University of Houston - GENB 4350 ALL THE QUIZZES FOR GEN B! (Quiz 1 to Quiz 25)

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GENB4350 ALL THE QUIZZES FOR GEN B! Quiz 1: Which of the following is an example of a treaty? The collection of legal interpretations made by judges is known as: Judges who follow the legal ... realism school of thought are more likely to depart from past court decisions. The _____ contains summaries of the common legislative rules that have been enacted by most states. The _____ contains all the executive orders created by the president. _____ law is an assortment of rules and regulations put forth by legislatures. What idea is rooted in the concept of natural law? Civil law is the body of laws that involves the rights and responsibilities an individual has with respect to the public as a whole. The federal government has a single administrative agency that performs blanket government functions. Stare decisis holds that rulings that are made in higher courts can be ignored by lower courts. _____ is a school of jurisprudence in which all costs and benefits are given monetary values. Public law involves: Constitutional law is the general limits and powers of the government as interpreted from its written constitution. Which of the following actions by a court implies that it is obeying stare decisis? Which school of jurisprudence holds that economic conditions of the involved parties must also be considered together with law? Quiz 2: All of the following are stakeholders of a firm, except: What are values? Which of the following is not an example of a business’s responsibility? An ethical dilemma is a problem about what a firm should do for which no clear, right decision is available. The universalization test asks us to consider what the world would be like were our decision be copied by everyone else. Business ethics results in a set of correct decisions. Managers should make sure they consider all the relevant _______ when they engage in ethical reasoning. _____ is the expectations that a community places on the actions of firms inside that community’s borders. Ethical guidelines require recognizing that managerial decisions must meet what criteria? The WH Approach provides future business managers with _____. The legality of a business decision is the ___________ standard that must be met. The universalization test is sometimes called the “television test,” for it requires us to imagine that our actions are being broadcast on national television. ***The public disclosure test is sometimes called the “television test,” for it requires us to imagine that our actions are being broadcast on national television. The Golden Rule is the idea that we should interact with other people in a manner consistent with the way we would like them to interact with us. All of the following are important business values, except: The following are sources of value priorities, except: QUIZ 3 Which of the following is not a possible decision an appellate court can render? _____ refers to a ruling by the judge in the defendants’ favor when the plaintiffs have put forward their case before the defendants get to present their evidence. The _____ is a request for the court to consider that all the facts in the pleadings are and to apply the law to those facts. The power of a court to require that a party come before the court is known as in rem jurisdiction. Arbitrators generally do not have to offer reasons for their decisions. A _____ is a request made by either party that asks a court to expeditiously dispose of a case without a trial. Which of the following criteria is necessary for a case or controversy to exist? Which of the following is not a requirement for standing? Once the trial ends, the party who received the favorable verdict files a motion for a judgment notwithstanding the verdict. The right of the plaintiff and the defendant in a jury trial to have a juror dismissed before trial without stating a reason is known as _____. The unofficial jury sitting in during the actual trial and deliberating at the end of each day to evaluate for the attorneys how each side is doing is referred to as: Which of the following ADR methods is also known as “rent-a-judge”? Which of the following is an advantage of arbitration? The federal court system has exclusive jurisdiction over the majority of cases. The U.S. Supreme Court, under no circumstances, functions as a trial court. Quiz 4: Which of the following is of independent agencies? Which act under the informational limitations of agency powers prohibits disclosure of information about an individual to other agencies or organizations without that individual’s written consent? Executive agencies are generally located under one of the cabinet-level departments within the executive branch. Policy statements are summaries of rules in a particular area of the law. A(n) _____ rule is a rule that does not create any new rights or duties but is merely a detailed statement of the agency’s interpretation of an existing law. Which of the following types of evidences refers to evidence that a reasonable mind could accept as adequate to support a conclusion? Every state has a state environmental protection agency to which the federal EPA delegates primary authority for enforcing environmental protection laws. Which of the following is about an executive agency? The primary type of rule making used by administrative agencies is the _____ rule making. The first step in notice-and-comment rule making is publication in the Federal Register of a notice of proposed rule making by the agency. Which of the following actions of a government implies that it is in the enhanced stage of the development of e-government as characterized by the UN? The _____ limitation accords power to Congress to override the proposed agency rules. Administrative hearings are generally held in front of an administrative law judge, but in some circumstances, administrative law matters are heard by a jury. An agency initiates informal rule making by publishing the proposed rule in the _____. _____ is an order to appear at a particular time and place and bring specified documents. Quiz 5 Which of the following is not generally included in the rights protected in the Constitution under substantive due process? The Fifth Amendment to the US Constitution protects citizens against: Which clause states that any state or local law that directly conflicts with the U.S. Constitution or federal laws or treaties is void? The _____ clause in the First Amendment of the U.S. Constitution protects citizens’ choice of religion. Which of the following is of the Fourth Amendment to the Bill of Rights? Which clause requires that courts in all states uphold contracts and public acts established in other states? The contract clause in the Constitution prohibits the government from unreasonably interfering with an existing contract. If a law prevents individuals from exercising a fundamental right, or if the law’s classification scheme involves suspect classifications, the action will be subject to strict scrutiny. The constitutional amendments are a limit on actions of the government and the behavior of private employers. In areas where the state and federal governments have concurrent authority, the federal government can decide to regulate that area exclusively. In such a situation, according to the doctrine of _____, the state law is unconstitutional. The _____ clause prohibits states from discriminating against citizens of other states when nonresidents engage in ordinary and essential activities. _____ is the court’s power to review laws to determine whether they are constitutional. Procedural due process refers to the basic fairness of laws that may deprive an individual of their life, liberty, or property. The _____ restricts the states’ authority to pass laws that substantially affect business between states. According to the Tenth Amendment to the Constitution, all powers that the Constitution neither gives exclusively to the federal government nor takes from the states are reserved for the federal government. QUIZ 6: In a civil case, the government, referred to as the prosecutor, always brings the case. The advantage of a nolo contendere plea over a guilty plea is that the former cannot be used against the defendant in a civil suit. _____ is the wrongful conversion of another’s funds by one who is lawfully in possession of those funds. The crime of _____ occurs when a person obtains money, property, and/or services from another by wrongfully threatening or inflicting harm on the other person. The rights that are read to an arrested individual by a law enforcement agent before the individual is question are known as _____. To prove _____ in a criminal case, the government must prove that the defendant acted with the state of mind required by the law defining the relevant offense. When a judge is the fact finder in a case, the trial is called a _____ trial. Which act criminalizes specific nonaudit services when provided by a registered accounting firm to an audit client? In a criminal case, the burden of persuasion is lower than in a civil case. White-collar offenses are punishable only through incarceration or restitution. The responsibility imposed on a person for damages caused by another is known as: In a criminal trial, society is seen as the victim whereas in a civil trial, there is an individual victim or victims. Proving _____ requires the government to demonstrate that the defendant’s behavior resulted in a prohibited act or consequence. What two elements must the government demonstrate to punish an individual for criminal behavior? Who files the charges against the defendant in a criminal proceeding? QUIZ 7 Which of the following refers to conversion in the context of intentional torts against property? Which of the following is of nominal damages? Placing an object on another’s land without seeking the owner’s permission is an instance of _____. In a negligence action, a measurement of a person’s duty of care is the_____. A negligent tort occurs when the defendant: Misrepresentation made with the intent to facilitate personal gain and with knowledge that it is is known as _____. A private nuisance occurs when a person permanently removes personal property from the owner’s possession and control. A business tort that occurs when spoken statements criticize a business product and result in a loss of sales is known as: Under the theory of strict liability, a person is responsible for damages, regardless of the existence of negligence. Compensatory damages are typically awarded for pain and suffering, and lost wages. Which of the following is an example of defamation made orally? What doctrine does the plaintiff use to allow the judge to infer that the defendant’s negligence was the cause of the plaintiff’s harm? Proximate cause is the determination that the defendant’s breach of duty resulted directly in the plaintiff’s injury. A defense whereby the defendant is not liable for the percentage of harm that he or she can prove is due to the plaintiff’s own negligence is known as _____. The primary objective of tort law is to punish wrongdoers and preserve order in the society. QUIZ 8 Which of the following is not a necessary element for a valid gift? A life estate is a person’s present right to property ownership and possession in the future. The legal process by which a transfer of property is made against the protest of the property owner is known as _____. An easement is an irrevocable right to use some part of another’s land for a specific purpose without taking anything from it. Intangible property is property that can be identified by the senses. A patent is a process, product, method of operation, or compilation of information that gives a businessperson an advantage over his or her competitors. The right to go onto someone’s land and take part of the land refers to: A trademark used intrastate is protected under state common law. A _____ occurs when the patent holder issues a license to use the patented object on the condition that the licensee agrees to buy some nonpatented product from the holder. A _____ is used by a producer together with a product causing consumers to identify the product with the producer. A license is: Which of the following refers to gifts made in contemplation of one’s immediate death? An ownership interest in which the holder has exclusive rights to ownership and possession of the land is known as a _____ estate. fee simple absolute Which of the following is a criterion for a work to be copyrightable? Which of the following is of adverse possession? QUIZ 9 An option contract is an agreement whereby the offeree gives the offeror a piece of consideration in exchange for the offeror’s agreement to hold the offer open for the specified period of time. Contracts under seal require specific considerations for them to be legal. An offer immediately terminates in all of the following situations, except: A contract is _____ if one or both of the parties have the ability to either withdraw from the contract or enforce it. Which of the following statements describes a recognizance? The _____ says that the terms of the acceptance must mirror the terms of the offer. In an auction without reserve, the seller merely expresses an intention to receive offers. If the subject matter of the offer is destroyed or becomes illegal, the offer immediately terminates. Which of the following is primary source of contract law? _____ refers to what each party gets in exchange for his or her promise under a contract. A contract is said to be executory once all the terms of the contract have been fully performed. A(n) _____ contract is a promise exchanged for an act. A(n) _____ is an agreement whereby the offeree gives the offeror a piece of consideration in exchange for the offeror’s agreement to hold the offer open for the specified period of time. Under the mailbox rule, an acceptance is valid at the time _____. A quasi-contract is a contract that: QUIZ 10: Brian promises his tennis coach that he will not ride his motorcycle till the tournament gets over even though he loves riding it. What type of consideration does the example suggest? A promise cannot be based on consideration that was provided before the promise was made. In a unilateral contract, one party’s consideration is the promise and the other party’s consideration in return is also a promise. A liquidated debt is a debt for which there is no dispute between the parties about the fact that money is owed and the amount of money owed. What does adequacy of consideration imply? All of the following requirements are necessary for an accord and satisfaction to be enforceable, except: Mark saves Emily from drowning. As an expression of gratitude, Emily promises to reward Mark for his actions. A year later, Mark still does not receive the money. This example is an illustration of _____. An illusory promise is a situation in which a party appears to commit to something but really has not committed to anything. Which of the following is not an exception to the preexisting-duty rule? Which of the following examples illustrates illusory promise? What type of consideration does a promise to stay in a job until a particular project is complete reflect? In which of the following instances can injustice be avoided by carrying out the promise? The legal enforcement of an otherwise unenforceable contract due to a party’s detrimental reliance on the contract is known as _____. The court always considers adequacy of consideration. A pool lifeguard demands money after saving Bob from drowning in the pool. Bob need not pay the lifeguard because this is an instance of _____. QUIZ 11: Which of the following is an example of substantive unconscionability? Which of the following is an example of usury? Which of the following is of a severable contract? It has both legal and illegal portions in the contract. Not knowing that the other party to a contract intended to fulfill the agreement through illegal means does not void the contract. An agreement to commit a crime or tort is not enforceable by the courts. Which of the following is of a contract that is procedurally unconscionable? Which of the following is an example of an anticompetitive agreement? A contract entered into with or by a minor is voidable. A(n) _____ clause is a statement releasing one of the parties to an agreement from all liability. In a(n) _____ contract, the powerful party dictates the terms of the agreement and eliminates the other party’s free will. Covenants not to compete in employment contracts are illegal in most states. A basic test to determine whether an exculpatory clause is unenforceable is to see if the enforcing party engages in a business directly related to the public interest. A(n) _____ contract is created by a party to an agreement that is presented to the other party on a take-it-or-leave-it basis. What term is used in the law when both parties are equally responsible for an illegal agreement? QUIZ 12 Courts can rescind a contract even though the person making the assertion is entirely innocent of any intentional deception. ____________ is when one person has taken advantage of his or her dominant position in a relationship to unduly persuade the other person to the extent that the dominant person’s persuasive efforts have interfered with the other person’s ability to make his or her own decision. Which of the following is about a unilateral mistake? A(n) _____ is an untruthful assertion by one of the parties about a material fact. A(n) _____ results when the party making the statement would have known the truth about the fact had it used reasonable care to discover it. A unilateral mistake does not void a contract. What condition will the court consider to invalidate a contract on grounds of unilateral mistake? When a contact is void, it may be rescinded, or canceled. Scienter is present when the party accused of making a fraudulent assertion believed that the assertion was . A(n) _____ is a statement about a fact material to an agreement that the person who made the statement believed to be . Which of the following is of a mutual mistake? Which of the following would not render a contract voidable? . Which one of the following is one of the conditions required for mutual mistake to interfere with legal consent? Concealment involves a failure to provide pertinent information about the projected contract. QUIZ 13 Which clause states that the written agreement accurately reflects the final, complete version of the agreement? _____ is the legal enforcement of an otherwise unenforceable contract due to a party’s detrimental reliance on the contract. Partial performance cannot override the statute’s requirement for a written agreement. Which of the following is of incidental beneficiaries? They lack the capacity to enforce a contract as they maintain no rights to enforce other people’s contracts. The rights to a contract cannot be assigned when the contract is personal in nature. All of the following are contracts that fall within the statute of frauds and thus are required to be evidenced in writing, except: Contracts between parties whereby one party substitutes a different performance for his or her original duty under the contract. The parol evidence rule states that oral evidence of an agreement is inadmissible when it is made prior to or contemporaneously with a written agreement. A _____ is an event in a contract that must occur in order for a party’s duty to arise. The statute of frauds does not relate to fraudulent contracts. (n) _____ contract is a written contract intended to be the complete and final representation of the parties’ agreement. Mark hands over the power of attorney of his apartment to his mother. Consequently, the tenants living in his apartment now pay rent to his mother. In this case, Mark’s mother is a(n) _____. Which of the following is an exception to the statute of frauds in which an unwritten agreement is executed in some degree by one or both parties? A third party who is not part of the original contract but to whom duties to perform are transferred by one of the contracting parties is known as a(n): Which rule requires that contracts that would normally fall under the statute of frauds and need writing if negotiated by the principal must be in writing even if negotiated by an agent? Equal dignity rule Secondary obligations are debts entered into in an initial contract. QUIZ 14 In most situations, parties _______their obligations by doing what they respectively agreed to do. _________ required that the breaching party fulfill the terms of the agreement. To recover damages in a breach-of-contract case, the plaintiff must demonstrate that he used reasonable efforts to minimize the damage resulting from the breach. Implied conditions are those that are not explicitly stated but are inferred from the nature and language of the contract. Consequential damages are foreseeable damages that result from special facts and circumstances arising outside the contract itself. A condition subsequent is a condition that must be satisfied in order for the parties to have a binding contract. _____ refers to the contractual terms under which each party’s performance is conditioned on the performance of the other. _____ damages are imposed to punish the defendant and deter such conduct in the future. The agreement to replace one of the parties with a third party is known as: Under which of the following situations will a contract be discharged by law? What are liquidated damages? After Company X enters into a contract with Company Y, it advises Company Y of its intent to not honor its contractual obligations. What can company X be sued for? Anticipatory repudiation discharges the nonbreaching party from his obligations under the contract. A(n) _____ is used when one of the parties wants to substitute a different performance for its original duty under the contract. Money awarded to a plaintiff as reimbursement for her or his losses is known as _____ damages. QUIZ 15 The right to encumber goods as collateral for a debt is dependent on who is holding title. _____ is the transfer of goods to a merchant who ordinarily deals in that type of goods. In a _____ contract, the buyer and seller agree that the buyer may give the goods back at a later time. buyer from the seller at either the time of the sale. A transfer of the right to possession and use of goods for a term in return for consideration is known as _____. A common-carrier delivery contract is a type of contract in which purchased goods are delivered to the buyer via an independent contractor. Which of the following is an example of a void title? A person who transfers the right to possession and use of goods under a lease is known as the _______. A requirement that the seller has and holds conforming goods at the disposal of the buyer and gives the buyer reasonable notification to enable him or her to take the goods is known as: If the seller is not a merchant, the risk of loss remains with the seller under the rule of tender of delivery. A _____ is made in writing and giving assurances that it will be irrevocable for not longer than three months despite a lack of consideration for the irrevocability. Federal statutes govern the formation of sales and lease contracts. The mirror-image rule that applies under common law does not apply under the UCC. QUIZ 16 Which of the following is a court order requiring a nonbreaching party to fulfill the terms of the contract? _____ is a breaching party’s right to provide conforming goods when nonconforming goods were initially delivered. At common law, the obligations and responsibilities of the contractual parties are determined by the express terms of the contract. A(n) _____ is any description of a good’s physical nature that becomes part of the contract. An assurance that the seller has good and valid ownership to the goods and has the right to transfer them free and clear is known as _____. The _____ rule requires that the seller deliver goods in conformity with the terms of the contract. Under the UCC, the buyer or seller must bring a lawsuit on a breached contract within five years of when the breach occurred or when the nonbreaching party became aware of it. Course of dealing refers to the history of dealings between the parties in the particular contract at issue. What is usage of trade? _____ is an assurance whereby a lessor knows that the lessee is relying on him or her to make the selection. A description of a good’s physical nature or its use, in either general or specific circumstances, that becomes part of the contract is known as ______. The _____ is a requirement that the seller holds conforming goods at the disposal of the buyer and provides him timely information enabling him to claim it. _____ damages are specified as a term of the contract, before a breach of contract occurs. Specific performance requires that the seller deliver the particular goods identified in the contract. Liquidated damages are damages identified before the breach occurs. QUIZ 19 The transfer of collateral to the secured party for the purpose of perfection is called a(n) _____. A(n) _____ means that the bankruptcy proceedings can continue. When the dispute is between a _____, the party that perfected its interest first is the prevailing party. The principal purpose of the creditors meeting is _________. If the debtor objects to the secured party’s retention of the collateral, the secured party must sell or dispose of the collateral. Perfection of a security interest in a motor vehicle occurs when the secured party _____. takes possession of the collateral. When _____ occurs, the creditor becomes a secured party with an interest in the collateral. Trustee is a person who routinely buys goods in good faith from a person who routinely sells such goods. Bankruptcy law is a state law. Under BAPCPA, an individual may not be considered a debtor under any chapter unless _____. Pledge is the transfer of collateral to the secured party. _____ is the property subject to the security interest. _____ occurs when a debtor turns over all assets to a trustee. Legal actions to determine paternity or to collect child support or alimony payments are subject to the bankruptcy stay The series of legal steps taken by a secured party to protect its right in the collateral from other creditors who want to have their debts satisfied through the same collateral is: QUIZ 20 In which of the following situations is the agent the only liable party for the contract? Which of the following is of a constructive notice? If an agent has no authority to act on behalf of a principal but the agent still enters into a contract with a third party, the principal is not bound to the contract unless the principal _______ the agreement. _____ is a specific form of express authority that grants an agent specific powers. Agency law is federal law. The _____ rule requires that all contracts that would normally fall under the statute of frauds and need writing if negotiated by the principal must be in writing even if negotiated by an agent. Which of the following is of independent contractors? Which of the following is about gratuitous agents? Which of the following is of agency by estoppel? Substantial departure is also known as “frolic of his own.” An individual who hires an independent contractor can be held liable for the independent contractor’s tortious actions. In a/an _____ relationship, the agency relationship is inferred from the conduct of the parties. An agency relationship exists if a principal leads a third party to believe that another individual serves as his or her agent but the principal has made no agreement with the so-called agent. A _____ is a person who has a duty to act primarily for another person’s benefit. Fiduciary All agents are employees because all employees are agents. QUIZ 21 A limited liability company is recognized in all states. Which of the following is of a corporation? Which of the following is a disadvantage for a franchisee? A _________ is a business organization formed by individuals to market products, whereby members pool their resources together to gain some kind of advantage in the market. Which of the following is of a partnership? Which of the following is of a limited liability company? In a distributorship, the franchisor helps franchisee set up a business run under the franchisor’s business name according to the franchisor’s usual methods and standards. Which of the following is of a limited liability partnership? A franchisee is the owner of the trade name in a franchise. A _____ is an association between two or more parties wherein the parties share profits and management responsibilities with respect to a specific project. Which of the following is an investment group that comes together for the explicit purpose of financing a specific large project? In a general partnership, the partners share limited personal liability for the partnership’s debts. A disadvantage of a corporation is that: What is the disadvantage of sole proprietorship? A joint venture is a relationship between two or more persons or corporations created for a specific business undertaking. QUIZ 22 A(n) _____ is a corporation that is incorporated in a foreign country. The right of first refusal is a method of restricting stock transferability. A(n) _____ occurs when a group within a corporation exchanges for money all the outstanding corporate stock held by the public. According to the responsible person doctrine, the court may not hold a corporate officer criminally liable unless he has taken part in a criminal activity. When directors violate their duty of loyalty, they are self-dealing. Which of the following is of common stock? In a(n) _____ offer, the target corporation offers to buy the stock held by its shareholders. A de facto corporation has met the substantial elements of the incorporation process. Which of the following is of corporations? Which of the following is regarding the extent of shareholder’s liability to corporate creditors? Which of the following is after the secretary of state issues the certificate of incorporation? When two corporations consolidate only one of the corporations will maintain its original legal status. Shareholders possess all of the following powers EXCEPT: Which of the following is of a shareholder’s derivative suit? Which of the following is of an S corporation? QUIZ 23 In which defense do defendants affirm that they have reasonable grounds to believe that certain statements had no omission of material facts? If a partnership or corporation engages in insider trading, it is subject to fines up to $2.5 million. Which of the following is of a registration statement? Limited offers are exempt from the registration process. Which of the following is of the violations of the 1934 Securities and Exchange Commission? The issuer does not violate any rule when he or she fails to send the purchaser a final prospectus. Which of the following is of a prospectus? A(n) _____ is an individual who receives confidential information from an insider. Which theory holds a person liable if he or she wrongfully acquires and uses inside information for trading for personal gain? A(n) _____ is an insider who gives material to another in breach of his or her duty whereby engaging in insider trading. The SEC would define which of the following as an accredited investor? Which of the following is of the Securities and Exchange Commission? The law that regulates the offering and sale of purely intrastate securities is known as the: The Securities Act of 1933 oversees the purchase and sale of securities. If an individual engages in insider trading she has committed a criminal offense punishable with a fine up to $1 million, a prison sentence up to 10 years, or both. QUIZ 24 1.In the merit defense, all of the following types of validation are acceptable EXCEPT: 2. The Fair Labor Standards Act requires that a minimum wage of a specified amount be paid to all employees in covered industries. 3. Which of the following is the agency that is responsible for promulgating workplace safety standards, inspecting facilities to ensure compliance with the standards, and bringing enforcement actions against violators? 4. The Fair Labor Standards Act mandates that employees who work more than 40 hours in a week be paid no less than _____ times their regular wage for all the hours beyond 40 that they work during a given week. 5. The _____ Act was designed to curtail some of the powers unions had acquired under the Wagner Act. 6. In order to sue for disparate treatment under Title VII, the plaintiff need not be a member of a protected class as listed in CRA. 7. The _____ is a federal law sets minimum standards for most voluntarily established pension and health plans in private industry to provide protection for individuals in these plans. 8. The Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967 prohibits employers from refusing to hire, discharging, or discriminating in terms and conditions of employment on the basis of an employee’s or applicant’s being age _____ or older. 9. Which of the following is of disparate impact? 10. State laws may give employees more, but not less, protection than federal laws. 11. Which of the following was the first major piece of federal legislation adopted explicitly to encourage the formation of labor unions and provide for collective bargaining between employers and unions as a means of obtaining the peaceful settlement of labor disputes? 12. The Civil Rights Act permits employers from segregating employees in a manner that would affect their employment opportunities on the basis of their national origin. 13. Under the Employee Retirement Income Security Act (ERISA), employers must provide participants with the right to sue for benefits and breaches of fiduciary duty. 14. What is a business-extension exemption? 15. The _____ Act requires certain financial disclosures by unions and establishes civil and criminal penalties for financial abuses by union officials. QUIZ 25 Which of the following is of the Federal Trade Commission? The advertiser is deceiving the customer even if he is providing half-truth. The U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) ensures that food, drugs, and cosmetics meet specific safety standards, but not medical devices. The _____ Act was passed in response to the growing number of identity-theft cases. The recipient is not permitted to use any unsolicited merchandise sent by mail. Which of the following is of the Consumer Credit Protection Act? The Telephone Consumer Protection Act allows consumers to obtain a private right to legal action. In a(n) _____, the company stops the disputed behavior but does not admit that it broke the law. Which of the following is an example of counteradvertising? The Real Estate Settlement Procedures Act of 1974 and its 1976 amendments provide what protection for people purchasing homes? Which of the following is about a closed-end line of credit? . A company exaggerates the efficacy of its product while advertising it. This is an example of: Which FTC order requires that a company stop its illegal behavior? Which of the following is of the Truth in Lending Act (TILA)? When determining the creditworthiness of a credit applicant, the creditor can use information about the applicant’s marital status. [Show More]

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