NR 283 exam 1- patho (GRADED A) Question and Answer Solutions | (UPDATED)

Document Content and Description Below

Chapter 20: Neoplasms and Cancer My Nursing Test Banks Chapter 20: Neoplasms and Cancer Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. What is a benign neoplasm originating from adipose tissue called? a. Aden... oma b. Lipoma c. Fibrosarcoma d. Adenocarcinoma ANS: B REF: 550 2. What are malignant neoplasms arising from connective tissue cells called? a.Carcinomas b.Sarcomas c.Melanomas d.Fibromas ANS: B REF: 550 3. Which of the following is a characteristic of a benign tumor? a. It is unencapsulated and invasive. b. It consists of undifferentiated cells. c. It exerts systemic effects. d.Cells appear relatively normal. ANS: D REF: 550 4. Which factor provides the basis for the grading of newly diagnosed malignant tumors? a. Size of the tumor b.Number of metastases c.Degree of differentiation of the cells d.Number of lymph nodes involved ANS: C REF: 551 5. A warning sign of possible cancer would be any of the following EXCEPT: a.persistent, unusual bleeding. b.a change in bowel habits. c.sudden development of fever, nausea, and diarrhea. d.a change in shape, color, or surface of a skin lesion. ANS: C REF: 552 6. The common local effects of an expanding tumor mass include: 1. obstruction of a tube or duct. 2. anemia and weight loss. 3. cell necrosis and ulceration. 4. tumor markers in the circulation. a.1, 2 b.1, 3 c.2, 4 d.3, 4 ANS: B REF: 552 7. Which of the following does paraneoplastic syndrome refer to? a.The effects of substances such as hormones secreted by the tumor cells b.Severe weight loss and cachexia associated with advanced cancer c.The decreased resistance to infection resulting from malignant tumors d.The effects of multiple metastatic tumors ANS: A REF: 553 8. Which term refers to the spread of malignant cells through blood and lymph to distant sites? a. Invasiveness b.Seeding c.Metastasis d.Systemic effect ANS: C REF: 554 9. One reason for staging a malignant tumor at the time of diagnosis is to: a. identify the original cell from which the tumor developed. b.locate and identify the primary tumor. c.decide the initiating factor for a particular tumor. d.determine the best treatment and prognosis. ANS: D REF: 556 10. The process of carcinogenesis usually begins with: a.exposure to promoters causing dysplasia. b.development of defective genes. c.an irreversible change in the cell DNA. d.a single exposure to a known risk factor causing temporary cell damage. ANS: C REF: 557 11. What would be an external source of ionizing radiation? a.A needle containing a radioisotope implanted beside the tumor b.Gamma rays delivered by a cobalt machine c.A dose of a radioactive drug to be ingested d.A fluid containing radioactive material instilled in a body cavity ANS: B REF: 560 12. Radiation therapy destroys: a.all cells in the tumor at one time. b.the cells in the center of the tumor. c.primarily rapidly dividing cells. d.radioresistant cells. ANS: C REF: 560 13. The most critical adverse effects of chemotherapy and radiation therapy are: a.thrombocytopenia and leucopenia. b.headache and lethargy. c.nausea and constipation. d.alopecia and weight loss. ANS: A REF: 567 14. Chemotherapy usually involves a combination of drugs in order to: 1. reduce the adverse effects. 2. guarantee that all cancer cells are destroyed. 3. be effective in more phases of the cell cycle. 4. totally block the mitotic stage. a.1, 3 b.1, 4 c.2, 3 d.3, 4 ANS: A REF: 561 15. Why does ovarian cancer have a poor prognosis? a.The ovaries are inaccessible for examination. b.Specific signs rarely appear until after secondary tumors have developed. c.The same tumor markers are present with many types of cancer. d.No effective treatment is available. ANS: B REF: 565 16. Select the correct pair representing a malignant tumor and its marker: a.colon cancer: carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) b.hepatic cancer: CA125, AFP c.prostate cancer: human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) d.testicular cancer: Philadelphia chromosome ANS: A REF: 553 17. Antiangiogenesis drugs act on a malignant tumor by: a.promoting the immune response and removal of abnormal tumor cells. b.blocking hormonal stimulation of tumor cells. c.reducing blood flow and nutrient supply to tumor cells. d.transporting radioisotopes into the tumor. ANS: C REF: 563 18. The development of neutropenia during chemotherapy for cancer means: a.the cancer cells are being destroyed quickly. b.the patient is likely to hemorrhage. c.higher doses of chemotherapy could be tolerated by this patient. d.the patient is at high risk for infection. ANS: D REF: 562 19. Malignant brain tumors: a.metastasize quickly to all parts of the body. b.spread first to lungs and bone. c.spread to other parts of CNS. d.do not metastasize anywhere at any time. ANS: C REF: 565-566 20. Identify the common dose-limiting factor for chemotherapy: a.Alopecia b.Bone marrow depression c.Nausea and vomiting d.Weight loss ANS: B REF: 562 21. Glucocorticoids are often prescribed during a course of chemotherapy and radiation because: a.glucocorticoids greatly potentiate the effect of chemotherapy. b.the immune system is stimulated. c.skeletal muscle atrophy will be decreased. d.inflammation around the tumor may be reduced. ANS: D REF: 563 22. Vomiting frequently follows a chemotherapy treatment because: a.the gastrointestinal tract is irritated. b.the chemicals stimulate the emetic center. c.the drugs have an unpleasant odor. d.A and B ANS: D REF: 562 23. What type of normal cells are often damaged during chemotherapy and radiation treatments? a.Epithelial cells b.Skeletal muscle cells c.Nerve tissue d.Collagen and fibrous tissue ANS: A REF: 561 24. Remission for cancer is generally defined as a period in which: a.chemotherapy cannot be used. b.signs and symptoms are absent. c.complications are evident. d.metastases occur. ANS: B REF: 564 25. All of the following are correct statements about skin cancers EXCEPT: a.They are difficult to diagnose and treat. b.They usually develop slowly on the head, neck, or back of individuals with fair skin. c.The number of skin cancer cases is increasing. d.Basal cell carcinoma is the most common form of skin cancer. ANS: A REF: 564 26. High risk factors for cancer include: 1. human papilloma virus. 2. chronic irritation and inflammation. 3. repeated sun exposure. 4. high family incidence. a.1, 3 b.3, 4 c.1, 2, 4 d.1, 2, 3, 4 ANS: D REF: 556 | 557 27. The term apoptosis refers to: a.programmed cell death. b.abnormal or immature cells. c.degree of differentiation of cells. d.the development of new capillaries in a tumor. ANS: A REF: 549 28. The warning signs for cancer include: a.unusual bleeding. b.change in a wart or mole (e.g., color). c.a new solid lump, often painless. d.All the above ANS: D REF: 552 29. A classification process that applies to a specific malignant tumor and describes the extent of the disease at a given time is called: a.seeding. b.mutation. c.staging. d.grading. ANS: C REF: 556 30. Benign tumors can often be differentiated from malignant tumors because benign tumors: a.often have systemic effects. b.contain cells showing increased mitosis and atypical rapid growth. c.are encapsulated and slow-growing. d.can metastasize or invade nearby tissue. ANS: C REF: 550 31. Benign tumors in the brain are often life-threatening because they: a.metastasize early in their development. b.create excessive pressure within the skull. c.cannot be removed. d.cause serious systemic effects. ANS: B REF: 565 32. Drugs or agents that augment the natural immune response in the body to improve identification and removal of abnormal cells are called: a.biological response modifiers. b.angiogenesis stimulators. c.analgesic complements. d.targeted receptor modifiers. ANS: A REF: 563 33. The method that can be used as an alternative to surgical removal of a tumor by using heat generated by a needle inserted into the tumor is referred to as: a.radiation therapy. b.thermolysis intervention. c.brachytherapy. d.radiofrequency ablation. ANS: D REF: 559 34. Staging systems used to classify a malignant tumor at the time of diagnosis are based on which of the following factors? a.Size of the tumor, involvement of lymph nodes, metastases b.Location of tumor, size, type of cellular abnormality c.Size, encapsulated or non-encapsulated, invasion into neighboring tissue d.Type of cellular abnormality, size of secondary tumors, location/tissue affected ANS: A REF: 556 35. One of the general effects of a malignant cancer is cachexia, which is: a.severe bleeding. b.severe tissue wasting. c.severe fatigue. d.multiple opportunistic infections. ANS: B REF: 552 FREE Chapter 01: Introduction to Pathophysiology My Nursing Test Banks Chapter 01: Introduction to Pathophysiology Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following would be the most likely cause of an iatrogenic disease? a.An inherited disorder b.A combination of specific etiological factors c.An unwanted effect of a prescribed drug d.Prolonged exposure to toxic chemicals in the environment ANS: C REF: 6 2. The manifestations of a disease are best defined as the: a.subjective feelings of discomfort during a chronic illness. b.signs and symptoms of a disease. c.factors that precipitate an acute episode of a chronic illness. d.early indicators of the prodromal stage of infection. ANS: B REF: 6 3. The best definition of the term prognosis is the: a.precipitating factors causing an acute episode. b.number of remissions to be expected during the course of a chronic illness. c.predicted outcome or likelihood of recovery from a specific disease. d.exacerbations occurring during chronic illness. ANS: C REF: 7 4. Which of the following is considered a systemic sign of disease? a.Swelling of the knee b.Fever c.Pain in the neck d.Red rash on the face ANS: B REF: 6 5. Etiology is defined as the study of the: a.causes of a disease. b.course of a disease. c.expected complications of a disease. d.manifestations of a disease. ANS: A REF: 5 6. A type of cellular adaptation in which there is a decrease in cell size is referred to as: a.hypertrophy. b.metaplasia. c.anaplasia. d.atrophy. ANS: D REF: 8 7. A change in a tissue marked by cells that vary in size and shape and show increased mitotic figures would be called: a.metaplasia. b.atrophy. c.dysplasia. d.hypertrophy. ANS: C REF: 8 8. A deficit of oxygen in the cells usually due to respiratory or circulatory problems is called: a.apoptosis. b.ischemia. c.hypertrophy. d.necrosis. ANS: B REF: 9 9. When a group of cells in the body dies, the change is called: a.ischemia. b.gangrene. c.hypoxia. d.necrosis. ANS: D REF: 10 10. Rigorous weight lifting/body building regimens may result in the skeletal muscle cells undergoing: a.hypertrophy. b.dysplasia. c.atrophy. d.regeneration. ANS: A REF: 8 11. The term cancer refers to: a.dysplasia. b.hyperplasia. c.metaplasia. d.malignant neoplasm. ANS: D REF: 9 12. To which of the following does the term apoptosis refer? a. Increased rate of mitosis by certain cells b. Ischemic damage to cells c. Liquefaction of necrotic tissue d.Preprogrammed cell self-destruction ANS: D REF: 9 13. Which of the following statements is TRUE? a.Alteration of DNA does not change cell function. b.Damaged cells may be able to repair themselves. c.All types of cells die at the same rate. d. Mild ischemia causes immediate cell death. ANS: B REF: 10 14. Caseation necrosis refers to an area where: a.cell proteins have been denatured. b.cell are liquefied by enzymes. c.dead cells form a thick cheesy substance. d.bacterial invasion has occurred. ANS: C REF: 10 15. Routine application of sun block to skin would be an example of: a.an iatrogenic cause of cancer. b.a preventive measure. c.a precipitating factor. d.a predisposing condition. ANS: B REF: 6 16. A circumstance that causes a sudden acute episode of a chronic disease to occur is termed: a.latent stage. b.predisposing factor. c.incidence. d.precipitating factor. ANS: D REF: 7 17. The term homeostasis refers to: a.the causative factors in a particular disease. b.maintenance of a stable internal environment. c.a condition that triggers an acute episode. d.a collection of signs and symptoms. ANS: B REF: 2 18. Which term is used to describe a new and secondary or additional problem that arises after the original disease has been established? a.Symptoms b.Occurrence c.Manifestations d.Complication ANS: D REF: 7 19. Pathophysiology involves the study of: a.the structure of the human body. b.the functions of various organs in the body. c.functional or structural changes resulting from disease processes. d.various cell structures and related functions. ANS: C REF: 2 20. Which of the following is the best definition of epidemiology? a.The science of tracking the occurrence and distribution of diseases b The relative number of deaths resulting from a particular disease . c.Identification of a specific disease through evaluation of signs and symptoms d The global search for emerging diseases . ANS: A REF: 7 21. Which of the following can cause cell injury or death? 1. Hypoxia 2. Exposure to excessive cold 3. Excessive pressure on a tissue 4. Chemical toxins a.1, 2 b.2, 4 c.1, 3, 4 d.1, 2, 3, 4 ANS: D REF: 9 22. All of the following are part of the Seven Steps to Health EXCEPT: a.follow cancer screening guidelines. b.use sun block agents whenever exposed. c.participate in strenuous exercise on a regular daily basis. d.choose high fiber, lower fat foods. ANS: C REF: 2 23. The term disease refers to: a.the period of recovery and return to a normal healthy state. b a deviation from the normal state of health and function. . c.the treatment measures used to promote recovery. d a basic collection of signs and symptoms. . ANS: B REF: 2 24. A collection of signs and symptoms, often affecting more than one organ or system, that usually occur together in response to a certain condition is referred to as a (an): a.acute disease. b.multiorgan disorder. c.syndrome. d.manifestation. ANS: C REF: 7 25. All of the following statements are correct about cell damage EXCEPT: a.The initial stage of cell damage often causes an alteration in metabolic reactions. b. If the factor causing the damage is removed quickly, the cell may be able to recover and return to its normal state. c. If the noxious factor remains for an extended period of time, the damage becomes irreversible and the cell dies. d. Initially, cell damage does not change cell metabolism, structure, or function. ANS: D REF: 9 26. Which of the following conditions distinguishes double blind studies used in health research? a.Neither the members of the control group or the experimental group nor the person administering the treatment knows who is receiving the experimental therapy. b.Both groups of research subjects and the person administering the treatment know who is receiving the experimental therapy. c.The research subjects do not know, but the person administering the treatment knows who is receiving placebo or standard therapy. d.Only members of the control group know they are receiving standard therapy. ANS: A REF: 3 | 4 27. If the data collected from the research process confirm that the new treatment has increased effectiveness and is safe, this is called: a.the placebo effect. b.evidence-based research. c.blind research studies. d.approval for immediate distribution. ANS: B REF: 4 28. A short-term illness that develops very quickly with perhaps a high fever or severe pain is called: a.acute. b.latent. c.chronic. d.manifestation. ANS: A REF: 6 29. The term prognosis refers to the: a.period of recovery and return to a normal state. b.expected outcome of the disease. c.mortality and morbidity rates for a given population. d.typical collection of signs and symptoms. ANS: B REF: 7 30. When prolonged ischemia occurs to an area of the heart, the resulting damage is referred to as: a.atrophy. b.liquefactive necrosis. c.apoptosis. d.infarction. ANS: D REF: 10 31. During the evaluation process for a new therapys effectiveness and safety, a double blind study may be conducted during: a.the first stage. b.the second stage. c.the third stage. d.any of these stages. ANS: C REF: 3 32. Why are the predisposing factors for a specific disease important to health professionals? a.To predict the prognosis b.To determine treatments c.To develop preventive measures d.To develop morbidity statistics ANS: C REF: 3 33. Cell damage may be caused by exogenous sources such as: a.abnormal metabolic processes. b.certain food additives. c.genetic defects. d.localized hypoxia. ANS: B REF: 9 | 10 34. Which of the following is usually included in a medical history? 1. Past illnesses or surgeries 2. Current illnesses, acute and chronic 3. Prescribed medication or other treatments 4. Nonprescription drugs and herbal remedies 5. Current allergies a.1, 3 b.2, 4, 5 c.1, 3, 4 d.1, 2, 3, 4, 5 ANS: D REF: 4 | 5 35. A situation when there is a higher than expected number of cases of an infectious disease within a given area is called a/an: a.epidemic. b.exacerbation. c.morbidity. d.pandemic. ANS: A REF: 7 36. The term pathogenesis refers to: a.the development of a disease or sequence of events related to tissue changes involved in the disease process. b.the determination of the cause(s) involved in the development of a malignant neoplasm. c.the specific signs and symptoms involved in the change from an acute disease to a chronic disease. d.the changes in cells of affected tissue that result in necrosis. ANS: A REF: 6 FREE Chapter 02: Fluid, Electrolyte, and Acid-Base Imbalances My Nursing Test Banks Chapter 02: Fluid, Electrolyte, and Acid-Base Imbalances MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Choose the correct proportion of water to body weight to be expected in a healthy male adults body: a. 0% b. 5% c. 0% d. 0% ANS: C REF: 15 2. Choose the correct proportion of blood (to body weight) in an adult males body: a. 0% b. 0% c. 0% d. 4% ANS: D REF: 15 3. Insensible fluid loss refers to water lost through: a.perspiration only. b.feces only. c.perspiration and expiration. d.urine and feces. ANS: C REF: 15 4. When the osmotic pressure of the blood is elevated above normal, water would shift from the: a.blood into the cells. b.interstitial compartment into the cells. c.interstitial compartment into the blood. d.cells into the interstitial compartment. ANS: C REF: 16 5. Which of the following would result from a deficit of plasma proteins? a. Increased osmotic pressure b.Decreased osmotic pressure c.Increased hydrostatic pressure d.Decreased hydrostatic pressure ANS: B REF: 16 6. Which of the following would cause edema? a.Decreased capillary hydrostatic pressure b.Increased capillary osmotic pressure c.Decreased capillary permeability d.Increased capillary permeability ANS: D REF: 16-19 7. Which of the following would likely be related to an elevated hematocrit reading? a.Fluid excess b.Fluid deficit c.Increased sodium level d.Decreased erythrocytes ANS: B REF: 23-24 8. Which of the following is a typical sign of dehydration? a.Rapid, strong pulse b.Low hematocrit c.Increased urine output d.Rough oral mucosa ANS: D REF: 21 9. Which of the following terms refers to a combination of decreased circulating blood volume combined with excess fluid in a body cavity? a.Dehydration b.Third-spacing c.Hypovolemia d.Water retention ANS: B REF: 21 10. Which of the following is the primary cation in the extracellular fluid? a.Sodium b.Potassium c.Calcium d.Iron ANS: A REF: 21 11. Which of the following is a common cause of hyponatremia? a.Loss of the thirst mechanism b.Excessive sweating c.Excessive aldosterone secretion d.Prolonged period of rapid, deep respirations ANS: B REF: 22-23 12. Which of the following is a common effect of both hypokalemia and hyperkalemia? a.Skeletal muscle twitch and cramps b.Oliguria c.Elevated serum pH d.Cardiac arrhythmias ANS: D REF: 26 13. Choose the correct effect of increased parathyroid hormone. a. Increased movement of calcium ions into the bones b. Increased activation of vitamin D c. Increased absorption of calcium from the digestive tract d.Decreased reabsorption of calcium in the kidneys ANS: C REF: 26 14. Which of the following results from hypocalcemia? a) Low serum phosphate levels b) Nausea and constipation c) Skeletal muscle twitch and spasms d) Weak cardiac contractions a.1, 2 b.1, 4 c.2, 3 d.3, 4 ANS: D REF: 27 15. Which of the following causes tetany? a.Increased permeability of nerve membranes due to low serum calcium b Excess calcium ions in skeletal muscle due to excess parathyroid hormone (PTH) . c.Excess calcium ions inside somatic nerves as a result of neoplasms d Increased stimulation of the nerves in the cerebral cortex . ANS: A REF: 27 16. In which of the following processes is phosphate ion NOT a major component? a.Bone metabolism b.Metabolic processes involving adenosine triphosphate (ATP) c.Blood clotting d.Acid-base balance ANS: C REF: 28 d17.8. Which of the following would be considered normal serum pH? ANS: C REF: 28 18. When many excess hydrogen ions accumulate in the blood, what happens to serum pH? The pH: a.decreases. b.increases. c.remains constant. d.varies based on metabolism. ANS: A REF: 28 19. What is the slowest but most effective control for acid-base balance? a.Respiratory system b.Buffer systems in the blood c.Kidneys d.Brain ANS: C REF: 29 20. Which of the following is essential in order to maintain serum pH within normal range? a.Carbonic acid and bicarbonate ion must be present in equal quantities. b.All excess carbonic acid must be excreted by the kidneys. c.The concentration of bicarbonate ion must remain constant. d.The ratio of carbonic acid to bicarbonate ion must be 1:20. ANS: D REF: 30 21. Which is the correct effect on the body of abnormally slow respirations? a.Increased carbonic acid b.Decreased carbonic acid c.Increased bicarbonate ion d.Decreased bicarbonate ion ANS: A REF: 31 22. Which condition is likely to cause metabolic acidosis? a.Slow, shallow respirations b.Prolonged diarrhea c.Mild vomiting d.Excessive fluid in the body ANS: B REF: 32 23. What would a serum pH of 7.33 in a patient with kidney disease indicate? a.Metabolic alkalosis b.Metabolic acidosis c.Respiratory alkalosis d.Respiratory acidosis ANS: B REF: 32 24. Which serum value indicates decompensated metabolic acidosis? a.pH is below normal range b.pH is above normal range c.Bicarbonate level decreases d.Bicarbonate level increases ANS: A REF: 32 25. What is the effect on blood serum when excessive lactic acid accumulates in the body? a. Bicarbonate ion levels decrease b. Bicarbonate ion levels increase c.Carbonic acid levels increase d.pH increases ANS: A REF: 32 26. The direct effects of acidosis are manifested primarily in the functioning of the: a.Digestive system b.Urinary system c.Nervous system d.Respiratory system ANS: C REF: 32 27. Compensation mechanisms in the body for dehydration would include: a.increased antidiuretic hormone (ADH). b.decreased aldosterone. c.slow, strong heart contraction. d.peripheral vasodilation. ANS: A REF: 21 28. Which acid-base imbalance results from impaired expiration due to emphysema? a.Metabolic acidosis b.Metabolic alkalosis c.Respiratory acidosis d.Respiratory alkalosis ANS: C REF: 32 29. In patients with impaired expiration associated with emphysema, effective compensation for the acid-base imbalance would be: a.increased rate and depth of respiration. b.decreased rate and depth of respiration. c.increased urine pH and decreased serum bicarbonate. d.decreased urine pH and increased serum bicarbonate. ANS: D REF: 32 30. An anxiety attack often causes hyperventilation leading to: a. increased PCO2. b.decreased PCO2. c.respiratory acidosis. d.metabolic acidosis. ANS: B REF: 32 31. One of the factors involved in the increased need for water in infants is: a.proportionally smaller body surface area. b.higher metabolic rate. c.smaller respiratory capacity. d.greater surface area of exposed mucous membranes. ANS: B REF: 20 32. Compensation for respiratory system depression due to anesthesia and sedation would be: a.decreased reabsorption of bicarbonate ions in the kidneys. b. increased secretion of hydrogen ions into the filtrate. c. increased respiratory rate and depth. d. increased renin secretion. ANS: B REF: 32 33. A prolonged state of metabolic acidosis often leads to: a.hypokalemia. b.hyperkalemia. c.hyponatremia. d.hypercalcemia. ANS: B REF: 25 34. Strenuous physical exercise on a hot day is likely to result in: a.hypokalemia. b.hypernatremia. c.hyperchloremia. d.hypovolemia. ANS: D REF: 19 | 23 35. Place the following events in the correct sequence of events when ketoacids increase in the blood of a diabetic patient. Not all options are used in the answers. 1. Serum pH decreases 2. Serum bicarbonate decreases 3. PCO2 decreases 4. Respiration decreases 5. Respiration increases 6. Serum pH increases 7. Urine pH decreases a.1, 3, 7, 4, 2, 6 b.5, 2, 7, 3, 4, 1 c.2, 1, 5, 3, 7, 6 d.3, 1, 2, 5, 7, 6 ANS: C REF: 34-37 36. Which of the following is a manifestation of respiratory alkalosis? a.Bradycardia and deep rapid breathing b.Drowsiness and general lethargy c.Increased nervous system irritability d.Decreased urine pH ANS: C REF: 33 37. Prolonged diarrhea results in: a.loss of fluid and bicarbonate ions, leading to metabolic acidosis. b.increased fluid and serum bicarbonate ions, leading to metabolic acidosis. c.loss of chloride ions only, leading to metabolic alkalosis. d.surplus bicarbonate ions, leading to respiratory alkalosis. ANS: A REF: 32 38. In the initial stage, vomiting results in: a.metabolic acidosis. b.metabolic alkalosis. c.respiratory alkalosis. d.None of the above ANS: B REF: 32 39. Which two ions are most important for acid-base balance in the body? a. K+, Na+ b.Cl and HCO3 c.Ca++, Na+ d.Na+, Cl ANS: B REF: 28 40. The bicarbonate-carbonic acid buffer system helps maintain serum pH. The balance of the carbonic acid and bicarbonate ion levels are controlled by the: a.liver and pancreas. b.lungs and kidneys. c.lungs and plasma proteins. d.kidneys and bone marrow. ANS: B REF: 30 41. Alkalosis increases irritability and spontaneous stimulation of nerves by: a.blocking normal nerve conduction. b. increasing the permeability of nerve membranes. c.blocking movement of calcium ions. d.decreasing phosphate ion levels. ANS: B REF: 26 | 33 42. Hypocalcemia causes weak cardiac contractions because: a.permeability of nerve membranes increases. b.insufficient calcium ions are available for muscle contraction. c.low phosphate ion levels prevent muscle contraction. d.excessive amounts of calcium are stored in cardiac muscle. ANS: B REF: 27 43. Serum potassium levels are affected by: 1. ADH. 2. aldosterone. 3. serum H+ levels. 4. insulin levels. a.2 only b.1, 2 c.1, 3 d.2, 3, 4 e.1, 2, 3 ANS: D REF: 24 | 25 44. Which of the following is the primary control of serum Na+ levels? a.ADH b.Aldosterone c.Serum H+ levels d.serum K+ levels ANS: B REF: 21 45. The control center for thirst is located in the: a.kidneys. b.thalamus. c.medulla. d.hypothalamus. ANS: D REF: 15 46. Which statements apply to atrial natriuretic peptide? 1. It is secreted by heart muscle cells. 2. It is a hormone secreted by the kidneys. 3. It helps to control water and sodium balance. 4. It is released in response to low blood pressure. a.1, 3 b.1, 4 c.2, 3 d.2, 4 ANS: A REF: 15 47. What are the three mechanisms that control or compensate for serum pH? a.Hypothalamus, metabolic changes by digestive system, lymphatic system filtration b.Buffer pairs in blood, change in kidney excretion rate, change in respiration rate c.Neural feedback, increase in heart rate, decrease in calcium intake d.Modification of water intake, increased capillary permeability, decrease in blood volume ANS: B REF: 29-31 48. Hypokalemia refers to a condition in which the serum has a very low level of which ion? a.Sodium b.Phosphate c.Calcium d.Potassium ANS: D REF: 24 49. In the blood and extracellular fluids, hypernatremia refers to: a.a deficient sodium level. b.an excess phosphate level. c.an excess sodium level. d.an excessively low phosphate level. ANS: C REF: 23 50. Increased milk and/or antacid intake can contribute to development of milk-alkali syndrome, which can cause which of the following? a.Hyponatremia b.Hyperkalemia c.Hypercalcemia d.Hypovolemia ANS: C REF: 27 Chapter 05: Inflammation and Healing My Nursing Test Banks Chapter 05: Inflammation and Healing Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Tears are considered to be part of the: 1. first line of defense. 2. second line of defense. 3. third line of defense. 4. specific defenses. 5. nonspecific defenses. a.1, 4 b.1, 5 c.3, 4 d.2, 5 ANS: B REF: 66 2. A specific defense for the body is: a.phagocytosis. b.sensitized T lymphocytes. c.the inflammatory response. d.intact skin and mucous membranes. ANS: B REF: 66 3. The inflammatory response is a nonspecific response to: a.phagocytosis of foreign material. b.local vasodilation. c.any tissue injury. d.formation of purulent exudates. ANS: C REF: 66 4. Chemical mediators released during the inflammatory response include: a.albumin and fibrinogen. b.growth factors and cell enzymes. c.macrophages and neutrophils. d.histamine and prostaglandins. ANS: D REF: 69 5. Which of the following result directly from the release of chemical mediators following a moderate burn injury? 1. Pain 2. Local vasoconstriction 3. Increased capillary permeability 4. Pallor a.1, 2 b.1, 3 c.2, 3 d.2, 4 ANS: B REF: 69 6. Granulation tissue is best described as: a.highly vascular, very fragile, and very susceptible to infection. b.an erosion through the wall of viscera, leading to complications. c.a type of adhesion with no vascularization. d.a form of stenosis, in a duct, that is extremely tough and resists attack by microbes. ANS: A REF: 76 7. Edema associated with inflammation results directly from: a. increased fluid and protein in the interstitial compartment. b. increased phagocytes in the affected area. c.decreased capillary permeability. d.general vasoconstriction. ANS: A REF: 70 8. The warmth and redness related to the inflammatory response results from: a. increased interstitial fluid. b.production of complement. c.a large number of white blood cells (WBCs) entering the area. d.increased blood flow into the area. ANS: D REF: 70 9. What is the correct order of the following events in the inflammatory response immediately after tissue injury? 1. Increased permeability of blood vessels 2. Dilation of blood vessels 3. Transient vasoconstriction 4. Migration of leukocytes to the area 5. Hyperemia a.5, 3, 2, 1, 4 b.1, 2, 4, 5, 3 c.2, 3, 5, 4, 1 d.3, 2, 5, 1, 4 ANS: D REF: 69 10. The process of phagocytosis involves the: a.ingestion of foreign material and cell debris by leukocytes. b shift of fluid and protein out of capillaries. . c.formation of a fibrin mesh around the infected area. d movement of erythrocytes through the capillary wall. . ANS: A REF: 70 11. Systemic effects of severe inflammation include: a.erythema and warmth. b.loss of movement at the affected joint. c.fatigue, anorexia, and mild fever. d.abscess formation. ANS: C REF: 71 12. The term leukocytosis means: a.increased white blood cells (WBCs) in the blood. b.decreased WBCs in the blood. c.increased number of immature circulating leukocytes. d.significant change in the proportions of WBCs. ANS: A REF: 72 13. Which of the following statements applies to fever? a.Viral infection is usually present. b.Heat-loss mechanisms have been stimulated. c.It is caused by a signal to the thalamus. d.It results from release of pyrogens into the circulation. ANS: D REF: 71 14. Mechanisms to bring an elevated body temperature down to the normal level include: a.general cutaneous vasodilation. b.generalized shivering. c.increased heart rate. d.increased metabolic rate. ANS: A REF: 71 15. Replacement of damaged tissue by similar functional cells is termed: a.fibrosis. b.regeneration. c.resolution. d.repair by scar tissue. ANS: B REF: 73 16. Scar tissue consists primarily of: a.granulation tissue. b.epithelial cells. c.collagen fibers. d.new capillaries and smooth muscle fibers. ANS: C REF: 76 17. Which of the following promotes rapid healing? a.Closely approximated edges of a wound b.Presence of foreign material c.Exposure to radiation d.Vasoconstriction in the involved area ANS: A REF: 76 18. Glucocorticoids are used to treat inflammation because they directly: a.promote the release of prostaglandins at the site. b.decrease capillary permeability. c.mobilize lymphocytes and neutrophils. d.prevent infection. ANS: B REF: 74 19. Patients taking glucocorticoids for long periods of time are likely to develop all of the following EXCEPT: a.decreased bone density. b.wasting of skeletal muscle. c.opportunistic infections. d.increased leukocyte production. ANS: D REF: 75 20. Which of the following drugs relieves fever and some types of pain but is NOT an anti- inflammatory agent? a.Acetaminophen b.Prednisone c.Aspirin d.Ibuprofen ANS: A REF: 74 21. A burn area in which the epidermis and part of the dermis is destroyed is classified as: a.full-thickness. b.deep partial-thickness. c.superficial partial-thickness. d.first-degree. ANS: B REF: 79 22. A woman has burns on the anterior surfaces of her right arm, chest, and right leg. The percentage of body surface area burned is approximately: a.13.5%. b.18%. c.22.5%. d.31.5%. ANS: C REF: 80 | 82 23. The characteristic appearance of a full-thickness burn is: a.painful with multiple blisters. b.heavy bleeding. c.red with some swelling. d.dry, firm, charred, or hard white surface. ANS: D REF: 79 24. A typical source of infection in burn areas is: a.the skin grafts. b.microbes surviving in the hair follicles in the burn area. c.circulating blood bringing microbes to the burn wound. d.opportunistic virus in digestive tract. ANS: B REF: 83 25. A large burn area predisposes to decreased blood pressure because: a.bleeding occurs under the burn surface. b.the heart is damaged by toxic materials from the burn. c.fluid and protein shift out of the blood. d.vasoconstriction occurs in the burn area. ANS: C REF: 82 26. During an inflammatory response, hyperemia is caused by: a. increased blood flow in the area. b. increased capillary permeability. c. irritation of sensory nerve endings by histamine. d. increased leukocytes in the area. ANS: A REF: 69 27. The advantages of applying a biosynthetic skin substitute to a large area of full-thickness burns include: 1. reduced risk of infection. 2. decreased loss of plasma protein and fluid. 3. developing stronger fibrous scar tissue. 4. more rapid healing. 5. regeneration of all glands, nerves, and hair follicles. a.1, 3 b.4, 5 c.1, 2, 4 d.2, 3, 5 ANS: C REF: 84 28. Purulent exudates usually contain: a.small amounts of plasma protein & histamine in water. b.red blood cells & all types of white blood cells. c.numerous leukocytes, bacteria, and cell debris. d.large amounts of water containing a few cells. ANS: C REF: 71 29. Isoenzymes in the circulating blood: a.are a type of plasma protein normally present in the circulating blood. b.often indicate the precise location of an inflammatory response. c.are normally released from leukocytes during the inflammatory response. d.are pyrogens, causing low-grade fever. ANS: B REF: 72 30. A serous exudate is best described as a: a.thin, watery, colorless exudate. b.thick, sticky, cloudy secretion. c.thick, greenish material containing microbes. d.brownish, clotted material. ANS: A REF: 70 31. Systemic manifestations of an inflammatory response include: a.edema and erythema. b.area of necrosis and loss of function. c.pain and tenderness. d.fever and malaise. ANS: D REF: 71 32. Some local effects of a general inflammatory response would include: a.high, spiking fever and chills. b.redness, warmth, and swelling. c.leukopenia and reduced erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR). d.anorexia and headaches. ANS: B REF: 67 33. Prolonged administration of glucocorticoids such as prednisone may cause: 1. atrophy of lymphoid tissue. 2. increased resistance to infection. 3. thrombocytopenia. 4. decreased protein synthesis. a.1, 2 b.1, 3 c.1, 4 d.2, 4 ANS: C REF: 75 34. Application of ice to an injured knee reduces edema by: a.promoting return of lymph fluid. b.causing local vasoconstriction. c.increasing the rate of tissue repair. d.causing systemic vasodilation. ANS: B REF: 75 35. Healing of large areas of skin loss (including dermis and epidermis) would be most successful through: a.rapid mitosis and regeneration of skin layers. b.resolution of damaged cells in the area. c.covering the area with biosynthetic skin substitute. d.graft of fibrous tissue to the area. ANS: C REF: 84 36. Prostaglandins are produced from and cause . a.activated plasma protein; increased capillary permeability b.mast cells; vasodilation and pain c.platelets; attraction of neutrophils, chemotaxis d.mast cell granules; activation of histamines and kinins ANS: B REF: 69 37. The number of neutrophils in the blood is increased significantly: a.during allergic reactions. b.during chronic inflammation. c.to produce antibodies. d.in order to promote phagocytosis. ANS: D REF: 69-70 38. An abscess contains: a.serous exudate. b.purulent exudate. c.fibrinous exudate. d.hemorrhagic exudate. ANS: B REF: 71 39. Nonspecific agents that protect uninfected cells against viruses are called: a.neutrophils. b.macrophages. c.interferons. d.pyrogens. ANS: C REF: 66 40. Causes of inflammation include: a.direct physical damage such as cuts and sprains. b.allergic reactions. c.infection. d.All the above ANS: D REF: 67 41. In normal capillary exchange, what is net hydrostatic pressure based on? a.The difference between the hydrostatic pressure within the capillary, as compared with the hydrostatic pressure of the interstitial fluid b.The relative osmotic pressures in the blood and the interstitial fluid c.The difference between the hydrostatic pressure and osmotic pressure within the capillary d.The difference between the concentrations of blood cells, plasma proteins, and dissolved substances in the blood and the interstitial fluid ANS: A REF: 66 42. The cardinal signs of inflammation include all of the following EXCEPT: a.redness. b.loss of function. c.nausea. d.swelling. ANS: C REF: 67 43. Drugs that have anti-inflammatory, analgesic, and antipyretic activities include: 1. COX-2 inhibitors (NSAIDs). 2. glucocorticoids (e.g., prednisone). 3. ibuprofen (NSAID). 4. acetaminophen. 5. aspirin (ASA). a.1, 2 b.2, 4 c.1, 3, 5 d.1, 4, 5 ANS: C REF: 74 44. Aspirin (ASA) is discouraged for treatment of viral infection in children because of: a.decreased bone growth after puberty. b.frequent production of blood clots. c.formation of a granuloma filled with virus. d.the risk of developing Reyes syndrome. ANS: D REF: 74 45. Systemic manifestations of inflammation include all EXCEPT: a.pyrexia. b.malaise. c.local swelling. d.anorexia. ANS: C REF: 71 46. Which of the following cellular elements found in the inflammatory response are responsible for phagocytosis? a.Macrophages b.Basophils c.B lymphocytes d.T lymphocytes e.Eosinophils ANS: A REF: 66 47. Which chemical mediator is involved in prolonging the inflammatory response? a.Bradykinin b.Histamine c.Leukotrienes d.Chemotactic factors ANS: C REF: 69 48. Potential complications after healing by scar formation include all the following EXCEPT: a.lack of sensory function in the area. b.contractures and adhesions. c.increased hair growth. d.keloid formation. ANS: C REF: 77-78 49. All of the following are correct statements regarding wound healing EXCEPT: a.Resolution occurs where there is minimal tissue damage and the cells can recover. b.Granulation tissue forms a permanent replacement for damaged tissue. c.Regeneration occurs where the cells are capable of mitosis. d.Scar tissue forms where the surrounding cells are incapable of mitosis. ANS: B REF: 73 | 75-76 50. Which of the following statements regarding inflammation is incorrect? a. Inflammation caused by an allergen or a burn will typically produce a serous exudate. b. Infection is one cause of inflammation. c. Inflammation is the bodys nonspecific response to tissue injury. d. Disorders are named using the ending -sarcoma to indicate inflammation. ANS: D REF: 66 | 67 | 70 51. Which of the following helps to localize and wall off the foreign material during an inflammatory response? a.Lymphocytes b.Increased fluid c.Fibrinogen d.Antibodies ANS: C REF: 69 52. Why is an application of cold recommended as part of the RICE first aid measures immediately following an inflammatory response due to injury? a. It improves circulation in the area removing chemical mediators. b. It causes local vasoconstriction to reduce local edema. c. It draws more phagocytic cells to the area to remove debris. d. It promotes immediate healing. ANS: B REF: 75 53. One goal for current research in tissue engineering is to: a.create a functional replacement tissue when regeneration is not possible. b.adapt cells from the injured organ to produce replacement tissue. c.design a nonliving synthetic replacement tissue. d.use stem cells as a temporary covering for damaged tissue. ANS: A REF: 76 54. Identify the proper sequence in the healing process. a.A blood clot forms; granulation tissue grows into the gap; new blood vessels develop; phagocytosis of foreign material and cell debris occurs; and collagen fibers form a tight, strong scar. b.A blood clot forms; phagocytes remove foreign material and cell debris; granulation tissue grows into the gap; new blood vessels form; and collagen fibers promote formation of a tight, strong scar. c.Collagen fibers form in the damaged area; a blood clot forms; granulation tissue grows into the gap; angiogenesis takes place; and foreign material and cell debris are removed by phagocytes. d.Foreign material and cell debris are removed by phagocytes; a blood clot forms; granulation tissue grows into the gap; new blood vessels form; and collagen fibers grow and cross-link. ANS: B REF: 76 55. All of the following are factors that promote healing EXCEPT: a.good nutrition: protein, vitamins A and C. b.a clean, undisturbed wound. c.effective circulation. d.advanced age. ANS: D REF: 77 56. Identify the correct statement about burns: a.The severity of the burn depends on the temperature, duration, and extent of the burn. b.Young children are less likely to suffer severe burns from immersion in excessively hot water. c.Burns to the palms of the hands are more damaging than burns on the face. d.With a major burn, excessive bleeding usually causes shock. ANS: A REF: 78 57. Which statement applies to the recommended emergency care for burns? a.Drop and lie completely still on your back. b.Call a neighbor for help if the burn appears to be extensive. c.Apply lotion and cover burn tightly with a sheet or towel. d.Cover the burn area with clean, cool, or tepid water and remove nonsticking clothing. ANS: D REF: 82 58. Inhalation of carbon monoxide is a threat for many burn patients because this gas: a.causes swelling in the trachea. b.quickly reduces the available oxygen in the blood. c.prevents full expansion of the lungs. d.is toxic to the nervous system. ANS: B REF: 82 59. Hypermetabolism is common with major burns because of: a.increased heat loss from the burn wound. b.demand for tissue repair. c.recurrent stress response. d.All of the above ANS: D REF: 83 60. How does scar tissue usually cause obstructions to develop in tube-like structures? a.Scar tissue continues to grow and spread, causing a blockage. b.Scar tissue does not stretch, but rather shrinks in time, causing narrowing. c.Scar tissue twists and forms knots as it develops. d.Scar tissue attaches to nearby normal tissue, causing obstruction. ANS: B REF: 78 61. Which of the following is a serious potential complication found only with the anti- inflammatory COX-2 inhibitor drugs? a.Increased risk of infection at the site of inflammation b.Reyes syndrome developing in children and young adults c.Increased incidence of heart attacks d.Greatly delayed blood clotting ANS: C REF: 74 Chapter 06: Infection My Nursing Test Banks Chapter 06: Infection Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Bacteria that form an irregular cluster of spheres are called: a.bacilli. b.diplococci. c.staphylococci. d.streptococci. ANS: C REF: 89 2. A strict anaerobe requires which specific environment? a.A dry environment b.An acidic medium c.Air at a temperature less than 61 F/16 C d.The absence of oxygen ANS: D REF: 89 3. The presence of the bacterial capsule: a.aids in the release of endotoxins. b.protects the microbe from phagocytosis. c.increases the release of toxins and enzymes. d.prevents replication of the bacterium. ANS: B REF: 90 4. Microbial mutation means that: a.genetic information has changed. b.pathogens become nonpathogens. c.the microbe survives adverse conditions but can no longer replicate. d.the immune response to that microbe is strengthened. ANS: A REF: 101 5. A bacterial endospore can: a.also be classified as an acid-fast bacterium. b.exist in latent form inside a host cell. c.reproduce very rapidly. d.survive high temperatures and a dry environment. ANS: D REF: 96 6. The structure of a virus includes: a.a cell wall and membrane. b.metabolic enzymes for replication. c.a protein coat and either DNA or RNA. d.a slime capsule and cilia. ANS: C REF: 92 7. What method do viruses use to replicate? a. Binary fission b.Budding of a daughter cell from the parent viral cell c.Producing reproductive spores d.Using a host cell to produce and assemble components ANS: D REF: 92 8. A retrovirus such as HIV contains: a. RNA and enzymes for its conversion. b.a double strand of DNA. c.many enzymes to limit budding of new virions. d.numerous mitochondria. ANS: A REF: 92 9. How do antiviral drugs act? a.They interfere with cell wall development. b.They decrease cell membrane permeability. c.They destroy new, immature viral particles. d.They reduce the rate of viral replication. ANS: D REF: 107 10. Which statement applies to yeasts? a.They are usually considered to be pathogenic. b.They seldom contain a distinct nucleus. c.They may cause opportunistic infection in the body. d.They are normally not found in large numbers in resident flora. ANS: C REF: 96 11. Fungi reproduce by: 1. budding. 2. extension of hyphae. 3. binary fission. 4. production of spores. a.1, 2 b.2, 4 c.1, 2, 4 d.2, 3, 4 ANS: C REF: 96 12. Which of the following is NOT classified as a protozoan agent of disease? a.Plasmodium vivax b.Trichomonas vaginalis c.Tinea pedis d.Entamoeba histolytica ANS: C REF: 96-97 13. Which of the following is a characteristic of rickettsia? a. It is a very small gram-negative intracellular microbe. b. It exists in three forms. c. It causes sexually transmitted disease. d. It reproduces by budding. ANS: A REF: 93 14. Entamoeba histolytica is transmitted by which of the following? a.Mosquitoes (bites) b.Inhaling contaminated particles c.Sexual intercourse d.Cysts in feces ANS: D REF: 97 15. Which of the following is a characteristic of resident or normal flora (microflora)? a. It exists in all areas of the body. b. Different species inhabit various areas of the body. c. It is of no benefit to the human host. d. It consists only of bacteria. ANS: B REF: 98 16. Which of the following is normally considered sterile? a.Urine b.Pharynx c.Distal urethra d.Vagina ANS: A REF: 99 17. The term nosocomial infection means: a.transmission involves an insect or animal host. b.acquired in a hospital or medical facility. c.transmitted by a fomite. d.spread by direct contact with secretions from an open lesion. ANS: B REF: 99 18. Transmission of microbes by direct contact includes: a.touching a contaminated countertop. b.sexual intercourse. c.drinking contaminated water. d.inhaling dust-borne microbes. ANS: B REF: 99 19. What does the term carrier mean? a.A person with active infection who acts as a reservoir for microbes b.Animals, insects, objects, or surfaces contaminated by pathogens c.An individual who is contagious through infected secretions on the hands d.An asymptomatic person whose body harbors pathogens and can transmit them to others ANS: D REF: 99 20. Opportunistic infection may develop when: a.pathogens enter the body but cannot colonize the site of entry. b.an imbalance occurs in the normal resident flora. c.host resistance increases, and the balance of resident flora is restored. d.contaminated food or water is unknowingly ingested. ANS: B REF: 99 21. Host resistance is promoted by all of the following EXCEPT: a.prescribed immunizations. b.chronic respiratory disease. c.vitamin and mineral supplements. d.appropriate inflammatory or immune response. ANS: B REF: 100-101 22. Which of the following factors would NOT increase the virulence of a specific microbe? a.Secretion of endotoxin b.Presence of a bacterial capsule c.Production of interferons d.Secretion of invasive enzymes ANS: C REF: 101 23. That time in the course of an infection when the infected person may experience a headache or fatigue and senses he or she is coming down with something is referred to as which of the following? a.Subclinical period b.Eclipse period c.Prodromal period d.Presymptomatic period ANS: C REF: 104 24. The principle of Universal Precautions is based on: a.using disinfectants at all times to eliminate cross-infections. b.not touching any open or bleeding lesions. c.sterilizing all instruments and equipment after each use. d.assuming that all body fluids from all individuals are possible sources of infection. ANS: D REF: 102 25. The incubation period refers to the time period between: a.entry of the pathogen into the body and the first signs of infectious disease. b.the onset of the prodromal period and the peak of the acute infection. c.the onset of clinical signs and signs of recovery from infection. d.the acute period and establishment of chronic infection. ANS: A REF: 104 26. What does bacteremia refer to? a.Numerous pathogens circulating and reproducing in the blood b.Uncontrolled sepsis throughout the body c.Multiple infections, primary and secondary, established in the body d.Microbes present in the blood ANS: D REF: 105 27. Which of the following is a local sign of infection? a.Fever and leukocytosis b.Headache and anorexia c.Pain, erythema, and swelling d.Nausea, weight loss, and fatigue ANS: C REF: 105 28. What are culture and sensitivity tests used for? a.To determine the type of microbe present in an exudate b.To provide a specific medium that supports maximum microbial growth c.To identify the causative microbe and the effective antimicrobial agent for it d.To provide living host cells for microbes requiring such for replication ANS: C REF: 106 29. A broad-spectrum bactericidal agent would be expected to: a.destroy many gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria. b.destroy all pathogenic microbes in contact with the agent. c.reduce the replication of many bacteria. d.inhibit the growth of most spores and acid-fast bacteria. ANS: A REF: 107 30. How does penicillin act as a bactericidal agent? a. It interferes with cell-wall synthesis. b. It blocks protein synthesis. c. It increases cell membrane permeability. d. It prevents DNA replication. ANS: A REF: 107 31. Secondary infection may occur with administration of antibacterial drugs because the: a.patient is allergic to the drug. b.balance of species in the resident flora is upset. c.mucosa of the stomach is irritated. d.infecting microbes spread to adjacent areas. ANS: B REF: 107-108 32. All of the following are mechanisms of antiviral drug action EXCEPT: a.interference with attachment to host cell. b.block assembly of viral particles. c.interference with mitosis. d.shedding of protein coat. ANS: C REF: 108 33. Secondary bacterial infections occur frequently during influenza epidemics primarily because: a.antiviral drugs lower host resistance. b.the virus causes extensive tissue inflammation and necrosis. c.respiratory droplets transmit infections. d.the viral infection is usually self-limiting. ANS: B REF: 110 34. The primary pathological effect of influenza virus is: a.destruction of the mucosa in the lower respiratory tract. b.replication of the virus in respiratory secretions. c.destruction of leukocytes and macrophages in the lungs. d.inflammation and necrosis of the upper respiratory epithelium. ANS: D REF: 110 35. What does leukocytosis frequently indicate? a. Immunosuppression b.Bone marrow damage c.Presence of bacterial infection d.An allergic or autoimmune reaction ANS: C REF: 105 36. When an infection or inflammation is suspected, what does leucopenia often indicate? a.Bacterial infection b. Viral infection c.Allergic reaction d.Septicemia ANS: B REF: 106 37. Which of the following statements applies to Chlamydia? a.The microbe exists as a chain of cells. b. It causes a common STD. c. It possesses many flagella. d. It is excreted in feces. ANS: B REF: 93 38. Which of the following microbes is classified as an obligate intracellular parasite? a.Fungus b.Bacterium c.Virus d.Protozoa ANS: C REF: 93 39. Which of the following are characteristics of influenza virus? 1. It is an obligate intracellular parasite. 2. It contains RNA. 3. It usually causes nausea and vomiting. 4. There are three subtypes: A, B, C. a.1, 4 b.1, 3 c.2, 3, 4 d.1, 2, 4 ANS: D REF: 93 40. The widespread necrosis of respiratory mucosa caused by an influenza infection often gives rise to: a.severe anemia. b.secondary infections. c.asthma. d.emphysema. ANS: B REF: 110 41. Prions cannot be cultured in a PETRI plate of media because: a.they take so long to grow. b.they require extensive amounts of specialized nutrients. c.they are proteinaceous particles, not living organisms. d.they are viruses that dont grow on conventional media. ANS: C REF: 98 42. Which of the following statements applies to Influenza A H1N1? a. It alters human chromosomes to cause manifestations. b. It usually causes severe respiratory distress and high fever. c. Infection is common in the elderly. d. It contains genetic material from avian, swine, and human viruses. ANS: D REF: 93 43. Which of the following does NOT directly determine the virulence of a microbe? a.Capacity for opportunism b.Production of toxins c.Ability to mutate d.Invasive qualities ANS: A REF: 101 44. Which of the following is a function of interferons? a.They block the invasion of pathogenic bacteria. b.They reduce the inflammatory response to local infection. c.They increase host cell resistance to viral invasion. d.They may facilitate the spread of some cancer cells. ANS: C REF: 100 45. Inflamed tissue is likely to become infected because: a.the immune system is not effective in inflamed tissue. b.the increased fluid and protein in the inflamed area supports microbial growth. c.phagocytes cannot penetrate the inflamed areas. d.capillaries are less permeable in the affected area. ANS: B REF: 105 46. When an infectious disease is occurring globally at a higher rate than usual, it may be designated as a/an: a.sporadic occurrence. b.epidemic. c.pandemic. d.emerging disease. ANS: C REF: 99 47. Which of the following is the primary difference between an antiseptic and a disinfectant? a.Antiseptic is used on living tissue, whereas disinfectant is designed for nonliving surfaces. b.Antiseptic is much stronger than the potency of a disinfectant. c.Antiseptic often causes allergic skin reactions, whereas disinfectant is always hypoallergenic. d.Antiseptic is effective against endospores; disinfectants are not effective against endospores. ANS: A REF: 103-104 48. Drugs that are designed to inhibit or slow down growth of microbes but not necessarily kill them are considered: a. ineffective. b.bacteriostatic. c.narrow-spectrum. d.bactericidal. ANS: B REF: 107 Chapter 07: Immunity My Nursing Test Banks Chapter 07: Immunity Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Neutrophils: a.are phagocytic cells. b.produce histamine. c.produce antibodies. d.are elevated during an allergic response. ANS: A REF: 115 2. Which cells are required to process and present antigens from foreign material as the initial step in the immune response? a.Thelper cells b.Macrophages c.Eosinophils d.Monocytes ANS: B REF: 115 3. Humoral immunity is mediated by: a.natural killer cells. b.T lymphocytes (T cells). c.B lymphocytes (B cells). d.neutrophils. ANS: C REF: 115 4. A secondary immune response differs from the primary immune response in that: a. it is more rapid than the primary response and results in higher antibody levels. b. it is slower than the primary response and doesnt change the antibody levels. c. it occurs at the same time as the primary response but results in a decrease in antibodies. d. it only occurs in hyperallergic reactions and results in a decrease of antibodies. ANS: A REF: 118 5. Which type of immunity is provided by a vaccination? a.Active natural b.Active artificial c.Passive natural d.Passive artificial ANS: B REF: 119 6. When an allergen binds with IgE antibodies on mast cells, resulting in release of chemical mediators, this reaction is called: a.cytotoxic hypersensitivity. b. immune complex hypersensitivity. c.type I hypersensitivity. d.type IV hypersensitivity. ANS: C REF: 122 7. The role of memory cells is to: a.change into an antibody-secreting cell following activation. b.immediately secrete antibodies following the first exposure to antigen. c.recognize the antigen and stimulate the immune response. d.bind complement to the antibody. ANS: C REF: 115 8. Which statement applies to contact dermatitis? a. It occurs when IgE antibodies on the skin react with the causative substance. b. It may result from ingested foods. c.Urticaria (hives) gradually spread over the body. d.A type IV reaction occurs in affected areas. ANS: D REF: 126 9. Which of the following causes anaphylaxis? a.A severe, systemic allergic reaction b.Type III hypersensitivity c.Cell-mediated hypersensitivity d.Immune complex deposits in many tissues ANS: A REF: 124 10. Following a positive HIV antibodies blood test and ELISA test, what is the test commonly used for confirmation? a.Agglutination b.Double immunodiffusion test c.Western blot test d.Sedimentation rate test ANS: C REF: 135 11. Incompatible blood transfusions result in: a.hemolysis of erythrocytes. b.a type I immune response. c.deposits in multiple organs. d.immune deficiency. ANS: A REF: 124 12. An autoimmune disease is: a.excessive formation of antibodies following exposure to foreign material. b.an extreme response to normally harmless material in the environment. c.an abnormal response to ingested food and drugs. d.failure of the immune system to distinguish self from nonself. ANS: D REF: 127 13. Systemic lupus erythematosus is caused by: a.a chronic allergic condition. b.development of an immune-deficient state. c.a deficiency of T lymphocytes. d.immune complex deposits of antinuclear antibodies. ANS: D REF: 127-128 14. Distinguishing clinical features of systemic lupus erythematosus include: a.inflammation in multiple organs. b.lack of a specific diagnostic blood test. c.acute onset and nonprogressive course. d.typical skin rash on the chest and back. ANS: A REF: 128 15. Which of the following are the target cells for HIV? a.Helper T lymphocytes (CD4 lymphocytes) b.B lymphocytes c.Natural killer cells d.Macrophages ANS: A REF: 130 | 131 16. A diagnosis of HIV positive means that: a.the number of T lymphocytes in the circulating blood is decreased. b.significant opportunistic infection is present in the body. c.the individual has AIDS. d.the virus and its antibodies are present in the blood. ANS: D REF: 131 17. HIV infection impairs: a.humoral immunity. b.cell-mediated immunity. c.both humoral and cell-mediated immunity. d.neither type of immunity. ANS: C REF: 133 18. Immunodeficiencies may result in an increased risk of infections by normally harmless microorganisms. These infections are referred to as: a.opportunistic. b.prophylactic. c.abnormal. d.transient. ANS: A REF: 134 19. Serious infections frequently occurring in patients with AIDS include: 1. tuberculosis. 2. Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia. 3. influenza. 4. tetanus. a.1, 2 b.1, 4 c.2, 3 d.3, 4 ANS: A REF: 135 20. Which of the following statements does NOT apply to major histocompatibility complex (MHC) proteins or molecules? a.They are genes on chromosome 6. b.All members of a family have identical MHCs. c.They alert the immune system to virus-infected cells. d.A close match is essential for successful tissue transplants. ANS: B REF: 114 21. CD4-positive helper T cells function by: a.direct cytotoxic action. b.facilitating all immune system activity. c.producing immunoglobulins. d.inactivating allergens. ANS: B REF: 117 22. Host-versus-graft disease refers to: a.hyperacute rejection of tissue. b.T cells in grafted tissue attacking host cells. c.infection resulting from immunosuppression therapy. d.transplant rejection by the recipients immune system. ANS: D REF: 121 23. Which of the following complications does NOT occur frequently in AIDS patients? a.Kaposis sarcoma b.Wasting syndrome c.Lymphoma d.Polyarthritis ANS: D REF: 135-136 24. Which of the following characteristics apply to HIV? 1. It contains two strands of DNA. 2. It tends to mutate frequently to form new strains. 3. The incubation period is extremely short. 4. It is inactivated by heat and many disinfectants. a.1, 2 b.1, 3 c.2, 4 d.3, 4 ANS: C REF: 135 | 137 25. In cases of HIV infection, the window period refers to the time between: a.entry of the virus into the blood and the initial manifestations. b.entry of the virus into the body and the appearance of antibodies in the blood. c.entry of the virus into the body and a significant drop in CD4 T-helper lymphocyte count. d.diagnosis of HIV positive and diagnosis of AIDS. ANS: B REF: 133 26. Which of the following is an effect of cytokines? They: a.activate and stimulate proliferation of B and T lymphocytes. b.destroy antigens quickly. c.increase the rate of mitosis in tumors. d.cause immediate pain. ANS: A REF: 115 27. What does seroconversion mean in relation to HIV and AIDS? a.The virus has been identified in the blood and body fluids. b.Antibodies for HIV have been identified in the blood. c.HIV was found in lymphocytes. d.Active infection has developed in the patient. ANS: B REF: 119 | 132 28. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding a patient who is HIV positive? a.No medication is required until the CD4 cell count drops below normal range. b.Antibodies are present, destroying the virus and preventing transmission to others. c.Antibodies in the blood indicate presence of virus and possible transmission to others. d.Enzymes have not yet converted RNA to DNA for replication. ANS: C REF: 134 29. The term tolerance refers to: a.surveillance and destruction of new cancer cells by the immune system. b.the ability of the immune system to ignore self cells. c.the ability of T and B lymphocytes to work together. d.the role of lymphoid tissue in the body defenses. ANS: B REF: 118 30. Which of the following statements applies to the complement system? a. It is activated by IgE. b. It blocks the inflammatory response. c. It consists of proteins in the blood that must be activated. d. It may destroy antibodies in the circulation. ANS: C REF: 118 31. Which of the following statements regarding immunoglobulins is TRUE? a.They consist of a unique sequence of amino acids. b.They are produced in the red bone marrow. c.They are attached to mucosal membranes at entry points into the body. d.IgA binds to allergens. ANS: A REF: 117 32. Which of the following is NOT a cause of immunodeficiency? a.Hypoplasia of the thymus b.Delayed hypersensitivity c.Immunosuppressive drugs d.Atrophy of the lymph nodes ANS: B REF: 130 33. Which statement is TRUE regarding infants born to HIV-infected mothers? a.Infants usually test negative for HIV after birth. b.There is little risk of infected mothers passing the virus to their infants during delivery. c.Breast milk does not contain HIV or antibodies. d.Infants test positive for HIV because of the presence of maternal antibodies. ANS: D REF: 134 34. The most common cause of death in patients who have AIDS is: a.HIV encephalopathy. b.tuberculosis. c.Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia. d.Candida infection. ANS: C REF: 135 35. Tissue transferred between two genetically identical twins is referred to as a/an: a.allograft. b.syngraft. c.isograft. d.autograft. ANS: C REF: 121 [Show More]

Last updated: 1 year ago

Preview 1 out of 107 pages