NURS 660 Advanced Practice Nursing Role midterm answers_100%

Document Content and Description Below

Pharmacology Midterm Exam A child is diagnosed with hypothyroidism. The nurse anticipates an order for the drug of choice when treating children, which is what? A) Liothyronine (Cytomel) B) Liotrix... (Thyrolar) C) Levothyroxine (Synthroid) D) Methimazole (Tapazole) A patient is at risk for thrombosis formation and is taking an oral anticoagulant. The patient has been newly diagnosed with hypothyroidism and placed on levothyroxine (Synthroid). What will the nurse monitor the patient for? A) Tachycardia B) Elevated body temperature C) Increased time spent sleeping D) Increased bruising and bleeding The nurse is providing patient teaching regarding the administration of levothyroxine (Synthroid). What is the nurse's priority teaching point? A) "Take the medication after breakfast." B) "Take the medication with a full glass of water." C) "Remain in the upright position for 30 minutes after administering." D) "Take the medication before going to bed at night." The nurse instructs the patient with a new prescription to treat hyperthyroidism and includes the importance of regular lab studies to monitor for bone marrow suppression, which can be an adverse effect of this drug. What drug is the nurse teaching the patient about? A) Methimazole (Tapazole) B) Propylthiouracil (PTU) C) Sodium iodide I131 (Generic) D) Potassium iodide (Thyro-Block) What assessment findings would the nurse expect to see in a patient who overdosed on levothyroxine (Synthroid)? A) Nervousness, tachycardia, tremors B) Somnolence, bradycardia, paresthesia C) Hyperglycemia, hypertension, edema D) Buffalo hump, constipation, sodium loss After administering propylthiouracil (PTU), what effect would the nurse anticipate the drug will have in the patient's body? A) To destroy part of the thyroid gland B) To inhibit production of thyroid hormone in the thyroid gland C) To suppress the anterior pituitary gland's secretion of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) D) To suppress the hypothalamus's production of thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) The nurse provides teaching regarding levothyroxine to a 55-year-old patient diagnosed with Hashimoto's disease. What statement made by the patient does the nurse interpret to mean that the drug teaching had been understood? A) "I can take this medication at any time of day." B) "I should take this medication on an empty stomach in the morning." C) "I may take this with a sip of water in the morning." D) "If I feel nauseated, I may take this drug with an antacid." The patient with hypothyroidism takes levothyroxine daily and has triiodothyronine (T3), thyroxine (T4), and thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) levels drawn in the laboratory to check appropriateness of prescribed dosage. What results would the nurse analyze as indicating the need for a higher dosage of medication? A) Elevated TSH, elevated T3, and reduced T4 levels B) Reduced TSH, elevated T3 and T4 levels C) Elevated TSH, reduced T3 and T4 levels D) Reduced TSH, T3, and T4 levels A patient presents at the clinic with complaints of weight loss despite an increased appetite. The nurse assesses this patient for what? A) Chronic thyroiditis B) Hypercalcemia C) Hypothyroidism D) Hyperthyroidism What patient will the nurse assess most closely for secondary hyperparathyroidism? A) The 12-year-old patient with hypothyroidism B) The 68-year-old patient with chronic renal failure C) The 35-year-old patient with diabetes mellitus D) The 48-year-old patient with hyperthyroidism What drug would the nurse appropriately administer to the patient to treat hypothyroidism? A) Teriparatide B) Methimazole C) Propylthiouracil D) Levothyroxine The patient is 8 weeks pregnant and requires an antithyroid medication. The nurse identifies what drug as the drug of choice for this patient? A) Propylthiouracil B) Radioactive iodine C) Alendronate D) Methimazole The nurse is discharging a patient with a new prescription for levothyroxine. What would the nurse teach the patient to report to her health care provider? (Select all that apply.) A) Nervousness B) Insomnia C) Chest pain D) Loss of hair E) Nausea The nurse is teaching the patient how to take his newly prescribed alendronate and includes what teaching points? (Select all that apply.) A) "Take the drug in the morning." B) "Wait 60 minutes before eating breakfast." C) "Take the drug with a full glass of water." D) "Remain upright for 30 minutes after taking the medication." E) "Eat a breakfast high in calcium after taking the medication." The nurse is discussing the endocrine system with a class of nursing students. What substance would the nurse label as a hormone? A) Acetylcholine B) Norepinephrine C) Nucleic acid D) Serotonin What factors contribute to determining the drug of choice for a patient with epilepsy? (Select all that apply.) A) Age B) Type of epilepsy C) Patient characteristics D) Preferred adverse effect E) Gender The nurse anticipates a reduced dosage due to cultural differences when caring for patients from what cultural groups? (Select all that apply.) A) Arab Americans B) Asian Americans C) African Americans D) White American E) Native American 1. A child is diagnosed with hypothyroidism. The nurse anticipates an order for the drug of choice when treating children, which is what? A) Liothyronine (Cytomel) B) Liotrix (Thyrolar) C) Levothyroxine (Synthroid) D) Methimazole (Tapazole) 2. A patient is at risk for thrombosis formation and is taking an oral anticoagulant. The patient has been newly diagnosed with hypothyroidism and placed on levothyroxine (Synthroid). What will the nurse monitor the patient for? A) Tachycardia B) Elevated body temperature C) Increased time spent sleeping D) Increased bruising and bleeding 3. The nurse is providing patient teaching regarding the administration of levothyroxine (Synthroid). What is the nurse's priority teaching point? A) "Take the medication after breakfast." B) "Take the medication with a full glass of water." C) "Remain in the upright position for 30 minutes after administering." D) "Take the medication before going to bed at night." 4. The nurse instructs the patient with a new prescription to treat hyperthyroidism and includes the importance of regular lab studies to monitor for bone marrow suppression, which can be an adverse effect of this drug. What drug is the nurse teaching the patient about? A) Methimazole (Tapazole) B) Propylthiouracil (PTU) C) Sodium iodide I131 (Generic) D) Potassium iodide (Thyro-Block) 5. What assessment findings would the nurse expect to see in a patient who overdosed on levothyroxine (Synthroid)? A) Nervousness, tachycardia, tremors B) Somnolence, bradycardia, paresthesia C) Hyperglycemia, hypertension, edema D) Buffalo hump, constipation, sodium loss 6. After administering propylthiouracil (PTU), what effect would the nurse anticipate the drug will have in the patient's body? A) To destroy part of the thyroid gland B) To inhibit production of thyroid hormone in the thyroid gland C) To suppress the anterior pituitary gland's secretion of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) D) To suppress the hypothalamus's production of thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) 7. The nurse provides teaching regarding levothyroxine to a 55-year-old patient diagnosed with Hashimoto's disease. What statement made by the patient does the nurse interpret to mean that the drug teaching had been understood? A) "I can take this medication at any time of day." B) "I should take this medication on an empty stomach in the morning." C) "I may take this with a sip of water in the morning." D) "If I feel nauseated, I may take this drug with an antacid." 8. The patient with hypothyroidism takes levothyroxine daily and has triiodothyronine (T3), thyroxine (T4), and thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) levels drawn in the laboratory to check appropriateness of prescribed dosage. What results would the nurse analyze as indicating the need for a higher dosage of medication? A) Elevated TSH, elevated T3, and reduced T4 levels B) Reduced TSH, elevated T3 and T4 levels C) Elevated TSH, reduced T3 and T4 levels D) Reduced TSH, T3, and T4 levels 9. A patient presents at the clinic with complaints of weight loss despite an increased appetite. The nurse assesses this patient for what? A) Chronic thyroiditis B) Hypercalcemia C) Hypothyroidism D) Hyperthyroidism 10. What patient will the nurse assess most closely for secondary hyperparathyroidism? A) The 12-year-old patient with hypothyroidism B) The 68-year-old patient with chronic renal failure C) The 35-year-old patient with diabetes mellitus D) The 48-year-old patient with hyperthyroidism 11. What drug would the nurse appropriately administer to the patient to treat hypothyroidism? A) Teriparatide B) Methimazole C) Propylthiouracil D) Levothyroxine 12. The patient is 8 weeks pregnant and requires an antithyroid medication. The nurse identifies what drug as the drug of choice for this patient? A) Propylthiouracil B) Radioactive iodine C) Alendronate D) Methimazole 13. The nurse is discharging a patient with a new prescription for levothyroxine. What would the nurse teach the patient to report to her health care provider? (Select all that apply.) A) Nervousness B) Insomnia C) Chest pain D) Loss of hair E) Nausea 14. The nurse is teaching the patient how to take his newly prescribed alendronate and includes what teaching points? (Select all that apply.) A) "Take the drug in the morning." B) "Wait 60 minutes before eating breakfast." C) "Take the drug with a full glass of water." D) "Remain upright for 30 minutes after taking the medication." E) "Eat a breakfast high in calcium after taking the medication." 15. The nurse is discussing the endocrine system with a class of nursing students. What substance would the nurse label as a hormone? A) Acetylcholine B) Norepinephrine C) Nucleic acid D) Serotonin 16. What organ should the nurse recognize as the coordinating center for the nervous and endocrine responses to internal and external stimuli? A) Hypothalamus B) Pituitary gland C) Thyroid gland D) Parathyroid gland 17. What criteria can the nurse use to describe all hormones? A) They are produced in very large amounts. B) They circulate until they are used by receptor cells. C) They are secreted directly into the tissue where they react. D) They travel in the blood to specific receptor sites. 18. The nurse explains the end result of the hypothalamus in regulating the central nervous system (CNS), autonomic nervous system (ANS), and endocrine system is what? A) Regulation of the negative feedback system B) Creation of a diurnal rhythm C) Maintenance of homeostasis D) Production of prolactin-inhibiting factor (PIF) 19. The nurse administers an exogenous hormone to the patient. How does the nurse's action impact the endocrine system? (Select all that apply.) A) May decrease exogenous hormone levels B) May increase hormone levels in the body C) May stop production of releasing and stimulating hormones D) May lead to a decrease in the normal production of the hormone E) May increase the endogenous hormone levels 20. A student asks the pharmacology instructor to explain the action of anticholinergic agents. What would be the instructor's best response? A) They block nicotinic receptors. B) They compete with serotonin for muscarinic acetylcholine receptor sites. C) They act to block the effects of the parasympathetic nervous system. D) They increase norepinephrine at the neuromuscular junction. 21. A 73-year-old male with Parkinson's disease comes to the clinic for routine care. The man has a comorbidity of benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). An anticholinergic drug is prescribed for the patient. What is the priority teaching point the nurse must give to the patient in regard to his medication? A) "Avoid excessively hot environments." B) "Avoid driving his car while taking the drug." C) "Call his doctor if he cannot urinate." D) "Take the drug with food to avoid gastrointestinal (GI) upset." 22. A patient has been given atropine to cause mydriasis and cycloplegia. What is the expected outcome for this patient? A) Constricted pupils and blurred vision B) Dilated pupils and improved vision C) Dilated pupils and blurred vision D) Dry eyes and constricted pupils 23. Because the effects of atropine are dose related, at what dose of atropine would the nurse expect to see a patient having difficulty speaking? A) 0.5 mg B) 1.0 mg C) 2.0 mg D) 5.0 mg 24. Because of the systemic effects of anticholinergic drugs, the nurse understands that older adults using these drugs are susceptible to what? A) Heat stroke B) Diarrhea C) Urinary frequency D) Hypotension 25. Anticholinergics have varied effects on the body. What is one of those effects? A) Preventing vagal stimulation B) Stimulating the release of acetylcholine C) Increasing respiratory tract secretions D) Increasing secretion of sweat glands 26. Anticholinergic drugs are used in ophthalmology because they produce what effect? A) Sedation B) Pupil dilation C) Pupil constriction D) Decreased lacrimal secretions 27. The nurse administers atropine preoperatively for what purpose? A) Providing sedation B) Dilating the pupils C) Relaxing bladder muscles D) Decreasing secretions 28. When the nurse administers an anticholinergic drug to a child, the nurse would carefully assess for what effect that is more likely to occur in children than in adults? A) Rashes B) Pupil dilation C) Heat intolerance D) Tachycardia 29. A 72-year-old female patient is being discharged home from the hospital on newly prescribed anticholinergic drugs. A referral to the home health nurse has been made. What priority teaching point will the home health nurse emphasize when discussing the patient's drugs? A) "Do not drive or use machinery. B) "Take lots of hot baths or showers." C) "Keep the house warm to avoid a chill." D) "Limit intake of fluids." 30. The patient, who takes an anticholinergic medication, tells the nurse how much he or she enjoys experimenting with different herbal teas. What herbs will the nurse caution the patient to avoid? (Select all that apply.) A) Burdock B) Thyme C) Rosemary D) Parsley E) Tumeric 31. What does parasympathetic nervous system blockade cause? (Select all that apply.) A) Decrease in heart rate B) Decrease in urinary bladder tone C) Increase in heart rate D) Pupil constriction E) Decrease in gastrointestinal (GI) activity 32. The patient was involved in a motor vehicle accident and experienced a severe closed head injury resulting in increased intracranial pressure. While intubating the patient, his or her heart rate dropped and did not return to acceptable levels after the tube was in place so the nurse received an order to administer atropine. The physician is performing an exam to determine whether brain death has occurred. What assessment for brain death will be postponed until all atropine is excreted and no longer exerting an effect. A) Pupil response B) Electroencephalogram C) Brainstem reflexes D) Computed tomographic scan of the brain 33. A student asks the pharmacology instructor to describe the function of a cholinergic agonist. What would the instructor reply? A) Cholinergic agonists increase the activity of dopamine receptor sites throughout the brain and spinal cord. B) Cholinergic agonists decrease the activity of gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) receptor sites throughout the body. C) Cholinergic agonists increase the activity of acetylcholine receptor sites throughout the body. D) Cholinergic agonists decrease the activity of norepinephrine receptor sites throughout the brain and spinal cord. 34. An Alzheimer's patient taking donepezil (Aricept) has a complete blood count that indicates he or she is anemic. What drug taken in combination with donepezil could be the cause of the anemia? A) Cimetidine (Tagamet) B) Ibuprofen (Advil) C) Diltiazem (Cardizem) D) Furosemide (Lasix) 35. When the nurse administers a cholinergic agonist to the patient, the nurse's expectation is that what system will be stimulated? A) Sympathetic nervous system B) Parasympathetic nervous system C) Central nervous system D) Voluntary nervous system 36. The nurse is caring for a patient who has indirect-acting cholinergic agonists prescribed to treat myasthenia gravis. When administering this classification of drug, the nurse should assess the patient for toxic effects of the drugs including what? A) Paralytic ileus B) Abdominal distension C) Hypertension D) Muscle weakness 37. A 77-year-old man is brought to the emergency department with a cholinergic overdose. The nurse knows that older adults are likely to have a greater number of adverse drug effects for what reason? A) They are more likely to take the medications inconsistently. B) All older adults have some type of chronic health problem. C) Older adults have a number of different physiological changes. D) Older adults have a poor memory and are more likely to overdose. 38. A patient has been newly diagnosed with myasthenia gravis. What important teaching will the nurse provide the family? A) If one dose of medication is missed double the next dose B) The warning signs of drug overdose C) How to encourage activity when the patient is tired D) Importance of monitoring level of consciousness 39. A new patient has come to the clinic. The patient tells the nurse he or she takes donepezil (Aricept). What is the priority nursing assessment related to the medication? (Select all that apply.) A) Nutritional status B) Blood pressure C) History of incontinence D) Breath sounds E) Muscle strength 40. What family of drugs is used in the treatment of myasthenia gravis? A) Direct-acting cholinergic agonists B) Muscarinic inhibitors C) Indirect-acting cholinergic agonists D) Nicotinic agonists 41. The nurse administers bethanechol to the patient on an empty stomach for what purpose? A) To promote rapid absorption B) To prevent destruction of the drug C) To reduce irritation of stomach lining D) To decrease nausea and vomiting 42. The nurse administers an adrenergic blocking agent in order to prevent release of what neurotransmitter? A) Epinephrine B) Norepinephrine C) Serotonin D) Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) 43. What medication, if ordered for an 8-year-old patient, should the nurse question? (Select all that apply.) A) Amiodarone (Cordarone) 400 mg orally per 24 hours B) Labetalol (Normodyne) 100 mg orally b.i.d. C) Phentolamine (Regitine) 1 mg intramuscularly 1 to 2 hours before surgery D) Prazosin (Minipress) 3 mg orally t.i.d. E) Carvedilol (Coreg) 6.25 mg orally b.i.d. 44. A nurse is working with a patient who is taking an adrenergic blocking agent. While assessing the patient's medication history, the nurse discovers that the patient takes several alternative therapies. What herb is the nurse concerned may interact with the adrenergic blocking agent and affect the patient's blood glucose level? A) Ginseng B) Nightshade C) Di huang D) Saw Palmetto 45. A priority nursing assessment for a patient who is to receive an alpha- or beta-adrenergic blocking agent would be what? A) Monitoring respiratory rate B) Checking blood glucose level C) Measuring urine output D) Assessing heart rate 46. What would be the teaching priority for a diabetic patient being treated with a nonselective beta-blocker? A) To take his own pulse B) To weigh himself once a week at the same time of day C) To avoid smoke-filled rooms D) To understand signs and symptoms of hypo- or hyperglycemic reaction 47. The nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving an adrenergic blocking agent. While writing the care plan for this patient what nursing diagnoses would be most appropriate concerning comfort? A) Acute pain related to cardiovascular and systemic effects B) Decreased cardiac output related to cardiovascular effects C) Ineffective airway clearance related to lack of bronchodilating effects D) Deficient knowledge regarding drug therapy 48. A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a patient who is taking atenolol (Tenormin) to treat hypertension. What would the nurse teach the patient regarding a possible drug-drug interaction? A) Antibiotics B) Oral contraceptives C) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) D) Antifungal agents 49. A busy patient with many responsibilities is to have a medication ordered to treat her hypertension. To increase compliance with drug therapy, what drug would be a good choice for this patient? A) Acebutolol (Sectral) B) Atenolol (Tenormin) C) Bisoprolol (Zebeta) D) Metoprolol (Lopressor) 50. The nurse provides patient teaching for a patient who has a new order for nadolol (Corgard) to treat hypertension. What statement by the patient concerning nadolol (Corgard) would indicate that the teaching has been effective? A) "I should cover my head at all times while I am outdoors." B) "Since I am taking this drug, I no longer need to worry about diet and exercise." C) "I will not stop taking this drug abruptly and will talk to my doctor before discontinuing." D) "I may have a very dry mouth while taking this drug." 51. A patient with benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH) has been prescribed prazosin (Minipress) and asks the nurse what this is going to do for him. The nurse's response will include what action to explain the purpose of taking this medication? A) Decreasing vascular tone and vasodilation B) Reducing the size of the prostate to reduce pressure on the urethra C) Relaxing the bladder and prostate and improving urine flow D) Lowering blood pressure 52. The nurse is caring for a 55-year-old patient receiving metoprolol (Lopressor). What statement by the patient would lead the nurse to believe that he needs additional instruction? A) "If I have side effects from the medication, I will contact my physician before I stop taking it." B) "I can take over-the-counter (OTC) cold medication while on metoprolol." C) "I will take the medication on an empty stomach." D) "I will report a weight gain of 2 pounds or more in 1 week." 53. Before administering a nonselective adrenergic blocker, what should the nurse assess? A) Pulse and blood pressure B) Bowel sounds and appetite C) Serum albumin level D) Serum sodium and potassium levels 54. What assessment finding indicates to the nurse that timolol (Timoptic) has been effective? A) The patient's blood pressure increases. B) The patient's intraocular pressure is reduced. C) The patient's pulse is reduced. D) The patient's angina is reduced. 55. The student nurse is studying for a pharmacology exam and notices that many of the adrenergic blocking antagonists drugs studied in class have what suffix? A) -aine B) -lol C) -azole D) -triptan 56. The nurse assesses the patient receiving phentolamine (Regitine) and suspects what finding is an adverse effect of the medication? A) Hypertension B) Wheezing C) Tachycardia D) Depressed respirations 57. The home care nurse is caring for a patient newly prescribed a nonselective beta-blocking agent. What would the nurse include in the teaching plan related to this drug? (Select all that apply.) A) Take with meals. B) Change position slowly. C) Avoid driving or operating hazardous machinery. D) Warn of possible increase in libido. E) Increase activity levels as much as possible. 58. The nurse is discharging a 35-year-old patient with diabetes who has been prescribed an adrenergic blocking agent. What is the priority teaching point for the nurse to discuss with this patient? A) "Monitor blood glucose levels closely and report any instability" B) "Document signs and symptoms of hyperglycemia and hypoglycemia" C) "Reduce carbohydrate intake more than usual while taking the new drug" D) "Increase insulin dosage to compensate for the drug's effect in increasing blood sugar" 59. The home care nurse is providing teaching for a 59-year-old patient taking a nonselective beta-blocker. The nurse teaches the patient the importance of notifying the prescribing physician when what occurs related to this medication? A) If the patient's pulse stays above 100 bpm for 3 or more days B) If the patient has a sudden onset of a cough C) If the patient falls D) If the patient's pulse falls below 60 bpm for 3 or more days 60. The labor and delivery nurse assists with the delivery of a newborn to a woman taking an adrenergic blocker for a congenital heart defect. What organ systems may be affected in the newborn by these drugs? (Select all that apply.) A) Cardiovascular B) Respiratory C) Central nervous system (CNS) D) Gastrointestinal (GI) E) Genitourinary (GU) 61. The specificity of the adrenergic blocking agents allows the clinician to select a drug to do what? A) Have the desired effect B) Multiply undesired effects C) Increase specificity with higher serum blood levels D) Improving concentration in the body 62. What agents are used primarily to treat cardiac-related conditions? (Select all that apply.) A) Nonselective adrenergic blocking agents B) Nonselective alpha-adrenergic blocking agents C) Alpha1-selective adrenergic blocking agents D) Nonselective beta-adrenergic blocking agents E) Beta1-selective adrenergic blocking agents 63. The 64-year-old patient has smoked since age 15 and has been diagnosed with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. What classification of adrenergic blocking antagonist would be safest for this patient to treat angina? A) Nonselective adrenergic blocking agents B) Nonselective alpha-adrenergic blocking agents C) Alpha1-selective adrenergic blocking agents D) Beta1-selective adrenergic blocking agents 64. A patient is admitted to the emergency department in shock. Isoproterenol (Isuprel) is administered. What would the nurse expect the effect of the isoproterenol to be? A) Increased blood pressure B) Decreased blood pressure C) Increased body temperature D) Decreased heart rate What action do sympathomimetic drugs have in the body? A) Decreased heart rate B) Decreased blood pressure C) Increased respirations D) Increased intraocular pressure An 80-year-old patient has been brought to the emergency department in shock. The patient is receiving dopamine (Intropin). What potentially serious adverse effect will the nurse monitor for? A) Blood dyscrasia B) Cardiac arrhythmia C) Hepatic toxicity D) Renal insufficiency The nurse is planning discharge teaching for a patient who is taking clonidine (Catapres). What would be most important for the nurse to include when teaching about adverse effects? A) Pupil constriction B) Strange dreams C) Increased urine output D) Increased appetite What drug would the nurse expect to administer if beta-specific adrenergic agonist effects are desired to prevent bronchospasm during anesthesia? A) Dobutamine (Dobutrex) B) Ephedrine (generic) C) Isoproterenol (Isuprel) D) Phenylephrine (Neo-Synephrine) The nurse is preparing discharge teaching for four patients. Which patient should be advised by the nurse that over-the-counter cold and allergy preparations contain phenylephrine and should be avoided? A) A 47-year-old woman with hypertension B) A 52-year-old man with adult onset diabetes C) A 17-year-old girl with symptoms of an upper respiratory infection D) A 62-year-old man with gout The nurse is writing a plan of care for a patient receiving an alpha-specific adrenergic agonist. What should this plan of care include? A) Monitoring the patient for diarrhea B) Monitoring blood pressure and heart rate every 2 to 4 hours C) Assessing skin turgor for dehydration D) Assessing for fatigue and lethargy A nurse receives an order for clonidine (Catapres) for a 25-year-old pregnant woman. What is the nurse's priority action? A) Weigh the patient to obtain correct dose/kg/day. B) Have a second nurse check the dose before administering the drug. C) Consult with the physician about the order. D) Make sure the patient is wearing a fetal monitor. The nursing students are studying sympathomimetic drugs. How do these drugs act on the body? A) Stimulate beta receptors and block alpha-receptors B) Stimulate alpha-receptors and block beta-receptors C) Block adrenergic receptors D) Stimulate both alpha and beta-receptors In what age group are adrenergic agonists contraindicated? A) Older adults B) Adolescents C) Children D) No age group The pharmacology instructor is discussing adrenergic agonists with the nursing class. Which drugs would the instructor tell the nursing students are generally indicated for the treatment of shock, bronchospasm, and some types of asthma? A) Sympathomimetic drugs B) Beta-blocking drugs C) Parasympathetic stimulating drugs D) Anticatecholamine drugs When studying for a pharmacology exam, a student asks her peers which agents affect both alpha- and beta-receptor sites. What would be an appropriate response to this student? (Select all that apply.) A) Dobutamine (Dobutrex) B) Epinephrine (Adrenalin, Sus-Phrine) C) Dopamine (Intropin) D) Clonidine (Catapres) E) Albuterol (Proventil) When giving beta-specific adrenergic agonists, at what age is an adult dose given? A) 10 years B) 11 years C) 12 years D) 13 years The home health nurse is caring for a 77-year-old male patient who has just been discharged from the hospital. The patient is receiving an infusion of dobutamine (Dobutrex) to treat congestive heart failure. What is the priority nursing assessment? A) Capillary refill time and vital signs B) Effectiveness of comfort measures C) Dietary intake and hydration D) Compliance with treatment plan What is the nurse's rationale for administering clonidine to treat hypertension? A) Clonidine stimulates alpha2-receptors. B) Clonidine stimulates alpha1-receptors. C) Clonidine stimulates beta2-receptors. D) Clonidine stimulates beta1-receptors. Isoproterenol is reserved for use in emergency situations. What is the rationale for this? A) Its onset of action B) Its duration of action C) Its adverse effects D) Its peak plasma concentration The nurse is preparing to give isoproterenol parenterally. Before starting to administer the drug, what does the nurse ensure is on hand in case a severe reaction occurs? A) An alpha-adrenergic blocker B) An alpha-adrenergic stimulant C) A beta-adrenergic stimulant D) A beta-adrenergic blocker The nursing instructor is quizzing a student who is preparing to administer an alpha-specific adrenergic agonist to a patient. The instructor asks the student what the student will assess in this patient after administering the drug. What is the student's best response? A) Blood pressure B) Respirations C) Mental status D) Vision The patient has been taking clonidine and is now being changed to another antihypertensive drug. How will the nurse instruct the patient regarding discontinuing the clonidine? A) "Check your blood pressure and pulse every 2 to 4 hours." B) "Inform your family the drug is being changed." C) "Reduce clonidine gradually over 2 to 4 days." D) "Keep an over-the-counter analgesic available to treat headaches." The clinic nurse is teaching a patient about transdermal clonidine (Catapres). What information would be included in the nurse's teaching plan? (Select all that apply.) A) Change the patch in the morning. B) Rotate the site where the patch is placed. C) Monitor blood pressure daily. D) Stop the drug immediately if adverse effects occur. E) Keep the physician informed of any new diagnoses or medications. The nurse needs to be aware, before administering, that what drug has a duration of action of only 1 to 2 minutes? A) Isoproterenol B) Dopamine C) Phenylephrine D) Ephedrine A 4-year-old girl is prescribed an albuterol (Proventil) inhaler for her asthma. What is the recommended safe dosage for this patient? A) 1.25 to 2.5 mg q.i.d B) 1.25 to 2.5 mg b.i.d C) 2 mg q.i.d D) 0.5 to 1 mg b.i.d The nurse is caring for a male patient who is taking a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI). The patient complains of seasonal rhinitis and the intern for his service orders phenylephrine nasal spray. What is the nurse's priority action? A) Verify patency of the nares. B) Review the patient's medication history. C) Question the order with the prescriber. D) Position the patient to give the drug as ordered. The nurse calculates the infusion rate for administering dopamine to a premature infant in the neonatal intensive care unit who is in cardiogenic shock secondary to a cardiac anomaly. What is the nurse's next priority action? A) Insert an intravenous catheter B) Obtain permission from parents C) Ask another nurse to perform independent calculation D) Show the nurse's calculations to the physician When transcribing new orders for sympathomimetic medications prescribed for a geriatric patient, the nurse expects the dosage will be what? A) The average adult dosage B) Slightly higher than adult dosages C) The lowest possible effective dosage D) Approximately half the normal adult dosage The nurse is serving a breakfast tray to the patient receiving an alpha- and beta-adrenergic agonist medication. The nurse notifies dietary of the error with the patient's diet when finding what on the tray? A) Eggs B) Bacon C) Coffee D) Milk The nurse assesses that the patient is having a sympathetic response when noting what manifestations? A) Decrease in sweating, decrease in respirations, and pupil constriction B) Decrease in heart rate and perfusion, and an increase in inflammatory reactions C) Increase in blood pressure, bronchodilation, and decreased bowel sounds D) Increased motility and secretions in the GI tract, and constriction of bronchi and pupils The nurse administers a drug to the patient whose heart rate is bradycardic aimed at increasing heart rate and myocardial activity. What adrenergic receptor is this drug stimulating? A) Alpha1 B) Alpha2 C) Beta1 D) Beta2 The nurse administers a drug that stimulates the parasympathetic nervous system. What physiological response would indicate the drug is working? A) Vasoconstriction B) Increased gastrointestinal (GI) motility C) Increased heart rate D) Pupil dilation A young woman who lives alone comes home at night to find a man in her apartment. What body responses would be expected for the young woman? A) Increased blood pressure (BP), increased heart rate, and pupil dilation B) Decrease sweating, decreased BP, and increased heart rate C) Pupil constriction, increased respiratory rate, and decreased heart rate D) Increased sweating, decreased respiratory rate, and increased BP When there is stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system (SNS), blood is diverted away from the gastrointestinal (GI) tract. What might the nurse assess that would indicate this diversion of blood flow to the GI tract? A) Increased blood glucose levels B) Decreased bowel sounds C) Increased blood pressure D) Decreased immune reactions A patient is being admitted to the floor following a motor vehicle accident. Because of the stressful nature of the event, the nurse anticipates the patient will continue to have a sympathetic stress reaction during the postoperative period. When monitoring the patient's serum electrolytes, what will the nurse closely monitor? A) Increased calcium B) Decreased potassium C) Increased chloride D) Decreased sodium Neurons that use acetylcholine as its neurotransmitter are what type of neurons? A) Cholinergic B) Dopaminergic C) GABA-ergic D) Serotonergic The nursing student learns that the hypothalamus serves what purpose? A) Causes the secretion of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) B) Controls voluntary movement C) Secretes norepinephrine D) Helps maintain red blood cell production The sympathetic nervous system (SNS) is associated with a "fight-or-flight" reaction. What reaction is the parasympathetic nervous system is associated? A) Recover and repair B) Respond and return C) Rest and digest D) Calm and peace The control systems of the body act in many ways to maintain homeostasis. These homeostatic control systems regulate the functions of the cell, integrate the functions of different organ systems, and do what else? A) Control vital functions B) Feed cells under stress C) Act on invading organisms D) Shut down the body at death The nurse administers a medication that stimulates the parasympathetic nervous system (PNS). What manifestations would indicate the medication is working? (Select all that apply.) A) Hyperactive bowel sounds B) Increased saliva production C) Elevated heart rate D) Urinary incontinence E) Constricted pupils The nurse administers a parasympathetic stimulator that only stimulates nicotinic receptors. What effects would the nurse expect to assess? (Select all that apply.) A) Muscle contraction B) Slowing heart rate C) Increased bladder contraction D) Signs and symptoms of a stress reaction E) Release of epinephrine from adrenal medulla The patient is undergoing chronic stress and has a prolonged sympathetic response. What type of drug could this patient receive to reduce the sympathetic response? (Select all that apply.) A) A drug that reduces sympathetic response B) A drug that increases sympathetic response C) A drug that reduces parasympathetic response D) A drug that increases parasympathetic response E) A drug that reduces central nervous system (CNS) response Where are Alpha1-receptors found? (Select all that apply.) A) Blood vessels B) The iris C) Nerve membranes D) Urinary bladder E) Stomach sphincters The nurse administers a drug to treat hypertension that causes vasodilation of blood vessels. What is the drug stimulating? A) Alpha1-receptors B) Alpha2-receptors C) Beta1-receptors D) Beta2-receptors The nurse administers a drug that stimulates beta2 receptors. What type of health condition would this drug treat? A) Heart disease B) High lipid levels C) Diabetes D) Respiratory disease When muscarinic receptors are stimulated, what happens physiologically in the body? (Select all that apply.) A) Pupil constriction B) Pupil dilation C) Increased secretions D) Increased bladder contraction E) Increased heart rate The nurse administers a drug that causes vasoconstriction, contracted piloerection muscles, pupil dilation, closure of salivary sphincter, and male sexual emission. What receptor is this drug stimulating? A) Alpha1-receptors B) Alpha2-receptors C) Beta1-receptors D) Beta2-receptors The nurse accompanies the physician into the patient's room and remains after the patient is told he has cancer and it is likely to be terminal. The patient's respirations become rapid and deep, pupils dilate, and measurement of vital signs indicates the patient's heart rate and blood pressure are elevated. What type of response is the nurse assessing? A) Sympathetic nervous system (SNS) response B) Parasympathetic nervous system (PNS) response C) Muscarinic receptor stimulation response D) Nicotinic receptor stimulation response Muscarinic and nicotinic receptors are part of what system? A) The limbic system B) The reticular activating system C) The sympathetic nervous system D) The parasympathetic nervous system The nurse is teaching a class about the autonomic nervous system for critical care nurses. What statements, if made by the nurse during the class, are accurate? (Select all that apply.) A) "Adrenergic receptors respond to norepinephrine." B) "Adrenergic receptors are part of the sympathetic nervous system." C) "Cholinergic receptors are part of the parasympathetic nervous system." D) "Cholinergic receptors include alpha- and beta- receptors." E) "Cholinergic and adrenergic receptors are part of the autonomic nervous system." Before administering an opiate medication, what will the nurse assess? A) The patient's weight B) The patient's heart rate C) The patient's respiratory rate D) The patient's drug tolerance The nurse, working in the preoperative holding area, is caring for a 70-year-old patient who is scheduled to receive succinylcholine as part of general anesthesia. When collecting the nursing history, what condition would require the nurse to notify the anesthesiologist of the need for caution? A) Bone fracture B) Malnutrition C) Fluid volume overload D) Narrow-angle glaucoma E) Pregnancy A geriatric patient received a narcotic analgesic before leaving the post-anesthesia care unit to return to the regular unit. What is the priority nursing action for the nurse receiving the patient on the regular unit? A) Administer a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug. B) Encourage fluids. C) Create a restful, dark, quiet environment. D) Put side rails up and place bed in low position. A patient who is experiencing severe pain is administered a narcotic. What would the nurse write in the plan of care as a desirable and measurable outcome for this patient? A) A shorter period of time between requests for medication B) Reduced complaints about limited movement C) Lack of restlessness and ability to sustain one position D) Increased autonomy in providing AM care The health care provider orders oral (PO) codeine as an adjunctive therapy to pain control medication. What order would be appropriate for the nurse to administer? A) Codeine 5 mg PO every 6 hour B) Codeine 10 mg PO every 4 hour C) Codeine 15 mg PO every 2 hour D) Codeine 20 mg PO every 4 hour The nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving an opioid analgesic. What are the nurse's priority assessments? A) Pain intensity and blood glucose level B) Level of consciousness and respiratory rate C) Respiratory rate and electrolytes D) Urine output and pain intensity What drug might the nurse administer for both analgesic and antitussive effects? A) Codeine B) Aspirin C) Ibuprofen D) Acetaminophen As the nurse settles the patient into his room after returning from the post-anesthesia care unit (PACU), the patient says he is in severe pain. The nurse checks the medical record and sees the patient has an order for morphine 4 to 8 mg every 1 to 2 hour IV as needed for pain. The nurse sees this medication has not been administered yet so the nurse administers 4 mg. After administering the drug, the PACU nurse calls to say a dose of morphine was given and not documented. What drug will the nurse be prepared to administer if the patient's respiratory rate is depressed? A) Naloxone hydrochloride tartrate (Narcan) B) Butorphanol C) Buprenorphine (Buprenex) D) Nalbuphine hydrochloride (Nubain) The nurse is providing patient teaching about a prescribed opioid analgesic. What is an important teaching point related to a possible adverse effect of this drug? A) Ataxia B) Blurred vision C) Hypotension D) Dysrhythmias The nurse receives an order for morphine sulfate 8 mg IV every 1 hour as needed for pain. For which patient would the nurse need to question this order? A) A 78-year-old with osteoarthritis B) A 45-year-old, 1-day postoperative mastectomy C) A 28-year-old with a fractured tibia D) A 17-year-old, 1-day postoperative appendectomy The nurse is administering morphine to a trauma patient for acute pain. Before administering the morphine, what common adverse effect should the nurse inform the patient about? A) Paresthesia in lower extremities B) Occipital headache C) Increased intracranial pressure D) Drowsiness The nurse administers a narcotic analgesic to the postoperative patient. What is the best way for the nurse to evaluate response to the medication? A) Observe the patient without her awareness. B) Use a pain assessment tool before and 30 minutes after administration. C) Assess vital signs. D) Measure oxygen saturation. A patient, 6 days postoperative, is being weaned off an opioid analgesic. The patient reports he is getting no relief from the pain with the new non-opioid medication he is receiving. What might the nurse suspect is causing this patient's pain? A) The patient needs a higher dose of the opioid analgesic. B) The patient has become addicted to the opioid medication. C) The patient has developed withdrawal syndrome. D) The patient has developed a cross-hypersensitive reaction. The home care nurse administers oral morphine to the patient with cancer pain. When will the nurse expect this medication to reach peak activity? A) 10 minutes B) 30 minutes C) 45 minutes D) 60 minutes The nurse administers pentazocine cautiously to what population? A) Patients with known GI disease B) Patients with known heart disease C) Patients with known urinary disease D) Patients with known respiratory disease Narcotic agonists-antagonists have what function? (Select all that apply.) A) Relief of moderate-to-severe pain B) Adjunctive therapies to nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) C) Relief of pain during labor and delivery D) Relief of orthopedic pain E) Adjuncts to general anesthesia When evaluating the effects of narcotic agonist-antagonists on a patient, what adverse effects would the nurse monitor for? A) Hypertension B) Bleeding C) Suppressed bone marrow function D) Increased pulse pressure What is the nurse's priority assessment when administering narcotics to older adults? (Select all that apply.) A) Central nervous system (CNS) effects B) Gastrointestinal effects C) Cardiovascular effects D) Urinary effects E) Developmental effects According to the Gate Control Theory, what interventions by the nurse could help to block pain impulses? A) Administration of opioid medications B) Administration of narcotic agonist-antagonists C) Back massage D) Acupuncture The patient in labor receives morphine every 2 hours to manage labor pain. After 22 hours of labor the woman delivers a baby boy. What is the nurse's priority action related to the newborn? A) Monitor for opioid effects. B) Administer naloxone. C) Monitor for withdrawal syndrome. D) Assess for congenital anomaly. What medication would the nurse administer to the patient in severe pain? A) Codeine B) Hydrocodone C) Hydromorphone D) Opium The patient is brought to the emergency department in respiratory arrest after overdosing on heroin. The person accompanying the patient says he has been using heroin for years. After being administered one dose of a narcotic antagonist, the patient begins to breathe spontaneously but remains nonresponsive to stimuli so another dose of narcotic antagonist is ordered. What symptoms would indicate the patient is experiencing acute narcotic abstinence syndrome? (Select all that apply.) A) Tachycardia B) Hypertension C) Vomiting D) Confusion E) Sedation What order for naloxone would be appropriate for the nurse to administer for reversal of opioid effects? A) 1 mg IV repeat every 2 to 3 minutes B) 5 mg IV repeat every 5 minutes C) 0.1 mg IV repeat every 2 to 3 minutes D) 0.4 mg IV repeat every 3 minutes A patient is admitted to the emergency department with severe recurrent convulsive seizures. What drug would the nurse expect to be ordered for use in emergency control of status epilepticus? A) Phenytoin (Dilantin) B) Diazepam (Valium) C) Phenobarbital (Luminal) D) Ethosuximide (Zarontin) The pharmacology instructor is discussing drugs used for the treatment of partial seizures. What accurately describes the physiological action of carbamazepine? A) Reduces electrical activity B) Alters sodium and calcium channels C) Increases gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) activity and blocks sodium and calcium channels to stop action potentials D) Depresses conduction in the brainstem and cortex A 7-year-old girl is brought to the clinic by her mother. The mother states that the child will be engaged in some activity at home and then will just stop for a few seconds and then pick up the activity again as if there had been no break in what she was doing. The nurse suspects the child might be demonstrating what type of seizure? A) Tonic-clonic seizure B) Absence seizure C) Myoclonic seizure D) Status epilepticus A patient is brought into the emergency department in status epilepticus. The nurse administers phenobarbital 320 mg IV according to protocol. Family members ask the nurse how long it will take to stop the seizures. What is the nurse's best response? A) "The onset of action for the medication is 5 minutes." B) "We should see results in about 10 minutes." C) "It will probably take about 30 minutes before the seizures begin to subside." D) "It may be an hour before the seizures stop." The nurse evaluates the patient's serum phenytoin (Dilantin) level and determines the level is therapeutic when it is within what range? A) Between 5 and 12 mcg/mL B) Between 10 and 20 mcg/mL C) Between 15 and 50 mcg/mL D) Between 40 and 100 mcg/mL A nurse is teaching a patient about his or her newly prescribed drug, phenytoin (Dilantin) for a seizure disorder. What will the nurse alert the patient to as a serious adverse effect of this drug? A) Drowsiness B) Fatigue C) Rash D) Lethargy An 8-year-old child has been diagnosed with a seizure disorder and phenytoin (Dilantin) has been prescribed for him or her. What nursing diagnosis would be appropriate if the child demonstrated adverse effects to the drug? A) Deficient fluid volume B) Impaired skin integrity related to dermatological effects C) Noncompliance for drug therapy D) Sleep deprivation A patient is taking ethosuximide (Zarontin) for absence seizures. He or she complains of gastrointestinal (GI) upset associated with the drug. The nurse will encourage the patient to do what? A) "Take the drug 1 hour before or 2 hours after a meal." B) "Decrease the dosage." C) "Take the drug with food." D) "Discontinue the drug and ask his or her physician to prescribe another drug." The drug of choice for the treatment of partial seizures is what? A) Carbamazepine (Tegretol) B) Clorazepate (Tranxene) C) Felbamate (Felbatol) D) Gabapentin (Neurontin) A patient who has been taking lamotrigine (Lamictal) for the past 2 weeks calls the clinic and reports to the nurse that he or she has developed a rash. What should the nurse tell him or her to do? A) To continue taking the drug and that the rash will go away B) To talk to he or she physician and that he will prescribe a cream to apply to the rash C) To decrease the dosage by half for 2 weeks and then take the prescribed dose D) To discontinue the drug and return to the clinic immediately The school nurse sees a child on the playground have an absence seizure identified by the occurrence of what characteristics? A) Alterations in consciousness that last seconds B) Automatic and repetitive movements C) Abnormal movements and bizarre behavior D) Sustained contraction of skeletal muscle The nurse is providing patient education for a patient newly prescribed a hydantoin antiseizure medication. What would the nurse be sure to teach the patient regarding the dangers of abrupt withdrawal? A) Hypertensive crisis B) Cardiac dysrhythmias C) Respiratory arrest D) Status epilepticus A patient is brought to the emergency department in the midst of an active clonic-tonic seizure. What is the most appropriate antiseizure drug for the nurse to administer intravenously to terminate acute convulsive seizures? A) Diazepam (Valium) B) Phenytoin (Dilantin) C) Ethosuximide (Zarontin) D) Gabapentin (Neurontin) The nurse is caring for a patient receiving ethotoin to control seizure activity. When reviewing the patient's laboratory results, the nurse would assess the patient is in a therapeutic level when the lab result is within what range? A) 5 to 15 mcg/mL B) 10 to 20 mcg/mL C) 15 to 50 mcg/mL D) 20 to 30 mcg/mL The nurse, working in the emergency room, admits a 13-month-old child reported by the parents to have had a clonic-tonic seizure at home with no history of a seizure disorder. What is the nurse's priority intervention? A) Monitor serum phenytoin level. B) Take the child's temperature. C) Place the child in a tepid bath. D) Administer an antipyretic medication. Richard, 15 years old, has been diagnosed with epilepsy. He is to be sent home on oral phenytoin 100 mg b.i.d. What statement by Richard's mother leads the nurse to believe she has understood drug teaching? A) "I will make sure he takes the medication on an empty stomach." B) "I will stop the drug immediately if any side effects occur." C) "I will make sure he has routine visits to the dentist." D) "I will weigh him daily and feed him a high-calorie diet." The mother of a child newly diagnosed with drug-resistant epilepsy asks the nurse why two antiepileptic drugs have been prescribed for her daughter. What is the nurse's best answer? A) To decrease overall cost B) To decrease risk of adverse effects C) To minimize seizures in resistant epilepsy D) To increase movement of sodium ions into the cell The patient's serum drug level is elevated and indicates a toxic level. What will the nurse assess for in this patient? (Select all that apply.) A) Liver toxicity B) Bone marrow suppression C) Serious dermatological reactions D) Tooth loss E) Renal damage A patient has a new order for carbamazepine (Tegretol). What does the nurse know is a contraindication to administration of carbamazepine? A) Bone marrow depression B) Bipolar disorder C) Allergy to sulfonamides D) Diabetes The nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with generalized seizures and will appropriately administer what classifications of medications to this patient? (Select all that apply.) A) Succinimides B) Acetazolamide C) Valproic acid D) Hydantoin E) Benzodiazepines The nurse is caring for a 4-year-old child diagnosed with a seizure disorder requiring an antiseizure agent. Using mg/kg as the comparison, how will the child's dose compare with an adult's dose? A) Children require a smaller mg/kg dose than an adult. B) Children require a larger mg/kg dose than an adult. C) Mg/kg dose is the same for adults and children. D) Dosing varies by medication. A patient with a seizure disorder has had a recent change in medication. What data would the nurse collect to evaluate the effectiveness of the new drug? (Select all that apply.) A) Evaluate vital signs. B) Evaluate laboratory drug level. C) Assess for adverse effects. D) Assess for change in seizure activity. E) Assess for cost of therapy. A patient is brought in to the emergency department by ambulance in status epilepticus. What drug may be used for this patient? A) Carbamazepine B) Clorazepate C) Ethotoin D) Fosphenytoin The patient has serum drug levels of an antiepileptic drug ordered. The patient asks the nurse why drug levels are measured. What is the nurse's best response? A) To evaluate whetherthe therapeutic range is reached B) To measure the amount of toxicity C) To determine the effect of the drug on body systems D) To evaluate the effectiveness of therapy The nursing instructor is discussing absence seizures and how to treat them in children. A student asks the difference between ethosuximide and methsuximide, the drugs used to control absence seizures. What is the instructor's best response? A) "Ethosuximide has more severe adverse effects than methsuximide." B) "Seizures are more refractory to methsuximide." C) "There is no real difference in the drugs." D) "Methsuximide has more severe adverse effects than ethosuximide." A patient, newly diagnosed with a seizure disorder, has been prescribed valproic acid. What is one adverse effect of valproic acid that the nurse should include in the medication teaching plan? A) Liver toxicity B) Esophageal irritation C) Cardiac insufficiency D) Muscle weakness While writing a care plan for a patient newly diagnosed with generalized seizures, the nurse might appropriately choose what nursing diagnosis? A) Risk for injury related to gastrointestinal (GI) effects B) Disturbed thought processes related to central nervous system effects C) Monitor complete blood count (CBC) before and periodically during therapy. D) Offer support and encouragement. The patient, newly diagnosed with epilepsy, asks the nurse to explain the meaning of the diagnosis. What is the nurse's best response? A) "Epilepsy is a single disease that causes seizures." B) "Epilepsy is a convulsive disorder caused by electrical discharge in the muscle." C) "Epilepsy is characterized by sudden discharge of excessive electrical energy." D) "Epilepsy is the tonic-clonic muscle contractions with potential to cause injury. The nurse is providing patient teaching with a patient who is newly diagnosed with epilepsy. The patient asks, "Can I still drive to work?" What is the nurse's best response? A) "Not until your seizures are controlled by medication" B) "Yes, as long as you take your medications regularly." C) "You can drive as soon as therapeutic drug levels are obtained." D) "Epileptics need to use public transportation because a seizure could occur anytime." The nurse is caring for an 84-year-old patient in the acute care facility who was newly diagnosed with a seizure disorder. Before starting the patient on an antiepileptic medication that will be continued after discharge, what laboratory studies would the nurse want to assess? (Select all that apply.) A) Serum drug levels B) Liver function studies C) Renal function studies D) Cardiovascular function studies E) Central nervous system function studies What antiepileptic classification of drugs works by stabilizing nerve membranes by influencing ionic channels in the cell membrane, thereby decreasing excitability and hyperexcitability to stimulation? A) Hydantoins B) Benzodiazepines C) Valproic acid D) Carbamazepine [Show More]

Last updated: 1 year ago

Preview 1 out of 27 pages