Straighterline: POLS 101 All EXAMS Questions and Answers,100% CORRECT

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Straighterline: POLS 101 All EXAMS Questions and Answers 1.Americ ans’ nationa l identit y rests largely upon a. ethnic kinship. b. common language. c. shared political ideals. d. ... religion. e. federal law. Answer: c Page: 7 2. The American ideal of equality a. promotes the idea that all citizens should be equal in their standard of living. b. is fully consistent with individualism. c. does not include the idea that everyone is entitled to fair treatment under the law. d. has helped minority groups to achieve their goals. e. has always been fully implemented in U.S. history. Answer: d Page: 10 3. The American political culture includes all of the following ideals except a. liberty. b. equality. c. self-government. d. individualism. e. economic equality. Answer: e Page: 11 4. Inalienable rights a. belong to the government only. b. belong to individuals but can be denied by government. c. belong to individuals and cannot be denied by government. d. do not exist in the United States. e. are not mentioned in the Declaration of Independence. Answer: c Page: 9 5. Citizens of are most likely to believe that personal effort is the key to success. a. Germany b. Italy c. France d. the United States e. Great Britain Answer: d Page: 12 6. Cultural beliefs are said to be mythic ideas, which means that they are a. almost completely unreal. b. perfect representations of reality. c. symbolic postures that reflect partly what is ideal and partly what is real. d. perverted images of reality, as in the case of totalitarianism. e. specifically listed in the U.S. Constitution. Answer: c Page: 13 7. Conflict in the practice of America’s ideals occurs because these ideals a. are general principles, not precise rules. b. conflict somewhat with one another. c. are only one of the many sources of political action. d. are enduring and powerful. e. All of the answers are correct. Answer: e Page: 16 8. Which one of the following is not widely regarded as a political ideal in America? a. liberty b. equality c. self-government d. freedom e. collectivism Answer: e Page: 11 9. Until 1965, immigration laws were biased in favor of immigrants from a. Asia. b. the Middle East. c. Europe. d. Africa. e. Latin America Answer: c Page: 15 10. The principle of self-government emphasizes majority rule whereas the principle of liberty emphasizes individual rights. These principles a. are universal and the foundation of all legitimate governments. b. have no real meaning in practice. c. have the same meaning for all Americans. d. are not fully consistent with each other. e. are not expressed in the Declaration of Independence. Answer: d Page: 16 11. Political conflict is rooted in which two general conditions of society? a. authority and scarcity of resources b. differing values and scarcity of resources c. differing values and competition d. authority and competition e. authority and differing values Answer: b Page: 17 12. Overt discrimination against Hispanics was eliminated from U.S. immigration laws a. after the Spanish-American War at the turn of the twentieth century. b. during World War I. c. during the 1960s at the time of the civil rights movement. d. in the early 1990s after the fall of the Soviet Union. e. after the terrorist attacks on September 11, 2001. Answer: c Page: 15 13. The play of politics takes place according to rules that the participants agree to accept. In the American case, the rules of the game include all of the following, except a. autocracy. b. democracy. c. constitutionalism. d. capitalism. e. None of the answers are correct. Answer: a Page: 21 14. In a constitutional system, a. there are no restrictions on the lawful uses of power, as long as this power is obtained by majority rule. b. citizens have basic rights which government cannot take away. c. the economy is based on the free enterprise system. d. officials govern according to the traditions established by their predecessors. e. the judiciary is more powerful in all respects than the legislature or executive. Answer: b Page: 22 15. America’s founding principles have roots in a. beliefs about the proper use of war. b. commercial practices. c. systems of absolute rule. d. the law of the seas. e. religious beliefs. Answer: e Page: 20 16. Which of the following is characteristic of a capitalist economic system? a. free enterprise b. self-reliance c. private property d. individualism e. All of the answers are correct. Answer: e Page: 23 17. The statement, “We hold these truths to be self-evident, that all men are created equal,” can be found in a. the Declaration of Independence. b. the U.S. Constitution. c. the Federalist Papers. d. the Civil Rights Act of 1964. e. the Emancipation Proclamation. Answer: a Page: 10 18. According to the historian Louis Hartz, the United States was “born .” a. twice b. free c. united d. in peace e. once Answer: b Page: 9 19. A government’s authority a. is evidenced when government officials exercise political power. b. is by definition not coercive. c. does not include the power to arrest and imprison. d. ensures that lawlessness prevails most of the time. e. is based on pluralism. Answer: a Page: 25 20. is the process that determines how a society will be governed. a. Politics b. Pluralism c. Elitism d. Socialism e. Authoritarianism Answer: a Page: 17 21. Who observed that Americans are a special case in terms of their national identity? a. James Bryce b. King George III c. James Madison d. William James e. Calvin Coolidge Answer: a Page: 7 22. Americans’ emphasis on self-sufficiency and material accumulation reflects their belief in a. liberty. b. self-government. c. individualism. d. diversity. e. collectivism. Answer: c Page: 11 23. Among the following nations, the percentage of people who say that immigrants’ influence has been very good or somewhat good is highest in a. France. b. Germany. c. the United States. d. Italy. e. Great Britain. Answer: ec Page: 16 24. Since the 1960s the largest number of immigrants have come from a. Europe. b. Africa. c. Asia. d. Latin America. e. Canada. Answer: d Page: 15 25. In the Second Treatise on Civil Government, argued that all individuals have certain natural rights, including life, liberty, and the pursuit of happiness. a. Thomas Hobbes b. John Locke c. Thomas Jefferson d. Jean Jacques Rousseau e. James Madison Answer: b Page: 20 26. Thomas Jefferson’s wrote: a. Common Sense. b. the Declaration of Independence. c. the Constitution. d. the Emancipation Proclamation. e. the Four Freedoms doctrine. Answer: b Page: 11 27. In Leviathan, Thomas Hobbes argued that life in the state of nature is a. heavenly. b. worth protecting so that future generations can enjoy nature’s beauty. c. peaceful but boring. d. truly equal for all. e. dangerous and warlike. Answer: e Page: 18 28. Americans’ deep-seated political beliefs a. have changed so much over time that today’s beliefs have little resemblance to those held by earlier generations. b. are more firmly held by men than by women. c. affect what Americans regard as reasonable and acceptable and therefore what they will try to achieve politically. d. are for the most part ideas that have no relevance to how Americans live today. e. have been manipulated by politicians to the point where their meaning is lost. Answer: c Page: 31 29. Which of the following is true of totalitarian governments? a. Totalitarian governments assert complete dominance over individuals and institutions of society. b. Totalitarian governments control the mass media. c. Totalitarian governments use one-party rule. d. Totalitarian governments use violence to subdue their opponents. e. All of the answers are correct. Answer: e Page: 24 30. A major criticism of the theory of pluralism is that a. there are no organized interest groups. b. majorities always win. c. only a small number of powerful groups are well-organized and influence policymakers. d. minority groups always win. e. None of the answers are correct. Answer: c Page: 28 31. Jon Stewart’s “The Daily Show” a. has a conservative slant. b. has a liberal slant. c. appeals particularly to middle-aged viewers. d. appeals particularly to women. e. appeals particularly to Republicans. Answer: b Page: 26 32. America’s pluralism stems from a. its geographical diversity. b. its economic complexity. c. its religious diversity. d. its ethnic diversity. e. All of the answers are correct. Answer: e Page: 25 33. Politics inherently involves a. conflict. b. agreement about tax issues. c. agreement about privacy issues. d. agreement about war and peace issues. e. agreement about presidential candidates. Answer: a Page: 17 34. E Pluribus Unum means a. government of the people, by the people, and for the people. b. out of many, one. c. rugged individualism. d. the people rule. e. the sovereign is ultimate. Answer: b Page: 11 35. Which of the following statements is true? a. Socialism cannot exist in a political democracy. b. Sweden is a communist country. c. The United States is a predominantly socialist country. d. Governmental ownership of some industries is a characteristic of socialist countries. e. True capitalism does not exist anywhere but in the United States. Answer: d Page: 23 36. The method of operation of the Federal Reserve Board would best support the theory of a. majoritarianism. b. pluralism. c. elitism. d. bureaucratic rule. e. None of the answers are correct. Answer: c Page: 28 37. A leading theorist of bureaucratic rule was a. Franklin Delano Roosevelt. b. Robert Dahl. c. Max Weber. d. C. Wright Mills. e. Alexis de Tocqueville. Answer: c Page: 29 38. is the ability of persons or institutions to control policy. a. Apathy b. Politics c. Power d. Liberty e. Political culture Answer: c Page: 26 39. The Greek words demos and kratis together mean a. majority rule is sacred. b. the people rule. c. government is good. d. politics is immoral. e. the king is good. Answer: b Page: 21 40. Major tendencies in the U.S. political system include all of the following except a. enduring cultural beliefs that are the people’s common bond. b. deep hostility toward any group of which one is not a member. c. extreme fragmentation of governing authority. d. strong emphasis on individual rights. e. a relatively sharp separation of the political and economic spheres. Answer: b Page: 31 Essay/Short Answer 1. A defining characteristic of the American political system is its enduring and powerful set of cultural ideals. Explain. Answer: Political culture refers to the characteristic and deep-seated beliefs of a particular people. In the American case, these beliefs are the basis of national identity. In many countries, national identity is based on a common ancestry, a kinship through blood. Americans, however, are linked not through common ethnicity but through a political tradition founded on a set of ideals—liberty, self-government, equality, individualism, diversity, and unity. These beliefs do not have exact meanings in practice, but they do set boundaries on political action and affect what Americans will regard as necessary and desirable. These beliefs bind the American people together and give purpose and direction to their politics. 2. Define politics, power, and authority. Answer: Politics is the process by which it is determined whose values will prevail in the making of public policy. Those factions or people who prevail in getting their values accepted are said to have power. When power is exercised through the laws and institutions of government, authority is involved. Authority is defined as the recognized right of an official or institution to exercise power. 3. Explain the justification for referring to cultural beliefs as myths. Answer: Cultural beliefs are mythical in that they are combinations of fact and wishful thinking. America’s belief in equality, for example, reflects the society’s progress in the promotion of human equality but ignores, for instance, the discriminatory practices that African Americans have had to endure throughout the country’s history. Mythical ideas are symbolic positions taken by people to justify and give meaning to their way of life. 4. Identify two sources of conflict among America’s political ideals. Illustrate these sources of conflict in the context of a specific political issue. Answer: One reason why American ideals conflict is that they are general principles, rather than fixed rules of conduct. As general principles, they are open to interpretation in practice, and conflict can arise when different people interpret them differently. Second, these principles are not fully consistent with each other. They derive from different historical experiences and philosophies, and include conflicting elements. A policy issue that illustrates these sources of conflict is affirmative action. Equality and diversity, which emphasize fairness and full opportunities for all, can provide the basis for arguments for affirmative action. However, liberty and individualism, which emphasize personal freedom, can be the basis of arguments against affirmative action. 5. How could one argue that America is not run by a small power elite? Answer: One could argue that due to the diversity of group structures in America and the fierce competition over whose values will emerge victorious on any particular issue, it would therefore be difficult for one homogeneous group to consistently control policies and all other competing political forces in the United States. 1. The idea that government should be restricted in its lawful uses of power and hence in its ability to deprive people of their liberty is expressed by the term a. federalism. b. self-government. c. judicial review. d. limited government. e. natural rights. Answer: d Page: 36 2. The philosopher most closely associated with the concept of natural rights is a. Montesquieu. b. Locke. c. Rousseau. d. Aristotle. e. Plato. Answer: b Page: 38 2. Natural rights theorists maintain a. that certain people in society are naturally endowed with more ability than others. b. that certain rights belonged to people in their natural state before governments were created. c. that political ideals should be based on religious principles. d. that a state of nature is preferable to government. e. that the divine right to rule is crucial for legitimate governments. Answer: b Page: 38 2. Early Americans’ preference for limited government was strengthened by a. the personal freedom that life in America allowed. b. the idea that people have natural rights. c. Britain’s treatment of the colonies after the French and Indian War. d. abuses of power by European monarchs. e. All of the answers are correct. Answer: e Page: 37 2. The American colonists based their right to revolt against Britain’s authority on the claim that a. the wealth of the new world belonged to them, since they had developed it through their labor. b. the colonial charters had expired, which made them free men under the rules of international law. c. their rights as British subjects had been violated. d. the conflict between the British and the French in the New World was a violation of treaties and hence neither British nor French authority was valid. e. the Articles of Confederation legally replaced British rule in the colonies. Answer: c Page: 38 6. The words of the Declaration of Independence reflected a. Aristotle’s conception of democracy. b. Montesquieu’s view of constitutionalism. c. Hobbes’ idea of the state of nature. d. Locke’s philosophy of inalienable rights. f. Madison’s view of factions. Answer: d Page: 38 7. Through the grants of power in the Constitution, the Framers sought to a. define the powers of state governments. b. create a government in which sovereignty was invested in the national government only. c. both empower government and limit it. d. enumerate the rights of individuals. f. abolish slavery. Answer: c Page: 47 8. Among the Constitution’s denials of powers is the right of habeas corpus, which prohibits government from a. prosecuting persons for acts that were legal at the time they were committed. b. establishing a state religion based on Christian beliefs. c. enacting laws that would legalize the practice of indentured servitude. d. jailing a person without a court hearing to determine the legality of her/his imprisonment. f. silencing freedom of the press. Answer: d Page: 48 9. Which of the following chronologies is correct? a. The Boston Tea Party came before the Declaration of Independence. b. Shays’ Rebellion came before the Declaration of Independence. c. The Constitution was written before the Declaration of Independence was written. d. The Revolutionary War came before the French and Indian War. f. The Articles of Confederation came before the Declaration of Independence. Answer: a Page: 38 10. The principle of checks and balances is based on the notion that a. leaders are the trustees of the people. b. a weak government is always preferable to a strong government. c. all legislative and executive action should be controlled through judicial power. d. power must be used to offset power. f. legislators and executives cannot be trusted, but judges are trustworthy. Answer: d Page: 48 11. The Framers’ most significant modification of the traditional doctrine of the separation powers was to a. include federalism. b. include a two-chamber legislature. c. define legislative power precisely, while defining executive and judicial power only in general terms. d. ensure that the powers of the separate branches overlap, so that each could better act as a check on the others. f. grant the power of judicial review to the judiciary. Answer: d Page: 49 12. In practice, the most significant restraint imposed by Congress on the president is its a. ability to override presidential vetoes. b. power of impeachment. c. power to make the laws and appropriate money, for these determine the programs the executive can implement. d. power to approve presidential appointees. f. power to investigate presidential activities. Answer: c Page: 50 13. The Bill of Rights was added to the Constitution a. by the Framers during the Philadelphia Convention. b. in stages, with free expression rights added first and the rights of the accused added years later. c. in response to the freeing of the slaves during the Civil War. d. in response to the ideals of Jacksonian democracy. f. None of the answers are correct. Answer: e Page: 52 14. The concept of separation of powers was promoted by a. Montesquieu. b. Aristotle. c. Hobbes. d. Locke. f. Jefferson. Answer: a Page: 48 15. Marbury v. Madison is a landmark Supreme Court decision because it a. established national supremacy. b. set the precedent for judicial review. c. defined the scope of state powers under the Tenth Amendment. d. affirmed the necessary and proper clause. f. helped to end Thomas Jefferson’s political career. Answer: b Page: 53 16. Marbury v. Madison was an ingenious decision because it a. returned a case that involved the issue of states’ rights into one that asserted national power. b. redefined the constitutional relationship between the president and Congress. c. asserted the power of the judiciary without bringing it into direct conflict with the president or Congress. d. turned a case that involved the issue of states’ rights into one that asserted judicial power over the institutions of society. f. gave more power to the presidency, at the expense of Congress. Answer: c Page: 53 17. referred to his victory in the presidential election as the Revolution of 1800. a. John Adams b. Andrew Jackson c. John Marshall d. Thomas Jefferson f. James Madison Answer: d Page: 58 18. John Marshall was an ardent a. nationalist. b. states’ rights advocate. c. supporter of Thomas Jefferson. d. member of the Democratic-Republican party. e. member of the Whig party. Answer: a Page: 56 19. The traditional objection to democratic government is the risk of a. tyranny of the majority. b. elite rule. c. special-interest politics. d. a weak presidency. f. judicial imperialism. Answer: a Page: 55 20. The writers of the Constitution used the term to describe the form of government in which power resides in the people but is exercised through a system of representative institutions. a. democracy b. republic c. federalism d. constitutionalism f. Electoral College Answer: b Page: 56 21. Edmund Burke’s idea of representatives as trustees was based on the claim that a. representatives should follow their own judgment of the public interest. b. representatives should follow the voters’ judgment of the public interest. c. indirect election is a more trustworthy means of discovering the public interest. d. direct election is a more trustworthy means of discovering the public interest. f. None of the answers are correct. Answer: a Page: 56 22. The writers of the Constitution devised the Electoral College as the method of choosing presidents because a. direct election was impractical due to the poor systems of communication and transportation that existed in the late 1700s. b. the method would shield executive power from popular majorities and Congress. c. the method guaranteed a majority winner. d. the method would give weight to the preferences of ordinary people. f. the Framers had a great deal of faith in the wisdom of the masses. Answer: b Page: 57 23. The Framers entrusted the selection of U.S. senators to a. specially chosen electors. b. state legislatures. c. direct vote of the people. d. state governors. e. federal magistrates. Answer: b Page: 57 24. The term of office for a U.S. senator is years, while that of a member of the U.S. House is years. a. six; two b. four; two c. six; four d. four; four f. eight; four Answer: a Page: 57 25. The writers of the Constitution justified different methods of selection and varying terms of office for the president, Senate, and House as a means of a. increasing popular influence. b. protection against ruthless majorities. c. preventing elite control of government. d. maintaining experienced leadership. f. increasing voter turnout. Answer: b Page: 57 26. Thomas Jefferson proclaimed the Revolution of 1800 the victory of a. common people over wealthy interests. b. merchants over farmers. c. southern interests over northern interests. d. nationalists over states’ rights advocates. f. American interests over foreign interests. Answer: a Page: 58 27. Andrew Jackson persuaded the states to choose their presidential electors a. on the basis of popular voting. b. by a vote of the state legislature. c. by a vote of Congress. d. by a presidential convention. f. on the basis of one state, one elector. Answer: a Page: 59 28. The first plan of government for the United States was a a. confederation. b. federal system. c. unitary form of government. d. monarchy. f. theocracy. Answer: a Page: 39 29. Progressive reforms included a. primary elections. b. direct election of U.S. senators. c. the initiative and referendum. d. recall elections. f. All of the answers are correct. Answer: e Page: 60 30. In his criticism of the Constitution, the economist Charles Beard argued that a. the Constitution’s elaborate systems of power and representation were designed to protect the interests of the rich. b. the Constitution failed to protect the economic interests of the poorer states. c. the Constitution’s commerce clause was inadequate to meet the nation’s economic needs. d. the Constitution did not provide for sufficient protection of property. f. the Constitution gave too much power to the illiterate. Answer: a Page: 61 31. The Articles of Confederation provided for a. a national Congress. b. each state having one vote in Congress. c. unanimous approval by the states to amend the Articles. d. All of the answers are correct. f. None of the answers are correct. Answer: d Page: 39 32. The inalienable rights in the Declaration of Independence are a. life, liberty, and the pursuit of happiness. b. liberty, equality, and fraternity. c. life, liberty, and property. d. life and property only. e. equality and liberty only. Answer: a Page: 38 33. presided over the Philadelphia Convention of 1787. a. Benjamin Franklin b. Gouverneur Morris c. Edmund Randolph d. James Madison f. George Washington Answer: e Page: 49 34. The Constitution prohibits Congress from a. proposing constitutional amendments. b. passing ex post facto laws. c. declaring war. d. proposing the repeal of constitutional amendments. f. creating a national university. Answer: b Page: 48 35. Not among the checks Congress has on the executive is the a. power to ratify treaties. b. power to approve executive appointments. c. power to hold hearings. d. power to impeach. f. power to administer the laws directly if it chooses to do so. Answer: e Page: 50 36. Which of the following is not part of the First Amendment? a. freedom of press b. freedom of religion c. freedom of assembly d. freedom of speech e. right to bear arms Answer: e Page: 52 37. Under the original Constitution, Congress could not ban the slave trade until a. 1808. b. 1828. c. 1848. d. 1865. e. 1887. Answer: a Page: 43 38. The Federalist Papers were written by a. Washington, Adams, and Jefferson. b. Franklin, Washington, and Lee. c. Jefferson, Locke, and Montesquieu. d. Madison, Hamilton, and Jay. f. Marshall, Jefferson, and Adams. Answer: d Page: 45 39. The Constitution was ratified by a. the people. b. the state legislatures. c. state conventions. d. the Supreme Court. e. the Continental Congress. Answer: c Page: 46 40. The document explaining the ideas of the Constitution and urging its ratification is the a. Mayflower Compact. b. Declaration of Independence. c. Anti-Federalist Papers. d. Federalist Papers. e. Declaration of Conscience. Answer: d Page: 46 41. Presidents are a. directly selected by the people. b. selected by votes of the state legislatures. c. selected by votes of the Electoral College. d. subject to recall elections. e. subject to confidence votes by Congress. Answer: c Page: 57 42. Which of the following is an example of checks and balances? a. the veto b. the impeachment process c. approval of treaties d. judicial review e. All of the answers are correct. Answer: e Page: 50 43. Where is the Bill of Rights found in the Constitution? a. Article I, Section 8 b. Article II c. the first ten amendments d. amendments 17 through 26 e. Article III Answer: c Page: 52 44. is the primary author of the Declaration of Independence. a. John Locke b. Thomas Jefferson c. James Madison d. George Washington e. Alexander Hamilton Answer: b Page: 38 45. Judicial review is the power of the American courts to a. declare a law unconstitutional. b. suspend the writ of habeas corpus. c. impeach the president. d. give advisory opinions to Congress. e. give advice and counsel to the president. Answer: a Page: 50 46. Which of the following developments in the national political system provided for more popular control? a. primary elections b. direct election of U.S. senators c. recall elections d. initiative and referendum e. All of the answers are correct. Answer: e Page: 60 47. A constitutional democracy a. includes the election of representatives by vote of the people. b. protects minority rights. c. operates under the rule of law. d. was established in 1787 by the U.S. Constitution. e. All of the answers are correct. Answer: e Page: 62 48. Shays’ Rebellion a. was a successful revolt. b. convinced many political leaders that the national government was too powerful. c. convinced many political leaders that the national government was too weak. d. reinforced public support for the Articles of Confederation. e. occurred after the Philadelphia Convention of 1787. Answer: c Page: 41 49. Which of the following statements is true? a. John Marshall served as chief justice of the Supreme Court. b. Thomas Jefferson served as chief justice of the Supreme Court. c. John Marshall was vice president under John Adams. d. Thomas Jefferson was an ardent supporter of John Marshall. e. Both John Marshall and Thomas Jefferson were among the signers of the Declaration of Independence. Answer: a Page: 53 50. Which of the following is correct under the Constitution? a. The legislature enforces the law. b. The executive makes the law. c. The judiciary interprets the law. d. The bureaucrats make the law. e. Interest groups directly determine public policy outcomes. Answer: c Page: 50 51. The “three-fifths compromise” was a response to a. the institution of slavery. b. the concerns of small states. c. apportionment in the U.S. Senate. d. the Electoral College. e. the demands of large states. Answer: a Page: 43 52. The direct election of U.S. senators came about due to a. passage of the Second Amendment. b. political pressure from the Progressives. c. Jeffersonian democracy. d. Jacksonian democracy. e. the fact that state legislators no longer desired to select them. Answer: b Page: 61 53. The Great Compromise produced a. checks and balances. b. the abolition of slavery. c. a bicameral Congress. d. separation of powers. e. federalism. Answer: c Page: 42 54. Presidential appointments and treaties must be approved by a. Congress. b. only the president. c. the Senate. d. the Supreme Court e. the secretary of state. Answer: c Page: 50 55. A contemporary legislator who voted for a bill even though his constituents back home overwhelmingly opposed the bill would be performing the Edmund Burke role of a. trustee. b. delegate. c. statesperson. d. politician. e. oversight. Answer: a Page: 56 56. The Framers of the Constitution preferred which of the following political arrangements? a. a republic as opposed to a pure democracy b. a monarchy as opposed to a constitutional system c. a pure democracy over a republic d. a pure democracy over a representative democracy e. socialism over capitalism Answer: a Page: 56 57. The U.S. Constitution was designed so as to create a. a limited government. b. a representative government. c. a state-centered government. d. a limited, representative government. e. a limited, state-centered government. Answer: d Page: 56 58. A feature of the U.S. Constitution that aims to establish a limited government is a. denials of power. b. grants of power. c. checks and balances d. Bill of Rights e. All the answers are correct. Answer: e Page: 63 59. It can be said of the Constitution’s original provisions for self-government that a. ordinary citizens, through their votes, were given direct control over all the institutions of the federal government. b. ordinary citizens, through their votes, were given more control over the federal government than they had over the state governments. c. these provisions have not stood the test of time—that Americans in their history have made changes in the Constitution that have increased the use of the vote as a means of choosing their national leaders. d. the original provisions reflected a complete trust in the people’s ability to restrain their passions. e. None of the answers are correct. Answer: c Page: 58 Essay/Short Answer 1. Define limited government and its relation to liberty. Explain ways in which the Constitution limits government. Answer: Limited government is a government that is subject to strict limits on its lawful uses of power, and hence its ability to deprive people of their liberty. There are five major ways the Constitution limits the government. These include (1) grants of power: powers granted to the national government by the Constitution. Powers not granted to it are denied to it unless they are necessary and proper to the carrying out of granted power; (2) denials of power: powers expressly denied to the national and state governments by the Constitution; (3) separated institutions sharing power: the division of the national government’s power among three branches, each of which is to act as a check on the other two; (4) Bill of Rights: the first ten amendments to the Constitution, which specify individual rights that the national government must respect; and (5) federalism: the division of political authority between the national government and the states, enabling the people to appeal to one authority if their rights and interests are not respected by the others. Some analysts include judicial review in this list even though it is not explicitly provided for in the Constitution. 2. Explain why early Americans admired limited government. Answer: Two main factors were the colonists’ English heritage and pre-revolutionary experiences. In terms of the former, the British king was restricted by Parliament and the English people had certain rights, such as a trial by jury. In addition, the colonial charters served as prototypes for constitutionalism and limited government; they placed restrictions on the uses of political power. 3. Define judicial review and explain its origin and importance. Answer: Judicial review is the process whereby the courts, especially the Supreme Court, judge the constitutionality of executive and legislative actions. Judicial review is important, first, because it makes the judicial branch the constitutional equal of the other two branches. Second, judicial review is a powerful instrument for protecting limited government. The 1803 landmark case of Marbury v. Madison set the precedent for judicial review by invalidating an act of Congress that was signed by President George Washington. 4. The Framers of the Constitution understood democracy and republic to mean different things. Explain this difference and identify which concept the Framers favored. Answer: In a democracy, the people directly decide public issues. In a republic, elected representatives meet in official institutions to decide policy. The Framers supported the republican system because they feared a democracy would lead to tyranny of the majority. While this threat could never be eliminated totally, the Framers believed that properly structured representative institutions would greatly diminish the threat. Thus, they believed that political power, though responsive to the public, must be separated from immediate popular influences if sound policies are to result. 5. Discuss representative democracy as conceived by the Framers. Include a brief discussion of Edmund Burke’s philosophy. Answer: Representative democracy is another name for a republic. According to the Framers, a representative democracy would guard against chaos and civil unrest by incorporating the principle of majority rule along with built-in protection against excessive majoritarianism. The objective was a government sensitive to the majority’s immediate concern that was also able to promote long-term societal interests. This objective is in line with Burke’s concept of public trusteeship—that representatives should use their best judgment of what is good for society rather than blindly following the desires of the voting public. 6. Explain how provisions for majority rule have changed throughout U.S. history. Include examples from the Jacksonian era and the Progressive movement. Answer: The Constitution made only a small provision for majority rule; the House of Representatives was the only popularly elected institution. During the Jacksonian era, the power of the majority increased, partly though the linking of a state’s electoral votes to its popular votes. The Progressives furthered this development through, for example, direct election of U.S. senators, the introduction of the primary election, and the referendum and the initiative. The writers of the Constitution established a federal system of government because a. the states already existed. b. it was consistent with the philosophy expressed in the Declaration of Independence. c. Locke and Montesquieu concluded it was superior to other systems of government. d. the British political system was based on the federal principle. b. George Mason wanted to abolish the states. Answer: a Page: 69 2. Viewed in historical terms, federalism has been a a. pragmatic principle, in that the relationship between the nation and the states has adapted to the needs of the time. b. theoretical principle, in that constitutional provisions for federalism have had virtually no impact on the relationship between the nation and the states. c. flawed principle, in that the relationship between the nation and the states has been a constant source of problems without many positive benefits. d. fixed principle, in that the relationship between the nation and states is almost completely defined by provisions of the Constitution. g. poor replacement for the confederal system which existed before the Constitution. Answer: a Page: 93 3. Which of the following were arguments in favor of federalism at the time of the writing of the Constitution? a. Federalism will protect liberty. b. Federalism will force officials to be more responsive to the people. c. Federalism will provide for a stronger national government than existed under the Articles of Confederation. d. Federalism will preserve the states as sovereign governments. g. All of the answers are correct. Answer: e Page: 71 4. Which of the following is not an enumerated power of the national government? a. public education b. regulation of commerce c. declaration of war d. taxation g. printing money Answer: a Page: 74 5. States may, by the Constitution, a. make treaties. b. provide for law and order. c. wage war. d. print money. g. do anything that is “necessary and proper.” Answer: b Page: 74 6. Regarding the commerce power, which statement is incorrect? a. The states may regulate interstate commerce. b. The national government may not regulate interstate commerce. c. Commerce is to be unregulated by government. d. Local taxing authorities may regulate interstate commerce. f. None of the answers are correct. Answer: e Page: 80 7. Sovereignty refers to a. a government headed by a king. b. a division of authority between the national government and the states. c. ultimate governing authority. d. sub-national (state) governments. g. None of the answers are correct. Answer: c Page: 69 8. The enumerated powers in Article I of the Constitution a. limit the powers of the state governments. b. ensure that neither small nor large states would be at a disadvantage. c. ensure that neither northern nor southern states would be at a disadvantage. d. define the powers of the Congress. g. limit the power of the presidency. Answer: d Page: 73 9. The Tenth Amendment addressed the concerns of Anti-Federalists about a. individual freedoms. b. the meaning of the commerce clause. c. popular representation in Congress. d. the powers of state governments. g. the Electoral College. Answer: d Page: 74 10. Which of the following is most closely related to the concept of implied powers? a. the necessary and proper clause b. the supremacy clause c. Tenth Amendment d. the commerce clause g. the power to tax Answer: a Page: 74 11. According to the Anti-Federalists, too strong a national government meant a. eventual encroachment upon the sovereignty of the states. b. that a new Constitutional convention would have to convene every few years. c. that a monarchy was preferable to a republic. d. that effective commerce between and among the states was an impossibility. g. that slavery would be abolished immediately. Answer: a Page: 74 12. According to the Federalists, the states would have political control over all of the following except a. public morals. b. education. c. the country’s economy. d. safety. g. public health. Answer: c Page: 74 13. McCulloch v. Maryland was decisive because it a. ruled in favor of state-centered federalism. b. asserted that the necessary and proper clause was a restriction on the power of the national government. c. affirmed that national law is supreme to conflicting state law. d. established the Supreme Court’s power to judge constitutional issues. g. allowed for a narrow reading of the Constitution. Answer: c Page: 76 14. From 1789 to 1865, the most significant issue of federalism was a. the application of the Bill of Rights to action by the state governments. b. whether the states would accept the lawful authority of the national government. c. whether business trusts would be regulated primarily by the states or by the national government. d. whether the states would respect the sovereignty of neighboring states. g. laissez-faire capitalism. Answer: b Page: 75 15. According to the Dred Scott decision, slaves were a. property. b. beings of an inferior order. c. not full American citizens. d. not allowed to litigate in federal courts. f. All of the answers are correct. Answer: e Page: 77 16. Dual federalism held that a. the states were equal to the national government in all respects. b. a precise separation of national and state authority was both possible and desirable. c. national and state authority were indivisible. d. the Senate and the House were equal in their federal authority. g. None of the answers are correct. Answer: b Page: 78 17. The period of dual federalism (1865–1937) was marked by a. congressional supremacy in the area of commerce. b. state-government supremacy in the area of commerce. c. presidential supremacy in the area of commerce. d. business supremacy in the area of commerce. g. national supremacy in the area of commerce. Answer: d Page: 78 18. In Lochner v. New York (1905), the Supreme Court ruled that a. the doctrine of separate but equal was constitutional. b. state regulation of labor practices violated firms’ property rights. c. the Fourth Amendment did not apply to interstate commerce. d. factory practices could only be regulated by the states. g. factory practices could only be regulated by the federal government. Answer: b Page: 81 19. The only counter-force that was potentially strong enough to control the business trusts of the late nineteenth and early twentieth centuries was a. government. b. the buying public. c. organized labor. d. business competitors. g. farmers. Answer: a Page: 78 20. During the Great Depression of the 1930s, the national government a. provided vast sums to business firms to keep them out of bankruptcy. b. provided health care to Americans on a temporary basis as a means of alleviating economic hardships. c. asserted the power to regulate the nation’s economy. d. provided vast sums to the states so they could meet their citizens’ welfare needs. f. utilized laissez-faire capitalism in its policies. Answer: c Page: 83 21. National authority has greatly expanded in the twentieth century primarily because a. the states and their citizens have become increasingly interdependent. b. constitutional amendments have opened the way for wider application of national authority. c. the state governments have shown themselves to be an ineffective level of government. d. the Democrats have been in control of Congress for most of the century. g. Americans like the idea of “big government.” Answer: a Page: 85 22. A public policy program that is jointly funded, jointly administered, and jointly determined by both state and national government is an example of a. dual federalism. b. cooperative federalism. c. unitary federalism. d. confederal federalism. g. cosponsor federalism. Answer: b Page: 85 23. Fiscal federalism refers to a. any and all fiscal-policy decisions of the federal government and the states. b. the expenditure of federal funds on programs run in part through state and local governments. c. the federal government’s power to tax. d. the federal government’s power to spend. e. the ability of the states to manipulate federal decision-making. Answer: b Page: 86 24. If a state accepts a federal grant-in-aid, it must a. comply with federal restrictions on its use. b. reimburse the federal government after a specified period. c. match the funds with twice that amount in state funds. d. reduce its income tax rates to adjust for the increased income. g. None of the answers are correct. Answer: a Page: 86 25. Federal grants-in-aid used only for specific projects are called a. categorical grants. b. block grants. c. revenue-sharing grants. d. targeted grants. g. streamlined grants. Answer: a Page: 87 26. The Constitution allows states to a. raise an army in peacetime. b. print money. c. make commercial agreements with other states without the consent of Congress. d. govern intrastate commerce. g. govern interstate commerce. Answer: d Page: 78 27. The Anti-Federalists thought that state-centered government would do a better job than the national government in terms of a. strengthening interstate commerce. b. preserving the nation’s security from foreign invaders. c. protecting and preserving the diversity of interests among the people. d. promoting national unity. g. None of the answers are correct. Answer: c Page: 74 28. The elastic clause is related to which of the following concepts? a. enumerated powers b. reserved powers c. implied powers d. concurrent powers g. All of the answers are correct Answer: c Page: 74 29. opposed the ratification of the U.S. Constitution. a. George Washington b. Patrick Henry c. James Madison d. Benjamin Franklin e. John Adams Answer: b Page: 68 30. Which Supreme Court decision is indicative of the Court’s rulings regarding the Fourteenth Amendment and state discretion in the decades after the Civil War? a. Brown v. Board of Education b. the Dred Scott decision c. Plessy v. Ferguson d. McCulloch v. Maryland g. Gibbons v. Ogden Answer: c Page: 79 31. Which of the following is true of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995? a. All unfunded federal mandates were eliminated. b. Only federal mandates affecting education were eliminated. c. Only federal mandates affecting welfare assistance were eliminated. d. Congress exempted federal mandates dealing with civil liberties and civil rights. g. Congress exempted federal mandates dealing with the environment. Answer: d Page: 90 32. Devolution is a. the passing of authority from the national government to the state and local levels. b. the expansion of national authority that began in the 1930s. c. the contraction of state authority and the expansion of local government authority. d. the expansion of national authority that began in the 1960s. a. None of the answers are correct. Answer: a Page: 84 33. Most of the funding for U.S. public schools comes from a. the national government. b. the state governments. c. the states and localities. d. the national government and the localities. f. the national government and the states. Answer: c Page: 85 34. The federal government’s power to tax, regulate commerce among the states, and to declare war are all examples of powers. a. reserved b. enumerated c. implied d. concurrent g. None of the answers are correct. Answer: b Page: 73 35. Roughly one in every dollars spent by local and state governments in recent decades was raised not by them but by the government in Washington. a. two b. five c. twenty five d. fifty f. one hundred Answer: b Page: 86 36. The nullification doctrine is most closely associated with a. Thomas Jefferson. b. Andrew Jackson. c. Roger B. Taney. d. John C. Calhoun. e. John Marshall. Answer: d Page: 77 37. A blending of state and national authority is associated with federalism, while a separation of national and state authority is associated with federalism. a. dual; fiscal b. dual; cooperative c. cooperative; dual d. picket-fence; cooperative f. cooperative; pyramid Answer: c Page: 85 38. Which of the following is true? a. The federal government has more employees than the state governments combined. b. The federal government has more employees than the local governments. c. The federal government has more employees than the state and local governments combined f. All of these statements are true. g. None of these statements are true. Answer: e Page: 86 39. According to , a large republic is less likely to have an all-powerful faction. a. Patrick Henry b. Alexander Hamilton c. James Madison d. John C. Calhoun f. John Marshall Harlan Answer: c Page: 80 40. The separate but equal standard was created by a. Congress. b. the Supreme Court. c. President William McKinley. d. President Ulysses S. Grant. f. Justice John Marshall Harlan Answer: b Page: 79 41. declared that the 1994 elections marked the end of “1960s style federalism.” a. Ted Kennedy b. Tommy Thompson c. Newt Gingrich d. Bill Clinton f. John Kerry Answer: c Page: 89 42. is an illustration of cooperative federalism. a. The U.S. Postal Service b. Medicaid c. A marriage license d. A driver’s license f. All of the answers are correct. Answer: b Page: 85 43. Political conservatives who favor more political power devolved back to the states prefer a. categorical grants. b. block grants. c. Pell Grants. d. higher tax rates for the wealthy. f. None of the answers are correct. Answer: b Page: 87 44. Sixty-twoFifty-six percent of all tax revenue in the United States is raised by a. the federal government. b. state governments. c. local governments. d. public school districts. f. special districts. Answer: a Page: 86 45. In America today, public education is primarily the responsibility of a. the national government. b. state and local governments. c. the National Education Association (NEA). d. the American Federation of Teachers (AFT). f. the U.S. Department of Education. Answer: b Page: 85 46. Which region of the nation receives the highest percentage of its revenues from the federal government? a. West b. Northeast c. Midwest f. South g. non-contiguous states of Alaska and Hawaii Answer: d Page: 88 47. In key decisions early in the New Deal era, the Supreme Court a. invalidated key pieces of FDR’s New Deal legislation. b. upheld FDR’s “court-packing” proposal. c. ruled that segregation violated the Fourteenth Amendment. d. ruled that public accommodations were part of interstate commerce. f. invalidated the commerce clause. Answer: a Page: 81 48. Judicial supremacy in the economic sphere ended abruptly a. after the Civil War. b. during the economic collapse of the 1890s. c. during World War I. d. during the Great Depression. f. during the Vietnam War period. Answer: d Page: 81 49. What was the impact of the Industrial Revolution upon the concept of dual federalism? a. It strengthened the concept. b. It gradually weakened the concept. c. It had no impact at all upon the concept. d. It led to passage of the Tenth Amendment. f. It made the doctrine of nullification a political reality. Answer: b Page: 84 50. From President Abraham Lincoln’s perspective, the decision to wage a civil war against the southern states is best summarized in what fashion? a. States that allowed slavery were no longer sovereign. b. The states were older than the union. c. Southern states had abused the “reserved powers” amendment. d. The union was older than the states. e. None of the answers are correct. Answer: d Page: 78 51. All of the following embraced the “national view” of federalism except a. John Marshall. b. Roger B. Taney. c. Franklin D. Roosevelt. d. Lyndon B. Johnson. f. Alexander Hamilton. Answer: b Page: 77 52. Which choice below describes the American change in governmental structure in 1787? a. unitary to confederal b. confederal to unitary c. federal to unitary d. confederal to federal e. federal to confederal Answer: d Page: 70 Essay/Short Answer 1. Describe the differences between a federal system of government and a unitary system. Answer: The United States has a federal system of government, in which sovereign authority is divided between a national government and state/regional governments. In other words, federalism is a system where sovereignty, or ultimate governing authority, is divided between national and regional governing levels. In a unitary system, sovereignty is vested solely in the national government. 2. Explain the differences between enumerated, implied, and reserved powers. Answer: The powers of the national government are listed (enumerated) in Article I of the Constitution. They are designed primarily to allow the national government to declare war, regulate interstate commerce, issue currency, and establish an army and navy. Implied powers allow the national government a degree of flexibility to enable it to respond to changing circumstances; the necessary and proper clause, also called the elastic clause, gives Congress the power to make all laws that are necessary and proper to the execution of its enumerated powers. All powers not granted to the national government and not denied the states are reserved for the states by the Tenth Amendment, which was meant to guard the states against encroachment by the national government. 3. Beginning with the Articles of Confederation and continuing through the modern period, explain how the commerce power of the national government has related to the issue of national authority. Answer: Under the Articles, the national government had no effective control over commerce, which contributed to the economic problems that resulted in the writing of the Constitution. The Constitution gave the national government the power to regulate interstate commerce, thereby facilitating the development of the United States as a national entity. The Industrial Revolution created an unprecedented degree of national interdependence. Until the 1930s, however, the Supreme Court sharply limited national economic policies by ruling that commerce among the states included transportation but excluded areas related to production (such as the use of child labor). During the New Deal, however, the Supreme Court ruled that Congress’ commerce power was as “broad as the needs of the nation,” opening the constitutional path to a national economy regulated by policies made in Washington, D.C. 4. Explain what is meant by fiscal federalism and describe how it has strengthened the authority of the federal government. Answer: Fiscal federalism refers to the expenditure of federal funds on programs run in part through state and local governments. Fiscal federalism has strengthened federal authority by enabling Washington to use federal funds to influence state and local priorities and place restrictions on how state and local governments conduct programs funded with this money. 5. How has the U.S. Supreme Court contributed to devolution in recent years? Explain. Answer: The U.S. Supreme Court has contributed to devolution by restricting congressional power somewhat. Chief Justice William Rehnquist, along with other justices appointed by presidents Reagan and Bush in particular, believe that Congress in some instances has encroached on the reserved powers of the state and local governments. For example, in United States v. Lopez (1995), the justices struck down a federal law that prohibited the possession of guns within a thousand feet of a school. In Kimel v. Florida Board of Regents (2000), the justices ruled that Congress did not have the authority to require state governments to comply with the federal law that bars discrimination against older workers, and held that the states have the power to decide for themselves the age-related policies that will apply to their employees. In 2002, the Court extended this ban to include people with disabilities in Board of Trustees of the University of Alabama v. Garrett. The individual freedoms in the Bill of Rights were extended by the Fourteenth Amendment to include a. actions of the president. b. the right to libel public officials. c. actions of the federal government. d. actions of state and local governments. c. actions of the U.S. military. Answer: d Page: 98 2. The term civil liberties refers to liberties that a. apply in civil cases but not in criminal cases. b. apply in civil cases but not in military ones. c. are constitutionally protected from infringement by government. d. are constitutionally protected from infringement by individuals. h. are not covered by the First Amendment. Answer: c Page: 98 3. The individual right that is considered to be the most fundamental to the maintenance of a democratic society is a. the right to an attorney. b. freedom of expression. c. the right to a jury trial. d. the right to an adequate education. h. protection against illegal searches and seizures. Answer: b Page: 99 4. Justice Holmes’ “clear and present danger” test holds that government can a. restrict speech that threatens national security. b. restrict any speech of an inflammatory nature. c. imprison political dissidents during time of war without following normal procedures. d. engage in prior restraint of the press whenever national security is at issue. h. restrict speech that is disrespectful to specific classes of citizens. Answer: a Page: 100 5. Like all other rights, the right of free expression is a. spelled out in precise terms in the Bill of Rights. b. not absolute. c. fully respected by public officials. d. protected from action by federal officials but not state officials. h. None of the answers are correct. Answer: b Page: 100 6. The conviction of members of the American Communist party in the early 1950s was upheld as a lawful restriction of the right a. not to incriminate oneself. b. of free expression. c. to a jury trial. d. to confront one’s accusers in a court of law. g. to worship any religion of choice. Answer: b Page: 102 7. All civil liberties are a. so specific in nature that the courts have no difficulty determining how to interpret them. b. conditional—no right is absolute in practice because a right can conflict with other rights and society’s other legitimate interests. c. eventually proven to be unconstitutional at some point. d. contained in the First Amendment. f. known—that is, all rights that citizens have today are exactly the same ones they will have in the future. Answer: b Page: 99 8. The Supreme Court’s position on prior restraint of the press is that a. national security needs are of highest priority. b. only classified government documents are subject to prior restraint. c. prior restraint can never by exercised by government. d. prior restraint should apply only in rare circumstances and that the press is held accountable largely for what is reported rather than by restricting what can be reported. h. prior restraint should be used fairly frequently in a democracy. Answer: d Page: 102 9. Government can lawfully prevent a political rally from taking place a. under no circumstances; people have an unconditional right to express their views. b. when the rally would cost money because of the need for police protection. c. when the views of those holding the rally are unpopular. d. when it can demonstrate clearly that a non-preventable evil will result if the rally is held. h. None of the answers are correct. Answer: d Page: 106 10. The absorption of certain provisions of the Bill of Rights into the Fourteenth Amendment so that these rights are protected from infringements by the state governments is called a. the preferred position doctrine. b. procedural change. c. selective incorporation. d. the absorption doctrine. h. prior restraint. Answer: c Page: 104 11. Spoken words that are known to be false and harmful to a person’s reputation are an example of a. libel. b. slander. c. blasphemy. d. obscenity. h. symbolic speech. Answer: b Page: 106 12. Which of the following is correct with regard to obscenity and the law? a. Obscenity is not protected by the First Amendment. b. Obscenity is never unlawful. c. Child pornography is protected by the First Amendment. d. Obscenity has been easy for courts to define with precision. h. Obscenity is protected under the Ninth Amendment. Answer: a Page: 108 13. The establishment clause prohibits government from a. establishing exceptions to the Bill of Rights. b. establishing exceptions to the Fourteenth Amendment. c. favoring one religion over another or supporting religion over no religion. d. interfering with freedom of assembly. h. interfering with the right to bear arms. Answer: c Page: 109 14. The Supreme Court’s position on tax-supported vouchers for students attending private or parochial schools is that these vouchers are a. unconstitutional. b. constitutional if students have a choice of non-religious private schools as well as religious ones. c. constitutional only in the case of non-religious private schools. d. constitutional only in the case of religious schools. h. constitutional only if the voters approve such vouchers in a referendum. Answer: b Page: 111 15. Prayer in the public schools violates a. the free exercise clause. b. the establishment clause. c. the exclusionary rule. d. procedural due process. g. the clear and present danger test. Answer: b Page: 109 16. If a person yells fire in a crowded theater when there is no fire, and people are hurt in the ensuing panic, that individual abused the right of free speech according to the doctrine of a. malice. b. clear and present danger. c. unreasonable action. d. symbolic speech. g. prior restraint. Answer: b Page: 100 17. The exclusionary rule states that a. federal law cannot be applied in state courts. b. the laws of one state court cannot be applied in the courts of another state. c. after seven years, the statute of limitations applies except in murder cases. d. evidence obtained illegally is inadmissible in court. h. state law cannot be applied in federal courts. Answer: d Page: 118 18. In Mapp v. Ohio, the exclusionary rule was extended to include a. criminal proceedings in the states. b. civil cases. c. pleas of insanity. d. children (minors) accused of crime. e. indigent litigants. Answer: a Page: 118 19. Justice in the U.S. criminal justice system is defined primarily in terms of whether a. the proper procedures for conviction have been followed. b. those convicted are actually guilty. c. those convicted have the opportunity for appeal. d. those convicted are treated humanely while imprisoned. e. everyone is treated fairly in every case. Answer: a Page: 115 20. Due to the free exercise clause, the Supreme Court ruled that the Amish a. would not have to send their children to school at all. b. could set up their own schools to educate their children. c. did not have to send their children to school past the eighth grade. d. would have to send their children to parochial schools. e. None of the answers are correct. Answer: c Page: 112 21. The Supreme Court has reasoned that a right of privacy is provided by a. the Civil Rights Act of 1964. b. the Ninth Amendment, which says that people’s rights are not limited to those enumerated in the Constitution. c. the Tenth Amendment, which reserves to the people and the states those powers not granted to the federal government. d. a reasonable interpretation of other constitutional protections of individual rights. a. the Civil Rights Act of 1991. Answer: d Page: 112 22. The right to privacy was instrumental in which decision? a. Roe v. Wade b. Mapp v. Ohio c. Schenck v. United States d. Miranda v. Arizona h. New York Times Co. v. United States Answer: a Page: 112 23. In Planned Parenthood v. Casey (1992), the justices a. ruled that states are free to adopt abortion laws of their choosing. b. reaffirmed the right to an abortion in the early months of pregnancy. c. invoked the Ninth Amendment for the first time in an abortion decision. d. invalidated the right to an abortion in the early months of pregnancy. h. None of the answers are correct. Answer: b Page: 113 24. The greatest threat to individual rights is a. the fact that some basic rights, such as privacy, are not expressly listed in the Bill of Rights. b. a determined majority backed by elected leaders eager to carry out its will. c. the refusal of lower courts to accept the Supreme Court’s rulings in this area. d. conflict between the executive and legislative branches over the meaning of these rights in practice. g. conflict between the judicial and legislative branches over the meaning of these rights in practice. Answer: b Page: 126 25. Public opinion surveys suggest that Americans a. reject politicians who emphasize law and order at the expense of the rights of the accused. b. strongly support civil liberties in practice. c. strongly support civil liberties in the abstract. d. None of the answers are correct. h. All of the answers are correct. Answer: c Page: 126 26. In Lawrence v. Texas (2003), the Supreme Court ruled that a. the right of privacy includes abortion in the early months of pregnancy. b. search warrants are not needed in murder investigations. c. freedom of speech and freedom of assembly sometimes conflict. d. state militia members have the right to peacefully assemble. h. consensual sex between adults of the same sex is protected by the right to privacy. Answer: e Page: 114 27. The Fourth Amendment protects Americans from a. all searches. b. all unreasonable searches. c. searches conducted only by federal officers. d. searches conducted only by state officers. g. searches conducted only by local officers. Answer: b Page: 97 28. In its rulings on religion in the public schools, the Supreme Court has held that a. organized prayer and Bible reading in public schools are unconstitutional. b. organized prayer, but not Bible reading, in public schools is unconstitutional. c. organized Bible reading, but not prayer, in public schools is unconstitutional. d. organized prayer is constitutional but only if in the form of time set aside for private meditation, thus giving students a choice of which prayer they will say. h. prayer is constitutional only during homeroom classes and not regular classes. Answer: a Page: 109 29. The institution that is most partial to the protection of civil liberties is a. the U.S. Congress. b. the federal bureaucracy. c. public opinion. d. the presidency. h. the judiciary. Answer: e Page: 126 30. The freedoms of speech, press, assembly, and petition are found in a. the First Amendment. b. the Fourth Amendment. c. the Sixth Amendment. d. the Tenth Amendment. a. the Fourteenth Amendment. Answer: a Page: 100 31. Which of the following is true about the Sedition Act of 1798? a. The act prohibited malicious newspaper stories about the president. b. The Supreme Court ruled the act unconstitutional. c. The Senate voted it down while the House passed it. d. Thomas Jefferson strongly supported it. h. The state governments refused to enforce it. Answer: a Page: 100 32. In Schenck v. United States (1919), the Supreme Court ruled that a. the Espionage Act was unconstitutional. b. speech could be restricted when the nation’s security is at stake. c. speech unrelated to national security can never be restricted. d. speech by unpopular groups can be restricted more than speech by popular groups. h. all forms of political dissent are constitutional. Answer: b Page: 100 33. In Texas v. Johnson, the Supreme Court ruled that a. flag burning is an imminent danger to public safety. b. flag burning is not symbolic speech. c. flag burning, although offensive, cannot be prohibited. d. flag burning can be prohibited by the national government but not by the states. h. flag burning could be banned by Congress. Answer: c Page: 107 34. In recent cases involving the Miranda warning, which was established in 1966, the Supreme Court has a. indicated the Miranda warning does not apply when police catch someone in the act of committing a crime. b. said that police can question a suspect without using the Miranda warning as long as it is read to the suspect before questioning them a second time. c. indicated that the part of the Miranda warning about “the right to remain silent” no longer holds. f. indicated that the part of the Miranda warning about “the right to an attorney” no longer holds. h. upheld the constitutional principle that police must tell suspects of their right to an attorney and remain silent before they can be questioned. Answer: e Page: 117 35. According to the Supreme Court, prior restraint on the press is only acceptable if a. lower federal courts approve the action. b. the government can clearly justify the restriction. c. the press itself willingly accepts that restraint. d. the press is careless in its claims. h. the press is malicious in its intent. Answer: b Page: 102 36. “You have the right to remain silent Anything you say can and will be used against you in a court of law You have the right to an attorney.” This is called a. the preferred position doctrine. b. the clear and present danger test. c. the Miranda warning. d. the fairness doctrine. g. None of the answers are correct. Answer: c Page: 117 37. According to the Supreme Court, which is true regarding freedom of assembly? a. Individuals have the right to command immediate access to a public auditorium. b. Individuals have the right to hold a public rally in the middle of a busy intersection at a time of their choosing. c. Public officials can regulate the time, place, and conditions of public assembly, provided the regulations are reasonable. d. Public officials can prohibit assembly by unpopular groups. g. Freedom of assembly is an absolute right, because it is in the First Amendment. Answer: c Page: 106 38. is first in the world in terms of the proportion of its people who are in prison. a. Singapore b. The United States c. Iran d. China f. Russia Answer: be Page: 122 39. According to the Supreme Court, what is the status of prayer in the public schools? a. Formal prayer is not allowed, but moments of silence are constitutional. b. State-supported prayers are not allowed in public schools. c. Prayer is now allowed, but each school must allow students to leave the classroom when prayers are read aloud. d. Bible readings in public schools are constitutional. h. Student-led prayers at public school football games are constitutional. Answer: b Page: 109 40. Supreme Court Justice Felix Frankfurter once wrote that “the history of liberty has largely been the history of the observance of procedural guarantees.” By this he meant a. free speech is the cornerstone of a free society. b. press freedom is the cornerstone of a free society. c. judges are superior to elected officials. d. checks and balances are the cornerstone of liberty. g. that substantial legal protection for those accused of crime is a requirement of a free society. Answer: e Page: 116 41. Which constitutional amendment protects the individual against self-incrimination? a. First b. Second c. Fourth d. Fifth g. Ninth Answer: d Page: 98 42. Gideon v. Wainwright required the states to a. temporarily abolish the death penalty. b. expand the exclusionary rule to both felony and misdemeanor cases. c. furnish attorneys for poor defendants in felony cases. d. grant speedy trials to defendants after 90 days of delay. h. provide more funding for education. Answer: c Page: 116 43. Since the 1980s, the Supreme Court has addressed the exclusionary rule by a. expanding its application to virtually all criminal cases both at the state and federal levels. b. determining that the rule was unconstitutional, in that it weakened the effectiveness of the police in maintaining an orderly society. c. expanding its application to federal cases only. d. expanding its application to state cases only. g. None of the answers are correct. Answer: e Page: 118 44. The Eighth Amendment prohibits “cruel and unusual punishment.” Regarding this constitutional right, the Supreme Court has a. tended to defer to elected officials as to the appropriate penalties for those convicted of crime. b. ruled that capital punishment of juveniles violates this right. c. ruled that capital punishment of the mentally impaired violates this right. d. ruled that repeat offenders can be given harsher sentences than first offenders. g. All of the above answers are correct. Answer: e Page: 121 456. Which constitutional amendment has enabled the Supreme Court to protect the civil liberties contained in the Bill of Rights from being abridged by state and local officials? a. First b Fifth c. Tenth g. Fourteenth g. Twenty-First Answer: d Page: 103 467. According to the author, the test of a truly civil society is a. its treatment of popular ideas. b. its treatment of its best citizens. c. its willingness to tolerate distasteful ideas. d. its treatment of the wealthy. e. All of the answers are correct. Answer: c Page: 126 478. Slander applies to defamation of an individual’s reputation through the a. written word. b. spoken word. c. written and spoken word. d. written, spoken, and symbolic word. g. None of the answers are correct. Answer: b Page: 106 489. In the Constitution, procedural due process is protected by the a. Fourth Amendment. b. Fifth Amendment. c. Sixth Amendment. d. Fourteenth Amendment. f. All of the answers are correct. Answer: e Page: 115 4950. Gideon v. Wainwright is to the right to an attorney as Mapp v. Ohio is to a. the right to remain silent. b. freedom from unreasonable search and seizure. c. the right to bear arms. d. protection against double jeopardy. f. the right to practice religion freely. Answer: b Page: 116 501. In a 2004 case (Hamdi v. Rumsfeld) involving the issue of whether a U.S. citizen accused of terrorist acts is entitled to constitutional protections, the Supreme Court held that such citizens a. are protected only if they live in the United States. b. are protected only if they have not been previously convicted of a crime. c. are protected only if law enforcement officials decide they deserve such protections. d. must be handled by military courts. e. do have the right to a judicial hearing. Answer: e Page: 124 512. In a 2006 case (Hamdan v. Rumsfeld) involving the Bush administration’s plan to conduct secret trials of detainees accused of terrorism, who in some cases would not be allowed to hear the evidence against them, the Supreme Court held that a. President Bush’s authority as commander in chief allows him to decide how persons accused of terrorism will be tried. b. President Bush’s authority as chief executive allows him to decide how persons accused of terrorism will be tried. c. the detainees are entitled to the full protections of the U.S. Constitution, just as if they were citizens of the United States. d. President Bush, in his handling of detainees, must comply with U.S. law and the Geneva Convention. e. President Bush can treat the detainees however he chooses as long as a majority in Congress do not object. Answer: d Page: 125 523. The USA Patriot Act a. grants the government broader powers of surveillance. b. grants the government broader powers of search. c. gives intelligence agencies the authority to share crime-related information with law enforcement agencies. d. was enacted in response to the terrorist attacks of September 11, 2001. e. All of the answers are correct. Answer: e Page: 125 534. The Foreign Intelligence and Surveillance Act (FISA) of 1978 a. authorizes the president to conduct intelligence-related wiretaps on U.S. soil without the permission of a judge. b. prohibits the president from conducting intelligence-related wiretaps on U.S. soil without the permission of a judge. c. authorizes members of Congress to see any and all intelligence reports gathered by the CIA and other intelligence agencies. d. authorizes only a select number of members of Congress to see any and all intelligence reports gathered by the CIA and other intelligence agencies. e. None of the answers are correct. Answer: b Page: 126 Essay/Short Answer 1. What is meant by selective incorporation? Discuss the history of this process and its importance to the protection of individual rights. Answer: Selective incorporation refers to the absorption of certain provisions of the Bill of Rights, including freedom of speech and press, into the Fourteenth Amendment. These rights are thereby protected from infringement by the states. After the Civil War, the Fourteenth Amendment was debated in Congress. There was no indication its framers intended it to protect First Amendment rights, such as freedom of speech and press, from state action. Seventy years later, the Supreme Court justified the change by reference to selective incorporation. In doing so, the Court declared certain rights to be a fundamental part of democratic society and, therefore, to be protected from state intervention. At first, the Court included only free expression rights in its interpretation. In the 1960s, selective incorporation was used also to protect fair trial rights. 2. Explain the concept of prior restraint of the press. Include one example of how the Supreme Court has ruled on this issue. Answer: Prior restraint is government prohibition of speech or publication before the fact. The Supreme Court has ruled it unconstitutional, except in extreme circumstances of national security or public safety, as an illegal restraint on free expression. The burden of proof in such instances is on the government: it must clearly show that a grave danger would result from the publication. The doctrine of prior restraint was detailed in New York Times Co. v. United States (1971). 3. Discuss the differences between the First Amendment’s establishment and free-exercise clauses. Answer: The establishment clause has been interpreted by the courts as meaning that the government may not favor one religion over another or support religion over no religion at all. Thus, a wall of separation must be maintained between church and state. The free exercise clause means that Americans are free to hold any religious beliefs they want, although they are not always free to act on their beliefs. 4. Explain the concept of procedural due process and list several of the procedural rights protected by the Constitution. Do these rights apply to all levels of government? Explain. Answer: Procedural due process refers to procedures or methods that government must follow before person can legally be deprived of life, liberty, or property. These procedures include prohibitions on unreasonable search and seizure, self-incrimination, double jeopardy, and excessive bail or fine, and include guarantees of legal counsel, jury trial, speedy trial, and the confrontation of witnesses. These rights apply to the federal government through the Bill of Rights and were extended to cover state action by selective incorporation through the Fourteenth Amendment. 5. How has the Supreme Court interpreted the Eighth Amendment’s prohibition against cruel and unusual punishment with regard to death penalty statutes in the states? Explain. Answer: The justices have never ruled that the death penalty itself violates the Eighth Amendment. In Furman v. Georgia (1972), however, the justices struck down the death penalty, ruling that its arbitrary application amounted to cruel and unusual punishment. The states subsequently revised their death penalty statutes to specify more precisely the aggravating circumstances that might justify a death sentence. In Gregg v. Georgia (1976), the death penalty was reinstated. The focus of civil liberties is the and the focus of civil rights is the . a. individual; individual b. group; group c. individual; group d. group; individual d. Tenth Amendment; Twenty-seventh Amendment Answer: c Page: 132 2. Disadvantaged Americans have gained their rights a. through the enlightened policies of advantaged Americans. b. through judicial action only. c. through struggle against entrenched interests. d. mainly through action by the states rather than the federal government. i. by using public opinion to their advantage. Answer: c Page: 132 3. Before the civil rights movement of the 1950s and 1960s, the political strategy of black Americans centered on achieving change through a. judicial action. b. legislative action. c. presidential action. d. bureaucratic action. i. mass-media action. Answer: a Page: 133 4. The Brown v. Board of Education of Topeka, Kansas ruling (1954) held that racial segregation in schools violated the a. due process clause of the Fifth Amendment. b. due process clause of the Fourteenth Amendment. c. equal protection clause of the Fourteenth Amendment. d. Civil Rights Act. i. establishment clause of the First Amendment. Answer: c Page: 133 5. The civil rights movement of the 1950s and 1960s had all of the following characteristics except a. an emphasis on non-violent political protest to create support for legislative action designed to promote equality. b. the attainment of significant civil rights legislation and substantial elimination of legal barriers to equality. c. strong leadership, particularly from African-American leaders. d. a recognition by the white majority in the South of the futility of further resistance to desegregation, which led to the quick enactment of a wide range of sweeping state laws designed to eliminate age-old discriminatory practices. i. a well-organized, concerted effort. Answer: d Page: 134 6. is the youngest person ever to win a Nobel Peace Prize. h. Jimmy Carter i. John F. Kennedy j. Lyndon B. Johnson k. Robert F. Kennedy l. Martin Luther King, Jr. Answer: e Page: 134 7. Which statement about women’s rights is correct? a. The Equal Rights Amendment (ERA) was ratified by the necessary 38 states in 1982. b. The women’s rights movement began in the era of World War I and within a few years achieved voting rights for women. c. Women have made clear gains in the areas of appointive and elective offices. d. Women tend to cast their votes for Republican candidates. h. All of the answers are correct. Answer: c Page: 137 8. The movement for women’s rights was initially aligned with a. the abolition movement. b. the Progressive movement. c. the labor movement. d. the modern civil rights movement. i. the modern environmental movement. Answer: a Page: 136 9. All of the following statements about Hispanic Americans are true except a. they are the fastest-growing minority in the United States. b. they have made major political gains in terms of electing local officials, particularly in the Southwestern states. c. they are one of the nation’s oldest ethnic groups despite the fact that many of today’s Hispanic Americans are relatively recent arrivals. d. Latinos are monolithic in their political thinking in the sense that, whatever their country of origin, they tend to vote Democratic. i. they have lower average income levels than non-Hispanic whites. Answer: d Page: 142 10. Efforts in Congress in 2006 to clamp down on immigrants who have entered illegally from Mexico and other Latin American countries resulted in a. a law that requires a prison term of not less than one year for anyone caught in the United States who is not here legally. b. a law that requires a prison term of not less than one year for any employer who, after two warnings, knowingly hires another illegal immigrant. c. a law that requires a prison term of not less than one year for any citizen who knowingly provides food and shelter to an illegal immigrant. d. massive demonstrations in cities with large Hispanic populations to protest what Congress was attempting to do. i. vigilante groups being formed in many American communities for the purpose of rounding up illegal immigrants and turning them over to authorities for deportation. Answer: d Page: 142 11. Native Americans a. today number more than 1 million. b. have lower life expectancies than the national average. c. have in recent years filed suit to reclaim their ancestral lands. d. are less than half as likely to attend college as other Americans. i. All of the answers are correct. Answer: e Page: 139 12. All of the following statements about Asian American rights are true except a. for a long period, Asian people were effectively denied entry to the United States on account of their race. b. Asian Americans are an upwardly mobile group, but are under-represented in top positions in society due to past and present discrimination. c. Asian Americans were as fully involved as other minorities in the civil rights movements of the 1950s and 1960s. d. Asian Americans have made notable educational advancements. i. discrimination against Asian Americans did not ease substantially until the 1960s. Answer: c Page: 143 13. The Civil Rights Act of 1964 was aimed chiefly at eliminating discrimination a. by governments in their conduct of elections (e.g., registration, placement of polling booths). b. by private individuals in their social relations—bigoted statements and other acts of prejudice are unlawful under most circumstances. c. by governments in their job practices and provision of services (e.g, schools, roads). d. by private individuals in their employment practices and in their operation of public accommodations (e.g., hotels, restaurants). i. against gays and lesbians. Answer: d Page: 149 14. De jure discrimination and de facto discrimination are two ways in which some Americans are less equal than others. Examples of public policies designed to address each of these forms of discrimination are a. the Brown decision (de jure), and affirmative action (de facto). b. affirmative action (de jure), and the Voting Rights Act of 1965 (de facto). c. the Voting Rights Act of 1965 (de jure), and the Brown decision (de facto). d. the Supreme Court’s busing decisions (de jure), and affirmative action decisions (de facto). i. None of the answers are correct. Answer: a Page: 152 15. In applying the reasonable basis test, courts tend to a. give government the benefit of the doubt. b. assess whether a law had the support of a two-thirds majority of legislators at the time of passage. c. determine whether a law is working well and, if so, to allow it to remain in effect. d. prohibit any law that results in the unequal treatment of Americans. h. interpret the equal protection clause in a strict manner. Answer: a Page: 147 16. Any law that attempts a racial or ethnic classification is subject to the a. reasonable basis test. b. strict scrutiny test. c. intermediate scrutiny test. d. precedent basis test. h. clear and present danger test. Answer: b Page: 148 17. Housing in America a. falls largely outside the scope of the law—people are free to rent or sell property to whomever they want. b. is an area where equality in practice is now nearly a reality; people of similar incomes, regardless of race or color, find it equally easy to qualify for home mortgages. c. is an unimportant civil rights issue, since housing patterns almost completely reflect the personal preferences of people, and are not substantially influenced by past or present racial bias. d. is still largely segregated as judged by where people actually live. i. None of the answers are correct. Answer: d Page: 150 18. An example of a policy that aimed chiefly to overcome de facto discrimination is a. the Equal Rights Amendment. b. the Voting Rights Act of 1965. c. busing to achieve racial integration in the schools. d. the Brown v. Board of Education of Topeka, Kansas ruling. i. the Fourteenth Amendment. Answer: c Page: 152 19. The policy of affirmative action arose when a. it became apparent that disadvantaged Americans would not attain equal employment opportunities through law suits that benefited single individuals only. b. the Supreme Court declared in Bakke that the Fourteenth Amendment requires government and large firms to hire more women and minorities. c. the Supreme Court ruled that de facto discrimination is unlawful. d. private firms decided on their own that a more diverse workforce was actually a more productive and effective workforce. i. the Supreme Court rendered its Adarand v. Pena decision in 1995. Answer: a Page: 152 20. Opponents of affirmative action have argued that the policy a. results in widespread reverse discrimination against white males. b. inevitably degenerates into a quota system, and therefore violates the law. c. is fair only when it is victim-specific, applying only to those individuals who are personally discriminated against and hence deserve to benefit from government intervention. d. is unconstitutional. h. All of the answers are correct. Answer: e Page: 154 21. The Supreme Court’s decision in the Regents of the University of California v. Bakke case a. invalidated the principle of affirmative action. b. ruled that Bakke could not be admitted to medical school. c. established quota systems as a legitimate basis of affirmative action. d. upheld the principle of affirmative action. i. None of the answers are correct. Answer: d Page: 154 22. was arrested twice and fined in her hometown of Rochester, New York for organized Election Day protests against laws denying women the right to vote. a. Loretta Sanchez b. Geraldine Ferraro c. Susan B. Anthony d. Amelia Earhart e. Eleanor Roosevelt Answer: c 223. With regard to affirmative action, the Supreme Court in recent years has a. moved to outlaw it. b. moved to narrow its application. c. asked Congress to clarify the policy. d. asked the president to clarify the policy. h. asked the state legislatures to clarify the policy. Answer: b Page: 154 234. The Supreme Court’s ruling in the Swann case on busing differed from the Brown decision in that Swann a. addressed the problem of de facto discrimination. b. applied to many northern communities in addition to communities in the South. c. authorized the use of busing as a means of desegregating public schools. d. All of the answers are correct. i. None of the answers is correct. Answer: d Page: 156 245. The effectiveness of busing in achieving racial integration in the public schools was limited by a. the refusal of many local communities to fully implement the busing plans prepared specifically for them by federal district court judges, who have no effective means of forcing them to comply. b. the Supreme Court ruling that limits the use of busing across school district boundaries, which has insulated predominantly white suburban schools from busing plans. c. state laws that have prohibited busing in any of the state’s school districts. d. local referenda on busing, which have produced the two-thirds vote against busing that is required to rescind the policy. i. school superintendents who routinely violate federal law. Answer: b Page: 156 256. Native Americans a. have always been legal citizens of the United States. b. were not given citizenship status until the twentieth century. c. do not today have the full legal rights of other U.S. citizens. d. are U.S. citizens unless they choose to live on a reservation. i. have numbered roughly ten million in the United States since the 1700s. Answer: b Page: 140 267. The demands of women for equal pay relative to men for work that is similarly demanding, involves similar responsibilities, and that requires similar levels of education and training is the basis of the concept of a. equality of opportunity. b. affirmative action. c. comparable worth. d. de jure discrimination. i. reverse discrimination. Answer: c Page: 138 278. Which of the following is true? a. The Supreme Court justices ruled in 2000 that the Boy Scouts can ban gays. b. The Supreme Court justices ruled in 2003 that states cannot ban sexual relations among consenting adults of the same sex. c. The Supreme Court justices ruled in 1996 that states could not adopt hostile policies toward gays and lesbians. d. All of the answers are correct. e. None of the answers are correct. Answer: d Page: 145 289. According to Gunnar Myrdal, what is America’s curse? a. greed b. racial discrimination c. obesity d. street violence g. religious intolerance Answer: b Page: 157 2930. Women in America obtained the right to vote in national elections in a. 1790. b. 1865. c. 1890. d. 1920. i. 1974. Answer: d Page: 136 301. Non-Hispanic white Americans have a higher average income level than other ethnic and racial groups. The group with the average income level closest to that of non-Hispanic whites is a. Native Americans. b. African Americans. c. Hispanic Americans. d. Asian Americans i. Middle Eastern Americans. Answer: d Page: 152 312. In a 2002 global attitudes survey, residents in which of the following nations was least likely to agree that “homosexuality is a way of life that should be accepted by society?” a. Germany b. France c. United States d. Great Britain f. Italy Answer: c Page: 147 323. Today, the majority of African Americans in the nation a. live in segregated neighborhoods. b. send their children to schools that are predominantly white. c. have the same quality of health care as the majority of white Americans d. have the same opportunities for higher education as the majority of white Americans. h. have incomes equal to that of the majority of white Americans. Answer: a Page: 150 334. Which one of the following occurred after the Brown decision? a. Civil Rights Act of 1964 b. Voting Rights Act of 1965 c. Birmingham demonstrations against racial discrimination d. Martin Luther King’s “I have a dream” speech e. All of the answers are correct. Answer: e Page: 134 345. A substantial defeat for advocates of affirmative action was the decision, which held that setting aside a certain percentage of government contracts for minority-owned businesses was unconstitutional. a. Adarand v. Pena b. Craig v. Boren c. Regents of the University of California v. Bakke d. Swann v. Charlotte-Mecklenberg Board of Education i. None of the answers are correct. Answer: a Page: 154 356. The famous “I have a dream speech” in the civil rights movement was delivered by a. Jesse Jackson. b. Martin Luther King, Jr. c. Thurgood Marshall. d. John F. Kennedy. g. Robert F. Kennedy. Answer: b Page: 134 367. The major argument made by civil rights groups who endorse the aggressive application of affirmative action is that a. it is necessary in order overcome the effects of past discrimination and existing prejudice. b. it is the only way to equalize wages between men and women. c. it alone will break the stubborn pattern of segregation in American life. d. it will force Americans to live together in harmony. f. it will teach school children respect for each other. Answer: a Page: 152 378. The gender gap refers to the tendency of women to favor a. Green party candidates. b. Democrats. c. Independents. d. Republicans. h. Libertarians. Answer: b Page: 138 389. In the early decades of the United States, women were not permitted to a. vote. b. hold office. c. serve on juries. d. own and dispense property without the husband’s consent. g. All of the answers are correct. Answer: e Page: 135 3940. Equality of result policies are primarily directed at discriminatory effects. a. de jure b. de facto c. religious d. gender g. due process Answer: b Page: 152 401. The central issue in the Bakke case was a. school desegregation. b. sexual harassment. c. affirmative action. d. Native Americans’ civil rights. h. comparable worth. Answer: c Page: 154 412. Which of the following is true? a. Public schools are becoming more segregated nationally. b. Many urban public school districts have ended the use of busing for desegregation purposes. c. Suburbanization has made it more difficult to desegregate urban schools. d. Reformers have shifted away from busing and focused more on school financing in recent years. h. All of the answers are correct. Answer: e Page: 157 423. In terms of women and public office, it is accurate to say a. women today hold fewer U.S. public offices than they did a decade ago. b. women in the United States hold a larger percentage of public offices than do women in northern European countries like Sweden and Denmark. c. women hold a higher percentage of U.S. offices at the national level than they do at the state and local level. d. All of the answers are correct. g. None of the answers is correct. Answer: e Page: 137 434. The Fourteenth Amendment applies to discriminatory action a. by government only. b. by private parties only. c. by both government and private parties. d. by the president specifically. f. by Congress specifically. Answer: a Page: 149 445. Most Hispanic voters support candidates. a. Republican b. Libertarian c. Democratic d. Socialist h. Independent Answer: c Page: 142 456. Native Americans were officially made citizens of the United States in a. 1789, at the time of the writing of the Constitution. b. 1865, at the end of the Civil War. c. 1924, about two decades after the last of U.S. wars with Indian tribes. d. 1964 with passage of the Civil Rights Act. h. 1998 with passage of the Voting Rights Act. Answer: c Page: 140 467. Which Latino group identifies most strongly with the Republican party? a. Puerto Rican Americans b. Mexican Americans c. Cuban Americans d. Dominican Americans h. No Latino group identifies strongly with the Republican party. Answer: c Page: 142 478. Current issues of concern to women include a. sexual harassment. b. the gender gap. c. comparable worth. d. political representation. g. All of the answers are correct. Answer: e Page: 137 489. What was politically significant about Barbara Boxer and Dianne Feinstein in 1992? a. It was the first time two women had been elected governors of neighboring states. b. It was the first time that women had been elected to the two Senate seats from one state. c. It was the first time that women have held jobs of governor and lieutenant governor from the same state. d. It was the first time that women held the top two positions in the U.S. House of Representatives. g. It was the first time that women held the top two positions in the U.S. Senate. Answer: b Page: 137 4950. In 2004, as a result of the state’s Supreme Court, instituted same-sex marriage. h. California i. Texas j. Vermont k. Massachusetts l. Alabama Answer: d Page: 145 501. The first woman ever to serve on the U.S. Supreme Court was appointed by President g. Truman. h. Eisenhower. i. Kennedy. j. Reagan. k. Carter. Answer: d Page: 137 512. The first women’s rights convention in the United States was held in 1848 in a. Boston, Massachusetts. b. San Francisco, California. c. Minneapolis, Minnesota. d. Seneca Falls, New York. h. Madison, Wisconsin. Answer: d Page: 136 523. In the last decade or so, busing as a means of desegregating America’s public schools has a. largely ended. b. been expanded to include suburbs. c. been confined to the southern states. d. been confined to northern urban areas. e. None of the above answers is correct. Answer: a Page: 156 534. In two cases in 2003 involving University of Michigan affirmative action programs (one for undergraduate applicants and one for law school applicants), the Supreme Court a. struck down both programs. b. upheld both programs. c. struck down one program but upheld the other. d. ruled on one program but declined to rule on the other. e. declined to rule on both programs, which had the effect of upholding the decisions on these cases made by lower courts. Answer: c Page: 155 Essay/Short Answer 1. What is the equal protection clause? What three tests are associated with discrimination in law? Answer: The equal protection clause is part of the Fourteenth Amendment, which reads in part that no state shall “deny to any person within its jurisdiction the equal protection of the laws.” This clause has been used by the courts to protect minorities from discrimination. The tests associated with legal discrimination are the reasonable-basis test, the strict-scrutiny test, and the intermediate-basis test. The first test stipulates that some inequalities (such as unequal tax rates for people of different income levels) are acceptable as long as they are related to legitimate government interests. The second test is premised on the belief that racial and ethnic-based classifications are unconstitutional almost by definition. The third test has been used with regard to sex classifications, and is less rigid than the strict-scrutiny test but more rigid than the reasonable-basis test. For example, the exclusion of women from the military draft has been judged by the courts to be constitutional, whereas most other forms of gender discrimination in law have been judged unconstitutional. 2. What is affirmative action? What is the Supreme Court’s general position on affirmative action? Answer: Affirmative action is a deliberate effort to counteract de facto discrimination and provide full and equal opportunity in areas such as education and employment for traditionally disadvantaged groups. This policy attempts to require providers of opportunities to show that their policies are not discriminatory. The Supreme Court has limited the application of affirmative action. In general, the Supreme Court has allowed practices seeking to redress instances of discrimination unless those practices infringe on the rights of white people already employed and unless they involve the strict use of quotas. 3. What is equality of result? What relation does it have to de facto and de jure discrimination? Answer: Equality of result is the aim of policies intended to reduce or eliminate discriminatory effects so that members of traditionally disadvantaged groups may obtain the same benefits of society as members of traditionally advantaged groups. De facto discrimination is discrimination that is a consequence of social, economic, and cultural biases and conditions. De jure discrimination is discrimination based on law. Equality of result is intended to combat the effects of de facto discrimination. Busing and affirmative action are examples of policies designed to achieve equality of result. Many Americans, however, believe that the government should only address de jure discrimination. 4. Discuss the racial problems addressed by the Brown v. Board of Education of Topeka, Kansas decision and the Civil Rights Act of 1964. What provisions of the Constitution provided the basis for each of these policy decisions? Answer: In Brown v. Board of Education of Topeka, Kansas (1954), the Supreme Court justices overturned the 1896 Plessy v. Ferguson ruling. Chief Justice Warren stated that segregated schools were inherently unequal, and thus violated the equal protection clause of the Fourteenth Amendment. Chief Justice Warren stated that the maintenance of separate school systems generates feelings of social inferiority on the part of minority students. Because the Fourteenth Amendment applies only to acts of government, private firms are not affected by it. In the Civil Rights Act of 1964, Congress used its commerce power to entitle all persons to equal access to establishments serving the general public, and to forbid discrimination in hiring, promotion, and payment of employees in medium and large firms. Congress’ commerce power was utilized to restrict discrimination in public places and employment. 5. If Americans accepted two societies, one for whites, and another for minorities, what would be the consequences for the nation? Answer: The acceptance of the two societies would mean that American democracy would not be true to its ideals. It would also mean that consensus and internal stability would both suffer. Such an arrangement would validate Myrdal’s assessment that racism is America’s curse. George Gallup, the founder of the public opinion polling industry in the United States, argued that leaders a. must be in close touch with public opinion if they are to serve the people’s true interests. b. should never make a decision without consulting the opinion polls. c. should keep their distance from the public, since enlightened leadership is a better guide to policy than the public’s passing whims. d. should pay attention to the polls during election campaigns, but not when formulating policies. j. should not be overly attentive to public opinion polls. Answer: a Page: 172 2. Public opinion is ordinarily used in reference to the whole society. This perspective is a. accurate, since Americans are one people and indivisible. b. less accurate than a view of public opinion based on the majority, since the political system operates on the principle of majority rule. c. less accurate than the idea that Americans form many publics, which differ greatly in such things as the level of attention they pay to politics. d. less accurate than a view of public opinion based on what the news media are saying about the public. j. accurate, because there is little diversity in American public opinion. Answer: c Page: 166 3. In his definition of public opinion, the author claims that the opinions of private individuals become public opinion when they a. first enter people’s heads. b. are expressed publicly. c. become part of the conflict between the Republican and Democratic parties. d. are measured in opinion polls. j. become part of the conflict between populists and libertarians. Answer: b Page: 167 4. A member of Congress who wants to act on what the majority of his or her constituency thinks on a particular issue would be advised to respond to which of the following indicators? a. letters from constituents b. the editorial positions of newspapers in the constituency c. public demonstrations by constituents d. a poll based on a random sample of constituents j. the number of yard signs on major streets Answer: d Page: 172 5. The accuracy of a poll is usually expressed in terms of a. population density. b. census parameter. c. population error. d. sampling error. m. interview error. Answer: d Page: 171 6. The key factor in estimating the mathematical accuracy of an opinion poll is a. population size-if the population is too big, the poll’s accuracy cannot be assessed. b. sample size-if the sample is too small (less than 1000), the poll’s accuracy cannot be determined. c. whether the sample was selected from the population by a random method. d. whether the sample has the same percentage of men and women as the population. i. whether the sample has the same percentage of African Americans, Latino Americans, Asian Americans, and Native Americans as are in the population. Answer: c Page: 169 7. Sources of polling error include a. poorly trained interviewers. b. unrepresentative samples. c. respondents’ lack of knowledge or interest. d. poorly worded questions. j. All of the answers are correct. Answer: e Page: 172 8. In general, polls indicate that American public opinion is a. highly informed in the sense that most citizens have a lot of accurate information about politics and public affairs. b. extremely well informed about domestic issues but not very informed about international issues. c. extremely well informed about international issues but not very informed about domestic issues. d. highly informed about election campaign issues but otherwise uninformed about political issues. e. None of the above answers is correct. Answer: e Page: 168 9. The process of political learning in the United States is a. normally cumulative; political beliefs attained earlier in life tend to be retained to a substantial degree. b. highly structured; children are subjected to an intense system of government- mandated political indoctrination. c. highly effective; Americans are the best-informed citizens in the world. d. extremely narrow; most Americans get nearly all their opinions from a single source. j. uniform; there are almost no differences in the opinions of various groups, such as northerners and southerners. Answer: a Page: 173 10. Dramatic change in public opinion on basic issues is uncommon and is almost always a consequence of a. a change in the policy position of the president. b. an extraordinary change in national conditions. c. popular satisfaction with a government initiative. d. a change in the law. j. a Supreme Court ruling. Answer: b Page: 173 11. The process by which individuals acquire their opinions is called a. popular culture. b. social communication. c. socio-economic change. d. political socialization. j. political assimilation. Answer: d Page: 173 12. As an agent of political socialization, the American family has its greatest effect on individuals’ a. party identification. b. opinion on the presidency. c. opinion on particular policies. d. information about particular public policies. j. opinion on Congress. Answer: a Page: 173 13. The American political culture affects public opinion primarily by a. providing precise responses to emerging policy problems. b. influencing American’s views of what is politically desirable and acceptable. c. creating a public dialogue about the proper goals of government. d. encouraging close attention to news of political issues. j. stressing the importance of political knowledge in the United States. Answer: b Page: 176 14. A consistent pattern of opinion on particular issues that stems from a basic underlying belief is called a. conservatism. b. an ideology. c. socialization. d. politicization. j. None of the answers are correct. Answer: b Page: 177 15. Most studies on the influence of ideology on public opinion agree that a. liberalism and conservatism have such imprecise meanings that it is not useful to think about politics in these terms. b. Americans overwhelmingly identify themselves as liberals. c. Americans are highly sophisticated in their political thinking. d. only a minority of Americans understand and apply ideological frames of reference. i. Americans are highly consistent in their political thinking. Answer: d Page: 178 16. Liberals are correctly described by all of the following statements except a. they favor government activism in the area of economic security. b. they strongly support civil liberties. c. they favor more government spending for the poor. d. they strongly support civil rights. i. they believe that traditional values should be upheld even at a considerable cost to those citizens who disagree with those values. Answer: e Page: 178 17. In comparison to Europeans, Americans’ awareness of public affairs a. is about the same. b. is higher. c. is lower. d. is higher on domestic issues but lower on international issues. j. is lower on domestic issues but higher on international issues. Answer: c Page: 168 18. As a reference point for their opinions on particular issues, people are most likely to rely on a. ideology. b. a group to which they belong or with which they strongly identify. c. the editorial position of the local newspaper. d. beliefs acquired while in high school. j. positions taken by the president. Answer: b Page: 179 19. rank highest in terms of expressing pride in their nation. a. Mexicans b. Germans c. Americans d. Russians j. Italians Answer: c Page: 174 20. The only presidential election in which the Gallup Poll erred badly was:. a. 1928 Hoover-Smith. b. 1936 Roosevelt-Landon. c. 1948 Truman-Dewey. i. 1964 Johnson-Goldwater. j. 2000 Bush-Gore. Answer: c Page: 171 21. As an influence on Americans’ political opinions, religious differences are a. most evident in the context of economic issues, such as poverty programs. b. not a significant factor. c. most evident in the context of foreign policy, as evidenced by Americans’ support for Christian nations and opposition to Islamic fundamentalism. d. most evident in the context of social policy issues, such as school prayer and abortion, where Americans of different religious beliefs hold substantially different opinions. j. most evident in the context of space exploration and travel. Answer: d Page: 180 22. Women are less likely then men to favor a. affirmative action. b. abortion rights. c. higher levels of education spending. d. the use of force to settle international disputes. i. All of the answers are correct. Answer: d Page: 181 23. The most comprehensive study ever conducted on public opinion and policy showsIn their study of public opinion and policy, Benjamin Page and Robert Shapiro concluded that a. there is no relationship between public opinion and policy. b. when public opinion changes, public policy then tends to change in the same direction. c. public policy is nothing more than a mirror of what public opinion is at any point in time. d. policy change tends to follow opinion change, but only on less important issues. i. U.S. officials are not responsive to public opinion. Answer: b Page: 184 24. All of the following ideological types are prevalent in the United States except a. liberals. b. conservatives. c. populists. d. libertarians. j. socialists. Answer: e Page: 178 25. Compared to citizens of most other industrialized democracies, Americans a. know more about public affairs. b. have more national pride. c. have less national pride. d. None of the answers are correct. j. All of the answers are correct. Answer: b Page: 174 26. When asked questions such as “How proud are you to be an American citizen?” what is the typical response by American citizens? a. All Americans except Hispanic Americans are very proud. b. All Americans except the poor are very proud. c. Americans of all backgrounds and age levels express a strong attachment to the nation. d. The young answer “not very proud” or “not proud at all.” h. All Americans except conservatives are very proud. Answer: c Page: 174 27. Which region of the nation has the highest concentration of citizens who call themselves liberals? a. the Plains states b. the South c. the Northeast d. the Mountain states f. the Southwest Answer: c Page: 177 28. All of the following are ideologies except a. fascism. b. communism. c. socialism . d. conservatism. i. All of the answers are ideologies. Answer: e Page: 177 29. Which of the following is true about American public opinion? a. American public opinion can be contradictory. b. Americans believe that tax rates are too low. c. Americans believe that too much money is spent on education. d. Americans believe that too much money is spent on environmental protection. h. Americans believe that too much money is spent on public health. Answer: a Page: 167 30. The fact that Americans want more government services but also want tax reduction shows that opinions are frequently a. motivated by emotion. b. contradictory. c. consistent. d. based upon careful thought. j. based on extensive research. Answer: b Page: 167 31. Which of the following is not a common ideal in America? a. liberty b. equality c. individualism d. self-government j. collectivism Answer: e Page: 176 32. About two-thirds of adults call themselves, in terms of party identification, a. liberals. b. Republicans or Democrats. c. Republicans. d. Independents. a. Democrats. Answer: b Page: 183 33. As an influence on what happens in American politics, public opinion can be described as a(n) force. a. elusive b. powerful c. inexact d. contradictory h. All of the answers are correct. Answer: e Page: 185 34. In general, public opinion a. determines government action. b. is unrelated to government action. c. sets broad limits on government action. d. affects government action only on election issues. i. is only important during a presidential election. Answer: c Page: 165 35. Elizabeth Noelle-Neumann’s spiral of silence theory contends that a. most individuals are reluctant to speak out against dominant opinion held by peers and others with whom they associate.. b. people tend not to express their views until asked. c. people holding deviant opinions tend to be more vocal, and hence silence the majority. d. most individuals like to challenge dominant opinions. f. None of the answers are correct. Answer: a Page: 175 36. Which of the following ideological types favor government activism in the economic realm? a. liberals and populists b. populists and libertarians c. conservatives and liberals d. populists and conservatives i. liberals and libertarians Answer: a Page: 178 37. The most powerful religious force in contemporary American society is/are a. Protestants. b. the religious right. c. Catholics. d. Jews. h. Muslims. Answer: b Page: 180 38. The theorist who was originally an advocate of government by enlightened rulers, but came to believe that the public’s views had to be taken into account if leaders were to govern properly is a. Jeremy Bentham. b. Plato. c. James Madison. d. Thomas Hobbes. i. John Dewey. Answer: a Page: 166 39. Three-fourths of Ivy-League students surveyed could not identify as the author of the phrase, “a government of the people, by the people, and for the people.” a. George Washington b. James Madison c. George Gallup d. Abraham Lincoln h. Thomas Jefferson Answer: d Page: 168 40. Which of the following is true about public opinion polling? a. Polls are the most relied-upon method of measuring public opinion. b. Polls can be erroneous at times. c. Most large news organizations have their own in-house polls. d. The Gallup pollsters have correctly predicted the winner of presidential elections most of the time since 1936. i. All of the answers are correct. Answer: e Page: 171 41. Which of the following is a means of judging public opinion? a. a citizen’s letter to the editor b. activities of lobbyists c. crowds demonstrating on the street d. yard signs i. All of the answers are correct. Answer: e Page: 168 42. significantly changed American attitudes about the role of the federal government in the economy. a. The War of 1812 b. The Spanish-American War c. The California Gold Rush d. The Great Depression g. The Civil War Answer: d Page: 173 43. If the sampling error in a properly conducted poll is plus or minus 4 percent, and the poll indicates that candidate X has the support of 60 percent of the respondents, then the probability is high that candidate actually has the support of a. 60 percent of the voters. b. between 56 and 64 percent of the voters. c. no less than 60 percent of the voters. d. no more than 60 percent of the voters. i. None of the answers are correct. Answer: b Page: 171 44, Roughly what proportion of Americans prefer to identify themselves as an Independent rather than as a Democrat or Republican? a. about two-thirds b. more than half but less than two-thirds c. about half d. about a third h. None of the answers are correct. Answer: d Page: 183 45. That Americans have a different view toward universal health care in comparison to the Europeans is probably due to Americans’ deep-rooted belief in a. individualism. b. democracy. c. self-government. d. equality. m. collectivism. Answer: a Page: 176 46. Libertarians are opposed to governmental intervention in a. both the economic and social spheres. b. the economic sphere, but not the social sphere. c. the social sphere, but not the economic sphere. d. neither the social nor the economic spheres. i. only affirmative action. Answer: a Page: 178 47. A conservative is opposed to government intervention in a. both the economic and social spheres. b. the economic sphere, but not the social sphere. c. the social sphere, but not the economic sphere. d. neither the social nor the economic spheres. j. only affirmative action. Answer: b Page: 178 Essay/Short Answer 1. Identify and discuss the frames of reference that Americans rely upon when forming their political opinions. Answer: The four frames of reference are cultural thinking, ideological thinking, group thinking, and partisan thinking. Cultural thinking refers to the influence upon public opinion of ideals that define American political culture. These ideals, such as individualism, equality, and self-government, affect what people will regard as politically desirable and acceptable. Ideological thinking is a less-common means of opinion formation. Opinions within this frame of reference are formed on the basis of an individual’s ideology, which is a consistent pattern of opinion on particular issues that stems from a basic underlying belief or beliefs. In contemporary American politics, liberalism and conservatism are examples of ideologies. Group thinking has been found to be a more important frame of reference for opinion formation for most people than is ideological thinking. Group thinking entails viewing politics through the shared perceptions of a group to which individuals belong or with which they identify. Some of the more significant group orientations include religion, income, occupation, region, race, and gender. Partisan thinking is the major frame of reference by which many people make their political judgments. Personal loyalty to the Democratic or Republican party is a strong influence on how Americans view political issues, leaders, and developments. 2. Discuss the major characteristics of the political socialization process through which Americans acquire their political opinions. Answer: A first characteristic of political socialization is that most people’s political outlook rigidifies with age, despite the fact that socialization continues throughout life. A second characteristic is that political socialization tends to be fairly uncritical. Individuals rarely examine their political preferences closely once they are formed and accept socialization without much scrutiny. A third characteristic of political socialization in the United States is that it is relatively casual. Socialization occurs through subtle means such as everyday communication. Americans are not subject to rigid programs of political indoctrination. 3. Define what is meant by a political ideology. Why is ideology important to consider when discussing the political thinking of the American people? Answer: Political ideology is a consistent pattern of opinion on particular issues that stems from a basic underlying belief or beliefs. However, these are relatively sophisticated patterns of belief, and most citizens do not think about politics in such a consistent fashion. Only a minority—perhaps as few as a tenth and no more than a third —do so. Nonetheless, ideology is still important politically. One reason is that the proportion of citizens who think ideologically is sizable even though it is a minority. Also, this proportion increases when the political alternatives are more ideological than is normal. A second reason is that ideology is concentrated among those who are the most politically vocal and visible—the political activists. These activists tend to play a disproportional role in American politics. 4. Discuss the general relationship between public opinion and the actions of government. Answer: Public opinion has a powerful though inexact influence on government. Although public opinion rarely determines exactly what government will do, public opinion serves to constrain the policy choices of officials. Some policy actions are beyond the range of possibility because the public will not accept change in existing policy or will not support policy that clearly conflicts with basic values. In addition, officials must anticipate the public response to policy, since people may react negatively to policies that fail or are followed by unfavorable developments. Evidence indicates officials are reasonably attentive to public opinion, particularly on highly visible issues of public policy. 5. How informed is American public opinion? Explain. Answer: The American public has a generally low level of knowledge about politics and public affairs. Most citizens routinely flunk current affairs tests administered by pollsters. Yet the public’s lack of information about specific issues is not as significant a factor as some might perceive. Citizens do not necessarily need to be well-informed about a particular issue to have a reasonable opinion about it. Citizen participation in politics is the essential component of the ideal of a. liberty. b. equality. c. self-government. d. individualism. e. collectivism. Answer: c Page: 189 2. Women gained the right to vote a. with passage of the Bill of Rights. b. shortly after the Civil War. c. early in the twentieth century. d. with passage of the Voting Rights Act of 1965. k. during the era of Jacksonian democracy. Answer: c Page: 190 3. The poll tax was used to a. disenfranchise African Americans in the South. b. finance election campaigns. c. ensure that women voted with their husbands, who legally controlled the money in a marriage. d. ensure that the people who voted would take the vote seriously. k. help subsidize public education in the North. Answer: a Page: 190 4. One of the reasons why voter turnout is lower in the United States than in Western European countries is that a. Americans pay less attention to politics. b. U.S. registration laws place a greater burden on the individual. c. the U.S. population is not as well-educated. d. Europeans must pay a huge fine if they fail to vote. k. None of the answers are correct. Answer: b Page: 192 5. Voter registration in the United States a. was introduced as a means of keeping white males without property from voting. b. has been a device by which officials have discouraged some groups from voting. c. is the responsibility of the government to add individuals automatically to the registration rolls. d. applies to voting in general elections but not primary elections. k. has vastly increased voter turnout. Answer: b Page: 193 6. The frequency of elections in the United States reduces voter turnout by a. discouraging local politicians from playing an active role in presidential election. b. creating more complex registration requirements. c. focusing too much attention on state and local elections. d. increasing the personal effort needed to participate in all elections. n. increasing the amount of taxes paid at the polls. Answer: d Page: 194 7. States and localities often choose to hold key office elections in non-presidential election years to a. maximize voter turnout. b. insulate their election races from the possible effects of the presidential campaign. c. keep the public’s interest in elections at a high level at all times. d. allow local and state candidates to get more attention from the press. j. All of the answers are correct. Answer: b 78. Compared to parties in Europe, parties in the United States are more likely to a. divide more sharply over economic policies. b. target the voters of a particular religion or class. c. adopt an extreme position. d. advocate overlapping policies. k. be ideological. Answer: d Page: 195 89. Regular voters are characterized by a. a strong sense of alienation which motivates them to try to change government. b. a strong sense of civic duty. c. a desire to use government as a vehicle to help other Americans rather than themselves. d. a strong sense of independence which motivates them to try to defeat incumbents. k. All of the answers are correct. Answer: b Page: 197 910. As distinct from alienation, apathy is a. associated with a low rate of voter turnout. b. a feeling of powerlessness. c. a general lack of interest in politics. d. a sign that the political system is working properly. k. widespread among affluent Americans. Answer: c Page: 197 101. Which group of Americans has the lowest rate of voter turnout? a. older people (60 years-of-age or more) b. younger people (30 years-of-age or less) c. men d. women k. people with college degrees Answer: b Page: 199 112. Citizens’ income and education level affects the likelihood they will turnout to vote on Election Day a. more in the United States than in Western Europe. b. more in Western Europe than in the United States. c. only in national elections in the United States. d. only in national elections in Western Europe. k. None of the answers are correct. Answer: a Page: 200 123. In comparison with citizens in European democracies, Americans are less likely to a. vote in national elections. b. actively work in an election campaign. c. participate in community activities. d. join an interest group. j. All of the answers are correct. Answer: a Page: 194 134. The chief obstacle to Americans’ participation in community activities is a. the lack of opportunity because there are few groups active at this level. b. the lack of personal motivation to get involved. c. the low potential for success, since key decisions are made at the national level. k. the low potential for success, since key decisions are made at the state level. e. All of the answers are correct. Answer: b Page: 202 145. Which of the following is an inaccurate statement about Americans’ exposure to news? a. The Internet’s news content is the main reason why people make use of the Internet. b. Most people do not follow the news on a daily basis. c. People who follow the news closely are generally better informed about politics than those who do not. d. Young people are less likely than older people to follow the news closely. l. Americans today are getting their news from a wider variety of sources than they did a few decades ago. Answer: a Page: 203 156. All of the following tend to decrease voter turnout except a. sharp differences between major parties. b. alienation. c. frequent elections. d. a registration system that places the burden of registration on the individual rather than on government officials. k. lack of interest in politics. Answer: a Page: 196 167. Social movements are a way for a. those dissatisfied with government to get its attention. b. the politically weak to force government to be more responsive than usual to their interests. c. people to present their views through more dramatic means than conventional political activity. d. people to get news coverage of their issue. k. All of the answers are correct. Answer: e Page: 205 178. A broad effort to achieve change by citizens who feel government is not responsive to their interests is called a. a social movement. b. a voter upsurge. c. a citizen lobby. d. a popular resistance. k. a regular election. Answer: a Page: 205 189. Elections are a. a means by which government controls the people. b. a means by which the people control government. c. the only popular form of participation that, in most democracies, involves a majority of citizens. d. All of the answers are correct. k. None of the answers are correct. Answer: d Page: 205 1920. When it comes to protest activities, a majority of Americans are a. actively involved at one time or another in their lives. b. willing to contribute through financial support but not through active participation. c. not highly supportive of such activities despite America’s tradition of free expression. d. actively involved only later in their lives when they feel more secure that a protest Answer: c Page: 206 is justified. j. supportive of violent activities if the cause warrants such an approach. 201. Political participation among Americans can best be described as a activity. a. futile b. middle-class dominated c. female-dominated d. universal k. working-class dominated Answer: b Page: 208 212. An original purpose of a system of voter registration was to a. prevent fraudulent voting. b. certify party membership. c. educate people about the importance of voting. d. help candidates know the size of the electorate. h. help the political parties increase voter turnout. Answer: a Page: 192 223. holds more elections than any other democracy and is the only one to rely extensively on primary elections. a. France b. The United States c. Germany d. Great Britain g. Belgium Answer: b Page: 193 234. When citizens have a high degree of trust in their government, the level of voting turnout tends to a. increase. b. decrease. c. be largely unaffected. d. increase among lower-income citizens but decrease among higher-income citizens. f. None of the answers are correct. Answer: a Page: 199 245. Protest activity is an exception to the pattern fromor most other fororms of political participation in that it a. has broad public support. b. is supportive of existing policies. c. is more likely to involve younger citizens rather than older ones. d. is rooted in prejudice. j. usually takes place in the evenings. Answer: c Page: 205 256. The prevalence of mass elections helps the political system by a. providing leaders a means for deceiving the public. b. lessening the frequency and need to protest violently. c. assuring the voter turnout will be very high among all citizens. d. All of the answers are correct. i. None of the answers are correct. Answer: b Page: 205 267. Citizens in are most likely to volunteer time and money to promote community causes. a. Germany b. France c. Great Britain d. the United States k. There is no difference between the four nations. Answer: d Page: 201 278. The six states that allow residents to register to vote at the polls on Election Day a. are noted for the high level of corruption in their voting process. b. are all located in the Southwest because this procedure is designed to encourage participation by Hispanics. c. have such low levels of interest in politics that they almost had to adopt this registration procedure to boost voter turnout. d. have an average voter turnout level that is much higher than the average turnout level of other states. j. are so totally controlled by one political party that the party is not concerned about losing control by having more voters come to the polls on Election Day. Answer: d Page: 193 289. If Americans vote less than Europeans, why are they more likely to work in a political campaign than citizens in Europe? a. America’s federal structure provides more campaign opportunities. b. European candidates seldom need campaign workers. c. Americans have more leisure time than Europeans. d. U.S. candidates pay campaign workers whereas European candidates do not. g. Laws in some U.S. communities require citizens to participate in campaigns. Answer: a Page: 201 2930. Over the past few decades, the trend in citizen participation in lobbying groups is participation through a. giving money. b. voting on the group’s leadership. c. voting on the group’s lobbying agenda. d. attending protest marches on a frequent basis. h. going to the group’s meetings. Answer: a Page: 201 301. Compared with U.S. citizens of higher income, those of lower income are a. much less likely to vote in elections. b. about equally likely to vote in elections. c. much more likely to vote in elections. d. much less likely to vote in elections, a pattern that is also true in European democracies. i. None of the answers are correct Answer: a Page: 200 312. During , the age of eligibility for voting was lowered from twenty-one to eighteen. a. the Civil War b. World War I c. World War II d. the Korean War j. the Vietnam War Answer: e Page: 191 323. In the United States, the primary responsibility for registration of the individual voter rests with the a. state and local governments. b. local courts. c. employer. d. individual. i. federal government. Answer: d Page: 192 334. Since 1920, the level of turnout in presidential midterm elections has never exceeded percent. a. 70 b. 60 c. 50 d. 40 i. 30 Answer: c Page: 192a 345. The “Motor Voter” law a. was passed in 1993. b. made it easier for citizens to register to vote. c. linked voter registration to the vehicle registration process. d. All of the answers are correct. i. None of the answers are correct. Answer: d Page: 193 36. Which of the following statements is true? a. Voter turnout rates for men and women are somewhat similar. b. Hispanic Americans have a lower rate of voter turnout than do non-Hispanic whites in presidential elections. c. Race was historically a basis for denying some Americans the right to vote. d. African Americans have a somewhat lower voter turnout rate than do white Americans. e. All of the answers are correct. Answer: e 357. elections tend to draw the largest percentage of voters. a. Primary b. Mayoral c. Congressional d. Gubernatorial j. Presidential Answer: e Page: 191 368. According to recent public opinion polls, about percent of adult Americans have participated in an anti-war demonstration. a. 2 b. 20 c. 40 d. 60 h. 80 Answer: a Page: 205 379. The citizens of are most likely to participate as campaign volunteers during an election. a. the Netherlands b. Great Britain c. the United States d. Germany i. France Answer: c Page: 201 3840. When the United States was founded, who was eligible to vote? a. Everyone—there was universal suffrage. b. all males and females who were at least 21 years of age c. only white males who owned property d. only citizens who had lived in the nation for at least ten years h. All native-born citizens could vote. Answer: c Page: 190 3941. The poll tax was outlawed in federal elections by the a. Voting Rights Act of 1965. b. Twenty-fourth Amendment. c. Supreme Court which ruled the tax unconstitutional. d. Nineteenth Amendment. n. Civil Rights Act of 1964. Answer: b Page: 190 40. was arrested twice and fined in her hometown of Rochester, New York for organized Election Day protests against laws denying women the right to vote. f. Loretta Sanchez g. Geraldine Ferraro h. Susan B. Anthony i. Amelia Earhart j. Eleanor Roosevelt Answer: c Page: 192 Essay/Short Answer 1. Describe three systemic reasons why Americans vote at a lower rate than Western Europeans. Answer: Americans vote at a lower rate than Europeans for three reasons: registration requirements, frequency of elections, and a lack of party differentiation. Although both American and European governments require their citizens to register to vote, European governments are responsible for locating and placing individuals on registration rolls. In the United States it is up to the individual to register. This personal responsibility discourages registration and hence lowers American voter turnout. The frequency of American elections reduces voter turnout by increasing the effort required to participate in all of them. Primary elections, which are uniquely American, are particularly burdensome because they require voters to go to the polls twice to fill the single presidential office. A third reason for low voter turnout is that many Americans do not see much difference between the two major parties; in their judgment, the issue of which one is in power does not have highly serious consequences. Both parties tend toward middle- class policies, which discourages turnout of lower-income people. 2. Give three reasons why some Americans vote regularly while others do not. Answer: One reason some Americans vote more regularly than others is that they have a more developed sense of civic duty than others. Civic duty is a belief that citizens have certain responsibilities, one of which is voting. Citizens who tend not to vote have a weak sense of civic duty. Another factor is age. Because younger people are less likely to have the political interest that can come with home ownership, permanent employment, and a family, they are less likely to vote than older people. Finally, voting is closely related to socioeconomic status. The higher a person’s socioeconomic status, the more likely he or she will vote. This relationship is particularly strong in the United States because there is no socialist or labor party to appeal to people of low socioeconomic status. 3. Define unconventional activism and its aims, and provide historical examples. Describe Americans’ attitudes toward unconventional activism. Answer: Unconventional activism is another name for protest politics. These activities can threaten established authority, and occasionally provoke a violent response from government, as the Kent State shootings illustrate. Through demonstrations, picket lines, and marches, protesters dramatize their opposition to official policies. The abolitionist, labor, women’s suffrage, and civil rights movements all used unconventional activism to varying degrees. In general, most Americans are not highly supportive of protest politics. 4. Why are people of higher socioeconomic status more likely to be politically active? Answer: Socioeconomic status refers to a person’s educational and income level. Americans at the bottom of the socioeconomic ladder tend to vote less than those at the top. People of a higher socioeconomic status are more likely to possess the financial resources, communication skills, and time to engage in potentially rewarding political activities, such as voting. Also, the U.S. political system does not have structures (for example, a labor party or universal registration) that would encourage lower-status citizens to participate. 5. Should elections be held on weekends or perhaps as national holidays—why or why not? Answer: This is an open-ended question. Conducting elections on weekends or as national holidays would make turnout easier, but would apathetic citizens change their behavior and vote, or would they ignore elections as usual? Also, making elections national holidays would have consequences for the national economy. Political parties serve a. to link the public with its elected leaders. b. to transform conflict into political choices for voters. c. as a basis for organizing interests into ongoing political coalitions. d. to provide potential leaders an opportunity to attain public office. e. All of the answers are correct. Answer: e Page 213 2. The first American political parties emerged from the conflict between a. slave states and free states. b. the older Eastern states and the newer Western states. c. the interests of small landholders and those favoring commercial and wealthy interests. d. business and labor. l. Protestants and Catholics. Answer: c Page: 214 3. Andrew Jackson’s contribution to the development of political parties was the a. forging of a coalition of Democrats and Whigs. b. introduction of primary elections. c. formation of a grassroots party—one with local organizations and open to all eligible voters rather than just elite leaders. d. formation of the Federalist party. l. formation of the Republican party. Answer: c Page: 215 4. Democrats and Republicans have endured as the two major U.S. parties primarily due to a. the stability of their ideologies. b. the lack of good third-party candidates. c. a high degree of party discipline. d. their ability to adapt to changing circumstances. l. None of the answers are correct. Answer: d Page: 216 5. The only minor-party or independent candidate in the twentieth century to win more votes than a major-party candidate in a presidential election was a. Strom Thurmond (Dixiecrat, 1948). b. George Wallace (American Independent, 1968). c. Theodore Roosevelt (Bull Moose, 1912). d. Ross Perot (Independent, 1992). l. John B. Anderson (National Unity, 1980). Answer: c Page: 226 6. If a minor party gains a large following, it is almost certain that a. the major parties will join together to attack the minor party. b. Congress will enact legislation to make it difficult for the minor party to get on the ballot. c. party in-fighting will tear it apart. d. the major parties will try to capture its supporters. o. the media will attack the minor party. Answer: d Page: 225 7. The major reason for the persistence of the American two-party system is a. there are naturally only two sides to political disputes. b. regional conflict. c. its single-member-district system of electing officeholders. d. the existence of state laws prohibiting the placement of a third major party on the ballot. k. proportional representation. Answer: c Page: 221 8. Proportional representation systems encourage the formation of smaller parties by enabling parties to a. win legislative seats even though they do not receive a majority of votes in elections. b. receive campaign funds from government in proportion to their support in opinion polls. c. win legislative seats by lottery for parties that have no chance of winning majority support. d. share in patronage appointments which serve as an incentive to lure campaign workers. l. advertise on television. Answer: a Page: 221 9. The history of democratic government is virtually synonymous with the history of a. high voter turnout. b. separation of powers. c. economic recessions. d. protest movements. l. political parties. Answer: e Page: 214 10. All of the following are characteristic of a realigning election except a. sharp divisions between the parties. b. enduring changes in party coalitions. c. major policy initiatives by the winning party. d. a very close electoral result. l. the disruption of the existing political order. Answer: d Page: 217 11. In order to win elections, both political parties in a two-party system normally a. direct their appeals to voters in the political center because they have the votes to swing the election toward either party. b. direct their appeals to voters on the extremes because they are the most likely to turn out to vote. c. direct their appeals to wealthy interests because they have the money needed in elections. d. alternate between radical appeals, when out of power, and moderation, when in power. k. alternate between reactionary appeals, when out of power, and moderation, when in power. Answer: a Page: 222 12. The issue of slavery gave birth to the party as a major political party. a. Federalist b. Democratic c. Republican d. Whig l. Populist Answer: c Page: 216 13. Political parties in the United States originated with a political feud between a. John Marshall and John Adams. b. John Adams and Andrew Jackson. c. George Washington and Patrick Henry. d. James Madison and James Monroe. l. Alexander Hamilton and Thomas Jefferson. Answer: e Page: 214 14. The Democratic party’s long-time regional stronghold, the Solid South, stemmed from the realignment. a. Civil War b. 1890s c. Great Depression and 1930s d. 1980s k. None of the answers are correct. Answer: a Page: 217 15. Which of the following would be an indicator of weakening partisanship? a. an increase in split-ticket voting b. an increase in independent voters c. an increase in voters’ responsiveness to the issues of the moment d. an increase in voters’ responsiveness to candidates’ personal characteristics k. All of the answers are correct. Answer: e Page: 219 16. Party de-alignment is a. essentially the same as party realignment. b. a process that has discouraged the formation of third parties. c. a process that has strengthened the major parties. d. a process that refers to American political parties in the early 1800s. j. None of the answers are correct. Answer: e Page: 217 17. Prospective voting is characterized by a. a sudden shift in the vote from one party to another. b. choices based on party loyalty. c. choices based on government’s performance. d. choices based on an awareness of the candidates’ positions on various issues. e. symbolism of a candidate’s personality. Answer: d Page: 220 18. is based on judgment about the past performance of an elected official or political party. a. Prospective voting b. Retrospective voting c. Split-ticket voting d. Straight-ticket voting e. None of the answers are correct. Answer: b Page: 220 19. won the presidency in 1828 after having lost in 1824 despite having received the most popular votes. a. John Quincy Adams b. Henry Clay c. John C. Calhoun d. James Monroe m. Andrew Jackson Answer: e Page: 216 20. does not have a competitive multiparty system. a. Germany b. Italy c. The Netherlands d. The United States l. Sweden Answer: d Page: 221 21. Most European parties on the political left tend to appeal mainly to a. middle-class voters. b. working-class voters. c. the very affluent or wealthy voters. d. social conservatives. l. All of the answers are correct. Answer: b Page: 223 22. The Democratic coalition today includes the following groups except a. women. b. African Americans. c. Latino Americans. d. the Christian Coalition. l. gays and lesbians. Answer: d Page: 223 23. warned Americans of the baneful effects of factions (political parties). a. James Madison b. Thomas Jefferson c. George Washington d. Andrew Jackson a. Abraham Lincoln Answer: c Page: 214 24. In recent presidential elections, which party’s platform has supported school prayer and been opposed to abortion? a. Democratic b. Republican c. Green d. Socialist k. Reform Answer: b Page: 224 25. Minor political parties have problems with a. financing their campaigns. b. getting their candidates on all 50 state ballots. c. having a lasting impact on American politics. d. All of the answers are correct. j. None of the answers are correct. Answer: d Page: 227 26. Which of the following groups is aligned with the Democratic party, voting more than 85 percent Democratic in presidential elections? a. Latino Americans b. white Protestants c. Christian fundamentalists d. African Americans l. Roman Catholics Answer: d Page: 223 27. Which of the following groups is not typically a part of the Republican coalition? a. individuals with incomes under $25,000 b. white southerners c. union households d. political conservatives j. both individuals with incomes under $25,000 and union households Answer: e Page: 223 28. was the Democratic nominee and the Populist party nominee in 1896. a. William McKinley b. Grover Cleveland c. William Jennings Bryan d. Woodrow Wilson k. Charles Evans Hughes Answer: c 289. A main reason for the decline of party-centered politics is a. the emergence of candidates as the main attraction in media-centered election campaigns. b. the irrelevance of parties in a technological age. c. a weakening of state governments relative to the national government. d. the development of public opinion polls as an alternative means of discovering public sentiment. k. a weakening of the national government relative to the state governments. Answer: a Page: 227 2930. was the only Republican elected president from 1932 to 1964. a. Richard Nixon b. Barry Goldwater c. Dwight Eisenhower d. Herbert Hoover j. Calvin Coolidge Answer: c Page: 218 301. As compared with an open primary election, a closed primary a. limits the period during which candidates can gather the petitions necessary to get their name on the ballot. b. restricts the period of time during which candidates can openly campaign for office c. restricts the period of time in which televised debates and political advertising can occur. d. restricts the groups that can contribute money to candidates. l. restricts voting only to those voters who have registered as members of the party holding the primary. Answer: e Page: 227 312. American party organizations a. are about to die out. b. are more powerful today than at any time in history. c. have more power than their Western European counterparts. d. are still important, but their role in campaigns is secondary to that of candidates. k. are unimportant in the political system today. Answer: d Page: 227 323. National party organizations can dictate the day-to-day decisions of a. local party organizations only. b. state party organizations only. c. local and state party organizations. d. neither local nor state party organizations. k. party leaders in Congress. Answer: d Page: 228 334. In the 2004 presidential election, was the candidate widely acknowledged to have made the most effective use of the Internet as a campaign tool. a. Joe Lieberman b. Howard Dean c. John Kerry d. George Bush e. John Edwards Answer: b Page: 237 345. An important function of a political party in the United States is a. public education. a. recruitment of candidates. b. formulation of platforms. c. offering the voters a choice. d. All of the answers are correct. Answer: e Page: 227 356. Which of the following are key players in the modern campaign? a. pollsters b. media producers c. fund raising specialists d. campaign consultants j. All of the answers are correct. Answer: e Page: 233 367. provides no free television time to political parties and allows candidates to purchase air time. a. France b. Great Britain c. The United States d. Germany i. Canada Answer: c Page: 236 378. In the typical organizational structure of a political party, the lowest level of local party organization would be the a. ward. b. precinct. c. city/town committee. d. county committee. g. state committee. Answer: b Page: 229 389. Regarding state party organizations, the day-to-day operation is usually the responsibility of the a. central committee. b. state chairperson. c. national chairperson who oversees all state party organizations. d. state governor or top leaders in the legislative branch. j. None of the answers are correct. Answer: b Page: 230 3940. Although party organizations are weaker today than a century ago in terms of their control over campaigns, they have staged a comeback of sorts. The main indicator of this comeback is a. the rapid growth in neighborhood party organizations. b. the reemergence of machine-like organizations in large cities, particularly those on the East Coast. c. the development on college campuses of strong Young Democrats and Young Republicans organizations. d. the emergence of national and state party organizations as major fundraising organizations that also assist candidates with campaign planning. j. the increased tendency for individuals who want to hold public office to work for years in the party in order to position themselves for nomination to public office. Answer: d Page: 228 401. During the twentieth century, American parties lost some of their control over a. nominations. b. the financing of campaigns. c. platforms. d. the giving of government jobs to loyal party workers. j. All of the answers are correct. Answer: e Page: 227 412. The greatest blow to the organizational strength of U.S. parties was a. the national convention. b. the direct primary. c. Jacksonian democracy. d. the emergence of PACs. j. voter registration. Answer: b Page: 227 423. Candidate-centered politics is characterized by all of the following except a. television advertising. b. direct-mail fundraising. c. door-to-door canvassing. d. opinion poll analysis. g. professional consultants. Answer: c Page: 233 434. In most elections in the United States, the position that candidates take on policy issues is determined by the a. candidates themselves. b. local party organizations. c. state party organizations. d. national party organization. j. media. Answer: a Page: 239 445. Candidate-centered politics encourages a. greater responsiveness to local interests. b. flexibility in response to problems. c. the use of television advertising in campaigns. d. introduction of new blood to politics. k. All of the above answers are correct. Answer: e Page: 238 456. In their relationship with candidates, the political party can expect that a. candidates will place the interest of the party ahead of their own political interest. b. campaign volunteers will be more loyal to the party than to a particular candidate. c. ambitious politicians will not challenge the party’s choice in a primary election even when they aspire to the office at stake. d. all campaign expenditures for candidates must be approved by party leaders. i. None of the answers are correct. Answer: e Page: 228 467. The patronage system was a. a means of rewarding party workers for their loyalty. b. established by the Progressives. c. completely replaced by the merit system. d. always fair in practice. j. All of the answers are correct. Answer: a Page: 228 478. The U.S. federal system affects the party system by a. favoring the creation of parties organized chiefly at the statewide level. b. hindering the creation of strong national party organizations that can dictate the actions of state and local party organizations. c. encouraging minor parties that have a regional base. d. encouraging media-based campaigns. j. favoring the creation of parties organized chiefly at the national level. Answer: b Page: 228 489. The function that the national party organizations perform in relation to congressional candidates can best be described as a a. service role—helping candidates conduct their personal campaigns. b. power role—making party assistance conditional upon the candidates’ endorsement of the party platform. c. central role—organizing and conducting the campaigns for the candidates. d. non-participant role—staying out of congressional campaigns and assisting only in the presidential campaign. i. None of the answers are correct. Answer: a Page: 231 4950. Candidate-centered campaigns a. can degenerate into personality contests. b. are focused on broad policy differences. c. are focused on liberalism and conservatism. d. are focused on budget and military issues. o. None of the answers are correct. Answer: a Page: 241 501. About 95 percent of all campaign activists in the United States work at a. the national level. b. the state level. c. the local level. d. the national and state levels. l. Republican and Democratic party headquarters. Answer: c Page: 228 512. was a realigning election. a. 1816, when James Monroe won the presidency, b. 1912, when Woodrow Wilson won the presidency, c. 1932, when Franklin Roosevelt won the presidency, d. 1960, when John Kennedy won the presidency, e. 1976, when Jimmy Carter won the presidency, Answer: c Page: 217 523. The election of , was the only time in American history when the U.S. party system failed as a means of resolving political conflict. a. 1800, when Thomas Jefferson won the presidency b. 1828, when Andrew Jackson won the presidency c. 1860, when Abraham Lincoln won the presidency d. 1896, when William McKinley won the presidency e. 1912, when Woodrow Wilson won the presidency Answer: c Page: 216 534. In 1992, won 19 percent of the popular vote in the presidential election. a. Bill Clinton b. George H.W. Bush c. Ross Perot d. Pat Buchanan g. Ralph Nader Answer: c Page: 226 545. In recent elections, even though candidates for public office still spend most of their campaign money on televised ads, they have increasingly put money into the effort to get out the vote on Election Day. Among the reasons for this is a. an increase in partisanship among voters, which makes it harder to persuade them to switch sides but makes it more important to get the party’s supporters to the polls. b. the discovery by candidates that the Internet is not a good medium through which to campaign. c. the reluctance of candidates to use negative advertising, which has made more money available for other activities, including get-out-the-vote efforts. d. the fact that people like to get telephone solicitation calls. e. the insistence of donors that their money be used to get out the vote because it makes donors feel they are making a contribution to civic participation as well as to a candidate they would like to see win. Answer: a Page: 237 Essay/Short Answer 1. Why have the Democratic and Republican parties been so durable so as to maintain existence since the Civil War? Explain. Answer: Analysts believe that the durability of the Democratic and Republican parties is due to their remarkable ability to adapt during times of crisis. These two major parties have survived many periods of social, economic and political unrest not by maintaining a consistent ideology, but by adapting to the changing needs of the maintaining and realigning elections (for example, the elections of the Great Depression of the 1930s produced fundamentally new Democratic and Republican parties). Instead of being destroyed by these elections, the parties emerged with new bases of support, new policies, and even new philosophies. Democrats and Republicans remained the dominant parties in America. After the Great Depression, the Democrats became the country’s majority party and emphasized a new social and economic role for national government. The party survived—indeed succeeded—only by responding to the crisis and adapting its policies to address the current needs of the people. Such capacity for adaptation has ensured the Democrats and Republicans longevity and dominance in America’s two-party system. 2. Explain why the single-member district system of elections tends to promote a two-party system. Answer: In a single-member district system, each constituency selects only one representative for an office on the basis of which candidate receives a plurality of the vote. This system promotes a two-party system in America. It discourages minor parties because it is, essentially, a winner-take-all contest. For example, if a minor party receives 20 percent of the vote in each congressional district, it would win no seats in Congress. Despite the fact that one in five voters voted for the minor party, the winning candidate in each district would be the major-party candidate with the larger proportion of the remaining 80 percent of the vote. In contrast, a system of proportional representation is not a winner-take-all contest. In European democracies, for example, seats in the legislature are allocated according to a party’s share of the popular vote. This system encourages minor parties: if a minor party wins 20 percent of the vote by way of illustration, it receives 20 percent of the legislative seats. America’s single-member district system disadvantages minor parties and, therefore, promotes a two-party system. 3. Explain how party coalitions in the U.S. reflect the nature of party competition. Does coalition formation tend to moderate or radicalize parties? Explain. Answer: The overriding goal of a major American political party is to gain control of government by getting its candidates elected to office, which means that political compromise is essential. The major parties must appeal to different groups that may disagree on some issues; a reasonable amount of compromise is therefore necessary. The parties must also appeal to many of the same groups. The result is, in most circumstances though not all, a moderate form of political conflict in which the parties’ coalitions overlap substantially in terms of the groups that comprise them. 4. What is meant by a realigning election? Answer: A realigning election is one in which many significant social groups alter their voting behavior and switch their allegiance from one political party to another. Realigning elections have four basic elements: the existing political order is disrupted; voters shift their support in favor of one party; a major change in public policy occurs as a result of the stronger party; and the political changes endure for a significant period of time. 5. What is a candidate-centered campaign, and how does it differ from a party-centered one? Identify some advantages and disadvantages of candidate-centered campaigns. Answer: Candidates effectively control the candidate-centered campaign, while a party- centered campaign is dominated by parties. In the former, voters tend to select individuals (as in the United States); in the latter, voters tend to make their choices based on party traditions and party platforms (as in Europe). One advantage of candidate-centered campaigns is that they bring flexibility and new blood to electoral politics. This means the political system can more quickly adapt to new realities. Also, candidate-centered campaigns encourage national officeholders to be more responsive to local interests, because personal support among local constituents is the key to re-election. A disadvantage is that such campaigns are heavily influenced by the contributions of special interests. Another disadvantage is that officeholders’ accountability to the public is reduced because an incumbent can always blame other officeholders for policy problems. Collective accountability through parties is weak. Still another disadvantage is that candidate-centered campaigns can easily degenerate into displays of meaningless showmanship. 6. How do European parties differ from American parties? Answer: European parties are hierarchical and have much tighter controls over nominations, campaigns, candidate funding, and elections. American parties, due to federalism and a tradition of individualism, remain loose associations of local, state, and national organizations. 7. What are primary elections and what impact have they had on party organizations? Answer: A primary election is a method of nominating party candidates in which the party nominee is chosen by voters rather than party leaders. Primary elections weaken party organization by depriving the party of control over the candidates who will run under its banner. 8. Why do media costs consume so much of a candidate’s campaign budget in the modern era? Answer: Media costs—television time, newspaper advertisements, and radio spots—are inherently expensive. But spending on the media is necessary if the candidate is to reach as many voters as possible. Also, a majority of voters get their political information from television. As the author points out, televised advertising in particular enables candidates to communicate directly and easily with the electorate, thereby reducing the importance of grassroots party efforts. 1. By definition, the interest-group system consists of all interests that are and seek goals. a. organized; political b. cohesive; narrow c. mobilized; ideological d. small; narrow f. None of the answers are correct. Answer: a Page: 246 2. A primary difference between a political party and a typical interest group is that the party a. promotes public policies. b. addresses a broad range of issues. c. supports candidates for public office. d. influences policymakers. m. addresses a narrow range of issues. Answer: b Page: 246 3. The theory that nearly all interests are adequately presented through group activity is a. republicanism. b. constitutionalism. c. elitism. d. pluralism. m. interest-group liberalism. Answer: d Page: 245 4. A basic reason for the existence of so many interest groups in the United States is a. the American tradition of free association. b. the extent of diverse interests in American society. c. America’s federal system of government. d. All of the answers are correct. m. None of the answers are correct. Answer: d Page: 248 5. According to James Madison, the source of most interest groups or factions is a. the unequal distribution of property. b. the American political tradition of association. c. the system of separation of powers in America. d. the spirit of individualism. m. the concept of majority rule. Answer: a Page: 249 6. The most fully organized interests are those that represent a. agriculture. b. business. c. civil liberties. d. labor. p. the environment. Answer: b Page: 247 7. Today, the largest labor unions are those that represent a. service and public employees. b. skilled laborers. c. unskilled laborers. d. corporate leaders. l. professionals. Answer: a Page: 250 8. A purposive incentive is defined as a. a goal of direct economic gain. b. the opportunity to promote a worthwhile public cause. c. a goal benefiting a specific group. d. any common purpose which brings groups together. m. corporate profit. Answer: b Page: 251 9. Public interest groups are distinguished by the fact that a. their leaders are elected by secret ballot of the group’s members. b. their members receive no direct economic benefit from attainment of the group’s goals. c. they do not lobby government officials directly, but rely instead on public service announcements to get their views across to society. d. they always pursue goals in which there is a high level of agreement among society members. m. All of the answers are correct. Answer: b Page: 254 10. An interest group that focuses on policy benefits for senior citizens would be an example of a(n) a. philosophical interest group. b. ideological group. c. professional group. d. business group. m. single issue group. Answer: e Page: 254 11. Ideological groups are distinct from single-issue groups in a. the number of issues with which they are concerned. b. the intensity of their members’ opinions. c. their tendency to get involved in election campaigns. d. that members do not seek to influence the political process. l. All of the answers are correct. Answer: a Page: 254 12. State and local governments a. are prohibited by law from lobbying the national government. b. are allowed to lobby in Washington, D.C., but only through employee unions. c. are allowed to lobby in Washington, D.C., but only through the mass media. d. lobby in Washington, D.C., but primarily through national conferences to which the president and congressional leaders are invited to listen to their views on national policy. m. lobby in Washington, D.C., most effectively through organizations representing groups of states and localities. Answer: e Page: 255 13. Some groups pursue public or collective goods. A public good is one that a. cannot be selectively granted or denied to individuals; it must be shared. b. is provided by a public service organization. c. is secured by the president. d. is secured by Congress. m. None of the answers are correct. Answer: a Page: 251 14. The situation where individuals are tempted not to contribute to a cause because they will get the benefits even if they do not participate is called a. the size factor. b. the free-rider problem. c. the special-interest paradox. d. the disincentive factor. l. the zero-sum game. Answer: b Page: 251 15. In order to overcome the free-rider problem, non-economic groups have a. deliberately restricted the size of their membership. b. joined up with economic groups. c. convinced government to limit the distribution of public goods to those who have contributed to the group’s efforts. d. created individual benefits (for example, newsletters and social events) for group members. l. adopted taxes for nonmembers. Answer: d Page: 252 16. In recent decades, groups that offer collective goods as an incentive for membership have found it easier to attract new members because of a. changes in public attitudes—people today have a highly favorable opinion of interest groups. b. changes in the tax code that allow a tax deduction for membership dues. c. the development of computer-assisted direct-mail techniques. d. changes in the nature of collective goods themselves, such that they are more easily allocated to people who need them. k. None of the answers are correct. Answer: c Page: 252 17. Economic groups have an advantage over non-economic groups because a. they nearly always have larger memberships. b. they are organized primarily for political purposes. c. they have better leadership. d. they have greater access to financial resources. n. their members are committed to their causes. Answer: d Page: 253 18. Interest group activity is basic to the democratic process because it a. is the only legitimate basis of government action. b. serves to promote the concerns of various interests in society. c. is by far the best means of deciding policy issues. d. is an effective substitute for political party activity. m. is entirely fair to all interests in society. Answer: b Page: 265 19. A flaw in pluralism theory is the fact that a. the interest group system is unrepresentative because some interests are far better organized and more powerful than others. b. the public interest is never served by policies that promote special interests. c. larger groups always prevail politically over smaller groups. d. political parties better represent different interests than do interest groups. m. All of the answers are correct. Answer: a Page: 267 20. The largest citizens’ group, with over thirty million members, is a. the NAACP. b. the AFL-CIO. c. the AARP. d. MADD. m. Common Cause. Answer: c Page: 261 21. The group system politically favors those interests that a. are already favored by the economic system. b. take extreme policy positions. c. are concerned with foreign policy issues. d. represent minorities. l. represent children. Answer: a Page: 248 22. In acknowledging the dilemma inherent in group activity, James Madison a. argued that the free-rider problem would hurt some groups more than others. b. claimed that government could listen to all groups, but should only enact policies that promote the interests of majority groups. c. worried that government would be overly dominated by groups, but recognized that a free society is obliged to permit the advocacy of self-interest. d. argued that government must restrict the activities of groups, so that political parties could act as the major instrument of democracy. l. All of the answers are correct. Answer: c Page: 267 23. Effective inside lobbying is based upon a. countering the aims of other groups. b. providing useful and persuasive information to key officials. c. mobilizing the group’s members. d. bribing or threatening officials. k. using the media to exert pressure. Answer: b Page: 256 24. A main difference between iron triangles and issue networks is a. an iron triangle includes members of the legislative, executive, and judicial branches, while issue networks bypass the judicial branch. b. issue networks involve a stable group of bureaucrats, legislators, and lobbyists, while iron triangles exclude lobbyists in an attempt to reach impartial decisions. c. issue networks are generally less stable than iron triangles, such that the members of an issue network may change as the issue develops. d. issue networks, being less formal, rely on outside lobbying only, while iron triangles use inside lobbying only. m. All of the answers are correct. Answer: c Page: 259 25. Critics of pluralist theory argue that a. special interests should never receive benefits from government. b. there is no collective interest in a system where each special interest determines which policy benefits it receives. c. policies which favor a series of minorities are inherently more fair than policies which ignore small groups in favor of a majority. d. the sum of people’s special interests is a rough approximation of society’s collective interest. k. Madisonian theory is very accurate. Answer: b Page: 266 26. PACs tend to contribute money to a. incumbents. b. challengers. c. Independents. d. liberal Democrats. l. liberal Republicans. Answer: a Page: 263 27. In recent decades, lobbyists in Washington, D.C. have increasingly a. targeted the executive branch in their efforts to influence policy decisions. b. relied on coercive tactics, such as threats of withdrawing election support. c. worked to defeat incumbent members of Congress in order to replace them with members who would be more supportive. d. relied exclusively on inside lobbying as the means of gaining their policy goals. l. ignored the judicial branch as a means of influencing policy decisions. Answer: a Page: 257 28. Interest groups’ efforts to influence policy are aimed at all institutions except a. the presidency. b. Congress. c. the bureaucracy. d. the courts. k. None of the answers are correct answer. Answer: e Page: 257 29. The term iron triangle refers to a. a tightly knit set of lobbying groups. b. the relationship between the Congress, the military, and defense contractors. c. a small and informal but relatively stable set of bureaucrats, legislators, and lobbyists who are concerned with promoting a particular interest. d. the strategy of lobbying all three branches of government simultaneously. j. a corrupt relationship between the president, Congress, and the Supreme Court. Answer: c Page: 258 30. A set of lobbyists, legislators, policy experts, and executives who come together temporarily in debate over a complex policy issue is a. an iron triangle. b. an issue network. c. a caucus. d. a policy system. m. an ideological network. Answer: b Page: 259 31. Outside lobbying does not include the use of a. face-to-face exchanges between lobbyists and policymakers. b. campaign contributions to legislators who favor the interest group. c. the news media to influence policy makers. d. targeting group resources on key election races. e. the print media to influence policy makers. Answer: a Page: 261 32. Grass-roots lobbying is based on the assumption that officials will respond to a. well-reasoned policy arguments. b. the opportunity for extensive media publicity. c. moral pleas. d. the efforts of party organizations. e. pressure from constituents. Answer: e Page: 261 33. The most important resource that most groups give congressional candidates is a. delivering members’ votes. b. helping make telephone calls to get out voters on Election Day. c. help with issue research. d. campaign volunteers. e. money. Answer: e Page: 265 34. There are roughly political action committees (PACs) in the United States. a. 40 b. 400 c. 4000 d. 400,000 e. 4,000,000 Answer: c Page: 262 35. The largest number of PACs are those associated with a. single-issue groups, such as environmental groups and right-to-life groups. b. labor. c. business. d. agriculture. e. education. Answer: c Page: 262 36. Supporters of the pluralist view of interest groups would accept all of the following statements except a. people’s separate interests are a legitimate basis of public policy. b. the idea of the public interest or the collective interest does not have much meaning in cases where the public is sharply divided in its policy opinions. c. the opinion of the majority should always prevail in a policy dispute over the opinion of a more intense and directly affected minority. d. most interests benefit from the workings of the group system, which is a reason to support a policy process that is responsive to groups. e. public policy should represent the diversity that exists in society. Answer: c Page: 265 37. A pluralist could be expected to argue that a. the presidency is more representative of society’s interests than is the Congress. b. the sum of people’s separate interests is nearly the equivalent of the collective public interest. c. U.S. society is best run by a power elite. d. most interests are poorly represented through the group process. e. the judiciary is more representative of society’s interests than is the Congress. Answer: b Page: 265 38. According to Theodore Lowi’s theory of interest-group liberalism, the effect of groups on policy a. constitutes a partial and wrongful abdication by government of its authority over policy. b. results in a system of rule by minorities rather than by a majority. c. results in an inefficient use of society’s resources. d. All of the answers are correct. e. None of the answers are correct. Answer: d Page: 266 39. James Madison’s solution to the problem of factions (special interests) has, in the modern policy process, actually contributed to the problem by a. suppressing the claims of special interests, thereby making it more difficult for them to get their opinions heard by officials. b. resulting in a fragmentation of authority among policymakers, and thereby providing groups more opportunities to get their way. c. eroding the strength of political parties, and thereby increasing the opportunity for group influence. d. weakening the legislative branch, and thereby allowing groups to bully Congress into accepting their demands. e. eroding the power of the mass media, and thereby increasing the opportunity for group influence. Answer: b Page: 268 40. The most well-financed interest groups are those that promote a. social services. b. political ideologies. c. corporate interests. d. public interests. e. children’s interests. Answer: c Page: 248 41 James Madison, in Federalist No.10, argued a. against all interest groups. b. for the advocacy of self-interest free from all systems of restraint. c. for regulation of interests through a governing system of checks and balances. d. for the replacement of interest groups by formal political parties. e. for a powerful judiciary. Answer: c Page: 268 42. Interest group liberalism refers to a. the proliferation of interest groups throughout society. b. the fact that liberal groups are more numerous than conservative groups. c. the disproportionate influence of interest groups over policy in their respective areas of concern. d. the activity of groups in support of disarmament, environmental protection, civil liberties, and other left-wing causes. e. the power of tradition in the United States. Answer: c Page: 267 43. In the dynamics of an iron triangle, what benefit do interest groups provide to friendly bureaucratic agencies? a. services for constituents b. travel funds c. campaign contributions d. administration of mutually beneficial policies e. lobbying support for agency programs Answer: e Page: 259 44. Interest groups are using new recruitment techniques which include a. arranging social gatherings. b. computerized mailing lists. c. newsletters. d. disseminating information on the Internet. e. All of the answers are correct. Answer: e Page: 252 45. Another name for an interest group is a. a faction. b. a cabal. c. a political party. d. a coalition. e. a constituency. Answer: a Page: 246 46. During his visit to this country in the 1830s, Alexis de Tocqueville described the United States as “a nation of a. freeloaders.” b. loners.” c. joiners.” d. fighters.” e. stalwarts.” Answer: c Page: 248 47. The citizens of are most actively involved in interest groups and community causes. a. the United States b. Germany c. Italy d. France e. Great Britain Answer: a Page: 248 48. Which of the following activities is not typical of most interest groups? a. supporting candidates for public office b. addressing a broad and diverse range of public issues c. working to influence policymakers d. promoting public policies e. working to influence legislators Answer: b Page: 246 49. The international treaty that bans the use of land mines was an organizational movement conducted largely a. by television journalists. b. by Hollywood actors. c. by President Bill Clinton. d. by President George W. Bush. e. through the Internet. Answer: e 4950. The air we breathe is an example of a(n) a. collective or public good. b. consumable good. c. material good. d. mass-produced good. e. economic good. Answer: a Page: 258 5150. wrote that “Liberty is to faction what air is to fire...” a. James Madison b. Alexis de Tocqueville c. Thomas Jefferson d. Theodore Lowi e. Theodore Roosevelt Answer: a Page: 268 512. Under federal law, a Political Action Committee (PAC) can contribute per candidate per election. a. $1,000 b. $5,000 c. $25,000 d. $50,000 e. $100,000 Answer: b Page: 262 523. The medium of exchange for most inside lobbying activity is a. money. b. information. c. bribery. d. coercion. e. deception. Answer: b Page: 256 534. The fact that only about 10 percent of the people who regularly listen to National Public Radio (NPR) contribute money to their local station is a. a result of the poor quality of NPR broadcasting. b. a result of the fact that NPR stations don’t regularly solicit contributions from their listeners. c. a result of the fact that most NPR listeners have low incomes. d. a result of the fact that NPR sells time to advertisers and doesn’t have a need for listener donations. e. an example of the free-rider problem. Answer: e Page: 252 545. According to E. E. Schattschneider, the interest-group system has a. a strong upper-class bias. b. a strong working-class bias. c. a strong bias in favor of liberal Democrats. d. a strong bias in favor of moderate Republicans. e. a strong bias in favor of racial minorities. Answer: a Page: 268 Essay/Short Answer 1. Identify the two defining characteristics of an interest group. Are college students and bridge clubs considered interest groups? Why or why not? Answer: An interest group is characterized by formal organization and by pursuit of policy goals that stem from the shared interests of its members. College students are not considered to be interest groups because they are not formally organized. Bridge clubs are not interest groups because they do not seek to influence the political process. 2. Define economic interest groups. Identify four main types of economic interest groups and the constituencies they serve. Answer: Economic groups promote the economic interests of their members. The four types of economic groups are business, labor, agriculture, and professional groups. Corporate groups, who make up more than one half of all lobbying groups in Washington D.C., concentrate their activities on policies that are concerned with business, such as tax, tariff, and regulatory decisions. Business interests are also represented by associations such as the National Association of Manufacturers and the U.S. Chamber of Commerce. Labor groups have been politically active for a long time, and the AFL-CIO is the largest labor group. Agricultural groups represent various segments of the farm community; for example, the Farm Bureau promotes agribusiness and large farms while the Farmers Union promotes the interests of smaller family farms. Professional groups, such as the American Medical Association, represent various professions and attempt to influence policy on their behalf. 3. Define non-economic interest groups. Identify three main types of non-economic interest groups and the constituencies they serve. Answer: Non-economic groups are organized around purposive incentives, which are opportunities to support a cause in which a person believes. The three main types of such groups are public-interest groups, single-interest groups, and ideological groups. Public- interest groups are those that attempt to act in what members believe to be in the interest of society as a whole. Examples are the League of Women Voters, Common Cause, and Public Citizen. Single-interest groups are organized to influence policy in just one area, and examples are the Sierra Club, the National Rifle Association, and the various right- to-life and pro-choice abortion groups. Ideological groups are concerned with a broad range of policies from a general philosophical or moral perspective. The Moral Majority and Americans for Democratic Action are two examples. 4. What is the importance of the distinction between private goods (individual goods) and collective goods (public goods) in assessing why some interests are more highly organized than others? What type of group particularly benefits from this situation? Answer: Economic groups offer members private (or individual) incentives that benefit them directly, which is a powerful reason to join the group. An example of a private good is a benefit that a labor union member obtains through the union. Non-economic groups offer collective goods (public goods) which are goods that all people share, such as a clean environment. The fact that such goods are available to nonmembers as well as members is a disincentive for many to participate. This situation, called the free-rider problem, can plague non-economic groups. Economic groups are less affected by the free-rider problem. Economic groups also have ready access to financial resources in the form of profits or dues, while non-economic groups typically have more trouble obtaining financial resources. 5. Compare outside lobbying and inside lobbying. Answer: Inside lobbying is based on close contacts with legislative, executive, and judicial officials and relies upon the use of information and personal persuasion as means of gaining support for the goals of the interest group. Outside lobbying aims to bring public pressure to bear on officials and rests upon grassroots activity (e.g., a letter-writing campaign) and electoral support in the form of group endorsements, votes, and financial contributions. 6. Compare iron triangles and issue networks. Answer: An iron triangle is a small and informal but relatively stable set of bureaucrats, legislators, and lobbyists who are concerned with the development of policies beneficial to a particular interest. All sides of an iron triangle benefit from the relationship, which is why such relationships tend to be iron-clad or likely to endure. An issue network is an informal relationship among officials and lobbyists who are linked by common expertise and concern with a given policy area, such as energy, communication, the environment, or trade. Issue networks are different from iron triangles because the former are ad hoc (a response to a particular issue) and are based on shared expertise, while the latter are more enduring and are based on common interest. Issue networks have become a more prevalent manner in which to wield political influence. 7. Define a PAC. What limitations do PACs face when raising funds? What limitations do they face when contributing funds? Who are the primary recipients of PAC contributions and why? Answer: A PAC is the political action committee of an interest group that tries to gain influence by contributing money to the campaigns of political candidates. PAC power is limited; money does not literally buy votes in Congress. However, money does buy access, and members of Congress listen to groups that financially support their campaigns. Because PAC money is raised early and quickly, PACs play a critical role in getting congressional campaigns started. Their role is less significant in presidential campaigns, which are larger in scale and depend on a wider range of funding sources. PACs face limitations on their efforts to raise funds. They can raise money for election campaigns by soliciting voluntary contributions from group members. A group cannot give organizational funds (such as corporate profits or union dues) to candidates. Limitations also exist on the levels of contribution. A PAC can contribute no more than $10,000 to a candidate for federal office—$5000 in the primary and $5000 in the general election. The primary recipients of PAC contributions are incumbents. Congressional incumbents are highly likely to win and thus to remain in a position to make public policy. For this reason, the great bulk of PAC contributions are given to incumbents seeking reelection. 8. Discuss interest-group liberalism and indicate how Madison’s constitutional solution for controlling groups has itself become part of the problem in American politics. Answer: Interest-group liberalism holds that there is no concept of society’s collective interest in a policy system that enables special interests to determine for themselves which policy benefits they receive. Regardless of how many interests are served by the system, the public interest is not served because each policy decision is the result, not of majority rule, but of minority, or special interest, rule. Madison’s constitutional solution to the problem of special interests was to offset the power of a faction by pitting it against other factions; in practice, this solution required the fragmentation of political power— checks and balances. Today, Madison’s arrangement results in the delegation of authority in particular policy areas to small sets of officials, a condition that provides a perfect context for group influence. The news is a selective version of reality that is mainly an account of events that are a. timely, dramatic, and compelling. b. chosen because they depict the lives of real people. c. important to people everywhere in the world. d. chosen on the basis of journalists’ partisan leanings. e. chosen on the basis of whether they can be portrayed through pictures as well as through words. Answer: a Page: 273 2. In comparison with today’s newspapers, early American newspapers were a. written by hand. b. so inexpensive that nearly everyone read a daily paper. c. supported by the political parties. d. more widely read. e. All of the answers are correct. Answer: c Page: 275 3. A technological change that helped bring about the decline of the partisan press was a. the invention of television. b. the invention of the high-speed rotary press. c. the invention of radio. d. the development of chain newspapers. e. the invention of computers. Answer: b Page: 275 4. The yellow journalism of the early 1900s was characterized by a. the use of the telegraph. b. the emphasis on sensationalism as a way of selling newspapers. c. prejudice against Asian people and countries. d. an unwillingness to take editorial positions because of a fear of losing circulation. e. the desire to present the news in an objective manner. Answer: b Page: 275 5. Objective reporting is based on the idea that the reporter’s job is to a. report the facts and to present both sides of the partisan debate. b. report what political leaders want them to report. c. discover what other reporters are saying and provide a uniform interpretation of events. d. scrutinize the partisan debate and inform the news audience which party has the better argument. e. All of the answers are correct. Answer: a Page: 276 6. President fireside chats revealed the power inherent in broadcasting. a. Franklin Roosevelt’s b. Harry Truman’s c. Herbert Hoover’s d. Woodrow Wilson’s e. Calvin Coolidge’s Answer: a Page: 280 7. Broadcasting revolutionized the American media because it a. was the first truly national mass medium. b. opened a direct, instantaneous channel between a leader and the people. c. reached millions of people simultaneously. d. All of the answers are correct. e. None of the answers are correct. Answer: d Page: 277 8. The federal government’s licensing of broadcasting is based primarily on a. the fact that broadcasting is a national medium. b. the scarcity of broadcasting frequencies. c. the fact that broadcasting was invented after the First Amendment was adopted. d. the desire of national officials to control the content of broadcast news and entertainment. e. a desire to censor reporters so that they will stop criticizing governmental officials. Answer: b Page: 277 9. Freedom of the press is substantial in the United States because a. the libel laws favor the press over a public figure. b. of the country’s tradition of free expression. c. of the judiciary’s position that prior restraint of the press by government is rarely permissible. d. it is a First Amendment liberty. e. All of the answers are correct. Answer: e Page: 274 10. The argument for a free press hinges on the idea that a. news organizations will be more profitable if they are not restricted in what they can say. b. full and open debate allows the public to weigh and choose among competing arguments. c. the news will be more entertaining if journalists can say anything they want. d. journalists should have more rights than other citizens. e. First Amendment rights are absolute and cannot be restricted. Answer: b Page: 290 11. American news reporting is a. very diverse in content. b. highly partisan. c. generally inaccurate with the facts. d. regulated in a heavy manner by the federal government. e. None of the answers are correct. Answer: e Page: 274 12. The FCC’s equal time requirement a. includes the print media. b. prohibits broadcasters from selling or giving time to political candidates and denying it to their opponents. c. requires broadcasters during elections to give free time to candidates for use as they see fit. d. requires broadcasters to give equal time to news programming as to commercial advertising. e. requires broadcasters to give equal time to third parties as well as the Democrats and Republicans. Answer: b Page: 278 13. Major news organizations differ mainly in a. which news stories they choose to report. b. the varying interpretations they place on stories about the same topic. c. the way in which they present stories about the same topics. d. which side they support in the partisan debate. e. which side they support in an ideological debate. Answer: c Page: 277 14. The reporting of national news is relatively uniform among news sources because a. the government dictates much of what is reported. b. there are only a few important events each day that merit news coverage. c. a small number of news organizations and news services generate most of the news. d. reporters are not given much freedom by their editors. e. journalists have a tendency to be fairly lazy. Answer: c Page: 276 15. The New York Times a. sets a general standard of news reporting that other news organizations emulate. b. sets the news agenda for other news organizations. c. was a pioneer in the development of objective journalism. d. has been described as the bulletin board for other major newspapers. e. All of the answers are correct. Answer: e Page: 284 16. The media have professional norms and standards that create a. competitive pressures to report the same stories. b. a liberal bias in the news. c. a sharp difference in which stories are reported on broadcasts and which ones appear in the newspapers. d. a sharp conservative bias in the news. e. None of the answers are correct. Answer: a Page: 295 17. In contrast to European news media, American news media are more likely to a. guide readers by providing ideological interpretations of current events. b. play a partisan role by taking sides in political debate. c. act primarily as neutral transmitters of information. d. use yellow journalism. e. None of the answers are correct. Answer: c Page: 278 18. The media perform the signaling role by a. informing the public of important news developments as quickly as possible. b. serving as an open channel for leaders to express their opinions. c. exposing officials who violate accepted performance and moral standards. d. acting the public’s representative. e. All of the answers are correct. Answer: a Page: 286 19. Historically, the American press has shifted from a. a political to a journalistic orientation. b. objectivity to subjectivity. c. a journalistic to a political orientation. d. partisan to very partisan. e. negative to positive. Answer: a Page: 274 20. The news media’s common-carrier role is based on the idea that a. the news will be available to all citizens. b. various news organizations should interpret the news in nearly the same way. c. the press should not charge for public service announcements. d. the press should provide a channel through which political leaders can communicate their views to the public. e. the press should be patriotic in the reporting of the news. Answer: d Page: 288 21. Which institution receives the most news coverage from the national press? a. the presidency b. the U.S. House of Representatives c. the U.S. Senate d. the U.S. Supreme Court g. the federal bureaucracy Answer: a Page: 288 22. The Watergate scandal illustrates the a. futility of media attempts to forecast political events. b. inadequacy of the media as a common-carrier to the public. c. power of the media to serve as watchdog to safeguard against abuse of power. d. ability of the press to serve as the public’s representative in political disputes. n. abuse of power by journalists in the United States. Answer: c Page: 289 23. Of the roles that the press plays in the American political system, which is it least equipped to carry out properly? a. common-carrier b. signaler c. watchdog d. public-representative n. news interpreter Answer: d Page: 286 24. Regarding the press and its role of public representative, the text author believes that the press a. has done an effective job in performing the public representative role. b. cannot be a substitute for political parties and interest groups. c. provides the public a clear understanding of policy choices and implications. d. has enhanced democracy in the United States in this capacity. e. All of the answers are correct. Answer: b Page: 291 25. The reason the news product is designed to fascinate as well as to inform is a. news organizations are fundamentally businesses and must obtain revenue to survive. b. of the high level of illiteracy. c. the print media wishes to emulate the broadcast media. d. the need to compete with Hollywood productions. n. All of the answers are correct. Answer: a Page: 293 26. The American press serves most importantly as a key link between a. parties and interest groups. b. the three branches of government. c. the public and its leaders. d. the United States and other nations. q. the national and the state governments. Answer: c Page: 274 27. The most powerful agenda setter among newspapers in the United States is a. The Wall Street Journal. b. The New York Post. c. The Chicago Tribune. d. The Washington Post. m. The New York Times. Answer: e Page: 285 28. The average length of time presidential candidates are shown speaking without interruption (the length of their “sound bites”) on television newscasts a. has increased substantially during the past four decades. b. has stayed the same during the past four decades. c. has declined sharply during the past four decades. d. increased until about 1990, and then decreased sharply. e. decreased until about 1990, and then increased sharply. Answer: c Page: 288 29. The Gazette of the United States was founded at the urging of Alexander Hamilton to promote the policies of President a. Thomas Jefferson. a. John Adams. b. William Henry Harrison. c. James Madison. d. George Washington. Answer: e Page: 275 30. Journalists from which country are most likely to say that they should be as nonpartisan as possible in their reporting? a. Germany b. Sweden c. United States d. Britain e. Italy Answer: c Page: 278 31. Which newspaper was the first to reduce the price of a daily copy to a penny? a. The New York World b. The Chicago Tribune c. The New York Sun d. The New York Times e. The Boston Herald Answer: c Page: 275 32. Yellow journalism contributed to public support for the a. Spanish-American War. b. Civil War. c. War of 1812. d. Mexican War of 1848. e. American Revolution. Answer: a Page: 275 33. said “You furnish the pictures and I’ll furnish the war.” a. Abraham Lincoln b. Theodore Roosevelt c. William Randolph Hearst d. Woodrow Wilson e. William McKinley Answer: c Page: 276 34. The first truly national news medium was a. the newspaper. b. radio. c. broadcast television. d. cable television. e. the Internet. Answer: b Page: 277 35. FCC regulations apply to a station’s a. signal strength. b. advertising rates. c. broadcasting fees. d. election coverage policies. e. All of the answers are correct. Answer: e Page: 277 36. In the 1960s, presidential candidates a. received more negative coverage than they do today. b. were largely ignored by the media. c. were hounded by the media incessantly. d. received more favorable coverage than they do today. e. None of the answers are correct. Answer: d Page: 289 37. The news media’s favored position in the law means that the media a. has unchecked authority to print anything at all, whether it is true or not. b. is the only private institution to enjoy special constitutional protection. c. is recognized as an accountable representative of the public. d. has a very positive relationship with the president and Congress. e. All of the answers are correct. Answer: b Page: 274 38. Which of the following statements about political reporting is most strongly supported by scholarly research? a. Journalists have a clear liberal bias. b. Journalists have a clear conservative bias. c. Journalists have a clear Republican bias. d. Journalists have a clear Democratic bias. e. Journalists have a clear preference for the negative story (“bad news”) as opposed to the positive story (“good news”). Answer: e Page: 281 39. On-the-scene coverage of a natural disaster is an example of the press’ role of a. watchdog. b. signaling. c. public representative. d. common-carrier. e. interpreter. Answer: b Page: 286 40. The news media are usually guided by events that a. are timely. b. involved large numbers of people. c. occur in other countries. d. happen to ordinary citizens. e. are complicated to report. Answer: a Page: 273 41. What change contributed to a substantial increase in the number of radio talk shows about politics? a. The growth of cable television, which led to a decline in the number of people who wanted to listen to music on the radio. b. The conservative media owner Rupert Murdoch’s purchase of hundreds of radio stations in the United States. c. The elimination of the Fairness Doctrine, which freed broadcasters from airing liberal talk shows and conservative talk shows in equal amount. d. The astonishing success of Al Franken’s radio talk show, which led radio station owners to conclude they could make money by airing such shows. e. Increased partisanship among America’s voters. Answer: c Page: 279 42. Most political talk shows on radio offer a(n) point of view. a. liberal b. conservative c. middle-of-the-road d. objective e. non-partisan Answer: b Page: 279 43. The acknowledged “king” of talk radio during the past two decades has been a. Rush Limbaugh. b. Al Franken. c. Bill O’Reilly. d. Oliver North. e. Mario Cuomo. Answer: a Page: 279 44. Studies have shown that most journalists in their personal beliefs a. are Roman Catholics. b. are born-again Christians. c. are atheists. d. lean toward the Democratic party. e. lean toward the Republican party. Answer: d Page: 281 45. Research has found that much of the partisan bias that viewers detect when watching television news is attributable to a. the way television anchors lead into news stories. b. the facial expressions that television reporters use to signal whether they agree or disagree with something a newsmaker has said or done. c. the order in which stories are presented on television. d. the pictures that accompany the words spoken on newscasts. e. the partisan preferences of the viewers themselves, which leads them to see negative coverage of their party as biased and to see negative coverage of the other party as the truth. Answer: e Page: 282 46. When it started as a cable news network, CNN’s strategy for attracting viewers was based on a. partisan reporting that would appeal to liberals b. delivering news around the clock and through live, on-the-scene reporting. c. criticizing the coverage of ABC, CBS, and NBC. d. criticizing political leaders. e. portraying America favorably and other countries unfavorably. Answer: b Page: 282 47. When Rupert Murdoch started FoxNews, his strategy for attracting an audience was to present news in a form that would appeal particularly to a. young adults as opposed to older ones. b. men as opposed to women. c. the college-educated as opposed to those with a high school education. d. internationalists as opposed to isolationists. e. Republicans as opposed to Democrats. Answer: e Page: 282 48. Americans have increasingly turned to the Internet as a source of news. In doing so, they rely most heavily on the websites of a. bloggers. b. their local television stations. c. leading “brand name” news organizations, such as nytimes.com and cnn.com. d. interest groups. e. international news organizations, such as bbc.com. Answer: c Page: 284 49. The Internet has spawned “blogs”—websites that mix news and opinion commentary. About these blogs, it is accurate to say a. most have a relatively small audience. b. most are critical of the news coverage of the mainstream media. c. more are liberal as opposed to conservative in their political orientation. d. most of them do not do much original reporting but instead specialize in commentary on news that has been reported by the mainstream media. e. All the answers are correct. Answer: e Page: 285 Essay/Short Answer 1. Identify the term partisan press. Why was it superseded by the objective press? What media developments during the past two decades or so have made partisanship a larger part of the information that Americans consume? Answer: A partisan press is one that concentrates on advancing a particular ideological or partisan viewpoint. The American media, with few exception,s no longer follow this pattern, although some European newspapers still do so. At one time, the American press was quite partisan. This situation changed with technological innovations such as the telegraph and rotary printing press which changed the economics of American newspapers. In an effort to appeal to the largest possible audience, newspapers turned to the objective model of reporting which concentrates on facts and reports on differing sides of controversial issues. During the past couple of decades, several developments have increased the level of partisanship in the information Americans receive. The elimination of the Fairness Doctrine in the late 1980s freed radio broadcasters from having to air in equal proportion opposing political views. This change stimulated growth in political talk radio, which tends to play up conservative opinions. For its part, cable television, which is less heavily regulated than broadcast television, has fostered political talk shows and even a network (FoxNews) dedicated to presenting information in part through a partisan lens. Finally, the Internet has spawned a great many websites that combine news and commentary; research indicates that there are more blogs that promote a liberal point-of-view than ones that promote a conservative perspective. 2. Explain the four roles of the modern media. Which role is the American media not very good at fulfilling? Why? Answer: The modern media can effectively perform three significant roles: those of signaler, common-carrier, and watchdog. The signaling role requires the press to bring relevant events and problems into public view. In its common-carrier role, the press serves as a channel through which political leaders can address the public. The watchdog role requires the press to scrutinize official behavior and uncover evidence of deception, carelessness, or corruption. The news media are able to fulfill these roles because they are compatible with the values, incentives, and accountability of the press. The press cannot adequately do the job of representative, even though it often tries to fill the role. The press fails in the role because it does not represent a point of view and is not very accountable to the public for its decisions. 3. Explain the political significance of the introduction of the broadcast media into American life. What problems did broadcast licensing solve? Answer: The development of the broadcast media was significant in two ways. First, radio (and later television) provided a direct and instantaneous link between the public and its elected leaders. Second, broadcasting was the first truly national mass medium. Radio could reach millions of Americans across the country simultaneously. In contrast, newspapers were dominated by business-minded, often critical editors and had only local circulation bases. At first the government did not carefully regulate broadcasting. The result was frequent overlapping and interfering transmissions. Broadcasting licenses solved this problem by distributing the scarce resource of frequencies to a few individuals, who retain considerable independence. 4. Identify the factors that account for the follow-the-leader tendency in the American news media. What are the consequences of that tendency? Answer: A reason for the follow-the-leader tendency is objective journalism whose emphasis on facts and salient events provides journalists with a basis for agreement. Put differently, because almost all journalists view the world and their job in roughly the same way, they tend to report the same things. Another reason for the lack of diversity in reporting is that a small number of news organizations generate most of the news. For example, the Associated Press (AP) wire service is the major source of national and international news for most newspapers. Competitive pressures also lead producers of news to report the same stories, because no one wants to miss out on a major story. In addition, a few elite daily newspapers, the wire services, and networks set the national standard of story selection, which most other media tend to follow. Lastly, the imperatives of fast-paced daily journalism tend to accentuate the follow-the-leader tendency because every news organization, in order to meet its deadline, must look to sure places and sure stories for its news. The major consequence of this tendency is that, although the U.S. has a free press, it does not have a press that presents diverse ideas and opinions. The news is pretty much the same in all mainstream news outlets. 5. During an election year, how does the press differ from a political party in its functions? Answer: The press is a very different kind of organization from a political party. The concern of the press is with the unusual and sensational, while the party is guided by traditions and constituent interests. The press is concerned with finding and developing good stories. A political party wishes to obtain power to give order and voice to society’s values. The press is not accountable to the public—its members were not elected by the people nor are they removable by the voters. The political party is accountable through elections. Today’s Congress differs from the Congress of the nineteenth century in a. the size of total staff. b. the proportion of incumbents who successfully run for reelection. c. the amount of legislation it considers. d. that many members aspire to have a lengthy career. h. All of the answers are correct. Answer: e Page: 303 2. The highest priority for most members of Congress is a. ensuring that the constitutional system of checks and balances works properly. b. supporting his or her party’s legislative platform. c. getting reelected. d. gaining a reputation among other members of Congress as an effective legislator. o. working with the president to get things done. Answer: c Page: 304 3. Legislation whose tangible benefits are targeted solely at a particular legislator’s constituency is a. pork-barrel legislation. b. logrolling. c. gerrymandering. d. private legislation. o. public interest legislation. Answer: a Page: 304 4. Compared to House incumbents, Senate incumbents are more likely to face the problem of a. raising enough money to run a strong campaign. b. an electorate which is inclined to judge their fitness for reelection in the context of pork-barrel legislation and other favors for the local community. c. a strong challenger. d. name recognition. a. All of the answers are correct. Answer: c Page: 303 5. Compared to other congressional campaigns, open-seat races tend to have all of the following characteristics except a. a higher overall level of campaign spending. b. more evenly matched competitors. c. more evenly distributed PAC money. d. a closer vote on Election Day. n. All of the answers are correct. Answer: e Page: 305 6. Compared to the Senate majority leader, the Speaker of the House has more power because the House a. places more limits on debate. b. is the larger chamber in terms of membership. c. has less of a tradition as a chamber of equals. d. operates within a more restrictive set of rules. o. All of the answers are correct. Answer: e Page: 313 7. In contrast to the Speaker of the House, the Senate majority leader a. plays a key role in formulating the majority party’s legislative positions. b. seeks to develop influential relationships with his/her colleagues. c. is not the presiding officer of his/her chamber. d. holds a position that is defined in the Constitution. r. None of the answers are correct. Answer: c Page: 313 8. A standing committee in the House or Senate a. is a permanent committee. b. has jurisdiction over a particular policy area. c. has authority to draft, amend, and recommend legislation. d. is usually organized according to the seniority principle. n. All of the answers are correct. Answer: e Page: 317 9. When the House and Senate pass different versions of a bill, the differences are resolved by a a. conference committee. b. standing committee. c. select committee. d. rules committee. n. joint committee. Answer: a Page: 318 10. The congressional lawmaking process is biased toward a. bold new initiatives rather than small adjustments in existing legislative programs. b. blocking legislation rather than passing it. c. national interests at the expense of local ones. d. foreign-policy issues at the expense of domestic-policy issues. n. the enactment of big social programs. Answer: b Page: 320 11. The major source of a committee’s power is a. the political skill of its chairperson. b. its jurisdiction over a particular policy area. c. its relationship to the president. d. its support from political action committees (PACs). n. its support in the mass media. Answer: b Page: 320B 12. Marking up a bill means that a. a president has crossed out sections of the bill that he finds personally objectionable. b. a bill has been approved after floor debate has finished. c. witnesses at committee hearings suggest modifications of the bill. d. that the House speaker and Senate majority leader have written a bill in a way that they favor. e. None of the answers are correct. Answer: e Page: 321 13. One must be years of age to serve in the U.S. House of Representatives, and years of age to serve in the U.S. Senate. a. 18; 21 b. 21; 25 c. 25; 30 d. 35; 45 n. 40; 50 Answer: c Page: 310 14. Successful congressional candidates tend to run “two campaigns,” meaning a. one campaign for newspaper endorsements and a second for neighborhood and ethnic support. b. one campaign in the free television news and a second campaign in paid television advertising. c. one campaign in Washington raising campaign funds and a second back home appealing for votes. d. one campaign for votes and another for media support. n. None of the answers are correct. Answer: c Page: 327 15. The second most powerful person in Washington, D.C. (after the president) is often said to be a. the chair of the House Appropriations Committee. b. the president pro tempore of the U.S. Senate. c. the speaker of the U.S. House of Representatives. d. the chair of the Senate Foreign Relations Committee. m. the Senate majority leader. Answer: c Page: 312 16. Committees kill roughly percent of the bills submitted in Congress. a. 10 b. 25 c. 50 d. 60 e. 90 Answer: e Page: 320 17. The modern Congress is different from the nineteenth-century Congress in that a. most members are now career politicians who want to stay in Congress. b. most members are now amateur politicians who want only to spend a short time in Congress. c. most members are now minorities or women. d. most members now have previously been governors of their home states. l. most members return to their respective state legislatures after their congressional service is over. Answer: a Page: 303 18. Campaign spending tends to be greatly more important a. for challengers and non-incumbents rather than incumbents. b. for Republican candidates. c. for Democratic candidates. d. for candidates in urban areas than candidates in rural areas. o. for men rather than women. Answer: a Page: 305 19. Incumbents may have some problems in reelection campaigns if a. disruptive issues such as general public discontent with Congress become prominent. b. the incumbent is tainted with charges of personal misconduct or corruption. c. the election is a midterm election and the incumbent is of the same party as the president. d. through redistricting, they are placed in a disadvantageous district. n. All of the answers are correct. Answer: e Page: 308 20. Because of the inherent tension in Congress between the need for strong leadership at the top and the individual congressional member’s need to act according to local concerns, a. Congress is unable to take effective action to counter the growth in the power of the president. b. power in the Congress is widely dispersed. c. power in the Congress is highly centralized in the Speaker and Senate president pro tempore. d. members of Congress prefer to address international issues because the tension between local and national issues is less substantial in this situation. n. Congress has been unable to take effective action to counter the growth in the power of the Supreme Court. Answer: b Page: 311 21. As compared with House members, senators are typically less like to take orders from their chamber’s party leaders because a. senators are prohibited by their state legislatures from taking orders from leaders outside their state. b. senators think of themselves as being equals and are therefore less inclined to take directions from their chamber’s party leaders. c. senators are more highly paid than House members and are thus immune from financial threats. d. House rules mandate that all party members on major bills must vote according to the directions of their leaders. n. All of the answers are correct. Answer: b Page: 313 22. Which one of the following statements about the seniority principle is most accurate? a. The seniority principle is based on length of time the member has spent in Congress. b. Because of seniority, committee chairs exercise absolute power over their committees. c. Seniority is no longer absolute in selection of committee chairs, but it is usually followed. d. Seniority is no longer used at all in the choice of committee chairs. m. Seniority is used in the Democratic party, but not the Republican party. Answer: c Page: 316 23. Most of the legislative work of Congress is performed by a. the standing committees and subcommittees with jurisdiction over particular policy areas. b. the joint committees chosen to coordinate actions between the two chambers of Congress. c. the select committees chosen to study special problems on a temporary basis. d. the steering committees that decide party stands on particular bills. m. party leaders in both chambers. Answer: a Page: 317 24. About percent of all PAC contributions go to the incumbents. a. 10 b. 30 c. 50 d. 70 e. 90 Answer: e Page: 305 25. Through a vote for cloture, the Senate a. confirms presidential appointees. b. ends a filibuster. c. overrides a presidential pocket veto. d. accepts the House version of a bill. n. closes its legislative session for the year. Answer: b Page: 322 26. A pocket veto differs from a regular presidential veto in that the pocket veto a. applies only to a section of the legislation in question. b. applies only to expenditure legislation. c. occurs when the president decides to veto a bill he had previously signed. d. applies only when the Congress is not in session. l. occurs when the president goes before Congress to announce a veto. Answer: d Page: 324 27. Congress’ inability to consistently provide leadership on broad national issues is due to a. the lack of talented leadership in Congress. b. the fragmented nature of Congress. c. constitutional restrictions on Congress’ lawmaking powers. d. the constant threat of a presidential veto. m. opposition from the mass media. Answer: b Page: 325 28. On broad issues of national significance, Congress is ordinarily most responsive to the initiatives of a. the president. b. special interest groups. c. the party leadership in Congress. d. the committee leadership in Congress. l. bureaucratic agencies. Answer: a Page: 326 29. In initiating broad legislative proposals, the president enjoys all of the following advantages over Congress except a. the president is more likely to take a national perspective on policy issues. b. the president is granted more authority by the Constitution in the area of lawmaking. c. the president’s actions receive more attention from the national media. d. the president has the authority to make policy decisions even when there are conflicting views within the executive branch while congressional leaders cannot impose their views on other members who disagree with them. k. the president has available a larger number of policy experts than does the leadership in Congress. Answer: b Page: 324 30. In which area has Congress been more likely than the president to exert leadership? a. world affairs b. national economic policy c. policies affecting special interests d. social-welfare policy n. environmental policy Answer: c Page: 327 31. Most members of Congress are a. concerned with national issues, but even more concerned with local ones. b. controlled by special-interest groups. c. interested only in the work of the subcommittee on which they serve. d. opposed to the seniority system. l. more interested in oversight than in making laws. Answer: a Page: 327 32. Votes in Congress tend to divide along party lines a. in the case of major presidential initiatives; the president serves as legislative leader not so much for the whole Congress as for members of his or her party. b. in the case where representatives’ constituencies are divided on an issue; in such instances, the representative is likely to vote in the same way as a majority of legislators of his or her party. c. in the case of economic issues like tax cuts and unemployment benefits. d. in the case of social welfare issues like health care and social security. i. All of the answers are correct. Answer: e Page: 329 33. By and large, partisanship is a. irrelevant to the work of Congress. b. the main source of cohesion and division within Congress. c. relevant only in the context of local representation. d. important in lawmaking and representation but not in oversight. h. more important in foreign policy than domestic policy. Answer: b Page: 332 34. The oversight responsibility of Congress is a. relatively easy to carry out. b. becoming less and less important to the nation. c. more interesting to most legislators than working on new policy issues. d. the task at which legislators spend most of their time. e. None of the answers are correct. Answer: e Page: 329 35. The biggest obstacle to effective congressional oversight is a. the sheer magnitude of the task. b. its inadequacy as a means to control the bureaucracy. c. its inadequacy as a means to control the power of the president. d. its inadequacy as a way to generate publicity for members of Congress. j. its inadequacy as a means to control the judiciary. Answer: a Page: 330 36. Congress’s strength as a policymaking institution includes its a. ability to represent a wide range of interests. b. capacity for compromise and negotiation. c. responsiveness to local interests. d. All of the answers are correct. h. None of the answers are correct. Answer: d Page: 327 37. The major function of Congress a. is to enact legislation. b. is to check the president. c. is to appease special interests. d. is to inform the people. j. is to check the Supreme Court. Answer: a Page: 324 38. Bills are formally introduced in Congress by a. members of Congress only. b. executive agencies. c. interest groups. d. the Supreme Court. k. All of the answers are correct. Answer: a Page: 320 39. Most of the work on legislation in Congress is done a. by committees and their respective subcommittees. b. on the floors of the House and Senate. c. by conference committees. d. by the president. k. through consultation with bureaucratic agencies. Answer: a Page: 317 40. The scheduling of bills in the Senate is left up to a. the Senate Scheduling Committee. b. the Senate majority leader. c. each of the Senate committees. d. the Senate historian. k. the Senate parliamentarian. Answer: b Page: 322 41. has the most seats in the U.S. House of Representatives. a. New York b. California c. Texas d. Illinois k. Florida Answer: b 412. News media coverage of Congress and the president is a. about equal in amount. b. heavily tilted to presidential coverage. c. largely focused on Congress and its members. d. typically focused on areas where there is consensus between the two institutions. k. typically focused on areas where the House, as opposed to the Senate, is the leading chamber. Answer: b Page: 331 423. There are currently voting members of the U.S. House of Representatives and voting members of the U.S. Senate. a. 535; 100 b. 435; 100 c. 150; 31 d. 300; 100 h. 600; 300 Answer: b Page: 312 434. What is the strategy employed in the Senate to prevent a bill from coming to a vote? a. mark-up b. filibuster c. cloture d. pocket veto k. conference committee Answer: b Page: 322 445. For a bill to pass in either chamber of Congress, a. it must receive the support of a third of its members. b. it must receive the support of a simple majority of its members. c. it must receive the support of two-thirds of its members. d. it must be passed within two weeks of its passage by the other chamber. j. it must be passed within a month of its passage by the other chamber. Answer: b Page: 323 456. The dominant political institution(s) during most of the nineteenth century was a. the president and the executive branch. b. Congress. c. the Supreme Court. d. the bureaucracy. k. the mass media. Answer: b 467. Defining the conditions and scheduling a bill for floor debate in the House of Representatives is the responsibility of the a. Ways and Means Committee. b. Rules committee. c. Budget Committee. d. Appropriations Committee. k. Judiciary Committee. Answer: b Page: 322 478. Which of the following statements is true? a. Political parties are unimportant in the organization of the U.S. Congress. b. Party-line voting rarely occurs in Congress. c. Party-line voting has increased in recent years. d. Partisanship makes virtually no difference in the votes cast in Congress. j. None of the answers are correct. Answer: c Page: 316 489. Since the founding of the United States, the debate over the representative function of Congress has centered on whether a. key decisions should be made by a small number of representatives in committee or by the whole membership in floor debate. b. the primary concern of a representative should be the interests of the nation or of his or her constituency. c. congressional or presidential authority should dominate on broad issues. d. the House or the Senate is more responsive to the public. p. the House or the Senate should take the lead on foreign policy issues. Answer: b Page: 327 4950. The trading of votes between members of Congress so that each gets the legislation he or she wants is a. gerrymandering. b. pandering. c. logrolling. d. pork-barreling. e. cloturing. Answer: c Page: 328 501. A bill has been approved in the House and Senate, albeit in slightly different versions. The bill now goes to a. the president for her/his veto or signature. b. a conference committee. c. the standing committees in the House and Senate where the bill originated. d. the House Rules committee. e. the Senate Rules committee. Answer: b Page: 323 512. In the 2006 midterm elections, Republicans lost a significant number of House and Senate seats. These losses were primarily attributable to: a. the normal cycle of midterm elections whereby the president’s party loses seats. b. the Republicans’ inability to raise as much money as they normally do to support their candidates. c. the ability of Democrats to target their resources on close races. d. widespread public dissatisfaction with policy conditions, particularly the situation in Iraq. e. the fact that many Hollywood celebrities campaigned for Democratic candidates. Answer: d Page: 308 Essay/Short Answer 1. Why do congressional incumbents have such a high rate of reelection? Answer: Incumbents have a great advantage in congressional elections due to the various benefits that incumbency provides. Among these are the ability to claim credit for congressional achievements, provide pork-barrel legislation, perform constituent services, and garner publicity. Incumbents can also represent states or districts that greatly favor a candidate of one party; once elected from a constituency that is not competitive in terms of its electorate, the incumbent can normally expect an easy road to reelection. Finally, incumbents have an advantage over their challengers in terms of ability to raise campaign funds. 2. Why are party leaders in Congress relatively weak in terms of their ability to control legislation? Answer: First, members of Congress have an independent base of power, since they get elected largely on their own efforts rather than through the support of their party. Second, Congress has a set of leaders, the committee and subcommittee chairs, who are relatively independent of the party leadership. Third, Congress has two chambers, which are equal in power and independent of each other; no party leader can speak authoritatively for both the Senate and the House. 3. Identify the three congressional agencies and explain the function of each one. Answer: The General Accounting Office (GAO) is the largest congressional agency and has the responsibility of monitoring how executive agencies spend money that has been appropriated by Congress. The Congressional Research Service (CRS) is the oldest congressional agency and is part of the Library of Congress. It is a nonpartisan research agency that any member may use to obtain information. The Congressional Budget Office (CBO) is the newest agency and supplies Congress with projections of the nation’s economic situation. 4. Why is redistricting a problem for U.S. House members? Explain. Answer: The U.S. House seats are reallocated every ten years following the completion of the U.S. census. States that have gained population (e.g., California, Texas, and Florida) since the previous census may acquire additional House seats, while states that have lost population (e.g., New York and Illinois) may lose seats. Redistricting and reapportionment are a potential threat to House incumbents. The newly redrawn districts include voters who are unfamiliar with the incumbent, thereby diminishing an advantage that incumbents typically have over challengers. 5. Explain the representation function of Congress in relation to constituencies, interest groups, and parties. How does the representation function conflict with the lawmaking function of Congress? Answer: The representation function of Congress is complex. Members of Congress are in Washington to serve the interests of the state or district constituency that elected them. Given their concern for reelection, members of Congress often promote local over national interests. Congress is well designed to represent interest groups. Its committees and subcommittees have legislative control over policies that directly affect particular groups, and members of Congress are generally receptive to lobbying efforts. Members of Congress represent their party on many issues. Roll-call votes often align a majority of the Democrats against a majority of the Republicans. Opposition and support for presidential initiatives divide along party lines as well. The representative and lawmaking roles of Congress can conflict. The strong local orientation that makes Congress a successful representative institution also makes it a less than ideal national legislative body. 6. Congress is a decentralized, fragmented institution. What are the implications of these realities on its lawmaking role? Explain. Answer: Congress has a proliferation of leadership positions, a decentralized structure of relatively autonomous committees and subcommittees, and a concern with issues affecting local (i.e., non-national) constituencies. The lawmaking implications of this situation are several; narrow legislation is more likely to pass than broad initiatives; broad legislation is likely to take a great deal of time and bargaining before it will pass; legislation will be reactive rather than prospective; and legislation will reflect local concerns as much as national ones. 7. Describe the typical process by which a bill becomes a law. Answer: Once a bill is introduced by a member of the House or Senate, it is given a number and a title and referred to the relevant committee. The bill is then sent to one of the subcommittees. Most bills are tabled in subcommittees. Bills that are not tabled can then be examined through hearings. The bill can then be sent back to the committee where additional hearings may be held. During these steps, the bill can be marked up, or revised. Once a bill has gained committee approval it is reported out of committee and is scheduled for debate and possible amendment by the full chamber. In the House, the Rules Committee has power over scheduling decisions. In the Senate, the majority leader makes most of these decisions. Each chamber of Congress must pass the bill by a majority vote or it is killed. A bill must be passed in identical form by both chambers to become law. Any differences in bills passed by the two chambers can be worked out informally or through the use of a conference committee. Any bill that has been altered must be passed again by both chambers. After both chambers have passed identical versions of a bill it goes to the president for his or her signature. If the president vetoes the bill, it takes a two-thirds majority vote of both houses of Congress to override the veto. 8. What is congressional oversight, and what are the obstacles to effective oversight? Answer: Congressional oversight is the responsibility of Congress to see that the executive branch carries out laws faithfully and spends money properly. The biggest obstacle to effective oversight is the sheer magnitude of the task. With its several million employees and huge budget, the bureaucracy is beyond comprehensive scrutiny. The other obstacle is that members of Congress normally have stronger incentives to function as lawmakers (lawmaking can be more a creative task and one for which a member of Congress gets more credit) and as representatives (representation is vitally connected to reelection—members of Congress get reelected mainly by representing the interests of their constituents) than as overseers. The president’s constitutional roles, such as chief executive and commander-in-chief, a. are based on very precise constitutional grants of power. b. are rooted in tradition only; they have no basis in the language of the Constitution. c. are not subject to check by Congress. d. have expanded in practice to be more powerful than the writers of the Constitution intended. e. are absolute powers under the Constitution. Answer: d Page: 339 2. Most of the wars that the United States has waged during its history a. have been conducted after Congress issued a declaration of war. b. have been conducted upon order of the president acting in the role of commander- in-chief. c. have been conducted in response to attacks on America. d. have occurred when the Republican party was in power. e. have been designed to gain more territory for the United States. Answer: b Page: 339 3. The Whig theory holds that the presidency a. is a shared office where the president and the cabinet are equally powerful. b. is a limited office whose occupant is confined to the exercise of expressly granted constitutional powers. c. is the office most representative of the people. d. should provide strong leadership in the area of foreign policy but not in domestic policy. e. is subordinate to the Supreme Court. Answer: b Page: 340 4. The president’s role in foreign policy increased largely because a. Congress proved so inept in foreign affairs that the American people demanded a change. b. America became more of a world power. c. of the need to coordinate national economic policy and foreign policy, a task to which the presidency was well-suited. d. of the desire of U.S. business to expand into Latin America and Asia, which required executive action at the highest level. e. of attitudes by the American public. Answer: b Page: 342 5. From roughly 1900 to 1960, a strong showing in presidential primaries a. did not improve a candidate’s chances of gaining the nomination. b. enabled a candidate to demonstrate popular support, but did not ensure nomination. c. guaranteed a candidate’s nomination. d. guaranteed a candidate’s place on the ticket, although sometimes as the vice presidential nominee rather than presidential nominee. e. allowed a candidate to write the platform for her/his political party. Answer: b Page: 344 6. The primary election as a means of choosing the states’ delegates to the national conventions where the presidential nominee is formally selected a. was introduced during the Jacksonian era. b. is used in Europe as well as in the United States. c. has been adopted more widely in recent decades, such that the candidate who dominates the primaries can usually expect to have won enough delegates to be assured of nomination at the convention. d. is designed to strengthen the political parties. e. is being replaced by the open-caucus system of selecting delegates. Answer: c Page: 347 7. Candidate strategy in the early presidential nominating contests (such as New Hampshire’s primary) is designed chiefly to gain a. momentum. b. the support of the party’s organizational leaders. c. the support of the party’s congressional leaders. d. the endorsements of newspaper editors. e. the support of partisan rivals. Answer: a Page: 347 8. The selection of the vice presidential nominee at the national convention is based on a. the results of the primaries and caucuses: the candidate who places second in these contests is nominated as the running-mate of the candidate who finishes first. b. the convention delegates’ judgment as to the candidate who would make the best vice president. c. the results of public opinion polls taken just before the convention begins. d. the presidential nominee’s choice of a running mate. e. None of the answers are correct. Answer: d Page: 349 9. Presidents usually have the most success in getting Congress to enact their programs during their a. first years in office. b. middle years in office. c. final years in office. d. There is no temporal pattern to presidential success. e. final few weeks in office. Answer: a Page: 360 10. The staffing of the modern presidency has a. enabled presidents to extend their authority beyond what would otherwise be possible. b. challenged president’s ability to control action taken under their authority. c. contributed much-needed expertise to the process of presidential decision making. d. All of the answers are correct. e. None of the answers are correct. Answer: d Page: 354 11. The Executive Office of the President (EOP) was created in a. 1789, when George Washington assumed office. b. 1804, shortly after Thomas Jefferson made the Louisiana Purchase. c. 1865, shortly after the Civil War ended. d. 1916, during the presidency of Woodrow Wilson. e. 1939, during the Depression era when Franklin Roosevelt was president. Answer: e Page: 354 12. The presidential advisory unit that declined most in importance during the twentieth century is the a. Council of Economic Advisers. b. Office of Management and Budget. c. White House Office. d. National Security Council. e. cabinet. Answer: e Page: 356 13. Which of the following did the Framers want from a president? a. national leadership b. administration of the laws c. statesmanship in foreign affairs d. executive ability e. All of the answers are correct. Answer: e Page: 339 14. The presidency was created by Article of the U.S. Constitution. a. I b. II c. III d. IV e. VII Answer: b Page: 339 15. According to the U.S. Constitution, if no one candidate receives a majority vote of the Electoral College, who chooses the president? a. the U.S. Senate b. the U.S. House of Representatives c. both the Senate and House in joint session d. the Supreme Court e. the people, in a runoff election Answer: b Page: 350 16. ended the practice of nominating presidential candidates by legislative caucuses, replacing it with the party-convention method of nomination. a. George Washington b. Thomas Jefferson c. James Madison d. Andrew Jackson e. Martin Van Buren Answer: d Page: 345 17. Which of the following presidents lost the popular vote, but still won the presidency? a. John Quincy Adams b. Rutherford B. Hayes c. Benjamin Harrison d. George W. Bush e. All of the answers are correct. Answer: e Page: 345 18. During which period did the Democrats force major changes in the presidential nominating process that are still in effect today? a. World War I b. the Great Depression c. World War II d. Vietnam War e. in the early 1990s, at the end of the Cold War Answer: dc Page: 345 19. has the most votes in the Electoral College in presidential elections. a. Texas b. California c. New York d. Pennsylvania e. Florida Answer: b Page: 351 20. The predictably highest point of public support for a president is a. during the president’s first year in office. b. after reelection to a second term. c. immediately after Congress enacts a major presidential initiative. d. when international conditions are stable. e. during the president’s last year in office. Answer: a Page: 360 21. Which of the following is part of the Executive Office of the President? a. Office of Science and Technology Policy b. Council of Economic Advisers c. National Security Council d. Office of Management and Budget e. All of the answers are correct. Answer: e Page: 355 22. Which of the following is a formal constitutional requirement for becoming president? a. One must be at least 40 years of age. b. One must be a resident in the United States for at least 1 year. c. One must be a natural-born citizen. d. One must be a white male. e. One must be a Protestant. Answer: c Page: 352 23. Candidates for presidential nomination are eligible to receive federal matching funds if they raise enough money on their own and if they agree a. to refrain from using negative advertising to attack their opponents. b. to participate in televised debates along with the other candidates. c. to enter the first contests in Iowa and New Hampshire. d. not to run as an Independent candidate if they lose the nominating race. e. to limit their total campaign spending to a specified amount. Answer: e Page: 348 24. Most presidential campaign money during the general election is spent on a. maintaining a campaign staff. b. advertising on television. c. mass mailing of campaign literature. d. staging of personal appearances. e. direct-mail fund raising. Answer: b Page: 352 25. The War Powers Act was primarily intended to the authority of the to wage war. a. limit; president b. limit; Congress c. extend; Congress d. extend; president e. None of the answers are correct. Answer: a Page: 365 26. A reason why the nation did not routinely need a strong president during most of the nineteenth century was a. the small policymaking role of the federal government. b. the sectional nature of the nation’s major issues. c. the U.S. government’s small role in world affairs. d. All of the answers are correct. e. None of the answers are correct. Answer: d Page: 342 27. What happened in the presidential election of 2000? a. Al Gore won the popular vote. b. George W. Bush won Florida by 537 votes. c. George W. Bush won 271 votes in the Electoral College. d. The U.S. Supreme Court blocked a full recount of ballots in Florida. e. All of the answers are correct. Answer: e Page: 351 28. The first televised “debates” between the two major party presidential candidates occurred in a. 1948 (Truman-Dewey). b. 1960 (Kennedy-Nixon). c. 1968 (Nixon-Humphrey). d. 1976 (Carter-Ford). e. 1984 (Reagan-Mondale). Answer: b Page: 352 29. The presidency is a. an extraordinarily strong office with sufficient powers to enable the president to control national policy under virtually all circumstances. b. an inherently weak office in that presidents have almost no capacity to influence the major directions of national policy. c. an office in which power is conditional, depending on whether the political support that gives force to presidential leadership exists or can be developed. d. an office where power depends almost entirely on its occupant; strong leaders are always successful presidents and weak ones never succeed. e. an office where power is fairly constant, regardless of the occupant or the circumstances. Answer: c Page: 368 30. Presidents’ accomplishments have largely depended on a. their margin of victory in the presidential campaign. b. whether circumstances favor strong presidential leadership. c. their ability to come up with good ideas. d. their skill at balancing the demands of competing groups. e. midterm elections. Answer: b Page: 359 31. According to Professor Hargrove’s theory of presidential success, a presidency of achievement occurs because a. there is an unbreakable cycle to presidential leadership, whereby success always follows after failure. b. from time to time, the public elects someone of exceptional talent. c. there are times when other leaders and the public are generally agreed on a compelling need for president leadership in order to address major policy problems. d. international developments periodically shift attention from domestic politics to global affairs, which is the area where presidents have the greatest capacity to lead. e. some presidents are popular in the media and amongst lobbyists. Answer: c Page: 359 32. The honeymoon period occurs during o. a president’s second term only. p. the first part of a president’s term. q. the period of a president’s term immediately following a successful foreign-policy initiative. r. the period of a president’s term immediately following a successful domestic- policy initiative. e. the State of the Union address. Answer: b Page: 360 33. The two presidencies thesis holds that a president is likely to be most successful with Congress on policy initiatives involving a. social-welfare policy. a. foreign policy. b. tax policy. c. economic policy. e. environmental policy. Answer: b Page: 360 34. The War Powers Act was enacted in order to a. guide the military in its use of force in field situations where it is impractical to seek direction from the president. b. allow the president more leeway in committing U.S. troops to combat. p. define the relationship between the United States and its allies. q. limit the president’s war-making power. e. weaken Congress in foreign policy matters. Answer: d Page: 365 35. The forced removal of a president from office through impeachment and removal requires action by a. the House of Representatives only. b. the Senate only. c. the House and Senate in a joint session. d. the House and Senate in separate proceedings. e. the Supreme Court in a judicial proceeding. Answer: d Page: 364 36. A president’s policy initiatives are significantly more successful when the president a. has the strong support of the American people. b. is a former member of Congress. c. is on good terms with other world leaders. d. is in office when the economy goes bad, which creates a demand for stronger leadership. e. None of the answers are correct. Answer: a Page: 365 37. The factor that normally has the most impact on the president’s level of popular support is a. world conditions. b. the condition of the nation’s economy. c. the national crime rate. d. the president’s skill in the use of television. e. the condition of nation’s public schools. Answer: b Page: 366 38. Which of the following is true about the American presidency or president? a. It is constantly a focus of national attention. b. Presidents nearly always get what they want. c. Favorable conditions will make the president seem almost invincible. d. It is constantly a focus of national attention, and favorable conditions will make the president seem almost invincible. e. None of the answers are correct. Answer: d Page: 368 39. The U.S. House of Representatives last decided the outcome of a presidential election in a. 2000, with the election of George W. Bush. b. 1892, with the election of Calvin Coolidge. c. 1860, with the election of Abraham Lincoln. d. 1824, with the election of John Quincy Adams. e. 1800, with the election of Thomas Jefferson. Answer: d Page: 350 40. is the largest threat to the president’s ability to control the news media. a. World hunger b. Scandal c. Homelessness d. AIDS e. Environmental degradation Answer: b Page: 367 41. During his first year as president, George W. Bush a. broke most of his campaign promises. b. enjoyed Republican majorities in both houses of Congress. c. had an very high success rate in getting Congress to back his policy proposals. d. had a very low success rate in getting Congress to back his policy proposals. e. None of the answers are correct. Answer: c Page: 366 42. Congress authorized an official impeachment investigation of a. Andrew Johnson. b. John Quincy Adams. c. Theodore Roosevelt. d. Warren Harding. e. Calvin Coolidge Answer: a Page: 364 43. In the modern era, the equivalent practice of using the presidency as a bully pulpit (Theodore Roosevelt) could best be summed up in the phrase a. going public. b. spin control. c. air wars. d. lobbying the bureaucracy. e. manipulating the media. Answer: a Page: 367 44. was known as the Great Communicator. a. Ronald Reagan b. George H.W. Bush c. Jimmy Carter d. Lyndon Johnson e. George W. Bush Answer: a Page: 367 45. If the U.S. House of Representatives chooses to impeach a president, who conducts the trial? a. the U.S. Supreme Court b. the U.S. House of Representatives c. the U.S. Senate d. the Federal Bureau of Investigation e. the Department of Justice Answer: c Page: 364 46. Which is normally the best thing a president can do to ensure political success? a. maintain strong public schools b. preside over a healthy economy c. manipulate the mass media d. visit many foreign nations e. focus on human rights abroad. Answer: b Page: 366 47. The two presidencies thesis refers to presidents’ policy success in what context? a. Republican versus Democratic presidents b. foreign versus domestic policies c. the first versus second term d. positive versus negative presidents e. economic versus welfare policies Answer: b Page: 360 48. The only two states that are exceptions to the unit rule for awarding electoral votes are a. Michigan and Montana. b. New Hampshire and Vermont. c. Maine and Nebraska. d. Georgia and Louisiana. e. Rhode Island and Oregon. Answer: c Page: 351 49. As President George W. Bush’s popularity declined during his second term as a result of the Iraq situation and other problems, a. Republican members of Congress rallied to increase their support of his presidency. b. Democratic members of Congress rallied to increase their support of his presidency. c. Independent voters rallied to increase their support of his presidency. d. the news media rallied to increase their support of his presidency. e. None of the above answers is correct. Answer: e Page: 337 Essay/Short Answer 1. Explain the difference between the Whig theory of the presidency and the stewardship theory. Which is the norm today? Answer: The Whig theory holds that the presidency is a limited or constrained office whose occupant is confined to the exercise of expressly granted constitutional authority. In this tradition, the president has no implicit powers for dealing with national problems, but is primarily an administrator, who is charged with carrying out the will of Congress. James Buchanan, William Howard Taft, and Herbert Hoover were all proponents of this theory. The stewardship theory maintains that the president should be a strong, assertive, and forceful leader. In this tradition the president can do anything that is not specifically forbidden by the Constitution. Proponents of this tradition are Theodore Roosevelt, Franklin Roosevelt, and Harry Truman. The stewardship theory is the norm today, as even weak presidents are expected to act assertively, regardless of their personal inclination. 2. Why is it normally the case that the electoral vote margin in a presidential campaign is proportionally greater than the popular vote margin? Why does this work to the disadvantage of an independent candidate? Answer: The electoral votes of each state (except Maine and Nebraska, which allocate one electoral vote to the candidate who places first in a congressional district, and two votes to the statewide winner) are allocated on a winner-take-all basis. Thus, even though a candidate wins narrowly in a state, the candidate gets 100 percent of its electoral votes. This arrangement works to the disadvantage of independent candidates because they are unlikely to win a state. In a sense, their entire popular vote is wasted when the electoral votes are cast. 3. Identify the four systems of presidential selection that the United States has had during its history. What has been the overriding reason for the changes that have taken place? Answer: The first system was used from 1788 until 1828 and centered on the Electoral College. Party nominees were recommended by congressional caucuses, although electors were somewhat independent in their voting. The second system involved the used of the party convention, and was in place from 1832 to 1900. Here party nominees were chosen in national party conventions by delegates selected by state and local party organizations. The third system was the party convention/primary system, used from 1904 to 1968. This system was the same as the second except that a minority of national convention delegates was chosen through state primary elections. The fourth system has been in use since 1972 and is the party primary/open caucus system. Here the majority of national convention delegates are chosen through primary elections and open caucuses, and thus the key factor is support of rank-and-file voters. Each succeeding system was justified as being more legitimate in that it granted ordinary citizens a greater voice in the selection of a president. 4. Discuss the circumstances that contribute to the success or failure of presidential influence on national policy. Answer: Whether a president succeeds or fails in getting her/his policies enacted depends on the force of circumstance, the stage of the presidency, partisan support in Congress, and the foreign or domestic nature of the policy issue. Circumstances such as the decisiveness of election victory and the emergence of a compelling national problem often create conditions that affect the president’s influence, and yet are beyond her/his control. Support for presidential initiatives tends to be highest during the honeymoon period of a presidential term. Success rates for presidential initiatives are strongly related to whether or not the president is of the same party as the majority in Congress, and whether the majority is sizable or weak. Finally, even though other factors are involved, presidents tend to receive more support from Congress on foreign-policy issues than on domestic-policy issues. 5. Discuss the relationship between the president and Congress. Why does the president need congressional support? What conditions affect the success of the president with Congress? Answer: Congress is a presidential constituency in that the president must serve the interest of members of Congress if she/he expects their support. The president needs congressional support to enact her/his policies. In the American system of separated powers, the president must work for the backing of Congress on many issues and policies. Without congressional authorization and funding, most presidential proposals do not get implemented. On the other hand, members of Congress look to the president for policy leadership, which provides him/her the opportunity for successful policy making. Whether congressional backing is forthcoming depends on several factors, including the president’s ability to work with Congress, the circumstances of the period (whether there are urgent national problems that most people agree requires a policy response), and the party composition of Congress (presidents are more likely to succeed when a congressional majority is of the same party). 6. Discuss the relationship of presidential power to public support for the president and explain why this relationship is both an asset and a liability for the president. Answer: The president’s election by the whole nation and her/his position as sole chief executive makes the presidential office the primary focus of Americans’ policy and leadership expectations. In turn, public support gives force to presidential leadership. However, because the public expects so much of the president, she/he cannot always meet the public’s expectations. In this situation, there is a decline in public support and, with that, a weakening of the president’s claim to lead Congress and others. On the other hand, when national conditions are favorable, the president gets a disproportionate share of the credit from the American people, which gives added strength to her/his efforts. 1. A principle of bureaucratic organization is a. hierarchical authority. b. job specialization. c. formalized rules. d. All of the answers are correct. e. None of the answers are correct. Answer: d Page: 374 2. Compared to the president and Congress, the bureaucracy a. is held in higher esteem by the public. b. is authorized by a constitutional amendment rather than by the original Constitution. c. has a more immediate impact on the daily lives of Americans. d. has changed very little during the nation’s history. e. is more easily controlled by the voters. Answer: c Page: 376 3. Whenever Congress has a perceived need for ongoing control of an economic activity, it has tended to create a a. regulatory agency. b. cabinet department. c. presidential commission. d. government corporation. e. blue-ribbon panel. Answer: a Page: 377 4. All of the following statements correctly describe the typical independent agency except a. it has a narrower area of responsibility than cabinet departments. b. its head is appointed by an independent commission. c. it is divided into a number of smaller operating units. d. it exists independently of cabinet departments. e. its employees are mostly hired through the civil service system. Answer: b Page: 377 5. The Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI), the National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA), and the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) are a. all agencies within cabinet departments. b. all independent agencies. c. all regulatory agencies. d. all cabinet departments e. respectively, an agency within a cabinet department, an independent agency, and a regulatory agency. Answer: e Page: 377 6. Federal regulatory agencies have responsibility primarily in the area of a. economic policy. b. social-welfare policy. c. foreign and defense policy. d. law-enforcement policy. e. environmental policy. Answer: a Page: 377 7. The civil service system was created through the a. Morrill Act. b. Hatch Act. c. Pendleton Act. d. Taft-Hartley Act. e. National Performance Review. Answer: c Page: 382 8. Most federal employees are hired on the basis of a. merit criteria. b. patronage. c. previous job experience in the private sector. d. the personal preferences of immediate supervisors. e. a lottery system. Answer: a Page: 383 9. Federal civil service employees cannot legally a. be fired from their jobs. b. go on strike. c. belong to a union. d. be completely restricted in their election activities. e. contribute to political campaigns. Answer: b Page: 380 10. Policy implementation refers to the bureaucratic function of a. executing the authoritative decisions of Congress, the president, and the courts. b. regulating the distribution of funds to individuals and corporations. c. delegating legislative authority to smaller operating units of the bureaucracy. d. All of the answers are correct. e. None of the answers are correct. Answer: a Page: 380 11. The functions of the bureaucratic agencies include all of the following except a. regulation of industries, such as meat and poultry. b. development of public policy. c. delivery of services as provided by laws. d. formal approval of those nominated by the president to head the agencies. e. implementation of public policy. Answer: d Page: 380 12. As distinct from the patronage and executive leadership system, the merit system for managing the bureaucracy a. allows the president to appoint top officials of executive agencies, thus making the bureaucracy more responsive to election outcomes. b. provides for presidential leadership of the bureaucracy, thus giving it greater coordination and direction. c. provides for a neutral administration in the sense that civil servants are not partisan appointees, thus ensuring evenhanded work. d. provides that all programs will be evaluated regularly to determine whether they merit continued funding. e. All of the answers are correct. Answer: c Page: 383 13. When it was developed during the Jackson administration, the patronage system was designed to a. provide jobs to merit appointees. b. make the administration of government more responsive to ordinary citizens. c. increase congressional control of the bureaucracy. d. increase judicial control of the bureaucracy. e. provide jobs to lawyers. Answer: b Page: 381 14. In response to economic demands that were a result of rapid industrialization, Congress in the late 1800s began to a. create new federal departments built around economic interests. b. establish the executive management system. c. reorganize the cabinet in order to make it the center of economic policy making. d. All of the answers are correct. e. None of the answers are correct. Answer: a Page: 382 15. During the New Deal, the federal bureaucracy a. increased slightly in size. b. increased sharply in size. c. stayed roughly the same size but was granted a great deal more funding for its programs. d. stayed roughly the same size but was granted a great deal more authority to regulate national economic activity. e. was reorganized to reduce the number of federal agencies. Answer: b Page: 382 16. The administrative concept of neutral competence holds that the bureaucracy should a. be staffed by people chosen on the basis of ability and do its work fairly on behalf of all citizens. b. stay out of conflicts between Congress and the president. c. be structured on the basis of the principles of specialization, hierarchy, and formal rules. d. not allow in-fighting between agencies. e. be staffed by partisans appointed by the president. Answer: a Page: 383 17. Bureaucrats tend to follow a. the wishes of the president. b. the wishes of Congress. c. their own agency’s point of view. d. the expectations of the general public. e. the wishes of federal judges. Answer: c Page: 386 18. The chief goal of the executive leadership system is a. the shifting of power from Congress to the president. b. improved coordination through the presidency of the bureaucracy’s programs and agencies. c. the establishment of partisanship as the basis for the administration of policy. d. a better system for training top bureaucrats. e. the shifting of power from Congress to the federal courts. Answer: b Page: 383 19. The federal bureaucracy today is a. extremely wasteful and unresponsive to the public it serves. b. an ineffective institution in comparison with bureaucracies of democracies with unitary systems. c. more responsive to the public at large than to the particular interests that depend on its various programs. d. a mix of the patronage, merit, and executive leadership systems. e. mostly dominated by patronage politics. Answer: d Page: 385 20. About 60 percent of top positions in the federal bureaucracy are held by a. women. b. white males. c. African Americans. d. Latino Americans. e. Asian Americans. Answer: b Page: 396 21. Bureaucrats are and elected officials are . a. generalists; specialists b. generalists; generalists c. specialists; generalists d. specialists; specialists e. popular; unpopular Answer: c Page: 386 22. The special interests that benefit directly from a bureaucratic agency’s programs are called a. clientele groups. b. pressure groups. c. entitlement groups. d. programmatic groups. e. recipient groups. Answer: a Page: 387 23. The assassination of President did much to end the spoils system of distributing government jobs. a. Abraham Lincoln b. James Garfield c. William McKinley d. John F. Kennedy e. Chester Arthur Answer: b Page: 383 24. A president’s proposal to reorganize a part of the bureaucracy can encounter opposition from a. the bureaucracy itself. b. clientele groups. c. members of Congress. d. public opinion. e. All of the answers are correct. Answer: e Page: 390 25. It can be said of regulatory commissions that a. the broad discretion these commissions have over regulatory policy means that a change in their membership can have a significant impact. b. the commissioners pursue independent and impartial policies, regardless of political pressure from Democrats or Republicans in Congress. c. unlike presidential appointees in other areas, regulatory heads choose which civil servants will work in their agencies, and thus have the full loyalty of career bureaucrats. d. unlike presidential appointees in other areas, the president can hire and fire the heads of regulatory commissions whenever she/he chooses. e. All of the answers are correct. Answer: a Page: 377 26. In terms of holding the bureaucracy accountable, the most important unit within the Executive Office of the President is the a. Office of Policy Development. b. Office of Management and Budget. c. Council of Economic Advisors. d. White House Office. e. Office of the Vice President. Answer: b Page: 392 27. Congress generally a. tries to monitor the bureaucracy closely. b. allows the bureaucracy to define broad policy goals. c. sets broad policy and then allows the bureaucracy discretion in implementing it. d. trusts the president to manage the bureaucracy, thereby relieving itself of the need to oversee the bureaucracy’s activities. e. holds continuous hearings to ensure bureaucratic accountability. Answer: c Page: 380 28. Legally, the bureaucracy derives the general authority for its programs from a. acts of Congress. b. federalism. c. regulatory rulings. d. court rulings. e. the will of the people. Answer: a Page: 393 29. In 2004, accused President George W. Bush of downplaying the terrorist threat and being preoccupied with Iraq in the period leading up to the September 11, 2001 terrorist attacks. a. Condoleeza Rice b. Donald Rumsfeld c. Colin Powell d. John Ashcroft e. Richard Clarke Answer: e Page: 395 30. was created in 2002. a. The Department of Transportation b. The Department of Energy c. The Department of Education d. The Department of Veterans Affairs e. The Department of Homeland Security Answer: e Page: 390 31. In the future, bureaucratic accountability is likely to a. decrease in importance because of increased gridlock between Congress and the president. b. maintain the same level of importance it has today. c. increase in importance because policy issues will grow ever more complex and therefore government will become even more dependent on the bureaucracy. d. become a contentious issue in public opinion polls. e. be completely irrelevant. Answer: c Page: 381 32. The cabinet department with the largest number of full-time civilian employees is the Department of a. State. b. Defense. c. Labor. d. Health and Human Services. e. Education. Answer: b Page: 377 33. Compared with U.S. bureaucrats, European bureaucrats tend to have a college major specializing in a. natural sciences and engineering. b. law. c. social sciences and the humanities. d. business management. e. journalism. Answer: b Page: 387 34. The courts have tended to support administrators as long as their agencies a. choose rules that save money. b. apply a reasonable interpretation of a statute. c. follow what the president demands of them. d. have adequate funding. e. don’t come into conflict with state governments. Answer: b Page: 394 35. A longstanding question about the bureaucracy involves the issue of a. responsiveness. b. accountability. c. efficiency. d. effectiveness. e. All of the answers are correct. Answer: e Page: 398 36. Congress oversees the bureaucracy through a. sunset laws. b. the Government Accountability Office. c. the Congressional Budget Office. d. committee hearings. e. All of the answers are correct. Answer: e Page: 393 37. When Andrew Jackson became president, he changed the system of staffing the bureaucracy that earlier presidents had used. These earlier presidents a. all believed in the civil service system. b. all believed in the patronage system. c. all believed that distinguished men should be entrusted with the management of the national government. d. all believed in whistle-blowing. e. all believed in a representative bureaucracy. Answer: c Page: 381 38. is/are most likely to have the most substantial understanding of trade issues. a. The president b. Members of the Senate c. Top bureaucrats in the Department of Commerce and the Federal Trade Commission d. Members of the House e. State governors Answer: c Page: 386 39. The chief way that administrative agencies exercise real power is through a. rule making, or deciding how a law will operate in practice. b. judicial interpretation, or mandating the constitutionality or unconstitutionality of a new statute. c. hiring and firing government personnel in the name of efficiency and effectiveness. d. testifying before Congress on the merits or demerits of a proposed regulation or law. e. None of the answers are correct. Answer: a Page: 380 40. The power of clientele groups was evident in 1995 when House Speaker Newt Gingrich threatened to zero-out funding for the a. Social Security system. b. Corporation for Public Broadcasting. c. Department of Agriculture. d. drug education program administered by Health and Human Services. e. U.S. Postal Service. Answer: b Page: 387 41. The Postal Service and AMTRAK are examples of a. cabinet departments. b. government corporations. c. independent agencies. d. regulatory agencies. e. presidential commissions. Answer: b Page: 378 42. Street-level bureaucracy refers to the discretion used by lower level officials in the a. initiation of policy. b. development of policy. c. carrying out of programs. d. evaluation of programs. e. responding to whistleblowers. Answer: c Page: 381 43. The modern civil service system is based on a. informal standards of personal merit. b. codified classifications and prerequisite experience or competitive testing. c. rewards for partisan activity. d. presidential selection from a field of qualified applicants. e. a lottery system. Answer: b Page: 379 44. Bureaucracy is best characterized in terms of a. inefficiency, inflexibility, and red tape. b. hierarchy, specialization, and rules. c. honesty, efficiency, and patronage. d. corruption, incompetence, and spoils. e. waste, red tape, and lack of rules. Answer: b Page: 374 45. In promoting their agency’s goals, bureaucrats rely on a. their expert knowledge. b. the backing of the president and Congress. c. the support of interests that benefit from the agency’s programs. d. All of the answers are correct. e. None of the answers are correct. Answer: d Page: 386 46. were created in 1789 during the administration of George Washington. a. The Departments of State, Interior, and Agriculture b. The Departments of Commerce, Labor, and Energy c. The Departments of Justice, Commerce, and Transportation d. The Departments of State, Treasury, and War (Defense) e. The Departments of Agriculture, Housing and Urban Development, and Education Answer: d 467. The National Performance Review was directed at a. reducing red tape. b. eliminating non-essential government services. c. empowering administrators. d. All of the answers are correct. e. None of the answers are correct. Answer: d Page: 373 478. Which of the following programs now run by the federal bureaucracy could reasonably be reassigned to states and localities if Congress should decide it wanted to shift some policy responsibilities to the states and localities? a. national defense b. currency c. U.S. Postal Service d. All of the answers are correct. e. None of the answers are correct. Answer: e Page: 398 Essay/Short Answer 1. Identify four of the five major types of organizations within the federal bureaucracy and give examples of each. Answer: The five major types of organizations within the federal bureaucracy are the cabinet department, independent agency, regulatory agency, government corporation, and presidential commission. Examples of cabinet departments are the Department of Defense, Department of State, and the Department of Treasury. The CIA and NASA are examples of independent agencies. Regulatory agencies include OSHA, the EPA, and the SEC. The Postal Service and AMTRAK are government corporations. Presidential commissions include the Commission on Civil Rights and the Commission on Fine Arts. 2. The three systems of bureaucratic management are the patronage, merit, and executive- management systems. Describe their respective goals and the major problems associated with each system. Answer: The patronage system makes the bureaucracy more responsive to election outcomes by allowing the president to appoint executive officials. The problem is that these officials may not have the knowledge or expertise to do their job properly. The merit system is designed to provide administration that is neutral (evenhanded, nonpartisan) and competent (efficiently executed). The problem is that, once entrenched, bureaucrats can become a powerful political force in their own right. The executive- leadership system provides for presidential leadership of the bureaucracy (through, for example, the annual budget) in order to make it more responsive and more closely coordinated. However, the president may abuse his/her power, thus politicizing the bureaucracy and upsetting the balance between Congress and the presidency. 3. What is the federal bureaucracy’s main function? Answer: The bureaucracy’s primary function is policy implementation. Policy implementation refers to the process of carrying out the authoritative decisions of Congress, the president, and the courts. 4. Discuss the historical process by which the federal bureaucracy grew from its original size to its present size. Answer: The bureaucracy has been transformed by changes in the demands on government as a result of social, economic, and technological developments. When the Industrial Revolution created a more complex and interdependent economy, the bureaucracy grew in response to the demands of major economic interests (e.g., agriculture, commerce) and the need of the public for protection from exploitation by powerful economic interests. Later, the need for economic stability and social welfare led to the creation of regulatory and welfare agencies. Still later, the increasing complexity of society resulted in the formation of agencies (e.g., EPA, HUD, NASA) that could respond to new needs. 5. Discuss three major sources of bureaucratic power. Answer: A first major source of bureaucratic power is expertise. Since most of the problems that the federal government confronts do not lend themselves to simple solutions, expert knowledge is essential in addressing them. Much of the expertise is held by bureaucrats. The second main source is the support of clientele groups; they are special interests that benefit directly from an agency’s programs and thus have a vested interest in supporting it. Such groups place pressure on Congress and the president to retain the programs that benefit them. The third source is having friends in high places— the president and Congress. Both need the resources and expertise of the bureaucracy to achieve their goals, just as the bureaucracy needs their political support to attain its goals. 6. Identify the major ways that the bureaucracy is held accountable by the president. Answer: The president can hold the bureaucracy accountable in a number of ways. The president can appoint and fire agency heads and some other top bureaucrats. In addition, the president can reorganize the bureaucracy (subject to congressional approval). Moreover, the president can adjust the annual budget proposals of agencies. Finally, the president can resist legislative initiatives originating within the bureaucracy or propose new policies and changes in existing ones, which, if enacted by Congress, affect the bureaucracy’s activities. 7. Identify the major ways that the bureaucracy is held accountable by Congress. There are a number of ways that Congress can hold the bureaucracy accountable. First, it can reduce the funding of agencies. Second, it can pass new or revised legislation that limits the bureaucracy’s discretion or abolishes existing programs. Third, it can investigate the bureaucracy’s activities and force bureaucrats to testify about their activities. Finally, it can influence the appointments of agency heads and some other top bureaucrats. 8. What is the agency point of view? Why is it important? Answer: Bureaucrats look to their agency’s interests, a perspective that is called the agency point of view. If agencies are to operate in the fragmented American political system, they must fight for the power they require to conduct their programs effectively. In other words, they must play politics. They must devote themselves to building enough support to permit the effective administration of their programs. If they do not, their goals will suffer because other agencies that are willing to play politics will grab the available funding, attention, and support. A judicial decision that establishes a rule for settling subsequent cases of a similar nature is a a. writ of certiorari. b. landmark decision. c. writ of mandamus. d. precedent. i. writ of error. Answer: d Page: 406 2. The power of the Supreme Court is strengthened by its ability to a. issue advisory opinions when Congress is considering a new bill. b. impeach federal judges who consistently ignore its rulings. c. exercise wide discretion in choosing which cases to hear. d. override any decision of a state court. p. issue advisory opinions to the president on a regular basis. Answer: c Page: 406 3. A writ of certiorari is a. permission granted by a higher court allowing a losing party to bring its case before the court for a ruling. b. the statement explaining the reasoning behind a Supreme Court decision. c. the official transcript of Supreme Court proceedings. d. a statement from a group not directly involved in a Supreme Court case, indicating the group’s opinion on the legal issue at hand. p. an application for a waiver of court fees due to a person’s inability to afford to pay the fees. Answer: a Page: 406 4. Regarding Supreme Court procedures, all of the following statements are accurate except a. the chief justice has the option of speaking first and voting last on a case. b. the conference at which justices meet to decide a case is open to outsiders until debate on the case is over, and is then closed to allow the justices to vote. c. a dissenting opinion is an opinion of a judge who votes against the majority. d. attorneys who argue a case before the Supreme Court operate under strict time limits. s. the Court has broad discretion in choosing the cases it will hear. Answer: b Page: 407 5. A concurring opinion a. explains the chief justice’s position on a case. b. is delivered when a justice decides the same way on a case as the majority, but has a different reason for reaching that decision. c. is delivered when the Court interprets a constitutional issue. d. is delivered when at least two justices, but less than a majority, hold the same Answer: b Page: 408 opinion in a case. r. explains why the Court accepted the case in the first place. 6. Compared with the decision in a Supreme Court case, the opinion is more significant because it a. determines the losing party in a case and the penalty to be imposed on this party. b. reveals the conflicts between the justices, which the president and Congress can use in determining their position on judicial appointments and new legislation. c. informs others of the Court’s interpretation of the laws and thereby guides their decisions. d. addresses the constitutional aspects of a case, whereas the decision addresses the statutory aspects. s. None of the answers are correct. Answer: c Page: 407 7. A written Supreme Court opinion that, in the absence of a majority opinion, represents the reasoning of most of the justices who side with the winning party is a a. plurality opinion. b. concurring opinion. c. leading opinion. d. prevailing opinion. o. per curiam. Answer: a Page: 408 8. The federal district courts a. are courts of original jurisdiction. b. are the only federal courts that regularly use juries to determine the outcome of cases. c. are the courts that, in practice, make the final decision in most federal cases. d. exist in each state. o. All of the answers are correct. Answer: e Page: 409 9. With regard to the lower courts, the Supreme Court’s most important function is a. establishing legal precedents that will guide their decisions. b. correcting technical errors they make in the cases they hear. c. settling jurisdictional disputes among federal judges. d. settling jurisdictional disputes between state and federal judges. o. All of the answers are correct. Answer: a Page: 406 10. Although federal district courts are theoretically bound by Supreme Court precedents, they sometimes deviate because a. the facts of a case are seldom precisely the same as those of a similar case decided by the Supreme Court. b. federal judges may misunderstand the Court’s judicial reasoning or position. c. the opinion of a Supreme Court case is sufficiently broad that lower courts can reasonably interpret it in somewhat different ways. d. lower-court judges may conclude that the precedent should no longer apply. e. All of the answers are correct. Answer: e Page: 410 11. The U.S. courts of appeals a. hear new evidence in appealed cases. b. review trial court decisions. c. are the highest courts to use juries. d. decide for the Supreme Court the cases it will review. m. None of the answers are correct. Answer: b Page: 410 12. The appointment of federal judges is influenced most substantially by a. partisanship. b. logrolling. c. pork barreling. d. affirmative action. o. personal friendships. Answer: a Page: 413 13. The United States has federal courts and state courts because of a. the separation of powers. b. citizenship laws. c. precedent. d. judicial review. o. federalism. Answer: e Page: 411 14. The federal court myth overlooks the fact that a. most cases arise under state law, not federal law. b. nearly all cases that originate in state courts are never reviewed by federal courts. c. federal courts must normally accept the facts of a case as determined by a state court when reviewing its decision. d. All of the answers are correct. n. None of the answers are correct. Answer: d Page: 411 15. Senatorial courtesy refers to the tradition whereby a. nominees for federal judgeships are treated with respect during Senate confirmation hearings, even by senators who plan to vote against the nominee. b. senators usually defer to the president’s choice of Supreme Court nominees. c. senators are consulted on the nomination of lower-court federal judgeships located in their state. d. nominations for the federal courts, once committee hearings are concluded, are scheduled for a vote ahead of other Senate business. m. House members always defer to the Senate on matters dealing with the judiciary. Answer: c Page: 415 16. When asked if he had made any mistakes as president, replied, “Yes, two, and they are both sitting on the Supreme Court.” a. Ronald Reagan b. Jimmy Carter c. Richard Nixon d. Lyndon Johnson m. Dwight Eisenhower Answer: e Page: 415 17. According to the Constitution, the federal courts can make a ruling a. only in response to actual legal cases. b. only in cases where the U.S. government is one of the parties involved in the dispute. c. only on cases heard previously by a state court and appealed to it by the losing party. d. All of the answers are correct. p. None of the answers are correct. Answer: a Page: 417 18. is widely regarded as the most renowned jurist in American history. a. Charles Evans Hughes b. Hugo Black c. Clarence Thomas d. John Marshall o. William Rehnquist Answer: d Page: 430 19. The facts of a case a. are largely irrelevant, in that the judiciary has wide freedom with decisions. b. affect which law or laws will apply to the case. c. are important only if the case involves a statutory dispute. d. are important only if the case involves a constitutional dispute. o. are important about half the time. Answer: b Page: 417 20. The judiciary’s status as an independent branch of the national government rests on judicial review, which grants the judiciary the authority to a. make political decisions; judges can overturn any congressional or presidential decision they personally dislike. b. decide which laws apply to a particular case. c. ignore public opinion when making decisions. d. invalidate the actions of other institutions when judges believe they have acted unconstitutionally. o. strike down certain sections of the Constitution. Answer: d Page: 424 21. The term stare decisis refers to a. adherence to precedent. b. judicial activism. c. judicial restraint. d. judicial review. n. excessive partisanship. Answer: a Page: 420 22. Precedent, while not an absolute constraint on the courts, is needed to a. preserve the courts as a majoritarian institution. b. maintain legal consistency over time, so the confusion and uncertainty about the law can be avoided. c. check the president in the area of public law. d. balance the policy making authority of Congress. n. check the president in the area of foreign policy. Answer: b Page: 420 23. With regard to public opinion, the Supreme Court a. ignores it completely in order to make decisions that are based on enduring values rather than the public’s passing whims. b. remains uninformed about it because justices stay on the bench for life and never face the public scrutiny of an election. c. attempts to stay close enough to public opinion so as to avoid a grave loss of public support. d. attempts to follow it very closely in order to create public enthusiasm for its rulings. l. None of the answers are correct. Answer: c Page: 421 24. An amicus curiae (“friend of the court”) brief provides a court with the view held by a. an individual, group, or organization that is not a direct party to the case. b. the Justice Department. c. the House and Senate judiciary committees. d. the American Bar Association. o. the solicitor general. Answer: a Page: 421 25. Major shifts in the Supreme Court’s positions have usually been due to a. the pressure of public opinion. b. new developments that dramatize an immediate need for change in the law. c. turnover in the Court’s membership. d. threats from Congress. e. threats from the president. Answer: c Page: 423 26. The debate about the proper role of judicial authority in a political system based on majority rule is the issue of a. judicial restraint. b. legitimacy. c. amicus curiae. d. writ of certiorari. m. judicial activism. Answer: b Page: 424 27. According to the doctrine of judicial restraint, the judiciary should a. defer to the decisions of elected officials. b. deny most appeals for retrials. c. deny individual rights when they conflict with the majority’s desires. d. decline to make any decision that requires judges to give added meaning to the words of the Constitution. m. conform to the will of the people as measured by public opinion polls. Answer: a Page: 425 28. The debate of whether a court’s decision will be respected and obeyed is the issue of a. legitimacy. b. precedent. c. judicial review. d. compliance. n. credibility. Answer: d Page: 426 29. To advocates of judicial restraint, the Baker v. Carr decision (in which the Supreme Court ruled that election districts must be based on the “one person-one vote” principle) illustrates how the judiciary a. violates common law principles. b. assumes the power to make a decision that is properly made by a legislative body chosen by the people. c. undermines the right of privacy implicit in the Constitution’s guarantees of personal freedom. d. ignores the Second Amendment. m. ignores the First Amendment. Answer: b Page: 427 30. The contention that the Constitution contains moral language that justifies the vigorous protection of individual rights by the judiciary is a view compatible with a. judicial activism. b. judicial restraint. c. analytical jurisprudence. d. precedent-based jurisprudence. l. moral relativism. Answer: a Page: 426 31. In Bush v. Gore (2000), the Supreme Court a. halted the manual recount of “undervotes” in Florida. b. declined to get involved in the electoral process. c. cast a unanimous vote. d. deferred to the Florida Supreme Court in the election dispute between the two major party candidates. o. decided that there was no federal question in the dispute. Answer: a Page: 423 32. As distinct from civil law, criminal law is law that defines a relationship a. between individuals. b. between governments. c. between individuals and government. d. between citizens and non-citizens. m. None of the answers are correct. Answer: c Page: 418 33. If Congress disagreed with a Supreme Court ruling on a federal statute, it could possibly a. rewrite the statute. b. express its displeasure with the ruling. c. modify the scope of the Court’s appellate jurisdiction. d. amend the Constitution. j. All of the answers are correct. Answer: e Page: 422 34. The laws of a case a. reveal the relevant circumstances of the case, and are determined solely by trial courts. b. are more important than the facts of a case, and supersede the facts when the two conflict. c. constrain the judiciary because court decisions must be based on applicable laws. d. apply only in the area of criminal cases and not also in the area of civil disputes. i. None of the answers are correct. Answer: c Page: 418 35. The discretionary power of judges is less than that of elected officials because judges a. are prohibited from relying on personal judgment when deciding an issue. b. must make decisions that can be justified in terms of existing provisions of the law. c. are prohibited from addressing issues without the permission of elected officials. d. are prohibited from taking into account the political consequences of a decision. k. must render rulings on all appeals. Answer: b Page: 417 36. As compared with the judicial appointees of Republican presidents, those of Democratic presidents have been more likely to be a. members of the opposite party. b. members of the opposite party but only in the case of appointees from the same region of the country as the president. c. women and minority-group members. d. lawyers. k. None of the answers are correct. Answer: c Page: 417 37. Compared to Supreme Court nominations, those for the lower federal courts a. are, although much greater in number, irrelevant to a president’s policy agenda. b. are not subject to partisan consideration. c. have a much greater probability of being rejected by the Senate. d. are not subject to senatorial courtesy. i. None of the answers are correct. Answer: e Page: 415 38. The constitutional provision that federal judges and justices hold office “during good behavior” has a. meant, in effect, that they will serve until they die or choose to retire. b. provided them the opportunity to carry out their duties without immediate fear of reprisal by the president or Congress. c. enabled presidents to influence judicial policy through their appointments long after they have left the White House. d. All of the answers are correct. k. None of the answers are correct. Answer: d Page: 404 39. The United States has two court systems, state and federal. The federal system a. has discretionary jurisdiction over all cases arising in the state system. b. is the only one with appellate courts. c. is the only one based on the constitutional doctrine of the separation of powers. d. is the only one that has judges who are appointed to office. l. None of the answers are correct. Answer: e Page: 411 40. The Supreme Court is most likely to grant a hearing when a case involves a. an issue of state law as opposed to an issue of federal law. b. an issue of private law as opposed to an issue of public law. c. an issue that is being decided inconsistently by the lower courts. d. the possibility that an innocent person has been wrongly convicted of a crime. l. an issue dealing with state constitutional law. Answer: c Page: 407 41. The Supreme Court has original jurisdiction in legal disputes involving a. one state government against another state government. b. the president. c. the Congress. d. private parties. l. free speech and the equal protection issues. Answer: a Page: 406 42. The Supreme Court invoked the in Bush v. Gore (2000). a. free speech clause b. establishment clause c. assembly clause d. voting clause l. equal protection clause Answer: e Page: 423 43. About percent of the nation’s legal cases are decided in state court systems. a. 10 b. 25 c. 50 d. 75 i. 95 Answer: e Page: 411 44. The lowest level of the federal court system is the a. circuit court of appeal. b. highest level of the state courts. c. district court. d. justice of the peace. l. supreme judicial tribunal. Answer: c Page: 409 45. The Missouri Plan applies to in the court system. a. selection of judges; federal b. selection of judges; state c. jurisdiction; federal d. jurisdiction; state l. None of the answers are correct. Answer: b Page: 411 46. The structure of the lower federal court system is established by a. Congress. b. the president. c. the Constitution. d. the Supreme Court. k. the Justice Department. Answer: a Page: 404 47. Opposition to the judiciary’s creative policy making role is a consistent tenet of judicial a. activism. b. liberalism. c. restraint. d. conservatism. l. relativism. Answer: c Page: 425 48. Most cases heard by the Supreme Court reach it under a. its original jurisdiction. b. a writ of certiorari. c. a per curiam decision. d. a writ of error. l. a writ of mandamus. Answer: b Page: 406 49. In selecting judges, states use what method? a. political appointment b. partisan election c. nonpartisan election d. merit selection h. All of the answers are correct. Answer: e Page: 411 50. Federal judges are a. nominated by the president. b. confirmed by the U.S. Senate. c. appointed for an indefinite period, providing they maintain “good behavior.” d. All of the answers are correct. q. None of the answers are correct. Answer: d Page: 413 51. Fewer than percent of the cases heard by federal appeals courts are later reviewed by the Supreme Court. a. 1 b. 10 c. 25 d. 33 m. 50 Answer: a Page: 410 52. Most of the judicial review rulings by the Supreme Court have involved actions by a. the president. b. Congress. c. federal agencies. d. international organizations, such as the U.N. k. the states. Answer: e Page: 425 Essay/Short Answer 1. What is meant by the term jurisdiction? What is the difference between original and appellate jurisdiction as it applies to the U.S. Supreme Court? Answer: A court’s jurisdiction is its authority to hear cases of a particular kind. Jurisdiction is determined partly by the stage of a legal dispute. Original jurisdiction is the authority to be the first court to hear a case. Such courts are called trial courts. Appellate jurisdiction is the authority to review cases that have already been tried in lower courts and are appealed to higher courts by the losing party; such courts are called appeals courts or appellate courts. The Supreme Court’s original jurisdiction includes legal disputes involving foreign diplomats or two or more states. However, the Supreme Court conducts nearly all of its work as an appellate court. Its appellate jurisdiction extends to cases arising under the Constitution, federal law, regulations, and treaties. 2. Describe the four types of U.S. Supreme Court opinions. Answer: A majority opinion is a written opinion of the majority of the Court’s justices stating the reasoning underlying its decision on a case. A plurality opinion is a written opinion that in the absence of a majority opinion presents the reasoning of most of the justices who decide in favor of the winning party. A concurring opinion is a written opinion of one or more justices who support the majority position but disagree with the majority’s reasoning on a case. A dissenting opinion is a written opinion of one or more of the justices who disagree with the majority’s decision and opinion. 3. Describe the relationship between the federal and the state court systems. Answer: As a consequence of the U.S. federal system of government, court cases can arise under either federal law or state law. Most cases fall under the latter; about 95 percent of the nation’s legal cases are decided in state courts. Cases that originate in state courts can be appealed to a federal court only if a federal issue is involved, which is usually not the case. When a federal court does become involved in a state case, it often confines itself to the federal aspects of the case. 4. What role does partisanship play in federal court appointments? Answer: Federal judges are political officials who exercise the authority of a separate and powerful branch of government. They bring their political views to office and have opportunities to promote these views. Accordingly, they are appointed through a partisan process. Presidents usually nominate a jurist of their own party to a federal court vacancy and, at times, partisanship has played a major part in the U.S. Senate’s confirmation or rejection of a controversial nominee. 5. Distinguish between the facts and the laws of a case. Discuss the three main sources of laws. Answer: The legal constraints on a court when hearing a case fall into two categories— the facts and the laws. The facts are the relevant circumstances of the particular case. The laws are the rules which apply in such instances. The laws can come from three sources. The first is the Constitution. The courts respect the purpose and intent of the Constitution and strive for reasonable interpretations of its provisions. The second is the interpretation of statutes. Most federal cases that the courts adjudicate arise under statutory law (enacted by Congress) and administrative regulations (developed by the bureaucracy from statutory provisions). The third is interpretation of precedent. Precedent is the English common-law tradition that a court’s decision on a case should be consistent with previous rulings. 6. Discuss the doctrines of judicial restraint and judicial activism. Answer: The doctrine of judicial restraint holds that the judiciary should be highly deferential to the judgment of legislatures. The restraint doctrine rests on a presumption that elected lawmakers are acting constitutionally and should have broad discretionary authority to decide public policy. The job of judges is to work within the confines of laws made by elected officials, seeking to discover their application to specific cases, rather than searching for new principles that essentially change these laws. Judicial restraint is based on two premises. First, when a court assumes policy functions that traditionally belong to elected institutions, the long term effect is to undermine the fundamental premise of self- government—the right of the majority to choose society’s policies. Second, if a court steps outside its proper bounds, its legitimacy may be threatened. Judicial activism is the idea that judges should take a broad view of judicial power and involve themselves extensively in interpreting the U.S. Constitution. According to this tradition, the courts should not be overly deferential to the elected branches of government; indeed, the courts should develop new principles when judges perceive a compelling need to do so, particularly in the realm of individual rights. In The Wealth of Nations (1776), Adam Smith made all of the following arguments for laissez- faire capitalism except a. the desire for profit is the invisible hand that guides a capitalist system. b. the government should not be allowed any role whatsoever in the economy. c. private firms should be left alone to make their production and distribution decisions. d. when demand for a good increases, producers will respond by increasing Answer: b Page: 442 production; when demand for a good falls, producers will cut back on its production. j. certain areas of the economy were better-run by government agencies. 2. Which of the following statements best describes the relationship today between government and the economy in the United States? a. The economy is largely self-regulating. b. The government subsidizes economic interests but otherwise leaves them to operate as they please. c. The government is the driving force in the U.S. economy; business has a secondary role. d. The government has an important role in regulating and maintaining the U.S. economy. q. The government owns most of the means of production in the United States. Answer: d Page: 443 3. The six stages of interactions between political actors that lead to the emergence and resolution of public policy issues is called a. the fiscal-policy process. b. the monetary-policy process. c. the budgetary process. d. the public-policy process. e. the governmental process. Answer: d Page: 438 4. Economic efficiency requires a. that the free market not be regulated by government. b. firms to fulfill as many of society’s needs by using as few of its resources as possible. c. the economy to be organized around large firms. d. economic transactions to be fair to each party. t. economic transactions to be equal to each party. Answer: b Page: 443 5. Regulation of the economy by the government for reasons of efficiency is justified when a. there is restraint of trade or monopoly. b. impure food or drugs are being sold. c. business bankruptcies hurt investors and consumers. d. there are disruptive labor strikes. s. All of the answers are correct. Answer: a Page: 444 6. The term externality refers to a. regulations imposed on a firm by government. b. a nation that is a trading partner of another nation. c. unpaid costs of production which are incurred by society. d. tariffs imposed on American goods exported to other countries. t. None of the answers are correct. Answer: c Page: 445 7. The key issue of regulatory policy is a. the great amount of paperwork (red tape). b. whether the costs imposed by regulation on business outweigh its potential benefits. c. whether corporate and consumer interests are equally represented on regulatory commissions. d. whether it has bipartisan support in Congress. p. whether the commissioners’ opinion about a policy is unanimous. Answer: b Page: 445 8. The Enron bankruptcy case of 2001 is evidence that a. the free-market principle has its limits. b. under-regulation can result in harmful business practices. c. some top executives engage in unethical practices. d. workers are vulnerable to unscrupulous executives. p. All of the answers are correct. Answer: e Page: 446 9. A ruling by the Food and Drug Administration that a drug is dangerous to use and therefore cannot be marketed is an example of regulation for the purpose of a. supply-side safety. b. demand-side safety. c. equity. d. efficiency. p. profit. Answer: c Page: 447 10. The era of New Social Regulation, which addressed issues such as the environment and worker safety, differed from the previous two eras of regulatory reform in that a. the Republican party took the lead in placing additional regulations on business. b. the aim was to regulate activities of firms of many types, not just those in a particular industry. c. the regulatory agencies were established in a way that prevented the president from having a role in their operations. d. the guiding principle was self-regulation—business was given wide leeway in deciding how it would comply with the new requirement. o. the guiding principle was overregulation—business would be allowed almost no leeway in deciding how it would comply with new regulations. Answer: b Page: 449 11. Government benefits for business include all of the following except a. low-interest loans and government-guaranteed loans. b. corporate tax breaks. c. a national transportation system. d. minimum-wage laws. n. corporate tax cuts. Answer: d Page: 456 12. Judged in the context of the full range of public policies, the government in the United States has been a. equally hostile to the interests of business and labor. b. equally supportive of the interests of business and labor. c. substantially more supportive of business than labor. d. substantially more supportive of labor than business. p. substantially more supportive of left-wing radicals than conservatives. Answer: c Page: 456 13. Government support for agriculture in the form of price supports and income subsidies is designed primarily to a. increase farm production in order to meet the nation’s food needs. b. stabilize farm income, which would otherwise fluctuate greatly due to market and weather conditions. c. promote farm conservation so as to preserve the productive capacity of U.S. agriculture. d. encourage rural development. p. encourage urban development. Answer: b Page: 457 14. Fiscal policy is a mechanism which the government employs to influence the economy. Fiscal policy is based on a. the idea that a balanced budget is the key to a healthy economy. b. the money supply. c. the government’s taxing and spending decisions. d. the importance of maintaining a 12-month (fiscal year) economic cycle. o. the projections of the Federal Reserve Board. Answer: c Page: 457 15. In John Maynard Keynes’ demand-side economic theory, an economic recession can be shortened through a. government spending programs. b. the natural workings of the free-market system. c. a lowering of tariffs in the global economy. d. a determination on the part of government not to spend any more than it receives in taxes. n. tax cuts for the wealthy. Answer: a Page: 458 16. Supply-side economics during the Ronald Reagan and George W. Bush presidencies included a. the supply component of the supply-demand equation. b. stressing the importance of tax cuts for businesses. c. stressing the importance of tax cuts for the wealthy. d. an increase in the size of the national debt. n. All of the answers are correct. Answer: e Page: 460 17. A fiscal-policy solution to inflation would be to a. increase government spending. b. lower tariffs and other barriers to trade. c. increase the tax rate. d. raise the discount rate. q. decrease the tax rate. Answer: c Page: 461 189. The stages of the public policy process normally develop in a particular order. Which of the following sequences has three of those stages in their usual chronological order? a. problem recognition, policy implementation, policy adoption. b. political transformation, policy adoption, policy evaluation. c. policy formulation, policy evaluation, policy adoption. d. political transformation, policy evaluation, problem recognition. r. problem recognition, policy evaluation, political transformation. Answer: c Page: 440 1920. In a recent global survey, the United States ranked ahead of in economic growth competitiveness. a. Great Britain b. Canada c. Germany d. Japan p. All of the answers are correct. Answer: e Page: 446 201. Monetary policy includes all of the following assumptions except a. control of the money supply is the key to sustaining a healthy economy. b. too little money in circulation contributes to inflation. c. too little money in circulation contributes to a slowdown in consumer buying. d. too little money in circulation contributes to a slowdown in production. o. too little money in circulation contributes to a slowdown in borrowing. Answer: b Page: 466 212. The Federal Reserve controls the money supply through the following action: a. buying or selling surplus agricultural goods. b. lowering or raising interest rates. c. lowering or raising tax rates. d. lowering or raising tariffs. e. lowering or raising government spending. Answer: b Page: 466 223. Monetary policy differs from fiscal policy in all respects except a. the decision-making process through which policy is made. b. the speed with which policy can be implemented. c. the extent to which the policymakers are subject to political pressure and accountability. d. the broad economic goals the policy is expected to promote. m. None of the answers are correct. Answer: d Page: 467 234. wrote Silent Spring in 1962. a. Al Gore b. George W. Bush c. Greenpeace d. Rachel Carson p. The Sierra Club Answer: d Page: 450 245. A major controversy surrounding the Federal Reserve’s role in economic policy is a. the Fed’s political accountability. b. whether the president should be able to veto the Fed’s decisions. c. the issue of competence. d. whether Congress should be able to reject the Fed’s decisions. n. None of the answers are correct. Answer: a Page: 467 256. Advocates of deregulation are primarily concerned with a. efficiency. b. equity. c. externalities. d. public safety. n. political expediency. Answer: a Page: 446 267. Which of the following is true about the Kyoto Agreement? a. The United States is the largest single producer of greenhouse emissions in the world. b. President George W. Bush refused to sign the accord. c. It established targets that countries would meet to help reduce carbon emissions. d. Senator John McCain supported it. o. All of the answers are correct. Answer: e Page: 454 278. President Franklin Roosevelt’s methods of restoring the economy’s health after the Depression were closest to the economic position of a. Adam Smith. b. John Maynard Keynes. c. Karl Marx. d. Alan Greenspan. n. Milton Friedman. Answer: b Page: 457 289. Why did the federal surplus disappear after 2001? a. economic downturn b. costs associated with the war on terrorism c. cut in federal taxes d. All of the answers are correct. m. None of the answers are correct. Answer: d Page: 459 2930. If the economic problem is low productivity and high unemployment, the fiscal policy action on the demand side would be to a. increase taxes. b. cut business taxes. c. increase spending. d. decrease spending. p. None of the answers are correct. Answer: c Page: 458 31. Historically, a first step taken by the government toward the regulation of business trusts was the a. Taft-Hartley Act. b. Sherman Anti-Trust Act. c. Environmental Protection Act. d. Mann-Elkins Act. i. Homestead Act. Answer: b 302. In terms of the contribution of individual income taxes and corporate income taxes to the federal government’s revenues, it is accurate to say a. at one time, corporate income taxes and personal income taxes contributed almost equally to government revenues. b. today, corporate income taxes contribute substantially more to government revenues than individual income taxes do. c. today, individual income taxes contribute substantially more to government revenues than corporate income taxes do. d. at one time, corporate income taxes and personal income taxes contributed almost equally to government revenues; today, corporate income taxes contribute substantially more to government revenues than individual income taxes do. e. at one time, corporate income taxes and personal income taxes contributed almost equally to government revenues; today, individual income taxes contribute substantially more to government revenues than corporate income taxes do. Answer: e Page: 456 313. assists the president in creating the annual budgetary proposal to Congress. a. The U.S. Treasury Department b. The Federal Reserve Board c. The Congressional Budget Office d. The Council of Economic Advisers j. The Office of Management and Budget Answer: e Page: 462 324. Democrats in Washington have usually responded to high levels of unemployment with a. reduced government spending. b. increased government spending. c. increased government taxes. d. decreased government taxes. l. decreased government regulation. Answer: b Page: 465 335. Which is true regarding the nation’s environmental policy? a. The first major steps by the national government to clean up the environment began in the early 1900s. b. A majority of the public is sympathetic with the goals of environmentalism. c. The modern environmental movement gained impetus with the publication of Armageddon in 1949. d. In the 1960s, the government began a policy of land conservation through the creation of national parks. j. Residents of most neighborhoods are eager to have waste dumps and other such facilities in their neighborhoods because of the high-paying jobs that accompanying these facilities. Answer: b Page: 450 346. Which of the following is correct about environmental policy? a. The national parks are subject to a dual-use policy of preservation and the extraction of timber, oil, and other natural resources. b. The Environmental Protection Agency was elevated to cabinet status in 1998 by President Clinton and the Republican Congress. c. Environmental regulation has done little to improve air and water quality. d. Policymakers always give more consideration to environmental protection than to economic development when the two conflict. l. None of the answers are correct. Answer: a Page: 451 357. The established minimum wages, maximum working hours, and constraints on the use of child labor. a. Securities and Exchange Act of 1934 b. Banking Act of 1934 c. Airlines Deregulation Act of 1977 d. Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938 m. Homestead Act of 1862 Answer: d Page: 447 368. The Fed is a preeminent example of politics at work. a. pluralist b. elitist c. majoritarian d. Republican m. Democratic Answer: b Page: 467 379. What effect have environmental regulations had on the quality of the environment? a. The environment is no better than it was during the 1960s. b. The environment is actually worse than it was during the 1960s. c. The environment is much cleaner now than it was during the 1960s. d. The environment is now so free of pollution that further regulatory activity would not be cost-effective. i. None of the answers are correct. Answer: c Page: 453 3840. In general, the rate of inflation during the past two decades has a. been high enough that it has continually hurt economic growth. b. been quite high, but not so high as to cripple the economy. c. stayed at about the level that policymakers want it to be. d. been so low that policymakers have worried that an economic depression could occur. j. been so low that capital markets have suffered substantially. Answer: c Page: 461 3941. The Federal Reserve System a. is run by the Office of Management and Budget. b. is run by the Congressional Budget Office. c. regulates only national banks. d. was created specifically to conduct fiscal policy. m. None of the answers are correct. Answer: e Page: 466 402. Earth Day was the brainchild of Senator a. Ted Kennedy. b. Robert Byrd. c. Mike Mansfield. d. Ted Stevens. l. Gaylord Nelson Answer: e Page: 452 413. Keynesian economics emphasizes as a means of stimulating the economy in order to bring about the end of an economic recession or depression. a. reduced taxes b. increased government spending c. decreased regulation d. decreased inflation m. increased taxes Answer: b Page: 458 424. Supply-side economics is based primarily on a. stimulation of the business (supply) component. b. government stimulation of consumer demands. c. a repudiation of trickle-down theory. d. increases in taxation. m. increases in government regulation. Answer: a Page: 460 435. The Federal Reserve is most directly charged with establishing policy. a. monetary b. military c. fiscal d. budgetary k. security Answer: a Page: 467 446. Which country produces the largest proportion of the world’s greenhouse gas emissions, which are a cause of global warming? a. Brazil b. Russia c. China d. United States r. India Answer: d Page: 454 457. The first national park was created at in 1872. a. Acadia b. Yellowstone c. Yosemite d. Mammoth Cave l. the Grand Canyon Answer: b Page: 450 468. The tax cut signed by President George W. Bush in 2001 was premised largely on a. demand-side economics. b. supply-side economics. c. fiscal policy. d. monetary policy. h. Keynesian economics. Answer: b Page: 460 Essay/Short Answer 1. Describe the major differences between the laissez-faire and collectivist models of economics. Answer: Laissez-faire capitalism holds that private individuals and firms should be left alone to make their own production and distribution decisions. As argued by Adam Smith in The Wealth of Nations (1776), demand for a good or service will result in it being provided by the private sector, while a decline in demand will result in a cutback in supply. The incentive that drives this process is profit. According to Smith, the desire for profit is the invisible hand that guides the private economic system toward the greatest wealth for all. Karl Marx wrote Das Kapital in 1867 and in it advocated a collectivist economy. Marx believed that the capitalist system is exploitive because producers, through their control of production and markets, can compel workers to labor at a wage below the value they add to production. To end the exploitation of labor (the proletariat) by the capitalist producers (or bourgeoisie), the workers needed to own and control the means of production. In theory, Marxism would have the effect of ensuring that the economy functioned in the interest of all citizens equally. No country today has either a pure free-market economy or a pure collectivist economy, although countries vary substantially in their mix. The United States tends strongly toward the private side. 2. Explain the difference between economic efficiency and economic equity as principles that justify government regulation of the economy. Answer: An economy is a system of production and consumption of goods and services allocated through exchange. Economic efficiency requires firms to fulfill as many of society’s needs as possible by using as few of its resources as possible. Economic equity occurs when an economic transaction is fair to each party. A transaction can be considered fair if each party enters into it freely and is not unknowingly at a disadvantage. These principles can be the basis of government regulation. Government should intervene when necessary to enhance efficiency, as in the case of monopolistic competition in which a firm’s domination of the market enables it to produce and sell goods inefficiently. Government should also intervene to enhance equity. For example, in the case of a prescription drug company where the consumer is not in a position to determine whether a firm’s claims about the drug’s safety are valid, society must therefore rely upon government regulations. Laws that prevent monopolistic practices or impose drug-safety standards on pharmaceutical firms are examples of regulation for purposes of efficiency and equity respectively. 3. Define the term fiscal policy and explain how fiscal policy can be used in response to economic conditions. Answer: The government’s efforts to maintain a stable economy are made mainly through its taxing and spending decisions, which together are referred to as its fiscal policy. The main school of thought associated with fiscal policy is demand-side economics, which originated in the theories of economist John Maynard Keynes. In different forms, demand-side economics has influenced government policy since the New Deal programs of Franklin D. Roosevelt in the 1930s. When there is an economic downturn, government can increase its spending or cut individual taxes as a means of stimulating consumer (demand-side) spending. When the economy is inflationary, the opposite actions can be taken as a way of dampening consumer demand. Fiscal policy can also take a supply-side form, as it did in part during the Reagan years. Supply-side emphasizes business production and investment. The economy can be stimulated through a reduction in taxes on firms and high-income individuals. 4. Define the term monetary policy, and describe two ways the Fed implements monetary policy. Answer: Monetary policy is based on manipulation of the amount of money in circulation. Monetarists believe in tightening or loosening the money supply as a way of slowing or invigorating the economy. Economist Milton Friedman is a proponent of monetarism. Control of the money supply rests with the Federal Reserve System, or the Fed for short. The Fed can influence monetary policy by lowering or raising the interest charged when member banks borrow money from their regional Federal Reserve Bank and by raising or lowering the cash reserve that member banks are required to deposit with the regional Federal Reserve banks. 5. Define the public-policy process and identify and discuss the six stages in that process. Answer: The public-policy process consists of the interactions of political actors that leads to the emergence and resolution of public policy issues. Scholars have identified six stages in the process; the first two stages relate to the emergence of issues and the last four to their resolution. During the problem recognition phase, a particular condition comes to be seen as a public problem. An example is obesity, which was seen as strictly a personal issue until recently. Political transformation is the second stage in the policy process. It is the stage at which a policy problem becomes a political issue. As issues arise in the policy process, politicians and policy analysts bring forward ideas and proposals for how to handle them; this is the policy formulation stage. Even a well- formulated policy proposal is not assured of emerging successfully from the policy adoption stage. After a policy is adopted, the policy process enters the policy implementation stage. Bureaucrats and judges are the key actors at this stage. They decide how policy will be administered and interpreted. The final stage of the policy process—the policy evaluation stage—is when the effort is made to determine how well a program is working. Policy problems do not in every case progress stepwise through the six stages outlined here. But each stage is a relatively distinct component of the public- policy process. The U.S. social welfare system differs markedly from those of West European democracies, a situation that is attributable primarily to America’s a. cultural emphasis on individualism and federal system of government. b. greater wealth and cultural emphasis on charitable acts. c. weak party system and separation of executive and legislative power. d. egalitarian ethos and pluralist group system. k. dependence on foreign oil. Answer: a Page: 485 2. The poverty line is defined as a. the income level below which 10 percent of the American people live. b. three times the annual cost of a thrifty food budget for an urban family of four. c. the annual cost of all goods and services that a person can reasonably be expected to want. d. the percentage of homeless people. r. the income level below which 20 percent of the American people live. Answer: b Page: 475 3. According to survey data, the form of assistance that Americans favor the most to help the poor is a. money. b. education and job training. c. government jobs through government programs. d. government services for the poor. q. public assistance. Answer: b Page: 489 4. has the highest child poverty rate among the major industrialized nations. a. Sweden b. Norway c. France d. Germany u. The United States Answer: e Page: 477 5. The largest proportion of Americans living below the poverty line are a. African Americans. b. the elderly. c. Latino Americans. d. children and their divorced, separated, or unmarried mothers. t. white males. Answer: d Page: 476 6. Poverty is a condition that today affects roughly one in Americans. a. two b. three c. nineeight d. fifty u. one hundred Answer: c Page: 476 7. In his book, Losing Ground, Charles Murray argues that a. welfare reform can only be enacted through a new war on poverty. b. welfare programs should be modeled after European models and not kept in their current form. c. welfare programs create a foundation for a permanent underclass of unproductive people. d. welfare programs should be based on the principle of efficiency, not the principle of equity. q. welfare programs should be terminated completely. Answer: c Page: 476 8. was terminated in 1996 and replaced by the Temporary Assistance for Needy Families (TANF) program. a. The Food Stamp program b. Medicaid c. Medicare d. SSI q. AFDC Answer: e Page: 483 9. The term entitlement refers to a program a. which provides indirect payments to individuals, such as funding for public schools. b. designed specifically to alleviate the hardships of old age. c. where any individual who meets the eligibility criteria is entitled to receive the benefit. d. of social welfare for which citizenship is the only criterion of eligibility. q. None of the answers are correct. Answer: c Page: 480 10. The EITC (Earned Income Tax Credit) represents a reallocation of income to a. wealthy individuals. b. lower-income workers. c. middle-class taxpayers. d. corporations. p. all working families. Answer: b Page: 489 11. Franklin D. Roosevelt’s New Deal reflected the concept of positive government, meaning a. that the New Deal gave Americans an optimistic outlook. b. that the New Deal helped the United States to balance its budget. c. that government intervention helped people to attain a greater degree of individual freedom and security at a time when economic insecurity was widespread. d. that the federal government take over policies from the states. o. That President Roosevelt himself was optimistic, using his radio broadcasts to bolster Americans’ spirits. Answer: c Page: 478 12. The defining characteristic of a social insurance program is that a. eligibility for the program’s benefits is confined to those who pay the special taxes that fund the program. b. it is administered jointly by the national government and the states. c. it is targeted at those who are most in need of welfare assistance. d. it is administered through private insurance companies. q. None of the answers are correct. Answer: a Page: 480 13. Social insurance programs have high levels of public support because a. of their self-financing feature. b. they are based on an equality principle—all citizens are eligible for the benefits and all recipients receive the same level of benefits. c. their cost is consistently below the spending level for public assistance programs. d. of the necessity of increased taxes to fund them. q. None of the answers are correct. Answer: a Page: 480 14. The Social Security benefits that today’s retirees receive are funded primarily by a. tax contributions they made in the past and which were put in a trust fund from which current payments are made. b. payroll taxes on people who are currently working. c. equal contributions from the national and state governments. d. borrowed funds, which contribute to the national debt. p. None of the answers are correct. Answer: b Page: 480 15. The term “means test” refers to a. the tax on a portion of the Social Security benefits of upper-income retirees. b. whether an applicant’s income is low enough to qualify for public assistance. c. the mandatory physical examination that Medicare and Medicaid applicants must undergo before they can receive benefits. d. the mandatory psychological examination that Medicare and Medicaid applicants must undergo before they can receive benefits. o. None of the answers are correct. Answer: b Page: 482 16. was called the great leveler when it began in the early nineteenth century. a. Social welfare b. Public education c. The federal government d. The Internal Revenue Service g. Social Security Answer: b Page: 491 17. The Aid to Families with Dependent Children (AFDC) program was unpopular because of a. the public perception that it contributed to welfare dependency and irresponsibility. b. lack of public concern for child welfare. c. public opposition to locally administered welfare programs. d. public opposition to welfare programs for the needy. s. None of the answers are correct. Answer: a Page: 482 18. Criticism of the food stamp program occurs because it a. is costly to taxpayers. b. stigmatizes its users by identifying them publicly as welfare cases. c. is based on need and therefore is not earned. d. requires a costly bureaucracy for its administration. p. All of the answers are correct. Answer: e Page: 484 19. All of the following are true statements about Medicaid except a. it is a public assistance program. b. it is funded by general tax revenues. c. it serves all Americans who cannot afford health insurance. d. it is controversial due to its cost. p. it is funded by both the federal government and the states. Answer: c Page: 485 20. President Franklin Roosevelt’s greatest domestic policy legacy is a. Medicare. b. Medicaid. c. SSI. d. AFDC. q. Social Security. Answer: e Page: 478 21. In terms of its educational system, the United States ranks at the top in terms of a. per-capita spending on public education. b. proportion of adults receiving a college education. c. performance of its students on standardized tests. d. All of the answers are correct. p. None of the answers are correct. Answer: d Page: 490 22. More than 90 percent of the funding for K-12 public education comes from a. the federal government. b. the state governments only. c. local governments only. d. state and local governments combined. o. private sources. Answer: d Page: 490 23. Which of the following statements is true concerning American public opinion on school vouchers? a. Americans are divided in their opinions on school vouchers. b. Americans strongly support school vouchers. c. Americans strongly oppose school vouchers. d. Most Americans have never heard of school vouchers. n. Americans favor higher taxes to pay for vouchers. Answer: a Page: 492 24. persuaded Congress to enact the No Child Left Behind Act. a. President Ronald Reagan b. President Bill Clinton c. President George W. Bush d. Vice President Al Gore i. Vice President Dan Quayle Answer: c Page: 493 25. The primary reason that the existence of Social Security greatly lessens the demand for other forms of social welfare is that a. Social Security is so popular that many people believe other welfare programs are neither necessary nor desirable. b. the anticipation of Social Security benefits upon retirement leads many people who need public assistance to believe there is a better life ahead if they will only wait for it. c. Social Security checks keep millions of elderly Americans with no other substantial source of income out of poverty. d. the incentive of Social Security benefits upon retirement encourages individuals to work during their productive years, which reduces the need for other forms of social welfare, such as unemployment benefits. o. None of the answers are correct. Answer: c Page: 486 26. Compared to tax policy in Western European democracies, tax policy in the United States shifts a. a substantially greater portion of income from the rich to the poor. b. a slightly greater portion of income from the rich to the poor. c. about the same portion of income from the rich to the poor. d. a smaller portion of income from the rich to the poor. o. no income from the rich to the poor. Answer: d Page: 486 27. Studies indicate that most unemployed American workers lost or left their jobs because a. they are lazy. b. of economic slowdowns and corporate restructuring. c. they are undereducated for the work they are doing. d. they wanted to be out of work in order to collect unemployment benefits. p. they were not getting paid enough to cover their job-related expenses. Answer: b Page: 481 28. Welfare policy in the United States a. is an issue that frequently divides the two political parties. b. is based entirely on the principle of need. c. is entirely a federal issue. d. is entirely a state issue. o. has changed very little during the nation’s history. Answer: a Page: 478 29. The TANF program must operate within all the following guidelines except a. states have no discretion in their handling of welfare cases. b. eligibility for cash assistance is limited to no more than five years in a lifetime. c. within two years, the heads of most families on welfare have to find work or risk the loss of benefits. d. unmarried teenage mothers are qualified for welfare benefits only if they remain in school and live with a parent or legal guardian. n. single mothers will lose a portion of their benefits if they refuse to cooperate in identifying the father of their children. Answer: a Page: 483 30. Which of the following is a true statement about the visibility of poverty in American society today? a. Media coverage often focuses on the plight of the poor in America. b. In polls each year, Americans identify the problem of poverty as one of the nation’s top three problems. c. Poverty is less visible in theto residents of the suburbs than in inner cities or rural areas. d. Poverty has been virtually eliminated in the United States. l. Poverty is most apparent in the case of elderly Americans. Answer: c Page: 476 31. Which of the following social welfare programs was supported by a majority of congressional Republicans at the time of enactment? a. the 1965 Medicare program b. the Social Security Act of 1935 c. the 1965 Medicaid program d. the 1995 Welfare Reform Act k. None of the answers are correct. Answer: d Page: 478 32. orchestrated the Great Society programs of the 1960s. a. Franklin Roosevelt b. John Kennedy m. Dwight Eisenhower d. Richard Nixon k. Lyndon Johnson Answer: e Page: 478 33. Which of the following is true regarding income patterns in America? a. The income of the average American family exceeds $100,000. b. The top fifth of Americans in terms of income receive half of the total income in the nation. c. The bottom fifth of Americans get only slightly less than 20 percent of total national income. d. The United States has the lowest amount of income inequality of any industrialized democracy. m. U.S. tax policy is designed to transfer a large proportion of the nation’s wealth from richer Americans to poorer ones. Answer: b Page: 487 34. The major reason why Social Security is likely to be a focus of reform is because a. many Americans are leaving the system in favor of private retirement plans. b. Republicans wish to eliminate the system entirely while Democrats wish to save it. c. at some point in the future, the number of workers will be insufficient to provide enough Social Security tax revenue to pay the benefits due to eligible retirees. d. it is a very unpopular program. n. All of the answers are correct. Answer: c Page: 480 35. The Medicare program provides health benefits to a. the unemployed. b. children. c. all retirees. d. only retirees who have reached the age of eligibility and paid the payroll taxes that are required for eligibility to receive the benefit. n. low-income family members. Answer: d Page: 481 36. The American preference for equality of opportunity is consistent with Americans’ a. trust in the marketplace. b. belief in liberty. c. support for competition in the private sector. d. belief in individualism. m. All of the answers are correct. Answer: e Page: 494 37. The War on Poverty was waged by President a. Dwight Eisenhower. b. George H.W. Bush. c. Richard Nixon. d. Jimmy Carter. m. Lyndon Johnson. Answer: e 378. Of the following, which is likely the least criticized public assistance program? a. Supplemental Security Income b. Aid to Families with Dependent Children c. Food Stamps d. Medicaid m. housing subsidies Answer: a Page: 482 389. Most social welfare programs are a. run jointly by federal and state governments. b. uniform throughout the states. c. fully supported by the Americans. d. managed entirely by the federal government. m. managed through the partnership of governments and private charities. Answer: a Page: 482 3940. is an example of an in-kind benefit. a. The Food Stamp program b. Social Security c. Unemployment insurance d. Supplemental Security Income n. None of the answers are correct. Answer: a Page: 484 401. In contrast with Medicare, the Medicaid program is a. a public assistance program. b. funded totally by the states. c. funded by payroll taxes. d. very popular with the general public. l. designed to provide health coverage to all Americans who lack health insurance. Answer: a Page: 485 412. The program that replaced the sixty-one-year-old federal guarantee of aid to the poor was a. SSI b. Medicaid c. TANF. d. food stamps. s. housing vouchers. Answer: c Page: 483 423. A recent poll determined that Americans believe that public assistance programs for the poor are the second-costliest federal program. How accurate is this perception? a. Public assistance programs are in fact the second-costliest federal program. b. Public assistance programs are the costliest federal program. c. Public assistance programs are not the costliest or second-costliest federal program but are among the five costliest programs. d. Public assistance programs are not among the five costliest programs but are the most costly of the social welfare programs, which also include Social Security and Medicaid. n. None of the above answers are correct. Answer: e Page: 482 435. All of the following are true of the Head Start program except that it a. began as part of the War on Poverty in the 1960s. b. has helped disadvantaged children develop their learning skills. c. has been weakened by children’s unsupportive environments at home. d. is fully funded at the present time. g. is designed to assist preschool children. Answer: d Page: 489 4451. The success of the No Child Left Behind Program has been hampered by a. inadequate funding b. President George W. Bush’s opposition to the program. c. opposition from Republicans in Congress. d. the fact that America’s school children already perform at a level that exceed the standards set by the program. k. the fact that it does not apply to religious schools. Answer: a Page: 493 Essay/Short Answer 1. The American welfare system is widely criticized for being inefficient. Explain this criticism and describe the underlying causes of inefficiency. Answer: Inefficiency refers to the fact that much of the money spent on welfare never reaches the recipients. Inefficiency arises from the enormous size and complexity of the social welfare system which is designed to address many different and often overlapping needs. The country’s individualistic culture also leads to inefficiency because a highly labor-intensive and expensive system must be constructed to ensure that recipients actually earn or deserve the benefits that they will receive. 2. Discuss what is meant by a social-insurance program and provide examples. Answer: Social-insurance programs are those programs in which recipients attain eligibility for benefits through special payroll taxes when they were employed. The self- financing feature of these programs accounts for their strong public support. The premier social insurance program is Social Security for retirees, and it enjoys widespread public support. Most people get far more out of Social Security than they pay into it. Consequently, it is necessary to use contributions from the current work force to finance the program. Unemployment insurance is another social-insurance program, and it provides unemployment benefits for workers who have lost their jobs involuntarily. This is a joint federal-state program. While the federal government collects the funds through payroll taxes, the states set the tax rate, conditions of eligibility, and benefit level, subject to minimum federal levels. A third social-insurance program is Medicare. This program provides medical assistance to retirees and is funded primarily through payroll taxes. Since it is based on an insurance principle, Medicare is popular with most Americans. 3. Discuss what is meant by a public-assistance program and provide examples. Answer: Public-assistance programs are funded through general tax revenues and are available only to the financially needy. Eligibility for such programs is established by a means test, which is a demonstration that the applicant has a genuine economic need for the benefit. In short, applicants for public assistance must prove that they are poor. Such assistance is usually termed welfare and its recipients as welfare cases. Public-assistance programs have much less public support than social insurance programs, due in part to a cultural bias against government handouts. Five examples of public-assistance programs are Supplemental Security Income (SSI), the former Aid to Families with Dependent Children (AFDC), food stamps, subsidized housing, and Medicaid. 4. What is meant by the poverty line? Which Americans are most likely to live in a household with an income below the poverty line? Why is poverty in America somewhat invisible even though it is relatively widespread? Answer: The government defines the poverty line as three times the annual cost of a thrifty food budget for an urban family of four. Families whose incomes fall below that line are officially considered poor. Poverty is most prevalent among families headed by a single woman. These single-mother families constitute more than half of all Americans living below the poverty line. Also, poverty is high among minority-group members and in urban areas. Because the white-dominated suburbs are relatively safe from poverty, the problem of poverty if often called invisible. Although there are millions of poor, many Americans do not consider poverty to be a substantial national problem because they are unfamiliar with it, personally, or in their neighborhoods. The foundation for U.S. policy toward the Soviet Union after World War II was a. détente. b. unilateralism. c. containment. d. internationalism. l. isolationism. Answer: c Page: 502 2. declared that an iron curtain had fallen across Europe. a. Winston Churchill b. Harry Truman c. Joseph Stalin d. Neville Chamberlain s. Dwight Eisenhower Answer: a Page: 502 3. The basis for containment policy was the assumption that a. the territorial and ideological ambitions of an aggressor nation can only be blocked by determined opposition. b. the spread of nuclear weapons is a danger to the world and must be stopped. c. economic trade should be tailored to benefit the full industrialized nations through the formation of economic communities. d. an arms race will inevitably escalate and therefore must be stopped through negotiations at an early stage. r. terrorism can be contained within a few countries. Answer: a Page: 502 4. The U.S. lesson learned from the Vietnam War was that a. public opinion could be ignored by leaders during wartime. b. nuclear weapons had utility in a war of insurgency. c. there were limits on America’s ability to get its own way in the world. d. the national interest of the United States required a total disengagement from Asian affairs. v. a relentless bombing campaign can force an enemy to concede defeat. Answer: c Page: 502 5. Regarding Soviet foreign policy, President Harry Truman believed that the Soviet Union was a. a global threat. b. a regional threat. c. not a threat to its neighbors, Europe, or the United States. d. likely to evolve into a true democracy within a decade. t. a threat to its own people. Answer: a Page: 502. 6. In 2002, President George W. Bush labeled an axis of evil. a. Cuba, China, and Vietnam b. Ethiopia, Somalia, and Libya c. Russia, China, and North Korea d. Saudi Arabia, Syria, and Jordan v. Iraq, Iran, and North Korea Answer: e Page: 506 7. The idea that major nations should act together in response to problems and crises is called a. the one-world concept. b. détente. c. multilateralism. d. internationalism. r. containment. Answer: c Page: 504 8. described the Soviet Union as an evil empire. a. Richard Nixon b. Ronald Reagan c. Bill Clinton d. Jimmy Carter r. Gerald Ford Answer: b Page: 503 9. Which of the following is true about the Iraqi War of 2003? a. The war made the United States more popular in the Arab states. b. The war made the United States more popular in ItalyGreat Britain. c. The war made the United States more popular in France. d. The war made the United States more popular in Germany. r. None of the answers are correct. Answer: e Page: 507 10. When President George H. W. Bush called for “a new world order,” he had in mind a. preemption b. containment c. multilateralism d. deterrence n. unilateralism Answer: c Page: 503 11. Regarding assistance to developing nations, which of the following countries ranks lowest in terms of per-capita expenditures? a. Canada b. Denmark c. France d. the United States p. Great Britain Answer: d Page: 521 12. The United States has had an active policy role in which of the following international organizations? a. World Bank b. World Trade Organization (WTO) c. International Monetary Fund (IMF) d. United Nations (UN) r. All of the answers are correct. Answer: e Page: 500 13. The policy of deterrence is based on the idea that a. when threatened, a nation should strike first so that its enemy is deprived of the option of a surprise attack. b. economic links with another country will deter it from aggression. c. modern warfare requires a flexible response policy. d. the best protection against attack by an enemy is the capacity to retaliate with a devastating attack of one’s own. r. preemptive strikes on one nation will persuade other nations that hostile actions directed at the United States will be punished. Answer: d Page: 509 14. Since the Cold War ended, U.S. policymakers’ concern with nuclear weaponry has shifted to a. the possibility of a computer error in the U.S. or former Soviet weapons systems that could mistakenly launch a nuclear missile. b. the spread of nuclear technology to irresponsible regimes and terrorists. c. the use of a tactical nuclear weapon in ethnic conflicts in eastern Europe. d. the possibility that, in the process of dismantling the U.S. and former Soviet arsenals, a nuclear warhead could be accidentally detonated. q. the spread of nuclear technology to NATO forces. Answer: b Page: 510 15. What president warned of the consequences of the military-industrial complex? a. Dwight Eisenhower b. Richard Nixon c. John F. Kennedy d. Ronald Reagan n. Jimmy Carter Answer: a Page: 513 16. account for more than half of the economy of the European Union. a. Scotland, Ireland, and Great Britain b. Italy, Spain, and Russia c. Sweden, Denmark, and Finland d. Great Britain, France, and Germany o. Great Britain, Denmark, Norway Answer: d Page: 515 17. led the communist takeover of China in 1949. a. Mikhail Gorbachev b. Jiang Zemin c. Chiang Kai-Shek d. Mao Zedong t. Kim Jong Il Answer: d Page: 502 18. The military-industrial complex a. consists of an alliance of the military and industry, which is pitted against officials in Congress and the executive branch. b. is blamed for high levels of defense spending, although no one knows exactly what proportion of that spending reflects its influence. c. was specifically mentioned and condemned in Harry S Truman’s Farewell Address. d. All of the answers are correct. q. None of the answers are correct. Answer: b Page: 514 19. The broad goals of the United States in the global economy include a. maintaining access to world energy and other vital resources. b. sustaining an open system of trade that will promote domestic prosperity. c. keeping the widening gap between the rich and poor countries from destabilizing the global economy. d. All of the answers are correct. q. None of the answers are correct. Answer: d Page: 515 20. The Marshall Plan was designed to a. confront the Soviet Union’s military and political threat to West Europe. b. economically rebuild West Europe. c. provide a West European market for U.S. goods. d. feed and shelter the destitute from World War II. r. All of the answers are correct. Answer: e Page: 514 21. Defense spending per capita is highest in a. the United States. b. Great Britain. c. Japan. d. France. m. Germany. Answer: a Page: 510 22. Which of the following is true about the trade imbalance in the United States? a. The United States has not had a trade surplus since 1975. b. The United States has run deficits of more than $5400 billion in recent years. c. The United States has the worst trade imbalance of the top three economic centers. d. All of the answers are correct. p. None of the answers are correct. Answer: d Page: 515 23. What is the lesson of Munich? a. Economics is more important than military might. b. Military might is more important than economics. c. Appeasement only encourages further aggression. d. Containment is not a plausible foreign policy. o. The United States should not act alone in dealing with international threats. Answer: c Page: 502 24. All of the following countries except opposed America’s invasion of Iraq in 2003. a. Great Britain b. Germany c. France d. Belgium j. Russia Answer: a Page: 506 25. About the position of the United States in world trade, it can be said that a. the United States has never had a trade surplus. b. in recent years, the United States has had trade surpluses more than deficits. c. the United States has the most favorable balance of trade in the world. d. the United States is a larger market than the European Union. e. None of the answers are correct. Answer: e Page: 515 26. The term that most accurately describes the international economy today is a. unilateralism. b. isolationism. c. interdependence. d. protectionism. p. imbalanced. Answer: c Page: 518 27. The phrase that best describes the shift in America’s world position from the pre- to the post-World War II eras is a. internationalism to isolationism. b. isolationism to internationalism. c. containment to isolationism. d. interventionism to isolationism. o. Interventionism to internationalism. Answer: b Page: 501 28. Which of the following is a true statement regarding the Cold War? a. It never became an actual shooting war between the United States and the Soviet Union. b. It was an extension of containment policy. c. It included U.S. support for governments being threatened by communism. d. The global power structure was bipolar. q. All of the answers are correct. Answer: e Page: 502 29. took a historic journey to the People’s Republic of China in 1972. a. Lyndon Johnson b. Hubert Humphrey c. George McGovern d. Richard Nixon n. Cyrus Vance Answer: d Page: 503 30. Which war was most costly in terms of the number of U.S. soldiers who lost their lives? a. Korean War b. Vietnam War c. Persian Gulf War d. Kosovo War k. Iraq War Answer: b Page: 502 31. Which country, in terms of balance of trade and future competition, are, U.S. policymakers most worried about? a. Mexico b. China c. Brazil d. India m. Russia Answer: b Page: 519 32. was created to coordinate domestic efforts to protect the United States against terrorist attacks and threats. a. The Department of Homeland Security b. The CIA c. The FBI d. The National Security Council l. The State Department Answer: a Page: 505 33. One reason why the Soviet Union eventually collapsed was its a. heavy defense expenditures. b. isolation from Western markets. c. inefficient centralized command economy. d. inability to keep up with Western technological advances. l. All of the answers are correct. Answer: e Page: 503 34. The tripolar economic world consists of a. the United States, Canada, and Mexico. b. Japan, China, and the United States. c. the United States, Japan and China, and the European Union. d. the United States, Russia, and Brazil. j. North and South America, Europe, and Asia. Answer: c Page: 515 35. Which is a true statement about the 1990–1991 Gulf War? a. It was a successful military operation. b. It resolved the regional conflicts that prompted the original aggression by Iraq. c. It was waged entirely by U.S. military forces. d. It created a fiscal crisis because of the financial burden it placed on the United States. l. It was opposed by most Arab nations. Answer: a Page: 504 367. U. S. foreign-aid expenditures account for about percent of the federal budget. a. 50 b. 33 c. 20 d. 10 i. 1 Answer: e Page: 521 378. The nuclear triad consists of a. land-based missiles, long-range bombers, and tactical nuclear weapons. b. long-range bombers, jet fighters, and submarine-based missiles. c. land-based missiles, submarine-based missiles, and long-range bombers. d. long-range bombers, land-based missiles, and cruise missiles. n. None of the answers are correct. Answer: c Page: 509 389. When it comes to foreign trade, most of the protectionist sentiment is usually found in a. the White House. b. Congress. c. multinational corporations headquartered in the United States. d. the bureaucracies. n. the State Department. Answer: b Page: 518 39.40, In regard to the Iraq conflict, the United States a. has been able to count on its traditional allies for troops and money for the war. b. has been able to count on its traditional allies for troops but not money. c. has been able to count on its traditional allies for money but not troops. d. has borne the very large share of military casualties and money costs of the war. e. has had financial support from the Arab states although they have publicly stated their opposition to the war in Iraq. Answer: d Page: 509 401. In declaring his preemptive war doctrine in 2002, President George W. Bush said a. that he would place more emphasis on intelligence-gathering in the war on terrorism as a way of preempting the use of military force. b. that he would place more emphasis on law enforcement in the war on terrorism as a way of preempting the use of military force. c. that he would place more emphasis on the Department of Homeland Security in order to preempt the use of military force. d. that the United States would no longer wait to be attacked or until an attack was imminent to wage war on any country that was a grave threat to the United States. j. that increased multilateralism would preempt the need to use military force. Answer: d Page: 506 412. In a 2006 jointly issued report, U.S. intelligence agencies concluded that the Iraq conflict a. would end successfully within a two-year period. b. would end in the defeat of U.S. forces. c. would end successfully only if Iraq was divided into three countries, one for each of its main groups—the Kurds, Sunnis, and Shiites. d. had increased the number of terrorists and the terrorist threat worldwide. k. had strengthened America’s strategic position in the world. Answer: d Page: 522 Essay/Short Answer 1. Discuss the relative strengths and weaknesses of the U.S. economy relative to those of leading competitor nations. Answer: The United States has the largest domestic market of any country in the world. It also has a balanced economy—it is strong in terms of industry, agriculture, and natural resources. Finally, the United States has a strong military to protect its economic interests. On the other hand, the United States has a very large national debt, a substantial trade deficit, and a large credit deficit. 2. Describe the military-industrial complex and discuss its influence on defense spending. Answer: The military-industrial complex has three components: the military establishment, the industries that manufacture weapons, and the members of Congress from states and districts that depend heavily on the arms industry. The military-industrial complex is an aggregation of interests that benefit from a high level of defense spending, regardless of whether all these expenditures are necessary for national security. Experts agree that some proportion of American defense spending reflects the workings of the military-industrial complex rather than the requirements of national security. 3. Define the term containment policy. What was the basis for this policy? Answer: Containment was the post-World War II American foreign policy toward the Soviet Union. It held that the Soviet Union was an aggressor nation and that only a determined United States could block its territorial ambitions. It was rooted in a general way in the failure of the appeasement policy undertaken by the British and French toward Nazi Germany before World War II. Appeasement was predicated on the belief that giving in to a potential aggressor’s demands would satisfy or appease the aggressor, and hence avoid war. Appeasement failed in this instance, and encouraged Hitler to believe that he could bully his way to other gains. The lesson of Munich (where the allies allowed Hitler to gain de facto control over Czechoslovakia) was that an aggressor can never be appeased. Rather, aggressors must be stood up to and denied their expansionist aims. Since the Soviet Union was viewed as expansionist, the lesson of Munich applied to it in the form of containment policy. 4. Describe the three goals of the United States in the global economy. Answer: The first goal is to sustain an open system of trade that will promote prosperity at home. The second goal is to maintain access to energy and other resources that are vital to the regular functioning of the U.S. economy. The third goal is to prevent the widening gap between the rich and poor countries from destabilizing the world’s economy. 5. Why is defense policy a mix of majoritarian and elite politics? Explain. Answer: On issues of broad national concern, majority opinion is important in defense policy in the United States. By way of illustration, it was public opinion and organized political protests that ultimately led to the withdrawal of American troops in Vietnam. Debates over foreign and defense policy, however, typically take place among political elites. Most American citizens are not sufficiently interested to contribute substantively to such discussions. Because Americans know very little about foreign affairs, governmental officials and foreign policy specialists have wide latitude in determining policy. The cumulative effect of two centuries of federalism has been a. an increasing nationalization of American politics. b. a gradual diminution of state-to-state differences in policy. c. a narrowing of the scope of state authority as a result of a broadening of national authority. d. All of the answers are correct. m. None of the answers are correct. Answer: d Page: 527 2. The persistence of distinctive political subcultures in the United States is due primarily to differences in a. patterns of partisan competition. b. geography. c. historical episodes and ethnic settlement patterns. d. governmental structures. t. economic factors. Answer: c Page: 540 3. In most states, judges are a. appointed by the governor. b. appointed by the legislature. c. elected by the people. d. appointed by a special judicial selection commission. n. appointed by the state supreme court. Answer: c Page: 534 4. When the legislature submits proposals to the voters for approval or rejection, it is called a. a recall. b. an initiative. c. a referendum. d. a registration system. k. Dillon’s rule. Answer: c Page: 536 5. Compared to the U.S. Constitution, state constitutions are typically a. longer and less flexible. b. shorter and more flexible. c. longer and more flexible. d. shorter and less flexible. u. older. Answer: a Page: 529 6. Dillon’s rule is the century-old principle that a. establishes the sovereignty of the states. b. holds that local governments are creatures of the states. c. requires local governments to act within constraints placed on them by Washington. d. invalidates a narrow interpretation of the Constitution’s interstate commerce clause. w. invalidates state police power. Answer: b Page: 537 7. Local government charters, by tradition, a. are restrictive; they define what local governments can and cannot do. b. are unwritten, since they derive from common law. c. require the adoption of a form of government based on separation of powers. d. are subject to veto by local authorities. s. are only used in the South. Answer: a Page: 538 8. In most states, the executive branch a. is led by a single chief executive. b. divides power among the governor and other executive officials, who are elected separately. c. has declined in its authority in recent decades. d. is subordinate to the legislative branch. s. is led by a governor with a two-year term. Answer: b Page: 531 9. With regard to their legislative branch of government, a. states are required by the Constitution to have a bicameral legislature. b. states are not required by the Constitution to have a bicameral legislature, but all of them do so. c. all states have a bicameral legislature except Nebraska. d. all states have a bicameral legislature with the exception of those admitted to the Union since the Twentieth Amendment, which allows the choice of a unicameral legislature. s. None of the answers are correct. Answer: c Page: 532 10. Before the 1960s, the apportionment of state legislative districts was not subject to the one-person, one-vote principle, which resulted in a. malapportionment. b. neglect of the policy needs of American cities. c. a political advantage for conservative interests as opposed to liberal interests. d. a political advantage for rural interests. q. All of the answers are correct. Answer: e 101. Trends in state legislatures during recent decades include a. longer sessions and increased pay for legislators. b. expansion in the size and professionalism of legislative staffs. c. the growing popularity of term limits as a means of restoring a citizen legislature. d. All of the answers are correct. q. None of the answers are correct. Answer: d Page: 532 112. The Missouri Plan provides for a. a review of the qualifications of potential judges by a judicial selection commission. b. the governor to select a judge from a short list of candidates submitted by a selection commission. c. a retention vote by the electorate after the judge has served a trial period. d. All of the answers are correct. e. None of the answers are correct. Answer: d Page: 534 123. A legislative measure placed on a statewide ballot by citizens who have collected a sufficient number of signatures by petition is called a. a referendum. b. a recall. c. a citizens’ bill. d. a charter. s. an initiative. Answer: e Page: 536 134. The largest number of government employees work for a. the federal government. b. state governments. c. local governments. d. the diplomatic corps. r. the military. Answer: c Page: 537 145. Which is a true statement about the commission system of municipal government? a. Each commissioner is a member of the local council, and has executive and legislative functions. b. It has gained favor in recent decades. c. It tends to have very strong chief executives. d. Most large cities in the U.S. employ this governing system. h. All of the answers are correct. Answer: a Page: 541 156. The traditional and most common form of municipal government is a. the mayor-council system. b. the commission system. c. the city manager system. d. the chief executive officer (CEO) system. o. None of the answers are correct. Answer: a Page: 540 167. A major drawback of the city manager system is a. the cumbersome civil service process that is required to remove an incompetent city manager from office. b. the difficulty a city manager may face in attaining the political support necessary for major undertakings. c. the lack of adequate professional educational programs for the training of city managers. d. All of the answers are correct. u. None of the answers are correct. Answer: b Page: 541 178. The broad power of state governments to regulate health, safety, and morals of the citizenry is called a. express power. b. police power. c. public welfare power. d. implied power. r. commerce power. Answer: b Page: 546 189. The policy area that accounts for the largest portion of local government spending is a. public education. b. public welfare. c. law enforcement. d. public health and hospitals. r. streets and roads. Answer: a Page: 548 1920. In most instances, the disparity in public spending among a state’s school districts is largely a result of differences in a. the wealth of communities. b. the allocation of state aid to local schools. c. the proportion of local schools that are private as opposed to public; where there are a lot of private schools, the unused revenue is diverted to poorer public schools. d. urban and rural areas. s. None of the answers are correct. Answer: a Page: 548 201. Police power emanates from the Amendment of the federal Constitution. a. Tenth b. Fifteenth c. Sixth d. Fourteenth q. Fourth Answer: a Page: 546 212. The major reason why state and local governments are constrained in their ability to generate revenue through taxation is a. an insufficient tax base. b. competition from other states and localities. c. federal government restrictions on state and local income tax rates. d. judicial restrictions on state and local income tax rates. q. inadequate enforcement staff. Answer: b Page: 544 223. Of all indicators of the level of a state’s policy expenditures, the best predictor is a. whether the governor has or does not have a line-item veto. b. whether Democrats or Republicans control the state legislature. c. whether the state is economically wealthy or not. d. whether the state is on the high or low end in terms of receipt of federal grants-in- aid. p. whether the Democrats or Republicans control the governor’s mansion. Answer: c Page: 552 234. States with intense political party competition are more likely to a. pursue policies that benefit a wider range of groups. b. have lower rates of voter turnout. c. ignore the poorest groups. d. have corrupt bureaucrats. q. have corrupt judges. Answer: a Page: 554 245. States dominated by a particular group or interest are more likely to a. have a large population. b. have a history of political tolerance, since its citizens tend to think alike. c. have intense party competition. d. have diverse policies. p. None of the answers are correct. Answer: e Page: 552 256. Unlike the nation’s chief executive, most state chief executives have the a. power to initiate the budget. b. power to head the bureaucracy. c. power to appoint judges. d. power to use the line-item veto. p. power to appoint blue-ribbon panels. Answer: d Page: 531 267. Which is not a form of municipal government? a. weak mayor-council system b. commission system c. cabinet system d. city manager system q. strong mayor-council system Answer: c Page: 541 278. About three-fourths of the revenue raised directly by local governments comes from a. sales taxes. b. excise taxes. c. personal income taxes. d. property taxes. q. lottery profits. Answer: d Page: 545 289. States spend the largest part of their revenue on a. highways. b. public education. c. public welfare. d. public safety. p. health and hospitals. Answer: b Page: 548 2930. In 2004, became the first state to legalize same-sex marriages. a. Alabama b. Hawaii c. Maryland d. Colorado r. Massachusetts Answer: e Page: 552 301. Of the state executive officials other than the governor, typically the most powerful is the a. attorney general. b. state treasurer. c. secretary of state. d. lieutenant governor. m. education commissioner. Answer: a Page: 532 312. In the twentieth century, the nationalization of American politics has meant that a. as political units, the states have become meaningless, given the power of the federal government. b. the states are no longer a partner in any of the federally funded welfare and educational programs. c. the federal government’s power has made the Tenth Amendment irrelevant. d. as political units, cities have become meaningless, given the power of the federal government. l. None of the answers are correct. Answer: e Page: 527 323. According to the U.S. Constitution, the states a. cannot interfere with the lawful exercise of national authority. b. must provide their citizens with a republican form of government. c. will have equal representation in the U.S. Senate. d. are guaranteed some representation in the U.S. House of Representatives. n. All of the answers are correct. Answer: e Page: 528 334. The longest state constitution still in effect today belongs to the state of a. Vermont. b. Alabama. c. Louisiana. d. Maine. m. Idaho. Answer: b Page: 529 345. Arnold Schwarzenegger was elected governor of California in 2003 on the basis of. a. a referendum. b. a by-election. c. a majority vote in the California legislature. d. a recall election. m. the overwhelming support of the state’s Latino voters. Answer: d Page: 531 356. The Advisory Commission on Intergovernmental Relations noted that state legislatures were a. becoming less functional in recent years. b. less accountable to the public than ever before. c. equipped with greater information handling capacity than their predecessors. d. less representative than ever before. u. less efficient than ever before. Answer: c Page: 533 367. percent of the nation’s legal cases are decided in state courts. a. Ninety-five b. Seventy c. Fifty d. Twenty-five m. Ten Answer: a Page: 534 378. Of the following states, voter turnout is likely to be lowest in a. Minnesota. b. Wisconsin. c. Idaho. d. Maine. n. Mississippi. Answer: e Page: 537 389. Under the city manager system, which of the following is true? a. The system was pioneered during the Progressive Era. b. The manager cannot be fired by the city council. c. The system is most common among larger cities. d. The system was pioneered during the 1960s. o. None of the answers are correct. Answer: a Page: 541 3940. Which of the following is true about school districts in America? a. Most districts are run by the mayor or city council. b. Most districts in America resemble comparable districts found in Europe. c. Most districts are run by local, independent school boards. d. Most districts are run by administrators appointed by state governments. o. None of the answers are correct. Answer: c Page: 542 401. Many states use the sales tax, which a. places a relatively heavy burden on lower-income citizens. b. sometimes is not applied to food or medicine. c. is a reliable method of raising large sums of money. d. All of the answers are correct. l. None of the answers are correct. Answer: d Page: 545 412. The sale of hard liquor in Utah was opposed for many years because of a. philosophical conflicts between the governor and the state’s legislature. b. the large numbers of Mormons who objected to liquor sales. c. the argument that liquor tax revenue would be insufficient to pay for the social costs of drunk driving. d. philosophical conflicts between the state legislature and state supreme court. e. the objections of wine and beer distributors to the sale of hard liquor. Answer: b Page: 554 423. Regarding the judicial branch in each state, it is true that a. each state has its own separate court system. b. the states have both trial courts and appellate courts. c. most states have district-level courts and a supreme court. d. states vary in their methods of selecting judges. o. All of the answers are correct. Answer: e Page: 534 434. has the only unicameral legislature in the states. a. Minnesota b. Indiana c. Nebraska d. New Mexico o. Rhode Island Answer: c Page: 532 445. Which of the following is true concerning state governors? a. All early state constitutions provided for strong governors. b. The governor in a few states serves a one-year term. c. The governor is typically the state’s most visible and widely known official. d. In most states, the governor is the only elected executive official. n. The governors in most states are elected in the same election year that the president is elected. Answer: c Page: 531 Essay/Short Answer 1. Discuss the circumstances that have led to a reduction in state-to-state differences in policy. Explain the sub-cultural differences that nevertheless result in substantial differences in the policies of the various states. Answer: States have given up some of their independence and the differences between the states have diminished as a result of federalism. Extensions of national power have narrowed the limits within which states can operate. Federal regulations, social welfare programs, grants-in-aid, and other federal mandates are examples of the extensions of federal power that minimize the differences between the states. Despite this, the state political systems differ substantially due to the presence of distinctive regional subcultures. These subcultures reflect differences in ethnic settlement patterns, historical experience, economic conditions, and partisan competition among other factors. 2. Identify and describe the four forms of municipal government. Answer: The traditional and most common type of municipal government is the mayor- council system, which has two distinct forms. The more common form is the strong mayor-council system which is characterized by a substantial concentration of authority in the hands of the mayor, who has more policymaking power than the council. The other form is the weak mayor-council system in which the mayor’s policymaking powers are less substantial than the council’s. The third form of municipal government is the commission system. This form places executive and legislative power in the hands of a commission. Its members act both as a body, and individually, each filling a specified executive role. The final form of municipal government is the city manager system. This system entrusts the executive role to a specially trained individual who is hired by and is accountable to the city council. 3. Explain the major sources of revenue for both state and local governments and address the major constraint upon their ability to generate revenue. Answer: The primary source of revenue for the states is the sales tax. States can also rely upon corporate and personal income taxes and user fees. Property taxes are the primary source of revenue for local governments. Local governments can also rely upon sales taxes, which are shared with the states, and personal income taxes. State and local governments also receive federal grants-in-aid. Despite the fact that the state and local governments have substantial tax bases, they are significantly constrained in their ability to generate revenue by competition from other states and localities. People and businesses faced with an increase in state or local taxes can move to another state or locality with lower tax rates. 4. Explain how the strength of competition between the major parties affects state and local public policy. Answer: Party competition has an important impact upon public policy efforts and outcomes. Where party competition is weak, the dominant party will pursue policy outcomes favorable to its coalition, with little consideration to the policy desires or interests represented by the minority party. Low levels of party competition can lead to the smallest and poorest groups being almost excluded from politics. When party competition is more intense, any sizeable group is likely to receive attention from one party or the other, and will be in a position to influence policy outcomes. Policy outcomes in this case tend to be more evenly distributed across society’s interests. [Show More]

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