PT_Exam_Sample_Questions_secrets UPDATED 2019

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PHYSIOTHERAPY SECRETS Multiple Choice Questions3 P. P. Mohanty, MPT (Rehab.) Assistant Professor & HOD, Physiotherapy Swami Vivekananda National Institute of Rehabilitation Training and Research ... (SVNIRTAR) Cuttack – 754010, Orissa Monalisa Pattnaik, MPT (Cardio-Pulm.) Lecturer, Physiotherapy Swami Vivekananda National Institute of Rehabilitation Training and Research (SVNIRTAR) Cuttack – 754010, Orissa4 PREFACE This book is intended primarily for Bachelor of Physiotherapy students, who prepare for their university examinations or for post graduate entrance examinations. We think that it will also be useful for physiotherapists attending the licensing examination of other countries. We have attempted to cover different areas of physical therapy. We have used many generally accepted abbreviations. Despite our best efforts some errors may have been included. In case of any query please write to us. We should like to thank all those who helped us.5 DEDICATION Baba, Without your love we would not have been able to achieve our goal. Lulu Luna6 CONTENTS PAGES 1. THERAPEUTIC EXERCISE 2. ELECTROTHERAPY 3. ORTHOPAEDICS 4. NEUROSCIENCE 5. CARDIOTHORACIC 6. BIOMECHANICS 7. REHABILITATION 8. MISCELLANEOUS (OBSTETRICS & GYNAECOLOGY, SURGICAL CONDITIONS, ALTERNATIVE. MEDICINE. BIO-STATISTICS)7 I - EXERCISE THERAPY 1. The effect of two non-linear systems acting at a common point can be determined by finding out their resultant, which can be determined by____ a. simple arithmetic addition b. law of triangle c. law of parallelogram d. cosine law 2. 40 Kg traction force is applied to the part at an angle of 30 degrees. What will be the effective distractive force at the joint? a. 30kg b. 35kg c. 40 kg d. 45 kg 3. Friction is the resistive force offered by the surface, when one surface moves over the other, which is____. a. Directly proportional to the area of the surface in contact b. Nature of the surface c. Weight of the moving object d. all of the above 4. Pulleys are used to _______. a. Make the work easy b. Alter the direction of motion c. Gain mechanical efficiency d. All the above 5. In a pulley maximum resistance force is produced when the angle of pulley is a. In line with the moving bone b. 900 to the moving bone c. 600 with moving bone d. 450 with the moving bone 6. ________ order lever is the lever of speed. a. 1st b. 2nd c. 3rd d. All 7. Knee flexion in prone lying is an example of_______. a. 1st order lever b. 2nd order lever c. 3rd order lever8 d. 4th order lever 8. 2nd order lever is the lever of_______. a. Stability b. Instability c. Speed d. Efficiency 9. Standing on toes is an example of _______ order lever. a. 1st b. 2nd c. 3rd d. 4th 10. In our body more numbers of _______ order levers are present a. 1st b. 2nd c. 3rd d. 4th 11. ___ order lever is the lever of power. a. 1st b. 2nd c. 3rd d. All 12. Nodding movement of head is the example of _______ order lever. a. 1st b. 2nd c. 3rd d. 4th 13. Elbow flexion in mid-prone position is done by brachioradialis muscle; lifting 10 kg dumb-bell converts it from _____. a. 1st to 2nd order lever b. 2nd to 3rd order lever c. 3rd to 4th order lever d. 3rd to 1st order lever all 14. The degrees of freedom of the MCPJ of fingers is____. a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 15. Ankle DF/PF takes place ________. a. Saggital plane & frontal axis b. Frontal plane & saggital axis c. Transverse plane & vertical axis d. Coronal plane & horizontal axis 16. The characteristics of any starting position ______. a. Stable b. Comfortable c. Provide room for full range of motion9 d. All of the above 17. Active fixation can be achieved by _____. a. Co contraction of muscles b. Straps c. Manual pressure d. Non of the above 18. In normal standing, line of gravity passes_______the knee joint. a. In front of b. Behind c. Through d. Lateral to 19. Pronation and supination take place on ______. a. Sagittal plane and frontal axis b. Frontal plane and sagittal axis c. Transverse plane and vertical axis d. Coronal plane and horizontal axis 20. Mechanically the assistance/ resistance are most effective when it acts at ___. a. Acute angle b. Obtuse angle c. Perpendicular d. 0 degree 21. Muscle is most efficient in______ range. a. Outer b. Outer part of middle c. Inner part of middle d. Inner 22. Forearm pronation range of motion is limited due to _______. a. Bony contact b. Soft tissue approximation c. Soft tissue tension d. Tension of ligament 23. Relaxed passive movement is useful for________. a. Muscle strengthening b. Improving joint range of motion c. Remembrance of pattern of movement d. Improving co-ordination 24. Stretching is the _____. a. Slow and sustained forced passive movement b. Sudden but controlled forced passive movement c. Relaxed passive movement d. Manipulation 25. Anterior pelvic tilt is produced by ________. a. Hip extensors and abdominals b. hip flexors and lumbar extensors c. Hip adductors and trunk side flexors d. Non of the above10 26. Natural speed for every active exercise varies from individual to individual and in the same individual from time to time. Choose the correct answer regarding the speed of movement. a. Movement at natural speed requires greater muscular effort and control b. Movement at reduced speed requires optimal force c. Movement at increased speed requires strong muscular effort d. All of the above 27. Muscles are most often used in the middle range during activities of daily livings, so most efficient within this range. a. Exercise in outer range is used for muscle re-education b. Exercise in middle range is used for muscle tone and power c. Exercise in inner range is used for training stabilization d. All of the above 28. Finger walking on the wall to touch a mark is an example of ____ exercise. a. Passive b. Subjective free c. Objective free d. Assisted 29. In which of the PRE the load remains constant during the training session______. a. Delorme b. Watkin c. Zinovief d. McQueen 30. In Delorme’s PRE the progression of 10 RM is made once in _________. a. Daily b. Every week c. Every fortnight d. Every month 31. Low resistance high repetition exercise is used to improve muscle________. a. Strength b. Endurance c. Volume d. Co-ordination 32. Example of soft tissue approximation limiting joint range of motion is____. a. Forearm pronation b. Hip flexion with knee extension c. Ankle df with knee flexion d. Elbow flexion 33. Example of passive insufficiency is _____. a. Hip flexion with knee extension b. Fingers flexion with wrist extension c. Ankle df with knee flexion d. Shoulder external rotation with abduction 34. Limitation of finger abduction is due to tension of _____. a. Skin b. Muscles11 c. Ligament d. Bone 35. End feel of _______ is bony. a. Knee extension b. Elbow extension c. Ankle df d. Forearm supination 36. Forced passive movement is contraindicated for _______ joint. a. Hip b. Knee c. Elbow d. Spine 37. Joint mobilization is contraindicated in _______. a. Soft tissue tightness b. Joint stiffness c. Loose body inside the joint d. Bursitis 38. Glenohumeral anterior glide can improve a. Extension range b. Flexion range c. Extension and external rotation d. Flexion and internal rotation range 39. Kaltenborn has described _____________ grades a. 4 b. 3 c. 5 d. None of the above. 40. Ankle traction can improve _____ range of motion. a. Plantar flexion b. Dorsi flexion c. Inversion d. Eversion 41. Leathery end feel is characteristic of ________. a. Soft tissue tightness b. Capsular tightness c. Bony obstruction d. Internal derangement 42. The end feel of loose body inside the joint is _________. a. Elastic b. Hard c. Leathery d. Springy rebound 43. The fixed point in axial suspension is ______. a. Vertically above the axis of the joint b. Vertically above the cg of the part c. Sideways to the anatomical axis of the joint12 d. Sideways to the CG of the part 44. Pendular suspension is used to improve the JROM by shifting the fixed point ___ a. Towards the direction of motion b. Opposite to the direction of motion c. Upward d. Downward 45. In axial suspension the part rests in ____ position. a. Neutral b. Away from neutral c. Above the supporting surface d. Flexion 46. Movement in pendular suspension takes place in _______ plane. a. Horizontal b. Inclined plane c. Sagittal d. Frontal 47. Double pulley rope is used to support heavy body part, it becomes a. Difficult to elevate the part by lifting the wooden cleat up b. Possible to do 3-d movements c. Easy to elevate the part by pulling the wooden cleat down d. Non of the above 48. Vertical suspension is used for __________. a. Relaxation b. Strengthening c. Stretching d. Proximal fixation 49. Pulley rope in suspension therapy is used to ________. a. Elevate the part from the supporting surface b. Permits 3d pattern of movements c. Allow frictionless to and fro movements d. All of the above 50. Choose the correct statement a. Physiological cost of concentric muscle work is greater than eccentric b. Physiological cost of static muscle work is greater than concentric c. Physiological cost of eccentric muscle work is greater than concentric d. Physiological cost of isometric muscle work is greater than eccentric 51. Which of the following statements is true regarding muscle strengthening? a. Increase & decrease in speed of movement is a progression of concentric work b. Increase in speed of movement is a progression of eccentric work c. Decrease in speed of movement is a progression of static work d. all of the above 52. Frenkel’s exercises are devised to improve co-ordination by use of sight, sound and touch in case of ataxia due to________. a. Cerebellar lesion b. Loss of kinesthetic sensation13 c. Spastic paralysis d. Flaccid paralysis 53. Progression of Frenkel’s exercise is made by alteration of ____. a. Speed- Quick to slow b. Range- wider to smaller c. Complexity of exercises d. All of the above 54. For the recovering muscles _______. a. Concentric exercises are given before eccentric b. Eccentric exercises are given before concentric c. Concentric and eccentric exercises are given together d. Eccentric exercises are given before static 55. PNF was developed by________. a. Kabat & Knott b. Knot & Voss c. Car & Shepherd d. Dardiner & Hollis 56. Which of the following PNF techniques is used in Cerebellar ataxia? a. Repeated contraction b. Hold & relax c. Rhythmic initiation d. Rhythmic stabilization 57. Rhythmic Initiation technique is used for ________. a. Tightness b. Flaccid paralysis c. Cerebellar ataxia d. Parkinsonism 58. Groove in PNF refers to __________. a. Maximum resistacce b. Diagnonal pattern of movement c. Repeatition d. Proprioceptive stimuli 59. In PNF elbow flexion is a component of __________. a. Flexion- abduction – external rotation b. Flexion- adduction – external rotation c. Extension- abduction – internal rotation d. all of the above 60. In PNF knee flexion is a component of __________. a. Flexion- abduction – external rotation b. Flexion- adduction – external rotation c. Extension- adduction – internal rotation d. Extension- abduction – external rotation 61. Which is not true for rhythmic stabilization? a. It develops co-contraction b. Manual resistance applied alternately to opposite side only in closed kinematic chain position14 c. It develops stability d. There should not be any relaxation phase between contraction. 62. Choose the correct progression of ambulation by a pair of auxiliary crutches_______. a. 2 point, 3 point , 4 point b. 4 point, 3 point, 2 point c. 3 point, 4 point, 2 point d. 2 point, 4 point, 3 point 63. The correct sequence of stair climbing with a pair of axillary crutches is_____. a. Crutches, affected leg, sound leg b. Affected leg, sound leg, crutches c. Sound leg , affected leg, crutches d. Crutches, , sound leg, affected leg 64. Elbow crutches are indicated for the persons with ________. a. Strong upper extremities and strong trunk b. Strong upper extremities and weak trunk c. Weak upper extremities and strong trunk d. Weak upper extremities and weak trunk 65. Gutter crutches are indicated for the persons with ________. a. Strong upper extremities and strong trunk b. Strong upper extremities and weak trunk c. Strong upper extremities but problems in FA/wrist & hand and d. strong trunk e. Strong upper extremities but problems in FA/wrist & hand and weak trunk 66. Persons with unilateral hip problem leans to the affected side and advised to use a walking stick. On which side he should use the stick? a. Affected side b. Sound side c. Either side d. Single stick is not useful 67. The measurement for axillary crutches is taken from _____. a. Anterior axillary fold to 20 cm forward and lateral to little toe b. Tip of the axilla to 20 cm forward and lateral to little toe c. Anterior axillary fold to tip of medial malleolus d. All of the above 68. While descending the stairs, the therapist must stand_______. a. Behind the patient b. Behind the patient towards the weaker side c. In front of the patient d. In front of the patient towards the weaker side 69. Trendelenburg’s sign is said to be positive, when________. a. Sound side pelvis drop down, while standing on affected side b. Affected side pelvis drop down, while standing on sound side c. Sound side pelvis elevated, while standing on affected side d. Non of the above15 70. In Thomas test position limitation of hip adduction range indicates shortening of __. a. TFL b. ITB c. Iliopsoas d. Rectus femoris 71. In Thomas test position limitation of hip internal rotation range indicates shortening of _________. a. TFL b. ITB c. Iliopsoas d. Rectus femoris 72. Sterncledomastoid tightness is characterized by ________ deformity. a. Neck side flexion towards the affected side with rotation to opposite side b. Neck side flexion towards the sound side with rotation to affected side c. Neck side flexion and rotation towards the affected side d. Neck side flexion and rotation towards the sound side 73. Ober’s test is done to detect shortening of _______. a. Iliopsoas b. IT band c. hamstrings d. Gastro-soleus 74. Hip abductors at grade 3 is tested in inside lying on the sound side. For gluteus minimus hip abduction is done _______. a. In neutral position b. In flexion c. In extension d. In external rotation 75. To test Quadriceps for grade 2, the subject should lay ________. a. On affected side b. On sound c. In supine d. In prone 76. During elbow flexion in sitting, Triceps ________. a. Works concentrically b. Works eccentrically c. Works statically d. Does not work 77. Leg lowering from extended knee position, Quadriceps works ________. a. Concentrically b. Eccentrically c. Statically d. Isokinetically 78. Leg lowering against resistance from extended knee position, ________. a. Quadriceps works concentrically b. Quadriceps works eccentrically16 c. Hamstrings works concentrically d. Hamstrings works eccentrically 79. What should be the temperature of water in hydrotherapy unit? a. 270C – 350C b. 220C – 420C c. 320C – 350C d. None of the above 80. In hydrotherapy the factor/factors which can have an effect on heart rate is/are a. Temperature of water b. Hydrostatic pressure of water c. Both a and b d. Buoyancy of water 81. The upward movement inside the water is easy. The movement is assisted by ____. a. Gravity b. Buoyancy c. Hydrostatic pressure d. Water current 82. Which of the following properties of water helps a patient with lower extremity muscles weakness to stand in side hydrotherapy pool, which otherwise can not stand? a. Buoyancy b. Temperature of water c. Hydrostatic pressure d. Specific gravity 83. The cross infection in hydrotherapy can be checked by________. a. Boiling the water b. Washing the client before entering into the pool c. Controlling the environmental temperature, humidity etc. d. Chlorinating the water 84. Movement on the surface of the water is _________. a. Assisted buoyancy b. Supported buoyancy c. Supported hydrostatic pressure d. Resisted by the displaced water 85. The dangers of hydrotherapy is_________. a. Slippage and fall b. Drowning c. Infection d. All of the above 86. The danger of prolonged hydrotherapy is _________. a. Fatigue b. Water and electrolyte loss c. Rise in body temperature d. All the above 87. The contraindication of hydrotherapy is_________.17 a. Convulsions b. Respiratory diseases c. Incontinence of bowel & bladder d. All the above 88. Which of the following properties of water helps a patient with lower extremity muscles weakness to stand in side hydrotherapy pool, which otherwise can not stand? a. Buoyancy b. Temperature of water c. Hydrostatic pressure d. Specific gravity 89. For group therapy, maximum number of patients in group is about ______. a. 4-6 a. 6 -8 b. 8-10 c. More than 10 90. The advantages of group therapy ________. a. Time saving for therapist b. Builds up confidence in patients c. Maximizes patient’s effort and develop competition among the patients d. All the above 91. Mitchell technique of relaxation is based on the principle of ________________ a. Reciprocal innervations b. Autogenic inhibition c. Cue controlled relaxation d. Released only 92. Valsalva Maneuver should be avoided for a. Patients with hypertension b. Geriatric patients c. Patients who have undergone abdominal surgery d. All of the above 93. Progressive resistance exercises improve the muscle power in every individual a. True b. false c. Not always 94. Delayed onset muscle soreness peaks at a. 1 – 2 days. b. 2 – 3 days. c. 1 week d. None of the above 95. DOMS can be prevented by a. Adding warm up and cool down period to the exercise protocol b. By a gradually progressive exercise programme c. Achieving sretchability in the exercising muscle prior to the exercise programme d. All of the above18 96. If stair climbing has to be improved which exercises should be done? a. Closed chain concentric b. Closed chain concentric & eccentric c. Closed and open chain concentric & eccentric d. Open chain concentric exercises. 97. To improve function which exercise programme is preferable a. Closed chain concentric b. Open chain concentric c. Plyometric d. Closed chain concentric & eccentric 98. Which is not true for isokinetic exercise a. Exercise speed can vary from very low to very high speed b. Strength gain occurs at training speed c. Patient need to control the momentum. d. it improves muscle endurance 99. Which is the most important variable to improve muscle force generation capacity? a. Load b. Duration c. Sets d. Frequency 100. The minimum duration of exercise programme to improve strength should be at least. a. 3 weeks b. 6 weeks c. 10 weeks d. 12 weeks 101. What should be the progression of exercise protocol following musculoskeletal injury. a. Isometric – eccentric – concentric b. Isometric – concentric – concentric & eccentric c. Concentric – eccentric – concentric & eccentric d. Isometric - concentric – eccentric 102. Oxford technique is opposite of a. Dapre b. Delorme c. Mcqueen d. None of the above 103. In slow stretching a. GTO fires b. Muscle spindle fires c. Monosynaptic stretch reflex initiated d. None of the above 104. Tightness is same as a. Scar tissue adhesion b. Adaptive shortening19 c. Transient contracture d. Contracture. 105. When there is permanent deformation with a load of low magnitude and long duration in the elastic range it is known as. a. Fatigue failure b. Reaching elastic limit c. Creep d. Ultimate strength. 106. For most of our functional activities we use a. Toe region of collagen fibres b. Elastic portion of collagen fibre c. Plastic range d. None of the above 107. Which is the best method for stretching tight structures? a. Manual stretch b. Prolonged cyclic c. Prolonged sustained stretching d. Ballistic stretching 108. In any exercise programme for 1 MET increase of exercise level systolic blood pressure rises by a. 5 – 7 mmHg b. 7 – 10 mmHg c. 10 – 12 mmHg d. 12 – 15 mmHg 109. Active inhibition techniques are not effective for a. Muscle Weakness b. Spasticity c. Paralysis form neuromuscular dysfunction d. All of the above 110. Volume of training refers to a. Intensity multiplied by duration b. Total number of sets c. Sets multiplied by resistance d. None of the above 111. Usually more than _____________ sets cause musculoskeltal injury a. 2 set b. 3 set c. 5 set d. 10 set 112. In DAPRE the base repetition maximum is a. 10 RM b. 1 RM c. 6 RM d. 3 RM 113. To avoid muscle strain which is important among the following? a. Adequate strength20 b. Adequate extensibility c. Adequate resistance to fatigue d. All of the above 114. Which is not true in case of muscle strengthening a. Cross sectional area of the muscle increase b. Number of muscle fibre increase c. Mitochondrial density increases d. Energy sources for muscle activity increases 115. Which is the important factor to gain bone density? a. Resistance training b. Weight bearing aerobic conditioning c. Weight bearing resistance training d. Non weight bearing aerobic training 116. Which is not an effect of strengthening on CVS? a. Increased heart rate b. Decreased systolic BP c. Increased cardiac output d. Decreased cholesterol 117. Which is not true for endurance training? a. Increased use of fatty acid b. Increase used of glycogen c. Slowing accumulation of lactic acid in the working muscle d. None of the above 118. ACSM classifies for muscle strengthening programme, a person with 6 months of consistent resistance training experience as a. Novice b. Intermediate c. Advanced d. Elite 119. What is the % gain expected from untrained individual? a. Upto 10 % b. Upto 20 % c. Upto 40% d. Upto 60 % 120. How much gain in strength is expected from elite individual a. 2 % b. 5 % c. 10% d. 15 % 121. What is the optimal time of hold necessary for isometric contractions a. 6 seconds b. 10 seconds c. 12 seconds d. 12 seconds 122. The advantage of isometric contraction could be because it21 a. Helps for re – education b. Helps gaining muscle strength c. Prepares for dynamic exercise d. All of the above 123. Hypertensive can do isometrics with a hold period of a. < 1 sec b. < 2 sec c. < 3 sec d. < 5 sec 124. The cam system used in a weight machine provides a. Constant resistance b. Less resistance when patient is exhausted c. Less resistance at he beginning and end of ROM d. Gives resistance intermittently 125. Which is not an advantage of weight machine a. There is effective stabilization b. There is gain in proprioception and balance c. They are time efficient d. The equipment is time efficient 126. If balance is the rehabilitation goal which exercise programme is preferred? a. Weight machine b. Free machine c. Both have similar advantage for balance d. Pulley or cam machine 127. Hopping, skipping, jumping are form of a. Eccentric exercise b. Plyometrics c. Concentric followed by eccentric d. None of the above 128. The distinction of impact activities and plyometrics is its a. Eccentric phase b. For production c. Amortization phase d. Velocity of phases 129. Which is more functional speed in isokinetic training? a. High b. Intermediate c. Low d. Low followed by high 130. Ballistic stretching is helpful for a. Musculoskeletal patients b. Neurological patients c. Athletes d. All of the above. 131. If stretching is done upto 5 times with duration of stretch 30 sec. the length gain may last upto22 a. 5 minutes b. 10 minutes c. ½ hour d. 1 hour. 132. If 6 week stretching Programme is given, we expect the retention of gain up to a. 1 month b. 2 months c. 3 months d. 6 months. 133. For elderly individual the duration of stretch should be a. Same as younger individuals b. More than young people c. Less than young people d. Should not be given stretching. 134. Double support phase present at the _____ phase of gait cycle. a. Beginning of stance b. End of stance c. Beginning and end of stance d. Mid stance 135. The CG displaced to the highest level during ____ phase of gait cycle a. Foot flat b. Mid stance c. Double support d. Mid Swing 136. Horizontal displacement of CG during normal human locomotion is about ____. a. 2 cm b. 5 cm c. 7 cm d. 10 cm 137. Cadence is the number of steps per minute, which is equal to _____ in normal human locomotion. a. 70 – 90 b. 90 – 110 c. 90 – 130 d. 70 – 130 138. During normal human locomotion knee movement is co-ordinated with ankle movement to minimize the upward displacement of CG. The relationship between knee and ankle movements are_____. a. Knee flexion occurs with ankle dorsiflexion b. Knee extension occurs with ankle plantarflexion c. Knee flexion occurs with ankle plantarflexion d. Non of the above 139. At heel strike phase of gait cycle line of gravity passes behind the ankle joint creating plantar flexion moment, so a. Dorsiflexors act eccentrically b. Dorsiflexors act concentrically23 c. Plantarflexors act eccentrically d. Plantarflexors act concentrically 140. At midstance phase of gait cycle line of gravity passes behind the hip joint creating flexion moment. Weakness of Gluteus maximus gives rise to ____ gait. a. Hand to thigh gait b. Anterior trunk bending c. Posterior lurching d. Hip hiking 141. Stiff knee gait is characterized by ____. a. Lurching b. Hand to knee c. Hip hiking d. Steppage gait 142. Foot supination takes place during ____ phase of gait cycle. a. Heel strike to foot flat b. Foot flat to mid stance c. Mid stance to heel up d. Heel up to toe up 143. _____ muscle is known as decelerator in normal human locomotion. a. Ilio-psoas b. Gastro-soleus c. Hamstring d. Quadriceps 144. . Running is distinguished from walking by _____. a. Cadence more than 130/min. b. Absence of double support phase c. All of the above 145. Person with hip abductors weakness walks with lateral trunk bending towards the affected side during the stance phase, which___. a. Improves the efficacy of hip abductors b. Shifts the weight line towards the involved side c. Gives rise to apparent weight loss d. Provides momentum 146. Person with Quadriceps weakness walks with equines gait, correction of which a. Will loose the independent ambulation b. Improves the cosmesis and function c. Strengthen the Quadriceps d. Non of the above 147. _________manipulation is used to obtain sensory stimulation. a. stroking b. effleurage c. Kneading d. Friction 148. Which of the following is not a tapotement technique? a. clapping24 b. beating c. pounding d. petrissage 149. The movement required for hacking manipulation is______. a. forearm supination - pronation b. wrist flexion – extension c. elbow flexion – extension d. all of the above 150. A pillow is placed under the abdomen in prone lying position for the massage of the back to ____. a. flatten the back b. raise the pelvis to facilitate drainage c. relieve pressure over the breasts in case of female d. all of the above 151. The benefits of correct Therapist’s position ___. a. stress on therapist’s back is reduced b. little energy expenditure as body weight is used c. direction, pressure and rhythm of movements are easily controlled d. all of the above Answer Sheet Exercise therapy 1. c 41. b 81. b 121. a 2. b 42. d 82. c 122. d 3. d 43. a 83. d 123. b 4. d 44. a 84. d 124. c 5. b 45. a 85. d 125. b 6. c 46. b 86. d 126. b 7. c 47. c 87. d 127. b 8. d 48. d 88. c 128. c 9. c 49. b 89. b 129. a 10. c 50. a 90. d 130. c 11. b 51. a 91. a 131. a 12. a 52. b 92. d 132. a 13. b 53. d 93. c 133. b 14. b 54. b 94. a 134. c 15. a 55. a 95. d 135. b 16. d 56. d 96. b 136. b 17. a 57. d 97. d 137. d 18. a 58. b 98. c 138. c 19. c 59. d 99. a 139. a 20. c 60. b 100. b 140. c 21. b 61. b 101. a 141. c 22. b 62. c 102. b 142. d25 23. c 63. c 103. a 143. c 24. a 64. a 104. c 144. d 25. b 65. c 105. c 145. b 26. d 66. b 106. a 146. a 27. d 67. a 107. b 147. a 28. b 68. d 108. b 148. d 29. d 69. a 109. d 149. a 30. b 70. b 110. c 150. d 31. b 71. c 111. b 151. d 32. d 72. a 112. c 33. a 73. b 113. d 34. a 74. a 114. c 35. b 75. b 115. c 36. c 76. d 116. a 37. c 77. b 117. b 38. c 78. c 118. b 39. b 79. a 119. c 40. a 80. c 120. a II - ELECTROTHERAPY 1. What is the international color code of the active, neutral and earthed wires? a. red/brown is active, black/blue is neutral and yellow/green is earthed b. black/blue is active, red/brown is neutral and yellow/green is earthed c. red/brown is active, yellow/green is neutral and red/brown is earthed d. yellow/green is active, black/blue is neutral and red/brown is earthed 2. Which of the following factor will cause electric shock? a. fault such that an exposed part of the apparatus becomes live b. a person makes contact with the live part c. the person is earthed d. all of the above 3. Which of the following will prevent electric shock? a. use of isolated transformer, so that the current applied to the patient become earth free b. incorporation of a high sensitivity core-balanced relay device/apparatus should have its own fuse c. the patient and apparatus should be kept distant from earthed objects e.g. metal furniture, water pipelines etc. d. all of the above 4. Which of the following is/are the effects of electric shock? a. ventricular fibrillation26 b. burn c. muscle rupture, avulsion fracture or paralysis d. all of the above 5. Which of the following factor/s determines effects of electric shock? a. types of current, AC is more dangerous than DC b. duration of current exposure and intensity c. path of current through the body d. all of the above 6. What are the resistances of the dry and wet skin? a. 10,000 – 60,000 ohm and 5,000 ohm respectively b. 100,000 – 600,000 ohm and 1,000 ohm respectively c. 10,000 – 60,000 ohm and 10,000 ohm respectively d. 10, 00,000 – 60, 00,000 ohm and 10,000 ohms respectively 7. The skin resistance can be reduced before applying electrical stimulation _____. a. washing the skin by soap and warm water and cleaning by applying spirit or alcohol b. massage the part in elevation if edema is present c. soak the part with normal saline d. all of the above 8. Sequence of operation of electrotherapy equipments is_____. a. M-mains and machine on, C-clock on, P-power on b. P-power on, M-mains and machine on, C-clock on c. C-clock on, P-power on, M-mains and machine on d. M-mains and machine on, P-power on, C-clock on 9. Burn in electrotherapy occurs due to___. a. overdose b. inability to dissipate heat due to peripheral vascular disease c. loss of sensation d. all of the above 10. Exacerbation of symptoms of symptoms following electrotherapy occurs due to___. a. Acute inflammation/infection b. area of increased fluid tension e.g. edema, effusion c. haemmorrhagic conditions d. all of the above 11. Electrical activity in the cells of the body can be described as a. Conduction current b. Convection current c. Both conduction and convection d. Radiation 12. Electrical activity of body is lower than the electrical circuits because a. It is dependent on movement of ions b. Pathways are shorter c. The mass of ion is smaller d. All of the above 13. Negativity of resting membrane potential is due to27 a. Potassium is more permeable than sodium b. Three sodium ejected for two potassium c. Potassium is brought into the cell and sodium expelled out of the cell d. All of the above 14. How much change of action potential can trigger a depolarization a. 5 – 10 mv b. 10 – 15 mv c. 15 – 20 mv d. >25 mv 15. Usually various pulsed currents cause a. Chemical changes b. Stimulate excitable tissue c. Heating in the tissue d. Changes in growth and repair in tissue 16. Before applying any electrical modality, the therapist should reason out a. Whether the modality has the ability to achieve the intended effect? b. Is it safe? c. Is this the best modality for the particular effect d. All of the above 17. The essential for electromagnetic induction is a. A conductor b. Magnetic lines of forces c. Movement of the conductor and magnetic lines of force relatively d. All of the above 18. To prevent the occurrence of eddy currents a. An insulator is used b. A spherical conductor is used c. A laminated conductor is used d. None of the above 19. A choke coil is used a. To even out the variations of intensity of current b. To prevent the flow of high frequency current and allow the flow of low frequency current c. (a) & (b) d. None of the above 20. The unit of capacitance is a. Ampere b. Volt c. Farad d. None of the above 21. The low frequency current is up to a. 1000Hz b. 50Hz c. 100Hz d. None of the above 22. The duration of condenser discharge depends on ----28 a. Capacitance & resistance b. Intensity of current c. Voltage d. None 23. Russian current is a. Low frequency b. Medium frequency c. High frequency d. None of the above 24. All electromagnetic radiations have a. Same velocity b. Same wavelength c. Same frequency d. None of the above 25. The name of the coil used to produce faradic current in past was a. Choke coil b. Smart bristow faradic coil c. Induction coil d. None of above 26. Pulse ration is the ratio of current or voltage required a. By 110 ms & 30 ms pulse b. 1 ms & 30 ms pulse c. 1 ms & 10 ms pulse d. 1 ms & 100 ms pulse 27. Faradic current is ___. a. An alternating current b. A direct current c. Interrupted current d. Modified current 28. Galvanic current is ___. a. An alternating current b. A direct current c. Interrupted current d. Modified current 29. _________ current is used for the stimulation of innervated muscles. a. Faradic b. Faradic type c. Surged faradic d. Interrupted galvanic 30. Faradic current when applied a. Recruit type I fibre followed by type II b. Recruit type II followed by type I c. Recruit type I alone d. Recruit type II alone 31. Electric pulse which will stimulate a nerve a. Rapid rising & duration less than 1ms29 b. Slow rising & duration less than 1ms c. Rapid rising & duration less than 100 ms d. None of the above 32. Which of the followings is an absolute contraindication for electrical stimulation a. Pace maker. b. Insensitive skin. c. Unconscious patient. d. Ischemic heart disease. 33. Which stimulator is more comfortable, safe but less accurate ? a. Constant current b. Constant voltage c. Both d. None of the above 34. The motor point of a muscle is found at a. Proximal 2/3rd and distal one third of muscle belly b. Proximal 1/4th with distal 3/4th of muscle belly c. Proximal 1/3rd and distal 2/3rd of muscle belly d. 50% of muscle length 35. Nerve accommodation can be avoided by ------- a. Surging the current b. Using varying current c. Using a varying current that rises and falls suddenly d. None of the above 36. The electrode which can easily depolarize the membrane of a nerve is __ a. Positively charged b. Negatively charged c. Called indifferent electrode d. None of the above 37. The technique to stretch adhesion in a muscle is called a. Faradism under pressure b. Faradic foot bath c. Faradism under tension d. None of the above 38. Due to acetylcholine hyperactivity--------- a. The rheobase of enervated tissue is less b. The rheobase of innervated tissue is less c. For innervated and denervated tissue it is same d. None of the above 39. The appropriate current to know tendon rupture------- a. Faradic current b. TENS c. Galvanic current d. None of the above 40. 1 ms pulse of 1mA current would have a. 1 coulomb b. 1 coulomb30 c. 1m coulomb d. None of the above 41. In a dynamic application of current which type of stimulation is preferable? a. Constant current b. Constant voltage c. Both are preferred d. None of them preferred 42. Long duration current can have a pulse duration a. >1sec b. >1m sec c. 100 m sec d. 1 sec 43. Accommodation pulses can stimulate a. Sensory nerve b. Motor nerve c. Muscles d. All of the above 44. Short duration currents have duration of a. < 1 m sec b. < 1  sec c. < 10 m sec d. < 10  sec 45. Pulses of TENS are usually a. Uniphasic b. Biphasic c. Biphasic with even charge d. Biphasic, even charge with equal or unequal pulse shape in both direction 46. A fibers stimulated by a. High TENS b. Low TENS c. Both d. None of the above 47. Non-myelinated fiber is a. A b. A c. A d. C 48. Depolarization of nerve occurs when the current is beyond threshold value about _______. a. 1 mv b. 10 mv c. 100 mv d. 1 v 49. In a rectangular pulse rheobase current a pulse duration of ______________ can initiate a nerve impulse a. < 1 m sec31 b. < 0.5 m sec c. < 10 m sec d. < 100 m sec 50. Nociceptors are stimulated with a current intensity a. More than that stimulates sensory nerve b. More than that stimulate a motor nerve c. More than that cause tingling d. Less than that requires to produce a twitch 51. If the intensity remains constant at what frequency of current, the muscle contraction may decrease a. < 100 Hz b. 100 Hz c. 1000 Hz d. < 1000 Hz 52. What is the optimal frequency for muscle contraction? a. 10 – 20 Hz b. 20 – 30 Hz c. 30 – 40 Hz d. 40 – 60 Hz 53. Fast twitch muscle fibers can be stimulated at a frequency of a. 10 – 20 Hz b. 30 – 40 Hz c. 50 – 150 Hz d. 200 Hz 54. For a pulse duration of 1 ms what can be the maximum frequency for nerve depolarization a. 100 Hz b. 500 Hz c. 1000Hz d. None of the above 55. Rhythmical 1 – 100 Hz interferential current may be helpful for a. Muscle contraction b. Pain relief c. Reduction of edema d. None of the above 56. Benefit of Russian current over faradic stimulation is a. Better pain relieving effect b. Covers larger stimulation area c. Stimulation of deep muscles d. Better facilitator of healing 57. Which is a better electrotherapy modality for stress incontinence? a. TENS b. Faradic Stimulation c. IFT d. I.D.C 58. Skin impedance is32 a. High for shorter pulse duration b. High for longer pulse duration c. Not affected by pulse duration d. High for high frequency current 59. Which one among the following is true for voluntary and electrical stimulation? a. Voluntary contraction stimulates type I but electrical stimulation stimulates type II fibres b. Voluntary stimulates type II but electrical stimulation type I c. There is gradual recruitment in electrical stimulation d. There is synchronized response in voluntary contraction 60. In the pre-mode application of IFT a. Electrode placement is not easy b. Under the electrode current is more c. Difficult to accurately reach the affected area d. Strong contraction can not be achieved 61. What is the normal difference in current intensity between the two sides? a. < 2 mA b. < 4 mA c. < 6 mA d. < 8 mA 62. Beyond the conduction block in case of neurapraxia what should be the difference of current between two sides? a. < 2 mA b. < 4 mA c. < 6 mA d. < 8 mA 63. In unilateral nerve injury, when the required current intensity for stimulation is 10 – 20 times of opposite side normal muscle then what might be the condition? a. Neurapraxia b. Axonotemesis of few nerve fibers c. Axonotomesis of all most all nerve fibers d. Neurotemesis 64. What might be the strength of current required to stimulate a muscle with pulse of 10ms duration a. Same as required for 30 ms pulse b. Same as required for 1 ms pulse c. Twice as 30 m sec pulse d. Half of 1 ms pulse 65. The rheobase is a. Unchanged in a denervated muscle b. Increases in a denervated muscle c. Decreases in a denervated muscle d. First increase then decrease 66. Which are among the following is correct for SD curve plotting a. Constant current machine more comfortable b. Constant voltage machine is more comfortable33 c. Constant current comfortable & less accurate d. Constant voltage comfortable and less accurate 67. SD curve can a. Distinguish between innervation & denervation b. Distinguish between innervated and denervated but can not quantify the state of innervation c. Distinguish innervated and denervated and quantify the state of innervation d. None 68. Chronaxie for denervated muscle is a. < 1 ms b. < 10 ms c. > 10 ms d. > 1 ms 69. Rheobase is a. Maximum tolerable current for a nerve impulse at long duration b. Minimum current for a nerve impulse at short duration c. Minimum current for a nerve impulse at long duration d. None of the above 70. Utilization time is a. Same as chronaxie b. Pulse duration at rheobase current c. Shortest duration of pulse at rheobase current d. Longest duration of pulse at rheobase current 71. EMG reveals action potential of a. Muscle b. Motor unit c. Nerve fiber d. None of the above 72. Which electrodes are used for more accurate EMG? a. Surface electrodes b. Needle electrode c. Both d. None 73. The physiological changes that occur during bio-feedback is due to a. Unknown pathway b. known pathway c. Both d. None of the above 74. In EMG activities studied are a. Insertional , spontaneous b. Insert ional & exert ional c. Spontaneous & exert ional d. Insert ional, spontaneous & exert ional 75. Which is a normal spontaneous activity? a. Fibrillation34 b. Positive sharp wave c. End phase spike d. None of the above 76. Which is not true for positive sharp wave? a. Diphasic potential b. Abrupt positive initial deflection c. Abrupt negative delay d. All of the above 77. What is not false about denervation potential? a. They appear 2-5 weeks after nerve injury b. They are present in primary muscle disease c. Includes fibrillation , fasciculation d. All of the above 78. Which is true for fasciculation? a. Spontaneous firing of the action potential of single muscle fibre b. None volitional random contraction of group of muscle fibre c. Duration 1-5 msec d. Frequency 1-50 Hz 79. The medium frequency current create a numbness, for which patient perceives a reduction in the intensity of current, is known as a. Amplitude inhibition b. Current modulation c. Widensky inhibition d. None of the above 80. The chemical burn expected to occur due to passage of DC current into the body is likely to occur at a. Cathode b. Anode c. Both the electrodes d. Where acids are formed 81. While applying DC, the important parameter for therapeutic purpose is a. Current intensity b. Circuit resistance c. Current density d. The duration of application 82. In iontophoresis the total number of ions introduced into the tissue proportional to a. Current b. Current density c. Time of application d. Both b & c 83. For iontophoresis the positively charged ions should be kept at a. Anode b. Cathode c. Any electrode d. Both the electrodes35 84. The factor/factors important for penetration of ion into the tissue is/are a. Specific conductivity of solution b. pH of solution c. Precipitation formed by ions d. All of the above 85. The mechanism of wound healing by electrical stimulation is supposed to be due to a. Skin battery b. Enhanced DNA and protein synthesis c. The migration of epithelial and connective tissue cells d. All of the above 86. What should be the sequence of application of current for an infected wound? a. Cathode on wound, < 1ma current, change of polarity of electrode b. Anode on wound, < 1ma current, change of polarity of electrode c. Cathode on wound, > 1ma current, change of polarity of electrodes d. Anode on wound, > 1ma current, change of polarity of electrode 87. The duration of anesthesia effect by application of anesthetic agent through iontophoresis is a. 2 minutes b. < 5 minutes c. Within 15 minutes d. 20 minutes 88. What is the best therapeutic use of iontophoresis? a. As local anesthesia b. To apply antibiotics c. To apply anti inflammatory drug d. For treatment of hyper hydro sis 89. Which is not true for iontophoresis a. Eliminates first pass metabolism b. Uncontrolled drug delivery c. Avoid pain that accompanies injection d. Decrease risk of infection. 90. Which iontophoresis is used for hyper hydro sis a. Metallic silver b. Glycopyrronium bromide c. Xanthenes nicotinamide d. Vinc alkaloid 91. Zinc iontophoresis is used for a. Neutrogena pain b. Ischemic ulcers c. Non healing ulcers d. Anti – inflammatory effect 92. Fungal skin infection can be treated by a. Zinc iontophoresis b. Dexamethasone iontophoresis c. Copper iontophoresis36 d. Iodine iontophoresis 93. The principle of applying direct current to the body is a. There should be uniform current density b. Provide a complete circuit c. The indifferent electrode size should be more than 2 ½ times the active electrode placed at therapeutic d. All of the above 94. The number of moles of a given ion that will be released by passage of current directly proportional to a. Amperes of charge b. Ejection time c. Transport number d. a & b e. All of the above 95. Factors that affect the iontophoretic transport are a. Concentration of various ions in the solution b. Vehicle pH c. Current strength d. Solute concentration e. All of the above 96. Among the following which is not true for application of iontophoresis a. Low risk of infection b. Enhanced drug penetration c. Less systemic absorption d. Maximum skin irritation 97. For the edema reduction the following ion is used a. Acetate b. Copper c. Hyaluronidase d. None of the above 98. What can be the source for iontophoresis in hyper hydro sis a. Iodine b. Acetic acid c. Zinc d. Tap water 99. A typical iontophoretic drug delivery dose is …………. a. 20 mA- min b. 40 mA –min c. 60 mA – min d. 80 mA – min 100. If DC is used for pain relief the dosage varies with a. Diagnosis of the condition b. Skin pigmentation c. Polarity of electrode on treatment site d. All of the above37 101. Therapist should be cautious to treat patients with iontophoresis if they give history of a. Skin reaction to histamine b. Dizziness c. Chronic headache d. All 102. For Calcific deposit , the ion selected is a. Copper 500 – 600 C b. Acetate c. Calcium d. Magnesium 103. While treating hyperhydrosis in adults initially the dosage should be a. >100 mA min b. <100 mA min c. 200 mA min d. 300 mA min 104. Chemical reaction increases by about ---------for each 10C increase of tissue temperature a. 10 % b. 20 % c. 14 % d. 13 % 105. High frequency current when applied to the body a. Produces motor stimulation b. Produces sensory stimulation c. Produces heat d. None of the above 106. Heat is produced in the body by the effect of ________ a. Low Frequency Current b. Medium Frequency current c. High Frequency Current d. None of above 107. Which is not a deep heating modality? a. US b. SWD c. MWD d. HP 108. Cyclotherm apparatus is a - --- a. Heating modality b. Cooling modality c. Both a& b d. None 109. The temperature of PWB is a. 30- 40 C b. 40- 50 C c. 25- 55 C38 d. None of the above 110. PWB is comfortable at 500 C temperatures, whereas water at 500 C temperature causes damage to skin, why? a. Low specific heat of PWB b. High specific heat of PWB c. High viscosity of PWB d. Latent heat of fusion of PWB 111. Region of thermal comfort is between a. 450 – 50 C b. 50 - 350 C c. 150 – 250 C d. 50 – 450 C 112. The mode of heat transfer by hot pack, whirl pool bath, paraffin wax bath is___. a. conduction and convention b. conduction and radiation c. radiation and convention d. conduction, radiation and convention 113. The Hydro collator packs are heated up to ------------ temperature a. 500 – 600 C b. 750 – 80 C c. 400 – 500 C d. Non of the above 114. Which is superficial heating modality? a. Hydro collator, Wax bath, Hydrotherapy & Ultra sound. b. Electric heat pad, Fluido therapy, Short wave diathermy & Infra red c. Hot pack, Wax bath, Hydrotherapy & Infrared d. Microwave, Hot pack, Hydro therapy & Hot water bath 115. Heat is used prior to passive stretching exercises because of a. Analgesic effect, reduction of viscosity and decrease collagen extensibility ans:b b. Analgesic effect, reduction of viscosity and increase collagen extensibility c. Analgesic effect, increase of viscosity and increase collagen extensibility d. Analgesic effect, increase of viscosity, sedative effect and reduction of muscle spasm 116. The loosing of heat from body by sweating through a. Conduction b. Convection c. Radiation d. None of the above 117. Heat is regulated by ----- a. Shivering b. Brown adipose tissue c. Sweating d. All of the above 118. Treatment by means of natural sunlight is called___. a. Actinotherapy b. Photo therapy39 c. Heliotherapy d. Radiating therapy 119. For which one among the following specific heat is highest a. Human body b. Water c. Blood d. Muscle 120. In wax bath the temperature is kept at a pre set temperature by using a. Alcohol in glass thermometer b. Thermostat c. Thermister d. None of the above 121. There is a circadian variation of body temperature of about a. 1 degree C b. 2 degree C c. 1 degree F d. degree F 122. Indiba treatment is modern version of a. Short-wave diathermy b. Medium- wave diathermy c. Long- wave diathermy d. Inductothermy 123.When high frequency current is transmitted into the tissue , the molecules a. Vibrate b. Oscillate c. Distort d. None of the above 124. The tissue that accumulates maximum heat with condenser field application of SWD is a. skin. b. Fat. c. Muscle. d. Blood. 125. The tissue heated most with cable method of SWD is a. Periosteum. b. Blood. c. Bone. d. Muscle. 126. Dissipation of heat in SWD is maximized due to a. Evaporation of sweat. b. Air circulation. c. Increased blood flow. d. Contraction of muscle. 127.In SWD most uniform field in the tissues is given by a. Narrow spacing b. Wide spacing40 c. Medium spacing d. Even spacing 128. Therapeutic frequency of SWD is a. 27.12 K Hz b. 27.12 MHz c. 27.12 G Hz d. None of the above 129. Sinuses are treated by SWD using ____ method. a. coplanar b. contra planar c. cross fire d. monode 130. The beneficial effects of PSWD is in accordance with a. Vant Hoffs rule b. Joules law c. Arndt – Schultz law d. None of the above 131. The frequency at which there is oscillation in the multivibrator circuit is a. f =1/LC b. 1/2 Π LC c. 1/2 Π L d. 1/2 Π √LC 132. During SWD application the treated part is included in the a. Oscillator circuit b. Resonator circuit c. Variable capacitor d. None of the above 133. The depth of penetration of MWD lies a. Between SWD and Infra red. b. Between SWD and PWB. c. Between SWD and US d. None of the above 134. Which of the following is the intermediate heating modality? a. IRR b. MWD c. SWD d. US 135. The approximate half value depth of penetration of Microwave is a. 6 cm b. 4 cm c. 3 cm d. 1.5 cm 136. The depth of penetration of Microwaves is a. Greater than Shortwaves b. Lesser than Infrared c. Greater than Infrared & Lesser than Shortwaves41 d. None of the above 137. Microwaves are absorbed mostly in a. Fat & fibrous tissues b. Bone c. Blood vessels d. Nerves 138. Superluminous diodes in Laser Therapy is characterized by ---------. a. Monochromatic, Collimated, Coherent b. Nonmonochromatic, Collimated, Coherent c. Monochromatic, Collimated, non - Coherent d. Monochromatic, non-Collimated, Coherent 139. LASER produces visible as well as infrared radiation, while infra red is strongly absorbed by a. Water b. Haemoglobin c. Melanin d. Nervous tissue 140. What would be the energy density of laser therapy if mean power= 10mw, beam area = 1 cm & treatment time 30 sec a. 1 J/cm b. 3 J/cm. c. 0.3 J/cm. d. J/cm. 141. Which is not a neuropharmacological effect of laser for pain modulation? a. alteration of serotonin metabolism b. effect on collinergic system c. opiate mediated d. non opiate mediated 142. For tennis elbow the laser dose is a. 1.5 J/cm2 b. 5 J/cm2 c. 16-24 J/cm2 d. 8-12 J/cm2 143. If pulse energy is1 J, repetition rate is10Hz, energy (laser) would be a. 600J b. 60 J c. 10 J d. 1 J 144. Movement of drug through skin into subcutaneous tissue under the influence of Ultrasound is a. Iontophoresis b. Phonophoresis c. Both d. None of the above 145. Ultrasound absorption is least in a. Fat42 b. Blood c. Skin d. Bone 146. Which is not contraindication to US? a. Radiotherapy b. Haemoarthrosis c. First week after bony injury d. After laminectomy 147. Cavitation is a. Thermal effects of US b. Non- thermal effects of US c. All the above d. None of the above 148. The characteristic of coupling medium are -------. a. High transmission properties, high viscosity, chemically inactive ans: a b. High transmission properties, high velocity, bubble formation c. Hypo allergic character, relative sterility and more difference in acoustic impedance between tissue and media d. Low viscosity, low transmission, high absorption properties. 149. The therapeutic range of Ultra-Sound is a. 1-5 Hz b. 5-10 Hz c. 0..5-5 MHz d. 0.5-100MHz 150. Pulsed treatment of Ultra-Sound is given a. For thermal effect b. For non- thermal effect c. Higher intensities can be given safely d. For chronic disease conditions 151. In ultrasound a. The energy travels as waves. b. The energy pass as molecule c. The energy travels as matter d. None of the above 152. When the piezo electric crystal change shape the parameter produced is a. Amplitude of wave b. Frequency of the waves c. On and off pulses d. Wavelength of the wave 153. The velocity of ultra sound in a medium depends upon its a. Density b. Elasticity c. Both density and elasticity d. Neither density nor elasticity. 154. What is the length of fresnel zone in 3 cm diameter transducer working at 1MHz (wave length 1.5mm),43 a. 10 cm b. 4.5 cm c. 15 cm d. 6 cm 155. In therapeutic ultrasound the energy travels a. More in periphery of beam b. More in centre of the beam c. Uniform around the beam d. There is changing over from periphery to centre of beam. 156. Absorption of ultrasound is greatest in tissues with a. Greatest water content and least structural protein content b. Greatest water and structural protein content c. Lowest water & structural protein content d. Greatest structural protein & lowest water content. 157. In the body the absorption of ultrasound is maximum in a. blood b. nerve c. skin d. bone 158. Attenuation of ultrasound is due to a. Reflection and refraction b. Absorption and scattering c. Reflection & absorption d. Scattering & refraction 159. For an ultrasound application output of 1W/cm2 how much will be the approximate temperature a. 10c/min b. 20c/min c. 30c/min d. 50c/min 160. For pulsed ultrasound application if the pulse length is 2ms and the interval is 8ms. What is the duty cycle. a. 25% b. 20% c. 10% d. None of the above 161. The purpose of application of pulsed ultrasound is to a. Dissipate the heat in the interval b. To produce higher mechanical effect c. To lessen the thermal effect d. To lessen thermal effect and increase the mechanical effect. 162. What can produce transient cavitation? a. High intensity b. High frequency c. Continuous mode of ultrasound d. None of the above.44 163. In the acute stage ultrasound has a a. Anti inflammatory effect b. Pro inflammatory effect c. Vasodilatory & washing out effect d. Pain relieving effect 164. In the granulation stage U.S can a. Promote collagen synthesis b. Enhance growth of capillaries c. Helps in proliferation of fibroblast d. All of the above 165. For stress fracture, therapeutic U.S is a. Therapeutic b. Diagnostic c. Diagnostic & therapeutic d. Preventive 166. U.S may not be effective in a. Soft tissue injury b. Bony injury c. Improving muscle blood flow d. Chronic pain. 167. Therapeutic ultrasound uses a. Near field b. Far field c. Both near and far field d. More near field less far field 168. The ultrasound energy is more when a. Frequency is high b. Amplitude is high c. Frequency and amplitude both are high d. Frequency low and amplitude is high 169. The relationship between penetration and absorption of ultrasound energy is a. Direct b. Inverse c. Linear d. None of the above 170. The approximate average half value depth of ultrasound of 1 M Hz frequency is a. 100 mm b. 65 mm c. 35 mm d. 25 mm 171. The approximate average half value depth of ultrasound of 3 M Hz frequency is a. 70mm b. 60 mm c. 30 mm45 d. 20 mm 172. Excessive dose of ultrasound causes periosteal pain which is mainly due to a. Absorption b. Scattering c. Penetration d. Shear wave 173. During ultrasound application the head is moved to------------. a. Smooth out the irregularities of near field b. Reduce irregularities of absorption c. Both a & b d. None 174. By pulsing the ultrasound wave a. Spatial average intensity is reduced b. Time average intensity is reduced c. Spatial peak temporal peak is reduced d. None of the above 175. To have effect on intracellular calcium system the ultrasound duty cycle should be a. 10% b. 20% c. 30% d. 40% 176. The Maximum penetration depth of IR is ------- . a. 3000 nm b. 1000 nm c. 700 nm d. 15000 nm 177. Depth of penetration of infrared of 3000nm wavelength is a. 1 mm b. 3 mm c. 0.1 mm d. 2 mm 178. Infra-red has a strong effect on a. Bone b. Fat c. Skin d. Non of the above 179. Infra red radiation has the wave length in between a. Ultra violate and Visible radiation b. Micro wave diathermy and Visible radiation. c. Micro wave diathermy and Ultra violate radiation. d. Micro wave diathermy and Ultrasound 180. Penetration depth in Infra-red a. 100% infra-red absorbed b. 50% infra-red absorbed c. 63% infra-red absorbed46 d. 83% infra-red absorbed 181. Infra red of 1000nm wave length can penetrate up to a. Epidermis. b. Dermis. c. Muscle. d. Bone 182. In infrared radiation the frequency is a. Directly proportional to the temperature b. Inversely proportional to the temperature c. Does not have any relation with temperature d. Directly proportional to the shape of the object 183. Human body emits a. Infrared b. Microwave c. Ultrasound d. None of the above 184. Among the following electrotherapy modalities which is the right sequence of decreasing frequency? a. Infra red, ultrasound, short wave , interferential b. Infra red, microwave, short wave, interferential c. Ultraviolet, microwave, infra red, interferential d. Infra red, ultraviolet, microwave, medium frequency current 185. The local errythema after infrared radiation may lasts up to a. 10 minutes b. 20 minutes c. 30 minutes d. 1 hour 186. At what distance should the infrared lamp of 750 watts be placed? a. 4 meter b. 6 meter c. 1 meter d. 1.5 meter 187. Which is not a contraindication of infra red? a. Psoriasis b. Defective arterial cutaneous circulation c. Dermatitis d. Defective blood pressure regulation 188. UVA is a. Biotic b. Abiotic c. Germicidal d. None of the above 189. Epidermal transit time is about a. 30 days b. 6 days c. 28 days47 d. 21 days 190. The UVR most effective in producing Vit.- D is a. 400-313 nm b. 200-280 nm c. 280-300 nm d. None of the above 191. UV B & UV C are absorbed in ----------. a. Cornea b. Lens of eye c. Both d. None of the above 192. Which law is applicable to determine the distance between ultraviolet source and skin? a. Inverse square law b. Bunsen-Roscoe raciprocity law c. Van’t Hoff’s law d. None of the above 193. Neonatal Jaundice can be treated by --- a. Red light b. Blue light c. Infra red d. Yellow light 194. Prolonged application of UVR may produce skin cancers because– a. It damages melanocytes b. It damages keratinocytes c. It damages sebaceous glands d. It damages langerhans cells. 195. Which is not therapeutics effect of UVR a. Reduction of blood pressure b. Treatment of acne valgaris c. Pain reduction d. Increased vitamin-D production 196. Treatment with UVR and visible radiation is a. Helio therapy b. Actino therapy c. Photo therapy d. Photobiomodulation 197. Which UV radiation is/are abiotic a.UVA b.UVA&UVB c.UVC d.UVA &UVC 198. Mostly UVR is absorbed in a. Epidermis b. Dermis c. Subcutaneous tissue48 d. Capillary loop 199. E2 dose of UVR IS a. 2 X E1 dose b. 2.5 X E1 dose c. 3 X E1 dose d. 5 X E1 dose 200. Skin oedema occurs in ---------- dose of UVR a. E1 b. E2 c. E3 d. E4 201. E3 dose of UVR can be given to ----------% of body a. 50% b. 22% c. 11% d. 4% 202. Erythema is best provoked by a. UVA b. UVB c. UVC d. All provoke erythema to the same extent 203. Which one among the UVR can produce cataract? a. UVA b. UVB c. UVC d. All can produce cataract to the same extent 204. The strongest predictor for intramuscular cooling is a. Skin temperature b. Adipose tissue thickness c. Room and core temperature d. Time 205. The systemic effects of cryotherapy is a. Increased blood pressure b. Decreased blood pressure c. Decreased cardiac output d. None of the above 206. Cold induced vasodilatation is due to a. Local neurogenic axon reflex b. Local release of vasodilator hormone c. Gradual paralysis of smooth muscles of vessels d. All of the above 207. Optimal temperature at which enzyme system for chemical and biological process operates is a. 150C b. 210C c. 270C49 d. 360C 208. When the tissue temperature is 10 – 110C metabolism reduces by a. 25% b. 50% c. 75% d. None of the above 209. Peripheral nerve fibres those are affected by cooling in order are a. A δ,Aβ, Aγ b. Aβ, Aγ, C c. B, C , Aγ d. All the fibres are equally affected 210. Joint position sense is affected by cryotherapy upto a. 5 minutes b. 10 minutes c. Up to 15 minutes d. 30 minutes 211. To have neuromuscular effect of cryotherapy the application should be upto a. 20 minutes b. 30 minutes c. 45 minutes d. None of the above 212. For facilitation brisk icing duration is a. 1 second b. 2 second c. 3 second d. 4 second 213. Spasticity can be reduced by a. Heating b. Cooling c. SWD d. TENS 214. Kaolin has been used as a. Hot moist pack b. Dry hot pack c. Cold pack d. UV 215. Evaporating spray used in sports injury, contains a. Fluori methane. b. Fluori ethane. c. Chlori ethane. d. Ethyl chloride. 216. Fluido therapy contains a. Warm water in large cabinet. b. Water in room temp in large cabinet. c. Cold water in large cabinet. d. Mass of tiny cellulose particles suspended in moving air50 217. Under cold condition the blood flow to each 100 gms of skin can be reduced to minimum about a. 2 ml/ min b. 20 ml/ min c. 30 ml/ min d. 1 ml/ min. 218. Which fibers are least affected by ice? a. C fiber b. Delta fiber c. Aβ fiber d. A Gamma fiber 219. Which therapeutic effect will differentiate between cold and heat treatments? a. Relieving pain b. Reduction of spasticity c. Reduction of spasm d. None of above 220. The extent of reduction in tissue temperature following cryotherapy depend on_. a. Nature of substance applied and region of the body to which it is applied b. Temperature difference between the substance and the skin c. Duration of application d. All of the above Answer Sheet Electrotherapy 1. a 41. b 81. c 121. a 161. b 201. d 2. d 42. b 82. d 122. c 162. a 202. c 3. d 43. c 83. a 123. c 163. b 203. a 4. d 44. a 84. a 124. b 164. d 204. d 5. d 45. d 85. d 125. b 165. b 205. a 6. b 46. a 86. d 126. c 166. c 206. d 7. d 47. d 87. c 127. c 167. a 207. c 8. a 48. b 88. d 128. b 168.c 208. b 9. d 49. a 89. b 129. c 169. b 209. a 10. d 50. b 90. b 130. c 170. b 210. c 11. b 51. b 91. b 131. d 171. c 211. b 12. d 52. c 92. c 132. b 172. d 212. d 13. d 53. c 93. d 133. a 173. c 213. b 14. b 54. b 94. e 134. b 174. b 214. a 15. d 55. c 95. e 135. c 175. b 215. a 16. d 56. c 96. d 136. c 176. b 216. d 17. d 57. c 97. c 137. c 177. c 217. d 18. c 58. b 98. d 138. c 178. c 218. a 19. c 59. a 99. b 139. a 179. b 219. b51 20. c 60. b 100. d 140. c 180. c 220. d 21. a 61. a 101. d 141. c 181. b 22. a 62. a 102. b 142. c 182. a 23. b 63. c 103. b 143. a 183. a 24. a 64. c 104. d 144. b 184. b 25. b 65. c 105. c 145. b 185. c 26. d 66. b 106. c 146. c 186. b 27. a 67. c 107. d 147. b 187. a 28. b 68. c 108. c 148. a 188. a 29. c 69. c 109.b 149. c 189. c 30. a 70. c 110. a 150. b 190. c 31. a 71. b 111. c 151. a 191. a 32. a 72. b 112. a 152. b 192. a 33. b 73. a 113. b 153. c 193. b 34. c 74. d 114. c 154. c 194. d 35. c 75. c 115. b 155. b 195. d 36. b 76. c 116. b 156. d 196. c 37. c 77. c 117. d 157. d 197. c 38. a 78. b 118. c 158. b 198. a 39. a 79. c 119. b 159. a 199. a 40. b 80. a 120. b 160. b 200. c III - PHYSIOTHERAPY IN ORTHOPAEDIC CONDITIONS 1. The term orthopaedic is derived from Greek words, which means____ a. Art of preventing and correcting deformities in children b. Art of managing fracture and dislocation c. Dealing with diseases and injuries of the trunk and limbs d. Dealing with diseases and injuries of bones, joints, muscles and ligaments 2. Green stick fracture is seen in a. Adult b. Children c. At any age d. elderly 3. With fractures of the shaft of long bones, rotation is controlled by ___. a. Immobilizing the joint close to the fracture site in slight flexion b. Immobilizing the joint close to the fracture site in neutral position c. Immobilizing the joints above and below it d. Surgery 4. External fixation is used for ____. a. Fracture with severe soft tissue injury involving skin and blood vessels b. unstable fracture c. pathological fracture d. multiple fractures52 5. Burst fracture is seen in a. talus fracture b. vertebral fracture c. femoral head fracture d. scaphoid 6. Plaster of paris is a. hemihydrated calcium sulphate b. hemihydrated calcium carbonate c. hemihydrated calcium bicarbonate d. non of the above 7. The epiphyseal plate is a barrier to the spread of infection, but if the involved metaphyses lie wholly or partly within a joint cavity, the joint is liable become infected. Which of the following metaphysic is not intra-capsular? a. Upper metaphysis of humerus b. Upper and lower metaphyses of femur c. All the metaphyses at the elbow d. Lower metaphysic of tibia 8. Ricket is due to deficiency of a. Vit A b. Vit B c. Vit C d. Vit D 9. Brodies abscess is a form of a. Acute osteomyelitis b. Chronic osteomyelitis. c. Tubercular osteomyelitis d. Syphilis 10. Glenoid faces ____________ a. Laterally downward, b. forward, upward & laterally c. backward, downward, outward d. forward, downward & medially 11. Head of the humerus measures almost half a sphere with an angular value _________ a. 180 b. 160 c. 150 d. 120 12. Neck shaft angle of humerus is ____________________ a. 45 degrees b. 60 degrees c. 90 degrees d. 120 degrees 13. At rest scapula makes an angle of about ______________ with the frontal plane. a. 15 degrees b. 30 degrees53 c. 45 degrees d. 60 degrees 14. Scapulo clavicular angle at rest is about ______________ a. 30 degrees b. 45 degrees c. 60 degrees d. 90 degrees 15. Root of spine of scapula corresponds to _______________ a. T2. b. T3 c. T5 d. T7 16. Glenohumeral joint capsule is laxed to allow mobility. The head of the humerus can be detracted laterally about ________________ with the arm by the side a. 2 cm b. 3cm c. 4cm d. 5cm 17. ______________ checks the downward pull of gravity on the arm by the side a. superior joint capsule b. rotator cuff c. glenohumeral ligasmnet d. deltoid 18. External rotation of gleno humeral joint is checked by _____________ a. middle gleno humeral ligament b. inferior glenohumeral ligament c. anterior coracohumeral ligament d. posterior coracohumeral ligament 19. Trapezoid ligament of acromio clavicular joint checks ______________________ a. medical movement of clavicle b. lateral movement of clavicle c. downward movement d. upward movement. 20. ____________ rotates the clavicle backward during elevation a. upper trapezius b. trapezoid ligament c. conoid ligament d. deltoid. 21. Elevation of medial end of clavicle at sternoclavicular joint is checked by ______________ a. anterior costo clavicular ligament b. posterior costo clavicualr ligament c. superior costo clavicular ligament d. inferior costo clavicular ligament 22. __________ bursa often communicates with the shoulder joint a. subacromial bursa54 b. subscapular bursa c. subdeltoid bursa d. none 23. In kyphotic posture ___________ is responsible for the stability of glenohumeral joint with the arm by the side a. tension of superior gleno humeral capsule b. coracohumeral ligament c. rotator cuff d. deltoid 24. ___________ is the closed pack position of shoulder joint. a. Abduction & External rotation b. Flexion and external rotation c. Horizontal abduction and external rotation d. None 25. Resting position of gleno humeral joint is ______________ a. 30 degrees of abduction and 30 degrees of flexion and some external rotation b. 60 degrees of abduction and 30 degrees of horizontal abduction b c. 45 degrees of abduction and 30 degrees of flexion and some internal rotation d. 30 degrees of abduction and 60 degrees of horizontal abduction 26. Capsular pattern of shoulder joint is a. restriction of lateral rotation b. restriction of rotation and flexion c. restriction of external rotation and abduction d. decrease of external rotation 27. The commonest structures impinged is ____________ a. infraspinatus b. supraspinatus c. long head of biceps d. subacromial bursa 28. Physiotherapy for shoulder impingement syndrome includes_____. a. restoration of shoulder external rotation and scapular rotation b. balancing deltoid-ratator cuff and trapezius-serratus anterior force couples c. managing ACJ degenerative arthritis d. all of the above 29. Locking position of shoulder joint is a. flexion, abduction and internal rotation b. external rotation, abduction & internal rotation c. extension, abduction, external rotation d. flexion, abduction, external rotation. 30. Drop arm test indicates __________ a. weakness of deltoid b. rupture of suprasinatus c. positive painful arc55 d. none 31. A patient of frozen shoulder has 30 degrees of external rotation. Which mobilization technique would be indicated with such a limitation? a. Lateral distraction and anterior glide b. Lateral distraction and posterior glide c. medial distraction and posterior glide d. Medial distraction and inferior glide 32. When evaluating a case of bicipital tendonitis which clinical finding you would NOT expect to find ___________ a. increase in pain on isometric resistance to biceps b. referred pain in C7, C8 dermatomes c. painful arc with AROM d. tenderness over bicipital tendon. 33. A patient is referred to you after three weeks of immobilization of shoulder following a dislocation. You may begin treatment with all of the following except _____ a. isometric shoulder exercises b. passive ROM exercises c. active resisted ROM exercises d. isokinetic exercise with high speed. 34. Post operative physiotherapy following fracture clavicle includes___. a. active free shoulder movements b. avoidance of elevation and lifting weight c. shoulder rotation mobilization d. all of the above 35. Fracture shaft humerus is associated with a. axillary nerve injury b. radial nerve injury c. brachial plexus injury. d. Median nerve injury 36. Post operative physiotherapy following Putti-platt surgery for anterior recurrent shoulder dislocation are a. isometric contraction of rotator cuff after surgery b. active movements can be started after 3-4 weeks c. mobilization of shoulder can be started after 3-4 weeks d. progressive strengthening can be started after 3-4 weeks 37. ACJ injury can be managed by strengthening ___ muscles. a. rotator cuff and deltoid b. deltoid and trapezius c. trapezius and serratus anterior d. rotator cuff and serratus anterior 38. Positive adson’s test indicates TOS due to___. a. scalene b. cervical rib c. reduced scapulo-clavicular angle d. tumour56 39. Physiotherapy for thoracic outlet syndrome includes___. a. stretching of Scalenei, levator scapulae and pectorals to relieve pressure b. strengthening of trapezius and serratus anterior to correct posture c. modalities like US, moist heat to relive spasm and TENS, IFT to relieve pain d. all of the above 40. Close packed position for humeroulnar joint is a. extension b. 50 degrees of flexion c. 70 degrees of flexion d. 90 degrees of flexion 41. Resting position for humeral radial joint is ___________ a. semiflexion & supinaton b. semiflexion & pronation c. extension & supination d. extension & pronation 42. Capsular pattern of limitation of elbow joint is ______________ a. limitation of flexion b. limitation of flexion more than extension c. limitation of extension more than flexion d. limitation of extension 43. Extension of elbow is associated with ____________ a. ulnar abduction and forearm pronation b. ulnar abduction and supination of forearm c. inferior glide of ulna d. superior glide of radius 44. Flexion of elbow is associated with a. inferior glide of ulnar and superior glide of radius b. superior glide of ulna and inferior glide of radius c. ulnar abduction and forearm pronation d. radial adduction and forearm pronation 45. Usually the direction of elbow dislocation is _____. a. backward b. backward and lateral c. backward and medial d. forward 46. Following fracture supracondylar of humerus the small distal fracture segment is displaced backward. Uncorrected displaced fracture will limit _____ movement. a. elbow flexion b. elbow extension c. fore arm rotation d. alter carrying angle 47. Tennis elbow may involve__ a. common extensors origin characterized by pain during resisted isometric contraction57 b. radio-humeral or superior radio-ulnar joint characterized by pain during joint play c. lateral collateral ligament or annular ligament characterized by pain during passive movements, joint play and stress test d. all of the above 48. Typical tennis elbow involves the common extensor muscles. Which muscle is commonly involved? a. Extensor carpi radialis longus b. Extensor carpi radialis bravis c. Brachioradialis d. Extensor Indices 49. VIC following fracture supracondylar of humerus results from____. a. injury to brachial artery by the projected sharp proximal segment of humerus b. tight plaster c. excessive elbow flexion during immobilization d. all of the above 50. Distal articulating surface of radius faces _____________ a. Inferiorly b. Palmarly & ulnarly c. Dorsally & ulnarly d. Palmarly & outward 51. The carpal tunnel dimension increases with ___________ a. wrist flexion ` b. in neutral c. in extension d. none 52. There are __________________ long bones in hand a. 15 b. 17 c. 19 d. 22 53. There are ___________ joints that make up the hand complex a. 17 b. 19 c. 21 d. 27 54. The carpo metacarpal joint of little finger is having _____________ degrees of freedom a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. none 55. Mallet finger is due to ___________ a. contracture of FDP b. rupture of collateral slip of extensor expansion58 c. rupture of central slip of extensor expansion d. rupture of the volar plate 56. Swan neck deformity is due to ___________ a. contracture of extensor digitorum communis b. intrinsic tightness c. contracture of FDP d. rupture/laxity of volar plate. 57. Bouttenaire deformity is due to ___________ a. Contracture of FDS b. Rupture of central slip of extensor expansion c. Contracture of extensor digitorum d. Rupture of collateral slip of extensor expansion 58. Intrinsic tightness is characterized by _____________ a. increased DIP joint extension with PIP flexion than that with PIP joint extension b. increased IP joint flexion with MCP joint flexion than that with MCP joint extension c. increased IP joint flexion with wrist flexion than that with wrist extension d. none 59. Tightness oblique retinacular ligament is characterized by _________________ a. decreased DIP joint flexion with PIP flexion than that with PIP extension ans: b b. decreased DIP flexion with PIP extension than that with PIP flexion c. decreased IP joint flexion with MCP joint flexion than that with MCP joint extension d. decreased IP joint flexion with wrist flexion than that with wrist extension 60. The MCP joint is stable in _______________ a. semi flexion b. maximum flexion c. extension d. hyper extension 61. The capsule, collateral ligaments, & accessory collateral ligaments of he MCP joints are taut in its close packed position which is the closed packed position of MCP joint? a. 40 degree of flexion b. maximum flexion c. neutral d. hyper extension 62. Hyperextension at IP joint of finger is checked by a. volar plate b. PDS c. Tension of the skin d. Collateral ligament 63. Inflammation of sheath of the_____ tendons within the sheath is referred as Dequervein’s disease. a. FPL & FPB59 b. ERL & EPB c. Abd pollicis longus & abductor pollicis brevis d. Abductor pollicis longus & extensor pollicis brevis 64. The space between ___________ & ___________ is referred to as Noman’s land. a. PIP joint & DIP joint b. MCP joint & PIP joint c. MCP joint & DIP joint d. Wrist joint to MCP joint 65. Close packed position for the wrist is _____________ a. neutral b. full Dorsiflexion with radial deviation c. full flexion d. 45 degrees of dorsiflexion with ulnar deviation 66. The transverse metacarpal arch increases with a. clenched fist b. opening the fist c. thumb opposition d. none 67. During wrist extension ___________ a. distal carpals glides palmarly b. proximal carpals glides palmarly c. proximal carpal glide dorsally d. proximal carpals supinates on radius 68. The capsular pattern of wrist joint is ________________ a. more limitation of wrist extension than flexion b. equal limitation of wrist extension and flexion c. more limitation of wrist flexion than extension d. more limitation of ulnar deviation than radial deviation 69. The resting position for wrist is _____________ a. 30 degrees of extension with radial deviation b. 30 degrees of extension with neutral deviation c. neutral extension with slight ulnar deviation d. 10 degrees of flexion 70. Component motion of MCP joint flexion include _________ a. dorsal gliding, pronation, ulnar deviation and distraction of base of proximal phalanx. b. Palmar gliding, supination, ulnar deviation and approximation of base of proximal phalanx on metacarpal c. Dorsal gliding, supination, ulnar deviation and approximation of base of proximal phalanx. d. Palmar gliding, pronation, radial deviation and distraction of base of proximal phalanx. 71. Component motion of IP flexion of fingers include ___________ a. dorsal glide, pronation, ulnar deviation & distraction of more distal phalanx on the head of the proximal phalanx.60 b. Palmar glide, pronation, ulnar deviation, approximation of distal phalanx on the head of the proximal phalanx. c. Dorsal glide, supination, radial deviation, approximation, distal phalanx on the head of the proximal phalanx. d. Palmar glide, supination, radial deviation and distraction of more distal phalanx, on head of proximal phalanx. 72. Avascular necrosis of scaphoid fracture occurs at a. Proximal half b. Distal half c. Whole bones d. Non of the above 73. Reverse colle’s fracture is otherwise known as a. barton’s fracture b. smith fracture c. galeazzi fracture d. pott’s fracture 74. Following extensor tendon repair in the hand ____. a. the involved finger is only immobilized b. all the fingers are immobilized c. adjacent fingers are immobilized d. non of the above 75. Angle of inclination of femur refers to a. neck shaft angle in saggital plane. b. Neck shaft angle in frontal plane c. Neck shaft angle in transverse plane d. None 76. Neck shaft angle in femur in frontal plane in child is _____________ a. 120 degreees b. 130 degrees c. 150 degrees d. 170 degrees 77. Neck shaft angle of femur in transverse plane is referred as ___________ a. angle of inclination b. angle of anteversion c. angle of declination d. coxa valga 78. Increase in angle of inclination of femur is referred to as a. coxa valga b. coxa plane c. coxa vara d. anteversion 79. Increase in torsion angle of femur is referred to as ________________ a. coxa valga b. coxa vara c. anteversion61 d. retroversion 80. In toeing gait is the characteristic feature of __________ a. coxa valga b. coxa vara c. anteversion d. retroversion 81. Reduced internal rotation of hip is the feature of ___________ a. coxa valga b. coxa vara c. anteversion d. retroversion 82. The bending moment in the neck of femur is increased predisposing to the fracture neck in __________ a. coxa valga b. coxa vara c. anteversion d. retroversion 83. The tip of greater trochanter lies above the shenton’s line in _________ a. coxa valga b. CDH c. Anteversion d. Non of the above 84. The stable position for the hip is ______________ a. flexion, external rotation and abduction b. extension, external rotation and adduction c. neutral extension, internal rotation and abduction d. full flexion, internal rotation and adduction 85. __________ strongest ligament in the body a. ischio femoral b. round ligament c. pubo femoral d. ilio femoral 86. One can hang on ilio femoral ligament using minimum muscle action by ___________ a. rolling the pelvis backward b. rolling the pelvis forward c. extension, abduction and internal rotation of hip d. extension, abduction, external rotation of hip 87. In neutral standing position the hip joint is weaker ______________ a. anteriorly b. posteriorly c. inferiorly d. superiorly 88. The resting position for the hip is ___________ a. neutral extension, abduction and rotation b. 30 degrees of flexion, 30 degrees of abduction and slight external rotation62 c. neutral extension, 30 degrees of abduction and slight internalrotation d. 30 degrees of flexion, slight adduction and internal rotation. 89. Capsular pattern of restriction of hip is __________ a. internal rotation & abduction most restricted, flexion and extension restricted b. external rotation & abduction most restricted, flexion and extension restricted c. extension, internal rotation most restricted, flexion and external rotation restricted d. flexion, internal rotation most restricted, extension and external rotation restricted. 90. The component motion for hip flexion is ______________ a. inferior and lateral glide of femoral head in acetabulum b. posterior and superior glide of femoral head in acetabulum c. posterior and inferior glide of femoral head in acetabulum d. anterior and superior glide of femoral head in acetabulum 91. In single leg standing hip joint is subjected to load equal to ______________ a. 1/3rd of body weight b. body weight c. 2 times of body weight d. 3 times of body weight 92. In case of LLD _________________ side bears more load a. shorter b. longer c. both sides bears equal load d. none 93. In case of coxa vara __________ side is prone to develop degenerative arthritis a a. affected b. unaffected c. both d. none of the above. 94. Hip joint is supplied by ________ segments a. L1 – L3 b. L2 – L5 c. L2 – S1 d. L3 – S2. 95. ________________ bursa often communicates with the hip joint a. subtrochantric b. ischeal c. ilio pectineal d. adductor 96. In case of hip arthritis patient often complain pain on ___________ aspect of hip joint a. anterior b. posterior c. lateral63 d. medial 97. Lateral hip pain is the characteristic feature of _______________ a. sciatica b. trochanteric bursitis c. IT friction syndrome d. Hip arthritis 98. Pain in the buttock is suggestive of pain of ___________ origin a. lumbar spine b. hip spine c. piriformis d. trochanteric 99. The characteristic features of slipped capital femoral epiphysis are _______. a. limitation of abduction and internal rotation, femur rolls into abduction and external rotation during flexion and shortening. b. limitation of flexion, abduction and internal rotation and shortening. c. limitation of flexion and internal rotation, femur rolls into abduction and external rotation during flexion and lengthening d. limitation of flexion, abduction and internal rotation and slengthening 100. Slipped capital femoral epiphysis occurs at _____________ age a. birth b. 5 – 10 years c. 11 – 15 years d. 16 – 20 years 101. Factors influencing prognosis in Perthe’s disease includes ____. a. Early onset poor is the prognosis b. early loss of hip movements poor is the pognosis c. early weight bearing better is the prognosis d. lateral sublaxation/ extrusion better is the prognosis 102. The principles of management of perthe’s disease is___. a. Improve circulation to the femoral capital epiphysis b. Traction c. containment, weight relieve and ROM d. surgery 103. __________ splint is recommended for CDH. a. Pavlic harness b. HKAFO c. DB Splint d. Aeroplane 104. Backward lurching of trunk during stance phase suggest ______________ a. hip extensor weakness on the side of swing leg b. hip flexor weakness on the side of stance legs c. hip extensor weakness on the side of stance leg d. hip abductor weakness on the side of stance legs 105. Antalgic gait is characterized by ______________ a. Smaller step on the affected side b. Smaller step on the sound side64 c. Lurching on the sound side d. Inadequate swing on the affected side 106. Pelvic inclination with the affected side upward implies __________________ a. Flexor contracture b. Abductor contracture c. Adductor contracture d. Adductor weakness 107. In Thomas test position limitation of hip adduction ROM is due to a. shortening of iliopsoas b. TFL c. Rectus femoris d. Piriformis 108. Ely’s test is done to check length of ___________ muscle a. ITB b. Hamstrings c. Rectus femoris d. Hip adductors 109. Baer’s SI point refers to a point located approximately on the spino umbilical line a. 2” from ASIS b. 2” from umbilical c. at the junction of medial 1/3rd and distal 2/3rd d. none of the above 110. The source of pain in OA of hip is __________ a. articular cartilage b. joint capsule c. muscles d. all of the above 111. __________ may give rise to secondary OA of hip a. LLD b. Capsular tightness c. Fixed flexion deformity d. All of the above 112. 1 KG increase in body adds ______________ lead to the supporting femoral head during stance phase a. ½ Kg b. 1 kg c. 2 kg d. 3kg 113. In early OA pain is felt __________ a. Following activities due to fatigue b. Continuously due to inflammation c. Constant pain d. Night pain 114. The primary therapeutic goal in OA is __________ a. relief by application of modalities65 b. prevent further progression by stretching of the joint capsule c. Avoid weight bearing activities. d. Strengthening the muscles surrounding the joint 115. In fracture neck of femur the blood supply to the head of the femur is retained by _____________ a. circumflex artery b. nutritient artery. c. Artery to ligament of the head of femur d. Femoral artery 116. Which of the following is the cause of avascular necrosis of head of femur following fracture neck _____________ a. severing of arteries supplying the head of femur b. infra capsular joint effusion prevents haematoma formation following fracture c. lack of soft tissue contact at the fracture site d. all of the above. 117. Complications of central fracture dislocation of hip joint ___. a. intrapelvic haemmorrhage due to damage to vessels b. genitor-urinary tract damage c. recurrent dislocation d. a and b 118. Characteristic features of traumatic posterior dislocation of hip____. a. fixed in adduction and internal rotation, limited JROM and shortening b. fixed in abduction and external rotation, limited JROM and shortening c. limited abduction and internal rotation and no limb length discrepancy d. fixed in adduction and external rotation, limited JROM and no limb length discrepancy 119. the primary indication of joint replacement is _______________ a. effusion b. limited range of motion c. muscle atrophy d. pain 120. In case of THR, all of the following are true except____. a. avoid flexion beyond 90, adduction beyond neutral and rotation b. rolling through sound side c. standing through affected side d. leg swing in half standing 121. Which advice would not be correct for a patient following THR? a. When turning pivot to the affected side b. Do not cross your legs and keep a pillow between your legs while sleeping. c. Avoid low chairs d. All of the above 122. Replacement arthroplasty is a salvage procedure, the complications of which are instability and shortening. The post-operatively immobilization is given by skeletal traction for about 6 weeks and the physiotherapy includes___.66 a. hip movements as pain allows b. non weight bearing crutch walking and weight bearing allowed as good fibrous union occurs c. strengthening exercises, weight relieving orthosis, foot wear compensation and walking aids d. all of the above 123. In standing tibio femoral angle in the frontal plane is about __________ a. 0 degrees b. 10 degrees c. 140 degrees d. 170 degrees 124. The articulating surface of patella consists of ___________ facets. a. One b. Two c. Three d. Four 125. Medial meniscus forms ________________ a. half of a large circle b. almost all of a circle c. ¾th of a circle d. none 126. The function of meniscus is ___________ a. shock absorber b. lubrication nutrition c. load distribution d. all 127. Medial meniscus is more prone to injury than lateral because a. it is relatively more mobile. b. It is less mobile than lateral meniscus c. Medial compartment bears more than the lateral d. None of the above 128. MCL is ___________ a. Long, Flat band b. Short and rounded c. Short and flat bone d. Long and rounded 129. MCL checks _____________ a. Knee extension, abduction of tibia and external rotation b. Knee extension, abduction of tibia and internal rotation c. Knee flexion, adduction of tibia and internal rotation d. Knee flexion, abduction of tibia and external rotation 130. Lateral Collateral Ligament checks _______ a. knee extension adduction of tibia and internal rotation b. knee extension, adduction of tibia and external rotation c. flexion abduction and external rotation d. flexion adduction and internal rotation67 131. ACL runs from the intercondylar area of the tibia _________ a. Forward, upward and medially b. Forward, upward and laterally c. Backward, upward and laterally d. Backward, upward and medially 132. ACL checks _________ a. Flexion, forward movement of tibia and external rotation b. Flexion, backward movement of tibia and internal rotation c. Extension, forward movement of tibia and internal rotation d. Extension, backward movement of tibia and external rotation 133. PCL checks a. Backward movement of tibia, internalrotation and extension b. Backward movement of tibia, external rotation and flexion c. Forward movement of tibia, external rotation and extension d. Forward movement of tibia, internal rotation and flexion 134. Pes anserinus includes __________ a. Semimembranosus, gracilis and sartorius b. Semi membranosus, rectus femoris and ITB c. Semitendinosus, gracilis and sartorius d. Semitendinouss, pectineus and adductor magnus 135. Biceps femoris reinforces __________ a. anterior cruciate ligament and LCL b. posterior cruciate ligament and LCL c. posterior cruciate ligament and MCL d. anterior cruciate ligament and MCL 136. In case of MCL injury strengthening of _____________ should be given a. pes anserinus and semi membranosus b. hamstrings c. hip adductors d. quadriceps 137. House maid’s knee refers to ________ a. Infra patellar bursitis, pre patellar bursitis b. Supra patellar bursitis, quadriceps tendonitis 138. Knee extension is limited by _____________ a. bony contact b. tension of hamstrings c. tension of posterior skin d. the tension of joint capsule 139. The closed packed position for the knee is __________ a. extension b. full flexion c. 25 degrees of knee flexion d. 90 degrees of knee flexion 140. The capsular pattern of the knee is _________ a. flexion is more restricted than extension b. extension is more restricted than flexion68 c. flexion terminally restricted and extension full d. extension terminally restricted and flexion full 141. The component motions of knee flexion are a. inferior glide of patella, anterior glide of tibia and external rotation b. inferior gliding of patella, posterior glide of tibia and internal rotation c. superior gliding of patella, posterior glide of tibia and external rotation d. superior gliding of patella, anterior glide of tibia and internal rotation 142. Stair climbing requires approximately knee flexion a. 85 degrees b. 95 degrees c. 105 degrees d. 115 degrees 143. Normal human locomotion requires _______________ knee flexion a. 36 degrees b. 67 degrees c. 98 degrees d. 105 degrees 144. Meniscus injury occurs due to ___________ a. valgus injury b. varus injury c. dash board injury d. rotatory dysfunction 145. Dash board injury may give rise to _____________ a. injury ACL b. injury MCL c. injury PCL d. injury Meniscus 146. Squatting and descending the stairs become difficult in case of ______________ a. ACL injury b. PCL injury c. MCL injury d. Meniscus injury 147. Locking is a feature of _____________ injury a. Collateral ligament b. Meniscus c. Cruciates d. All of the above 148. Hyper extension injury my result in tearing of ______________ a. meniscus b. collateral ligament c. ACL d. PCL 149. Running with turning and sharp cut is painful in ___________ injury a. ACL, b. PCL69 c. Collateral ligament d. Meniscus 150. Haemarthrosis develops within __________ of injury and is very painful a. minutes to hours b. hours to days c. days to weeks d. weeks to months 151. Insidious onset of anterior/antero medial knee pain aggravated with activities involving knee bending is a feature of _____________ a. TF DJD b. PF DJD c. Ligamentous injury d. Meniscus injury. 152. Normal relation between the length of the patella and patellar tendon is __________ a. length of patella> patellar tendon b. length of patellar tendon> patella c. length of patellar tendon = patella d. no such relation exists 153. In patella alta _____________ a. length of patellar tendon > patella b. length of patella> patellar tendon c. length of patellar tendon = patella d. none of the above 154. The Q angle is 130 to 180, it becomes 00 in ____________________ a. In lying with quadriceps contracting statically b. In high sitting with quadriceps relaxed c. In high sitting with leg rotated externally d. In standing with the quadriceps contracting statically 155. In high sitting with the legs hanging freely inferior pole of patella lies __________ a. above the tibiofemoral joint line b. below the tibiofemoral joint line c. at the level of tibiofemoral joint line d. none of the above 156. Positive valgus stress with the knee in extension indicates __________ a. sprain MCL b. sprain ACL c. sprain MCL &ACL d. sprain MCL with PCL. 157. In supine lying with knees bent at 600 less prominent tibial tubercle on one side indicates PCL rupture whereas more prominent tibial tubercle indicates a. rupture ACL b. quadriceps contracture c. patellofemoral tracking dysfunction d. Os Good schalter disease70 158. You are evaluating a patient with injury to the posterior cruciate ligament. The mechanism of injury for the P.C. L is ___________ a. Forceful landing on anterior tibia with knee hyper flexed. b. Anterior force on tibia when foot is fixed. c. Valgus force applied to knee when foot is fixed. d. Forced internal rotations of leg. 159. Positive apley’s grinding test with external rotation of tibia and compression indicates lesion of _____________ a. MCL b. Medial Meniscus c. LCL d. Lateral Meniscus 160. Quadriceps to hamstrings strength ration is _______________ a. 2:1 b. 3:2 c. 5:3 d. 5:4 161. During early phase of rehabilitation of ACL injury, managed conservatively or surgically, knee ROM is limited to _____________________ a. 00 to 600 b. 100 to 900 c. 450 to 900 d. full range 162. For the rehabilitation of ACL emphasis should be given for the strengthening of _____________ to regain stability a. quadriceps b. hamstrings c. both quadriceps & hamstrings equally d. quadriceps more than hamstrings 163. ______________ is the recent trend for the management of meniscal injury a. partial menisectomy b. total menisectomy c. meniscus repair d. conservative treatment 164. A patient four weeks post arthroscopic menisectomy presents with knee flexion limitation. Which mobilization technique is beneficial to increase flexion ROM. a. Anterior glide of tibia b. Superior glide of patella c. posterior glide of tibia. d. Anterior glide fibular head 165. Following repair of anterior horn of medial meniscus ROM exercise is given by CPM, during which the hinge brace is locked between _____ range. a. 0 -90 b. 30 – 80 c. 10 – 110 d. full71 166. Following synovectomy ____. a. immolisation is given till stitch removal b. immolisation is given for 3 weeks c. immolisation is given for 6 weeks d. active movements can be initiated after 48-72 hours 167. The dynamic factors responsible to check lateral patellar tracking dysfunction is ______________ a. hip adduction b. vastus medialis c. vastus lateralis d. Rectus femoris 168. Surgical procedure for recurrent dislocation of patella is _____. a. lateral retinacular release b. medialisation of tibial tuberosity c. Vastus medialis transfer d. All of the above 169. Tibiofemoral compressive load increases with knee flexion because of _______________ a. increase in weight transfer b. increase in quadriceps contraction c. increasing incongruence d. none 170. Patient with degenerative joint disease of knee joint presents with knee joint ROM of 20 to 100 degrees, complain of pain and difficulty in ADL. Which movement will you restore first? a. Flexion b. Extension c. Both d. None 171. Choose the correct statement regarding DJD. a. loading the joint in incongruent positions predispose/precipitates DJD b. it manifests with capsular contracture and crepitus c. capsular tightness predispose/precipitates DJD d. all of the above 172. Joint protection measures include _____. a. Reduction of body weight and ravoidance of weight bearing activities b. capsular stretching and muscle strengthening c. Use of orthosis for correct alignment of the joint and use of walking aids to reduce joint loading d. All of the above 173. Physiotherapy management for OA knee includes______. a. Joint mobilization and stretching to correct deformities b. Small arc muscle endurance/strengthening to deload the joint c. Prophylactic measures and Proprioceptive training d. All of the above 174. Following cemented TKR, patient weans from crutches by_____.72 a. Stitch removal b. 3weeks c. 6weeks d. 3 months 175. Uncemented TKR patient can walk after_____. a. Stitch removal b. 3weeks c. 6weeks d. 3 months. 176. A patient post knee replacement is referred to you for ROM and strengthening exercise. Which treatment you my not choice for this patient. a. Active stretching by contract and relax b. Joint mobilization to gain joint play. c. SLR d. Closed kinetic chain exercise 177. The direction of displacement following supracondylar fracture femur is __ a. proximal fracture segment is displaced backward limiting flexion b. proximal fracture segment is displaced forward limiting extension c. distal fracture segment is displaced backward limiting extension d. distal fracture segment is displaced forward limiting flexion 178. Clean cut fracture separation of patella is managed by _____. a. conservatively b. tension band wiring c. patellectomy d. all of the above 179. A patient sustains fracture of the upper fibula with injury to the common peroneal nerve. Power of dorsifexors and evertors are 2/5. the most suitable management to help the patient with ADL is ______________ a. electrical stimulation b. orthosis c. exercise programme d. hydrotherapy 180. Deltoid ligament refers to _________________ a. MCL of ankle b. LCL of ankle c. Inferior tibiofibular ligament d. Talocalcaneal ligament 181. ________________ is the most frequently injured ligament about the ankle a. calcaneofibular ligament b. deltoid ligament c. anterior talofibular ligament d. posterior talofibular ligament 182. Plantar calcaneo navicular ligament is referred as _____________ a. interosseous ligament b. spring ligament c. deltoid ligament73 d. bifurcate ligament 183. Anterior talofibular ligament checks _______________ a. posterior movement of leg over talus, external rotation of leg and inversion b. posterior movement of leg over talus, internal rotation of leg and inversion c. anterior movement of leg over talus, internal rotation of leg and eversion d. anterior movement of leg over talus, external rotation of leg and eversion 184. The mechanism of injury of anteiro talofibular ligament is _______________ a. eversion b. inversion c. combined plantar flexion and inversion d. combination of dorsi flexion an diversion 185. In neutral standing with the feet pointed outward about 100, patella faces inward indicates _______________ a. internal rotation of hip b. internal rotation of leg c. anteversion of femur d. internal tibial torsion 186. Squinting patella with neutral hip rotation ROM indicates __________________ a. internal rotation of hip b. femoral retroversion c. external tibial torsion d. all 187. The component motion for ankle dorsiflexion is _______________ a. anterior glide of talus on the mortise b. posterior gliding of talus in the mortise c. compression of inferior tibiofibular joint d. inversion of talus 188. Foot pronation includes _____________ a. Plantar flexion, eversion adduction b. Plantar flexion, inversion, abduction c. Plantar flexion, inversion, adduction. d. Dorsiflexion, eversion, abduction 189. Supination of foot is the combination of_____________ a. Ankle DF subtalar eversion & forefoot abduction b. Ankle PF subtalar inversion & forefoot adduction c. Ankle DF subtalar inversion & forefoot abduction d. Ankle PF subtalar eversion & forefoot adduction 190. The axis of the ankle joint is directed backward and backward medio laterally, it makes about _______________ a. 250 from the frontal plane and 10 to 150 from transverse plane b. 250 from the
obiliza plane and 10 to 150 from transverse plane c. 400 from the
obiliza plane and 300 from transverse plane d. 400 from the frontal plane and 300 from transverse plane 191. When a ligament of the ankle completely torn the injury should be classified as74 a. grade I sprain b. grade II sprain c. grade III sprain d. grade IV sprain 192. Connective tissue disease tend to be a. disorders of males in forteens b. females after menopause c. females in child bearing age d. females in cold climatic conditions 193. A patient is said to have rheumatoid arthritis if he/she has at least ______________ criteria out of seven a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. all the seven 194. Haemosiderin deposit in synovium occurs in a. Gout b. Haemophilia c. Tabes dorsalis d. Reiter’s syndrome 195. Essence of pathology in RA is a. Persistence synovitis b. Articular cartilage damage c. Deformities in joints d. Tendon ruptures 196. Enthesopathy occurs in a. rheumatoid arthritis b. ankylosing spondylitis c. psoriatic arthritis d. SLE 197. Lumbar spine is not involved in a. Ankylosing spondylitis b. Rheumatoid arthritis c. Osteoarthritis d. None of the above 198. Enlarged spleen, lymphadenopathy anaemic with ulceration of legs is a. Sjorgren’s syndrome b. Reiter’s syndrome c. Felty’s syndrome d. Psoriatic arthritis 199. HLA B 27 is negative in a. Ankylosing spondylitis b. Reiter’s syndrome c. Psoriatic arthritis d. SLE 200. Neurological involvement in Rheumatoid arthritis includes___.75 a. compression of peripheral nerve due to tenosynovitis e.g. CTS b. peripheral neuropathy due to vasculitis c. SCI due to sulaxation/dislocation of atlanto-axial joint d. All of the above 201. Seronegative inflammatory arthritis conditions have a primary effect on a. Axial skeleton b. Lumbar spine c. Big joints of the body d. Smaller joints of the body 202. Sausage fingers are found in a. Rheumatoid arthritis b. Psoriatric arthritis c. Scleroderma d. Gout 203. Herberden’s nodes are present in a. Wrist b. Subcutaneous tissue c. DIP d. Shin of tibia 204. Sjogren’s syndrome and felty’s syndrome are variants of a. SLE b. Scleroderma c. Rheumatoid arthritis d. Psoriatic arthritis 205. Serum uric acid level is higher in a. SLE b. Stills disease c. Gout d. None of the above 206. Raynaud’s phenomenon is the first presentation of a. SLE b. Polymyositis c. Scleroderma d. Still’s disease 207. Skin rash after exposure to sunlight is found in a. Polymyositis b. SLE c. Scleroderma d. Gout 208. Modified New York criteria for the diagnosis of Ankylosing spondylosis includes___ a. Insidious onset of morning stiffness and limited lumbar motion in two planes, improved by movements b. Bilateral Sacro-ilitis in x-rays c. Chest expansion less than 2.5 cm at nipple level d. All76 209. Contractile tissue dysfunction is characterized by____. a. pain during resisted isometric contraction and passive stretching b. pain during passive movement c. pain during joint play d. pain during active movement 210. Noncontractile tissue dysfunction is characterized by____. a. pain during resisted isometric contraction b. pain during active movement c. pain during passive movement and joint play d. non of the above 211. Cyriax’s DTFM for the ligament is given in _______________ a. Relaxed position followed by active movement b. Taut position followed by active movement c. Variable joint position followed by passive movement d. Any position followed by passive movement 212. Cyriax principle of management for spinal problems is _____________ a. Oscillatory rhythmic gliding b. Traction & manipulation c. Self treatment d. DTFM and injection 213. Adhesion within the muscle is characterized by a. reduced active movement while passive ROM is full b. reduction of passive ROM c. reduced broadening of muscle/bulk during active contraction d. pain during resisted isometric contraction 214. Adhesion of tendon with its sheath is characterized by ______________ a. decreased of active movement while passive movement is full b. decreased passive stretching c. crepitus d. pain during resisted isometric contraction 215. DTFM to the tendon is given with the _________________ a. Muscle is relaxed position b. In variable joint position c. Tendon is taut position d. Muscle in contracted position 216. Following DTFM to the muscle _______________ should be encouraged. a. Active movement b. Passive stretching c. Resisted movement d. Active assisted movement 217. The rate of movement for DTFM is ______________ cycles/sec a. 1-2 b. 2-3 c. 3-4 d. 4-5 218. The effects of deep transverse friction massage includes____.77 a. it disperses the exudates and relieves pain b. prevents/breaks adhesion c. induces local erythema d. all of the above 219. McKenzie’s derangement model is characterized by ______________ a. Repeated movement in the direction of derangement produces centralization of symptoms. b. Repeated movement in opposite direction of derangement produces centralization of symptoms. c. Repeated movement in the direction of derangement aggravates the symptoms. 220. according to Mckenzie, in case of derangement pain is relieved by _________ a. opening of IVF b. pain gate theory c. Reduction of the deranged disc material d. not known 221. McKenzie’s dysfunction syndrome is characterized by ______________ a. Pain at end range restricted range of motion due to stretching of tight structure b. Repeated movement in the direction of dysfunction relieves the symptoms. c. Repeated movement in opposite direction of dysfunction aggravates the symptoms. d. non of the above 222. The treatment for McKenzie’s dysfunction syndrome is a. repeated in the direction of dysfunction b. sustained movement in the opposite direction of dysfunction c. posture correction d. traction 223. McKenzie recommends for flexion exercises in case of posterior derangement syndrome a. Once patient remains pain free for 3 days b. Once patient remains pain free for 1 weeks c. Once patient remains pain free for 3 weeks d. Once patient remains pain free for 6 weeks 224. Ceralization of pain occurs in a. dysfunction b. derangement c. postural syndrome d. all of the above 225. Centralization is characterized by ______________ a. shifting of pain to more proximal part over time b. decease of intensity of pain c. decrease of duration of pain d. all of the above 226. Repetitive movement in the direction of derangement is recommended by McKenzie. The number of repetition should be ______________78 a. 10-15 b. 15 – 20 c. 20 – 30 d. 30 – 50 227. According to McKenzie treatment for unilateral/ asymmetrical pain with scoliosis deformity is____. a. first correct the listing b. lay down in prone c. spinal extension in prone d. traction 228. Maitland’s manual therapy concept is a clinical concept having two compartments, theoretical and clinical with a permeable wall in between. The core concept includes___. a. subjective and objective evaluation b. listen to the patient and believe him c. formulate working hypothesis d. all of the above 229. Joint play is differentiated from physiological movement __ a. it occurs in anatomical planes b. it can be produced voluntarily c. it can be measured d. it can not be seen from outside 230. Joint gliding is defined as a. the reference point on the movable surface comes in contact with variables points of the stationary surface b. the reference point on the movable surface comes in contact with a fixed point of the stationary surface c. the reference point on the movable surface comes in contact with variables points of the stationary surface at regular intervals d. non of the above 231. Joint rolling can be defined as a. the reference point on the movable surface comes in contact with variables points of the stationary surface b. the reference point on the movable surface comes in contact with a fixed point of the stationary surface c. the reference point on the movable surface comes in contact with variables points of the stationary surface at regular intervals d. non of the above 232. Maitland SIN group is characterized by a. pain encountered before motion barrier b. pain encountered after motion barrier c. pain & motion barrier encounter together d. non of the above 233. Maitland’s Rhythmic oscillation mobilization technique can be applied a. only for joint play (Gliding) b. only for physiological movement79 c. both for joint play and physiological movement d. none 234. Lateral PA mobilization is applied on ________________ a. the painful side b. pain free side c. both the sides d. either of side 235. Grade ______________ mobilization is given for SIN group a. I b. II c. I & II d. III & IV 236. To improve JROM which grade mobilizations are used ________________ a. I & II b. II & III c. III & IV d. None of the above 237. Medium speed in maitland’s mobilization is equal ______________ a. ½ sec b. 1 sec c. 2 sec d. 3 sec 238. Transverse pressure on right side of spinous process _______________ a. opens the foramen on left b. closes the foramen on right c. open the foramen on right d. opens on both the sides 239. For bilateral symptoms of the extremities of spinal origin ____ mobilization technique is recommended by Maitland. a. central PA over spinous process b. lateral PA over articular pillar on the more painful side c. transverse gliding from the less painful side d. non of the above 240. When the concave surface moves over the convex ________________ a. gliding and rolling occurs in the direction of movement b. gliding in the direction of movement & rolling in opposite direction c. rolling in the direction of movement and gliding in the opposite direction d. gliding and rolling occur in the opposite direction to the movement 241. Kaltenborn’s GI traction is _______________ a. Small amplitude distraction to nullify joint compression forces without any distraction. b. The slack is taken up and the surrounding tissue are not stretched c. The joint is distracted to increase the joint space d. Non of the above 242. At rest joint is subjected to _______________ a. joint cohesive force80 b. muscle contraction c. atmospheric pressure d. all of the above 243. In close packed position ___________ a. intracapsular space is greater b. joint loading is maximum c. joint is most stable d. joint is incongruent 244. Resting position is a position, where the ______. a. Joint volume is maximum and pressure is minimum b. Capsuloligamentous structures are laxed c. joint is incongruent and least stable d. all of the above 245. Injury in closed pack position results into______. a. fracture b. dislocation c. sublaxation d. avulsion 246. ________ is the characteristic of muscle spasm. a. limitation of active movement with pain b. limitation of passive movement c. limitation of joint play d. all of the above 247. The physiological motion barrier shifts towards the beginning and passive joint range of motion is restricted in case of ______ lesion. a. muscle spasm b. ligamentous c. bony d. skin 248. Anatomical barrier shifts to left in case of ______________ a. muscle spasm b. ligamentous shortening c. bony restriction d. none of the above 249. The coupling movement in cervical spine is ___. a. side flexion and rotation occurs in the same direction b. side flexion and rotation occurs in the opposite direction c. direction depends on cervical spine flexion/extension position d. side flexion and rotation occurs independently 250. The coupling movement in thoracic spine is ___. a. side flexion and rotation occurs in the same direction b. side flexion and rotation occurs in the opposite direction c. direction depends on cervical spine flexion/extension position d. side flexion and rotation occurs independently 251. The coupling movement in lumber spine is ___. a. side flexion and rotation occurs in the same direction81 b. side flexion and rotation occurs in the opposite direction c. side flexion and rotation occurs in the same direction when the spine is flexed and opposite direction when it is neutral or extended d. side flexion and rotation occurs independently 252. Creep is the characteristic property of viscoelastic structures, which is defined as____ a. elongation over time with the load remaining constant b. load reduces over time with the length remaining constant c. elongation is slower than recoil d. relaxation is slower than lengthening 253. Choose the correct statement a. tissue elongation is faster than relaxation b. tissue elongation is slower than relaxation c. Rate of tissue elongation is equal to relaxation d. Non of the above 254. Rate of tissue elongation is faster than relaxation because______. a. rate of fluid reabsorption is faster than rate of fluid release. b. rate of fluid release is faster than rate of fluid reabsorption c. elongation is an active process, whereas relaxation is passive d. relaxation requires more energy than elongation 255. Mobilisation with movement concept was developed by _____ a. Mannel b. Maitland c. Mulligan d. Cyriax 256. Principle of Mulligan’s manual therapy is ______. a. self treatment technique b. sustained gliding in the treatment plane c. pain free active movement in weight bearing position is done, which is otherwise painful d. all of the above 257. The human spine has __ segments. a. 24 b. 29 c. 33 d. 37 258. Total 23 presacral vertebrae indicate ____. a. lumberisation of sacral vertebra b. sacralisation of lumber vertebra c. supernumery thoracic or lumbar vertebra d. non of the above 259. The thoracic kyphotic curve is due to ____. a. wedge shaped IVD with lesser anterior height b. wedge shaped vertebral body with lesser anterior height c. wedge shaped vertebral body and IVD with lesser anterior height82 d. wedge shaped vertebral body with lesser anterior height and wedge shaped IVD with greater anterior height 260. The cervical lordosis is due to ____. a. wedge shaped IVD with greater anterior height b. wedge shaped vertebral body with greater anterior height c. wedge shaped vertebral body and IVD with lesser anterior height d. wedge shaped vertebral body with greater anterior height and wedge shaped IVD with lesser anterior height 261. The spine has ___ motion segments. a. 23 b. 24 c. 32 d. 34 262. The zygapophyseal joint can bear up to___ load depending on spinal posture. a. 10 – 25% b. 25 -33% c. 33 – 50% d. non of the above 263. The facets in the cervical region are oriented _____. a. 45 to frontal plane and parallel to transverse plane b. 45 to transverse plane and parallel to frontal plane c. 60 to transverse plane and 20 to frontal plane d. 45 to frontal plane and 90 to transverse plane 264. Lumbar facet joints are almost parallel to saggital plane allowing____. a. more of flexion-extension, less side flexion, but no rotation b. more rotation, less flexion-extension and no side flexion c. more side flexion, less flexion-extension, but no rotation d. more of flexion-extension, less rotation, but no side flexion 265. The disc space in young adults contributes to about _____ of total vertebral column height. a. 10-20% b. 20-33% c. 34-45% d. 46-50% 266. The intervertebral disc derives its nutrition _____ a. directly from the vessels supplying it b. from the synovial fluid c. from the vertebral bodies above and below it through the vertebral end plates d. from the surrounding tissues 267. Traction reduces the intra discal pressure, during the traction phase the disc absorb the fluid and the negative intra discal pressure gradually neutralizes over time. So a. sustained traction should not be applied more than 10-12 minutes b. release of sustained traction increases the intradiscal pressure and aggravates the symptoms83 c. intermittent traction can be applied for longer duration d. all of the above 268. PID is more common during_____ years of age. a. 20-30 b. 30-40 c. 40-50 d. any age 269. Movement present at altanto-occipital joint are_____. a. flexion-extension, some side flexion, but no rotation b. rotation, some flexion-extension, but no side fiexion c. side flexion , some flexion-extension, but no rotation d. flexion-extension, some rotation and less side flexion 270. To check the movement of upper cervical spine, lock the lower cervical spine in full flexion. a. movement of atlanto-occipital joint is tested by side flexion b. movement of atlanto-xial joint is tested by side flexion c. movement of atlanto-occipital joint is tested by rotation d. movement of atlanto-occipital joint is tested by flexion-extension 271. Migraine must be excluded before treating cervical spine, which is characterized by___. a. intermittent throbbing headache, blurring vision, nausea etc. to activities b. intermittent throbbing headache, blurring vision, nausea etc. unrelated to activities c. intermittent throbbing headache, blurring vision, nausea etc. reproduced by rotation, extension and side flexion to painful side d. non of the above 272. Side flexion of head and neck to right includes___. a. side flexion, rotation of lower cervical spine to right with slight extension and full rotation of atlant-axial joint to left, side flexion of atlanto-occipital joint to right in slight flexion b. side flexion and rotation of cervical spine to right c. side flexion to right and rotation left d. side flexion to left and rotation of lower cervical spine to right with slight extension and full rotation of atlant-axial joint to left, side flexion of atlanto-occipital joint to right in slight flexion 273. Head forward posture may give rise to____. a. flexion dysfunction of lower cervical spine and extension dysfunction of lower b. PID lower cervical spine/TOS c. Impingement syndrome/periarthritis d. All of the above 274. Flexion injury leading to anterior wedge fracture of vertebral body is common ___ region. a. cervical b. thoracic c. lumbar84 d. thoraco-lumbar 275. ______ injury of spine may lead to displacement and SCI. a. flexion b. hyperextension c. flexion-rotation d. vertical compression 276. The common site of fracture dislocation is TL region, which results from flexion-rotation injury. The method of management is___. a. positional reduction by lying supine with pillow support b. manipulative reduction c. ORIF d. traction 277. Protrusion with complete rupture of annulus allowing the nucleus to bulge into the neural canal is referred as ____. a. herniation b. extrusion c. sequestration d. noncontained disc 278. The normal sequence of degeneration is ____. a. annular tear, hypermobility, stabilization b. hypermobility, annular tear, stabilization c. stabilization, annular tear, hypermobility, d. non of the above 279. Which ligament in our body contains more elastin fibres? a. Longitudinal ligament b. Interspinous ligament c. Ligamentum nuchae d. Ligamentum flavum 280. Locked facet in the lumbar spine is due to ____. a. Localized hypermobility b. failure of ligamentum flavum c. muscle weakness d. unguarded movements 281. Posterolateral disc prolapse in lumbar spine is common, why? a. Disc lies more posteriorly b. Load is more c. Posterior longitudinal ligament is narrower d. All of the above 282. About 90-95% persons with PID lists away from the painful side, while rest of 5-10% lists towards the same side indicating prolapse medial to the root, which is characterized by____. a. side flexion towards the sound side aggravates the symptoms b. lateral PA pressure over sound side reproduces the symptoms c. traction aggravates the symptoms d. all of the above 283. Choose the correct statement regarding intradiscal pressure.85 a. IDP in semifowler position > supine b. IDP in supine > side lying c. IDP in lying > standing d. IDP in sitting > standing 284. Sequence of physiotherapy for PID are_____. a. passive mobilization, traction, stretching, auto assisted exercise, active exercises b. traction, stretching, mobilization, active exercises, assisted exercise c. active exercises, auto assisted exercise, stretching, traction, Mobilization d. auto assisted exercise, active exercises, mobilization, stretching, traction 285. Spondylosis is characterized by ____. a. hypermobility b. stiff spine c. spinal instability d. locking 286. Physiotherapy management of Spondylolisthesis excludes___. a. back extension exercises b. stretching of hip flexors, hamstrings c. spinal flexion exercises d. spinal stabilasation exercise 287. When treating an acute lumbo – strain the treatment choice is ________ a. hot packs and ultra sound b. extension exercises c. flexion exercises d. difficult to decide based on information given 288. All of the following are true concerning scoliosis except _____________ a. a 15 degree to 20 degree curve is mild curve b. Bracing is an effective treatment tool. c. Scoliosis is named by the direction of concavity d. Early detection is essential. 289. The most common cause for lower limb amputations is a. congenital deformities b. infection c. trauma d. vascular disease 290. Stitching opposite group of muscles with each other to cover the distal end of the stump is known as ____ technique of amputation. a. myodesis b. myoplasty c. closed d. open 291. The purpose of stump bandaging includes all of the following except ___________ a. provides protection against accidental injuries b. reduces edema c. supports for surgical wound86 d. prevents contractures 292. Physiotherapy for phantom pain or phantom limb sensation includes TENS. Where will you place the electrodes? a. stump end b. one over the painful site and other over the nerve trunk c. one over the stump end and other over the dermatome d. any where over the stump 293. Active stump exercises can be started after_____. a. Removal of the drainage tube b. Stitch removal c. 3 weeks d. 6 weeks 294. In case of AK amputee prosthetic knee stabilization can be achieved by____. a. action of gluteus maximus b. trochanteric knee alignment c. extension aid d. all of the above 295. Neurovascular deficits are common complications of fracture____ of femur. a. shaft b. supracondylar c. trochanter d. condyles 296. Haemophilics should avoid___. a. IM injection b. contact games c. intake of Aspirin & other NSAID d. all of the above 297. Physiotherapy after bleeding in haemophilic can be started ____. a. once bleeding stops, characterized by reduction of swelling, pain and warmth b. within 8 – 24 hours of factor infusion c. once isometric contraction of the overlying muscle is possible d. all of the above 298. Physiotherapy in haemophilia includes____. a. ice and rest following acute bleeding b. early isometric contractions followed by active exercises to strengthen muscles c. Gradual stretching and joint mobilization with the traction d. all of the above 299. Therapeutic modality used in haemophilia ____. a. US b. PEME c. IFT/ES d. all of the above 300. Charcoat joints are ____. a. painless arthritic joint disease87 b. degeneratine joint disease c. infective joint disease d. ankylosed joints Answer Sheet of PT in Orthopadic conditions 1. a 41. c 81. d 121. d 161. c 201. a 241. a 281. d 2. b 42. b 82. b 122. d 162. b 202. b 242. d 282. d 3. c 43. a 83. b 123. b 163. c 203. c 243. c 283. c 4. a 44. a 84. c 124. c 164. c 204. c 244. d 284. b 5. b 45. b 85. d 125. a 165. b 205. c 245. a 285. b 6. a 46. a 86. a 126. d 166. d 206. c 246. d 286. a 7.d 47. d 87. a 127. b 167. b 207. a 247. b 287. d 8.d 48. b 88. b 128. a 168. d 208. d 248. c 288. c 9. b 49. d 89. a 129. a 169. c 209. a 249. a 289. c 10. a 50. b 90. c 130. a 170. b 210. c 250. b 290. b 11. c 51. a 91. d 131. c 171. d 211. c 251. c 291. d 12. a 52. c 92. b 132. c 172. d 212. b 252. a 292. b 13. b 53. b 93. b 133. a 173. d 213. c 253. a 293. b 14. c 54. b 94. c 134. a 174. c 214. a 254. b 294. d 15. b 55. b 95. c 135. a 175. b 215. c 255. c 295. a 16. a 56. d 96. a 136. a 176. b 216. a 256. d 296. d 17. a 57. b 97. b 137. b 177. c 217. b 257. c 297. d 18. a 58. b 98. a 138. d 178. b 218. d 258. b 298. d 19. b 59. b 99. a 139. a 179. b 219. a 259. b 299. d 20. c 60. b 100. c 140. a 180. a 220. c 260. a 300. a 21. b 61. b 101. b 141. b 181. c 221. a 261. a 22. b 62. a 102. c 142. a 182. b 222. b 262. b 23. c 63. d 103. a 143. b 183. a 223. a 263. b 24. c 64. b 104. c 144. d 184. c 224. b 264. a 25. b 65. b 105. b 145. c 185. c 225.d 265. b 26. c 66. a 106. d 146. b 186. c 226. a 266. c 27. b 67. b 107. b 147. b 187. b 227. a 267. c 28. d 68. b 108. c 148. d 188. d 228. d 268. b 29. b 69. c 109. b 149. c 189. b 229. d 269. a 30. b 70. b 110. b 150. a 190. a 230. a 270. a 31. a 71. c 111. d 151. b 191. c 231. c 271. b 32. b 72. a 112. d 152. c 192. c 232. a 272. a 33. d 73. b 113. a 153. c 193. b 233. c 273. d 34. d 74. b 114. b 154. b 194. b 234. a 274. b 35. b 75. b 115. c 155. c 195. a 235. c 275. c 36. b 76. c 116.d 156. c 196. b 236. c 276. a 37. b 77. c 117. d 157. d 197. b 237. b 277. b88 38. a 78. a 118. a 158. a 198. b 238. a 278. a 39.d 79. c 119. d 159. b 199. d 239. a 279. b 40. a 80. c 120. d 160. b 200. d 240. a 280. b IV - PHYSIOTHERAPY IN NEUROLOGICAL CONDITIONS 1. Erb’s palsy affects a. Lumbar plexus b. Sacral plexus c. Brachial plexus d. Cranial nerves. 2. Pain sensation is carried by a. Medial spinothalamic tract b. Lateral spinothalamic tract c. Posterior column d. Anterior column 3. Proprioceptive sensation ascend in spinal cord through a. Posterior column b. Lateral column c. Anterior column d. Antero lateral column 4. Boca’s area of brain is for a. Speech b. Hearing c. Locomotion d. Vision 5. Bell’s palsy occurs when the injury is a. Above pons b. Below pons c. At zygo mastoid foramen d. None of the above 6. Dorsal spino-cerebellar tract relays afferent information from muscle spindles from which part of body? a. Upper region b. Lower region c. Trunk d. None of the above. 7. Which lesion of motor cortex has poorest prognosis a. Primary cortex b. Pre motor cortex c. Internal capsule d. Supplementary motor cortex. 8. Primary motor cotex area 4 lesion causes paralysis of89 a. Contralateral spastic paralysis Upper limb b. Ipsilateral spastic paralysis Lower limb c. Contralateral upper limb, upper limb, face. d. None of the above 9. Premotor area (area 6) lesion result in a. Slowing of movement b. Hypertonia c. Inability to develop appropriate movement d. a & c 10. Appreciation of localization of light touch is lost when there is injury of a. Thalamus b. Brainstem b. Sensory cortex c. Peripheral nerve 11. Supplemental motor area lesion will result in a. Motor apraxia in the absence of motor or sensory impairment b. Spastic paralysis contralateral c. Flaccid paralysis of ipsilateral d. In co-ordination 12. Decusation of cortico-spinal tract occur at a. Spinal cord b. Junction of medulla and spinal cord c. Above medulla d. Pons 13. Dopamine is synthesized by a. Globus pallidum b. Substantia nigra c. Subthalmaic nucleus d. Putamen 14. Paleocerebellum chiefly concerned with a. Information from stretch receptors. b. Voluntary function c. Involuntary function d. Posture 15. Which somatosensory system possess more discriminative properties a. Spinothlamic b. Lemniseal c. Spinocerebellar d. None of the above 16. Merkel’s disk is for a. Touch – pressure b. Touch temperature c. Two point discrimination d. Stereognosis 17. Meissner’s corpuscle is for a. Two point discrimination steriognosis90 b. Touch c. Temperature d. Pressure 18. Cortical sensation is mediated by a. Primary somato sensory area b. Skin receptors c. Secondary somato sensory cortex d. Secondary somatosensory cortex and posterior multimodal association area - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - Continued [Show More]

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