CPCE Practice Questions 494 Questions with Verified Answers 2023,100% CORRECT

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CPCE Practice Questions 494 Questions with Verified Answers 2023 Freud's stages are psychosexual while Erik Erikson's stages are... A) Psychometric B) Psychodiagnostic C) Psychopharmacological... D) Psychosocial - CORRECT ANSWER D) Psychosocial In Freud's psychodynamic theory instincts are emphasized. Erik Erikson is an ego psychologist. Ego psychologists... A) Emphasize the id processes B) Refute the concept of the superego C) Believe in man's powers of reasoning to control behavior D) Are sometimes known as radical behaviorists - CORRECT ANSWER C) Believe in man's powers of reasoning to control behavior The only psychoanalyst who created a developmental theory which encompasses the entire life span was... A) Erik Erikson B) Milton H. Erickson C) A.A. Brill D) Jean Piaget, who created the four stage theory - CORRECT ANSWER A) Erik Erikson Has 8 stages representing a psychosocial crisis/turning point. Final stage does not begin until age 60 The statement, "the ego is dependent on the id," would most likely reflect the work of... A) Erik Erikson B) Sigmund Freud, who created the psychodynamic theory C) Jay Haley D) Arnold Lazarus, William Perry and Robert Kegan - CORRECT ANSWER B) Sigmund Freud (In Freudian theory, the id=the pleasure principle. Erikson emphasizes the power of control. Haley is known for strategic and problem-solving therapy. Lazaras is pioneer in behavior therapy. Robert Perry - CORRECT ANSWER -Known for ideas related to adult cognitive development -Stresses dualistic thinking (conceptualize things as good or bad and right or wrong) -Enter adulthood and move into relativistic thinking (ability to perceive that not everything is right or wrong) Jean Piaget's idiographic approach created his theory with four stages. The correct order from stage 1 to stage 4 is.... A) formal operations, concrete operations, preoperations, sensorimotor B) Formal operations, preoperations, concrete operations, sensorimotor C) Sensorimotor, preoperations, concrete operations, formal operations D) Concrete operations, sensorimotor, preoperations, formal operations - CORRECT ANSWER C) Sensorimotor, preoperations, concrete operations, formal operations Ideographics - CORRECT ANSWER Examine individuals (not groups) in depth Some behavioral scientists have been critical of Jean Piaget's developmental research inasmuch as... A) he utilized the t test too requently B) He failed to check for Type 1 or alpha errors C) He worked primarily with minority children D) His findings were often derived from observing his own children - CORRECT ANSWER D) His findings were often derived from observing his own children A tall skinny pitcher of water is emptied into a small squatty pitcher. A child indicates that she feels the small pitcher has less water. The child has not yet mastered... A) Symbolic schema B) Conservation C) Androgynous psychosocial issues D) Trust vs. mistrust - CORRECT ANSWER B) Conservation (The notion that a substance's weight, mass and volume remain the same event if it changes shape. Child masters conservation at concrete operational stage (7-11 years old) In Piagetian literature, conservation would most likely refer to... A) Volume or mass B) Defenses of the ego C) The sensorimotor intelligence stage D) A specific psychosexual stage of life - CORRECT ANSWER A) Volume or mass A child masters conservation in the Piatetian stage known as.. A) Formal operations (12+) B) Concrete operations (7-11) C) Preoperations (2-7) D) Sensorimotor (birth-2) - CORRECT ANSWER B) Concrete operations (7-11) (Conservation and Concrete both begin with "c") ________ expanded on Piaget's conceptualization of moral development... A) Erik Erikson B) Lev Vygotsky C) Lawrence Kohlberg D) John B. Watson - CORRECT ANSWER C) Kohlberg (Vygotsky said stages unfold due to educational intervention) (Kohlberg's theory of moral development) According to Jean Piaget, a child masters the concept of reversibility in the third stage, known as concrete operations or concrete operational thought. This notion suggests... A) The heavier objects are more difficult for a child to lift B) The child is ambidextrous C) The child is more cognizant of mass than weight D) One can undo an action, hence an object (glass of water) can return to its initial shape) - CORRECT ANSWER D) One can undo an action, hence an object can return to its initial shape During a thunderstorm, a 6-year old in Piaget's stage of preoperational thought (stage 2) says, "The rain is following me." This is an example of... A) Egocentrism B) Conservation C) Centration D) Abstract thought - CORRECT ANSWER A) Egocentrism (Child can't view the world from the vantage point of someone else) Lawrence Kohlberg suggested... A) A single level of morality B) Two levels of morality C) Three levels of morality D) Preoperational thought as the basis for all morality - CORRECT ANSWER C) Three levels of morality (Preconventional, conventional and postconventional) The Heinz dilemma is to Kohberg's theory as A) a brick is to a house B) Freud is to Jung C) The menninger Clinic is to biofeedback D) A typing test is to the level of typing skill mastered - CORRECT ANSWER D) A typing test is to the level of typing skill mastered (Heinz dilemma used to assess moral development) The term 'identity crisis' comes from the work of... A) Counselors who stress RS involvement issues with clients B) Erikson C) Adler D) Jung - CORRECT ANSWER B) Erikson (RS=religious and spiritual) (Erikson's stages were defined by crisis) Kohlber's three levels of morality are... A) Preconventional, conventional, postconventional B) Formal, preformal, self-accepted C) self-accepted, other directed, authority directed D) Preconventional, formal, authority directed - CORRECT ANSWER A) Preconventional, conventional, postconventional (Preconventional:child responds to consequences, conventional: individual wants to meet standards. Postconventional: concerned with universal, ethical principles) Trust vs. mistrust is... A) An Adlerian notion of morality B) Erikson's first stage of psychosocial development C) essentially equivalent to Piaget's concept of egocentrism D)The basis of morality according to Kohlberg - CORRECT ANSWER B) Erikson's first stage of psychosocial development A person who has successfully mastered Erikson's first seven stages would be ready to enter Erikson's final or eighth stage... A) Generativity vs. Stagnation B) Initiative vs. Guilt C) Identity crisis D) integrity vs. Despair - CORRECT ANSWER D) Integrity vs. Despair In Kohlber's first or preconventional level, the individual's moral behavior is guided by... A) psychosexual urges B) Consequences C) periodic fugue states D) Counterconditioning - CORRECT ANSWER B) Consequences Kohlberg's second level of morality is known as conventional morality. This level is characterized by... A) Psychosexual urges B) A desire to live up to society's expectations C) A desire to confrom D) B and C - CORRECT ANSWER D) B and C Kohlber's highest level of morality is termed "postconventional morality'. Here the individual... A) must truly contend with psychosexual urges B) has the so-called "good boy/good girl" orientation C) has self-imposed morals and ethics D) a and b - CORRECT ANSWER C) has self-imposed morals and ethics According to Lawrence Kohlberg, level 3, which is postconventional or self-accepted moral principles... A) Refers to the naive hedonism stage B) Operates on the premise that rewards guide morals C) a and b D) is the highest level of morality. However, some people never reach this level - CORRECT ANSWER D) is the highest level of morality. However, some people never reach this level (Hedonism occurs in preconventional level "If I'm nice others will be nice to me and I'll get what I want") Zone of proximal development... A) was pioneered by Lev Vygotsky B) was pioneered by Jean Piaget and Lawrence Kohlberg C) Emphasized organ inferiority D) a.b and c - CORRECT ANSWER A) was pioneered by Lev Vygotsky (Zone of proximal development describes the difference between a child's performance without a teacher vs that which he/she is capable of with an instructor) Freud and Erikson... A) could be classified as behaviorists B) could be classified as maturationists C) agreed that developmental stages are psychosexual D) were prime movers in the dialectical behavior therapy or DBT movement - CORRECT ANSWER B) could be classified as maturationists (behavior is guided by hereditary factors by certain behaviors will not manifest until stimuli are present in environment) DBT - CORRECT ANSWER -Focuses on mindfulness -Created by Marsha M. Linehan -Useful for clients haboring feelings of self-harm, suicide and substance abuse John Bowlby, the British psychiatrist is mostly associated with... A) the work of psychologist and pediatrician, Arnold Gesell, a maturationist B) developmental stage theories C) bonding and attachment D) the unconscious mind - CORRECT ANSWER C) bonding and attachment (Bowlby and bonding both start with 'b') Arnold Gesell - CORRECT ANSWER Pioneer for using one-way mirror for observing children In which Eriksonian stage does the midlife crisis occur? A) Generativity vs. stagnation B) Integrity vs. despair C) a and b D) Erikson's stages do not address midlife issues - CORRECT ANSWER A) Generativity vs. stagnation (Need to face the fact that they have not yet achieved their goals) The researcher who is well known for his work with maternal deprivation and isolation in the rhesus monkey is... A) Harry Harlow B) John Bowlby C) Lawrence Kohlberg D) all of the above - CORRECT ANSWER A) Harry Harlow (Monkeys were placed in isolation and developed autistic abnormal behavior) Believed that attachment was innate The statement: "Males are better than females when performing mathematical calculations" is... A) False B) True due to genetics C) True only in middle-aged men D) True according to research by Eleanor Macoby and Carol Jacklin - CORRECT ANSWER D) True according to research by Eleanor Macoby and Carol Jacklin The Eriksonian stage that focuses heavily on sharing your life with another person is... A) actually the major theme in all of Erikson's eight stages B) generativity vs. stagnation C) Intimacy vs isolation D) a critical factor in which Erikson fails to mention - CORRECT ANSWER C) Intimacy vs. isolation We often refer to individuals as conformists. Which of these individuals would most likely conform to his/her peers? A) a 19-year-old male college student B) a 23-year old male drummer in a rock band C) a 57-year old female stockbroker D) a 13-year old male middle school student - CORRECT ANSWER D) a 13-year old male middle school student (conformity peeks in early teens) In Harry Harlow's experiments with baby monkeys... A) a wire surrogate mother was favored by most young monkeys over a terry-cloth version B) the baby monkey was more likely to cling to a terry-cloth surrogate mother than a wire surrogate C) female monkeys had a tendency to drink large quantities of alcohol D) male monkeys had a tendency to drink large quantities of alcohol - CORRECT ANSWER B) a baby monkey was more likely to cling to a terry-cloth surrogate mother than a wire surrogate mother (contact comfort is important to infant's attachment) Freud postulated the psychosexual stages: A) id, ego and superego B) oral, anal, phallic, latency and genital C) eros, thanatos, regression and superego D) manifest, latent, oral and phallic - CORRECT ANSWER B) oral, anal, phallic, latency and genital In adolescence.. A) females commit suicide more than males B) suicide is a concern but statistically very rare C) the teens who talk about suicide are not serious D) Males commit suicide more often than females, but females attempt suicide more often - CORRECT ANSWER D) males commit suicide more often than females, but females attempt suicide more often In the general U.S. population... A) the suicide rate is 2/100,000 B) suicide occurs at the beginning of a depressive episode, but rarely after the depression lifts C) suicide rates tend to increase with age D) Suicide occurs at the beginning of a depressive episode, but rarely after the depression lifts and suicide rates tend to increase with age - CORRECT ANSWER C) suicide rates tend to increase with age The fear of death... A) is greatest during middle age B) is an almost exclusively male phenomenon C) is the number one psychiatric problem in the geriatric years D) occurs in the teen years - CORRECT ANSWER A) is the greatest during middle age In Freudian theory, attachment is a major factor... A) in the preconscious mind B) in the mind of the child in latency C) which evolves primarily during the oral age D) a and b - CORRECT ANSWER C) Evolves primarily during the oral stage (oral stage is the first psychosexual stage and attachment/bonding takes place early in life) When comparing girls to boys, it could be noted that, in general... A) girls grow up to smile more B) girls are using more feeling words by age 2 C) girls are better able to read people without verbal cues at any age D) all of the above - CORRECT ANSWER D) all of the above The Freudian developmental stage which "least" emphasizes sexuality is... A) oral B) anal C) phallic D) latency - CORRECT ANSWER D) latency (latent=hidden. Sexual interests are replaced by sports, learning and hobbies. Occurs between ages 6-12) In terms of parenting young children A) boys are punished more than girls B) girls are punished more than boys C) boys and girls are treated in a similar fashion D) boys show more empathy towards others - CORRECT ANSWER A) boys are punished more than girls When developmental theorists speak of nature or nurture they really mean... A) how much heredity or environment interact to influence development B) that the focus is skewed in favor of biological attributes C) a and b D) a theory proposed by B.F. Skinner's colleagues - CORRECT ANSWER A) how much heredity or environment interact to influence development Stage theorists assume... A) qualitative changes between stages occur B) Differences surely exist but usually can't be measured C) that humanistic psychology is the only model which truly supports the stage viewpoint D) b and c - CORRECT ANSWER A) qualitative changes occur between stages Development... A) begins at birth B) begins during the first trimester of pregnancy C) is a continuous process which begins at conception D) a and c - CORRECT ANSWER C) is a continuous process which begins at conception Development is cephalocaudal, which means... A) foot to head B) head to foot C) limbs receive the highest level of nourishment D) b and c - CORRECT ANSWER B) head to foot (head of the fetus develops earlier than the legs. Cephalocaudal refers to bodily proportions between head and tail) Heredity is the transmission of traits from parents to their offspring and... A) assumes the normal person has 23 pairs of chromosomes B) assumes that heredity characteristics are transmitted by chromosomes C) assumes that genes composed of DNA hold a genetic code D) all of the above - CORRECT ANSWER D) all of the above Piaget's final stage is known as the formal operational stage. In this stage... A) abstract thinking emerges B) problems can be solved using deduction C) a and b D) the child has mastered abstract thinking but still feels helpless - CORRECT ANSWER C) a and b (ages 11+) Kohlberg lists _______ stages of moral development which fall into _______ levels..... A) 6; 3 B) 6;6 C) 3;6 D) 3;3 - CORRECT ANSWER A) 6;3 A person who lives by his/her individual conscience and universal ethical principles A) has, according to Kohlberg, reached the highest stage of moral development B) is in the preconventional level C) is in the postconventional level of self-accepted moral principles D) a and c - CORRECT ANSWER D) a and c Freud's Oedipus complex A) is the stage in which fantasies of sexual relations with the opposite-sex parent occur B) occurs during the phallic stage C) a and b D) is a concept Freud ultimately eliminated from this theory - CORRECT ANSWER C) a and b In girls the Oedipus complex may be referred to as... A) systematic desensitization B) covert desensitization C) in vivo desensitization D) the Electra complex - CORRECT ANSWER D) the Electra complex The correct order of the Freudian psychosexual or libidinal stages is: A) oral, anal, phallic, latency, and genital B) oral, anal, genital, phallic and latency C) oral, phallic, latency, genital and anal D) phallic, genital, latency and anal - CORRECT ANSWER A) oral, anal, phallic, latency, and genital Eleanor Gibson researched the matter of depth perception in children by utilizing... A) Piaget's concept of conservation B) Erikson's trust vs mistrust paradigm C) Piaget's formal operations D) an apparatus known as a visual cliff - CORRECT ANSWER D) an apparatus known as a visual cliff Theorists who believe that development merely consists of quantitative changes are referred to as... A) Organismic theorists B) statistical developmentalists C) empiricists D) all of the above - CORRECT ANSWER C) empiricists -Scientists can only learn from objective facts -Empiricism comes from the Greek word meaning experience An empiricist view of development would be... A) psychometric B) behavioristic C) against the use of formal statistical testing D) a and c - CORRECT ANSWER B) behavioristic -the empiricist view is behavioristic In the famous experiment by Harry Harlow, frightened monkeys raised via cloth and wire mothers... A) showed marked borderline personality traits B) surprisingly enough became friendly C) demonstrated a distinct lack of emotion D) ran over and clung to the cloth and wire surrogate mothers - CORRECT ANSWER D) ran over and clung to the cloth and wire surrogate mothers -Harlow discovered that contact was even more important than food A theorist who views developmental changes as quantitative is said to be an empiricist. The antithesis of this position holds that developmental strides are qualitative. What is the name given to this position? A) Behaviorism B) Organicism C) Statistical developmentalism D) all of the above - CORRECT ANSWER B) organicism In Piaget's developmental theory, reflexes play the greatest role in the... A) Sensorimotor stage B) formal operational stage C) preoperational stage D) acquisition of conservation - CORRECT ANSWER A) Sensorimotor stage -Object permanence A mother hides a toy behind her back and a young child does not believe the toy exists anymore. The child has not mastered... A) object permanence B) reflexive response C) representational thought D) a and c - CORRECT ANSWER A) object permanence -(a kid who is 8 months will search for an object that is no longer in sight) The schema of permanency and constancy of objects occurs in the... A) sensorimotor stage-birth 2 year B) preoperational stage- 2-7 years C) concrete operational stage -7-12 years D) Formal operational stage- 12 + years - CORRECT ANSWER A) Sensorimotor stage John Bowlby has asserted that... A) attachment is not instinctual B) attachment is best explained via the Skinnerian principle C) a and b D) conduct disorders and other forms of psychopathology can result from inadequate attachment and bonding in early childhood - CORRECT ANSWER D) conduct disorders and other forms of psychopathy can result from inadequate attachment and bonding in early childhood (remember, Bowlby and bonding both start with 'b') The Harlow experiments utilizing monkeys demonstrated that animals placed in isolation during the first few months of life... A) still developed in a normal fashion B) still related very well with animals reared normally C) appeared to be autistic D) were fixated in concrete operational thought patterns - CORRECT ANSWER C) appeared to be autistic -people with autism often have trouble communicating with others and forming close social bonds According to the Freudians, if a child is severely traumatized, he/she may ________ a given psychosexual stage A) skip B) become fixated at C) ignore D) a and c - CORRECT ANSWER B) become fixated at -becomes stuck in a stage where he/she feels safe An expert who has reviewed the literature on videos and violence would conclude that... A) watching violence tends to make children more aggressive B) watching violence tends to make children less aggressive C) reality TV shows or videos have no impact on a child's behavior D) what adults see as violent, children perceive as caring - CORRECT ANSWER A) watching violence tends to make children more aggressive A counselor who utilizes the term 'instinctual' technically means... A) behavior results from unconscious aggression B) women will show the behavior to a higher degree than men C) a and b D) behavior that manifests itself in all normal members of a given species - CORRECT ANSWER D) behavior that manifests itself in all normal members of a given species -instincts are species-specific innate behaviors The word 'ethology', which is often associated with the work of Konrad Lorenz, refers to... A) Piaget's famous case study methodology B) the study of animals' behaviors in their natural environment C) studies on monkeys raised in Skinnerian air cribs D) all of the above - CORRECT ANSWER B) the study of animals' behavior in their natural environment -used to try to explain behavior using Darwinian theory -research utilizing animals A child who focuses exclusively on a clown's red nose but ignores the clown's other features would be illustrating the Piagetian concept of... A) ecocentrism B) centration C) formal abstract reasoning D) deductive processes - CORRECT ANSWER B) centration -occurs in preoperational stage -Inability to see world from anyone else's vantage point Piaget felt... A) that homework depresses the elementary child's IQ B) strongly that the implementation of Glasser's concepts in 'Schools Without Failure' should be made mandatory in all elementary settings C) that teachers should lecture a minimum of four hours daily D) that teachers should lecture less, as children in concrete operations learn best via their own actions and experimentation - CORRECT ANSWER D) that teachers should lecture less, as children in concrete operations learn best via their own actions and experimentation Piaget's preoperational stage... A) is the final stage, which includes abstract reasoning B) includes mastering conservation C) includes the acquisition of a symbolic schema D) all of the above - CORRECT ANSWER C) includes the acquisition of a symbolic schema Sigmund Freud and Erikson agreed that... A) each developmental stage needed to be resolved before an individual could move on to the next stage B) developmental stages are primarily psychosexual C) developmental stages are primarily psychosocial D) a person can proceed to a higher stage even if a lower stage is unsolved - CORRECT ANSWER A) each developmental stage needed to be resolved before an individual could move on to the next stage The tendency for adult females in the U.S. to wear high heels is best explained by... A) the principle of negative reinforcement B) sex-role socialization C) Lorenz's studies on imprinting D) ethological data - CORRECT ANSWER B) sex-role socialization The sequence of object loss, which goes from protest to despair to detachment, best describes the work of... A) Freud B) Adler on birth order C) Erikson D) Bowlby - CORRECT ANSWER D) Bowlby -felt that if the child was unable to bond with an adult by age 3, he/she would be incapable of having normal social relationships as an adult A counselor who is seeing a 15-year-old boy who is not doing well in public speaking class would need to keep in mind that... A) in general, boys possess better verbal skills than girls B) in general, girls possess better verbal skills than boys C) in general, boys have better visual-perceptual skills and are more active and aggressive than girls D) b and c - CORRECT ANSWER D) b and c Two brothers begin screaming at each other during a family counseling session. The term that best describes the phenomenon is... A) the primal scene B) preconscious psychic processes C) sibling rivalry D) BASIC-ID - CORRECT ANSWER C) sibling rivalry A preschool child's concept of causality is said to be animistic. This means the child attributes human characteristics to inanimate objects. Thus, the child may fantasize that automobile or a rock is talking to him. This concept is best related to... A) Jung's concepts of anima/us B) Freud's wish fulfillment C) Piaget's preoperational period (ages 2-7) D) ego identity - CORRECT ANSWER C) Piaget's preoperational period (ages 2-7 years) Elementary school counseling and guidance services... A) have been popular since the early 1900s B) became popular during WWII C) are a fairly new development which did not begin to gain momentum until the 1960s D) none of the above - CORRECT ANSWER C) are a fairly new development which did not begin to gain momentum until the 1960s Research related to elementary school counselors indicates that... A) counselors of this ilk work hard, but just don't seem to have an impact on youngsters' lives B) these counselors are effective, do make a difference in children's lives, and more counselors should be employed C) counselors of this ilk could be helpful if they would engage in more consultation work D) these counselors should be used primarily as disciplinarians, but this is not happening in most districts - CORRECT ANSWER B) these counselors are effective, do make a difference in children's lives, and more counselors should be employed According to the Yale research by Daniel J. Levinson... A) Erikson's generativity vs. stagnation stage does not exist B) 80% of the men in the study experienced moderate to severe midlife crises C) an "age 30 crisis" occurs in men when they feel it will soon be too late to make later changes D) b and c - CORRECT ANSWER D) b and c Erikson's middle-age stage (age 35-60) is known as generativity vs. stagnation. Generativity refers to... A) the ability to do creative work or raise a family B) the opposite of stagnation C) the productive ability to create a career, family, and leisure time D) all of the above - CORRECT ANSWER D) all of the above A person who can look back on his/her life with few regrets feels A) the burden of senile psychosis B) ego-integrity in Erikson's integrity vs. despair stage C) despair, which is in the sense that he/she has wasted life's precious opportunities D) the burden of generalized anxiety disorder - CORRECT ANSWER B) ego-integrity in Erikson's integrity vs. despair stage Sensorimotor is to Piaget as oral is to Freud, and as ___________ is to Erikson A) Integrity vs. Despair B) Kohlberg C) Trust vs. Mistrust D) play therapy - CORRECT ANSWER C) trust vs. mistrust Which theorist was most concerned with maternal deprivation? A) A. Lazarus B) H. Harlow C) J. Wolpe D) A. Ellis - CORRECT ANSWER B) J. Harlow -Best known for his work with rhesus monkeys -Surrogate mothers made from terry cloth and others made of wood and wire When development comes to a halt, counselors say that the client A) has "learned helplessness" syndrome B) Suffers from a phobia C) Suffers from a fixation D) is displaying the risky shift phenomenon - CORRECT ANSWER C) Suffers from a fixation True of False: Phobia is often distinguished from anxiety - CORRECT ANSWER True -In anxiety, the client is unaware of the source of the fear Kohlberg proposed three levels of morality. Freud, on the other hand, felt morality developed from the: A) superego B) ego C) id D) eros - CORRECT ANSWER A) superego Which theorists would be most likely to say that aggression is an inborn tendency? A) Carl Rogers B) B.F. Skinner C) Frank Parsons, the father of guidance D) Konrad Lorenz - CORRECT ANSWER D) Konrad Lorenz -Claims that we are naturally aggressive like the wolf or baboon _______________ is the father of guidance - CORRECT ANSWER Frank Parsons The statement "bad behavior is punished, good behavior is not" is most closely associated with: A) Kohlberg's premoral stage at the preconventional level B) Kohlberg's conventional level C) the work of Carl Jung D) Piaget's autonomous stage, which begins at age 8 - CORRECT ANSWER A) Kohlberg's premoral stage at the preconventional level A critical period: A) makes imprinting possible B) emphasizes manifest dream content C) signifies a special time when a behavior must be learned or the behavior won't be learned at all D) a and c - CORRECT ANSWER D) a and c - a critical period is a time when an organism is susceptible to developmental process (2-14 years) Imprinting--rapid learning during a critical period of development--is an instinct in which a newborn will follow a moving object. The primary work in this area was done by: A) Erik Erikson B) Milton H. Erickson C) Konrad Lorenz D) Harry Harlow - CORRECT ANSWER C) Konrad Lorenz Marital satisfaction A) is usually highest when a child is old enough to leave home B) often decreases when parenthood and often improves after a child leaves home C) correlates high with performance IQ D) is highest among couples who have seven or more college-educated children - CORRECT ANSWER B) often decreases in parenthood and often improves after a child leaves home Maslow, a humanistic psychologist, is famous for his "hierarchy of needs," which postulates: A) lower-order physiological and safety needs and higher-order needs, such as self-actualization B) that psychopathology rests within the id C) that unconscious drives control self-actualization D) that stimulus-response (S-R) psychology dictates behavioral attributes - CORRECT ANSWER A) lower-order physiological and safety needs and higher-order needs, such as self-actualization To research the dilemma of self-actualization, Maslow: A) used goslings as did Konrad Lorenz B) psychoanalyzed over 400 neurotics C) worked exclusively with schizophrenics in residential settings D) interviewed the best people he could find who escaped "the psychology of the average" - CORRECT ANSWER D) interviewed the best people he could find who escaped "the psychology of the average" Piaget is: A) a maturationist B) a behaviorist C) a structuralist who believes stage changes are qualitative D) cognitive-behavior - CORRECT ANSWER C) a structuralist who believes stage changes are qualitative -each stage is a way of making sense out of the world ______________ factors cause Down syndrome, the most common type known as trisomy 21: A) Environmental B) Genetic (conditions passed through genes) C) Chemical dependency D) Unconscious - CORRECT ANSWER B) Genetic -other genetic conditions include: phenlyketonuria (PKU), Klinefelter's syndrome, Turner's syndrome, Hemophilia, sickle cell anemia, and sickle cell disease (SCD) Piaget referred to the act of taking in new information as assimilation. This results in accommodation, which is a modification of the child's cognitive structures (schemas) to deal with the new information. In Piagetian nomenclature, the balance between assimilation and accommodation is called: A) counterbalancing B) equilibration C) balance theory D) ABA design - CORRECT ANSWER B) equilibration There are behavioral, structural, and maturational theories of development. The maturational viewpoint utilizes the plant growth analogy, in which the mind is seen as being driven by instincts while the environment provides nourishment, thus placing limits on development. Counselors who are maturationists: A) conduct therapy in the here and now B) focus primarily on nonverbal behavior C) believe group work is most effective D) allow clients to work through early conflicts - CORRECT ANSWER D) allow clients to work through early conflicts -psychoanalysts and psychodynamic therapists fall into this category Ritualistic behaviors, which are common to all members of a species, are known as: A) hysteria B) pica C) fixed-action patterns elicited by sign stimuli D) dysfunctional repetition - CORRECT ANSWER C) fixed-action patterns (FAP) elicited by sign stimuli Robert Kegan speaks of a "holding environment" in counseling in which: A) the client is urges to relive a traumatic experience in an encounter group B) biofeedback training is highly recommended C) the client can make meaning in the face of a crisis and can find new direction D) the activity of meaning making is discouraged - CORRECT ANSWER C) the client can make meaning in the face of a crisis and can find new direction Most experts in the field of counseling agree that: A) no one theory completely explains developmental processes; thus, counselors ought to be familiar with all the major theories B) Eriksonian theory should be used by counselors practicing virtually any modality C) a counselor who incorporates Piaget's stages into his or her thinking would not necessarily need knowledge of rival therapeutic viewpoints D) a realistic counselor needs to pick one developmental theory in the same manner that he/she picks a psychotherapeutic persuasion - CORRECT ANSWER A) no one theory completely explains developmental processes; thus, counselors ought to be familiar with all the major theories Equilibration is: A) a term which emphasizes the equality between the sexes B) performed via the id according to the Freudians C) a synonym for the concrete operational thought D) the balance between what one takes in (assimilation) and that which is changed (accommodation) - CORRECT ANSWER The balance between what one takes in (assimilation) and that which is changed (accommodation) A counselor is working with a family who just lost everything in a fire. The counselor ideally focus on: A) Maslow's higher-order needs, such as self-actualization B) building accurate empathy of family members C) Maslow's lower-order needs, such as physiological and safety needs D) the identified patient - CORRECT ANSWER C) Maslow's lower-order needs, such as physiological and safety needs The anal retentive personality is: A) charitable B) stingy C) kind D) thinks very little about money matters - CORRECT ANSWER B) stingy -anal retentive character is said to be cheap From a Freudian perspective, a client who has a problem with alcoholism and excessive smoking would be: A) considered an oral character B) considered an anal character C) considered a genital character D) fixated at the latency stage - CORRECT ANSWER A) considered an oral character Stages of group counseling - CORRECT ANSWER initial stage, forming stage, transition/conflict/storming stage, working/action stage and termination/adjourning stage Group leadership style: Autocratic or authoritarian - CORRECT ANSWER Advocates decision making for members Group leadership style: Laissez faire - CORRECT ANSWER Leader has little involvement Group leadership style: Democratic approach - CORRECT ANSWER allows input from members, including input into the decisions made Group leadership style: Speculative leaders - CORRECT ANSWER rely on their personal power to move group in a desirable direction Group leadership styles: confrontive leadership style - CORRECT ANSWER facilitator reveals the impact that their behavior has on themselves as well as the impact that other group members have on them Types of groups: psychoeducational - CORRECT ANSWER provides group members with information relevant to their situation Types of groups: counseling - CORRECT ANSWER focus on conscious issues related to personal growth and development Types of groups: group therapy - CORRECT ANSWER can focus on unconscious material, the past, and personality change Types of groups: T-groups - CORRECT ANSWER training groups: are often intended for business or personal motivation Types of groups: structured groups - CORRECT ANSWER Centered around certain issues, such as shyness or how to prepare for a job interview Types of groups: self-help groups - CORRECT ANSWER not led by a professional -AA models or 12-step groups Trait-and-factor theory - CORRECT ANSWER Occupational decision making occurs when: A person has an accurate understanding of their traits (aptitudes, interests, personal abilities) Anne Roe - CORRECT ANSWER -Jobs meet our needs determined by our childhood satisfactions and frustrations -divided career fields into 8 categories and 6 levels Categories: arts/entertainment, general, technology, outdoor, science, business, organizations, and services industry -Levels- requiring most to least experience and knowledge: professional & managerial, semi-professional, skilled worker, semi-skilled worker, unskilled worker Prior to the 1960s most counseling took place: A) in a group setting B) with the entire family present C) in a dyadic relationship D) in behavior therapy clinics - CORRECT ANSWER C) in a dyadic relationship -dyad: unit of two functioning as a pair A group has: A) a membership which can be defined B) some degree of unity and interaction C) a shared purpose D) all of the above - CORRECT ANSWER D) all of the above True or False: Meta-analysis research indicates that individual counseling still generally produces better results for depressed clients - CORRECT ANSWER True The term 'group therapy' was coined in 1931 by: A) Frank Parsons, the father of guidance (also referred to as vocational guidance) B) Jacob Moreno, the father of psychodrama C) E.G. Williamson, associated with the Minnesota Viewpoint D) Fritz Perls, the father of gestalt therapy - CORRECT ANSWER B) Jacob Moreno, the father of psychodrama -Moreno's Theatre of Spontaneity (improvisation and drama as healing forces) The first mutual aid, self-help group is _________ - CORRECT ANSWER AA (Alcoholics Anonymous) Noted psychotherapy author and scholar Raymond Corsini once referred to the early 1940s as the 'modern era' of group work. In the 1940s the two organizations for group therapy were created and group work became a legitimate specialty. The groups are: A) NASW and NBCC B) AGSW and AAS C) the American Society for Group Psychotherapy and Psychodrama (ASGPP) spawned by the work of Jacob Moreno in 1942 and the American Group Psychotherapy Association (AGPA) which resulted from the effort of Samuel Richard Slavson in 1943 D) AACD and APA - CORRECT ANSWER C) the American Society for Group Psychotherapy and Psychodrama (ASGPP) spawned by the work of Jacob Moreno in 1942 and the American Group Psychotherapy Association (AGPA) which resulted from the effort of Samuel Richard Slavson in 1943 Which theoriest's work has been classified as a preface to the group movement? A) Sigmund Freud B) C.G. Jung C) Alfred Adler and Jesse B. Davis D) Marsha Linehan, who created dialectical behavior therapy (DBT), originally used to deal with suicidal behaviors - CORRECT ANSWER C) Alfred Adler and Jesse B. Davis -Jesse B. Davis pioneered school guidance and became America's first school guidance counselor Primary groups are: A) preventative and attempt to ward off problems B) always follow a person-centered paradigm C) generally utilized for long-term psychotherapy D) always focused on the client's childhood - CORRECT ANSWER A) preventative and attempt to ward off problems -secondary group problems are present but not severe -tertiary group deals with more serious difficulties A group is classified as secondary. That implies that: A) it is preventive and attempts to ward off problems B) a difficulty or disturbance is present C) two therapists are utilized D) all of the above - CORRECT ANSWER B) a difficulty or disturbance is present Group norms: A) exist only in encounter groups B) exist only in career counseling groups C) are not related to group cohesiveness D) govern acceptable behavior and group rules - CORRECT ANSWER D) govern acceptable behavior and group norms -Norms=expected behaviors Group therapy initially flourished in the United States due to: A) Freud's lectures in this country B) a shortage of competent career counselors C) a shortage of individual therapists during WWII D) pressure from nondirective therapists pushing encounter groups - CORRECT ANSWER C) a shortage of individual therapists during WWII Group content refers to material discussed in a group setting. Group process refers to: A) analysis of the unconscious B) analysis of the ego C) the T-group paradigm D) the manner in which discussions and transactions occur - CORRECT ANSWER D) the manner in which discussions and transactions occur -group content refers to what the group is discussing -group process refers to analyzing the communications, interactions and transactions Group cohesiveness refers to: A) forces which tend to bind group members together B) an analysis of group content C) a common coleadership style D) a style of leadership - CORRECT ANSWER A) forces which tend to bind group members together Some theorists feel that group therapy differs from group counseling (which is also called interpersonal problem-solving group) in that: A) group counseling would be of longer duration B) group therapy, also dubbed as a personality reconstruction group, would be of longer duration C) group counseling requires more training D) group therapy addresses a less-disturbed population of clients - CORRECT ANSWER B) group therapy, also dubbed as personality reconstruction group, would be of longer duration -psychoeducation group has replaced the term guidance group since guidance group is associated with negative practices such as excessive advice giving Most experts would agree that overall: A) structured exercises are more effective than unstructured techniques B) structured exercises are less effective than unstructured techniques C) all well-trained therapists favor structured exercises over unstructured techniques D) ethical guidelines must forbid unstructured techniques because they can be dangerous to the depressed or anxious client - CORRECT ANSWER B) structured exercises are less effective than unstructured techniques -Yalom pointed out that structured exercises can create a situation where group stages are passed over One advantage of group work is that a counselor can see more clients in a given period of time. One disadvantage is that a counselor can be too focused on group processes and: A) individual issues are not properly examined B) the group becomes too behavioristic C) a and b D) the group focuses too much on content - CORRECT ANSWER A) individual issues are not properly examined According to the risky shift phenomenon, a group decision will: A) be less conservative than the average group member's decision, prior to the group discussion B) be more conservative than the average group member's decision, prior to the group discussion C) often be aggressive or illegal D) violate the group's confidentiality norms - CORRECT ANSWER A) be less conservative than the average group member's decision, prior to the group discussion -risky shift phenomenon (group decisions tend to be more risky) T-groups often stress ways employees can express themselves in an effective manner. The "T" in T-groups merely stands for: A) techniques B) taxonomy C) training D) testing - CORRECT ANSWER C) training A counselor suggests that her client join an assertiveness training group. Most assertiveness training groups are: A) unstructured B) psychodynamic or person-centered C) focused heavily on existential concerns D) behavioristic and highly structured - CORRECT ANSWER D) behavioristic and highly structured -behavioral groups tend to be highly structured Weight Watchers is a : A) T-group, also called a training group B) self-help or support group, as is AA C) psychotherapy group D) marathon group - CORRECT ANSWER B) self-help or support group, as is AA -self help groups attempt to cope with a given issue -support groups are conducted by organizations and might charge fees -self help groups are typically not run by organizations The ACA and the ASGW division recommend screening for potential group members: A) for all groups B) only when the group is in a hospital inpatient setting C) only when the group is composed of minors D) only if the groups deals with chemical dependency - CORRECT ANSWER A) for all groups A counselor is conducting a screening for clients who wish to participate in a counseling group which will meet Tuesday nights at his private practice office. Which client would most likely be the poorest choice for a group member? A) a shy librarian B) an anxious salesman with no group experience C) an extremely hostile and belligerent construction worker D) a student with 16 hours toward her M.Ed in counseling - CORRECT ANSWER C) an extremely hostile and belligerent construction worker A counselor is screening clients for a new group at the college counseling center. Which client would most likely be the poorest choice for a group member? A) a first-year student who is suicidal and sociopathic B) a second-year student who stutters C) a graduate student with a facial tic D) a fourth-year student with OCD tendencies - CORRECT ANSWER A) a first-year student who is suicidal and sociopathic A screening for group members can be done in a group or privately. Although private screening interviews are not as cost effective or as time efficient as group screening, many leaders feel that private screening sessions are superior: A) because they intensify transference B) because they encourage catharsis C) because they intensify abreaction D) in terms of counselor-client interaction - CORRECT ANSWER D) in terms of counselor-client interaction Most experts in the field of group counseling would agree that the most important trait for group members is the ability: A) to open up B) to listen C) to trust D) to convey empathy - CORRECT ANSWER C) to trust Groups can be open or closed. The two differ in that: A) open groups are limited to hospital settings B) in an open group, members can socialize between group meetings C) closed groups always employ coleaders D) closed groups allow no new members after the group begins - CORRECT ANSWER D) closed groups allow no new members after the group begins One major advantage of a closed group vs an open group is: A) cost effectiveness B) it promotes cohesiveness C) it lessens counselor burnout D) it allows the members to meet less frequently - CORRECT ANSWER B) it promotes cohesiveness One major disadvantage of a closed group vs an open group is that: A) if everyone quits, you will be left with no group members B) closed groups cannot provide depth therapy C) it promotes paranoid feelings in group memebers D) closed groups are much less structured - CORRECT ANSWER A) if everyone quits, you will be left with no group members The number of people in an open group is generally: A) more stable than in a closed group B) much smaller after an extended period of time than in a closed group C) significantly larger than in a closed group D) more dependent on the group leader's marketing skills than in a closed group - CORRECT ANSWER A) more stable than in a closed group One distinct disadvantage of an open group is that: A) new members are not accepted after the first meeting B) the leader does not control the screening process C) a member who begins after the first meeting has missed information or experiences D) the group is generally too behavioristic for depth therapy to occur - CORRECT ANSWER C) a member who begins after the first meeting has missed information or experiences When a group member is speaking, it is best for the counselor to: A) try to face the group member B) not face the group member, as this does not appear genuine in a group setting C) smile while listening D) suppress genuine emotion - CORRECT ANSWER A) try to face the group member A group setting has a flexible seating arrangement in which clients are free to sit wherever they wish. In this setting it is likely that: A) an African American client and a white leader would sit close together B) a Latino/a client and an African American leader would sit close together C) an Asian American client and an African American leader would sit close together D) an Asian American leader and an Asian American client would sit close together - CORRECT ANSWER D) an Asian American leader and an Asian American client would sit close together A group setting has a flexible seating arrangement in which clients are free to sit wherever they wish. In this setting it is likely that: A) a male client in a designer suit and a female client in cutoff jeans will sit close together B) a Cuban male client in a designer suit and an Asian male client in another brand of designer suit will sit close together C) a white female client in a designer outfit and a white male client in a pair of old jeans and an undershirt will sit close together D) a male client in a designer suit and a female client in a jogging suit and old tennis shoes with holes in them will sit close together - CORRECT ANSWER B) a Cuban male client in a designer suit and an Asian male client in another brand of designer suit will sit close together -some evidence points out that social class means more than race in terms of group seating Which statement made by a doctoral-level counselor is illustrative of a leader focused on process rather than product? A) "Jim seems more relaxed today" B) "Sally seems a bit self-critical this evening" C) "I hear a lot of sadness in Betty's voice" D) "You wince whenever Jane raises her voice" - CORRECT ANSWER D) "You wince whenever Jane raises her voice" -process=manner in which communication transpires Which statement by a group leader in a residential center for adolescents focuses on product rather than process? A) "Ken has not stolen for a week and thus eligible for supplementary tokens" B) "Karen looks down when Bill discusses relationships" C) "It sounds like there is a deep sense of hurt" D) "Oh, so you fold your arms and sort of close up when Carey mentions the angry side of your personality" - CORRECT ANSWER A) "Karen has not stolen for a week and thus is eligible for supplementary tokens" Groups promote the concept of universality, which suggests that: A) we are unique and so are our problems B) there is a universal way to solve nearly any difficulty C) a and b D) we are not the only ones in the world with a given problem - CORRECT ANSWER D) we are not the only ones in the world with a given problem -exam might substitute 'mutuality' for 'universality' In the late 1930s researchers identified three basic leadership styles: A) directive, nondirective, and semi-passive B) autocratic, democratic and laissez faire C) relaxed, anxious and tense D) assertive, nonassertive and aggressive - CORRECT ANSWER B) autocratic, democratic and laissez faire The autocratic or authoritarian leader may give orders to the group, while the laissez faire leader: A) assigns a group member as the authoritarian B) has a hands-off policy and participates very little, with the group basically taking responsibility for itself C) has the most desirable style of leadership D) nearly always run open-ended groups - CORRECT ANSWER B) has a hands-off policy and participates very little, with the group basically taking responsibility for itself When comparing the autocratic, democratic and laissez fair styles: A) the autocratic is the most desirable B) the laissez faire is the most desirable C) the democratic, or what Sam Gladding called a facilitator, is the most desirable D) there is no discernible difference in effectiveness - CORRECT ANSWER C) the democratic, or what Sam Gladding called the facilitator, is the most desirable A group with more than one leader is said to utilize coleaders. Coleadership is desirable because: A) the group can go on even if one leader is absent B) two leaders can focus on group dynamics better than one leader since two individuals will have better observational skills C) leaders can process their feelings between sessions D) all of the above - CORRECT ANSWER D) all of the above Coleadership A) reduces burnout and helps ensure safety B) increases burnout C) has no impact on burnout D) should not be used for open groups - CORRECT ANSWER A) reduces burnout and helps ensure safety Coleadership: A) is helpful when one leader is experiencing counter-transference B) exacerbates the harm of counter-transference C) has no impact on the issue of counter-transference D) eliminates all difficulties associated with counter-transference - CORRECT ANSWER A) is helpful when one leader is experiencing counter-transference -transference=client's issue -countertransference= helper has issues that are interfering with the treatment process Coleadership, also referred to as cofacilitation, can be a disadvantage when: A) leaders are working against each other; this can fragment the group B) leaders are intimate with each other C) leaders question each other's competence D) all of the above - CORRECT ANSWER D) all of the above Coleaders are apt to work at cross purposes when: A) they do not meet between group sessions B) they do meet between group sessions C) they are master's-level practitioners D) they are doctoral-level practitioners - CORRECT ANSWER A) they do not meet between group sessions Gerald Corey, who has written extensively on group therapy, believes _________ is necessary for an effective group leader: A) a master's degree in guidance and counseling B) a doctorate in counselor education C) participation in a therapeutic group and participation in a leader's group D) three credit hours in a graduate course in group therapy - CORRECT ANSWER C) participation in a therapeutic group and participation in a leader's group Most experts would agree that an effective adult counseling group has ________ members: A) 9-12 B) 3-5 C) 11-16 D) 5-8 - CORRECT ANSWER D) 5-8 Most experts would agree that an effective counseling group for children has: A) more members than an adult group B) less members than an adult group C) at least two group leaders D) 9-12 members - CORRECT ANSWER B) less members than an adult group Although the length of group counseling sessions will vary, most experts would agree that ________ is plenty of time even when critical issues are being examined: A) three hours per session B) one hour per session C) six hours per session D) two hours per session - CORRECT ANSWER D) two hours per session In terms of group risks: A) an ethical leader will discuss them during the initial session with a client B) an ethical leader should never discuss risks with a client C) research has demonstrated that the less said about them, the better the group will interact D) an ethical leader allows the group to discover risks and work through them at their own pace - CORRECT ANSWER A) an ethical leader will discuss them during the initial session with a client An adept group leader will: A) attempt to safeguard clients against risks B) work to reduce risks and dangers C) a and b D) let the group handle the dangers on their own - CORRECT ANSWER C) a and b A group participant wants to drop out of a group. Since the group is "closed" most experts would agree that: A) the leader must insist that the client stay B) the client is allowed to withdraw C) the leader should allow other members to put pressure on the participant to stay D) a and c - CORRECT ANSWER B) the client is allowed to withdraw During the initial session of a group the leader explains that no smoking and no cursing will be permitted. This is known as: A) setting ground rules B) ambivalent transference C) blocking D) scapegoating - CORRECT ANSWER A) setting ground rules Group norms refer to: A) a statistically normal group composed of 8-12 members B) a statistically normal group composed of 12-14 members C) a normal group with no cultural differences D) the range of acceptable behavior within the group - CORRECT ANSWER D) the range of acceptable behavior within the group The study of group operations is often called: A) group desensitization B) the hot seat technique C) group dynamics D) structuring the group - CORRECT ANSWER C) group dynamics The word 'dynamic' means the group is: A) normal B) always changing C) static D) defined in an operational manner - CORRECT ANSWER B) always changing A group leader who utilizes an abundance of group exercises is: A) probably not running an assertiveness training group B) is running an unstructured group C) is running a structured group D) is invariably running a self-help group - CORRECT ANSWER C) is running a structured group Some theorists object to the word 'unstructured' in group work because: A) a group cannot not have structure B) only structured groups are effective C) unstructured groups are hardly therapeutic D) unstructured refers only to counseling and not to therapy groups - CORRECT ANSWER A) a group cannot not have structure Some research demonstrates: A) structured exercises early in the group impaired later communication between group members B) structured exercises with feedback early in the group served to improve communication between group members C) autocratic and authoritarian leadership styles promote communication best D) structured exercises are never appropriate - CORRECT ANSWER B) structured exercises with feedback early in the group served to improve communication between group members In some literature, group cohesiveness, or "we-ness" is known as: A) group unity B) a sociogram C) Karpman's triangle D) the transition stage - CORRECT ANSWER A) group unity Group members assume roles within a group. Which of the following is not a group role? A) Energizer B) Scapegoat C) Gatekeeper D) Reactive schizophrenia - CORRECT ANSWER D) Reactive schizophrenia A group member who insists on asking other members inappropriate questions is known as a Peeping Tom or.... A) an energizer B) a scapegoat C) an interrogator D) a follower - CORRECT ANSWER C) an interrogator The follower goes along with whatever the rest of the group thinks. From a personality standpoint the follower is: A) aggressive B) assertive C) practicing excitation D) nonassertive - CORRECT ANSWER D) nonassertive The ________ may secretly wish that he/she was running the group: A) follower B) gatekeeper C) social isolate D) harmonizer - CORRECT ANSWER B) gatekeeper Everybody picks on: A) the gatekeeper B) the harmonizer, also known as the conciliator C) the scapegoat D) the storyteller, the intellectualizer, the attacker and the joker - CORRECT ANSWER C) the scapegoat A female group member is obviously not participating. A group member playing the _______ is most likely to mention this and urge her to participate: A) gatekeeper B) interrogator C) scapegoat D) storyteller - CORRECT ANSWER A) gatekeeper Cohesiveness, or group unity, is desirable. It promotes bonding and a sense of "we-ness" between group members. When cohesiveness is strong, nevertheless, it also can be negative as: A) it can stunt creativity B) it can boost conformity C) a and b D) it can cause the group to split into factions - CORRECT ANSWER C) a and b In a healthy group, members... A) assume a role and never change it B) have no roles C) are flexible and can change roles D) Spend a great deal of time practicing role reversal - CORRECT ANSWER C) are flexible and can change roles In a group, task roles... A) help solve problems B) aid in terms of goal setting and keep the group focused C) are seen as positive D) all of the above - CORRECT ANSWER D) all of the above Maintenance roles, like task roles, are positive since such roles... A) help to maintain the group B) are self-serving C) help promote autocratic leadership D) always stress the importance of the here and now - CORRECT ANSWER A) help to maintain the group Self-serving or individual roles are negative inasmuch as... A) they promote democratic leadership B) they work against the group C) they serve the individual and not the group D) b and c - CORRECT ANSWER D) b and c Although task roles and maintenance roles are indeed positive, the group can suffer if the group is not flexible and remains in one or the other role too long since... A) an effective group needs some self-serving roles B) if a group gets stuck in task roles, interaction suffers C) if a group gets stuck in maintenance roles, little work will be accomplished D) b and c - CORRECT ANSWER D) b and c Group specialists define role conflict as... A) tension between two group members who have assumed different roles B) a situation in which there is a discrepancy between the way a member is expected to behave and the way he/she actually behaves C) tension between the group leader and a group member D) members criticizing other members between group sessions - CORRECT ANSWER B) a situation in which there is a discrepancy between the way a member is expected to behave and the way he/she actually behaves A major group dynamic is group development. This is usually expressed in terms of... A) the number of hours of group conflict B) theories of group stages C) the Rosenthal effect D) the Hawthorne effect - CORRECT ANSWER B) the theories of group stages Irvin Yalom is a famous existentialist therapist and a pioneer in the group movement. He suggested these four group stages: orientation, conflict, cohesion, and termination. In 1966 Tuckman and Jensen reviewed 25 years of research and came up with five stages: forming, storming, norming, performing, and adjourning. Which stage in Tuckman and Jensen's paradigm is similar to Yalom's orientation stage? - CORRECT ANSWER A) Forming The final stage suggested by theories of group stages generally deals with issues of: A) group tasks B) transition C) power and control D) separation and termination - CORRECT ANSWER D) separation and termination The initial group stage has been called forming, orientation or the preaffiliation stage. This stage is characterized by... A) avoidance-avoidance conflicts B) a tendency for members to compete with the leader for power C) approach-avoidance behavior D) members working on the interpretation of the unconscious behavior - CORRECT ANSWER C) approach-avoidance behavior A client would generally feel the most suspicious of others in... A) the final stage of separation or termination B) the intimacy stage C) the group formation/exploratory stage D) a group with coleadership, also known as cofacilitation - CORRECT ANSWER C) the group formation/exploratory stage Fights between subgroups and members showing rebellion against the leader generally occurs in... A) the second stage known as the control stage or the transition stage B) the first stage known as the orientation stage or formation stage C) the separation stage D) the intimacy stage - CORRECT ANSWER A) the second stage known as the control stage or the transition stage A hierarchy, or pecking order, among members occurs in... A) the stage of storming, also known as the power-control stage B) the orientation stage C) the separation stage D) the intimacy stage - CORRECT ANSWER A) the stage of storming Group planning occurs... A) in the initial stage B) in the stage after the transition or conflict stage C) in the final stage, also known as the termination stage D) before the group begins and continues throughout the life of the group - CORRECT ANSWER D) before the group begins and continues throughout the life of the group The final group stage (also called the termination stage) is geared toward... A) developing intimacy B) working through power and control issues C) exploration D) breaking away - CORRECT ANSWER D) breaking away * this phase has been called "consolidation" and occurs after the working stage A group therapist is constructing a diagram to better understand the dynamics between subgroups and members. This is called... A) sculpturing B) ego state analysis C) charting a pictorial sociogram D) charting the variance - CORRECT ANSWER C) charting a pictorial sociogram *the study of measuring person-to-person relationships regarding what members in a group think or feel is known as "sociometry" A group leader who asks each group member to recapitulate what he/she has learned during a given session is promoting... A) summarization, the act of briefly stating what has transpired or discussed B) Clarification, the action of making certain that the leader and the group truly understand the key factors related to what a member is attempting to communicate C) blocking, the act of putting a halt to a group member's actions that might have a negative impact on other group members D) linking, the act of pointing out similarities between clients - CORRECT ANSWER A) summarization, the act of briefly stating what has transpired or discussed A leader who wishes to stop inappropriate discussion should rely on... A) summarization B) clarification C) blocking D) linking - CORRECT ANSWER C) blocking When a leader attempts to relate one person's predicament to another person's predicament, it is known as... A) summarization B) clarification C) blocking D) linking - CORRECT ANSWER D) linking Strategies that approach the group as a whole are known as... A) vertical interventions B) horizontal interventions C) crossed transactions D) parallel transactions - CORRECT ANSWER B) horizontal interventions *vertical interventions=individuals within a group Strategies that focus on an individual member of the group are known as... A) vertical interventions B) horizontal interventions C) crossed transactions D) parallel transactions - CORRECT ANSWER A) vertical transactions A group therapist must make... A) fewer decisions than an individual therapist B) the same number of decisions as an individual therapist C) modality changes for each group D) more decisions than an individual therapist - CORRECT ANSWER D) more decisions than an individual therapist When a counselor reads the journals in this field, it becomes evident that... A) group counseling has more research than individual counseling B) researchers and practitioners are working very closely to provide accurate and effective group strategies C) a researcher/practitioner split exists in group work D) no journals focus soley on group work - CORRECT ANSWER C) a researcher/practitioner split exists in group work *practical research about what works best in a group setting is scarce Experts predict that in the future... A) group leaders will be more like life-skills trainers B) group leaders will become more person-centered C) group leaders will return to a psychodynamic viewpoint D) groups will lose their popularity and eventually die out - CORRECT ANSWER A) group leaders will be more like life-skills trainers According to researchers, groups are effective... A) although researchers cannot pinpoint precisely why this is true B) due to increased transference in group work C) due to better morale in a group setting D) due to the emphasis on cognitive restructuring - CORRECT ANSWER A) although researchers cannot pinpoint precisely why this is true A major limitation related to group work is that... A) REBT cannot be utilized in group therapy B) it is not really cost effective C) gestalt therapy cannot be used in a group setting D) a group leader can lose control and members could experience emotional harm - CORRECT ANSWER D) a group leader can lose control and members could experience emotional harm *Other limitations include: a client may need individual therapy before they can benefit from group work, client may not be capable of trusting others enough to reveal, group can become a substitute experience for the real world, group counselor may not be as effective with a whole group of people. A major advantage of group work versus individual work is that... A) members learn to give help in addition to receiving it and group sessions generally cost less than individual counseling sessions. B) the leader has a less complex role than that of an individual counselor C) the group leader nearly always possesses more training than an individual counselor D) all of the above - CORRECT ANSWER A) members learn to give help in addition to receiving it and group sessions generally cost less *Groups are like a microcosm of society that offers vicarious learning and support Which statement best depicts a major advantage of group work? A) group work usually focuses on the here and now B) group work is always time limited C) group work is always superior for career counseling D) the group setting is somewhat analogous to the communication and interaction of everyday life - CORRECT ANSWER D) the group setting is somewhat analogous to the communication and interaction of everyday life Which of these factors is not delineated by Irvin Yalom as a curative factor? A) altruism, universality and existential learning B) manifest dream content and insight into the unconscious mind C) catharsis, cohesiveness and instillation of hope D) imitative behavior and reenactment of family experiences - CORRECT ANSWER B) manifest dream content and insight into the unconscious mind *Yalom is an existential therapist. Choice "b" is psychoanalytic In terms of research and the group leader's personality... A) extroverts are the most effective leaders B) introverts are the most effective leaders C) qualities such as flexibility, enthusiasm and common sense may be helpful to a very small degree D) qualities such as flexibility, enthusiasm and common sense have a tremendous positive impact - CORRECT ANSWER C) qualities such as flexibility, enthusiasm and common sense may be helpful to a very small degree R. K. Conye suggested that group intervention intended to... A) ferret out unconscious material B) enhance rational self-talk C) illuminate dysfunctional nonverbal behavior D) prevent, correct or enhance behavior - CORRECT ANSWER D) prevent, correct or enhance behavior A group leader who wishes to assess the impact of the group ideally would... A) hand out a written evaluation form during the final session B) hold a follow-up session so members can share experiences C) have an outside "observer" sit in during group sessions and consequently rate the level of behavioral change D) give each member a pretest and a post test utilizing a protective measure - CORRECT ANSWER C) have an outside "observer" sit in during group sessions and consequently rate the level of behavioral change *research in group has been criticized from not using independent observers A group leader who is counseling children under 10 years of age could best enhance the treatment process by... A) involving parents and asking them for input B) keeping the parents involved C) reminding the children to speak softly at all times D) b and c - CORRECT ANSWER A) involving parents and asking them for input *Parental involvement can reduce resistance and improve cooperation When an adolescent complains about their parents in the group it is best to... A) jump on the bandwagon and agree with the child B) avoid taking sides but help them see the parents' point of view via a therapeutic technique such as role-playing C) talk only about positive experiences D) immediately put the child on the hot seat - CORRECT ANSWER B) avoid taking sides but help them see the parents' point of view via a therapeutic technique such as role-playing Lifestyle and career development have been emphasized... A) only since the late 1950s B) only since the late 1960s C) only since non directive counseling became popular D) since the beginning of the counseling and guidance movement and are still major areas of concern - CORRECT ANSWER D) since the beginning of the counseling and guidance movement and are still major areas of concern One trend is that women are moving into more careers that in the past were populated by males. Women workers are often impacted by the "glass ceiling phenomenon". Assuming that a counselor's behavior is influenced by the phenomenon, which statement would he most likely make when conducting a career counseling session with a female client who want to advance in a higher position? A) "your ability to advance in the corporate world is generally based on your mother's attitude toward work. Can you tell me a little bit about that?" B) "actually, women can advance quite rapidly in the corporate world. I support you 100%. I'd say you should be optimistic and go for the position" C) "let's be rational: A woman can only advance so far. You really have very little if any chance of becoming a corporate executive. I'm here to help you cope with this reality: D) "in most cases a female will work in a position that is at the same level as her father. Did your dad ever work as a corporate executive?" - CORRECT ANSWER C) "Let's be rational: A woman can only advance so far. You really have very little if any chance of becoming a corporate executive. I'm here to help you cope with this reality" Most research in the area of career development and its relationship to students indicates that.. A) a very high proportion of students in high school and at the junior high or middle school level wanted guidance in planning a career. Career interests are more stable after college B) Students did not want career guidance despite its importance C) many students were too inflexible to benefit from career guidance D) high school students wanted career guidance but junior-high or middle school-level students did not - CORRECT ANSWER A) a very high proportion of students in high school and at the junior high or middle school level wanted guidance in planning a career. Career interests are more stable after college *research studies show that 50% of all college students have career difficulties A dual-career family is one in which both partners have jobs to which they are committed on a somewhat continuous basis. Which statement is true of dual-career families? A) surprisingly enough, dual-career families have lower incomes than families in which only one partner works B) dual-career families have higher incomes than the so-called traditional family in which only one partner is working C) dual-career families have incomes which are almost identical to families with one partner working D) surprisingly enough, no research has been conducted on dual-career families - CORRECT ANSWER B) dual-career families have higher incomes than the so-called traditional family in which only one partner is working In the dual-career family, partners seem to be more self-sufficient than in the traditional family. In a dual-career household, the woman... A) generally has children before entering the workforce B) rarely if ever has children C) is not self-reliant D) is typically secure in her career before she has children - CORRECT ANSWER D) is typically secure in her career before she has children Studies indicate that... A) students receive ample vocational guidance B) most parents can provide appropriate vocational guidance C) students want more vocational guidance than they receive D) career days meet the vocational guidance needs of most students - CORRECT ANSWER C) students want more vocational guidance than they receive Statistics reveal that... A) on average, a worker with a bachelor's degree earns over $10,000 a year more than a worker with a high school diploma B) fewer workers possess a high school diploma than ever before C) blue-collar jobs are growing faster than white-collar jobs D) older workers are slower than younger workers and have fewer skills - CORRECT ANSWER A) on average, a worker with a bachelor's degree earns over $10,000 a year more than a worker with a high school diploma When professional career counselors use the term 'leisure' they technically mean... A) the client is having fun at work or away from work B) the client is relaxing at work or away from work C) the client is working at less than 100% capacity at work or away from work D) the time the client has away from work which is not being utilized for obligations - CORRECT ANSWER D) the time the client has away from work which is not being utilized for obligations In terms of leisure time and dual-career families/couples... A) dual-career families/couples have more leisure time B) dual-career families/couples have the same amount of leisure time as families/couples with one wage earner C) dual-career families/couples have less leisure time D) dual-career families/couples have more weekend leisure time - CORRECT ANSWER C) dual-career families/couples have less leisure time A client who says, "I feel I cannot really become an administrator in our agency because I am a woman" is showing an example of... A) gender bias B) counselor bias C) the trait-and-factor theory D) developmental theory and career choice - CORRECT ANSWER A) gender bias One major category of career theory is known as the trait-factor approach. It has also been dubbed as the actuarial or matching approach. This approach... A) attempts to match conscious and unconscious work motives B) attempts to match the worker and the work environment (job factors). The approach thus makes the assumption that there is one best or single career for the person C) attempts to match career behavior with attitudes D) attempts to match cognition with the workload - CORRECT ANSWER B) Attempts to match the worker and the work environment (job factors). The approach thus makes the assumption that there is one best or single career for the person *Most popular career theories are based on the middle-upper class white males who are heterosexual and not disabled The trait-and-factor career counseling, actuarial or matching approach (which matches clients with a job) is associated with A) Parsons and Williamson B) Roe and Brill C) Holland and Super D) Tiedman and O'Hara - CORRECT ANSWER A) Parsons and Williamson *Theory assumes that an individual's traits can be measured so accurately that the choice of an occupation is a one-time process. Computer career guidance often adhere to the trait-and-factor model The trait-and-factor or actuarial approach asserts that... A) job selection is a long-term developmental process B) testing is an important part of the counseling process C) a counselor can match the correct person with the appropriate job D) b and c - CORRECT ANSWER D) b and c In 1909 a landmark book entitled 'Choosing a Vocation' was released. The book was written by Frank Parsons. Parsons has been called... A) the father of lifestyle B) the father of modern counseling C) the father of vocational guidance D) the fourth force in counseling - CORRECT ANSWER C) the father of vocational counseling Which statement is not true of the trait-and-factor approach to career counseling? A) the approach attempts to match the person's traits with the requirements of a job B) The approach usually relies on psychometric information C) The approach is developmental and thus focuses on career maturity D) The approach is associated with the work of Parsons and Williamson - CORRECT ANSWER C) The approach is developmental and thus focuses on career maturity *Developmental approaches delineate stages or specify vocational choice in terms of a process which can change throughout the life span Edmund Griffith Williamson's work (Minnesota Viewpoint) purports to be scientific and didactic, utilizing test data from instruments such as the... A) Rorschach and the Thematic Appreception Test B) Binet and the Wechsler C) Deck Depression Inventory (BDI) and the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI) D) Minnesota Occupational Rating Scale - CORRECT ANSWER D) Minnesota Occupational Rating Scale *Minnesota matches with Minnesota The trait-and-factor approach fails to take _______ into account... A) Individual change throughout the life span B) relevant psychometric data C) personality D) job requirements - CORRECT ANSWER A) Individual change throughout the life span Anne Roe suggested a personality approach to career choice... A) based on cognitive-behavioral therapy B) based on a model of strict operant conditioning C) based on the premise that a job satisfies an unconscious need D) based on the work of Pavlov - CORRECT ANSWER C) based on the premise that a job satisfies an unconscious need Roe was the first career specialist to utilize a two-dimensional system of occupational classification utilizing... A) unconscious and preconscious B) fields and levels C) yin and yang D) transnational analysis nomenclature - CORRECT ANSWER B) fields and levels All of the following are examples of Anne Roe's "fields" except: A) Service B) Science C) Arts and entertainment D) Unskilled - CORRECT ANSWER D) unskilled All of the following are examples of Anne Roe's "levels" except: A) outdoor B) Semiskilled C) semiprofessional/small business D) Professional and managerial - CORRECT ANSWER A) outdoor Roe spoke of three basic parenting styles: overprotective, avoidant, or acceptant. The result is that the child... A) experiences neurosis or psychosis B) will eventually have a lot of jobs or lack of unemployment C) will develop a personality which gravitates toward people or away from people D) will suffer from depression in the work setting or will be highly motivated to succeed - CORRECT ANSWER C) will develop a personality which gravitates toward people or away from people Roe's theory relies on Abraham Maslow's hierarchy of needs in the sense that in terms of career choice... A) lower-order needs take precedence over high-order needs B) self-actualization needs take precedence over lower-order needs C) all needs are given equal consideration D) the need for self-actualization would overpower a physical need - CORRECT ANSWER A) lower-order needs take precedence over high-order needs Some support Roe's theory comes from... A) the BDI B) the Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale-Fourth Edition C) the Rorschach and the TAT D) the gestalt therapy movement - CORRECT ANSWER C) the Rorschach and the TAT In terms of genetics, Roe's theory would assert that... A) genetics play a very minor role in career choice B) genetics help to determine intelligence and education, and hence this influences one's career choice C) genetics are important while upbringing is not D) genetics are important while the unconscious is not - CORRECT ANSWER B) genetics help to determine intelligence and education, and hence this influences one's career choice According to Anne Roe, who categorized occupations by fields and levels... A) the decision to pursue a career is purely a conscious decision B) using the 'Strong' is the best method of explaining career choice C) early childhood experiences are irrelevant in terms of career choice D) the choice of a career helps to satisfy an individual's needs - CORRECT ANSWER D) the choice of a career helps to satisfy an individual's needs A 37-year old white male states during a counseling session that he is working as a clerk at Main Street Plumbing. This verbalization depicts the client's... A) career B) lifestyle C) job or position D) occupation - CORRECT ANSWER C) job or position *Job=position within an organization Occupation=similar jobs occupied via different people (psychologist Career=broadest category, lifetime positions Roe recognized the role of the unconscious mind in terms of career choice. Another theorist who emphasized the unconscious processes in this area of study was... A) Krumboltz B) Schein C) Super D) Bordin - CORRECT ANSWER D) Bordin *Career choices could be used to solve unconscious conflicts Edwin Bordin felt that difficulties related to job choice... A) are indicative of neurotic symptoms B) are indicative of inappropriate reinforcers in the environment C) are related to a lack of present moment awareness D) are the result of irrational cognitions - CORRECT ANSWER A) are indicative or neurotic symptoms Another career theorist who drew upon psychoanalytic doctrines was A. A. Brill. Brill emphasized __________ as an ego defense mechanism A) subliminal B) sublimation C) repression D) rationalization - CORRECT ANSWER B) sublimation A client who becomes a professional football player because he unconsciously likes to hurt people would be utilizing _________according to Brill's theory of career choice A) subliminal B) sublimination C) suppression D) introjection - CORRECT ANSWER B) sublimation Today, the most popular approach to career choice reflects the work of... A) Anne Roe B) Donald Super C) John Holland D) Jane Loevinger - CORRECT ANSWER C) John Holland *Self-Directed Search (SDS) Holland categorized ________ personality orientations which correspond to analogous work environments A) two B) five C) three D) six - CORRECT ANSWER D) Six Most experts in the field of career counseling would classify Roe, Brill and Holland as _______ theorists A) behavior modification B) ego psychologists C) experiential D) personality - CORRECT ANSWER D) personality Counselors who support John Holland's approach would believe that... A) an appropriate job allows one to express their personality B) stereotypes cannot be considered relevant C) four major personality categories exist D) sublimation is the major factor in job selection - CORRECT ANSWER A) an appropriate job allows one to express their personality Holland mentioned six modal orientations: artistic, conventional, enterprising, investigative, realistic and social. A middle school counselor is most likely... A) Artistic B) social C) enterprising D) realistic - CORRECT ANSWER B) social Holland's theory would predict that the vice president of the United States would be... A) artistic B) social C) enterprising D) realistic - CORRECT ANSWER C) enterprising A client who wishes to work on an assembly line would fit into Holland's __________ typology A) artistic B) conventional C) social D) realistic - CORRECT ANSWER D) realistic Holland's psychological needs career personality theory would say that a research chemist is primarily the _____ type A) investigative B) social C) enterprising D) artistic - CORRECT ANSWER A) investigative Holland's artistic type seems to value feelings over pure intellect or cognitive ability. Which of the following clients would not be best described via the artistic typology? A) A 72-year old part-time, male ballet instructor B) A 29-year old female fiction writer C) A 33-year old female drill press operator D) A 41 year-old singer for a heavy metal rock band - CORRECT ANSWER C) A 33 year-old female drill press operator Holland did indeed believe in career stereotypes. In other words, the person psychologically defines himself or herself via a given job. Thus, a bookkeeper or a clerical worker would primarily fit into the _______ category A) artistic B) conventional C) realistic D) social - CORRECT ANSWER B) conventional In regard to an individual's behavioral style or so-called modal orientation, Holland believed that... A) every person has a pure or discrete orientation that fits perfectly into one of the six categories B) occupational measures like the Strong Vocational are for the most part useless C) Most people are not pure personality types and thus can be best described by a distribution of types such as Realistic, Social, Investigative (RSI) D) a and b - CORRECT ANSWER C) Most people are not pure personality types and thus can be best described by a distribution of types such as Realistic, Social, Investigative (RSI) Holland believed that... A) a given occupations will tend to attract persons with similar personalities B) a given occupation will tend to attract persons with a very wide range of personality attributes C) one's personality is, for the most part, unrelated to one's occupational choice D) b and c - CORRECT ANSWER A) a given occupation will tend to attract persons with similar personalities Holland relied on a personality theory of career choice. Robert Happock's theory, based on the work of ____________ is also considered a personality approach A) Donald Super B) Robert Rosenthal C) David Wechsler D) Henry Murray - CORRECT ANSWER D) Henry Murray *Designed a theory to meet a person's need Developmental career theorists view career choice as an ongoing or so called longitudinal process rather than a single decision made at one point in time. The pioneer theorists in this area-who were the first to forsake the matching models-were A) Super and Roe B) Hoppock and Holland C) Ginzberg, Ginsburg, Axelrad, and Herma D) Brill and Bordin - CORRECT ANSWER C) Gizberg, Ginsburg, Axelrad and Herma Ginzberg and his colleagues now believe in a development model of career choice which asserts that... A) the process of choosing a career does not end at age 20 or adulthood B) career choice decisions are really made throughout the life span C) career choice is reversible D) all of the above - CORRECT ANSWER D) all of the above Initially, Ginzberg and his associates viewed career choice as irreversible and the result of compromises between wishes and realistic possibilities. This theory identified three stages of career development: A) informal, formal and concrete B) fantasy (birth-age 11), tentative (ages 11-17), and realistic (age 17 to early twenties) C) sensorimotor, formal and concrete D) oral, anal and phallic - CORRECT ANSWER B) fantasy, tentative and realistic The most popular developmental career theorist is Donald Super. Super emphasizes... A) id impulses B) the Critical Parent C) the self-concept D) ego strength - CORRECT ANSWER C) self-concept *Super and self-concept both start with "s" Super's life-span theory emphasizes __________ life stages... A) five B) four C) three D) nine - CORRECT ANSWER A) five *Growth (birth-4), Exploration (15-24), Establishment (24-44), Maintenance (44-64), and Decline (65+) Super's life-span theory includes... A) the life-career rainbow B) the life-career stars C) the life-career moon D) the life-career psychosis - CORRECT ANSWER A) the life-career rainbow Research into the phenomenon of career maturity reflects the work of... A) John Crites B) Anne Roe C) John Holland D) Nancy Schlossberg - CORRECT ANSWER A) John Crites The decision-making theory, which refers to periods of anticipation and implementation/adjustment, was proposed by... A) John O. Crites B) John Holland C) David TIedman and Robert O'Hara D) Donald Super - CORRECT ANSWER C) David Tiedman and Robert O'Hara John Krumboltz postulated a social learning approach to career choice. This model is based mainly on the work of... A) Joseph Wolpe B) Albert Bandura C) Donald Super D) Karen Homey - CORRECT ANSWER B) Albert Bandura The model Krumboltz suggested is... A) a human capital theory B) an accident theory of career development C) a status attainment theory D) a behavioristic model of career development - CORRECT ANSWER D) a behavioristic model of career development A counselor who favors a behavioristic mode of career counseling would most likely... A) analyze dreams related to jobs and/or occupations B) Give the client a standardized career test C) suggest a site visit to a work setting D) a and b - CORRECT ANSWER C) suggest a site visit to a work setting A fairly recent model to explain career development is the decision approach. The Gelatt Decision Model created by Harry B. Getlatt refers to information as "the fuel of the decision." The Gelatt Model asserts that information can be organized into three systems: A) predictive, value, and decision B) internal, external, and in-between C) predictive, external and internal D) internal and external - CORRECT ANSWER A) predictive, value and decision In the Gelatt Model the predictive system deals with... A) personal likes, dislikes and preferences B) personal rules C) alternatives and the probability of outcomes D) the Self-Directed Search - CORRECT ANSWER C) alternatives and the probability of outcomes Linda Gottfredson's developmental theory of career focuses on... A) fields and levels B) circumscription and compromise theory C) the career rainbow D) on the concept of career maturity, mainly - CORRECT ANSWER B) circumscription and compromise *Choice A=Anne Roe Choice C=Donald Super Choice D= John Crites The most effective method adults use to find jobs in the United States is... A) to see a state employment counselor for job leads B) to visit a private practice career counselor for job leads C) surfing the Web to find job leads D) securing information via ads in the newspaper - CORRECT ANSWER D) or C) When career counselors speak of the OOH they are referring to the... A) Occupational Options Handbook B) Occupational Outlook Handbook C) Career Options Occupational Titles D) Optional Occupations Handbook - CORRECT ANSWER B) Occupational Outlook Handbook At its zenith the DOT listed... A) approximately 10,000 job titles B) nearly 5,000 job titles C) approximately 20,000 job titles D) nearly 100,000 job titles - CORRECT ANSWER C) approximately 20,000 job titles In the 'Dictionary of Occupational Titles' each job was given a _________ digit code... A) nine B) eight C) six D) five - CORRECT ANSWER A) nine The DOT was first published by the U.S. Department of Labor in 1938. The first three digits in a DOT code referred to... A) an occupational group B) career options C) OOH data D) the transfer of skills - CORRECT ANSWER A) an occupational group You are working as a counselor for a major university. A student wants detailed statistics about the average wages in her state. The best resource would be... A) Richard N. Bolle's 'What Color is Your Parachute' B) the Bureau of Labor Statistics website C) any professional journal related to career counseling is inundated with articles of this nature D) 'Choices' and the System of Interactive Guidance and Information known as SIGI - CORRECT ANSWER B) the Bureau of Labor Statistics website A counselor who is interested in trends in the job market should consult the... A) State Department of Economic Regulation or the Department of Insurance, Financial Institutions, and Professional Regulations B) SOC C) SIC D) OOH - CORRECT ANSWER D) OOH *focuses on outlook and useful trends or predictions Gender issues impact career counseling such as career segregation. Men are over-represented in _______ positions while women often have ________ A) nursing; physician's positions B) pink-collar; executive positions C) CEO; positions as financial advisors D) labor and executive positions; pink-collar jobs - CORRECT ANSWER D) labor and executive positions; pink-collar jobs A counselor with a master's degree who is working for minimum wage at a fast-food restaurant due to a lack of jobs in the fields is a victim of... A) unemployment B) underemployment C) the phi phenomenon D) the risky shift phenomenon - CORRECT ANSWER B) underemployment According to the OOH, the highest-paying professional would be... A) a social worker B) a counselor C) a psychiatrist D) an I/O psychologist - CORRECT ANSWER C) a psychiatrist In a lifetime the average person has... A) 10-15 jobs B) two jobs C) a single job and stays with it for his or her entire career D) about five jobs - CORRECT ANSWER A) 10-15 jobs Self-efficacy theory is based on the work of... A) Anne Roe B) John Holland C) H.B. Gelatt D) Albert Bandura - CORRECT ANSWER D) Albert Bandura The System of Interactive Guidance and Information (SIGI) and Choices are... A) computer-assisted career guidance systems (CACG) B) Paper and pencil career tests C) career theories proposed in the 1940s D) computer systems which are slower to use than traditional texts such as the DOT or the OOH - CORRECT ANSWER A) computer-assisted career guidance systems (CACG) A client who likes her flower-arranging job begins doing flower arranging in her spare time on weekends and after work. This phenomenon is best described as... A) the contrast effect B) sublimation C) the compensatory effect D) spillover - CORRECT ANSWER D) spillover A male client who hates his job is trying desperately to be the perfect father, husband, and family man. This phenomenon is best described as... A) the recency effect B) the leniency/strictness bias C) the compensatory effect D) spillover - CORRECT ANSWER C) the compensatory effect The National Vocational Guidance Association was founded in 1913. It was fused with other organizations in 1952 to become the... A) APA B) AACD C) APGA D) NASW - CORRECT ANSWER C) APGA Lifestyle includes... A) work B) leisure C) style of living D) all of the above - CORRECT ANSWER D) all of the above The Strong Interest Inventory (SCII) is based on John Holland's theory. The test assumes that a person who is interested in a given subject will experience... A) satisfaction in a job with workers who have different interests B) satisfaction in a job with workers who have similar interests C) generalized anxiety if he or she is placed in a job where people have similar interests D) the best results if she or he finishes the inventory in one hour or less - CORRECT ANSWER B) satisfaction in a job with workers who have similar interests The Self-Directed Search (SDS) is... A) based on the work of Holland and yields scores on his six types B) self-administered C) self-scored and self-interpreted D) all of the above - CORRECT ANSWER D) all of the above At a case staffing, one career counselor says to another, "The client's disability suggests she can only physically handle sedentary work." This technically implies... A) the client will not need to lift over 10 pounds B) the client will not need to lift over 100 pounds C) the client will be standing a lot D) the client could walk or stand up to six hours daily - CORRECT ANSWER A) the client will not need to lift over 10 pounds The notion of the hidden job market would suggest that... A) most jobs will appear on college bulletin boards B) most jobs will appear in supermarket tabloids C) most jobs will appear in daily newspaper classified ads D) most jobs are not advertised - CORRECT ANSWER D) most jobs are not advertised The SDS score will reveal A) career aptitude B) the personality via projective measures C) the individual's three highest scores based on Holland's personality types D) spillover personality tendencies - CORRECT ANSWER C) the individual's three highest scores based on Holland's personality types As you walk into a professional seminar on career counseling you note that the instructor is drawing a hexagon on the blackboard. The instructor is most likely discussing... A) David Tiedeman B) John Holland C) Anne Roe D) John Crites - CORRECT ANSWER B) John Holland The Kruder Career Planning System (KCPS) would be appropriate for... A) K-12, postsecondary, and even adults B) children who have not completed the sixth grade C) kids who have taken the Peabody Picture Vocabulary Test (PPVT) D) high school students - CORRECT ANSWER A) k-12, postsecondary and even adults Some exams will split hairs and distinguish a dual-earner household form dual-career household or family. All the statements below are false except... A) dual-earner families have a better chance for advancement than dual-career families B) dual-earner families are more likely to have managerial or administrative jobs than dual-career families C) dual-career families earn more than dual-earner families D) dual-career families have less competition - CORRECT ANSWER C) dual-career families earn more than dual-earner families Occupational aptitude tests such as the Differential Aptitude Test (DAT), the Armed Services Vocational Aptitude Test Battery (ASVAB), and the O*NET Ability Profiler grew out of the... A) cognitive therapy movement B) humanistic psychology movement C) individual psychology movement D) trait-and-factor movement related to career counseling - CORRECT ANSWER D) trait-and-factor movement related to career counseling A client says she has always stayed home and raised her children. Now the children are grown and she is seeking employment. She is best described as... A) as a displaced homemaker B) as a victim of underemployment C) by conducting a job analysis D) as a victim of the hidden job market - CORRECT ANSWER A) as a displaced homemaker According to the concept of sex-wage or gender-wage discrimination... A) women make more than men for doing the same job B) women make less than men for doing the same job C) men and women make identical salaries thanks to legislation D) women who are seen as attractive still make 6% more than men for doing the same job - CORRECT ANSWER B) women make less than men for doing the same job According to the concept of occupational sex segregation... A) most women hold high-paying executive jobs B) most women hold low-paying jobs with low status C) most women hold jobs which require a college degree D) men still make considerably less than women - CORRECT ANSWER B) most women hold low-paying jobs with low status A counselor advises a female to steer clear of police work as he feels this is a male occupation. This suggests... A) positive transference B) negative transference C) counselor bias based on gender bias D) sex-wage discrimination - CORRECT ANSWER C) counselor bias based on gender bias Most research would suggest that a woman who has the same intelligence, skills, and potential as a man will often... A) make the same job choice as a man B) choose a supervisory position more often than a man C) have lower career aspirations than a man D) choose a career well above her ability level - CORRECT ANSWER C) have lower career aspirations than a man A displaced homemaker might have grown children or... A) be widowed and seeking employment B) be divorced and seeking employment C) a and b D) none of the above - CORRECT ANSWER C) a and b Midlife career change... A) is not than unusual B) is often discussed, but in reality is very rare C) would be extremely rare after the death of a spouse D) would be extremely rare after all the children leave home - CORRECT ANSWER A) is not that unusual The term 'reentry woman' would best describe... A) a 32-year old female police officer promoted to sergeant B) a 22-year old female teacher who becomes a school counselor C) a 59-year old female administrative assistant who switched positions for two years and will return to her job D) a 29- year old female who was babysitting in her home but is currently working at a fast-food restaurant - CORRECT ANSWER D) a 29-year old female who was babysitting in her home but is currently working at a fast-food restaurant A counselor doing multicultural career counseling should be aware... A) of own ethnocentric biases B) that Asian Americans rarely choose scientific careers C) that African American males will often choose enterprising jobs in terms of Holland's typology D) that career inventories have eliminated cultural biases - CORRECT ANSWER A) of own ethnocentric biases In terms of labor market.. A) music is very effective in increasing the workers' output B) the number of employees that employers want to hire goes down as salary goes up. C) the number of employees willing to work for an employer goes up as the salary increases D) b and c - CORRECT ANSWER D) b and c The career anchor theory was espoused by... A) Roe B) Tiedman and Ohara C) Schein D) Super and Savickas - CORRECT ANSWER C) Schein A career counselor who is helping a client design a resume... A) should downplay the value of the cover letter B) should emphasize that a lengthy resume is invariably more effective C) should emphasize the importance of listing height and weight data D) should emphasize the importance of a cover letter - CORRECT ANSWER D) should emphasize the importance of a cover letter The in-basket technique would be best... A) when you are on a hiring committee and assessing candidates for a managerial position B) when you are counseling an elementary school child in regard to future job choices and careers C) when you are counseling a senior in high school who is unsure whether to go to college D) when you are counseling a senior in college who is contemplating graduate school - CORRECT ANSWER A) when you are on a hiring committee and assessing candidates for a managerial position *in-basket=job simulation The concept of job clubs as promoted by Azrin et al. A) is very behavioristic B) is indicative of a client-centered approach C) is psychodynamic D) is appropriate, but not with disabled populations - CORRECT ANSWER A) is very behavioristic Which counselor would most likely say that we choose a job to meet our needs? A) Albert Ellis B) John O. Crites C) John Krumboltz D) Robert Hoppock - CORRECT ANSWER D) Robert Hoppock ALl of the following are difficulties with career testing except: A) stereotyping B) the tests all take at least three hours to administer C) the counselor may rely too heavily on test results D) Many tests are biased in favor of white middle-class clients - CORRECT ANSWER B) the tests all take at least three hours to administer According to the concept of sex-wage or gender-wage discrimination... A) women make more than men for doing the same job B) women make less than men for doing the same job C) men and women make identical salaries thanks to legislation D) women who are seen as attractive still make 6% more than men for doing the same job - CORRECT ANSWER Appraisal can be defined as... A) the process of assessing or estimating attributes B) testing which is always performed in a group setting C) testing which is always performed on a single individual D) a pencil and paper measurement of assessing attributes - CORRECT ANSWER A) the process of assessing or estimating attributes A test can be defines as a systematic method of measuring a sample behavior. Test format refers to the manner in which test items are presented. The format of an essay test is considered a(n) _________ format A) subjective B) objective C) very precise D) concise - CORRECT ANSWER A) subjective The National Counselor Exam (NCE) is a(n) ________ test because the scoring procedure is specific A) subjective B) objective C) projective D) subtest - CORRECT ANSWER B) objective A short answer test is a(n) _______ test A) subjective B) culture-free C) forced choice D) free choice - CORRECT ANSWER D) free choice The NCE and the CPCE would be examples of a(n) ______ test A) free choice B) forced choice C) projective D) intelligence - CORRECT ANSWER B) forced choice The _______ index indicates the percentage of individuals who answered each item correctly... A) difficulty B) critical C) intelligence D) personal - CORRECT ANSWER A) difficulty Short answer tests and projective measures utilize free response items. The NCE and the CPCE uses forced choice or so-called ______ items A) vaugue B) subjective C) recognition D) numerical - CORRECT ANSWER C) recognition A true/false test has _______ recognition items A) similar B) free choice C) dichotomous D) no - CORRECT ANSWER C) dichotomous A test format could be normative or ipsative. In the normative format... A) each item depends on the item before it B) each item depends on the item after it C) the client must possess an IQ within the normal range D) each item is independent of all other items - CORRECT ANSWER D) each item is independent of all other items *Ipsative measures compare traits within the same individual; they do not compare a personal to other persons who took the instrument A client who takes a normative test... A) cannot legitimately be compared to others who have taken the test B) can legitimately be compared to others who have taken the test C) could not have taken an IQ test D) could not have taken a personality test - CORRECT ANSWER B) can legitimately be compared to others who have taken the test In an ipsative measure the person taking the test must compare items to one another. The result is that... A) an ipsative measure cannot be utilized for career guidance B) you cannot legitimately compare two or more people who have take an ipsative test C) an ipsative measure is never forced choice format D) an ipsative measure is not reliable - CORRECT ANSWER B) you cannot legitimately compare two or more people who have take an ipsative test Tests are often classified as speed tests versus power tests. A timed typing test used to hire secretaries would be... A) a power test B) neither a speed test nor a power test C) a speed test D) a fine example of an ipsative measure - CORRECT ANSWER C) a speed test A counseling test consists of 300 forced response items. The person taking the test can take as long as he or she wants to answer the question A) this is most likely a projective measure B) this is most likely a speed test C) this is most likely a power test D) this is most likely an invalid measure - CORRECT ANSWER C) this is most likely a power test An achievement test measures maximum performance or present level of skill. Tests of this nature are also called attainment tests, while personality test or interest inventory measures A) typical performance B) minimum performance C) unconscious traits D) self-esteem by always relying on a Q-Sort design - CORRECT ANSWER A) typical performance In a spiral test... A) the items get progressively easier B) the difficulty of the items remains constant C) the client must answer each question in a specified period of time D) the items get progressively more difficult - CORRECT ANSWER D) the items get progressively more difficult In a cyclical test.. A) the items get progressively easier B) the difficulty of the items remains constant C) you have several sections which are spiral in nature D) the client must answer each question in a specified period of time - CORRECT ANSWER C) you have several sections which are spiral in nature A test battery is considered... A) a horizontal test B) a vertical test C) a valid test D) a reliable test - CORRECT ANSWER A) a horizontal act *several measures are used to produce results that could be more accurate than those derived from merely using a single source In a counseling research study, two groups of subjects took the test with the same name. However, when they talked with each other they discovered that the questions were different. The researcher assured both groups that they were given the same test. How is this possible? A) the researcher is not telling the truth. The groups could not possibly have taken the same test B) the test was horizontal C) the test was not a power test D) the researcher gave parallel forms of the same test - CORRECT ANSWER D) the researcher gave parallel forms of the same test *Parallel=two versions that are interchangeable The most critical factors in test selection are... A) the length of the test and the number of people who took the test in the morning B) horizontal versus vertical C) validity and reliability D) spiral versus cyclical format - CORRECT ANSWER C) validity and reliability Which is more important, validity or reliability? A) reliability B) the are equally important C) validity D) it depends on the test question - CORRECT ANSWER A) validity In the field of testing, validity refers to A) whether the test measures what it says to measure B) whether the same test gives consistent measurement C) the degree of cultural bias in a test D) the fact that numerous tests measure the same traits - CORRECT ANSWER A) whether the test measures what it says to measure A counselor peruses a testing catalog in search of a test which will repeatedly give consistent results. The counselor... A) is interested in reliability B) is interested in validity C) is looking for information which is not available D) is magnifying an unimportant issue - CORRECT ANSWER A) is interested in reliability Which measure would yield the highest level of reliability? A) a TAT, projective test popular with psychodynamic helpers B) The WAIS-IV, a popular IQ test C) The MMPI-2, a popular personality test D) a very accurate postage scale - CORRECT ANSWER D) a very accurate postage scale Construct validity refers to the extend that a test measures an abstract trait or psychological notion. An example would be A) height B) weight C) ego strength D) the ability to name all mean who have served as U.S. presidents - CORRECT ANSWER C) ego strength Face validity refers to the extent that a test... A) looks or appears to measure the intended attribute B) measures a theoretical construct C) appears to be constructed in an artistic fashion D) can be compared to job performance - CORRECT ANSWER A) looks or appears to measure the intended attribute A job test which predicted future performance on a job very well would A) have high criterion/predictive validity B) have excellent face validity C) have excellent construct validity D) not have incremental validity or synthetic validity - CORRECT ANSWER A) have high criterion/predictive validity A new IQ test which yielded results nearly identical to other standardized measures would be said to have A) good concurrent validity B) good face validity C) superb internal consistency D) all of the above - CORRECT ANSWER A) good concurrent validity *criterion validity=how well your test stacks up against a well-established instrument that measures the same behavior, construct or trait When a counselor tells a client that the Graduate Record Examination (GRE) will predict her ability to handle graduate work, the counselor is referring to A) good concurrent validity B) construct validity C) face validity D) predictive validity - CORRECT ANSWER D) predictive validity A reliable test is _____ valid A) always B) 90% C) not always D) 80% - CORRECT ANSWER C) not always *reliability determines the upper level of validity *All valid tests are reliable A valid test is _____ reliable A) not always B) always C) never D) 80% - CORRECT ANSWER B) always One method of testing reliability is to give the same test to the same group of people two times and then correlate the scores. This is called A) test-retest reliability B) equivalent forms reliability C) alternate forms reliability D) the split-half method - CORRECT ANSWER A) test-retest reliability One method of testing reliability is to give the same population alternate forms of the identical test. Each form will have the same psychometic/statistical properties as the original instrument. This is known as... A) test-retest reliability B) equivalent or alternate forms of reliability C) the split-half method D) internal consistency - CORRECT ANSWER B) equivalent or alternate forms of reliability A counselor doing research decided to split a standardized test in half by using the even items as one test and the odd items as a second test and then correlating them. The counselor... A) used an invalid procedure to test reliability B) was testing reliability via the split-half method C) was testing reliability via the equivalent forms method D) was testing reliability via the inter-rater method - CORRECT ANSWER B) was testing reliability via the split-half method Which method of reliability testing would be useful with an essay test but not with a test of algebra problems? A) test-retest B) alternate forms C) split-half D) inter-rater/inter-observer - CORRECT ANSWER D) inter-rater/inter-observer *scorer reliability A reliability coefficient of 1.00 indicates... A) a lot of variance in the test B) a score with a high level of error C) a perfect score which has no error D) a typical correlation on most psychological and counseling tests - CORRECT ANSWER C) a perfect score which has no error An excellent psychological or counseling test would have a reliability coefficient of A) 50. B) .90 C) 1.00 D) -.90 - CORRECT ANSWER B) .90 A researcher working with a personality test discovers that the test has a reliability coefficient of .70 which is somewhat typical. This indicates that... A) 70% of the score is accurate while 30% is inaccurate B) 30% of the people who are tested will receive accurate scores C) 70% of the people who are tested will receive accurate scores D) 30% of the score is accurate while 70% is inaccurate - CORRECT ANSWER A) 70% of the score is accurate while 30% is inaccurate A career counselor is using a test for job selection purposes. An acceptable reliability coefficient would be ______ or higher A) .20 B) .55 C) .80 D) .70 - CORRECT ANSWER C) .80 The same test is given to the same group of people using the test-retest reliability method. The correlation between the first and second administration is .70. The true variance is... A) 70% B) 100% C) 50% D) 49% - CORRECT ANSWER D) 49% *.70x.70=.49x100=49% IQ means A) a query of intelligence B) indication of intelligence C) intelligence quotient D) intelligence questions for test construction - CORRECT ANSWER C) intelligence quotient ________ did research and concluded that intelligence was normally distributed like height or weight and that it was primarily genetic... A) Spearman B) Guilford C) Williamson D) Galton - CORRECT ANSWER D) Galton Francis Galton felt intelligence was A) a unitary faculty B) best explained via a two factory theory C) best explained via the person's environment D) fluid crystallized in nature - CORRECT ANSWER A) a unitary faculty J. P. Guilford isolated 120 factors which added up to intelligence. He also is remembered for his A) thoughts on convergent and divergent thinking B) work on cognitive therapy C) work on behavior therapy D) work to create the first standardized IQ test - CORRECT ANSWER A) thoughts on convergent and divergent thinking A counselor is told by his supervisor to measure the internal consistency reliability of a test but not to divide the test in halves. The counselor would need to utilize A) the split-half method B) the test-retest method C) the Kuder-Richardson coefficients of equivalence D) cross-validation - CORRECT ANSWER C) the Kuder-Richardson coefficients of equivalence The first intelligence test was created by A) David Wechsler B) J. P. Guilford C) Francis Galton D) Alfred Binet and Theodore Simon - CORRECT ANSWER D) Alfred Binet and Theodore Simon Today, the Stanford-Binet IQ test is A) a nonstandardized measure B) a standardized measure C) a projective measure D) b and c - CORRECT ANSWER B) a standardized measure IQ stands for intelligence quotient, which is expressed by A) CA/MAx100 B) CA/MAx100 C) MA/CAx50 D) MA/CAx100 - CORRECT ANSWER D) MA/CAx100 The Binet stressed age-related tasks. Utilizing this method, a 9-year-old task would be one which A) only a 10-year-old child could answer B) only an 8-year-old child could answer C) 50% of the 9-year-olds could answer correctly D) 75% of the 9-year-olds could answer correctly - CORRECT ANSWER C) 50% of the 9-year-olds could answer correctly Simon and Binet pioneered the first IQ test around 1905. The test was created to... A) assess high school seniors in America B) assess U.S. military recruits C) discriminate children without an intellectual disability from children with an intellectual disability D) measure genius in the college population - CORRECT ANSWER C) discriminate children without an intellectual disability from children with an intellectual disability Today, the Stanford-Binet is used from age 2 to adulthood. The IQ formula has been replaced by the A) SAS B) SUDS C) entropy D) KR-20 formula - CORRECT ANSWER A) SAS *Standard age score Most experts would agree that the Wechsler IQ tests gained popularity, as the Binet A) must be administered in a group B) favored the geriatric population C) didn't seem to be the best test for adults D) was biased toward women - CORRECT ANSWER C) didn't seem to be the best test for adults The best IQ test for a 22-year-old single male would be the A) WPPSI-III B) WAIS-IV C) WISC-IV D) any computer-based IQ test - CORRECT ANSWER B) WAIS-IV *Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale for 16-90 years The best intelligence test for a sixth-grade girl would be the A) WPPSI-IV B) WAIS-IV C) WISC-IV D) Merrill-Palmer - CORRECT ANSWER C) WISC-IV *Wechsler Intelligence Scale for Children 6-16 years The best intelligence test for a kindergartner would be the A) WPPSI-IV B) WAIS-IV C) WISC-IV D) Myers-Briggs Type Indicator - CORRECT ANSWER A) WPPSI-IV The mean on the Wechsler and the Stanford-Binet Intelligence scales (SB5) is ______ and the standard deviation is ________ A) 100;100 B) 100; 15 Wechsler, 16 Standord-Binet C) 100;; 20 D) 100;1 - CORRECT ANSWER B) 100; 15 Wechsler, 16 Standord-Binet In a culture-fair test A) items are known to the subject regardless of his or her culture B) the test is not standardized C) culture-free items cannot be utilized D) African Americans generally score higher than whites - CORRECT ANSWER A) items are known to the subject regardless of his or her culture Black vs. white IQ controversy was sparked mainly by a 1969 article written by... A) John Ertl B) Raymond B. Cattell C) Arthur Jensen D) Robert Williams - CORRECT ANSWER C) Arthur Jensen The MMPI-2 is A) an IQ test B) a neurological test C) a projective personality test D) a standardized personality test - CORRECT ANSWER D) a standardized personality test The word 'psychometic' means A) a form of measurement used by a neurologist B) any form of mental testing C) a mental trait which cannot be measured D) the test relies on a summated or linear rating scale - CORRECT ANSWER B) any form of mental testing In a projective test the client is shown A) something which is highly reinforcing B) something which is highly charged from an emotional standpoint C) a and b D) neutral stimuli - CORRECT ANSWER D) neutral stimuli *Client will project personality if given an unstructured task The 16 PF reflects the work of A) Raymond B. Cattell B) Carl Jung C) James McKeen Cattell D) Oscar K. Buros - CORRECT ANSWER A) Raymond B. Cattell The Myers-Briggs Type Indicator reflects the work of A) Raymond B. Cattell B) Carl Jung C) William Glasser D) Oscar K. Buros - CORRECT ANSWER B) Carl Jung The counselor who favors projective measures would most likely be a A) Rogerian B) strict behaviorist C) TA therapist D) psychodynamic clinician - CORRECT ANSWER D) psychodynamic clinician An aptitude test is to _______ as an achievement test is to ________ A) what has been learned; potential B) potential; what has been learned C) profit from learning; potential D) a measurement of current skills; potential - CORRECT ANSWER B) potential; what has been learned Both the Rorschach and the Thematic Apperception Test (TAT) are projective tests. The Rorschach uses 10 inkblot cards while the TAT uses A) a dozen inkblot cards B) verbal and performance IQ scales C) pictures D) incomplete sentences - CORRECT ANSWER C) pictures Test bias primarily results from A) a test being normed solely on white middle-classs clients B) the use of projective measures C) using whites to score the test D) using IQ rather than personality tests - CORRECT ANSWER A) a test being normed solely on white middle-class clients A counselor who fears the client has an organic, neurological, or motoric difficulty would most likely use the A) Bender Gestalt II B) Rorschach C) Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory-2 D) Thematic Apperception Test - CORRECT ANSWER A) Bender Gestalt II *Expressive projective measure known for its ability to discern whether brain damage is evident An interest inventory would be least valid when used with A) a first-year college student majoring in philosophy B) a third-year college student majoring in physics C) en eighth-grade male with an IQ of 136 D) a 46-year-old white male construction worker - CORRECT ANSWER C) an eighth-grade male with an IQ of 136 *interest inventories work best with people who are of high school age or higher One major criticism of interest inventories is that A) they have far too many questions B) they are most appropriate for very young children C) they emphasize professional positions and minimize blue-collar jobs D) they favor jobs that will require a bachelor's degree or higher - CORRECT ANSWER C) they emphasize professional positions and minimize blue-collar jobs Interest inventories are positive in the sense that A) they are reliable and not threatening to the test taker B) they are always graded by the test taker C) they require little or no reading skills D) they have high validity in nearly all age brackets - CORRECT ANSWER A) they are reliable and not threatening to the test taker A counselor who had an interest primarily in testing would most likely be a member of A) HS-BCP B) AARC C) NASW D) ACES - CORRECT ANSWER B) AARC *Association for Assessment and Research in Counseling The NCE is A) an intelligence test B) an aptitude test C) a personality test D) an achievement test - CORRECT ANSWER D) an achievement test The ______ are examples of aptitude tests A) O*NET Ability Profilier and the MCAT B) GZTS and the MMPI-2 C) CPI and the MMPI-2 D) Strong and the LSAT - CORRECT ANSWER A) O*NET Ability Profilier and the MCAT One problem with interest inventories is that the person often tries to answer the questions in a socially acceptable manner. Psychometricians call this response style phenomenon A) standard error B) social desirability (the right way to feel in society) C) cultural bias D) acquiescence - CORRECT ANSWER B) social desirability An aptitude test predicts future behavior while an achievement test measures what you have mastered or learned. In the case of a test like the _______ the distinction is unclear A) Binet B) Wechsler C) GRE D) Bender - CORRECT ANSWER C) GRE Your supervisor wants you to find a new personality test for your counseling agency. You should read A) professional journals B) The Buros Mental Measurements Yearbook C) classic textbooks in the field as well as test materials produced by the testing company D) all of the above - CORRECT ANSWER D) all of the above The standard error of measurement tells you A) how accurate or inaccurate a test score is B) what population responds best to the test C) something about social loafing D) the number of people used in norming the test - CORRECT ANSWER A) how accurate or inaccurate a test score is A new IQ test has a standard error of measurement (SEM) of 3. Tom scores 106 on the test. If he takes the test a lot, we can predict that about 68% of the time A) Tom will score between 100 and 103 B) Tom will score between 100 and 106 C) Tom will score between 103 and 109 D) Tom will score higher than Betty who scored 139 - CORRECT ANSWER C) Tom will score between 103 and 109 A counselor created an achievement test with a reliability coefficient of .82. The test is shortened since many clients felt it was too long. The counselor shortened the test but logically assumed that the reliability coefficient would now A) be approximately .88 B) remain at .82 C) be at least 10 points higher or lower D) be lower than .82 - CORRECT ANSWER D) be lower than .82 *Increasing a test's length raises reliability A counselor can utilize psychological tests to help secure a ______ diagnosis if third-party payments are necessary A) CPT B) DSM or ICD C) percentile D) standard error - CORRECT ANSWER B) DSM or ICD A colleague of yours invents a new projective test. Seventeen counselors rated the same client using the measure and came up with nearly identical assessments. This would indicate A) high validity B) high reliability C) excellent norming studies D) culture fairness - CORRECT ANSWER B) high reliability Counselors often shy away from self-reports since A) clients often give inaccurate answers B) ACA ethics do not allow them C) clients need a very high IQ to understand them D) they are generally very lengthy - CORRECT ANSWER A) clients often give inaccurate anwers In most instances, who would be the best qualified to give the Rorschach Inkblot Test? A) a counselor with NCC after his or her name B) a clinical psychiatrist C) A D.O. psychiatrist D) a social worker with LCSW after his or her name - CORRECT ANSWER B) a clinical psychiatrist Your client, who is an outpatient hospital program, is keeping a journal of irrational thoughts. This would be A) an unethical practice based on NBCC ethical guidelines B) considered a standardized test C) an informal assessment technique D) an aptitude test - CORRECT ANSWER C) an informal assessment technique You are uncertain whether a test is intended for the population served by your not-for-profit agency. The best method of researching this dilemma would be to A) contact a local APA clinical psychology graduate program B) e-mail the person who created the test C) read the test manual included with the test D) give the test to six or more clients at random - CORRECT ANSWER C) read the test manual included with the test Clients should know that A) validity is more important than reliability B) projective tests favor psychodynamic theory C) face validity is not that important D) a test is merely a single source of data and not infallible - CORRECT ANSWER D) a test is merely a single source of data and not infallible One major testing trend is A) computer-assisted testing and computer interpretations B) more paper and pencil measures C) to give school children more standardized tests D) to train pastoral counselors to do projective testing - CORRECT ANSWER A) computer-assisted testing and computer interpretations One future trend which seems contradictory is that some experts are pushing for A) a greater reliance on tests while others want to rely on them less B) social workers to most of the testing C) psychiatrists do most of the testing D) counselors to ban all computer-assisted tests - CORRECT ANSWER A) a greater reliance on tests while others want to rely on them less Most counselors would agree that A) more preschool IQ testing is necessary B) teachers need to give more personality tests C) more public education is needed in the area of testing D) the testing mystique has been beneficial to the general public - CORRECT ANSWER C) more public education is needed in the area of testing ______ would be an informal method of appraisal A) IQ testing B) Standardized personality testing C) GRE scores D) a checklist - CORRECT ANSWER D) a checklist The WAIS-IV is given to 100,000 individuals in the US who are picked at random. A counselor would expect that A) approximately 68% would score between 85 and 115 B) approximately 68% would score between 70 and 130 C) the mean IQ would be 112 D) 50% of those tested would score 112 or above - CORRECT ANSWER A) approximately 68% would score between 85 and 115 *Mean is 100, SD is 15 A word association test would be an example of A) a neuropsychological test B) a motoric test C) an achievement test D) a projective test - CORRECT ANSWER D) a projective test Infant IQ tests are A) more reliable than those given later in life B) more unreliable than those given later in life C) not related to learning experiences D) never used - CORRECT ANSWER B) more unreliable than those given later in life A good practice for counselors is to A) always test the client yourself rather than referring the client for testing B) never generalize on the basis of a single test score C) stay away from culture-free tests D) stay away from scoring the test yourself - CORRECT ANSWER B) never generalize on the basis of a single test score You want to admit only 25% of all counselors to an advances training program in psychodynamic group therapy. The item difficulty on the entrance exam for applicants would be best set at A) 0.0 B) .5 regardless of the admission requirement C) 1.0 D) .25 - CORRECT ANSWER D) .25 According to Public Law 93-380, also known as the Buckley Amendment, a 19-year-old college student attending college A) could view her record, which included test data B) could view her daughter's infant IQ test given at preschool C) could demand a correction she discovered while reading a file D) all of the above - CORRECT ANSWER D) all of the above Lewis Terman A) constructed the Wechsler tests B) constructed the intitial Binet prior to 1910 C) constructed the Rorschach D) Americanized the Binet - CORRECT ANSWER D) Americanized the Binet In constructing a test you notice that all 75 people correctly answered item number 12. This gives you an item difficulty of A) 1.2 B) .75 C) 1.0 D) 0.0 - CORRECT ANSWER C) 1.0 Experiments emphasize parsimony, which means A) interpreting the results in the simplest way B) interpreting the results in the most complex manner C) interpreting the results using a correlation coefficient D) interpreting the results using a clinical interview - CORRECT ANSWER A) interpreting the results in the simplest way Occam's Razor suggests that experimenters A) interpret the results in the simplest manner B) interpret the results in the most complex manner C) interpret results using a correlation coefficient D) interpret the results using a clinical interview - CORRECT ANSWER A) interpret the results in the simplest manner A counselor educator is running an experiment to test a new form of counseling. Unbeknownst to the experimenter one of the clients in the study is secretly seeing a gestalt therapist. This experiment A) is parsimonious B) is an example of Occam's Razor C) is confounded/flawed D) is valid and will most likely help the field of counseling - CORRECT ANSWER C) is confounded/flawed Nondirective is person-centered as A) psychological testing is to counseling B) confounding is to experimenting C) appraisal is to research D) parsimony is to Occam's Razor - CORRECT ANSWER D) parsimony is to Occam's Razor An experiment is said to be confounded when A) undesirable variables are not kept out of the experiment B) undesirable variables are kept out of the experiment C) basic research is used in place of applied research D) the sample is random - CORRECT ANSWER A) undesirable variables are not kept out of the experiment In experimental terminology IV stands for ______ and DV stands for _____ A) independent variable; dependent variable B) dependent variable; independent variable C) Individual variable; dependent variable D) independent variable; designer variable - CORRECT ANSWER A) independent variable; dependent variable A professor of counselor education hypothesized that biofeedback training could reduce anxiety and improve the average score on written board exams. If this professor decides to conduct a formal experiment the IV will be the ________, and the DV will be the ________ A) professor; anxiety level B) anxiety level; board exam score C) biofeedback; board exam score D) board exam score; biofeedback - CORRECT ANSWER C) biofeedback; board exam score Experimenters should always abide by a code of ethics. The variable you manipulate/control in an experiment is the A) DV B) dependent variable C) the variable you will measure to determine the outcome D) IV or independent variable - CORRECT ANSWER D) IV In order for the professor of counselor education to conduct an experiment regarding his hypothesis he will need a(n) ____ and a(n) ______ A) biofeedback group; systematic desensitization group B) control group; systematic desensitization group C) control group; experimental group D) control group with at least 60 subjects; experimental group with at least 60 subjects - CORRECT ANSWER C) control group; experimental group In order for the professor of counselor education to conduct the experiment suggested, the experimental group would need to receive A) the manipulated IV B) the biofeedback training C) a and b D) the organismic IV - CORRECT ANSWER C) a and b Hypothesis testing is most closely related to the work of A) Robert Hoppock B) Sigmund Freud C) Lloyd Morgan D) R. A. Fisher - CORRECT ANSWER D) R. A. FIsher The null hypothesis suggests that there will not be a significant difference between the experimental group which received the IV and the control group which did not. Thus, if the experiment was conducted, the null hypothesis would suggest that A) all students receiving biofeedback training would score equally well on the board exam B) systematic desensitization might work better than biofeedback C) biofeedback will not improve the board exam scores D) meta-analysis is required - CORRECT ANSWER C) biofeedback will not improve the board exam scores The hunch is known as the experimental or alternative hypothesis. The experimental hypothesis suggests that a difference will be evident between the control group and the experimental group. Thus, if the experiment were conducted, the experimental hypothesis would suggest that A) the biofeedback would raise board scores B) the control group will score better on the board exam C) there will be no difference between the experimental and the control groups D) the experiment has been confounded - CORRECT ANSWER A) the biofeedback would raise board scores From a purely statistical standpoint, in order to compare a control group (which does not receive the IV or experimental manipulation) to the experimental group the researcher will need A) a correlation coefficient B) only descriptive statistics C) percentile rank D) a test of significance - CORRECT ANSWER D) a test of significance When you see the letter P in relation to a test of significance it means A) portion B) population parameter C) probability D) the researcher is using an ethnographic qualitative approach - CORRECT ANSWER C) probability In the social sciences the accepted probability level is usually A) .05 or less B) 1.0 or higher C) .0001 or less D) .05 or higher - CORRECT ANSWER A) .05 or less *two most popular levels significance are .05 and .01 p=.05 really means that A) five subjects were not included in the study B) there is only a 5% chance that the difference between the control group and the experimental groups is due to chance factors C) the level of significance is .01 D) no level of significance has been set - CORRECT ANSWER B) there is only a 5% chance that the difference between the control group and the experimental groups is due to chance factors p=.05 really means that A) differences truly exist; the experimenter will obtain the same results 95 times out of 100 B) differences truly exist; the experimenter will obtain the same result 99 times out of 100 C) there is a 95% error factor D) there is a 10% error factor - CORRECT ANSWER A) differences truly exist; the experimenter will obtain the same results 95 times out of 100 The study that would best rule out chance factors would have a significance level of P= A) .05 B) .01 C) .001 D) .08 - CORRECT ANSWER C) .001 Type I and Type II errors are called _______ and _________ respectively A) beta; alpha B) .01; .05 C) a and b D) alpha; beta - CORRECT ANSWER D) alpha; beta Type I error occurs when A) you have a beta error B) you accept null when it is false C) you reject null when it is true D) you fail to use a test of significance - CORRECT ANSWER C) you reject a null when it is true Type II error A) is also called a beta error B) means you reject null when it is applicable C) means you accept null when it is false D) a and c - CORRECT ANSWER D) a and c Assume the experiment is conducted. The results indicate that the biofeedback helped raise written board exam scores but in reality this is not the case. The researcher has made a A) Type I error B) Type II error C) beta error D) b and c - CORRECT ANSWER A) type I error A counselor educator decides to increase the sample size in her experiment. This will A) confound the experiment in nearly every case B) raise the probability of Type I and Type II errors C) have virtually no impact on Type I and Type II errors D) reduce Type I and Type II errors - CORRECT ANSWER D) reduce type I and type II errors If a researcher changes the significance level from .05 to .001, then A) alpha and beta errors will increase B) alpha errors will increase but beta errors decrease C) alpha errors decrease; however, beta errors increase D) this will have no impact on Type I and Type II errors - CORRECT ANSWER C) alpha errors decrease; however, beta errors increase A counselor believes that clients who receive assertiveness training will ask more questions in counseling classes. An experimental group receives assertiveness training while a control group does not. In order to test for significant differences between the groups the counselor should utilize A) a student's t test B) a correlation coefficient C) a survey D) an analysis of variance (ANOVA) - CORRECT ANSWER A) a student's t test The researcher now attempts a more complex experiment. One group receives no assertiveness training, a second group receives four assertiveness training sessions, and a third receives six sessions. The statistic of choice would be the A) mean B) t test C) two-way ANOVA D) ANOVA - CORRECT ANSWER D) ANOVA *Used when there is more than one IV If the researcher in the previous question utilized two IV's then the statistic of choice would be the A) median B) t test C) two-way ANOVA or MANOVA D) ANOVA - CORRECT ANSWER C) two-way ANOVA To complete a t test you would consult a tabled value of t. In order to see if significant differences exist in an ANOVA you would consult A) the mode B) a table for t values C) a table for F values D) the chi-square - CORRECT ANSWER C) a table for F values Which level of significance would best rule out chance factors? A) .05 B) .01 C) .2 D) .001 - CORRECT ANSWER D) .001 When a researcher uses correlation, then there is no direct manipulation of the IV. A researcher might ask, for example, how IQ correlates with the incidence of panic disorder. Again, nothing is manipulated; just measured. In cases such as this a correlation coefficient will reveal A) the relationship between IQ and panic disorder B) the probability that a significant difference exists C) an F test D) percentile rank - CORRECT ANSWER A) the relationship between IQ and panic disorder If data indicate that students who study a lot get very high scores on state counselor licensing exams, then the correlation between study time and LPC exam scored would be A) positive B) negative C) 0.00 D) impossible to ascertain - CORRECT ANSWER A) positive Which of the following would most likely yield a perfect correlation of 1.00? A) IQ and salary B) ICD diagnosis and salary C) Length in inches and length in centimeters D) height and weight - CORRECT ANSWER C) length in inches and length in centimeters A good guess would be that if you would correlate the length of CACREP graduates' baby toes with their CPCE scores the result would be A) close to 0.00 B) close to a perfect 1.00 C) close to a perfect negative correlation of -1.00 D) be about +.70 - CORRECT ANSWER A) close to 0.00 Dr. X discovered that the correlation between therapists who told NCC status and therapists who would practice systematic desensitization is .90. A student who perused NCC status causes therapists to become behaviorally oriented. The student is incorrect because A) systematic desensitization is clearly not a behavioral strategy B) this can only be determined via a histogram C) the study suffers from longitudinal and maturational effects D) correlation does not imply causal - CORRECT ANSWER D) correlation does not imply causal Behaviorists often utilize N=1, which is called intensive experimental design. The first step in this approach would be to A) consult a random number table B) decide on a nonparametric statistical test C) take a baseline measure D) compute the range - CORRECT ANSWER C) take a baseline measure In a new study the clients do not know whether they are receiving an experimental treatment for depression or whether they are simply part of the control group. This is, nevertheless, known to the researcher. Thus, this is a A) double-blind study B) single-blind study C) baseline for an intensive N=1 design D) participant observer model - CORRECT ANSWER B) single-blind study A large study at a major university gave an experimental group of clients a new type of therapy that was intended to ameliorate test anxiety. The control group did not receive the new therapy. Neither the clients nor the researchers knew which students received the new treatment. This was a A) double-blind study B) single-blind study C) typical AB design D) case of correlational research - CORRECT ANSWER A) double-blind study E Experimental is to cause and effect as correlational is to A) blind study B) double-blind study C) N=1 design D) degree of relationship - CORRECT ANSWER D) degree of relationship In a normal curve the mean, the median, and the mode all fall precisely in the middle of the curve. From a graphical standpoint the so-called normal or Gaussian curve looks like A) a symmetrical bell B) a top half of a bowling ball C) the top half of a hot dog D) a mountain which is leaning toward to the left - CORRECT ANSWER A) a symmetrical bell The most common measures of central tendency are the mean, the median, and the mode. The mode is A) the most frequently occurring score and the least-important measure of central tendency B) always 10% less than the mean C) the arithmetic average D) the middle score in the distribution of scores - CORRECT ANSWER A) the most frequently occurring score and the least-important measure of central tendency A bimodal distribution has two modes. Graphically this looks roughly like A) a symmetrical bell-shaped curve B) a camel's back with two humps C) the top half of a bowling ball D) a mountain which is learning toward the left - CORRECT ANSWER B) a camel's back with two humps In a basic curve or so-called frequency polygon the point of maximum concentration is the A) mean B) median C) mode D) range - CORRECT ANSWER C) mode The most useful measure of central tendency is the A) mean, often abbreviated by an X with a bar over it B) median, often abbreviated by Md. or Mdn. C) mode, often abbreviated by Mo D) point of maximum concentration - CORRECT ANSWER A) mean, often abbreviated by an X with a bar over it In a career counseling session an electrical engineer mentions three jobs he has held. The first paid $10 per hour, the second paid $30 per hour and the third paid a higher rate of $50 per hour. The counselors responds that the client is averaging $30 per hour. The counselor is using A) a Pearson Product-Moment Correlation coefficient B) a factorial design C) the harmonic mean D) the mean - CORRECT ANSWER D) the mean From a mathematical standpoint, the mean is merely the sum of the scores divided by the number of scores. The mean is misleading when A) the distribution is skewed B) the distribution has no extreme scores C) there are extreme scores D) a and c - CORRECT ANSWER D) a and c When a distribution of scores is not distributed normally, statisicians call it A) Gauss's curve B) a symmetrical bell-shaped curve C) a skewed distribution D) an invalid distribution - CORRECT ANSWER C) a skewed distribution A median is A) the middle score when the data are arranged from the highest to lowest B) the arithmetic average C) the most-frequent value obtained D) never more useful than the mean - CORRECT ANSWER A) the middle score when the data are arranged from the highest to lowest In a new experiment, a counselor educator wants to ferret out the effects of more than one IV. SHe will use a _______ design A) Pearson Product-Moment r B) Spearman rank order rho C) factorial D) Solomon four-group - CORRECT ANSWER C) factorial Regardless of the shape, the ______ will always be the high point when a distribution is displayed graphically A) degrees of freedom (df) B) mean C) median D) mode - CORRECT ANSWER D) mode A group of first-semester graduate students in counseling took an experimental counseling exam that was much more difficult than the NCE. All of the students scored very low. A distribution of their scores would A) always be a bimodal distribution B) be positively skewed C) be negatively skewed D) produce a curve with a long tail to the left side of the graph - CORRECT ANSWER B) be positively skewed Billy received an 82 on his college math final. This is Billy's raw score on the test. A raw score simply refers to the number of items correctly answered. A raw score is expressed in the units by which it was originally obtained. The raw score is not altered mathematically. Billy's raw score indicates that A) he is roughly a B student B) he answered 82% correctly C) his percentile rank is 82 D) more information is obviously necessary - CORRECT ANSWER D) more information is obviously necessary A distribution with class intervals can be graphically displayed via a bar graph also called a A) histogram B) sociogram C) genogram D) genus - CORRECT ANSWER A) histrogram When a horizontal line is drawn under a frequency distribution it is known as A) mesokurtic B) the y axis C) the ordinate D) the x axis - CORRECT ANSWER D) the x axis The x axis is used to plot the IV scores. The x axis could also be called the ______ on your exam A) y axis B) abscissa C) DV D) vertical axis - CORRECT ANSWER B) abscissa The y axis is used to plot the frequency of the DVs. The y axis could also be called the ______ on your exam A) ordinate B) abscissa C) IV D) horizontal axis - CORRECT ANSWER A) ordinate If a distribution is bimodal, then there is a good chance that A) the curve will be normal B) the curve will be shaped like a symmetrical bell C) the researcher is working with two distinct populations D) the researcher is useless in the field of counseling - CORRECT ANSWER C) the researcher is working with two distinct populations If an experiment can be replicated by others with almost identical findings, then the experiment is A) impacted by the observer effect B) said to be a naturalistic observation C) the result of ethological observation D) said to be reliable - CORRECT ANSWER D) said to be reliable The range is a measure of variance and usually is calculated by determining the difference between the highest and the lowest score. Thus, on a test where the top score was a 93 and the lowest score was a 33 out of 100, the range would be A) 61 B) 77 C) 59 D) more information is necessary - CORRECT ANSWER A) 61 *93-33+1 A sociogram is to a counseling group as a scattergram is to A) the normal curve B) the range C) a correlation coefficient D) the John Henry effect - CORRECT ANSWER C) a correlation coefficient A counselor educator is teaching two separate classes in individual inventory. In the morning class the counselor educator has 53 students in the afternoon class she has 177 students. A statistician would expect that the range of scores on a test would be A) a greater in the afternoon class than the morning class B) smaller in the afternoon class C) impossible to speculate about without more data D) nearly the same in either class - CORRECT ANSWER A) greater in the afternoon class than the morning class *Range increases with sample size The variance is a measure of dispersion of scores around some measure of central tendency. The variance is the standard deviation squared. A popular IQ test has a standard deviation of 15. A counselor would expect that if the mean IQ score is 100, then A) the average score on the test would be 122 B) 95% of the people who take the test will score between 85 and 115 C) 99% of the people who take the test will score between 85 and 115 D) 68% of the people who take the test will score between 85 and 115 - CORRECT ANSWER D) 68% of the people who take the test will score between 85 and 115 Using the data one could say that a person with an IQ score of 122 would fall within A) + or -1 SD of the mean B) the average IQ range C) an IQ score which is more that 2 SD above the mean D) + or -2 SD of the mean - CORRECT ANSWER D) + or -2 SD of the mean The SD is the square root of the variance. A z-score of +1 would be the same as A) 1 SD above the mean B) 1 SD below the mean C) the same as a so-called t-score D) the median score if the population is normal - CORRECT ANSWER A) 1 SD above the mean *Z-scores are the same as SD and z-scores are often called standard scores Z-scores are the same as standard deviations, thus a z-score of -2.5 means A) 2.5 SD below the mean B) 2.5 SD above the mean C) a CEEB score of 500 D) -.05% of the population falls within this area of the curve - CORRECT ANSWER A) 2.5 SD below the mean A t-score is different from a z-score. A z-score is the same as the SD. A t-score however, has a mean of 50 with every 10 points landing at a SD above or below the mean. Thus a t-score of 60 would equal +1 SD while a t-score of 40 would be A) -2 SD B) -1 SD C) a z-score of +2 D) a z-score of +1 - CORRECT ANSWER B) -1 SD an IQ score on an IQ test which was 3 SD above the mean would be A) about average B) slightly below the norm for adults C) approximately 110 D) very superior - CORRECT ANSWER D) very superior A platykurtic distribution would look approximately like A) the upper half of a bowling ball B) the normal distribution C) the upper half of a hot dog, lying on the side over the abscissa D) a camel's back - CORRECT ANSWER C) the upper half of a hot dog, lying on the side over the abscissa Test scores on an exam that fell below 3 SD of the mean or above 3 SD of the mean could be described as A) extreme B) very typical or within the average range C) close to the mean D) very low scores - CORRECT ANSWER A) extreme In WWII the Air Force used stanine scores as a measurement. Stanine scores divide the distribution into nine equal intervals with stanine 1 as the lowest ninth and 9 as the highest ninth. In this system 5 is the mean. Thus a Binet IQ score of 101 would fall in stanine A) 1 B) 9 C) 5 D) 7 - CORRECT ANSWER C) 5 There are four basic measurement scales: the nominal, ordinal, interval and the ratio. The nominal scale is strictly a qualitative scale. It is the simplest type of scale. It is used to distinguish logically separated groups. Which of the following illustrates the function of the nominal scale? A) a horse categorized as a second-place winner is a show B) a DSM or ICD diagnostic category C) an IQ score of 111 D) the weight of an Olympic barbell set - CORRECT ANSWER B) a DSM or ICD diagnostic category *nominal scale has no true zero point and does not indicate order The ordinal scale rank orders variables, though the relative distance between the elements is not always equal. An example of this would be A) a horse categorized as a second-place winner in a race B) an IQ score of 111 C) the weight of an Olympic barbell set D) a temperature of 78 degrees Fahrenheit - CORRECT ANSWER A) a horse categorized as a second-place winner in a race The interval scale has numbers scaled at equal distances but has no absolute zero point. Most tests used in school fall into this category. You can add and subtract using interval scaled but cannot multiply or divide. An example of this would be that A) an IQ of 70 points below an IQ of 140, yet a counselor could not assert that a client with an IQ of 140 is twice as intelligent as a client with an IQ of 70 B) a 20 lb weight is half as heavy as a 40 lb weight C) a first-place runner is three times as fast as the third-place finisher D) a baseball player with number 9 on his uniform can get 9 times more hits than player number 1 - CORRECT ANSWER A) an IQ of 70 points below an IQ of 140, yet a counselor could not assert that a client with an IQ of 140 is twice as intelligent as a client with an IQ of 70 A ratio scale is an interval scale with a true zero point. Ratio measurements are possible using this scale. Addition, subtraction, multiplication and division all can be utilized on a ratio scale. In terms of counseling research A) the ratio scale is the most practical B) all true studies utilize the ratio scale C) a and b D) most psychological attributes cannot be measured on a ratio scale - CORRECT ANSWER D) most psychological attributes cannot be measured on a ratio scale Pg 312 q. 777 - CORRECT ANSWER [Show More]

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