NURSING 701Womens Health A Primary Care Clinical Guide 5th Edition Youngkin Schadewald Pritham Test Bank(ALL ANSWERS CORRECT)100% SCORE

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Womens Health A Primary Care Clinical Guide 5th Edition Youngkin Schadewald Pritham Test BankWomen’s Health A Primary Care Clinical Guide 5th Edition Youngkin Schadewald Pritham Test Bank Chapter 1 ... Access to Women’s Health Care in the United States: Affordability, Equity, Rights 1. Which health occupation has the highest percentage of women? A. Pharmacists B. Physical therapists C. Registered nurses D. Dental hygienists Answer: D 2. Which health occupation has the lowest percentage of women? A. Physicians B. Dentists C. Pharmacists D. Physical therapists Answer: B 3. Which health profession has the largest number of workers? A. Health aides B. Physicians C. Licensed practical nurses D. Registered nurses Answer: D 4. Which of the following are certifications available in advanced practice registered nursing? (Select all that apply.) A. Certified nurse midwife B. Certified registered nurse anesthetist C. Certified nurse pharmacologist D. Clinical nurse specialist E. Nurse practitioner Answer: A, B, D, E 5. What level of education is required to become a licensed practical nurse? A. 2-year master’s degree (in addition to a 4-year bachelor’s degree) B. 4-year bachelor’s degree C. 2-year associate’s degree D. 1-year certificate or diploma Answer: D 6. What percentage of physicians and surgeons in the United States in 2014 were women? A. 27% B. 37% C. 47% D. 57% Answer: B 7. What medical specialty has the highest percentage of women? A. General pediatrics B. Obstetrics and gynecology C. Orthopedic surgery D. Urology Answer: A 8. On an average, the income of female physicians is what percentage of that of male physicians? A. 59% B. 79% C. 99% D. 109% Answer: A 9. What level of education is required to become a pharmacist? A. 6-year doctorate degree B. 2-year master’s degree (in addition to a 4-year bachelor’s degree) C. 4-year bachelor’s degree D. 2-year associate’s degree Answer: A 10. Which of the following is the median income of dentists in the United States (2012)? A. $89,310 B. $109,310 C. $129,310 D. $149,310 Answer: D 11. Which of the following are the current trends in dentistry? (Select all that apply.) A. More specialists than generalists B. Research linking oral health to overall health C. Focus on treatment of disease rather than prevention D. Expected growth of 18% from 2014 to 2024 E. Increasing demand for dental implants, bridges, and cosmetic services Answer: B, D, E 12. Which allied health occupation is projected to be the fastest growing? A. Health information technicians B. Nursing aides C. Occupational therapists D. Paramedics Answer: A 13. One in five workers in which of the following allied health occupation is at or below the federal poverty level? A. Medical assistant B. Home health aide C. Radiology technician D. Speech-language pathologist Answer: B 14. Veronica is a registered nurse who pours herself into her job. She works long hours without complaint andstrives to do her best. Often, she maintains a cheerful, caring, and kind demeanor on the outside whilefeeling exhausted and frustrated on the inside. The effort it takes to maintain this front before her patientsresults in a lot of stress. This phenomenon can best be described as which of the following? A. Identity crisis B. Psychological disparity C. Emotional dissonance D. Gender discrimination Answer: C 15. Tests of implicit racial bias among health professionals have revealed which of the following? A. An unconscious preference for Whites over Blacks B. Use of racially charged, derogatory language C. Sharing of racist jokes D. Lower pay for racial minorities Answer: A Chapter 2 Women’s Development into the 21st Century 1. To enhance women’s health care in the 21st century, researchers should do which of the following? (Select all that apply.) A. Design studies in collaboration with women B. Analyze changes in women’s health data relative to men’s C. Include homogeneous populations of women in studies D. Translate research findings into clinical and public health practice E. Focus on treatment approaches equally applicable to men and women Answer: A, B, D 2. Historically, gender has been defined by which of the following? (Select all that apply.) A. Self-identification B. Appropriate roles C. Division of labor D. Economic power E. Political influence Answer: B, C, D, E 3. Hammarstrӧm et al. propose a model of sex and gender that includes which of the following concepts? (Select all that apply.) A. Binary sexuality based on one’s chromosomes B. Sex, interacting with gender, as a continuum C. Biologically determined sex based on the effects of sex hormones on reproductive organ development D. Sex and gender as an integration of body, mind, and context E. Intersectionality and embodiment as factors significantly affecting sex and gender Answer: B, D, E 4. Which of the following is the best example of how gender bias has affected the health and health care of women? A. Similar rates of mental illness being found in men and women B. Treatment outcomes among women varying based on patient compliance C. Association of patient income level with type of diagnosis D. Disproportionately more psychotropic medications being prescribed to women than men Answer: D 5. Krieger has proposed which of the following regarding sex, gender, and health? (Select all that apply.) A. Gender and sex played no significant role in determining health outcomes for women B. Gender relations influence the expression and the interpretation of biological traits C. Sex-linked biological characteristics contribute to gender differentials in health D. Traditional perspectives on gender and sex have resulted in better health outcomes for women than for men E. Equitable gender relationships have resulted in similar health outcomes in men and women Answer: B, C 6. When did women’s health scholarship begin to flourish? A. 1960s B. 1970s C. 1980s D. 1990s Answer: B 7. Which of the following were the goals included in the report “Women’s Health Research: Progress, Pitfalls, and Promise,” which was published by the Office of Research on Women’s Health in 2010? (Select all that apply.) A. Increase sex similarities research in basic sciences studies B. Incorporate findings of sex and gender differences in the design of new technologies C. Create strategic alliances to maximize domestic and global impact of women’s health research D. Develop and implement new social networking technologies to promote men’s health and wellness research E. Employ innovative strategies to build a well-trained, diverse, and vigorous women’s health research workforce Answer: B, C, E 8. The National Institutes of Health (NIH) Revitalization Act of 1993 mandated that the NIH do which of the following? A. Expand health insurance coverage for women B. Include women and minorities in clinical research C. Research and develop new women-specific medications D. Decrease infection rates during obstetric surgeries Answer: B 9. Historical examples of gender bias in medical textbooks include which of the following? (Select all that apply.) A. Portrayals of women as inherently sick B. A recommendation that women simulate orgasms if not orgasmic with their husbands C. Portrayals of women patients as being intellectually superior to their male physicians D. Omission of the clitoris from anatomical illustrations of women’s genitals E. Portrayal of women as invincible to illness and age, as long as they make the rightchoices Answer: A, B, D, E 10. Which of the following best describes the new model for health care for women? A. Physician-centered B. Authoritarian C. Pluralistic D. Disease-oriented Answer: C Chapter 3 Epidemiology, Diagnostic Methods, and Procedures for Women’s Health 1:A 46-year-old patient is referred for the biopsy of a vaginal lesion. Vaginal biopsy typically requires what type of anesthesia? a:General b:Caudal c:None d:Conscious sedation e:Pudendal 2:A 36-year-old patient is to undergo removal of her uterus for benign disease. Which of the following is an advantage of abdominal hysterectomy over vaginal hysterectomy? a: Repair of rectocele more readily accessible b: Fewer incisional complications c: Ability to deal with smaller uterine sizes d: Ability to visualize associated pelvic pathology e: Shorter recovery period 3:She undergoes removal of only her uterus. Which term refers to the surgical removal of only the uterine corpus? a:Complete hysterectomy b:Vaginal hysterectomy cTotal hysterectomy d:Subtotal hysterectomy e:Radical hysterectomy 4:A 53-year-old is referred to you for the evaluation of an adnexal mass found at the time of annual physical examination. In the initial evaluation of a possible adnexal mass, the most appropriate imaging technique is a:computed axial tomography scanning b:ultrasonography c:flat plate of the abdomen d:magnetic resonance imaging e:positron emission tomography (PET) imaging 5:What is the most appropriate biopsy location for a 45-year-old woman with abnormal vaginal bleedingfor 5 days and a normal physical examination? a:Vulva b:No biopsy indicated if less than 7 days c:Endometrium d:Vagina e:Cervix 6: A 25-year-old patient had an IUD inserted last year, but no longer feels the string. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management? a: Dilation and curettage b: MRI c: Hysteroscopy d: "Flat-plate" X-ray of the lower abdomen e: Ultrasonography 7: A 35-year-old patient does not recall why she had a laparoscopy 3 years ago. Which of the following conditions is most likely to be associated with a laparoscopy for evaluation? a: Pelvic pain b: Abnormal Pap smear c: Abnormal bleeding d: Recurrent cystitis 8: A 32-year-old patient recovering from a gynecologic procedure complains of shoulder pain. The procedure she had was most likely a(n) a: LEEP b: cervical biopsy c: endometrial ablation d: dilation and curettage e: laparoscopy 9: What is the most appropriate initial imaging study in an asymptomatic patient with 18-week-size fibroids? a: Positron emission tomography (PET) b: computed tomography (CT) c: Transabdominal ultrasonography d: Sonohysterography e: Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) 10: A 20-year-old patient at 6 weeks of gestation is suspected of having an ovarian neoplasm. The most appropriate initial imaging technique is a: Computed tomography (CT) b: Positron emission tomography (PET) c: transvaginal ultrasonography d: transabdominal ultrasonography e: Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) 11: A healthy, asymptomatic, nulliparous 36-year-old woman requests your advice because she has been unsuccessful at achieving pregnancy over the last 13 months, despite regular menses. Performing an initial physical examination, you detect a firm, non-tender, multinodular uterus whose size corresponds to that at approximately 8 to 10 weeks of pregnancy, which is consistent with leiomyomata uteri. The remainder of the medical history and physical examination is within normal limits, as is her husband's semen analysis. Normal ovulatory status has been documented by basal body temperature monitoring and luteal-phase progesterone measurement. Your next best step is to recommend a: normal pelvic ultrasonography b: hysterosalpingogram (HSG) c: in vitro fertilization - embryo transfer (IVF-ET) d: myomectomy e: arterial embolization of the fibroids 12: A 36-year-old woman with regular, monthly, 5-day menstrual cycles presents with a 2-year history of severe right-sided pelvic pain. Pelvic examination reveals no abnormalities. She reports insomnia, loss of appetite, and decreased libido. The patient once considered evaluation for infertility but now does not desire childbearing. She has had three laparoscopic procedures in the last 18 months that showed minmal peritoneal adhesions, with no change in the pain. Appropriate management of this includes a: repeat diagnostic laparoscopy b: barium enema, intravenous pyelography, and plevic ultrasonography c: presacral neurectomy d: transabdominal hysterectomy and bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy e: psychological counseling with antidepressant therapy 13: A 63-year-old woman with 6 months of early satiety and increased abdominal girth has an abdominal fluid wave and a palpable 12 cm nodular right adnexal mass. The next BEST step would be for her to obtain a: a diagnostic laparoscopy b: a staging laparotomy and debulking for her presumed ovarian cancer c: a CT scan to get the exact dimensions of the mass d: chemotherapy e: an ultrasonography to determine if the mass is cystic or solid 14: A 42-year-old woman, G2P2, who had a laparoscopic tubal fulguration 7 years ago, has abnormal uterine bleeding. Her menstrual cycle has been 28-30 days with a menstrual flow of 5-6 days. During the last 6 months, the interval has varied from 14 to 35 days and the menstrual flow has lasted from 1 to 14 days. The uterus is irregular and firm and consistent in size with an 8-week gestation. Both ovaries are palpably normal in size. Urine pregnancy test is negative. The most appropriate next step in management is a: endometrial sampling b: laparoscopy c: transabdominal ultrasonography d: pelvic CT e: hysteroscopy 15: A 19-year-old primigravid woman is seen because of vaginal bleeding. Her LMP was about 11 weeks ago; the vagina contains a small amount of dark blood and the cervix is long and closed. The uterus is enlarged and not tender. A pelvic ultrasonography demonstrates an intrauterine gestational sac but no fetal pole is identified. The patient is distraught but declines surgical management. Of the following, the most appropriate management of this patient's condition is a: combination oral contraceptive pills b: methotrexate intramuscular injection c: depot medroxyprogesterone acetate d: oral broad-spectrum antibiotic thearpy e: mifepristone pills and vaginal misoprostol ANS: [cddbc eaecc beaae] Chapter 4 Assessing Adolescent Women’s Health Renee Sieving, Sarah Stoddard, Deborah A. Raines 1. The teen birthrate is highest among which major racial or ethnic group? A. Latinos B. African Americans C. Whites D. Asians Answer: A 2. What percentage of the U.S. population was 10 to 19 years old in 2014? A. 14% B. 19% C. 24% D. 29% Answer: A 3. Which of the following are examples of protective factors for adolescents? (Select all that apply.) A. Bonds with friends and family B. Physical inactivity C. A school’s high expectations of students D. Risky sexual behaviors E. Opportunities for youth participation in the community Answer: A, C, E 4. Rachel is a talkative, open 13-year-old who is in for a physical exam today by herself. In talking with Rachel, the nurse should recognize which of the following as characteristics typical of this stage of development? (Select all that apply.) A. Criticism of her parents B. Acceptance of the physical changes of puberty C. Mood swings D. Sexual feelings emerging E. Transition to adulthood Answer: A, C, D 5. Lydia is a teenager who is in the process of researching college programs. She thinks she would like to be a lawyer. She is also searching for a summer job to save up to buy a car. Which stage of development is Lydia most likely in? A. Preadolescence B. Early adolescence C. Middle adolescence D. Late adolescence Answer: D 6. Yancy is a 14-year-old with Down syndrome. She, like many teens with disabilities, is at an increased risk of having which chronic condition? A. Epilepsy B. Obesity C. Heart disease D. Arthritis Answer: B 7. Brooke is a 17-year-old who is questioning both her sexual orientation and her gender. She says she has begun exploring these but that her parents do not know. Brooke is at an increased risk of experiencing which of the following? (Select all that apply.) A. Obesity B. Family violence C. Homelessness D. Substance abuse E. Suicidality Answer: B, C, D, E 8. Rose is a 14-year-old refugee from Nigeria who recently came to the United States. Being a foreign born, which of the following is Rose more likely to do than her native-born classmates? A. Exercise B. Succeed academically C. Eat meals with her family D. Develop positive peer relationships Answer: C 9. Destiny is an outgoing, fun-loving 13-year-old who has developed a strong network of friends at school. These positive relationships make it more likely that Destiny will experience which of the following? (Select all that apply.) A. Academic achievement B. A healthy diet C. Reduced substance abuse D. Improved mental health E. Lack of peer conflict Answer: A, C, D 10. During an office visit, Jordan, a 16-year-old patient, asks her nurse if she can share something in confidence. The nurse affirms, but adds that there were a few disclosures that would legally require breaking confidentiality. Which of the following are issues the nurse would be obligated to report? (Select all that apply.) A. Sexual activity B. Intent to self-harm C. Evidence of abuse D. Gender questioning E. Religious doubts Answer: B, C 11. What percentage of adolescents were covered by health insurance in 2013? A. 48% B. 63% C. 78% D. 93% Answer: D 12. A nurse is having trouble communicating with her teenaged client, Enid, who is disengaged and sullen. What approach would most likely be effective in helping the nurse engage with Enid? A. Giving some concrete goals to Enid for her to pursue B. Asking Enid’s mother to join them C. Using motivational interviewing with Enid D. Reminding Enid of the consequences of noncompliance Answer: C 13. Nadia is a 13-year-old who is in for her first reproductive health visit. She reports having no special concerns and appears healthy. Which of the following is most important for the nurse to do in this visit? A. A Pap exam B. An internal pelvic exam C. An assessment of menstrual issues D. A mammogram Answer: C 14. In a 2013 survey of the Youth Risk Behavior Surveillance System, what percentage of high school females reported drinking more than five drinks in a row on at least 1 day in the 30 days before the survey? A. 16.1% B. 21.1% C. 26.1% D. 31.1% Answer: B 15. A nurse needs to assess an adolescent client’s level of sexual development. Which diagnostic tool should the nurse use? A. Tanner staging B. CRAFFT screening C. Motivational interviewing D. Mini-Cog assessment Answer: A Chapter 5 Assessing Adult Women’s Health Diane Marie Schadewald, Catherine Juve, Ellis Quinn Youngkin, Marcia Szmania Davis 1. Midlife is commonly defined by which of the following ways? (Select all that apply.) A. Age B. Proximity to menopause C. Degree of children’s independence D. Level of cognitive function E. Women’s self-perception of age Answer: A, B, C, E 2. Vivian is an 80-year-old patient who is reminiscing about her own midlife with her nurse, who has just entered midlife. Given her age, Vivian is most likely to identify which of the following as having been a primary source of meaning during her midlife? A. Her career B. Her family C. Her friends D. Her artistic accomplishments Answer: B 3. Which of the following is the definition of menopause currently used in the health sciences? A. The date of onset of menopause-related symptoms B. The cessation of menses, defined as the end of the final menstrual period C. The cessation of menses, defined as 1 year after the final menstrual period D. The date of the last menopause-related symptom Answer: C 4. Women of which U.S. ethnic group are most likely to describe menopause as “something you have to go through” and to view it as a time to reorient and restructure their lives? A. African Americans B. Japanese Americans C. European Americans D. Urban Latinas Answer: D 5. Which of the following endocrine changes are typical during the last 2 years before the final menstrual period? (Select all that apply.) A. Increased testosterone levels B. Decreased antral follicle count C. Increased follicle-stimulating hormone levels D. Decreased progesterone levels E. Increased estradiol levels Answer: B, C, D 6. Sleep disruption, a common symptom during the menopausal transition, is most often associated with which other perimenopausal symptom? A. Hot flashes B. Decline in memory C. Back pain D. Depressed mood Answer: A 7. Which of the following are common symptoms during the menopausal transition? (Select all that apply.) A. Difficulty concentrating B. Urinary incontinence C. Vaginal dryness D. Increased sexual desire E. Nausea and vomiting Answer: A, B, C 8. Which of the following statements is most accurate concerning symptoms of the menopausal transition? A. Almost all women experience the same set of symptoms, known as menopausal syndrome. B. Almost all women experience hot flashes, but other symptoms are too variable to predict. C. Symptoms experienced appear to vary from culture to culture, and thus may be culture bound. D. Symptoms are completely random, demonstrating no predictable patterns. Answer: C 9. Which of the following accurately describes metabolic changes in bone, muscle, and fat that typically occur in the menopausal transition? A. Increases in bone, muscle, and fat mass B. Decreases in bone, muscle, and fat mass C. Increases in muscle and fat mass but a decrease in bone mass D. Decreases in bone and muscle mass but an increase in fat mass Answer: D 10. Which of the following are characteristics of metabolic syndrome? (Select all that apply.) A. Increased lipid levels B. Insulin resistance C. Decreased inflammatory response D. Increased risk of thrombosis E. Increased blood pressure Answer: A, B, D, E 11. The nurse is reviewing assessment and lab results of a patient at risk for metabolic syndrome. Which of the following findings are consistent with metabolic syndrome? (Select all that apply.) A. Waist circumference of 37 inches B. Body mass index (BMI) of 23 C. Blood pressure of 138/86 mmHg D. Fasting blood glucose level of 99 mg/dL E. Triglycerides level of 161 mg/dL Answer: A, C, E 12. Patricia is a 50-year-old woman with a body mass index (BMI) of 31 and elevated lipid levels. Which of the following changes would you recommend to promote Patricia’s health? A. Exercise 60 to 90 minutes per day at moderate intensity, most days B. Limit alcohol intake to no more than two drinks per day C. Take omega-3 fatty acid supplements D. No smoking or use of tobacco E. Reduce waist circumference to less than 40 inches Answer: A, C, D 13. Lorraine is a 46-year-old woman who has a body mass index (BMI) of 21 and who is generally healthy. Based on current recommendations by the National Institutes of Health (NIH), what exercise program would you suggest to Lorraine to maintain her current level of fitness? A. None—she is already maintaining her fitness level B. 20 minutes of light-intensity exercise per day, 3 days per week C. 30 minutes of moderate-intensity exercise per day, 5 days per week D. 60 minutes of heavy-intensity exercise per day, 6 days per week Answer: C 14. Isadora is a 49-year-old woman with a body mass index (BMI) of 18 and a family history of osteoporosis. Which of the following health promotion recommendations specifically related to preventing osteoporosis should the nurse give to Isadora? (Select all that apply.) A. Take aspirin daily B. Include plenty of calcium in the diet C. Consume foods fortified with vitamin D D. Limit sodium intake E. Engage in weight-bearing exercise Answer: B, C, E 15. How much more likely are women to be diagnosed with depression in their lifetime than men? A. 60% B. 70% C. 80% D. 90% Answer: B Chapter 6 Assessing Older Women’s Health Debra Hain 1. How many people in the United States were 65 years or older in 2010? A. 3.1 million B. 20.5 million C. 40.3 million D. 83.7 million Answer: C 2. What percentage of those 85 years and older in the United States in 2010 were women? A. 47% B. 57% C. 67% D. 77% Answer: C 3. What percentage of women 85 years and older in the United States in 2010 were widowed? A. 35% B. 52% C. 73% D. 91% Answer: C 4. Compared with older men, older women are: (Select all that apply.) A. More prepared to retire B. Less likely to retire at retirement age C. More likely to have a retirement pension from their employer D. Less likely to report being satisfied in retirement E. More likely to live alone Answer: B, D, E 5. In 2030, which of the following is the percentage of the older population (65 years or older) that is projected to be White? A. 47% B. 54% C. 67% D. 74% Answer: A 6. Which of the following cognition-related capacities typically decline with normal aging? (Select all that apply.) A. Motivation B. Short- and long-term memory C. Knowledge D. Learning E. Wisdom Answer: A, B, D 7. Daisy, a 77-year-old client, reports a gradual and slight loss of hearing, especially for higher pitched tones. The nurse should recognize this condition as which of the following? A. Presbyopia B. Presbycusis C. Age-related macular degeneration D. Otitis media Answer: B 8. What percentage of cancers are diagnosed at age 55 years or older? A. 55% B. 65% C. 75% D. 85% Answer: C 9. Which of the following is the leading cause of cancer death in women? A. Breast cancer B. Lung cancer C. Colorectal cancer D. Pancreatic cancer Answer: B 10. Mamie is a 76-year-old client who is suspected of having Alzheimer’s disease. To confirm this suspicion, the nurse should look for impairment in which of the following mental functions? (Select all that apply.) A. Visual acuity B. Memory C. Language D. Attention E. Ability to reason Answer: B, C, D, E 11. A phenotype of positive aging that has been described in older women is focused on which of the following? (Select all that apply.) A. Presence of chronic disease B. Physical functioning C. Presence of a disability D. Social functioning E. Emotional functioning Answer: B, D, E 12. Which of the following are the benefits associated with weight-bearing aerobic exercise in older women? (Select all that apply.) A. Decreased risk for breast cancer B. Increased bone density C. Reversal of Alzheimer’s disease symptoms D. Improved balance E. Improved insulin resistance Answer: B, D, E 13. Opal, who is 82 years old, would like information on vaccinations recommended for clients of her age. Which of the following should the nurse recommend? (Select all that apply.) A. Annual influenza B. Human papillomavirus C. Onetime pneumococcal D. Hepatitis B E. Herpes zoster Answer: A, C, E 14. What percentage of community-dwelling older adults take at least five prescription medications? A. 29% B. 39% C. 49% D. 59% Answer: A II Promotion of Wellness for Women Chapter 7 Women and Sexuality Catherine Ingram Fogel, Diane Marie Schadewald 1. Which of the following are dimensions of sexuality? (Select all that apply.) A. Sexual desire B. Sexual identity C. Neurologic stimulation therapy D. Estrogen therapy Answer: B 6. Which treatment for pelvic organ prolapse involves a prescriptive medical device that combines Kegel exercises and noninvasive electrical stimulation via biphasic wave forms to stimulate pelvic nerves to enhance contractile response? A. Intone B. Percutaneous tibia nerve simulation C. Pessary therapy D. Pelvic floor muscle therapy Answer: A 7. Which of the following symptoms are associated with painful bladdersyndrome/interstitial cystitis? (Select all that apply.) A. Urinary retention B. Urethral pain C. Sensation of organs descending into the vagina D. Urinary urgency E. Nocturia Answer: B, D, E 8. Which of the following is typically the cause of urinary frequency in clients with painful bladder syndrome/interstitial cystitis? A. Fear of urinary urge incontinence B. Anxiety over developing a urinary tract infection C. Desire to relieve pain by voiding D. Sensation of urinary retention Answer: C 9. Tiffany, a client suspected of having painful bladder syndrome/interstitial cystitis, has been found to have hematuria. Tiffany has a history of surgical mesh augmentation for the correction of an anterior pelvic defect. Which diagnostic test would be best to rule out an alternative condition in this client? A. Potassium sensitivity test B. Symptom scale C. Blood glucose level D. Cystoscopy with hydrodistention Answer: D 10. Isabelle is suspected of having painful bladder syndrome/interstitial cystitis as a result of a neurological hypersensitivity. Given the suspected etiology in this case, which treatment would be most appropriate for Isabelle? A. Pentosan polysulfate sodium B. Amitriptyline C. Montelukast D. Cyclosporine A Answer: B 11. Valerie is suspected of having painful bladder syndrome/interstitial cystitis as a result of a body-wall abnormality. Given the suspected etiology in this case, which treatment would be most appropriate for Valerie? A. Physical therapy B. Pessary therapy C. Electrical stimulation therapy D. Behavioral therapy Answer: A 12. Kelly is suspected of having painful bladder syndrome/interstitial cystitis as a result of a mast-cell response. Given the suspected etiology in this case, which treatment would be most appropriate for Valerie? A. Pentosan polysulfate sodium B. Amitriptyline C. Montelukast D. Cyclosporine A Answer: C 13. Which of the following are common symptoms of cystitis? (Select all that apply.) A. Low back pain B. Frequent urge to urinate C. An inability to urinate due to obstruction D. A sensation of burning during urination E. Pain with sitting or walking Answer: B, D 14. Which of the following ones typically causes cystitis? A. A defect in the connective tissue supporting the bladder B. Bacteria entering the bladder via the urethra C. An urothelial abnormality D. A virus entering the uterus via the cervix Answer: B 15. What percentage of women older than 55 years experience a recurrence of a urinary tract infection within a year? A. 33% B. 43% C. 53% D. 63% Answer: C Chapter 25 Psychosocial Health Concerns Ann Bateman,Eugenia Zelanko 1. Which of the following is the best definition for mental health, according to an emerging consensus from research findings? A. Absence of psychiatric symptoms B. Well-being C. Happiness D. Self-realization Answer: B 2. The eudaemonic approach to well-being concerns which of the following? A. Happiness and life satisfaction B. Financial and material security C. Physical fitness and health D. Self-realization and meaning Answer: D 3. Phyllis is 55-year-old client who works as a real estate agent while caring for her three teenaged children and her elderly father. Based on Erikson’s theory of psychosocial development, which of the following is the developmental crisis Phyllis faces? A. Intimacy versus isolation B. Integrity versus despair C. Generativity versus stagnation D. Identity versus confusion Answer: C 4. Anwara is a 78-year-old client whose husband died 2 years ago. Her daughter and son-in-law, who live in another state, are urging her to relocate to their area, but Anwara is reluctant to leave the community she has lived in for over 30 years. Based on Erikson’s theory of psychosocial development, which of the following is the developmental crisis Anwara faces? A. Intimacy versus isolation B. Integrity versus despair C. Generativity versus stagnation D. Identity versus confusion Answer: B 5. Keiko is a 32-year-old client who recently graduated from medical school and began a residency in neurosurgery. She loves the career she is embarking on but is single and often feels lonely. Based on Erikson’s theory of psychosocial development, which of the following is the developmental crisis Keiko faces? A. Intimacy versus isolation B. Integrity versus despair C. Generativity versus stagnation D. Identity versus confusion Answer: A 6. Which of the following living arrangements is most characteristic of individuals in the phase of psychosocial development known as emerging adulthood? A. Living independently in a single-family home B. Changing places of residence frequently C. Living with a roommate in an apartment D. Cohabiting with a life partner Answer: B 7. Anna is a 23-year-old client who operates her own pastry business. Based on her phase of psychosocial development, Anna is most likely concerned with establishing commitments in which of the following? (Select all that apply.) A. Political party identification B. Caregiving to a spouse or parent C. Religious beliefs D. Love relationships E. Leaving a legacy to the next generation Answer: A, C, D 8. Olivia is a junior in college who is struggling to decide on a major. She had been an education major because her grandmother, mother, and aunt were all teachers, and she looks up to them. But after taking some introductory-level classes in education, she decided it was just not for her. Now she feels like she is back to square one, and is considering everything from engineering to photography. What is Olivia’s current status related to the process of identity formation? A. Identity diffusion B. Foreclosure C. Moratorium D. Identity achievement Answer: C 9. Lulu is a 30-year-old client who recently gave birth to a son. Lulu is passionate about the benefits of breastfeeding and has spent many hours researching lactation, approaches to breastfeeding, and breast pumps. Which developmental change is Lulu demonstrating? A. Cognitive and emotional development B. Emotional changes and maturation C. Shift in quality of being D. Personal agency Answer: D 10. Maia is a 47-year-old client who in recent years has become a committed conservationist and is determined to protect the existence of open lands and wildlife in her region so that her children and later generations can enjoy the beautiful landscapes she grew with. Maia is demonstrating which quality? A. Generativity B. Integrity C. Autonomy D. Identity Answer: A 11. Denae is a 50-year-old client who identifies herself as a member of a religion primarily because she grew up in a family and a community that was committed to this belief system. She has never really explored other belief systems and finds it difficult to explain why she has adopted her religion. Which process of forming a spiritual identity has Denae most likely chosen? A. Diffused B. Foreclosed C. Achieved D. Moratorium Answer: B 12. Nancy is a 47-year-old client who has worked as a stay-at-home mom for the past 20 years, caring for her three children. As her youngest approaches her senior year in high school, Nancy fears empty nest syndrome. What actions can she take to ease the transition to the postparental period? (Select all that apply.) A. Volunteer with her church’s ministry to the homeless B. Take classes at a local community college in preparation for starting her own business C. Encourage her daughter to stay home and attend college locally D. Take voice lessons with the goal of auditioning for a local choral group E. Adopt a child from another country Answer: A, B, D 13. Gertrude is an 85-year-old client who lives in a long-term care facility. Whenever her grandson visits her, she delights in telling stories about her performances as an actress on the stage decades ago and, occasionally, about her regrets related to a failed marriage. Gertrude is engaging in which developmental process? A. Identity exploration B. Social avoidance C. Life review D. Normative transition Answer: C 14. Sophia is a 78-year-old client who is always upbeat and full of stories about all the accomplishments of her children and grandchildren. It always seems as if everything goes well with her and her family and that she never experiences any disappointments or regrets, although you are aware that one of her children recently divorced and a grandson has been incarcerated. Which integrity status is most appropriate for Sophia? A. Integrated B. Pseudointegrated C. Nonexploratory D. Despairing Answer: B 15. Maggie is a 67-year-old client who will be retiring in 6 months from the law practice she founded 30 years ago. She is currently training one of her colleagues to take over her clients and run the practice after she retires. This strategy for smoothing the transition to retirement is known as which of the following? A. Instrumental support B. Identity consolidation C. Life review D. Succession planning Answer: D Chapter 26 Substance Use Disorders and Women Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. Poor impulse control, rapid speech, and hypertension are most characteristic of abusing which substance? A. Alcohol B. Heroin C. Cocaine D. LSD 2. A new patient with a history of alcoholism is in the ER with agitation, vomiting, and tremors. She tells you he had his last drink 24 hours ago. Which medication would most likely be ordered? A. Chlordiazepoxide B. Disulfiram C. Chlorpromazine D. Naloxone hydrochloride 3. Your patient has a long history of alcohol abuse. You know that denial is a frequently used defense mechanism. Which statement is indicative of denial? A. My father was a drinker so I guess that led me to this. B. I can stop anytime I want, I just dont feel like it now. C. Drinking calms my nerves. D. I drink when my kids upset me. 4. Which of the following statements from an alcoholic patient reflects a good understanding of her condition? A. I will stick to wine or beer from now on. B. Ill be OK if my wife will just stop nagging me. C. I plan to take my sobriety 1 day at a time. D. I wont need AA after I am sober for 1 year. 5. Your 42-year-old patient in the alcohol treatment unit tells you she often cant remember events while she was drinking. What is this most likely an example of? A. Denial B. Blackouts C. Psychosis D. Depression 6. A teenager admits to you that she has been smoking marijuana. The nurse knows that marijuana is a(n): A. Cannabinol. B. Amphetamine. C. Hallucinogen. D. Narcotic. 7. Which drug cannot be given if the patient reports alcohol intake in the last 24 hours? A. Chlorpromazine B. Chlordiazepoxide C. Disulfiram D. Risperidone 8. Your patient in the ER waiting room is inebriated. She becomes increasingly loud and abusive while waiting to be seen. What would be the best intervention for the nurse? A. Tell him he has to wait his turn, as others were here first. B. Inform him he will be asked to leave if this behavior continues. C. Offer to take him to an exam room to wait for the doctor. D. Do nothing, as he is still in the waiting room. 9. Your patient tells you her husband has a serious drinking problem. Which statement tells you she may be in a codependent relationship? A. Ive reached my limit with his drinking. B. I called his job and told them he was sick when he couldnt go to work. C. The kids are ashamed of their father. I feel bad about that. D. He is drinking less this week. 10. What should be your response to the wife who says, I should get out of this bad situation with his drinking? A. That happened to me. Its best to get out while you can. B. Tell me more about the bad situation. C. Why dont you talk to your husband about his drinking? D. Youll do whats right. 11. Your new patient is at risk for alcohol withdrawal. You know that alcohol withdrawal tends to develop within what period after the last drink? A. 1 week B. 24 to 48 hours C. 1 hour D. More than 1 week 12. The wife of your alcoholic patient has been attending Al-Anon meetings for the past 2 weeks. Which statement tells you the wife is benefitting from the meetings? A. I can tolerate his destructive behavior now that I see how bad other women have it. B. I realize that I provoke his drinking when I go out with my friends. C. I no longer feel that I have to tolerate his berating me. D. It is great to get out of the house and away from the tension. 13. Which of the following are signs of withdrawal from heroin? A. Insomnia, muscle cramps, vomiting B. Excessive sleeping, low blood pressure, depression C. Seizures, brain damage, excessive sleeping D. Lethargy, panic disorder, increased appetite 14. Ms. Thomas, who is 50 years old, is being treated for pneumonia and dehydration. She has a history of alcoholism and admits to starting to drink heavily again. She tells you, Im a horrible person. My family deserves someone better than me to care for them. Your most therapeutic response to him is: It sounds as though you are feeling guilty about drinking, Ms. Thomas. Tell me more about A. what you mean by that. B. Why do you say that, Ms. Thomas? C. Im sure that your family is satisfied, Ms. Thomas. D. Your drinking doesnt sound that serious. 15. You are caring for a patient who has a long history of alcohol abuse. Recently, this patient went on a 5-day drinking binge, of which she has no memory. This is an example of: A. Selective memory. B. Wernickes syndrome. C. Blackout. D. Denial. 16. Nurses understand that in people who are addicted to alcohol, the person who is most responsible for the patients recovery is the: A. Psychiatrist. B. Nurse. C. AA sponsor. D. Patient. 17. You are socializing with a group of nurses who you work with on a routine basis. Terri is getting very loud and tells you that she usually has six or eight beers most evenings. She is defensive about your reaction to the amount of alcohol she consumes. She says, I have days where I cant remember what happened the night before, sure, but only once in a while. If you were Terris friend, the best action you could suggest to her would be: A. Maybe you should stop at four beers, Terri. B. I wont tell your husband what you told me. It sounds to me like your drinking is getting out of control. I cant continue to socialize with C. you if you continue to drink this much. D. Terri, I will call AA for you when you are ready. 18. Randi is a young model. She had been taking high doses of amphetamines to keep her weight down. She recently decided to cut back on the drugs and she is now experiencing amphetamine withdrawal. She presented to the clinic with which of the following sets of symptoms of amphetamine withdrawal? A. Chest pain, palpitations, and diaphoresis B. Depression, vivid dreams, and confusion C. Euphoria, hyperactivity, and hyperalertness D. Diaphoresis, clammy palms, and diarrhea 19. A young adult arrives in the after-hours clinic with dilated pupils, an elevated heart rate, extreme sensitivity to sounds around her, sense of being outside of his body, and fine tremors of the hands. The patient admits to recent use of an illegal street drug. As the nurse collecting this data, you suspect: A. LSD. B. Crack cocaine. C. Amphetamines. D. Downers. 20. Alcohol is a(n): A. Central nervous system (CNS) stimulant. B. CNS depressant. C. Antipsychotic. D. Antidepressant. 21. You are caring for a female patient who is a long-term alcoholic. She screams, Get the bugs off of my skin. I feel them all over my body! Get them off! She is experiencing what type of hallucination? A. Auditory B. Visual C. Taste D. Tactile 22. A 35-year-old female patient signs in as a voluntary commitment for treatment for drug abuse. She strongly maintains that he does not have a problem and states, Im only here because my boss threatened to fire me if I didnt come in. The best nursing response to this patient is: A. I wonder why your boss said that, if you dont have a problem. B. What happened that your boss threatened to fire you? C. Your boss sounds pretty harsh! D. Well, you are here on your own, so you can leave whenever you want to. 23. A patient has completed treatment for alcoholism. If treatment was successful, a nurse might expect which of the following outcome statements from this patient upon discharge? A. Now, if my family will just be good, I wont be back! B. I just know I can have an occasional drink and be fine. I know how to handle it now. C. I realize that Alcoholics Anonymous will always be a requirement. I am responsible for my own sobriety. D. I am so glad I found out what my problem is. I am cured now! 24. Which of the following is a club drug? A. Rohypnal B. Crack C. Placidyl D. Angel dust Completion Complete each statement. 25. You are completing the discharge plan for an alcoholic patient. Which support group should be included in the plan? Multiple Response Identify one or more choices that best complete the statement or answer the question. 26. You find out that your schizophrenic patient is also using opioids to counteract the frightening hallucinations. What term(s) is used to describe this? (Select all that apply) A. Dual diagnosis B. Bipolar schizophrenia C. Co-occurring disorder D. Opioid-related schizophrenia E. Schizophrenia: Addiction type 27. Which of the following are true about Alcoholics Anonymous? (Select all that apply) A. A physician referral is needed. B. Family and friends are encouraged to attend the regular meetings with the alcoholic. C. No last names are used at the meetings. D. The group for family members is Al-Anon. E. Offshoots such as Narcotics Anonymous follow a different philosophy. F. The individual is encouraged to admit he or she is powerless over alcohol. Answer Section MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. ANS: C These three symptoms are common with a stimulant such as cocaine. They could occur with the other substances but are not the hallmark symptoms. 2. ANS: A This medication is often initially used to treat alcohol withdrawal symptoms. Response B is a treatment for alcoholism not withdrawal. Response C is an antipsychotic and response D is used in opioid addiction. PTS: 1 3. ANS: B This response indicates the person is minimizing or not acknowledging that she has a problem. In the other responses the patient is acknowledging drinking but rationalizing the causes. 4. ANS: C Responses A, B, and D all reinforce use of ineffective defense mechanisms, including denial, rationalization, and minimization. Response C reflects understanding of the disease as a lifelong struggle. PTS: 1 5. ANS: B Blackouts are gaps in memory that are symptomatic of advanced alcoholism. 6. ANS: A Marijuana is a cannabinol. It is not a narcotic or an amphetamine. 7. ANS: C Disulfiram (Antabuse) is used to treat alcoholism by producing severe adverse effects in the presence of alcohol. Responses A and D are antipsychotics, and response B is an antianxiety medication used to treat alcohol withdrawal. 8. ANS: C This response supports a safe environment for this patient, the other patients, visitors, and staff. Ignoring him will escalate the situation. Because her judgment is impaired, trying to reason with her will be unsuccessful. 9. ANS: B This response shows that the wife is covering for her husband so he doesnt have to take responsibility for his actions. Response D is more denial. Responses A and C are indications of facing the reality of this situation. PTS: 1 10. ANS: B Supporting problem solving and helping her express herself is most important. Response A is advice giving, which is not appropriate. You dont have enough information to know if response C or D is correct. 11. ANS: B Withdrawal symptoms in a heavy drinker generally begin within 24 to 48 hours after the last drink, although they can occur as early as 8 hours after the last drink. 12. ANS: C This is the healthiest response that she is not accepting a victim role. In response A she continues to accept his bad behavior. In response B she is taking responsibility for his drinking, which is codependent. Response D views the meetings as escape rather than a place to work on issues. 13. ANS: A These are classic symptoms along with irritability, rhinorrhea, and chills. 14. ANS: A Response A is an open-ended statement to help her identify her feelings and encourage further exploration. Response B asks for him to understand why he feels this way and he may not know. Responses C and D reinforce denial. 15. ANS: C Blackouts are indications of advanced alcoholism when the person has no memory of recent events. 16. ANS: D Taking personal responsibility for the misuse of alcohol and the distress it has caused others is key to beginning recovery. It is the basis of Alcoholics Anonymous. Blaming others for ones problem may be an initial coping mechanism. PTS: 1 17. ANS: C Response C is reality based and avoids any enabling behavior that reinforce/support her drinking. The other responses are enabling. 18. ANS: B Withdrawal symptoms also include insomnia and lethargy. 19. ANS: A Hallucinogenics like LSD produce a sense of enhanced perception of the environment, which can contribute to a sense of depersonalization and panic. 20. ANS: B Though the initial reaction may be more like a stimulant, it is a CNS depressant. 21. ANS: D Tactile hallucinations are false perceptions of the sense of touch that often are described as something crawling on or under ones skin. Tactile hallucinations can occur as part of delirium tremens from long-term alcohol use and withdrawal. PTS: 1 22. ANS: B This response asks the patient to focus on reality rather than blaming others. This is the best response to challenge the probable denial. 23. ANS: C This response indicates the patient understands his or her personal responsibility to stay sober. The other responses show a lack of understanding that alcoholism is a lifelong disorder and that it is not caused by family problems. 24. ANS: A Rohypnal along with Ecstasy create disinhibition and amnesia. PTS: 1 COMPLETION 25. ANS: Alcoholics Anonymous Alcoholics Anonymous is the most accepted support group widely available throughout the world. PTS: 1 MULTIPLE RESPONSE 26. ANS: A, C Dual diagnosis, also known as co-occurring disorder, is very common in people with psychiatric disorders who self-medicate for uncomfortable symptoms. 27. ANS: C, D, F One of the strengths of this program is its anonymity, so last names are never used and meetings are closed. Admitting powerlessness over the substance abused is key to making progress [Show More]

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