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NURS 314 Medical Surgical Nursing study questions – Texas University | NURS314 Medical Surgical Nursing study questions

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NURS 314 Medical Surgical Nursing study questions – Texas University Ch64 Questions 1. The nurse is caring for patients in a primary care clinic. Which individual is most at risk to develop os... teomyelitis caused by Staphylococcus aureus? A. 22-year-old female with gonorrhea who is an IV drug user B. 48-year-old male with muscular dystrophy and acute bronchitis C. 32-year-old male with type 1 diabetes mellitus and a stage IV pressure ulcer Correct D. 68-year-old female with hypertension who had a knee arthroplasty 3 years ago Osteomyelitis caused by Staphylococcus aureus is usually associated with a pressure ulcer or vascular insufficiency related to diabetes mellitus. Osteomyelitis caused by Staphylococcus epidermidis is usually associated with indwelling prosthetic devices such as joint replacements. Osteomyelitis caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae is usually associated with gonorrhea. Osteomyelitis caused by Pseudomonas is usually associated with IV drug use. Muscular dystrophy is not associated with osteomyelitis. 2. The nurse cares for a 58-year-old woman with breast cancer who is admitted for severe back pain related to a compression fracture. The patient’s laboratory values include serum potassium of 4.5 mEq/L, serum sodium of 144 mEq/L, and serum calcium of 14.3 mg/dL. Which signs and symptoms will the nurse expect the patient to exhibit? A. Anxiety, irregular pulse, and weakness B. Muscle stiffness, dysphagia, and dyspnea C. Hyperactive reflexes, tremors, and seizures D. Nausea, vomiting, and altered mental status Correct Breast cancer can metastasize to the bone. Vertebrae are a common site. Pathologic fractures at the site of metastasis are common because of a weakening of the involved bone. High serum calcium levels result as calcium is released from damaged bones. Normal serum calcium is between 8.6 to 10.2 mg/dL. Clinical manifestations of hypercalcemia include nausea, vomiting, and altered mental status (e.g., lethargy, decreased memory, confusion, personality changes, psychosis, stupor, coma). Other manifestations include weakness, depressed reflexes, anorexia, bone pain, fractures, polyuria, dehydration, and nephrolithiasis. Manifestations of hypomagnesemia include hyperactive reflexes, tremors, and seizures. Symptoms of hyperkalemia include anxiety, irregular pulse, and weakness. Symptoms of hypocalcemia include muscle stiffness, dysphagia, and dyspnea. 3. The nurse provides instructions to a 30-year-old female office worker who has low back pain. Which statement by the patient requires an intervention by the nurse? A. “Acupuncture to the lower back would cause irreparable nerve damage.” Correct B. “Smoking may aggravate back pain by decreasing blood flow to the spine.” C. “Sleeping on my side with knees and hips bent reduces stress on my back.” D. “Switching between hot and cold packs provides relief of pain and stiffness.” Acupuncture is a safe therapy when the practitioner has been appropriately trained. Very fine needles are inserted into the skin to stimulate specific anatomic points in the body for therapeutic purposes. 4. The nurse receives report from the licensed practical nurse about care provided to patients on the orthopedic surgical unit. It is most important for the nurse to follow up on which statement? A. “The patient who had a spinal fusion 12 hours ago has hypoactive bowel sounds and is not passing flatus.” B. “The patient who had cervical spine surgery 2 days ago wants to wear her soft cervical collar when out of bed.” C. “The patient who had spinal surgery 3 hours ago is complaining of a headache and has clear drainage on the dressing.” Correct D. “The patient who had a laminectomy 24 hours ago is using patient-controlled analgesia with morphine for pain management.” After spinal surgery there is potential for cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leakage. Severe headache or leakage of CSF (clear or slightly yellow) on the dressing should be reported immediately. The drainage is CSF if a dipstick test is positive for glucose. Patients after spinal surgery may experience paralytic ileus and interference with bowel function for several days. Postoperatively most patients require opioids such as morphine IV for 24 to 48 hours. Patient-controlled analgesia is the preferred method for pain management during this time. After cervical spine surgery patients often wear a soft or hard cervical collar to immobilize the neck. 5. The nurse prepares to administer IV ibandronate (Boniva) to a 67-year-old woman with osteoporosis. What is a priority laboratory assessment to make before the administration of ibandronate? A. Serum calcium B. Serum creatinine Correct C. Serum phosphate D. Serum alkaline phosphatase Ibandronate is a bisphosphonate that is administered IV every 3 months and is administered slowly over 15 to 30 seconds to prevent renal damage. Ibandronate should not be used by patients taking other nephrotoxic drugs or by those with severe renal impairment (defined as serum creatinine above 2.3 mg/dL or creatinine clearance less than 30 mL/min). 6. During a health screening event which assessment finding would alert the nurse to the possible presence of osteoporosis in a white 61-year-old female? A. The presence of bowed legs B. A measurable loss of height CORRECT C. Poor appetite and aversion to dairy products D. Development of unstable, wide-gait ambulation A gradual but measurable loss of height and the development of kyphosis or "dowager's hump" are indicative of the presence of osteoporosis in which the rate of bone resorption is greater than bone deposition. Bowed legs may be caused by abnormal bone development or rickets but is not indicative of osteoporosis. Lack of calcium and Vitamin D intake may cause osteoporosis but are not indicative it is present. A wide gait is used to support balance and does not indicate osteoporosis. 7. The nurse is reinforcing health teaching about osteoporosis with a 72-year-old patient admitted to the hospital. In reviewing this disorder, what should the nurse explain to the patient? a.  With a family history of osteoporosis, there is no way to prevent or slow bone resorption. b.  Continuous, low-dose corticosteroid treatment is effective in stopping the course of osteoporosis. c.  Estrogen therapy must be maintained to prevent rapid progression of the osteoporosis. d.  Even with a family history of osteoporosis, the calcium loss from bones can be slowed by increased calcium intake and exercise. Correct The rate of progression of osteoporosis can be slowed if the patient takes calcium supplements and/or foods high in calcium and engages in regular weight-bearing exercise. Corticosteroids interfere with bone metabolism. Estrogen therapy is no longer used to prevent osteoporosis because of the associated increased risk of heart disease and breast and uterine cancer. 8. The nurse determines that dietary teaching for a 75-year-old patient with osteoporosis has been successful when the patient selects which highest-calcium meal? a.  Chicken stir-fry with 1 cup each onions and green peas, and 1 cup of steamed rice b.  Ham and Swiss cheese sandwich on whole wheat bread, steamed broccoli, and an apple c.  A sardine (3 oz) sandwich on whole wheat bread, 1 cup of fruit yogurt, and 1 cup of skim milk Correct d.  A two-egg omelet with 2 oz of American cheese, one slice of whole wheat toast, and a half grapefruit The highest calcium content is present in the lunch containing milk and milk products (yogurt) and small fish with bones (sardines). Chicken, onions, green peas, rice, ham, whole wheat bread, broccoli, apple, eggs, and grapefruit each have less than 75 mg of calcium per 100 g of food. Swiss cheese and American cheese have more calcium, but not as much as the sardines, yogurt, and milk. 9. The nurse is caring for a patient admitted to the nursing unit with osteomyelitis of the tibia. Which symptom will the nurse most likely find on physical examination of the patient? a.  Nausea and vomiting b.  Localized pain and warmth Correct c.  Paresthesia in the affected extremity d.  Generalized bone pain throughout the leg Osteomyelitis is an infection of bone and bone marrow that can occur with trauma, surgery, or spread from another part of the body. Because it is an infection, the patient will exhibit typical signs of inflammation and infection, including localized pain and warmth. Nausea and vomiting and paresthesia of the extremity are not expected to occur. Pain occurs, but it is localized, not generalized throughout the leg. 10. A 54-year-old patient with acute osteomyelitis asks the nurse how this problem will be treated. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate? a.  "IV antibiotics are usually required for several weeks."Correct b.  "Oral antibiotics are often required for several months." c.  "Surgery is almost always necessary to remove the dead tissue that is likely to be present." d.  "Drainage of the foot and instillation of antibiotics into the affected area is the usual therapy." The standard treatment for acute osteomyelitis consists of several weeks of IV antibiotic therapy. This is because bone is denser and less vascular than other tissues, and it takes time for the antibiotic therapy to eradicate all of the microorganisms. Surgery may be used for chronic osteomyelitis, which may include debridement of the devitalized and infected tissue and irrigation of the affected bone with antibiotics. 11. A 67-year-old patient hospitalized with osteomyelitis has an order for bed rest with bathroom privileges with the affected foot elevated on two pillows. The nurse would place highest priority on which intervention? a.  Ambulate the patient to the bathroom every 2 hours. b.  Ask the patient about preferred activities to relieve boredom. c.  Allow the patient to dangle legs at the bedside every 2 to 4 hours. d.  Perform frequent position changes and range-of-motion exercises. Correct The patient is at risk for atelectasis of the lungs and for contractures because of prescribed bed rest. For this reason, the nurse should place the priority on changing the patient's position frequently to promote lung expansion and performing range-of-motion (ROM) exercises to prevent contractures. Assisting the patient to the bathroom will keep the patient safe as the patient is in pain, but it may not be needed every 2 hours. Providing activities to relieve boredom will assist the patient to cope with the bed rest, and dangling the legs every 2 to 4 hours may be too painful. The priority is position changes and ROM exercises. 12. The nurse identifies a nursing diagnosis of pain related to muscle spasms for a 45-year-old patient who has low back pain from a herniated lumbar disc. What would be an appropriate nursing intervention to treat this problem? a.  Provide gentle ROM to the lower extremities. b.  Elevate the head of the bed 20 degrees and flex the knees. Correct c.  Place the bed in reverse Trendelenburg with the feet firmly against the footboard. d.  Place a small pillow under the patient's upper back to gently flex the lumbar spine. The nurse should elevate the head of the bed 20 degrees and flex the knees to avoid extension of the spine and increasing the pain. The slight flexion provided by this position often is comfortable for a patient with a herniated lumbar disc. ROM to the lower extremities will be limited to prevent extremes of spinal movement. Reverse Trendelenburg and a pillow under the patient's upper back will more likely increase pain. 13. The nurse is admitting a patient who complains of a new onset of lower back pain. To differentiate between the pain of a lumbar herniated disc and lower back pain from other causes, what would be the best question for the nurse to ask the patient? a.  "Is the pain worse in the morning or in the evening?" b.  "Is the pain sharp or stabbing or burning or aching?" c.  "Does the pain radiate down the buttock or into the leg?" Correct d.  "Is the pain totally relieved by analgesics, such as acetaminophen (Tylenol)?" Lower back pain associated with a herniated lumbar disc is accompanied by radiation along the sciatic nerve and can be commonly described as traveling through the buttock, to the posterior thigh, or down the leg. This is because the herniated disc causes compression on spinal nerves as they exit the spinal column. Time of occurrence, type of pain, and pain relief questions do not elicit differentiating data. 14. The nurse is admitting a patient to the nursing unit with a history of a herniated lumbar disc and low back pain. In completing a more thorough pain assessment, the nurse should ask the patient if which action aggravates the pain? a.  Bending or lifting Correct b.  Application of warm moist heat c.  Sleeping in a side-lying position d.  Sitting in a fully extended recliner Back pain that is related to a herniated lumbar disc often is aggravated by events and activities that increase the stress and strain on the spine, such as bending or lifting, coughing, sneezing, and lifting the leg with the knee straight (straight leg-raising test). Application of moist heat, sleeping position, and ability to sit in a fully extended recliner do not aggravate the pain of a herniated lumbar disc. 15. The nurse has reviewed proper body mechanics with a patient with a history of low back pain caused by a herniated lumbar disc. Which statement made by the patient indicates a need for further teaching? a.  "I should sleep on my side or back with my hips and knees bent." b.  "I should exercise at least 15 minutes every morning and evening." c.  "I should pick up items by leaning forward without bending my knees." Correct d.  "I should try to keep one foot on a stool whenever I have to stand for a period of time." The patient should avoid leaning forward without bending the knees. Bending the knees helps to prevent lower back strain and is part of proper body mechanics when lifting. Sleeping on the side or back with hips and knees bent and standing with a foot on a stool will decrease lower back strain. Back strengthening exercises are done twice a day once symptoms subside. 16. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate when turning a patient following spinal surgery? a.  Placing a pillow between the patient's legs and turning the body as a unit Correct b.  Having the patient turn to the side by grasping the side rails to help turn over c.  Elevating the head of bed 30 degrees and having the patient extend the legs while turning d.  Turning the patient's head and shoulders and then the hips, keeping the patient's body centered in the bed Placing a pillow between the legs and turning the patient as a unit (logrolling) helps to keep the spine in good alignment and reduces pain and discomfort following spinal surgery. Having the patient turn by grasping the side rail to help, elevating the head of the bed, and turning with extended legs or turning the patient's head and shoulders and then the hips will not maintain proper spine alignment and may cause damage. 17. The nurse is planning health promotion teaching for a 45-year-old patient with asthma, low back pain from herniated lumbar disc, and schizophrenia. What does the nurse determine would be the best exercise to include in an individualized exercise plan for the patient? a.  Yoga b.  Walking Correct c.  Calisthenics d.  Weight lifting The patient would benefit from an aerobic exercise that takes into account the patient's health status and fits the patient's lifestyle. The best exercise is walking, which builds strength in the back and leg muscles without putting undue pressure or strain on the spine. Yoga, calisthenics, and weight lifting would all put pressure on or strain the spine. 18. The nurse is caring for a patient hospitalized with exacerbation of chronic bronchitis and herniated lumbar disc. Which breakfast choice would be most appropriate for the nurse to encourage the patient to check on the breakfast menu? a.  Bran muffin Correct b.  Scrambled eggs c.  Puffed rice cereal d.  Buttered white toast Each meal should contain one or more sources of fiber, which will reduce the risk of constipation and straining with defecation, which increases back pain. Bran is typically a high-fiber food choice and is appropriate for selection from the menu. Scrambled eggs, puffed rice cereal, and buttered white toast do not have as much fiber. 19. The 24-year-old male patient who was successfully treated for Paget's disease has come to the clinic with a gradual onset of pain and swelling around the left knee. The patient is diagnosed with osteosarcoma without metastasis. The patient wants to know why he will be given chemotherapy before the surgery. What is the best rationale the nurse should tell the patient? a.  The chemotherapy is being used to save your left leg. b.  Chemotherapy is being used to decrease the tumor size. Correct c.  The chemotherapy will increase your 5-year survival rate. d.  Chemotherapy will help decrease the pain before and after surgery. Preoperative chemotherapy is used to decrease tumor size before surgery. The chemotherapy will not save his leg if the lesion is too big or there is neurovascular or muscle involvement. Adjunct chemotherapy after amputation or limb salvage has increased 5-year survival rate in people without metastasis. Chemotherapy is not used to decrease pain before or after surgery. 20. When the patient is diagnosed with muscular dystrophy, what information should the nurse include in the teaching about this disorder? a.  Prolonged bed rest will be used to decrease fatigue. b.  An orthotic jacket will limit mobility and may contribute to deformity. c.  Continuous positive airway pressure will be used to facilitate sleeping. d.  Remain active to prevent skin breakdown and respiratory complications. Correct With muscular dystrophy, it is important for the patient to remain active for as long as possible. Prolonged bed rest should be avoided because immobility leads to further muscle wasting. An orthotic jacket may be used to provide stability and prevent further deformity. Continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) is used as respiratory function decreases, before mechanical ventilation is needed to sustain respiratory function. - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - 1. When teaching the patient with acute hepatitis C (HCV), the patient demonstrates understanding when the patient makes which statement? A.  "I will use care when kissing my wife to prevent giving it to her." B.  "I will need to take adofevir (Hepsera) to prevent chronic HCV." C.  "Now that I have had HCV, I will have immunity and not get it again." D.  "I will need to be checked for chronic HCV and other liver problems." Correct The majority of patients who acquire HCV usually develop chronic infection, which may lead to cirrhosis or liver cancer. HCV is not transmitted via saliva, but percutaneously and via high-risk sexual activity exposure. The treatment for acute viral hepatitis focuses on resting the body and adequate nutrition for liver regeneration. Adofevir (Hepsera) is taken for severe hepatitis B (HBV) with liver failure. Chronic HCV is treated with pegylated interferon with ribavirin. Immunity with HCV does not occur as it does with HAV and HBV, so the patient may be reinfected with another type of HCV. 2. The patient with cirrhosis has an increased abdominal girth from ascites. The nurse should know that this fluid gathers in the abdomen for which reasons (select all that apply)? A.  There is decreased colloid oncotic pressure from the liver's inability to synthesize albumin. Correct B.  Hyperaldosteronism related to damaged hepatocytes increases sodium and fluid retention. Correct C.  Portal hypertension pushes proteins from the blood vessels, causing leaking into the peritoneal cavity. Correct D.  Osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus stimulate thirst, which causes the stimulation to take in fluids orally. E.  Overactivity of the enlarged spleen results in increased removal of blood cells from the circulation, which decreases the vascular pressure. The ascites related to cirrhosis are caused by decreased colloid oncotic pressure from the lack of albumin from liver inability to synthesize it and the portal hypertension that shifts the protein from the blood vessels to the peritoneal cavity, and hyperaldosteronism which increases sodium and fluid retention. The intake of fluids orally and the removal of blood cells by the spleen do not directly contribute to ascites. 3. The patient with cirrhosis is being taught self-care. Which statement indicates the patient needs more teaching? A.  "If I notice a fast heart rate or irregular beats, this is normal for cirrhosis." Correct B.  "I need to take good care of my belly and ankle skin where it is swollen." C.  "A scrotal support may be more comfortable when I have scrotal edema." D.  "I can use pillows to support my head to help me breathe when I am in bed." If the patient with cirrhosis experiences a fast or irregular heart rate, it may be indicative of hypokalemia and should be reported to the health care provider, as this is not normal for cirrhosis. Edematous tissue is subject to breakdown and needs meticulous skin care. Pillows and a semi-Fowler's or Fowler's position will increase respiratory efficiency. A scrotal support may improve comfort if there is scrotal edema. 4. The patient with a history of lung cancer and hepatitis C has developed liver failure and is considering liver transplantation. After the comprehensive evaluation, the nurse knows that which factor discovered may be a contraindication for liver transplantation? A.  Has completed a college education B.  Has been able to stop smoking cigarettes C.  Has well-controlled type 1 diabetes mellitus D.  The chest x-ray showed another lung cancer lesion. Correct Contraindications for liver transplant include severe extrahepatic disease, advanced hepatocellular carcinoma or other cancer, ongoing drug and/or alcohol abuse, and the inability to comprehend or comply with the rigorous post-transplant course. 5. The patient with sudden pain in the left upper quadrant radiating to the back and vomiting was diagnosed with acute pancreatitis. What intervention(s) should the nurse expect to include in the patient's plan of care? A.  Immediately start enteral feeding to prevent malnutrition. B.  Insert an NG and maintain NPO status to allow pancreas to rest. Correct C.  Initiate early prophylactic antibiotic therapy to prevent infection. D.  Administer acetaminophen (Tylenol) every 4 hours for pain relief. Initial treatment with acute pancreatitis will include an NG tube if there is vomiting and being NPO to decrease pancreatic enzyme stimulation and allow the pancreas to rest and heal. Fluid will be administered to treat or prevent shock. The pain will be treated with IV morphine because of the NPO status. Enteral feedings will only be used for the patient with severe acute pancreatitis in whom oral intake is not resumed. Antibiotic therapy is only needed with acute necrotizing pancreatitis and signs of infection. 6. The patient with suspected pancreatic cancer is having many diagnostic studies done. Which one can be used to establish the diagnosis of pancreatic adenocarcinoma and for monitoring the response to treatment? A.  Spiral CT scan B.  A PET/CT scan C.  Abdominal ultrasound D.  Cancer-associated antigen 19-9 Correct The cancer-associated antigen 19-9 (CA 19-9) is the tumor marker used for the diagnosis of pancreatic adenocarcinoma and for monitoring the response to treatment. Although a spiral CT scan may be the initial study done and provides information on metastasis and vascular involvement, this test and the PET/CT scan or abdominal ultrasound do not provide additional information. 7. When providing discharge teaching for the patient after a laparoscopic cholecystectomy, what information should the nurse include? A.  A lower-fat diet may be better tolerated for several weeks. Correct B.  Do not return to work or normal activities for 3 weeks. C.  Bile-colored drainage will probably drain from the incision. D.  Keep the bandages on and the puncture site dry until it heals. Although the usual diet can be resumed, a low-fat diet is usually better tolerated for several weeks following surgery. Normal activities can be gradually resumed as the patient tolerates. Bile-colored drainage or pus, redness, swelling, severe pain, and fever may all indicate infection. The bandage may be removed the day after surgery, and the patient can shower. 8. The nurse is caring for a woman recently diagnosed with viral hepatitis A. Which individual should the nurse refer for an immunoglobin (IG) injection? A.  A caregiver who lives in the same household with the patient Correct B.  A friend who delivers meals to the patient and family each week C.  A relative with a history of hepatitis A who visits the patient daily D.  A child living in the home who received the hepatitis A vaccine 3 months ago IG is recommended for persons who do not have anti-HAV antibodies and are exposed as a result of close contact with persons who have HAV or foodborne exposure. Persons who have received a dose of HAV vaccine more than 1 month previously or who have a history of HAV infection do not require IG. 9. The nurse provides discharge instructions for a 64-year-old woman with ascites and peripheral edema related to cirrhosis. Which statement, if made by the patient, indicates teaching was effective? A.  “It is safe to take acetaminophen up to four times a day for pain.” B.  “Lactulose (Cephulac) should be taken every day to prevent constipation.” C.  “Herbs and other spices should be used to season my foods instead of salt.” Correct D.  “I will eat foods high in potassium while taking spironolactone (Aldactone).” A low-sodium diet is indicated for the patient with ascites and edema related to cirrhosis. Table salt is a well-known source of sodium and should be avoided. Alternatives to salt to season foods include the use of seasonings such as garlic, parsley, onion, lemon juice, and spices. Pain medications such as acetaminophen, aspirin, and ibuprofen should be avoided as these medications may be toxic to the liver. The patient should avoid potentially hepatotoxic over-the-counter drugs (e.g., acetaminophen) because the diseased liver is unable to metabolize these drugs. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic. Lactulose results in the acidification of feces in bowel and trapping of ammonia, causing its elimination in feces. 10. The nurse is caring for a 55-year-old man patient with acute pancreatitis resulting from gallstones. Which clinical manifestation would the nurse expect the patient to exhibit? A.  Hematochezia B.  Left upper abdominal pain Correct C.  Ascites and peripheral edema D.  Temperature over 102o F (38.9o C) Abdominal pain (usually in the left upper quadrant) is the predominant manifestation of acute pancreatitis. Other manifestations of acute pancreatitis include nausea and vomiting, low-grade fever, leukocytosis, hypotension, tachycardia, and jaundice. Abdominal tenderness with muscle guarding is common. Bowel sounds may be decreased or absent. Ileus may occur and causes marked abdominal distention. Areas of cyanosis or greenish to yellow-brown discoloration of the abdominal wall may occur. Other areas of ecchymoses are the flanks (Grey Turner’s spots or sign, a bluish flank discoloration) and the periumbilical area (Cullen’s sign, a bluish periumbilical discoloration). 11. The nurse is caring for a group of patients. Which patient is at highest risk for pancreatic cancer? A.  A 38-year-old Hispanic female who is obese and has hyperinsulinemia B.  A 23-year-old who has cystic fibrosis–related pancreatic enzyme insufficiency C.  A 72-year-old African American male who has smoked cigarettes for 50 years Correct D.  A 19-year-old who has a 5-year history of uncontrolled type 1 diabetes mellitus Risk factors for pancreatic cancer include chronic pancreatitis, diabetes mellitus, age, cigarette smoking, family history of pancreatic cancer, high-fat diet, and exposure to chemicals such as benzidine. African Americans have a higher incidence of pancreatic cancer than whites. The most firmly established environmental risk factor is cigarette smoking. Smokers are two or three times more likely to develop pancreatic cancer as compared with nonsmokers. The risk is related to duration and number of cigarettes smoked. 12. The nurse instructs a 50-year-old woman about cholestyramine to reduce pruritis caused by gallbladder disease. Which statement by the patient to the nurse indicates she understands the instructions? A.  “This medication will help me digest fats and fat-soluble vitamins.” B.  “I will apply the medicated lotion sparingly to the areas where I itch.” C.  “The medication is a powder and needs to be mixed with milk or juice.” Correct D.  “I should take this medication on an empty stomach at the same time each day.” For treatment of pruritus, cholestyramine may provide relief. This is a resin that binds bile salts in the intestine, increasing their excretion in the feces. Cholestyramine is in powder form and should be mixed with milk or juice before oral administration. 














 













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