PAR 100 All Quizzes Combined (Block 1– Block 5)

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PAR 100 All Quizzes Combined Block 1– Block 5 Adequate perfusion depends on: a. The presence of oxygen in blood b. Adequate production of carbon dioxide c. Blood pressure and the presence of oxygen... in the blood d. Blood pressure 2. The type of blood that may be administered to all people in an emergency, regardless of their blood type is, a. AB positive b. O positive c. O negative d. AB negative 3. Which of the following is a response to histamine release? a. Release of leukotrienes b. Suppression of lysosomal enzymes c. Decrease in vascular wall permeability d. Increase blood flow to the site of injury 4. Which of the following is NOT one of the body’s three chief lines of defense against infection and injury? a. Immune response b. Homeopathic secretions c. Inflammatory response d. Anatomic barriers 5. The excess elimination of hydrogen ions, as many occur in vomiting, can result in: a. Respiratory alkalosis b. Respiratory acidosis c. Metabolic alkalosis d. Metabolic acidosis 6. You are presented with a pt displaying Urticaria, dyspnea, hypotension, nausea, vomiting, and dizziness. This pt is MOST likely suffering from which type of hypersensitivity reaction? a. Type 1 b. Type 2 c. Type 3 d. Type 4 7. The spleen is a part of which organ system a. Digestive b. Lymphatic c. Endocrine d. Cardiovascular 8. Which of the following processes is used when glucose enters a cell? a. Osmosis b. Facilitated diffusion c. Diffusion d. Active Transport 9. The general term for the storing and creating energy in the body is? a. Homeostasis b. Negative Feedback c. Granulation d. Metabolism 10. The process that produces an increase in cell size as a result of increasing workload is? a. Hypertrophy b. Atrophy c. Hyperplasia d. Metaplasia 11. B lymphocytes are primarily responsible for: a. Neutralizing antibodies b. Producing antigens c. Producing antibodies d. Directly attacking antigens 12. A pt was shot in the abdomen and has a resultant massive hemorrhage and hypoperfusion, IV therapy would help treat hypoperfusion by? a. Slowing the rate of hemorrhage b. Increasing the heart rate c. Replacing blood constituents d. Increasing preload 13. Which of the following terms can be defined as the activities of the body that allow the maintenance of physiological stability a. Homeostasis b. Metabolism c. Dysplasia d. Natural stability 14. The amount of blood that returns to the heart during diastole a. Cardiac output b. Preload c. Afterload d. Myocardial capacity 15. Most of the formed elements of the blood are a. Erythrocytes b. Stem cells c. Leukocytes d. Thrombocytes 16. The sagittal plane separates right and left portions of the body True or Flase? a. True b. False 17. The largest percentage of water in body is located in the? a. Interstitial fluid b. Extracellular fluid c. Extrastitial fluid d. Intracellular fluid 18. Blood pressure is represented by a. Preload - afterload b. Cardiac output x peripheral vascular resistance c. Stroke volume x heart rate d. Cardiac contractile force – peripheral vascular resistance 19. Septic shock is precipitated by a. An overwhelming infection b. Exposure to an antigen c. Poisoning d. MODS 20. Solution having a comparatively higher concentration of solutes is said to be a. Osmotic b. Hypotonic c. Hypertonic d. Isotonic 21. Positively charged atom a. Anion b. Cation c. Bicarbinate 22. Tissue that lines the external body surface a. Epithelial b. Smooth c. Cardiac d. Skeletal 23. The term pH is a measure of a. Sodium hydroxide concentration b. Carbonic acid concentration c. Hydrogen ion concentration d. Sodium bicarbonate concentration 24. On average human body is what percent of water a. 60% b. 70% c. 50% d. 80% 25. Which of the following terms describes a substance moving from higher concentration to lower concentration? a. Diffusion b. Osmosis c. Active transport d. Facilitated diffusion 26. Primary constituent of plasma is a. Clotting factors b. Proteins c. Electrolytes d. Water 27. Substance that separate into electrically charged particles in water a. Electrolytes b. Anions c. Elements d. Atomic particals 28. The process in which the size of the cell decreases from decreasing workload is a. Metaplasia b. Atrophy c. Hyperplasia d. Hypertrophy 29. Pulmonary edema is characteristic of what classification of hypoperfusion? a. Neurogenic b. Hypovolemic c. Cardiogenic d. Septic 30. The level of structural organization that consists of groups of tissues working together is an a. Organ systems b. Organelle c. Organism d. Organ 31. T lymphocytes are primarily responsible for a. Directly attacking antigens b. Producing antigens c. Producing antibodies d. Neutralizing antigens 32. The preferred resuscitation fluid for a pt with an ongoing gi bleed is? a. PCRB’s b. Whole blood c. Normal saline d. Plasma 33. The most abundant cation in intracellular fluid is a. Potassium b. Sodium c. Chloride d. Sodium Bicarb 34. Shock can be best described as a. Hypotension b. Decreased cardiac output c. A state inadequate tissue perfusion d. A decrease in myocardial contraction 35. The shift of intravascular fluid to interstitial space is called a. Third space fluid loss b. Diuresis c. Insensible water loss d. Turgor 36. Which of the following ph values indicates acidosis in the body a. 7.4 b. 7.35 c. 7.3 d. 7.45 37. The most abundant cation in extracellular fluid is a. Chloride b. Sodium c. Potassium d. Magnesium 38. A change in cell size shape and appearance caused by an external stressor is? a. Dysplasia b. Metaplasia c. Hyperplasia d. Hypertrophy Quiz 1-9 1. You are caring for an elderly female w/suspected vertebral fx and a known hx of spontaneous fx secondary to osteoporosis, She freq takes a hydrocodone containing preparation (vicoprofen) for pain. W/ her current injury you find it necessary to administer a greater than expected dosage of morphine. To what is this need for a higher dosage due a. Synergism b. Cross tolerance c. Psych dependency d. Potentiation 2. Which of the following is not typically assoc w/type I diabetes a. Insulin dependency b. Obesity c. Juvenile onest d. Inadequate insulin release from the beta cells of pancreatic islets 3. In a patient experiencing an MI admin a med that reduces Afterload is beneficial because a. Prolong the q-t interval, thereby allowing time for complete atrial contribution to the ventricle b. Improves the stroke volume of blood ejected from the heart by also reducing preload c. Reduces the blood flow to unnecessary areas, redirecting blood to the heart d. Reduces the workload of the heart redirecting myocardial oxygen consumption 4. Tricyclic antidepressants achieve the therapeutic effect by a. Prolonging the duration of norepinephrine and serotonin at the receptor sites b. Blocking the release of norepinephrine and serotonin at the synapse c. Blocking the release of acetylcholine at the synapse d. Enhancing degradation of norepinephrine and serotonin at the synapse 5. The chief physiological effect of nerve gases such as VX and sarin are to a. Produce an adrenergic blockade throughout the body b. Competitively block the muscarininc receptor sites at the target organs c. Competitively block the nicotinic receptor sites at the neuromuscular junction d. Irreversibly block the enzyme cholinesterase 6. Which of the following statements about antibiotics is NOT true? a. Viruses are not susceptible to antibiotics b. An individual who has developed a resistance to one type of antibiotics will typically respond well to other antibiotics in a similar class c. Because antibiotics are generally so safe, they are prescribed indiscriminately, even for unknown viral infections. d. Antibiotics typically achieve their therapeutic action by destroying the bacterial cell wall 7. You are caring for a young mother that jnust gave birth to her first child. Despite taking appropriate measures, she continues to exhibit postpartum hemorrhage. In addition to crystalloid intravenous infusions what medication might you consider to manage this patient? a. Oxytocin (pitocin) b. Terb c. Dopamine d. Epi solution 8. Which of the following statements about warfarin (coumadin) is NOT true? a. It was originally used as rat poison b. It prevents coagulation by antagonizing the effects of vitamin K c. It actively breaks down the fibrin network, thereby dissolving formed thrombi d. It helps treat chronic atrial fibrillation 9. What term best describes the effects a drug has on its target organs a. bioavalability b. pharmacokinetics c. pharmacodynamics d. biotransformation 10. The paramedics chief concern with patients taking Viagra is a. acute renal failure b. cardiac dysthrhymias c. agitation and combative behavior d. hypotension 11. An important distinction between analgesics and anesthesia is a. analgesics are reversible, whereas anesthesia are not b. anesthesia can only be administered intravenously c. anesthesia block all sensations d. analgesics produce unconsciousness in high doses 12. All laxatives are similar in that they a. Increase peristalsis via direct stimulation b. Reduce the molecular bonds of colon contents c. Reduce surface surfactant, thereby improving passage d. Increase the water content in the colon e. Decrease surface surfactant, thereby improving passage f. Increase bulk in the intestine 13. Sympathetic nervous system stimulation that results in vasoconstriction and some bronchoconstriction is most likely affecting a. beta2 receptor sites b. beta1 receptor sites c. alpha2 receptor sites d. alpha1 receptor sites 14. According to Frank Starling’s law, the administration of nitrogen will result in a. increased preload, increased stroke volume, and decreased myocardial oxygen demand b. decreased preload, increased stroke volume, and decreased myocardial oxygen demand c. decreased preload, decreased stroke volume, and increased myocardial oxygen demand d. decreased preload, decreased stroke volume, and decreased myocardial oxygen demand 15. An important physiological distinction between the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic nervous system is a. the sympathetic ganglia are close to the spinal cord b. only the sympathetic division innervates the target organs or tissue directly c. the sympathetic division does not use acetylcholine as a neurotransmitter d. The parasympathetic nervous system contains no ganglionic fibers. 16. A drug with a wax like base that melts at body temperature allowing absorption into body tissue is called a a. suppository b. capsule c. suspension d. elixir 17. Glucagon will affect blood glucose levels by a. enhancing the absorption of glucose from the gastrointestional tract thereby increasing blood glucose levels b. inducing glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis, thereby increasing blood glucose levels c. inducing the storage of glucose into the liver and skeletal muscle through glycogenesis, thereby decreasing blood glucose levels d. enabling the rapid absorption of glucose into the cells thereby decreasing blood glucose levels. 18. Which of the following drug names are the same a. chemical and genetic b. chemical and trade c. brand and trade d. proprietary and official 19. If a drug were to block the nicotinic receptors at the neuromuscular junction, what symptomatic effect might this have on the patient? a. Increase gastric motility b. Inability to move voluntary and involuntary muscles c. Papillary constriction d. Decrease in heart rate 20. Which of the following is a generic name of a drug a. Tylenol b. Acetaminophen c. Excedrin d. Motrin 21. A beta 2 specific agonist causes which of the following physiologic responses a. Bronchoconstriction b. Increased heart rate c. Bronchodilation d. Decreased heart rate 22. Which of the following medications will have the greatest impact on reducing stroke volume? a. Dobutamine b. Furosemide c. Digoxin d. Dopamine 23. You are seeing a 69 year old female patient complaining of fatigue and nausea. She has a history of heart failure, and two previous MI’s. She reports having blurred vision with halos around objects. Her vitals are blood pressure of 144 over 88, her pulse is 110 and irregular, her respirations are 16. What should you suspect is causing her symptoms. a. Toxic blood levels of digoxin b. New onset heart failure with impaired cerebral perfusion c. Acute closed angle glaucoma d. Cerebral embolus secondary to atrial fibrillation 24. You have been instructed to administer a protein binding medication to a 10 month old patient. With this in mind, which of the following statements is true. a. Children under 1 year of age have less plasma proteins than older children, thus the drug will have a diminished effect. b. Children under 1 year of age have more plasma proteins than older children, thus the drug will have a diminished effect. c. Children under 1 year of age have less plasma proteins than older children, thus the drug will have a greater effect. d. Children under 1 year of age have more plasma proteins than older children, thus the drug with have a diminished effect. 25. Viagra achieves its therapeutic action in the treatment of erectile dysfunction by. a. Enhancing neuronal stimulation of the amygdale in the brain b. Relaxing vascular smooth muscle, which increases blood flow to the corpus cavernosum c. Stimulating sympathetic receptors in the nerve fibers leading to the sexual organs d. Stimulating parasympathetic receptors in the nerve fibers leading to the sexual organs. 26. Which of the following in NOT associated with the sympathetic nervous system? a. Vagus nerve b. Thoracolumbar c. Flight or fight d. Adrenergic 27. Oxytocin is frequently used in the prehospital setting to. a. Stop preterm labor contractions b. Control seizures from eclampsia of pregnancy c. Help control postpartum hemorrhage d. Facilitate labor and induce delivery 28. An antimetic phenothiazine (compazine, phenergan) have which of the following undesirable side effects a. Euphoria b. Hallucinations c. Diarrhea d. Extrapyramidal effects 29. You respond to the aid of a 19 year old who is reported to have taken an overdose of a prescribed medication. She exhibits combativeness and sever tremors. Her blood pressure is 160 over 100, and her pulse is 132. Sinus tach appears of her ECG. Which of the following classifications of drugs is more likely to cause these symptoms? a. Barbiturates b. Benzos c. Amphetamines d. Opiates 30. Which of the following pharmacokinetic processes would be least affected by the hypotensive state of a patient in Cardiogenic shock a. Absorption b. Distribution c. Elimination d. Biotransformation 31. When administering glucagons to a patient, it is important to remember that. a. Glycogen stores must be available in the liver and muscle for glucagons to be effective. b. It is only effective in patients with elevated blood glucose levels. c. Glucagons can only be administered intravenously d. Glucagons will stimulate glycogenesis in a hypoglycemic patient 32. Shortly after treating your patient for a cardiac dysrhythmia, your patient complains of dry mouth, blurred vision, palpitations, and sensitivity to light. Which drug might you have administered too much of? a. Adenosine b. Atropine c. Lidocaine d. Amiodarone e. Aspirin 33. Which of the following is not associated with the parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system? a. Feed and breed b. Craniosacral c. Cholinergic d. Short preganglionic neurons 34. A college student in an effort to improve test scores, takes a drug, intelliboost, which enhances cortical function by increasing dopamine release in the brain. It just so happens that he also is taking a cold remedy, sneezeless, which inhibits the chemical breakdown of dopamine at all receptor sites. Which of the following best describes the drug interactions.. a. Sneezeless and itelliboost have an additive effect b. Sneezeless has a cumulative effect c. Sneezeless potentiations the effects of intelliboost d. Sneezeless and intelliboost have a synergistic effect. 35. Medications best suited for treating bronchoconstriction generally stimulate? a. Beta 2 receptor sties b. Beta 1 receptor sites c. Alpha 1 receptor sites d. Alpha 2 receptor sites 36. methylpheridate (Ritalin), a drug used to treat attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD), achieves its therapeutic action by a. inhibiting the CNS and a concomitant state, allowing for less distraction and greater focus b. stimulating the CNS, which in ADHD has a idiosyncratic sedation effect, allowing greater concentration. c. Inhibiting the CNS, which in ADHD has a profound sedation effect, allowing greater concentration. d. Stimulating the CNS and causing a heightened awareness and arousal, allowing for greater focus. 37. Which of the following statements about bronchial asthma is true? a. Prednisone and methyprednisone should be reserved for only the most sever asthma attacks. b. Ipratopium (Atrovent) is often added to beta agonists to treat bronchospasm, because it works through a different mechanism that relax bronchial smooth muscle. c. The nonselective sympathomimetics continue to be the most popular treatments for mild to moderate asthma attacks. d. People with bronchial asthma maintain symptom free lifestyles with daily treatments of propranolol. 38. If a patient were exhibiting pupilary constriction, hypersalivation, bronchial wheezing, and Bradycardia. Which division of the ANS should you suspect is affected? a. Blockade of the cholinergic nervous system b. Stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system c. Stimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system d. Blockade of the voluntary nervous system 39. Which of the following is NOT a side effect of oral contraceptives? a. Hypertenstion b. Early onset osteoporosis c. Unintended pregnancy d. Thromboembolism 40. Drugs with high abuse potential and no accepted medical benefits are classified as schedule a. 2 b. 1 c. 3 d. 4 41. You are carring for a 48 year old patient with acute onset pulmonary edema secondary to an acute MI. He has crackles in both lung fields and wheezes in the bronchial regions. His blood pressure is 160/90, his pulse is 112, and his respirations are 32. Which of the following meds is indicated first and why? a. NTG to vasodilate the coronary vessels to maximize myocardial oxygen supply b. Morphine sulfate to decrease anxiety and reduce Afterload c. Lasix to achieve a diuresis and remove a portion of fluids from the intravascular space. d. NTG to reduce preload and Afterload to redistribute fluids to the periphery. e. Morphine sulfate to remove fluids from the intracellular space. 42. One important reason meds are given via IV is such drugs a. Do not affect the kidneys b. Can be more easily reversed if an untoward affect occurs c. Bypass the liver initially d. Have a delayed onset of action compared to the oral route 43. All of the following result from elevated insulin levels in the blood EXCEPT. a. Gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis b. Conversion of glucose to glycogen from storage in the liver and skeletal muscle c. Increased cellular transport of glucose, potassium, and amino acids d. Promotion of cell growth and division e. Promotes proteins, carbohydrates, lipid, and nucleic acid synthesis. 44. Which of the following is most likely to affect elimination of a medication a. Burns on more than 30% of your body b. Renal disease c. Metabolic alkalosis d. Hemorrhage 45. If a newly developed drug is undergoing a double blind study in a large pt population, it is most likely in phase of human studies. a. Phase 4 b. Phase 2 c. Phase 1 d. Phase 3 46. At the cellular level, the treatment of seizures is generally accomplished by: a. Inhibiting the influx of sodium and calcium ions into the neural cells b. Enhancing the influx of potassium ions into the neural cells c. Enchancing the influx of sodium and calcium ions into the nerual cells d. Inhibiting the influx of potassium ions into the neural cells 47. A prolonged deficiency of vitamin C may result in: a. Kwashoirkor b. Pemidous anemia c. Scurvy d. Increased bleeding 48. The narcotic nalbuphine (Nubain) not only binds to opiate receptor sites to provide analgesia, it prevents other opiods, such as morphine sulfate, from binding to these sites, lessening repiratory depression. These characterisistics make the drug an: a. Agonist b. Competitive agonist c. Competitive antagonist d. Agonist antagonist 49. Pts experiencing the onset of signs and symptoms indicative of myocardial ischemia are sometimes encouraged to chew ASA. ASA is beneficial because it: a. Inhibits the clotting cascade, thereby preventing thrombus formation b. Decreases the formation of platelet plugs and potential thrombi c. Reduces the pain of an AMI through its analgestic actions d. Blocks the converstion of fibrinogen to fribrin 50. The study of the basic processes that determine the duration and intensity of a drug’s effect and how those drugs are absorbed, distributed, biotransformed, and elimated is called: a. Polypharmacy b. Phamacodyamics c. Drug profiling d. Pharmacokinetics 51. Which of the following meds is appropriate for the routine treatment of type 2 diabetes: (unknown answer) a. Ultralente insulin b. Glucagons c. Chlorpropamide d. NPH insulin 52. You are caring for a 45 yr old male pt who was tending to his fruit orchard when he suddenly developed headache, dizziness, blurred vision, and tremors. You note that he was inconteinent of urine, has papillary constriction, and is salivating excessively. Which of the following medications would be most appropriate to manage this pt? a. Ipratropium bromide b. Diazepam c. Physostigmine d. Atropine sulfate 53. When treating pts with suspected hypoglycemia, which of the following should be of greatest concern? a. Infiltration of the IV during the admin of 50% dextrose in water b. The admin of O2 before any other therapies c. Confirming that the pts have histories of diabetes before continuing treatment d. Ensuing that a blood glucose specimen is obtained before initiating any hypoglycemic therapies in an unconscious pt. 54. Which of the the following is NOT one of the main sources of drugs? a. Animals b. Plants c. Synthetic materials d. Herbs 55. The acronym SLUDGE helps identify affects on the ANS. a. Parasympathomimetic b. Sympathomimetic c. Parasympatholytic d. Sympatholytic 56. Which of the following statements about insulin is NOT true? a. Insulin is classified as natural or modified b. Insulin must be given subcutaneously c. Insulin is now produced through recombinant DNA tech d. Insulin is available as short, intermediate, or long acting 57. Naloxone is an opiod: a. Agonist b. Agonist antagonist c. Antagonist d. Analgesic 58. Fibrionolytics achieve their therapeutication by: a. Interfering with the clotting cascade b. Decreasing platelet aggresgation c. Blocking the converstion of plasminogen to plasmin d. Breaking up a thrombus that has formed 59. Which of the following statements about NTG is NOT true? a. NTG achieves its therapeutic effects by blocking the entry of calcium into the cells of smooth muscle. b. NTG commonly causes headache and orthostatic hypotenson c. NTG primarily dilated veins and coronary vessles. d. NTG is poorly lipid soluble, which prevents it from passing through cell membranes, thereby pronlonging its effects 60. While caring for a 60 yr old male with a suspected femur fx, your partner accidently administers the full vial of morphine sulfate (15mg) when only 4mg was ordered. What adverse effects are likely to occur in this pt? a. Widended QRS and respiratory depression b. Hypotension and respiratory depression c. Hypotension and tachypnea d. Sedation and hypertension 61. A drug or other substance that blocks the actions of the sympathetic nervous system is called a. Adrenergic b. Sympatholytic c. Sympathomimetic d. Anticholinergic 62. is the preferred antihypertensive for the management of pregnancy induced hypertension. a. Coreg b. Apresoline c. Captopril d. Nifedipine 63. Because they can thicken bronchial secretions, you should not use in patients with asthma. a. Mucolytics b. Antitussives c. Antihistamines d. Antidysrhythmics 64. An example of an anticholingeric drug used in the treatment of asthma is a. Atropine b. Ephedrine c. Proventil d. Beclovent 65. The drug name that is derived from its chemical composition is referred to as its a. Official name b. Chemical name c. Generic name d. Trade name 66. Drug legislation was instituted in 1906 by the a. Narcotics act b. Cosmetics act c. Pure food and drug act d. Pharmacology act 67. The six rights of medication administration include the right: a. Dose b. Time c. Route d. All of the above 68. Which of the following routes is the least appropriate for medication administration in the prehospital setting? a. Oral b. Sublingual c. Subcutaneous d. Intravenous 69. Drugs manufactured in gelatin containers are called a. Pills b. Tablets c. Capsules d. Extracts 70. A drugs pharmacodynamics involve its ability to cause the expected response, or: a. Affinity b. Efficacy c. Side effect d. Contraindication 71. A type of anesthesia that combines decreased sensation of pain with amnesia, while the patient remains conscious, is a (an) a. Opioid b. Nonopioid c. Anesthetic d. Neuroleptanesthesia 72. agents oppose the parasympathetic nervous system a. Cholinergic b. Adrenergic c. Antiadrenergic d. Anticholinergic 73. In antidysrhythmic classification, class 1A drugs include all of the following except: a. Quinidine b. Lidocaine c. Procainamide d. Disopyramide 74. Loop diuretics achieve their therapeutic effects by: a. Enhancing reabsorption throughout the loop of henle b. Decreasing the reabsorption of sodium at the ascending loop of henle c. Decreasing the absorption of sodium at the glomerlus d. Increasing the reabsorption of sodium at the ascending loop of henle 75. are medications released from mast cells upon contact with allergens. a. Histamines b. Leukotrienes c. Glucocorticoids d. Methyixanthines V1 C10 1. Having a pt swallow a tablet with a drink of water is an example of? a. Subligual b. Oral administration c. Buccal d. Topical administration 2. Which of the following routes will medication have the quickest onset of action? a. Intramuscular b. Oral c. Intradermal d. Subcutaneous 3. Administration of a medication to the right eye would be documented medically as administration to which of the following? a. O.g. b. O.u. c. O.d. d. O.s. 4. Which of the following is a disadvantage of pulmonary drug administration via nebulizer or metered dose inhaler? a. Side effects are more likely with pulmonary drug administration b. Pulmonary absorption is a slow route for drug administration c. It requires that the pt have adequate ventilation d. It is necessary to use a larger dose for inhaled medications than if the drug was administered by another route 5. Into which of the following containers would it be necessary to inject a volume of air equal to the intended volume of medication before withdrawing the medication with a needle and syringe? a. IV fluid bag b. Vial c. Ampule d. All of the above 6. Administration of medication into the dorsal gluteal must be injected into which quadrant of the muscle? a. Lower, inner b. Lower, outer c. Upper, inner d. Upper, outer 7. When preparing for venipuncture, a constricting band should be placed tight enough to restrict flow and not left in place for more than minutes. a. Venous but not arterial ; 5 b. Venous but not arterial ; 2 c. Both venous and arterial ; 5 d. Both venous and arterial ; 2 8. Which of the following is a disadvantage to intravascular volume replacement with isotonic crystalloid solutions? a. 2/3 of the volume enters the extravascular space within one hour of administration b. There is an immediate shift of vascular volume to the interstitial space c. Sodium shifts into cells and potassium shifts out of cells d. Intracellular fluid shifts to the vascular space 9. Using microdrip tubing, how many drops of fluid equals 1ml? a. 10 b. 15 c. 20 d. 60 10. Which of the following pts, assuming each is in critical need of an IV and that you have made multiple unsuccessful attempts to start an IV, would be a candidate for IO therapy? a. An 81 yr old male b. A 9 month old male c. A 35 yr old female d. All of the above 11. Which of the following is an advantage of sublingual drug administration? a. Slow rate of drug absorption b. Rapid absorption due to sublingual vasculature c. Uniform absorption through the conjunctival mucosa d. Rapid dissolution of tablets so that the medication can be swallowed 12. Which of the following solutions is appropriate for the pt needing vascular volume replacement in the prehospital setting? a. 0.9% sodium chloride solution b. 0.45% sodium chloride and 5% dextrose in water c. 5% dextrose in water d. Dextran 40 13. A plastic or glass container with a self-sealing rubber top is known as a(n): a. Ampule b. Blister pak c. Prefilled syringe d. Vial 14. Which of the following is considered a site of central venous access? a. Saphenous vein b. External jugular vein c. Femoral vein d. Median cephalic vein 15. Just as you are arriving at the emergency department bay, your pt on whom you started an IV at the scene, complains of sudden chills, back pain, and nausea. The pt appears flushed, and his skin is hot and moist to the touch. Which of the following most likely accounts for your pt’s presentation? a. Pulmonary thromboembolism b. Circulatory overload c. Anaphylaxis d. Pyrogenic reaction 16. Which of the following veins is NOT a site of peripheral venous access? a. Subclavian b. Median basilic c. Saphenous d. External jugular 17. Which of the following is the appropriate method for preparing a site for venipuncture or injection? a. Use of a disinfectant b. Use of an antiseptic c. Cleaning d. Chemical sterilization 18. Which of the following is NOT a Percutaneous route of medication administration? a. Sublingual b. Inhalation c. Buccal d. Transdermal 19. Which of the following is NOT a pulmonary route of medication administration? a. Nasal drops and sprays b. Inhalation of aerosolized medications c. Instillation of liquid medications into an endotracheal tube d. Nebulization of liquid medications by pressurized air. 20. You have 2mg of Naloxone in 10ml solution. What is the mg/ml concentration of the drug? a. 0.002mg/ml b. 1mg/ml c. 2mg/ml d. 0.2mg/ml 21. Which of the following is appropriate for a subcutaneous injection of medication? a. Insertion of the needle at a 90 degree angle b. Up to 2ml of medication c. An 18 gauge, ¾” needle d. Volume of medication of 1ml or less 22. Which of the following is a parenteral route of drug administration? a. Intramuscular b. Rectal c. Gastric tube d. Oral 23. Which of the following intravenous solutions would remain in the vascular system the longest? a. 5% dextrose in water b. Plasmanate c. Lactated ringers solution d. 0.9% sodium chloride 24. Shortly after starting an IV on your pt, you note that the IV is not dripping. You have removed the constricting band, and all the clamps on the tubing are open. You note that there is minor swelling around the venipuncture site. There is no discoloration of the site, but it is firm and cool to the touch. Which of the following most likely accounts for your findings? a. The site has become infected b. The tip of the catheter is occluded by a valve in the vein c. Fluids extravasated into the tissue surrounding the IV site. d. The tip of the catheter is occluded by a blood clot. 25. The maximum volume of medication to be delivered into the deltoid muscle is ml. a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 5 V1 C13 1. The tip of a curved laryngoscope blade is placed correctly: a. Under the epiglottis b. In the vallecula c. At the junction of the hard and soft palates d. At the glottic opening 2. A musical squeaking, or whistling sound that may be heard on inspiration or expiration while auscultating lung fields is known as: a. Rhonchi b. Crackles c. Wheezing d. Stridor 3. The respiratory rate may be greater than normal in: a. Beverage alcohol ingestion b. Sleep c. Acidosis due to ASA overdose d. The use of medications such as diazepam or morphine 4. When intubating an adult pt, the onset of bradycardia is most likely due to: a. Hypoxia b. Stimulation of the vagus nerve c. Hypercarbia d. Increased ICP 5. A high pitched inspiratory noise caused by a partial upper airway obstruction is called: a. Stridor b. Rhonchi c. Wheezing d. Dysphonia 6. An adult pt who has been intubated due to respiratory arrest should be ventilated times per minute? a. 30 b. 24 c. 15(on quiz) d. 10 7. The hypoxic drive is stimulated by: a. Low PaO2 b. Low PaCO2 c. High PaCO2 d. High PaO2 8. Of the normal tidal volume for the average 70 kg adult, what amount of air (in ml) is not available for gas exchange? a. 50 b. 100 c. 150 d. 250 9. At the end of exhalation, the intrathoracic pressure is: a. Significantly less than atmospheric pressure b. Slightly less than atmospheric pressure c. Equal to atmospheric pressure d. Greater than atmospheric pressure 10. With which of the following conditions should you NOT attempt endotracheal intubation of the pt unless airway failure is imminent a. Respiratory syncyctial virus (RSV) infections b. Epiglottitis c. Pulmonary embolism d. COPD 11. Which of the following is the correct order of events after an ET tube has been properly inserted? a. Secure the tube, listen for breath sounds over the epigastrium, listen for equal breath sounds bilaterally, inflate the cuff with 5 – 10 cc of air. b. Inflate the cuff with 5 – 10cc of air, listen for breath sounds over the epigastrium, listen for bilateral lung sounds, secure the tube. c. Inflate the cuff with 5 – 10cc of air, listen for equal breath sounds bilaterally, listen for breath sounds over the epigastrium, secure the tube. 12. Moderate hypoxia is indicated with a pulse ox reading of? a. 86-91 b. 81-85 c. 90-94 d. 95-100 13. A fine, bubbling sound heard on inspiration and associated with fluid in the alveoli and terminal bronchioles is called: a. Pleural friction b. Bronchovesicular sounds c. Crackles d. Rhonchi 14. Which of the following increases the risk of a FBAO? a. Alcohol consumption b. Age c. Dentures d. All of the above 15. The normal partial pressure of O2 is mmHg. a. 35 to 45 b. 50 to 75 c. 80 to 100 d. 100 to 150 16. Physiologically the term respiration refers to the: a. Exchange of all gases, nutrients, and wastes at the cellular level b. Exchange of gases at the alveolar capillary interface c. Exchange of gases at the cellular level d. Mechanical process that moves air into and out of the lungs 17. Which of the following interferes with ventilation in the presence of a flail segment? a. The ability to generate negative intrathoracic pressure is impaired b. The ability to generate positive intrathoracic pressure is impaired c. Intrathoracic pressure decreases on the affected side d. Intrathoracic pressure increases on the affected side 18. Which of the following is a disadvantage of pulse oximetry? a. Pulse oximetry gives no information about the amount of carbon dioxide in the blood. b. Tissue hypoxia may be present even with a normal SaO2 reading c. Pulse oximetry cannot differentiate between hemoglobin bound to oxygen and hemoglobin bound to carbon monoxide d. All of the above are disadvantages 19. The bifurcation of the trachea is called the: a. Carina b. Hilum c. Cricoid cartilage d. Glottic opening 20. When using the end tidal carbon dioxide detector, the absence of carbon dioxide in exhaled air after six breaths indicates the endotracheal tube has been placed: a. Correctly b. In the esophagus c. In the left mainstem bronchus d. In the right mainstem bronchus 21. When a portion of the lung is unavailable for gas exchange, yet pulmonary circulation continues in that area of the lung, a condition known as results. a. Eupnea b. Atelectasis c. Ventilation perfusion mismatch d. Pulses pardoxus 22. You should be prepared to immediately intubate any pt with respiratory distress who is exhibiting: a. Altered mentation b. Wheezing c. A pulse ox reading of 90 or less d. A heart rate over 100 23. Which of the following is not a structure of the upper airway a. Hypopharynx b. Larynx c. Trachea d. Nasopharynx 24. In which of the following situation would you expect end tidal carbon dioxide levels to be very low despite a patient airway? a. The pt is being ventilated with room air b. Hypoventilation c. The pt is in cardiac arrest d. Hyperthermia 25. Which of the following mechanisms is responsible for hypoxemia in the pt with a pulmonary embolism? a. Pulses paradoxus b. Atelectasis c. Lower airway obstruction d. Pulmonary shunting 26. Without adequate airway maintenance and ventilation, the pt can succumb to brain injury or death in how many minutes? a. 6-10 b. 2-4 c. 4-6 d. 10-12 27. When swallowing, the structure that occludes the tracheal opening to prevent aspiration of foods and liquids is the: a. Uvula b. Cricoid cartilage c. Epiglottis d. Pyriform fossa 28. Aspiration of vomit into the lungs may result in: a. Tissue damage b. Pulmonary edema c. Pneumonia d. All of the above 29. During a respiratory assessment, the absence of breath sounds may indicate a: a. Pulmonary embolism b. Bronchitis c. Pneumothorax d. Flail chest 30. The tip of the ET tube for the pediatric pt should be inserted cm below the vocal cords a. 4-5 b. 2-3 c. 1-2 d. 3-4 31. Which of the following statements about manual airways in true: a. They require specialized equipment b. The are often neglected by EMT’s and paramedics c. They are difficult to learn d. They are contraindicated in trauma pt’s 32. Progressively deeper, faster breathing alternating gradually with shallow, slower breathing is called: a. Cheyne-stokes respirations b. Biot’s respirations c. Agonal respirations d. Kussmaul’s respirations 33. In which of the following situations should you suspect pulmonary shunting? a. A foreign body in the right mainstem bronchus b. Pneumonia c. Pulmonary embolism d. All of the above 34. The reading obtained by the use of a pulse oximeter reflects the: a. Amount of saturated hemoglobin per deciliter of blood b. Ratio of unsaturated hemoglobin to saturated hemoglobin** c. Partial pressure of oxygen in capillary blood d. Amount of oxygen dissolved in the blood Block 2 Volume 2 Chapter 1 Quiz 1. All of the following encourage patient communication except. a. Listening closely to everything the patient says b. Maintaining eye contact through the interview c. Using sophisticated medical terminology d. Asking the patient for clarification 2. Which of the following actions can you take to establish rapport early in the interview with your patient? a. Ask as many questions as possible to get her attention b. Be as stiff and emotionless as possible c. Respond to her condition with empathy d. Do not allow her to discuss her chief complaint freely 3. Which of the following in NOT part of the preliminary patient data. a. Date and time of physical exam b. Patient age and occupation c. Source of information about the patient d. Chief complaint 4. Which of the following body positions best communicate that you care about your patients problems a. Standing close to the patient so you are above him b. Standing far from the patient as to practice good hygiene c. Sitting as the patients level across the room d. Sitting beside the patient addressing him at eye level 5. When speaking with your patient you should a. Speak very softly as to not frighten the patient b. Speak in a calm reassuring voice c. Speak loudly so that everyone in the room can hear you d. Demand out loud that you have the patients full attention 6. Which words or terms would you use while addressing your patient a. Enduring terms such as “sweetie, honey, or pops” b. No terms, because they can make her nervous c. Terms of the patients choice d. Formal titles like “Mr. Smith” 7. Which of the following nonverbal cues demonstrates your sincerity to the patient a. Averting your gaze most of the time as to not embarrass your patient b. Crossing your arms across your chest and tapping your foot. c. Offering a comforting touch or shaking the patients hand d. Continuing to touch the patient even after he withdraws 8. When questioning a female patient about abdominal pain about a possible pregnancy, you should a. Question her in front of her parents so she will be more truthful b. Question her in private without her parents nearby so she will be more truthful c. Question the parents directly because the patient will not be truthful d. Ask no questions because she wont be truthful anyway 9. Which of the following is an example of an open ended question a. “Does your pain radiate to the shoulder?” b. “Do you take high blood pressure meds?” c. “Where do you hurt?” d. “Do you have any allergies to medicine?” 10. Which of the following is an example of a closed ended question a. “Do you have any medical history?” b. “What is your medical history?” c. “Where is your discomfort?” d. “What were you doing when the pain began?” 11. Which of the following statements is true? a. Always use closed ended questions when gathering history because they save time b. Always use open ended questions because they give a more complete picture of the chief complaint c. Use a combination of open and closed ended question to gather a history of the chief complaint d. Only ask a few questions as to not embarrass the patient 12. Which of the following statements about patient communication is true a. Use sophisticated medical terminology to sound professional b. Use language appropriate to the patients level of understanding c. Cultural differences make no difference in the professional world of medicine. d. Avoid using interpreters because they only confuse the patient 13. When you repeat your patients words to encourage him to give more details, you should use the technique called a. Facilitation b. Clarification c. Reflection d. Interpretation 14. When you ask questions to refine a patients initially vague answer, you are using a technique called a. Facilitation b. Interpretation c. Confrontation d. Clarification 15. When you detect an inconsistency in a patients story, which technique should you use to keep the patient from hiding is feelings a. Facilitation b. Interpretation c. Confrontation d. Clarification 16. Which of the following statements can show your empathy towards the patient a. “That must have been very difficult” b. “What is your name” c. “Are you saying that take a diuretic” d. “You say that your chest doesn’t hurt, but you keep rubbing it” 17. All of the following actions can help make taking a history on a sensitive subject easier EXCEPT: a. Observing experienced clinicians ask these type of questions b. Attending a lecture or seminar on these sensitive subjects to learn more about them c. Asking some open ended questions to these subjects as practice. d. Using euphemisms and metaphors to ask embarrassing questions 18. Elements of patient history include all of the following except: a. Preliminary data b. Current health status c. Physical examination d. Present illness 19. Which of the following statements is true regarding a comprehensive patient history a. Use all components every time you interview a patient b. Use the components that apply to the patients situation and status c. Use the components the patient chooses d. Use only one component as not to confuse the patient 20. Which of the following pieces of information should you record as preliminary data a. The chief complaint b. The patients age c. Aspects of the present illness d. Elements of past history 21. Which of the following statements is an example of a chief complaint a. The patient is complaining of a tibia fracture b. The patient is complaining of a MI c. The patient is complaining of dyspnia d. The patient is complaining of chest pain 22. An example of a primary problem is a. Leg pain b. Shortness of breath c. MI d. Nausea 23. A practical template for exploring various aspects of a chief complaint is a. ABCDE b. OPQRST-ASPN c. AEIOU-TIPS d. MOUSE 24. Which of the following questions is designed to find out about palliation a. “What were you doing when this pain begain” b. “What makes the pain feel better” c. “What does the pain feel like” d. “How long have you been having this pain” 25. What is an example of referred pain a. Chest pain located under the sternum assiosiated with a cardiac condition b. Abdominal pain related to pancreatitis c. Epigastric pain associated with a cardiac disorder d. Flank pain associated with a kidney stone 26. Questions to ask about a patients past medical history include all of the following areas except: a. General state of health b. Adult diseases c. Surgeries or injuries d. Duration of the pain 27. Which of the following questions gathers information about a patients current health status a. “Where does the pain go” b. “When did you have your appendix removed” c. “How many cigarettes do you smoke a day” d. “Do you also feel nauseous” 28. What does the “C” in CAGE alcohol screening tool stand for a. Are you concerned about your drinking b. Have you ever felt the need to cut down on your drinking c. Are you constipated after drinking d. What causes your drinking 29. Areas in the patients current health status include all of the following except: a. Environmental hazards b. Home situation c. Past medical history d. Sleep patterns 30. Which of the following actions would you take if confronted with a patient who is silent a. Stay silent yourself as to show empathy b. Encourage the patient to speak by confronting him with your perception of what is happening c. Assume that the patient is noncopperate and to call the police d. Assume that the reason is emotional and ignore it 31. Which of the following is a challenge to your ability to solicit patient information a. Patients level of cognitive functioning b. Complaints of multiple systems c. Intoxication d. All of these 32. The active listening technique of reflection involves a. Repeating the patients words exactly b. Making eye contact with the patient c. Asking for clarification of the patients complaint d. Confronting the patient if you detect inconsistencies 33. The history begins with an open ended question about your patients a. Primary problem b. Severity of symptoms c. General status of health d. Chief complaint 34. A mnemonic for remembering the questions for determining the present illness is a. ABCDE-CHART b. OPQRST-ABCD c. HEENT d. OPQRST-ASPN 35. Part of active listening includes maintaining eye contact and using appropriate gestures in a process known as a. Formulation b. Facilitation c. Fulmination d. Faculation 36. Which of the following establishes the foundation for good patient care a. Asking open ended questions b. Eliciting a good history c. Using active listening d. Using common sense 37. A sign or symptom that causes a patient or bystander to request medical help is known as the a. Primary problem b. Associated symptom c. Chief complaint d. Present illness 38. When asking about a patients health status, you or your partner should ask about all of the following except: a. Surgeries or hospitalizations b. Use of tobacco c. Immunizations d. Religious beliefs 39. Which of the following statements does NOT accurately describe depression a. It is a common medical problem b. It often present with insomnia and physical complaints c. It is commonly misdiagnosed or ignored d. It is seldom letha Volume 2 Chapter 2 Quiz 1. Physical exam techniques include all of the following EXCEPT: a. Inspection b. Palpation c. Auscultation d. Association 2. What technique does a Paramedic use to effectively evaluate for tenderness, rigidiy or crepitus? a. Palpation b. Auscultation c. Percussion d. Inspection 3. A stethoscope is usually needed to hear all of the following sounds EXCEPT a. Stridor b. Bowel sounds c. Crackles d. Wheezing 4. When evaluating a patient's skin condition, a paramedic should check for which of the following? 1. color 2. temperature 3. pigmentation 4. moisture a. 1,2 b. 1,2,3 c. 2,3,4 d. 1,2,4 5. You are sent to the home of an insulin dependant diabetic female. You ask her to state her name, the month, and her address. This would be an example of a. Assessing memory and attention b. Interrogation c. Assessing mood d. Assessing judgment 6. The physical exam begins when the Paramedic first a. Talks to the patient b. Sees the patient c. Touches the patient d. Asks the patient about past medical history 7. Skin color is best evaluated at the a. Cheeks and nose b. Wrists and neck c. Nail beds and conjuntiva d. Mouth and limbs 8. Cyanosis is caused by increased a. Carboxyhemoglobin b. Deoxyhemoglovin c. Methemoglobin d. Oxyhemoglobin 9. Examination of the eyes include checking the symmetry of: 1. pupil size 2. lens color 3. shape 4. contour a. 1,2 b. 1,2,3 c. 2,3,4 d. 1,3,4 10. Your patient was in a mvc (motor vehicle crash) but was not discovered until 3 hours later. When you examine him, you discover bilateral discolored skin over the mastoid process. You should suspect a. Ethmoid bone fracture b. Sinusitis c. Basilar skull fracture d. Opthalmoscope 11. Aterial occlusions, retinal hemorrhages, and cataracts can be visualized with a(an) a. Otoscope b. Naked eye c. Corneal lens d. Opthalmoscope 12. Using an otoscope you can examine a patient for and . a. tinnitus, eustachian tube blockage b. cranial nerve VII function, basilar skull fx c. otitis, mastoiditis d. tympanic membrane rupture, tympanic color changes 13. You are examining a 50 yom, complaining of ear pain and a fever. You inspect the tympanic membrane and note it is a pearly grey/translucent color. You conclude the patient has a. A buildup of fluid behind the eardrum b. A normal eardrum c. Otitis media d. Hemotmpanum 14. Nasal flaring in an indication of a. Epistaxis b. Cocaine abuse c. Respiratory distress d. Rhinitis 15. Lesions found on the lips maydicate a. Dehydration b. Allergic reaction c. Anemia d. Cancer 16. If an abnormal finding is noted in the patient's respiratory rate or pattern during the chest examination you should: a. Record the findings and continue the exam b. Take immediate steps to intervene the condition c. Spend as much time as necessary to determine the cause d. Palpate the abdomen to see if there is referred pain 17. You are examing a 70 yof patient with an altered mental status. She is awake and can speak. You detect an odor of acetone and suspect that the patient is suffering from a. DKA b. Cyanide poisoning c. A bowel obstruction d. Alcohol poisoning 18. A tear in the tracheo-bronchial tree or a pneumothorax can be characterized by in the neck a. subcutaneous emphysema b. swollen lymph nodes c. mediastinal deviation d. jugular vein distention 19. The standard sequence for the physical exam is a. Inspect, palpate, auscultate, percussion b. Inspect, auscultate, percussion, palpate c. Palpate, percussion, auscultate, inspect d. Inspect, auscultate, palpate, percussion 20. A light, popping, nonmusical sound heard upon auscultation of the lungs is best describes as a. Stridor b. Wheezing c. Rhonci d. Rales 21. A large harsh sound over the traches on ausculation with a stethescope suggests a. Normal air sounds b. Foreign body obstruction c. Bronchoconstriction d. Pneumothroax 22. When auscultating the breath sounds of a patient with pleurisy, you might expect to hear which of the following sounds a. Wheezes b. Rhonci c. Crackles d. A friction rub 23. When auscultating the posterior chest, you should listen a. Down one side first, then the other b. From side to side as you proceed down the chest c. Only at the bases d. Only at the apices 24. Pulse quality refers to a. Rate b. Rhythm c. Strength d. Location 25. You are assessing a 34 yof who appears in hypovolemic shock. You except her pulse to be a. tachycardiac and bounding b. bradycardiac and strong c. bradycardiac and irregular d. tachycardiac and weak 26. Which of the following is inlcuded in an examination of the cardiovascular system a. palpating for the atrial impulse b. palpating both carotid arteries simultaneously c. auscultating breath sounds d. auscultating for carotid bruits 27. During ventricular systole the ventricles contract while the a. tricuspid and mitral valves close b. the pulmonic and aortic semilunar valves close c. atria simultaneously contract d. tricupspid and mitral valves open 28. The technique of involves careful, noninvasive, informed observation a. Auscultation b. Palpation c. Inspection d. Percussion 29. The sounds of turbulent blood flow around a partial obstruction in the carotid sinuses are known as: a. Thrills b. Bruits c. Vibrations d. Stridor 30. Which of the following body systems would not be evaluated during an abdominal exam a. Musculoskeletal b. Digestive c. Cardiovascular d. Reproductive 31. How should a patient by positioned for an abdominal exam a. Standing b. Sitting c. Lying on their left side d. Supine with the head and knees supported 32. Dicoloration over the [Show More]

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