. Acetaminophen is not administered as a preventative measure for post-lumbar puncture headaches. 12. The nurse is conducting a focused neurologic assessment. When assessing the patients cranial nerve function, the nurse would include which of the following assessments? A) Assessment of hand grip B) Assessment of orientation to person, time, and place C) Assessment of arm drift D) Assessment of gag reflex - Correct Answer-D Feedback: The gag reflex is governed by the glossopharyngeal nerve, one of the cranial nerves. Hand grip and arm drifting are part of motor function assessment. Orientation is an assessment parameter related to a mental status examination. 13. A nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with Meniere's disease. While completing a neurologic examination on the patient, the nurse assesses cranial nerve VIII. The nurse would be correct in identifying the function of this nerve as what? A) Movement of the tongue B) Visual acuity C) Sense of smell D) Hearing and equilibrium - Correct Answer-D Feedback: Cranial nerve VIII (acoustic) is responsible for hearing and equilibrium. Cranial nerve XII (hypoglossal) is responsible for movement of the tongue. Cranial nerve II (optic) is responsible for visual acuity and visual fields. Cranial nerve I (olfactory) functions in sense of smell. 14. A patient exhibiting an uncoordinated gait has presented at the clinic. Which of the following is the most plausible cause of this patients health problem? A) Cerebellar dysfunction B) A lesion in the pons C) Dysfunction of the medulla D) A hemorrhage in the midbrain - Correct Answer-A Feedback: The cerebellum controls fine movement, balance, position sense, and integration of sensory input. Portions of the pons control the heart, respiration, and blood pressure. Cranial nerves IX through XII connect to the brain in the medulla. Cranial nerves III and IV originate in the midbrain. 15. The nursing students are learning how to assess function of cranial nerve VIII. To assess the function of cranial nerve VIII the students would be correct in completing which of the following assessment techniques? A) Have the patient identify familiar odors with the eyes closed. B) Assess papillary reflex. C) Utilize the Snellen chart. D) Test for air and bone conduction (Rinne test). - Correct Answer-D Feedback: Cranial nerve VIII is the acoustic nerve. It functions in hearing and equilibrium. When assessing this nerve, the nurse would test for air and bone conduction (Rinne) with a tuning fork. Assessment of papillary reflex would be completed for cranial nerves III (oculomotor), IV (trochlear), and VI (abducens). The Snellen chart would be used to assess cranial nerve II (optic). 16. A patient is being given a medication that stimulates her parasympathetic system. Following administration of this medication, the nurse should anticipate what effect? A) Constricted pupils B) Dilated bronchioles C) Decreased peristaltic movement D) Relaxed muscular walls of the urinary bladder - Correct Answer-A Feedback: Parasympathetic stimulation results in constricted pupils, constricted bronchioles, increased peristaltic movement, and contracted muscular walls of the urinary bladder. 17. A patient with lower back pain is scheduled for myelography using metrizamide (a water-soluble contrast dye). After the test, the nurse should prioritize what action? A) Positioning the patient with the head of the bed elevated 45 degrees B) Administering IV morphine sulfate to prevent headache C) Limiting fluids for the next 12 hours D) Helping the patient perform deep breathing and coughing exercises - Correct Answer-A Feedback: After myelography, the patient lies in bed with the head of the bed elevated 30 to 45 degrees. The patient is advised to remain in bed in the recommended position for 3 hours or as prescribed. Drinking liberal amounts of fluid for rehydration and replacement of CSF may decrease the incidence of postlumbar puncture headache. Deep breathing and coughing exercises are not normally necessary since there is no consequent risk of atelectasis. 18. A patient is having a fight or flight response after receiving bad news about his prognosis. What affect will this have on the patients sympathetic nervous system? A) Constriction of blood vessels in the heart muscle B) Constriction of bronchioles C) Increase in the secretion of sweat D) Constriction of pupils - Correct Answer-C Feedback: Sympathetic nervous system stimulation results in dilated blood vessels in the heart and skeletal muscle, dilated bronchioles, increased secretion of sweat, and dilated pupils. CONTINUES... [Show More]

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