AANP Exam 145 Questions with Answers,100% CORRECT

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AANP Exam 145 Questions with Answers All of the following are clinical eye findings found in some patients with chronic uncontrolled hypertension. Which is not associated with this disorder? ... AV nicking B Copper wire arterioles C Flame-shaped hemorrhages D Microaneurysms - CORRECT ANSWER Microaneurysms The span of the normal adult liver is ____ in MCL - CORRECT ANSWER 15 to 18 cm in the midclavicular line Treponema pallidum - CORRECT ANSWER gram-negative spirochete bacterium that causes syphilis. Tanner stages boys - CORRECT ANSWER In Tanner stage I:scrotom changes Tanner II: The penis length remains unchanged. scrotom gets darker, pubic hair Tanner III: Penis begins to lengthen. Tanner IV: Penis increases in length and circumference. Tanner V: Scrotum and penis are mature size. Which of the following is the treatment for nongonococcal urethritis? - CORRECT ANSWER azithromycin 1 g PO in a single dose or doxycycline 100 mg PO BID for 7 days. "triple therapy" for treating a Helicobacter pylori infection? - CORRECT ANSWER Amoxicillin BID, and m Omeprazole (Prilosec) daily x i Clarithromycin (Biaxin) BID, i ll in Which drug is effective therapy for treating pain in patients who are having an acute exacerbation of gout? - CORRECT ANSWER Indomethacin (Indocin) signs of mono in teen - CORRECT ANSWER pallentine petechia, posterior cervical nodes, sore throat causative agent AND TX of tine capitus - CORRECT ANSWER malessezia furfur (tx. griseofolvin and SeSulfide (Versel) lotion) Txs for acute prostatitis - CORRECT ANSWER Fluoroquines, flufonureas, tetracyclines, macrocodes NOT NITROFURANTOIN...can't penetrate tissue most effective tx of acute anxiety - CORRECT ANSWER alprazolam (xanex) Descriptions for: 1) Trichamonas 2) BV 3) Candida - CORRECT ANSWER 1) rich: yellow-green discharge and smelly 2) gray, thin, fish smell 3) white curd-like thin discharge, no smell treatment of transient insomnia in elderly - CORRECT ANSWER low dose doxepin (Sinequan) with the diagnosis of siphilis which test will always be positive - CORRECT ANSWER FTA-ABs or MHA-TP both are treponemal tests. -RPR is non-treponemal sensitive. Ericsson stage in elderly - CORRECT ANSWER integrity vs. despair Tx of Candidal vaginitis - CORRECT ANSWER mi.C.onazole (monistat), .C.lotrimazole (gone-lotrimin) x 7 days, CREAM OR Diflucan 100mg x 1 dose + terconazole (Tetrazole-3) CREAM Sx of Trichamonas in female - CORRECT ANSWER grayish-green bubbly vaginal discharge (men have dysuria and frequency, or ASX) Objective findings: "Strawberry cervix", swollen reddened vulvula mico: unicellular organisms with flagella and large amounts of WBC Tx of Trichamonas and BV - CORRECT ANSWER me.T.ronidazole (Flagyl) 2g PO x 1 dose --> treat partner (ORAL) can also use azithromycin female sx of BV - CORRECT ANSWER "fish-like" odor, profuse milk-like discharge CLUE CELLS no WBC, +wiff test Tx of Gonorrhoeae (gonoCoCCal) - CORRECT ANSWER .C.eftriaxone 250mg IM can use azithromycin in beta-lactam allergy a) OA nodes (DJD) b) RA Nodes - CORRECT ANSWER a) Bouchards, heberdenes b) swan neck and boutonniere Impetigo treatment in peds - CORRECT ANSWER cephalexin Outbreak and daily dosing for HSV - CORRECT ANSWER outbreak dosage: 800mg x 2 days Daily dose: 400mg BID Which organisms can cause epiglottis? - CORRECT ANSWER Hib, Pneumococci MCAT DOES NOT what differentiates cataracts from glaucoma? - CORRECT ANSWER single eye diplopia -both have halos and dilated pupils Sx of Kawasaki disease - CORRECT ANSWER Persistent fever, rash of lips and oral cavity, red eyes HSV order: ------ Chlamydiea order:------- HIV order: ------- - CORRECT ANSWER HSV: viral culture chlamydia: ELISA HIV: western blot Systolic vs. diastolic HF: - CORRECT ANSWER systolic: heart contract (reduced ejection fraction) diastolic: when heart can't relax (EF maintained) Tx of PID - CORRECT ANSWER "Chlamidia MD" Ceftriaxone IM-->covers Ghonnorhea Doxycycline-->covers chlamydia Metronidazole-->covers vaginal flora Which of the following is the most common cause of nongonococcal urethritis? - CORRECT ANSWER Chlamydia trachomatis While performing a Pap smear on a postmenopausal patient, several areas of flat white, irregularly shaped lesions are found on the patient's labia. The skin lesions look thin and atrophic. The patient reports that the lesions are itchy and have been present for several years. Which condition is best described? - CORRECT ANSWER Lichen sclerosus Lichen sclerosus is more common in older women. It is a long-term chronic condition that affects the vulva and/or anal area in women. The lesions appear as small white spots early in the disease and grow into bigger patches. Itching is very common; however, other symptoms include discomfort, bleeding from skin tears, and blisters. A skin biopsy allows for differentiation from other dermatological conditions. Pulsus paradoxus is best described as: - CORRECT ANSWER In patients with pulsus paradoxus, systolic pressure drops on inspiration due to the increased pressure (positive pressure). Some pulmonary risks of having increased pressure include asthma (esp. asthmaticus) and emphysema. Strawberry hemangiomas - CORRECT ANSWER True strawberry hemangiomas will eventually resolve by the time the child goes to kindergarten. Most will reduce or disappear in the first 2 years. Laser treatment is rarely needed. If left untreated, Zollinger-Ellison syndrome can cause what? - CORRECT ANSWER Severe ulceration of the stomach or duodenum Zollinger-Ellison syndrome occurs when tumors (gastrinomas) in the intestine, pancreas, or lymph nodes near the pancreas produce excessive amounts of gastrin, which, in turn, increases the amount of acid produced by the stomach. High amounts of acid in the stomach produce ulcers of the stomach or duodenum. Untreated Zollinger-Ellison syndrome can lead to severe ulceration of the stomach or duodenum. alternative antibiotics for penicillin-allergic patients. If the patient has a gram-positive infection, the possible alternatives are: - CORRECT ANSWER macrolides, clindamycin, or quinolones with gram-positive activity such as levofloxacin or moxifloxacin acute mononucleosis in teen: - CORRECT ANSWER sore throat, prolonged fatigue, and enlarged posterior cervical nodes. Diabetic retinopathy - CORRECT ANSWER neovascularization, cotton wool spots, and microaneurysms HTN retinopathy - CORRECT ANSWER atrioventricular [AV] nicking, silver and/or copper wire arterioles When checking deep tendon reflexes (DTRs) in a patient with -------------or------------, the ankle jerk reflex (Achilles reflex) may be absent or hypoactive. - CORRECT ANSWER severe sciatica or diabetic peripheral neuropathy The preferred treatment for cutaneous anthrax is: - CORRECT ANSWER ciprofloxacin 500 mg orally BID for 60 days or for 8 weeks. Seborrheic Keratoses - CORRECT ANSWER Soft wart-like skin lesions that appear "pasted on." Mostly seen on the back and trunk. Benign. pulmonary changes in elderly - CORRECT ANSWER -FEV1 and FVC decrease with age, -but residual volume increases. GC/CC neonate RX opthamoligical infection - CORRECT ANSWER 0.5% erythromycin or tetracycline ointment (1-cm ribbon per eye). congenital glaucoma S/S and Tx - CORRECT ANSWER Vascular Lesions Port Wine Stain (Nevus Flammeus) Neonates with pink to red, flat, stain-like skin lesions located on the upper and lower eyelids or on the V1 and V2 branches of the trigeminal nerve (CN V) should be referred to a pediatric ophthalmologist to rule out congenital glaucoma. Blanches to pressure. Irregular in size and shape. Large lesions located on half the facial area may be a sign of trigeminal nerve involvement and Sturge-Weber syndrome (rare neurological disorder). The lesions do not regress and grow with the child. These lesions can be treated with pulse-dye laser (PDL) therapy. Imiquimod - CORRECT ANSWER Imiquimod is an immune-modulator treatment for genital warts and patient can use at home. Fitz-Hugh-Curtis Syndrome - CORRECT ANSWER Chlamydial and/or gonococcal infection of the liver capsule (not the liver itself). There is extensive scarring between the liver capsule and abdominal contents (e.g., colon). Scars look like "violin strings" (seen on laparoscopy). A complication of PID (10%) due to chlamydia and/or gonococcal infection. Classic Case Sexually active female with symptoms of PID complains of right upper quadrant (RUQ) abdominal pain and tenderness on palpation. The liver function tests are normal. Treated as a complicated gonorrheal/chlamydial infection (ceftriaxone [Rocephin] 250 mg IM plus doxycycline PO BID x 14 days). Reiter's syndrome - CORRECT ANSWER More common in males. An immune-mediated reaction secondary to infection with certain bacteria (e.g., chlamydia) that spontaneously resolves. Treatment is supportive (e.g., NSAIDs). Classic Case A male with current history of chlamydia genital infection (i.e., urethritis) complains of red and swollen joints that come and go (migratory arthritis in large joints such as knee) and ulcers on the skin of the glans penis. Mnemonic: "I can't see (conjunctivitis), pee (urethritis), or climb up a tree (migratory arthritis in large joint such as the knee)." -----a--------- for both uncomplicated and complicated gonorrheal infection. - CORRECT ANSWER a) Use ceftriaxone (Rocephin) 250 mg IM x one dose ---a---- = (genital warts) ---b----- = (secondary syphilis). - CORRECT ANSWER a) condyloma acuminata b) condyloma lata All of the following are infections that affect mostly the labia and vagina except: Bacterial vaginosis B Candidiasis C Trichomoniasis D Chlamydia trachomatis - CORRECT ANSWER Chlamydia trachomatis commonly affects the .C.ervix, endometrial lining, fallopian tubes, and pelvic cavity. THINK "C' FOR CERVIX A 21-year-old woman complains of left-sided pelvic pain accompanied by dyspareunia. During the gynecological exam, the nurse practitioner notices green cervical discharge. The patient mentions a new onset of a painful and swollen left knee and denies a history of trauma. This best describes: - CORRECT ANSWER Disseminated gonorrheal infection Symptoms of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) with painful, swollen joints of extremities indicate disseminated gonorrheal infection. Untreated disseminated gonorrhea can lead to septic arthritis. Symptoms may be mild, ranging from slight joint pain and no fever to severe joint pain with high fever. PID symptoms do not occur with septic arthritis, Reiter's syndrome, or chondromalacia of the patella. A 13-year-old boy is brought in by his mother for a physical exam. During the genital exam, the nurse practitioner notices that the patient is at Tanner stage II. Which of the following is the best description of this Tanner stage? - CORRECT ANSWER The testicles become larger and the skin of the scrotum starts to become darker with straight, fine, countable hairs on the genitals and the axilla S3 occurs: - CORRECT ANSWER During diastole, "ventricular gallop" (kentucky, think horses). Can be heard normally in pregnant and peds Where is S4 heard best - CORRECT ANSWER Atrial kick, heard best over mitral area with bell--> LVH, normal in elderly due to stiff LV. All ----- mummers are pathologic - CORRECT ANSWER diastolic, they're always associated with heart disease Systolic Murmurs - CORRECT ANSWER MR AS Systolic mitral regorge, aortic stenosis diastolic mumurs - CORRECT ANSWER MS AR Diastolic Mitral Stenosis--> "opening 'snap'" Aortic regorge A thrill if first palpable at this grade - CORRECT ANSWER IV/VI S/S infective endocarditis - CORRECT ANSWER Fever, chills, malaise w/ onset of NEW MURMUR, subungal/splinter hemorrhages, petechia on pallet, osler nodes and laneway lesions JONES Criteria - CORRECT ANSWER J:joint pain <3 Endocarditis N: nodes (subQ Oslers) E: erethema nodosum S: Sydenham's chorea minor: fever, ERS/CRP, ^PR interval Side effects of HCTZ - CORRECT ANSWER Hyper: glycemic, uremia (watch out for gout), triglyceridemia Hypo: Mg, K (watch out for dig too), Na XRAy appearance HF - CORRECT ANSWER increase in heart size, curley B lines, interstitial alveolar edema The Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction is best described as: - CORRECT ANSWER An immune-mediated reaction precipitated by the destruction of a large number of spirochetes due to an antibiotic injection may occur with infections caused by spirochete bacteria such as syphilis and Lyme disease. It is more commonly seen after treatment of early-stage syphilis. It usually occurs in the first 24 hours after therapy. Signs and symptoms are headache, myalgias, rigors, sweating, hypotension, and worsening of rash (if present). No treatment is needed, as it usually resolves within 12 to 24 hours. What type of infection is caused by the human parvovirus B19? - CORRECT ANSWER Fifth disease: erythema infectiosum Acute bronchitis is best characterized by: - CORRECT ANSWER Paroxysms of coughing that are dry or produce mucoid sputum A cough is the main symptom of acute bronchitis. It may be dry at first (does not produce mucus) and after a few days may bring up mucus from the lungs (productive cough). The mucus may be clear, yellow, or green. Small streaks of blood may be present. First-line treatment for acne vulgaris includes ------------------- The next step in treatment would be the initiation of----b---------- - CORRECT ANSWER a) over-the-counter medicated soap and water with topical antibiotic gels. b) oral tetracycline Which of the following is the preferred treatment for an enterobiasis infection? - CORRECT ANSWER pinworm around the anus gets = Albendazole (Albenza) The bacterium responsible for the highest mortality in patients with community-acquired pneumonia is: - CORRECT ANSWER Streptococcus pneumoniae Grey-Turner's sign is highly suggestive of which of the following condition - CORRECT ANSWER Acute pancreatitis Grey-Turner's sign is the acute onset of bluish discoloration located on the flank area that is caused by bruising. It is usually associated with severe acute pancreatitis, but it can also be found in some cases of ruptured ectopic pregnancy. Which bacterium is the most common pathogen seen in otitis externa infections? - CORRECT ANSWER Pseudomonas aeruginosa The second most common bacterium is Staphylococcus aureus. Polymyxin and neomycin combination ear drops (Cortisporin) are the first-line treatment for otitis externa. infant has fever, fever resolves then breaks out into maculpapular rash - CORRECT ANSWER roseaola What type of testing is recommended before starting a patient on a prescription of hydroxychloroquine (Plaquenil)? - CORRECT ANSWER Comprehensive eye exam Described male presentation of lymphogranuloma venereum AND its treatment` AND causative organism - CORRECT ANSWER vesicular or ulcerative lesion, mucopurulent penile discharge, lesions can fuse together and create multiple draining sinuses. Tx: Doxycycline org: C. trachoma's types 1 and 3 NOT trich. tx of acute epididymitis for MSM - CORRECT ANSWER Levofloxacin (tx. E. coli organism) CBC that characterizes mono - CORRECT ANSWER increased lymphocytes and decreased total WBC # Pruritic lesions of erythematous base and silvery scales: - CORRECT ANSWER Psoriasis (kids can get this too) Dizzy, weak, SOB, tacky, crackles, a "wet" cough, pallor, and circumoral cyanosis - CORRECT ANSWER CHF Best drug for lowering elevated Triglis - CORRECT ANSWER fibrates. -->these drugs can also precipitate gallstone formation and should be avoided in people with gallbladder disease. physical findings consistent with diagnosis of Beta-Thalassemia major: - CORRECT ANSWER bronze skin, (produced by icterus), engaged malaria bones. At what Tanner stage does puberty start? - CORRECT ANSWER tanner 2 S/S Acute epididymitis - CORRECT ANSWER scrotum is edematous and tender to touch. He denies flank pain, nausea, and vomiting. He reports that the pain is lessened when he uses scrotal-support briefs. The urinalysis shows 2+ blood and a large number of leukocytes. atypical pneumonia s/s - CORRECT ANSWER Respiratory symptoms (cough) are accompanied by pharyngitis, rhinorrhea, scattered rales and wheezing of the lungs, fever and malaise and sometimes ear pain. It is easily spread from aerosol droplets orgo: MCAT tx: doxy, or azithro Delayed puberty in male - CORRECT ANSWER If there is no testicular development by 14 years of age, an endocrinology consult is warranted. Which of the following methods is used to diagnose gonorrheal pharyngitis or proctitis? - CORRECT ANSWER Thayer-Martin culture Complications of mitral valve prolapse (MVP) include: - CORRECT ANSWER mitral regurgitation, endocarditis, and increased risk of stroke and transient ischemic attacks --> does not cause mitral stenosis Which of the following is the best method for diagnosing a Candida albicans infection of the vagina in the primary care setting? - CORRECT ANSWER Wet smear, NOT KOH prep In vaginal discharge, the yeast organism is outside the skin cells, so KOH is not needed to visualize it. Rovsing's sign is associated with which of the following? - CORRECT ANSWER An acute abdomen, such as during a ruptured appendix Which of the following murmurs can radiate to the neck? - CORRECT ANSWER Aortic stenosis Multiple myeloma is a malignancy of the: - CORRECT ANSWER Plasma cells Signs and symptoms are bone pain, fractures, hypercalcemia, depressed immunity, and anemia. Which heart sounds are found in peds patients with CHF? - CORRECT ANSWER S1, S2, and S3 Erysipelas is an infection of the skin most commonly caused by which class of organisms? - CORRECT ANSWER Streptococci commonly caused by group A beta-hemolytic streptococci. This infection is usually more superficial than other bacterial infections of the skin The areola and the breast tissue are all in one mound. - CORRECT ANSWER Tanner stage III What is the least common pathogen found in community-acquired atypical pneumonia? - CORRECT ANSWER Pseudomonas aeruginosa Tx w. cipro of levo what type of prevention are suicide questioning - CORRECT ANSWER secondary(detecting disease, like pap as well) potential sources of potassium and magnesium - CORRECT ANSWER Fruits, leafy greens, and nuts The upper limit of the serum thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level is about - CORRECT ANSWER 4.0 mU/L Contraindications to metformin - CORRECT ANSWER Contraindications to the use of metformin include significant renal and hepatic disease, alcoholism, conditions associated with hypoxia (cardiac/pulmonary problems), sepsis, dehydration, and advanced age S3 component of the heart sound : - CORRECT ANSWER It occurs very early in diastole and is sometimes called an opening snap It is a normal finding in some children, healthy young adults, and athletes Bibasilar crackles in lung bases and the presence of S3 heart sounds are classic findings of congestive heart failure (CHF). --> not normal in older adults (like s4) a) The posterior fontanel should be completely closed by: b) - CORRECT ANSWER a) 3 months b) The anterior fontanelle closes between 12 and 18 months of age. -----a------ ear drops are not considered to be ototoxic. However, ------b-----and should not be used to treat otitis media or perforation of the tympanic membrane (TM). - CORRECT ANSWER a) Ofloxacin b) aminoglycoside otic drops (gentamycin, tobramycin) are ototoxic What is the ASCVD cutoff value when treatment for hyperlipidemia is recommended? - CORRECT ANSWER 7.5% or higher when do you initiate a fibrate? - CORRECT ANSWER A triglyceride level above 800 mg/dL is considered to be "very high"; there is an increased risk of acute pancreatitis, especially if the patient also drinks alcohol. Two fibrate drugs have been approved for use in the United States: fenofibrate (Tricor) and gemfibrozil (Lopid) criteria to dx aids - CORRECT ANSWER hairy leuko., oral thrush, and karposi sarcoma Which of the following pathogenic bacteria are commonly found in the lungs of older children and adults with cystic fibrosis? - CORRECT ANSWER P. aeruginosa is a common chronic lung infection seen in older children and adults with cystic fibrosis. This infection is difficult to eliminate and sometimes is the cause of death Erythromycin 200 mg with sulfisoxazole 600 mg suspension (Pediazole) is contraindicated in which condition? - CORRECT ANSWER G6PD deficiency anemia Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency is a hereditary condition that occurs when the red blood cells break down, causing hemolysis, due to absence or lack of sufficient G6PD, an enzyme that is needed to help the red blood cells work efficiently. Certain foods and medications may trigger this reaction. Some of the medications include antimalarial drugs, aspirin, nitrofurantoin, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), quinidine, quinine, and sulfa medications. Which laboratory tests is the most sensitive test for evaluating an active Helicobacter pylori infection of the stomach or duodenum: - CORRECT ANSWER Urea breath test cholchesine gout direcetions - CORRECT ANSWER Take one pill every 1 to 2 hours until relief is obtained or adverse gastrointestinal effects occur, such as abdominal pain, nausea, or diarrhea It is usually taken as one tablet (0.6 mg) every 1 to 2 hours until relief is obtained (or adverse gastrointestinal [GI] effects occur, such as abdominal pain, nausea, or diarrhea). The patient should be prescribed only 10 tablets at a time (do not refill) during a flare-up. The maximum dose is 6 mg/day abnormal lab results may be seen in patients with infectious mononucleosis: - CORRECT ANSWER lymphocytosis, elevated liver enzymes (from hepatosplenomegally), positive IbM, IgG Epstein bar---> does not effect creatinine. Balanitis is caused by: - CORRECT ANSWER Candida albicans Bony nodules at the proximal interphalangeal joints of the hands are called ----a---- . ---b------ are nodules on the distal interphalangeal joints. - CORRECT ANSWER a) Bouchard's nodes. b) Heberden's nodes Heberden's nodes are commonly found in which of the following diseases? - CORRECT ANSWER Degenerative joint disease Between 20 and 35 weeks, the fundal height is equal to - CORRECT ANSWER the number of weeks of gestation plus or minus 2 cm. The "blue dot" sign - CORRECT ANSWER The blue dot sign describes a tender nodule located underneath the skin of the testicle that appears as a round, blue-to-purple mass. Also known as torsion of testicular appendage, it is not an emergent condition. It is the most common cause of testicular area pain in younger boys. Treatment is symptomatic. a triangular thickening of the bulbar conjunctiva on the temporal side is noted to be encroaching on the cornea. - CORRECT ANSWER Pterygium is a growth of fleshy tissue that may start as a pinguecula. THINK GUM The red reflex examination is used to screen for: - CORRECT ANSWER retinoblastoma and/or cataracts A tetanus vaccine booster is recommended for recent injuries if it has been more than ----years since the last dose - CORRECT ANSWER 5 Which of the following is correct regarding the best site to listen for mitral regurgitation? - CORRECT ANSWER It is best heard at the apex during S1 A small abscess on a hair follicle on the eyelid is called: - CORRECT ANSWER Hordeolum Tic douloureux - CORRECT ANSWER A chronic pain condition affecting the trigeminal nerve in the face. Myxedema - CORRECT ANSWER Myxedema (or myxedema) is seen in patients with severe hypothyroidism. It refers to the skin changes (thickened skin) seen in chronic severe hypothyroidism. Myxedema coma is a medical emergency with mortality rates exceeding 20%. It is treated with very high doses of thyroid hormone. A girl whose breasts form a secondary mound is at which Tanner stage? - CORRECT ANSWER Tanner stage IV The breast bud stage is Tanner stage II. In Tanner stage IV, the areola and papilla form a secondary mound. Tanner stages for breast development are I, prepuberty; II, breast bud; III, breast and areola one mound; IV, breast and areola secondary mound; and V, adult pattern. An adolescent female's areola, nipples, and breast tissue develop and become elevated as one mound. Which of the following is the correct Tanner stage for this phase of breast development? - CORRECT ANSWER Tanner stage III Trimethobenzamide (Tigan) - CORRECT ANSWER prophylaxis for naseau in migraines While doing a cardiac exam on a 45-year-old man, you note an irregular rhythm with a pulse rate of 110 beats/min. The patient is alert and is not in distress. What is the most likely diagnosis? - CORRECT ANSWER a fib Atrial fibrillation is chaotic electrical activity of the heart, caused by several ectopic foci in the atria without any signs of distress. There are three pathological irregular rhythms: (1) ectopic beats (may be atrial, junctional, or ventricular), (2) atrial fibrillation, and (3) second-degree heart block. All are confirmed by EKG At what age can a child copy a cross and draw a person with three body parts? - CORRECT ANSWER 4 Cullen's sign is most commonly associated with: - CORRECT ANSWER acute pancreatitis It refers to a yellowish-blue skin color change around the umbilicus. It is thought to occur due to the pancreatic enzymes that run along the ligament and subcutaneous tissues around the umbilicus. Swim therapy (aqua therapy) for a 13-year-old with cerebral palsy is an example of - CORRECT ANSWER Tertiary prevention is any type of rehabilitation for a particular condition. Examples include physical rehab (swimming), cardiac rehab, and/or speech therapy Rx. Finasteride - CORRECT ANSWER 5-alph reductase inhibitor that helps lower testosterone to treat BPH Treatment of cellulitis - CORRECT ANSWER In mild cases of cellulitis treated on an outpatient basis, dicloxacillin, amoxicillin, and cephalexin are all reasonable choices Clindamycin or a macrolide (clarithromycin or azithromycin) are reasonable alternatives in patients who are allergic to penicillin S/S acute sinusitis - CORRECT ANSWER Signs and symptoms of acute sinusitis include headache, facial pain that worsens with bending over, eye/ear pressure and pain, aching in upper jaw/teeth, reduced smell and taste, cough (especially at night due to the nasal drainage), sore throat, bad breath, and fatigue. Atopic Dermatitis - CORRECT ANSWER Atopic dermatitis, also known as eczema, is a skin condition in which the lesions occur in a linear fashion. They may have many different stages, including erythematous papules and vesicles, with weeping, drainage, and/or crusting. Lesions are commonly pruritic and are found on the scalp, face, forearms, wrists, elbows, and backs of the knees "some herb" she bought at a health food store for migraines and menstrual cramps. - CORRECT ANSWER feverfew To assess spinal function at the S1 level, which deep tendon reflex should be tested? - CORRECT ANSWER Achilles X-ray reveals a positive fat pad sign, and the patient is unable to fully extend the elbow. No definitive bony changes are seen on Xray. The most likely working diagnosis is: - CORRECT ANSWER radial head fracture A 17-year-old female has never had her menses. She is at Tanner stage III of sexual development. Her physical examination is completely normal, and her weight is appropriate for her age and height. What is the most likely diagnosis? - CORRECT ANSWER Primary amenorrhea A 10-month-old presents with a rash, runny nose, and cough. Examination reveals a cluster of tiny white papules with an erythematous base on the buccal mucosa. What does this suggest? - CORRECT ANSWER Measles (koplic spots) Examination is unremarkable except for a diffusely erythematous (non-beetred) macular rash in the diaper area, sparing the inguinal folds. No satellite lesions are noted. The infant's diaper rash is most likely caused by: - CORRECT ANSWER contact dermatitis A 20-year-old male presents with a 1- month history of a "bump on my testicle." He reports being sexually active, with frequent episodes of unprotected intercourse with multiple partners. Which condition should be suspected? - CORRECT ANSWER Cancer of the testicles suspected of having a pulmonary embolus. The patient complains of anxiety and cough. A stat chest X-ray is normal. Which of the following tests should the nurse practitioner perform next? - CORRECT ANSWER Helical CT pulmonary angiography Which of the following would be an appropriate alternative to erythromycin therapy in an 18-year-old patient with Mycoplasma pneumoniae infection? - CORRECT ANSWER azithro The most common bacteria responsible for pneumonia in older adults residing in the community is: - CORRECT ANSWER strep Research findings have shown that, in order to improve the longevity of a patient who has COPD, the treatment of choice is - CORRECT ANSWER O2 A patient with a diagnosis of diverticulosis presents with localized left lower quadrant discomfort, a palpable mass, mild leukocytosis, and T = 100°F (37.8°C). The patient does not appear toxic and can tolerate fluids. An appropriate plan should include: - CORRECT ANSWER clear liquids and oral A 15-year-old patient returns for contraceptive services 2 weeks after a diagnosis of trichomonas vaginitis and treatment with 2 g of metronidazole (Flagyl). She reports that discharge and itching are gone, but she is urinating frequently, accompanied with a lot of burning. The patient has not resumed sexual activity and has menstruated since her last visit. Examination reveals mild suprapubic tenderness, no leukorrhea, and a normal wet mount. Gonococcal culture and chlamydia tests are negative. Which diagnostic test should be performed immediately? - CORRECT ANSWER Microscopic examination of urine During development of a treatment plan for an 84-year-old patient with hypothyroidism, the nurse practitioner must keep in mind the possibility of the worsening of: - CORRECT ANSWER osteoporosis [Show More]

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