SAT Biology E/M Subject Test. MCQ Plus Answer Key

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SAT Biology E/M Subject Test June. 2014 Questions 1-3 refer to the following cellular structures: (A) ribosome (B) nucleus (C) chloroplast (D) mitochondria (E) endoplasmic reticulum 1. Structu... re found in plant cells but not animal cells. 2. Structure that functions as the site of protein synthesis in cells. 3. Structure that contains the codes for the specific proteins produced by a cell. 4. A student cut a 2 cm3 block out of a potato and massed tile block. She then placed the block in distilled water and waited an hour. If she remassed the block she could expect which of the following? (A) the mass to increase due to plasmolysis (B) the mass to increase because the potato is hypertonic to the water (C) the mass to decrease because the potato will loose its water (D) the mass to decrease because of the higher water potential in the potato (E) the mass to remain the same because there are no living components ill this system Questions 5-7 (A) Anaphase II (B) Metaphase I (C) Prophase II (D) Metaphase II (E) Prophase I 5. Stage of meiosis during which recombination of genetic material occurs 6. Stage of meiosis during which pain; of homologous chromosomes align at the center of the cell 7. Stage of meiosis during which sister chromatids arc separated 8. All of the following about plasma membrane structure and function are correct EXCEPT (A) all plasma membranes have the identical composition and structure (B) diffusion of gases across a membrane require that the membrane be moist (C) facilitated diffusion is an example of passive transport (D) proteins serve as membrane channels (E) plasma membranes contain receptors that are specific for the molecules they uptake9. The use of specially bred strains of bacteria to clean up oil spills along beaches is an example of (A) primary succession. (B) bioremediation. (C) decomposition. (D) coevolution. (E) eutrophication. 10. The terms blowout, pioneer organisms, and climax community are most related to a discussion of (A) biomes (B) ecological succession (C) food pyramids (D) populations (E) food chains Questions 11-13 refer to the following. A. Golgi body B. Mitochondrion C. Ribosome D. Endoplasmic reticulum E. Lysosome 11. This organelle contains enzymes that synthesize lipids and hormones. 12. This organelle is present in prokaryotes. 13. This organelle is responsible for the production of ATP. Questions 14-15 refer to the following breeding experiment. The researcher's goal was to develop white mice with short tails. P brown mice x white mice with long tails with short tails F1 all offspring are F2 292 mice arc brown with long tails brown and have 97 mice arc brown with short tails long tails 103 mice are white with long tails 36 mite are white with short tails 14. The results of the above cross indicate that among the original parents (P-generation) (A) both were heterozygous for coat color and tail length. (B) one was homozygous dominant for coat color and tail length, whereas the other was homozygous recessive for both traits. (C) one was homozygous dominant for coat color and homozygous recessive for tail length, whereas the other was homozygous recessive for coat color andhomozygous dominant for tail length. (D) one was homozygous dominant for both traits, whereas the other was heterozygous for both traits. (E) one was homozygous recessive for both traits, whereas the other was heterozygous for both traits. 15. Based on the results, how many genes control the four traits observed among the F2 progeny (brown coat color, white coat color, short tail, long tail)? (A) one (B) two (C) four (D) eight (E) sixteen 16. The amount of nitrogen and phosphorous cycling through an ecosystem is greatly affected by local environmental conditions, such as heavy rainfall or the removal of large numbers of plants. The amount of carbon in an ecosystem is seldom significantly affected by such factors because (A) plants make their own carbon compounds through photosynthesis. (B) plants absorb large amounts of carbon from the soil. (C) bacteria in the soil absorb large amounts of carbon. (D) the primary source of carbon is the atmosphere, whereas much nitrogen and phosphorous come from the soil. (E) organisms need only minute levels of carbon. 17. Oxygen gas (O2) is produced by plants and algae. What is the source of oxygen atoms in these molecules? A. Water B. Glucose C. Carbon dioxide D. Atmospheric oxygen E. Atmospheric nitrogen 18. A man who is color blind marries a woman who is not color blind, and together they have a daughter who is not color blind. If the daughter marries a man with regular vision, what is the probability of their firstborn child being a son who is color blind? (A) 0% (B) 25% (C) 50% (D) 75% (E) 100%19. All of the following could be considered density-dependent factors affecting population growth EXCEPT (A) Limited nutrients (B) climate temperature (C) build-up of toxins (D) predation (E) limited water 20. The separation of plant pigments using paper chromatography is based on (A) the non-polarity of the solvents and pigments. (B) the polarity of the paper. (C) the polarity of the pigments. (D) all of the above. (E) none of the above. 21. The diagram shows the muscles involved in extending the arm. Which actions result in this movement? A. Muscle 1 relaxes while muscle 2 contracts. B. Muscle 1 contracts while muscle 2 relaxes. C. Muscle 1 contracts, and then both muscles relax. D. Muscle 1 and muscle 2 both relax the same time. E. Muscle 1 and muscle 2 both contract at the same time. Questions 22-25 refer to the following breeding experiment, the purpose of which was to develop petunia plants with flowers expressing a new combination of form and shape: double (form) ruffled (shape) flowers. P plants with x plants with double plain flowers single ruffled flowers F1 all offspring F2 290 plants have single plain flowers have single plain 99 plants have single ruffled flowers flowers 101 plants have double plain flowers 32 plants have double ruffled flowers22. The results of the cross indicate which of the following for the original parents (P-generation)? (A) Both were heterozygous for flower form and flower shape. (B) One was homozygous dominant for flower form and flower shape, whereas the other was homozygous recessive for both traits. (C) One was homozygous dominant for flower form and homozygous recessive for flower shape, whereas the other was homozygous recessive for form and homozygous dominant for shape. (D) One was homozygous dominant for both trails, whereas the other was heterozygous for both traits. (E) One was homozygous recessive for both traits, whereas the other was heterozygous for both traits. 23. Based on the results, how many genes control the four traits observed among the plants (single, double, plain, and ruffled)? (A) one (B) two (C) four (D) eight (E) sixteen 24. How many different genotypes are represented by the four phenotypic classes observed among the F2 progeny? (A) four (B) eight (C) nine (D) thirty-two (E) sixty-four 25. The results suggest that the inheritance of flower form and flower shape are controlled by (A) different alleles of the same gene. (B) two different genes on the same chromosome. (C) four different genes on the same chromosome. (D) two different genes on different chromosomes. (E) four different genes on different chromosomes. 26. Neurotransmitters cross the synapse after being released from the (A) dendrites. (B) axons. (C) cell bodies. (D) all of the above. (E) none of the above.27. Which of the following represents the correct order of appearance of different vertebrate groups in the fossil record? (A) fish, birds, reptiles, mammals (B) amphibians, reptiles, fish, mammals (C) fish, reptiles, amphibians, mammals (D) fish, amphibians, reptiles, mammals (E) fish, amphibians, mammals, reptiles 28. The location on an enzyme where a substrate binds is called the (A) binding site (B) reaction center (C) allosteric site (D) lock-and-key model (E) active site 29. A somatic cell of the common octopus (Octopus vulgaris) has 56 chromosomes. What number of chromosomes will an octopus gamete contain? A. 14 B. 28 C. 56 D. 112 E. 168 30. Which of these are relationships in which one species benefits at the expense of another? I. Commensalism II. Competition III. Parasitism IV. Predation A. III only B. III and IV C. I, II, and III D. II, III, and IV E. I, II, III, and IV 31. Which of these statements BEST summarizes the competitive exclusion principle? A. Predators exert a cyclic effect on the population size of their prey. B. Two populations in the same ecosystem cannot occupy the same niche. C. Pollutants accumulate in greater concentrations at higher trophic levels. D. The trophic structure of ecosystems describes energy flow through a community. E. An ecosystem has limited resources and cannot support an unlimited population.32. An organism with the genotype AaVv can produce how many different types of gametes? (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 4 (D) 6 (E) 8 33. Cardiac output (the amount of blood pumped out of the heart in one minute) and blood pressure arc directly proportional. Which of the following graphs best depicts the relationship between cardiac output and blood pressure? Questions 34-36 refer to the following diagram. 34. What type of molecule is depicted in the drawing above?(A) Protein (B) Carbohydrate (C) Lipid (D) Nucleic acid (E) Starch 35. If we were to continue adding to this molecule to increase its size, to which atom would the next portion be bonded? (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 (E) 5 36. The synthesis of this molecule also results in the production of (A) carbon dioxide (B) water (C) lipids (D) ATP (E) NADH Questions 37-41 Five cells are undergoing cell division. 37. Crossing-over occurs 38. Sister chromatids are separating 39. Metaphase I 40. Homologous pairs are separating 41. Prophase I 42. Which of the following biomes is correctly paired with its description? (A) tundra—coniferous trees in a cold, dry climate (B) taiga—cold areas with low, mat-like vegetation (C) tropical deciduous forests — the biome with the most precipitation(D) savanna—grassland with three distinct climates, based mainly on rain (E) chaparral—wetlands with many shrubs and ruminants 43. An organism that demonstrates radial symmetry and an exoskeleton would be classified into which phylum? A. Arthropoda B. Cnidaria C. Echinodermata D. Mollusca E. Porifera Questions 44-45 refer to the following diagram. 44. The path of blood through the circulatory system is A. 1 to 2 to 3 to 4 to 1 B. 1 to 3 to 2 to 4 to 1 C. 1 to 4 to 2 to 3 to 1 D. 2 to 3 to 4 to 1 to 2 E. 2 to 4 to 3 to 1 to 2 45. The parts of the circulator system that make up the systemic circulation include A. 1 and 2 B. 1 and 3 C. 1 and 4 D. 2 and 3 E. 2 and 4 46. Which structure releases hormones that signal the tissue lining the uterus to thicken? A. Corpus luteum B. Developing follicle C. Fallopian tube D. HypothalamusE. Pituitary 47. The relative fitness of an organism iii a population is best measured by (A) the number of times it mates during its lifetime. (B) the size of the offspring it produces. (C) the number of offspring it produces each year. (D) the number of offspring it produces during its lifetime. (E) the number of offspring it produces during its lifetime that survive and successfully reproduce 48. Which of the following statements most accurately describes the process of double fertilization in angiosperms? (A) Two pollen grains land on each stigma; thus, two ovules are fertilized. (B) Two sperm cells produced by a single pollen grain fertilize two separate ovules, resulting in the formation of two seeds. (C) One sperm cell from a single pollen grain fertilizes an egg cell to form a diploid zygote, while a second sperm cell from the same pollen grain combines with two fused nuclei in the embryo sac, resulting in the formation of a triploid endosperm nucleus. (D) One sperm cell from a single pollen grain fertilizes an egg cell to form a haploid zygote, while a second sperm cell from the same pollen grain combines with a single nucleus ill the embryo sac, resulting in the formation of a diploid endosperm nucleus. (E) Two sperm cells from a single pollen grain fertilize the same egg cell to double the chance that fertilization will be successful. 49. The undershoot during an action potential is the result of (A) the sodium gates being closed and the potassium gate open. (B) the sodium gates being closed and the potassium gate closed. (C) the sodium gates being open and the potassium gate closed. (D) the sodium gales being open and the potassium gate open. (E) one of the sodium gates being open, one closed, and the potassium gate open. 50. Which of the following statements is NOT a feature of restriction fragment length polymorphisms? (A) They can be used to detect single gene mutations in human DNA. (B) They can be used prenatally to analyze fetal cells for genetic disorders. (C) They can be used to amplify large quantities of a single gene through use of the polymerase chain reaction. (D) They can be used to detect variation in DNA sequences among individuals. (E) They can be separated by electrophoresis according to fragment size.51. The diagram shows a seed. What is the function of the structures indicated by the arrows? A. Defense B. Dispersal C. Camouflage D. Water intake E. Photosynthesis 52. Which of the following organelles would be present in a eukaryote but NOT in a prokaryote? I. Nucleus II. Mitochondria III. Ribosome (A) I only (B) II only (C) I and II only (D) II and III only (E) I, II, and III Questions 53-55 refer to the following. Ecologists studied the effects of sea stars (Pisasterochraceus) on the distribution of mussels on rocky shores. Mytiluscalifornianus mussels normally inhabit the intertidal zone, while sea stars inhabit the deeper low-tide zone. Results are shown in the graph below.53. What was the effect of removing P. ochraceus on the M. californianus population? A. The M. californianus population declined. B. The M. californianus population increased. C. The M. californianus population moved into lower waters. D. The M. californianus population moved into higher waters. E. The M. californianus population was unaffected. 54. What can be inferred from the data about the ecological relationship between P. ochraceus and M. californianus? A. P. ochraceus constitutes a limiting factor on M. californianus populations. B. P. ochraceus and M. californianus occupy the same niche. C. P. ochraceus and M. californianus have a predator-prey relationship. D. P. ochraceus compete with M. californianus for resources. E. P. ochraceus are better adapted to the environment than M. californianus. 55. Based on the study, what is the effect of P. ochraceus on the ecosystem? A. It is an invasive species. B. It decreases species diversity. C. It outcompetes other species. D. It affects the ranges of other species. E. It cannot occupy the same niche as other species. Questions 56-60 refer to the following. In fruit flies, normal-sized, solid-colored body and red eyes are wild-type (normal) traits. Flies can be assumed to have these traits unless otherwise stated. A geneticist crosses fruit flies from a strain with purple eyes and with fruit flies from a strain with dwarf bodies. The results of the F1 cross are shown below. The scientist then crosses F1 flies together. Results from the F2 generation are included in the table. The allele resulting in purple eyes is located near an allele resulting in streaks across the body, on the same chromosome. The streaked body phenotype is recessive. Crosses are performed with flies from purebred lines, which are wild type for all other traits. 56. Approximately what proportion of the F2 flies has the dwarf# red-eyed phenotype?A. 1 in 3 B. 1 in 4 C. 1 in 16 D. 3 in 16 E. 9 in 16 57. Based on the results of the parent cross, which of the following phenotypes are recessive? I. Red eyes II. Purple eyes III. Dwarf body IV. Normal body A. I and III B. I and IV C. II and III D. II and IV E. III only 58. Two flies from the F2 generation are crossed. One has a dwarf body and red eyes, and the other has a dwarf body and purple eyes. Based on the results shown, which combinations of traits could result in the offspring? I. Dwarf body, red eyes II. Dwarf body, purple eyes III. Normal body, red eyes IV. Normal body, purple eyes A. I only B. II only C. I and II D. II and IV E. III and IV 59. A purple-eyed fly is crossed with a streaked fly. The F1 flies are then crossed with each other. In the F2 generation, which phenotype will occur less often than expected? I. Streaked body, red eyes II. Streaked body, purple eyes III. Normal body, red eyes IV. Normal body, purple eyes A. I and II B. I and III C. land IV D. II and III E. III and IV60. In fruit flies, the normal or wild-type allele of a gene is indicated with a plus (+) sign. The diagrams below show the locations of the streak and purple eye genes on simplified chromosomes. Which diagram shows the correct haplotypes of the FI flies resulting from a cross between a streaked parent and a purple-eyed parent?61. Among social birds, like the Florida scrub jay, there are more male helpers at the nest than female because (A) males are more numerous than females. (B) males make better helpers than females. (C) males are belter foragers than females. (D) males need to wait for a territory to become available elsewhere. (E) all of the above. Questions 62-65 refer to the following information. 62. Which statement correctly describes a relationship between the species of columns 1 and 2? (A) The species in column 1 help to determine which species are in column 2. (B) The species in column 2 help to determine which species are in column 1. (C) The species in column 1 are dependent on the species in column 2. (D) The species in both columns 1 and 2 help to determine the climate of the area. (E) None of the above is true. 63. Letter A most likely represents (A) a biosphere. (B) a biome. (C) a bathysphere. (D) an ecosystem. (E) a community. 64. Letter B most likely represents (A) black bears. (B) beavers. (C) sugar maples. (D) conifers. (E) foxes. 65. Letter C most likely represents (A) squirrels and deer. (B) antelope and bison. (C) monkeys and leopards. (D) caribou and snowy owls.(E) fungi and algae. Questions 66-67 When two species of paramecium, P. caudatum and P. aurelia, are grown in separate culture dishes, each population grows rapidly and then levels off at the carrying capacity for its environment. When they are combined in one culture dish, P. aurelia survives, but P. caudatum does not. 66. This is most likely because (A) P. caudatum suffers a mutation that prevents its survival (B) P. caudatum was attacked by a pathogenic virus or bacteria (C) R aurelia must have evolved into a superior organism (D) The two populations are competing with each other, and P. aurelia can outcompete P. caudatum (E) P. aurelia is a predator, and P. caudatum is its prey 67. Which of die following statements is true about the two populations of paramecium grown in culture together? (A) They share a niche. (B) This is an example of commensalism. (C) The two populations do not interact. (D) This is an example of divergent evolution. (E) This is an example of primary ecological succession. 68. How does primary succession differ from secondary succession? A. Primary succession occurs on soil. B. Primary succession begins with lichens. C. Primary succession begins with plant species. D. Secondary succession involves animal species. E. Secondary succession involves the weathering of rock. 69. At some point in their development, chordates possess all of the following EXCEPT (A) a dorsal hollow nerve cord (B) a notochord (C) gill slits (D) postanal tail (E) an exoskeleton 70. Nitrogen-fixing bacteria are most likely found in which environment? A. Stomach of a reptile B. Lower epidermis of leaves C. Gills of freshwater fish D. Large intestine of humans E. Root systems of plantsQuestions 71-72 The table below indicates the output of nitrate in stream water in an undisturbed area and in an area that has been clear-cut (deforested). 71. Which statement is indicated by the graph? (A) Nitrate runoff from the undisturbed area reached a maximum around 1973 (B) Deforestation did not affect nitrate runoff for at least 10 years (C) Runoff rates were about the same until about 1958 (D) Clear-cut occurred in about 1968 (E) Maximum nitrate runoff in the clear-cut area occurred in 1978 72. Which statement about deforestation can be inferred from the graph? (A) Deforestation ultimately destroyed several small rivers in Oregon. (B) When an area is clear-cut, the trees can be replaced and the ecology of the area can be preserved. (C) The presence of trees in a forest causes an increase in nitrogen in the soil. (D) Plants and their root fungi are very efficient at absorbing fixed nitrogen from the soil. (E) Nitrogen runoff will destroy local rivers. 73. Which of the following statements about acid rain is true? I. Acid rain is caused by nitric acid and sulfuric acid. II. Acid rain can damage plants directly. III. Acid rain can cause magnesium and calcium to be leached from the soil. (A) I only (B) II only C) III only (D) II and III are both true. (E) I, II, and III are all true.Questions 74-75 refer to the following graph. 74. Assume first that the graph above shows the changes ill two populations of herbivores in a grassy field. A possible reason for these changes is that (A) all of the plant populations in this habitat decreased. (B) population B competed more successfully for food than did population A. (C) population A produced more offspring than population B did. (D) population A consumed the members of population B (E) over time, both populations will have the same average number. 75. Assume now that the graph above shows the changes in any two populations in a grassy field. Choose which of the following statements are true. I. A could represent predators and B prey. II. A could represent prey and B predators. III. A could be a host infested by the pathogen B. (A) I only (B) II only (C) III only (D) I and II (E) II and III Questions 76-78 refer to the following. Ecologists surveyed the composition of three different forest plots. They measured the frequency of occurrence of 13 different tree species and the basal area of each species. The basal area is calculated by measuring tree circumference at breast height and calculating the area occupied by a particular species in square meters per hectare.76. Which is the most common tree species in Plot 3? A. Red pine B. Red maple C. Strobe pine D. Paper birch E. Sugar maple 77. Which two species are most closely related? A. Red pine and red oak B. Red oak and red maple C. Red oak and American elm D. White spruce and strobe pine E. Quaking aspen and balsam poplar 78. The data shows a negative, or inverse, correlation between which two tree species? A. Strobe pine and paper birch B. Red maple and sugar maple C. Paper birch and yellow birch D. Quaking aspen and paper birchE. White spruce and American elm Questions 79-81 refer to the diagram below, which shows the general location of some major biomes of the Western Hemisphere. 79. The most stable biome is represented by letter (A) A. (B) B. (C) C. (D) D. (E) E. 80. Which type of biome is indicated by letter E? (A) tundra (B) taiga (C) grassland (D) deciduous forest (E) chaparral 81. The biome indicated by letter F is characterized by (A) heavy, rainfall, broad-leaved plants, and monkeys. (B) sparse rainfall, grasses, and leopards. (C) variable rainfall, mosses, and caribou. (D) heavy rainfall, conifers, and snakes. (E) variable rainfall, moderate temperatures, and low humidity.82. The graph shows the changes in free energy before, during, and after a biochemical reaction. Which describes the effect of a catalytic enzyme on this reaction? A. Energy decreases at point 1. B. Energy increases at point 1. C. Energy decreases at point 2. D. Energy increases at point 2. E. Energy decreases at point 3. 83. Which of these must a mammalian embryo receive from its father in order to be viable? I. Autosomes II. X chromosome III. Y chromosome IV. Organelles A. I only B. I and II C. I and III D. I, II, and III E. I, II, III, and IV Questions 84-85 Refer to this sketch of a cell undergoing meiosis to produce a gamete. 84. Which term best describes what is happening to this dividing cell? (A) Crossing-over (B) Metaphase spread(C) Gene mutation (D) Nondisjunction (E) Mitotic cell division 85. Which of the following conditions could result if a normal sperm fertilized one of the gametes produced by this cell? (A) Sickle cell anemia (B) Down syndrome (C) Cystic fibrosis (D) Huntington's disease (E) PKU Questions 86-89 refer to the following experiment. A population of ampicillin-resistant bacteria (Strain 1) is grown in a laboratory and is infected with a virus. The bacterial population begins to decline as the virus initially goes through the lytic cycle, then rebounds as the virus integrates into the bacterial chromosome to begin the lysogenic cycle. The bacteria reproduce normally until they are heat-shocked. The rapid increase in temperature causes the virus to remove itself from the bacterial genome and enter the lytic cycle. Within several hours, all bacteria are dead and a free virus is found in high concentration in the bacterial growth medium. This free virus is used to infect a population of bacteria that is sensitive to ampicillin (Strain 2). After the expected decrease and rebound of this bacterial population (as above), the rebounded population was found to be ampicillin-resistant. 86. Evolution of a bacterial population occurs much more rapidly than evolution of a human population. This is because (A) the bacteria are smaller and thus more susceptible to change (B) the bacterial life cycle is short and many new generations can be produced quickly (C) humans do not evolve (D) humans can only reproduce during a portion of their life cycle, whereas bacteria can reproduce throughout their entire life cycle (E) bacteria do not require oxygen to survive 87. The acquisition of ampicillin resistance by bacterial Strain 2 is due to (A) evolution (B) speciation (C) conjugation (D) transformation (E) transduction 88. The bacterial culture is constantly infused with oxygen to ensure a high rate ofreproduction among the bacteria and a healthy population. One evening, the oxygen delivery system gets clogged; the bacteria receive no oxygen, yet they survive and continue to reproduce, just at a slower rate. These bacteria can be classified as (A) obligate aerobes (B) obligate anaerobes (C) tolerant anaerobes (D) facultative anaerobes (E) simple anaerobes 89. Which of the following increase genetic diversity in bacteria? I. Conjugation II. Transformation III. Crossing over (A) I only (B) I and II only (C) III only (D) II and III only (E) I, II, and III 90. Peter Mitchell was able to demonstrate chemiosmosis by getting ___________ to go down their concentration gradient by using two different____________. (A) potassium ions, light frequencies (B) hydrogen ions, light frequencies (C) potassium ions, pH solutions (D) hydrogen ions, pH solutions (E) potassium ions, electromagnetic frequencies 91. A gene that is 1,500 nucleotides long codes for a metabolic protein that is composed of 400 amino acids. The number of nucleotides in exons are ________and the number of nucleotides in introns are ________. (A) 1,200; 300 (B) 300; 1,200 (C) 1,500; 0 (D) 0; 1,500 (E) 400; 1,100 92. In the steps leading up to the origin of life on earth, early protobionts could not have evolved into living cells without both (A) a semipermeable membrane and a nucleus. (B) competition for resources and the development of hereditary mechanisms. (C) a semipermeable membrane and the ability to catalyze chemical reactions. (D) a nucleus and the ability to catalyze chemical reactions. (E) a mechanism for growth and a mechanism for asexual reproduction.93. The antibiotic tetracycline works by binding to rRNA in prokaryotes. Which cellular activity does tetracycline directly disrupt? A. Translation B. Respiration C. Transcription D. DNA replication E. Active transport Questions 94-97 In 1910, a small town on the East Coast of the United States relied primarily on agriculture to support its economy. In the mid-1930s, a steel mill was built, and the economy shifted from being agriculturally supported to being industrially supported. The steel mill released a lot of smog and soot into the air, which collected on the bark of trees in a wooded area near the outskirts of town. Over a period of ten years, the bark gradually darkened, then maintained a constant dark color. A variety of animals and insects lived in the wooded area. In particular, a certain species of moth served as the primary food source for a population of birds. The moths lay their eggs in the bark of the trees and, thus, must spend a fair amount of time sitting on the tree trunks. Table 1 presents data on the moth population. 94. The wings of the moths and the wings of the birds are both used for flight (similar functions); however, their underlying structures are very different. Moth wings and bird wings are thus classified as (A) homologous structures (B) autologous structures (C) divergent structures (D) analogous structures (E) emergent structures 95. What is the most likely explanation for the shift in the percentage of black moths in the population?(A) The white moths no longer blended with the color of the tree bark and, thus, were selected for. (B) The black moths blended better with the color of the tree bark and, thus, were selected for. (C) The black moths blended better with the color of the tree bark and, thus, were selected against. (D) The white moths blended better with the color of the tree bark and, thus, were selected against. (E) The black moths did not blend with the color of the tree bark and, thus, were selected against. 96. If a seed from one of the trees was planted in an area far from the steel mill, what color would the bark of the tree be? (A) Black, because the parent tree had black bark (B) White, because the gene causing black bark was mutated due to environmental pollution (C) Black, because the gene causing white bark was mutated due to environmental pollution (D) White, because the black bark was an acquired characteristic and is therefore not passed on to progeny (E) The color of the bark is not able to be determined. 97. Birds track their prey visually, whereas bats rely on sonar to locate their food. If the bind population were replaced with a bat population in 1940, what would be the ratio of white moths to black moths? (A) 95% white, 5% black (B) 80% white, 20% black (C) 50% white, 50% black (D) 20% white, 80% black (E) 5% white, 90% black Questions 98-100 refer to the following. Scientists sequenced a portion of the aspartate transaminase enzyme from different species. The amino acid sequences are shown in the table. Each letter stands for an amino acid. Differences from the human sequence are indicated by bold letters. Missing amino acids are indicated by a dash (-).98. Which pair of organisms is most similar in terms of the amino acid sequence shown? A. Pig and horse B. Chicken and rat C. Human and pig D. Alfalfa and yeast E. Bacteria and yeast 99. All of the following types of mutations could have resulted in the amino acid differences shown EXCEFF A. a deletion B. an insertion C. a missense mutation D. a silent mutation E. a substitution 100. Which genetic mutation occurred farthest back in time? A. Insertion of a codon for serine (S) B. Deletion of a codon for asparagine (N)C. Conversion of a codon for lysine (K) to one for arginine (R) D. Conversion of a codon for alanine (A) to one for cysteine (C) E. Conversion of a codon for leucine (L) to one for methionine (M)1 C 26 B 51 B 76 B [Show More]

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