650+ Q&A> ACE Health Coach Exam Bank Guide for Certification.

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ACE Health Coach Exam Bank Guide for Certification. 1. Which of the following aptitudes related to health improvement involves creating a sense of autonomy, competence, and relatedness to life? a.... The ability to enjoy b. The ability to choose c. The ability to keep developing d. The ability to see meaning 2. From a coaching perspective, what is often a major limitation for client success? a. A client's inner critical voice b. A client's listening skills c. A client's lack of knowledge d. A client's schedule 3. Which of the following terms represents the ability to recognize one's own feelings, as well as the feelings of others? a. Psychological intelligence b. Emotional intelligence c. Behavioral intelligence d. Interpersonal intelligence 4. Which of the following components of emotional intelligence involves understanding the emotions, needs, and concerns of others? a. Self-awareness b. Self-regulation c. Empathy d. Social skills 5. Jason is a successful health coach who enjoys a very full schedule working with a variety of clients. When asked about why they think Jason is so good at his job, his clients often report that Jason communicates clearly, makes them feel like they are part of a cooperative team, and inspires them to work hard. These characteristics describe which competency within the arena of emotional intelligence? a. Self-awareness b. Self-regulation c. Empathy d. Social skills 6. When Susan meets with her health coach, Matthew, she appreciates how Matthew summarizes what she says and then asks if there is anything that was misunderstood in his summary. What communication skill is Matthew using in this situation? a. Active listening b. Motivational interviewing c. Positive listening d. Empathetic questioning 7. If a client perceives changing his or her eating habits as unbearable because of the feeling of having to give everything up at once, he or she is likely suffering from a type of cognitive style called _______________. a. Full-preference thinking b. Dissociative disorder c. Neuro-linguistic programming d. Absolutistic demanding 8. Which of the following fields of practice is most similar to what health coaches offer to clients in their services? a. Personal/life coaching b. Family counseling c. Sports performance coaching d. Behavioural counselling 9. Which response best describes a health coach's role in facilitating behavioral change? a. A health coach directs the behavior to be changed b. A health coach develops the plan of action for change c. A health coach creates the environment to foster change d. A health coach manages the rewards and consequences as a result of change 10. If a client has an uncontrolled chronic condition (such as diabetes) or a history of diet failures or weight-cycling, a referral to which of the following healthcare professionals would be most appropriate? a. Registered dietitian b. Licensed behavioral specialist c. Nutritionist d. Occupational therapist 11. Renee is a health coach who works with many clients who have chronic health conditions. She communicates regularly with her clients' physicians to keep them informed of their progress in her programs. In her communications, Renee is careful to document client measurements and any noticeable symptoms, which are characteristics of what element of the SOAP note? a. Subjective b. Objective c. Assessment d. Plan 12. If, for whatever reason, the client-health coach relationship must be discontinued, which of the following responses represents the best exit strategy for the health coach? a. Hiring a lawyer to communicate with the client that the business relationship is no longer tenable for the parties b. Stating upfront that if certain landmarks are not achieved within a particular agreed-upon timeframe, the relationship may need to be terminated c. Providing a full refund for any services rendered to the client in exchange for future referrals to the health coach's business d. Recommending that the client seek his or her own professional help elsewhere due to an inability to resolve conflict 13. Knowing your own capabilities, having integrity, taking responsibility for results, and having a clear intent are components of what kind of trust when developing the foundation of a relationship? a. Relationship trust b. Self-trust c. Character trust d. Rapport trust 14. Which of the following communication components involves creating a carefully constructed message so that the intent of the communication is understood? a. Planning b. Encoding c. Decoding d. Offering feedback 15. Tory is a new client who enjoys helping others and is not comfortable making quick decisions. During your initial interview with Tory, she reveals that she is very focused on her relationships with her family and friends and that she spends much of her free time helping them in various ways. Which personality type best describes Tory? a. Dominant b. Cautious c. Inspiring d. Supportive 16. Abbey is a research scientist at a chemical company. Upon hiring a health coach to help her manage her weight and improve her eating habits, she explains that she is skeptical of most weight-loss programs and would like to see any peer-reviewed research that supports the health coach's recommendations. Which personality type best describes Abbey? a. Dominant b. Cautious c. Inspiring d. Supportive 17. According to early research on factors involved when conveying a message, approximately what total percentage of the message communicated is made up of nonverbal language? a. 17 b. 38 c. 55 d. 90 18. During the initial goal-setting process, Danny asks his client, Sarah, the following questions: "How have things changed for you because of your weight? What do you believe will happen if you continue as you are now? If things were to improve, what needs to be different? What do you believe are the costs of changing and the benefits of changing?" What type of investigatory technique is Danny using to evoke thoughtful responses from Sarah? a. Motivational interviewing b. Funnel-type questioning c. Empathetic interviewing d. Leading questioning 19. When health coaches encourage clients to engage in regular physical activity, make healthy nutrition choices, and properly manage emotional stress, they are facilitating a reduced risk of _______________. a. Behavioral relapses b. Musculoskeletal injuries c. Nutritional deficiencies d. Hypokinetic diseases 20. Within the medical fitness field's continuum of care, at what point does the health coach typically begin to work with a client? a. Before the client receives any medical attention b. When the client initiates primary care with a physician c. During the period when the client is seeing a physical therapist d. When the client is ready for post-rehabilitation or post-medical care services 21. Which of the following factors of operant conditioning heavily influences behavioral outcomes and occurs after a behavior is executed? a. Antecedents b. Response consequences c. Stimulus control d. Social support 22. The cornerstone of cognitive behavioral therapy is that a client's ____________ determine how he or she behaves, not the external events that actually take place. a. Actions b. Demographics c. Attitudes d. Beliefs 23. Jim has been hearing a lot from his friend, Mike, about Mike's new health coach. Currently, Jim engages in a sporadic walk, or even a visit to the gym, but he is very inconsistent with physical activity. Jim often asks Mike about specifics for creating his own plan. Mike suggests that Jim set up an appointment with his health coach to investigate weight-loss programs, health clubs, and planning how a diet and/or exercise program can fit into his lifestyle and schedule. Jim tells Mike he will arrange to meet with Mike's health coach. In what stage of change is Jim? a. Precontemplation b. Contemplation c. Preparation d. Action 24. During a brief encounter at a health fair where Elizabeth is promoting her services as a health coach, she asks her potential new client, Jack, "On a scale of 1 to 10, how ready do you believe you are to make this change or adopt this healthy behavior?" Jack answers, "I'd say about a 3." Based on his answer, in which stage of change would you categorize Jack? a. Precontemplation b. Contemplation c. Preparation d. Action 25. Which of the following strategies would be most appropriate for a client who has been working on incorporating physical activity into his lifestyle and has made it to the maintenance stage of behavior change? a. Plan for potential lapses b. Reiterate the long-term benefits of adherence c. Explain and personalize the inherent risks of physical activity d. Help the client identify social support 26. _______________ can act as both a determinant and an outcome of behavioral change. a. Self-determination b. Self-esteem c. Self-efficacy d. Self-confidence 27. Before shopping, Jessica makes a grocery list and avoids purchasing non-listed items, with the intent that if poor quality food is not in the house, it will not be eaten. Jessica is using which of the following strategies to facilitate healthy eating? a. Shaping b. Stimulus control c. Goal-setting d. Extrinsic feedback 28. When Jack was in elementary school, he participated in physical education activities only because he had to, simply to avoid punishment. Today, Jack has a career as a health coach and participates in daily exercise because he truly enjoys the way it makes him feel while he is doing it. Which of the following types of motivation best describes Jack's physical-activity experiences when he was a child? a. Integrated regulation b. Identified regulation c. Introjected regulation d. External regulation 29. Paul, a very busy accountant, has a goal of incorporating exercise into his daily schedule. When tax season approaches, Paul knows his schedule will become even more hectic and as each day wears on, his work-related list of responsibilities typically gets longer. Based on available research conducted on the topic of self-control, which of the following responses would be the best approach to help Paul stick to his exercise plan? a. Plan to block out the lunch hour and reserve it for daily workouts b. Schedule daily workouts at the fitness center on the way home from work c. Plan to fit in "mini" exercise sessions between meetings with clients throughout the day d. Schedule daily morning exercise sessions, before the workday starts 30. Which of the following statements is least accurate regarding an individual's self-control? a. Self-control is a limited resource b. The force of habit requires a high level self-control c. Coping with stress requires a certain level of self-control d. Self-control appears to be renewed daily 31. _______________ is the most common reason that people abandon their plans to change behavior. a. A busy schedule b. Stress c. Depression d. Lack of knowledge 32. Which of the following lifestyle-modification strategies deals specifically with helping clients achieve success early in their programs by setting realistic goals that they can reasonably accomplish? a. Strengthen autonomous motivation to change b. Increase readiness to change c. Encourage clients to modify environmental cues d. Look for ways to increase self-efficacy 33. Janna has said in the past, "I must be perfect in my weight-control behaviors." Recently, she has been guided by a health coach to rephrase such thoughts as, "Nobody is perfect. I am making improvements in several areas, such as drinking more water and stretching daily, and I am getting healthier and stronger every day." What behavior-modification technique did the health coach use in this instance? a. Problem-solving b. Self-assessment c. Cognitive restructuring d. Negative mood management 34. In which stage of behavior change do clients experience the highest levels of self-efficacy, and thus self-reliance? a. Contemplation b. Preparation c. Action d. Maintenance 35. Within which of the following spheres of the social-ecological model does a health coach have the most influence over his or her clients? a. Community b. School c. Interpersonal d. Individual 36. Patricia realizes that for her client, Rick, to feel motivated he needs to experience a connection with other people with similar interests. Thus, Patricia identifies other people in the fitness center where she works who are interested in the same kind of walking program that Rick is. Ultimately, she helps to form a walking club on the weekends for Rick and the other members. This is an example of which strategy for establishing self-reliance in clients? a. Establish self-efficacy through goal-setting b. Encourage clients to practice behaviors on their own c. Help clients find and implement a support system d. Help clients create or maintain an environment that fosters success 37. Todd has hired Matt as his health coach to help him make better nutrition choices. Todd confided in Matt that he often finds himself snacking on junk food during the workday and while at home watching television. Which of the following approaches would be the most appropriate first step for Matt to suggest to help Todd create an environment that fosters success? a. Ask Todd to identify those places or cues that encourage unhealthy behaviors by taking an inventory of his home and workspace b. Recommend that Todd to throw out all of his junk food he has stored at work and at home c. Suggest that Todd place a note that says "get up and walk" on his refrigerator at home d. Educate Todd about healthy snaking versus eating junk food and ask him to keep a food log for one week 38. A primary difference between disaccharides, oligosaccharides, and polysaccharides is _______________. a. The number of sugar compounds linked together that make up the molecule b. The number of calories per gram of the carbohydrate in which the molecule is found c. That each different molecule is found in different types of caloric sweeteners d. That each different molecule is found in different types of non-caloric sweeteners 39. Why do food manufacturers tend to favor high-fructose corn syrup over other types of caloric sweeteners for use in their products? a. Decreased cost of production b. Increased feelings of satiety c. Reduced risk of insulin resistance d. Decreased amount of "empty calories" 40. Which of the following terms represents a positive nitrogen balance, in which the body produces more protein than it breaks down and which occurs in times of growth such as childhood, pregnancy, recovery from illness, and in response to resistance training when overloading the muscles promotes protein synthesis? a. Catabolism b. Anabolism c. Hypermetabolism d. Hypometabolism 41. Which of the following types of fatty-acid structures represents the chemical form in which most fat exists in food as well as in the body? a. Adipocytes b. Phospholipids c. Cholesterol d. Triglycerides 42. Which of the following structures of the gastrointestinal tract represents the site of the majority of food digestion and absorption in the human body? a. Mouth b. Stomach c. Small intestine d. Large intestine 43. In which of the following nutrients might a client become deficient if he or she has a medical condition or is taking a medication that impairs fat absorption? a. Folate b. Calcium c. Vitamin C d. Vitamin A 44. The latest hydration recommendations for the average adult exerciser are to __________. a. Drink 8 ounces of fluids before, during, and after most types of exercises b. Follow individualized hydration regimens and let thirst be the guide - if thirsty, drink water c. Avoid over-hydration (hyponatremia) by limiting fluid intake until after an exercise session d. Reduce the risk of dehydration by drinking enough fluids while exercising to gain weight during the exercise session 45. Jeffery is a 65-year-old retiree who has hypertension and is currently limiting his sodium intake to 2,300 mg per day. According to the 2015-2020 Dietary Guidelines for Americans, to what amount could Jeffery limit his daily sodium intake for even greater blood pressure reduction? a. 1000mg b. 1500mg c. 2000mg d. 1800mg 46. For the first time since their inception, the 2010 Dietary Guidelines for Americans explicitly recommend that Americans _______________. a. Limit fat intake b. Reduce sodium c. Minimize trans fatty acids d. Eat less 47. Review the nutrition information below. Which of the following represents the percentage of calories from carbohydrate, protein, and fat in a serving of this food item? 48. Nutrition Information 49. Serving size: 3 tablespoons (30 g), Servings per container: About 22, Amount per serving, Calories: 217, Total fat: 21 g, Saturated fat: 2 g, Trans fat: 0 g, Cholesterol: 0 mg, Sodium: 0 mg, Total carbohydrate: 3 g, Dietary fiber: 2 g, Sugars: 1 g, Protein: 4 g, a. 6% carbohydrate; 7% protein; 87% fat b. 10% carbohydrate; 15% protein; 75% fat c. 13% carbohydrate; 17% protein; 70% fat d. 20% carbohydrate; 25% protein; 55% fat 50. John is a 175-pound, healthy, recreational exerciser. According to the American Dietetic Association (Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics) and the American College of Sports Medicine, how much daily protein intake is appropriate for John? a. 30 to 48 g b. 50 to 68 g c. 70 to 88 g d. 90 to 108 g 51. According to the ACE Position Statement on Nutritional Supplements, what should a health coach do if he or she works at a place of business that expects the health coach to promote or sell nutritional supplements? a. Consider changing employers to find a location that does not require health coaches to sell nutritional supplements b. Take a continuing education course to add the credential of "nutritionist" to the health coach's qualifications c. Before selling any nutritional supplements to clients, inform them that the federal government does not regulate these items d. Ensure that the health coach's employer possesses adequate insurance coverage for him or her should a problem arise 52. Which of the following snacks would be most beneficial for post-exercise fueling to replenish glycogen stores and facilitate muscle repair? a. Whole-grain toast with peanut butter b. Plain white bagel with cream cheese c. Carrots, celery, and raisins d. Bowl of mixed berries 53. Which of the following strategies would contradict the National Eating Disorders Association's recommendations for dealing with a client who is suspected of having, or who has been diagnosed with, an eating disorder? a. Suggest weekly body-weight checks to ensure the client is staying on track b. Do not assume that reducing body fat or weight will improve performance c. Help other fitness professionals recognize the signs of eating disorders d. Emphasize the health risks of low weight 54. Which of the following tools for understanding a client's current dietary habits makes it LEAST likely that the client will forget to include foods in the process? a. Food diary b. Food record c. 24-hour recall d. Food-frequency questionnaire 55. Which of the following responses represents the two overarching concepts put forth by the 2010 Dietary Guidelines for Americans? a. Maintain calorie balance to achieve and sustain a healthy weight and focus on nutrient-dense foods and beverages b. Prevent a gradual age-related weight gain and prevent decreases in metabolism over time c. Consult a healthcare provider about weight-loss strategies and ensure appropriate management of chronic conditions d. Choose more nutrient-dense foods and reduce foods or food components consumed in excessive amounts 56. Which of the following activities would be outside the scope of practice for a health coach working with clients? a. A health coach refers her overweight and obese clients to a website known for healthy recipes b. After determining his morbidly obese client needs to lose significant weight, a health coach gives the client advice on a very-low-calorie diet c. A health coach gives a competitive athlete eating strategies for pre- and post-exercise nutrition d. After being hired at a health club, a health coach develops and implements a lecture series educating members on weight-loss physiology 57. Kerry is 5'7" and weighs 190 lb. What is her BMI? a. 19 kg/m2 b. 25 kg/m2 c. 30 kg/m2 d. 35 kg/m2 58. Obesity that occurs later in life is associated with _______________. a. An increase in the number of adipocytes b. An enlargement of the existing fat cells c. A pear-shaped body-fat distribution pattern d. More fat distributed in the extremities versus the trunk 59. Which of the following nutrients is the most metabolically costly to convert and store as fat in the body (i.e., which nutrient takes the most energy to break down and store as body fat if there is an excess of this type of nutrient present)? a. Carbohydrate b. Fat c. Protein d. Alcohol 60. What component of human daily energy expenditure contributes the least amount of energy to the overall daily total? a. Resting metabolic rate b. Basal metabolic rate c. Thermic effect of food d. Activity thermogenesis 61. Which of the following hormones is produced by the pancreatic ß-cells and secreted in response to elevated blood glucose levels? a. Insulin b. Leptin c. Ghrelin d. Cholecystokinin 62. What hormone has been found in obese children and adults to circulate in direct proportion to adipose tissue mass when weight is stable, in amounts four times higher than in lean individuals? a. Insulin b. Leptin c. Ghrelin d. Cholecystokinin 63. Which of the following environmental factors is independently associated with obesity? a. The presence of supermarkets in one's neighborhood b. Working near many fast-food restaurants c. Living more than 25 miles away from the workplace d. Living in a low-income neighborhood 64. Over the past year, Cynthia has gained 15 pounds. Assuming this weight gain is the result of excess energy intake, how many total extra calories has Cynthia consumed beyond her body's average daily needs to create the added weight over the past year? a. 35,000 calories b. 46,500 calories c. 52,500 calories d. 60,000 calories 65. Which type of diet has been shown (more than the others listed) to promote satiety and thermogenesis? a. Carbohydrate-restricted diet b. High-fat diet c. High-protein diet d. Detoxification diet 66. Which of the following statements about the glycemic index is true? a. The glycemic index of a food reflects its overall nutritional value b. The glycemic index of a food is affected by cooking, ripeness, protein and fat content, and handling c. A high-glycemic food is less nutritious than a low-glycemic food d. Low-glycemic foods cause a spike in blood glucose may lead to overeating and subsequent weight gain 67. Which of the following statements about programming for weight loss is most accurate? a. Fasting allows an individual to lose weight rapidly and is appropriate for kick-starting long-term weight loss b. Carbohydrate-restricted diets appear to be best eating plan for both short- and long-term weight loss c. In general, bariatric surgery is the most effective tool for helping people lose weight and keep it off long-term d. Increasing activity, with a modest restriction in calories, is the most advisable way to tip the scale toward weight loss 68. Which of the following medical symptoms of untreated anorexia nervosa (AN) is directly related to arrythmias of the heart? a. Low potassium levels b. Atrophy of the gut c. Diminished peristalsis d. Osteopenia or osteoporosis 69. What psychological problem is most frequently suffered both by individuals with anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa? a. Obsessive-compulsive disorder b. Post-traumatic stress disorder c. Schizophrenia d. Depression 70. What are the three symptoms associated with the female athlete triad? a. Dysmenorrhea, anorexia nervosa, and osteoporosis b. Amenorrhea, disordered eating, and osteoporosis c. Oligomenorrhea, disordered eating, and osteopenia d. Amenorrhea, bulimia nervosa, and osteopenia 71. Which of the following statements about self-efficacy is most accurate? a. If a client's self-efficacy is high, he or she will be more likely to drop out b. Client self-efficacy levels should be evaluated for the first time about midway through a lifestyle-management program c. Self-efficacy is a dynamic construct, meaning that it can change from day to day d. Clients with low self-efficacy should be challenged with vigorous-intensity workouts at the very beginning of their exercise programs 72. Which of the following responses represents a factor that can erroneously lead clients to put the responsibility of program success on the health coach, removing their own personal responsibility from the equation? a. Lack of rapport b. Decreased self-efficacy c. Past experience d. Unclear expectations 73. When interviewing clients, Stacey matches their gestures, facial expressions, and body positioning to promote a strong connection. What approach for enhancing rapport is Stacey demonstrating when she mirrors her clients in this way? a. Nonverbal communication b. Active listening c. Empathy d. Mimicry 74. Which of the following components of communication is a learned skill that is demonstrated by showing concern and genuine interest? a. Active listening b. Empathy c. Open-ended questioning d. Sympathy 75. The psychological environment of the client-health coach relationship is most related to _______________. a. Customer service b. Communication c. First impressions d. Personality 76. Conducting an initial full session of body measurements and strength and cardiovascular tests on a new, overweight client could be disadvantageous because _______________. a. Newcomers to a lifestyle-modification program are essentially going to "fail" most assessments, which may be harmful to self-efficacy, rapport, or program enthusiasm b. New clients should not be charged for a session of assessments since there is no program progress being made in the allotted time c. Assessments should be conducted one per session so that the time for exercise is not drastically reduced d. The time spent discussing the results and explaining how they relate to the client's goals will typically take more time than the session allows 77. Which of the following statements about self-help weight-loss programs is true? a. The safety, effectiveness, and quality of self-help approaches are consistent across most programs b. In general, in self-help programs, one basic approach is recommended for everyone, with little or no individualization c. Most self-help weight-loss programs are associated with commercial-based franchise, with coaches available as resources d. Self-help programs are typically run as an outpatient track associated with a hospital or university 78. The Department of Consumer Affairs of New York City was the first agency to introduce a "Truth-in-Dieting" regulation as a result of the _______________. a. High cost associated with weight-loss programs b. Large number of consumers who were participating in weight-loss program c. Increased opportunity to tax rapid-weight-loss centers' earnings d. Deceptive practices of many rapid-weight-loss centers 79. According to the Institute of Medicine's stepped levels of care for obesity treatment in Weighing the Options: Criteria for Evaluating Weight-Management Programs, in which step is it appropriate to introduce a very-low-calorie diet? a. Step 1 b. Step 2 c. Step 3 d. Step 4 80. Based on the Institute of Medicine's stepped levels of care for obesity treatment in Weighing the Options: Criteria for Evaluating Weight-Management Programs, in which step can a health coach begin to promote lifestyle change through education, support, and structure? a. Step 1 b. Step 2 c. Step 3 d. Step 4 81. Which of the following pencil-and-paper assessments is limited by its lack of detail, which may overlook important health conditions, medications, and past injuries? a. Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire (PAR-Q) b. American College of Sports Medicine (ACSM) coronary artery disease risk factor stratification c. Exercise history and attitude questionnaire d. Weight-loss readiness quiz 82. Based on Jeremy's health data below, which assessment results would you mark as positive risk factors (+1) using the ACSM atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease risk factor thresholds? 83. Jeremy is a 45-year-old restaurateur who works 60 hours or more each week. His physical activity consists of the time he spends walking through his restaurant meeting and greeting customers. The following data are Jeremy's assessment results from his latest visit with his physician. 84. Body weight: 240 lb, Height: 5' 10", LDL cholesterol: 150 mg/dL, HDL cholesterol: 45 mg/dL, Blood pressure: 140/90 mmHg a. LDL cholesterol, HDL cholesterol, and blood pressure b. Age, sedentary lifestyle, BMI, LDL cholesterol, and blood pressure c. Age, body weight, LDL cholesterol, and HDL cholesterol d. Sedentary lifestyle, BMI, HDL cholesterol, and blood pressure 85. Based on the number of positive risk factors determined in the previous question, which of the following intensity recommendations is most appropriate for Jeremy to start with at this time? a. Exercise intensity equivalent to 40-60% VO2max b. Exercise intensity equivalent to 50-70% VO2max c. Exercise intensity equivalent to 55-75% VO2max d. Exercise intensity equivalent to 75-85% VO2max 86. Cynthia is a client who struggles with her choices and portions when she eats out for lunch, which she does almost daily. This type of behavior, which Cynthia would like to change, is labeled _______________. a. Behavioural disintegration b. Behavioural laxity c. Behavioural excess d. Behavioural deficit 87. Harvey has unsuccessfully tried to lose weight in the past. He hires a health coach to help him achieve his weight-loss goals this time. Harvey says his pursuit to lose weight is always brought on by suggestions from his wife and his physician, who are both concerned about his health. He doesn't share their enthusiasm, but is willing to try it again. Which term best describes Harvey's motivation to change his weight? a. Intrinsic motivation b. Extrinsic motivation c. Self-motivation d. Familial motivation 88. Clients who pursue lifestyle behavioral change for their own personal achievement and enjoyment are more likely to _______________. a. Fail b. Drop out c. Persist d. Relapse 89. Which of the following responses best represents the two main characteristics that are most effective when setting small goals? a. Small goals must be meaningful to the client and be within immediate reach b. Small goals should be set by the health coach and achievable within a short time period c. Small goals will be more effective if they are initially general and chosen by the client d. Small goals must be relevant to the health coach's program and be achieved within one year 90. Nick, Liza's new health coach, asks her to write down the advantages and disadvantages of a lifestyle behavior she would like to change. Liza decides she would like to exercise more, so she writes down all of her positive and negative perceptions about exercise, which ultimately helps her connect with the benefits of change and remove barriers to change. What tool did Nick use to help Liza realize the pros and cons of changing her behavior? a. Exercise history and attitude questionnaire b. Physical-activity preferences worksheet c. Personal-belief questionnaire d. Decisional balance worksheet 91. Which of the following terms best describes bodily fat that is necessary for normal functioning and is incorporated into the nerves, brain, heart, lungs, liver, and mammary glands? a. Triglycerides b. Essential fat c. Nonessential fat d. Adipocytes 92. John's circumference measurements are 42 inches at the waist and 36 inches at the hips. Based on these results, which of the following statements is true? a. John exhibits gynoid obesity b. John's waist-to-hip ratio places him in the "average" category c. John exhibits android obesity d. John's waist-to-hip ratio places him in the "good" category 93. Individuals with "normal-weight obesity" reinforce the concept that which of the following health measures can be inherently inaccurate? a. Waist-to-hip ratio (WHR) b. Skinfold measurements c. Body mass index (BMI) d. Bioelectrical impedance analysis (BIA) 94. Christina is a 60-year-old woman who weighs 190 pounds (86 kg) and has an estimated body fat of 36%. Her goal is to reduce her body fat to 23%. What will her corresponding body weight be when she reaches her goal of 23% body fat? a. 138 lb b. 148 lb c. 158 lb d. 168 lb 95. Which of the following body-composition estimation methods requires the technician to practice the skill many times before becoming proficient at the technique? a. Skinfold measurements b. Circumference measurements c. Bioelectrical impedance analysis (BIA) d. Near infrared interactance (NIR) 96. During John's first exercise session with his new health coach, Mitch, he learns how to find his pulse for heart-rate monitoring. Mitch teaches him to palpate his wrist below the palm on the same side as his thumb. Which pulse site is Mitch teaching John to use? a. Carotid artery b. Radial artery c. Ulnar artery d. Femoral artery 97. After several minutes of sitting and talking with his new client, Terry takes an estimation of his client's resting heart rate (RHR). Peter, Terry's client, appears to have a RHR of 120 bpm. Which of the following terms best represents an accurate description of Peter's RHR at this instance? a. Bradycardia b. Normal sinus rhythm c. Tachycardia d. Junctional rhythm 98. The initial evaluation with a deconditioned 35-year-old male client reveals that his RHR is 75 bpm. What is his target heart rate (THR) range at 50-70% of heart-rate reserve (HRR)? a. 120 to 141 bpm b. 130 to 151 bpm c. 140 to 161 bpm d. 150 to 171 bpm 99. Jody is Clara's new obese client. After her first blood pressure assessment on Jody, Clara realized that she used a standard-sized blood pressure cuff instead of the appropriate size cuff for the measurement. What was the likely result of this first measurement? a. A blood pressure reading with amplified Korotkoff sounds b. A blood pressure reading void of Korotkoff sounds c. A falsely elevated blood pressure reading d. A falsely low blood pressure reading 100. Which one of the following statements is true about the use of ratings of perceived exertion (RPE)? a. Initially, very active individuals may find it difficult to use RPE charts b. The 0 to 10 scale should be used to gauge intensity only when the health coach needs to measure heart rate via the RPE c. Men tend to underestimate exertion, while women tend o overestimate exertion d. Conditioned individuals may overrate their exercise intensity if they focus on the muscular tension requirement of the exercise rather than cardiorespiratory effort 101. During the administration of the talk test to her new client, Teresa, Lisa stops the test when Teresa claims that reciting the Pledge of Allegiance is becoming uncomfortable and breathing is getting more difficult. At what point did Lisa stop the test? a. First ventilator threshold (VT1) b. Second ventilator threshold (VT2) c. Third ventilator threshold (VT3) d. Fourth ventilator threshold (VT4) 102. Sherry is a successful full-time hair stylist who is seeking a health coach to help her strengthen her postural muscles to ease the aches and pains she feels as a result of holding her arms up throughout the day as she works on her clients. During a static postural assessment, you notice that Sherry has slightly exaggerated kyphotic and lordotic spinal curves. In which of the following planes of motion does Sherry's spinal deviation occur? a. Sagittal b. Frontal c. Coronal d. Transverse 103. Which of the following tests is designed to specifically assess static balance with the removal of visual sensory perception? a. Stork-stand balance test b. Sharpened Romberg test c. Trunk extensor endurance test d. Modified hurdle-step test 104. Which of the following terms best represents a lack of core and gluteal muscle strength to counteract the force of the hip flexors and erector spinae during the squat movement? a. Glute dominance b. Hamstrings dominance c. Quadriceps dominance d. Lumbar dominance 105. During the overhead reach mobility test, Amy reported feeling it mainly in the shoulders, was able to keep her back relatively flat on the mat, and could touch her left thumb to the floor. Which of the following statements best interprets Amy's results on the overhead reach test? a. Amy lacks appropriate shoulder mobility and core stability b. Amy shows appropriate left-shoulder mobility and core stability c. Amy displays adequate right-shoulder mobility and lacks core stability d. Amy exhibits good shoulder mobility and core stability 106. For individuals who are obese, each pound of excess body weight translates to an additional _______________ of stress on the knee. a. 2lb b. 3lb c. 4lb d. 5lb 107. Amanda's health and fitness goals include losing body fat and becoming more aerobically fit. She is interested in engaging in a physical-activity program of light to moderate intensity on most days of the week. Based on this information, to which of the following phases of the cardiorespiratory fitness-training portion of the ACE Integrated Fitness Training Model will Amanda most likely progress and then stay? a. Aerobic-base training (phase 1) b. Aerobic-efficiency training (phase 2) c. Anaerobic-endurance training (phase 3) d. Anaerobic-power training (phase 4) 108. In general, with regard to stability and mobility programming for the body's kinetic chain, _______________. a. Distal stability facilities distal mobility b. Proximal stability facilitates proximal mobility c. Distal stability facilitates proximal mobility d. Proximal stability facilitates distal mobility 109. Which of the following responses BEST represents the two main program components that have been shown to be successful for sustained weight loss in overweight and obese individuals? a. Modest reductions in energy intake and adequate levels of physical activity b. Severe reductions in energy intake and modest levels of physical activity c. Significant reductions in energy intake and high levels of physical activity d. Minimal reductions in energy intake and significant levels of physical activity 110. According to the ACE IFT Model, which of the following responses BEST represents the characteristics of training that occurs in phase 1 of cardiorespiratory training? a. Fitness assessments are required prior to exercise in this phase b. Intervals in the upper end of zone 2 (RPE of 6) are introduced in this phase c. The client is progressed to phase 2 once he or she can sustain steady-state cardiorespiratory exercise for 20 to 30 minutes d. The focus is on helping clients to perform seven or more hours of cardiorespiratory exercise per week 111. Beth has been involved in a walking program for the past six months, which has allowed her to achieve her initial weight-loss goal of 10% of her former body weight. She is now expressing an interest in increasing the intensity of her aerobic workouts and wants to try jogging. Currently, she has no problem walking for 45 continuous minutes most days of the week. Which of the following ratio intervals (jog:walk) would be an appropriate place for Beth to begin the next phase of her cardiorespiratory program? a. 3:1 b. 1:1 c. 1:2 d. 1:3 112. Jason is a competitive cyclist who is getting ready for his next event in three months. In general, how much time should Jason spend training at intensities just below the first ventilatory threshold (VT1)? a. 70-80% b. 40-50% c. 15-20% d. 5-10% 113. Jim is an obese client who experiences chronic pain in his back and knees, which reduces his mobility and makes it uncomfortable for him to transition from the floor to a standing position. He has been cleared by his physician for exercise and is ready to begin his training program with John, a health coach. What can John do to help Jim most successfully engage in a program of stability and mobility training, which necessarily involves exercises in the supine and prone positions? a. Recommend that Jim perform aerobic exercise for initial weight loss before he engages in stability and mobility training b. Allow Jim to perform floor exercises on an elevated platform or on a sturdy athletic training table c. Recommend that Jim perform all stability and mobility exercises in a seated position on a chair with a sturdy back rest d. Allow Jim to perform all stability and mobility exercises in a standing position in front of a corner wall 114. Which of the following movements is most closely associated with the human gait pattern (e.g., walking)? a. Body-weight squat b. Tandem balance on both feet c. Static balance on a single leg d. Hip-hinge progressions 115. A client who has just finished her first month of resistance training using selectorized weight machines is ready to progress the intensity of her strength-training program. She currently uses 100 lb on the leg press machine. Which of the following responses represents the most appropriate increase in resistance for the leg press exercise for her next workout? a. 105-110lb b. 110-120lb c. 120-125lb d. 130-150lb 116. The main criteria the judicial system will utilize when addressing a potential complaint regarding independent contractor status is the _______________. a. Nature of the work b. Number of clients the contractor sees c. Control over work-related matters d. Intention of the parties involved 117. Travis and his client, Angie, agree to meet twice weekly for one hour so that Angie can receive health-coaching services from Travis. Angie will pay Travis $75 per session. In terms of legal contracts, which of the following responses represents the money exchanged for services in this scenario? a. An offer b. An acceptance c. A consideration d. A negotiation 118. Which of the following documents is designed to formally warn individuals about the potential dangers and specific risks of participating in physical activity? a. Agreement to participate b. Informed consent c. Liability waiver d. Behavioral contract 119. Within the context of a liability waiver (or release), what is an exculpatory clause? a. A statement included in an agreement that limits the time allotted to sue for damages, which allows the health coach adequate time to defend against potential litigation if it occurs b. A portion of a contract that allows the client to have something done to him or her (e.g., strength test or flexibility assessment) by the health coach c. A portion of an agreement that states that the health coach will keep all client health information protected and confidential d. Language included in an agreement that bars clients from seeking damages for injuries caused by the inherent risk of activities and by the ordinary negligence of the health coach 120. Which legal term BEST describes a health coach's actions if he or she failed to properly spot a client while performing a bench press exercise? a. Fraud b. Vicarious liability c. Negligence d. Respondeat superior 121. Rebecca is an independent contractor who works as a health coach in a fitness facility. She often takes her client, Stacy, into an unoccupied group fitness room for Stacy's boot-camp style interval workout. On one of the hottest days of the summer, Rebecca enters the room and notices that the air conditioning is not working properly in that space and the temperature is 88 degrees Fahrenheit. What is the most appropriate action for Rebecca to take in this situation? a. Rebecca should notify the facility's management and void that area until it has been addressed b. Rebecca should continue with the planned exercise session, but at a lower than normal intensity c. Rebecca should cancel the session with Stacy and ask her to come back at another time when the temperature is more appropriate d. Rebecca should continue with the planned exercise session and open the facility's doors and place fans in the room for additional airflow 122. The American Council on Exercise recommends retaining at least _______________ in professional liability coverage, in the event that a personal injury occurs as a result of a training session. a. $100,000 b. $1 million c. $250,000 d. $2 million 123. Which of the following legal activities do organizations such as the American Society of Composers, Authors, and Publishers (ASCAP), Broadcast Music, Inc. (BMI), and the Society of European Stage Authors and Composers (SESAC) oversee? a. Marketing activities b. Financial transactions c. Risk management d. Copyright issues 124. Which of the following risk-management strategies involves keeping a certain risk in place if removing the risk would eliminate a potential benefit? a. Avoidance b. Transfer c. Reduction d. Retention 125. (Refer to case 1) Which of the following recommendations are the BEST initial approach to help Jenna reach her weight-loss goal? a. Maintain daily caloric intake and increase physical activity to include 60 to 90 minutes of moderate to vigorous aerobic exercise 5 days per week b. Maintain current activity level and reduce daily caloric intake to 1800 calories c. Reduce daily caloric intake by approximately 250 calories and increase physical activity to include 30 minutes of moderate exercise most days of the week d. Reduce daily caloric intake by 500 calories and introduce a multivitamin 126. (Refer to case 1) Which of the following recommendations is the MOST appropriate regarding this client's nutritional choices? a. Decrease consumption of sugary beverages and incorporate more fruits and vegetables into the diet b. Limit carbohydrate consumption and introduce protein-fortified meal replacement bars and shakes c. Decrease refined sugar intake and increase the consumption of iced tea and black coffee to increase energy d. Incorporated red meat and beans into the diet to enhance iron consumption and increase energy throughout the day 127. (Refer to case 1) Which of the following food items, if eliminated or reduced from Jenna's diet, would make the MOST beneficial caloric and nutritional change? a. Chocolate peanut better "energy" bar b. Animal cookies c. Café mocha d. Alcohol 128. (Refer to case 1) What is the MOST appropriate time frame for Jenna to reach her weight-loss goal? a. 3 to 6 weeks b. 8 to 12 weeks c. 3 to 5 months d. 6 to 8 months 129. Jim has been a participant in your group weight-loss program for three months. He recently confided to you his concerns about his tendency to miss exercise classes during vacations, holidays, or times of increased work or family pressures. Which of the following statements would be the MOST appropriate recommendation for Jim? a. "I understand that missing exercise classes is a concern for you. Let's plan ahead and prepare a home-based workout for the times you can't make it to the gym." b. "Missing your exercise classes must be difficult for you. The next time it happens, feel free to call me and we can discuss your options at that time." c. "I hear you saying that you're concerned about missing your exercise classes. Would you like to choose another class format that you might enjoy more?" d. "The exercise classes are an important part of your weight-loss program. You need to make the classes a priority on your schedule" 130. Which of the following responses BEST describes the type of information found in the "objective" section of a client's SOAP notes a. Exercises occasionally and is unhappy about her weight b. 35-year-old female, 260lb (118.2kg), married, no children c. Client is basically healthy, inactive, has obesity d. Eat three vegetable servings per day 131. You are working with a new client who is sedentary and wants to lose weight. When asking him about his exercise history, he tells you about his years of competitive swimming and describes himself as a "swimmer" and would like to incorporate swimming into his program. To this client, swimming provides what type of motivation? a. Introjected regulation b. Identified regulation c. External regulation d. Integrated regulation 132. A new client you are working with has type 1 diabetes. She has agreed to check her blood glucose level and share this information with you before and after each exercise session. As you prepare to begin the first workout, she informs you that her blood glucose has dropped too low. What would be the MOST appropriate course of action for this client? a. Suggest that she increase her insulin dosage prior to the upcoming workout session b. Ask her to wait 15 minutes and then check her blood glucose level again c. Recommend that she inject insulin into primary muscle groups that will be used during the upcoming exercise session d. Suggest that she consume simple carbohydrates and check her blood glucose level again prior to exercise 133. A client is struggling with after-dinner snacking and claims that he is not necessarily hungry when snacking but has a hard time resisting the urge. What would be the BEST problem-solving approach to help him make a lasting behavioral change to avoid or minimize snacking at night? a. Suggest that he stay out of the kitchen after dinner to avoid the temptation to snack b. Recommend that he keep track of the factors that precede and follow after-dinner snacking c. Ask him to record the amount and types of foods he prefers to snack on after dinner d. Recommend that he eat more calories at dinner so that he is full and has less desire to snack afterward 134. A client shows you a food label from one of his favorite mid-afternoon snacks. Use the nutrition information from the food label provided below to determine which of the following statements is MOST accurate. 135. Amount per serving 136. Calories 90 137. Total fat 3 g 138. Saturated fat 0 g 139. Trans fat 0 g 140. Cholesterol 0 mg 141. Sodium 300 mg 142. Total carbohydrate 13 g 143. Dietary fiber 3 g 144. Sugars 3 g 145. Protein 3 g a. The protein content of this food item accounts for 30% of its total calories b. 30% of the total calories in this food item are from fat c. The dietary fiber content of this food item accounts for 10% of its total calories d. Less than 10% of the total calories in this food item are from sugars 146. Your new client, Betsy, was diagnosed with type 2 diabetes at age 40 and has been administering two insulin injections per day to control her condition for the past 10 years. She is concerned about her health and wants to become more physically active, and she has a physician's release for exercise as tolerated. Use the health-history and physical-assessment information below to answer. 147. Health-history Data 148. Age: 55 years 149. Body weight: 200 lb (91 kg) 150. Height: 5' 3" (160 cm) 151. Body composition: 42% body fat - obese classification 152. Resting blood pressure: 132/86 mmHg (with medication) 153. Fasting glucose: Diagnosed type 2 diabetic 154. Smoking status: Non-smoker 155. Physical activity: Sedentary 156. Family History: Mother has hypertension 157. Surgeries: None 158. Medications: Beta blocker for hypertension and insulin injections for diabetes 159. According to ACSM's risk stratification, what is Betsy's level of risk for atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease? a. Low risk b. Moderate risk = 2 total risk factors c. Moderate risk = 5 total risk factors d. High risk 160. Your new client, Betsy, was diagnosed with type 2 diabetes at age 40 and has been administering two insulin injections per day to control her condition for the past 10 years. She is concerned about her health and wants to become more physically active, and she has a physician's release for exercise as tolerated. Use the health-history and physical-assessment information below to answer. 161. Health-history Data 162. Age: 55 years 163. Body weight: 200 lb (91 kg) 164. Height: 5' 3" (160 cm) 165. Body composition: 42% body fat - obese classification 166. Resting blood pressure: 132/86 mmHg (with medication) 167. Fasting glucose: Diagnosed type 2 diabetic 168. Smoking status: Non-smoker 169. Physical activity: Sedentary 170. Family History: Mother has hypertension 171. Surgeries: None 172. Medications: Beta blocker for hypertension and insulin injections for diabetes 173. Which of the following would be the MOST appropriate initial goal for Betsy's program? a. Achieve a 25% increase in aerobic capacity b. Reduce body fat to less than 21% c. Achieve a 5 to 10% reduction in body weight d. Reduce insulin intake by 20% 174. Your new client, Betsy, was diagnosed with type 2 diabetes at age 40 and has been administering two insulin injections per day to control her condition for the past 10 years. She is concerned about her health and wants to become more physically active, and she has a physician's release for exercise as tolerated. Use the health-history and physical-assessment information below to answer. 175. Health-history Data 176. Age: 55 years 177. Body weight: 200 lb (91 kg) 178. Height: 5' 3" (160 cm) 179. Body composition: 42% body fat - obese classification 180. Resting blood pressure: 132/86 mmHg (with medication) 181. Fasting glucose: Diagnosed type 2 diabetic 182. Smoking status: Non-smoker 183. Physical activity: Sedentary 184. Family History: Mother has hypertension 185. Surgeries: None 186. Medications: Beta blocker for hypertension and insulin injections for diabetes 187. Which initial cardiorespiratory exercise program would be MOST appropriate for Betsy? a. Aim to complete 30-minute sessions 4-5 days per week of moderate-intensity exercise with intervals of varying length and frequency performed at high intensity b. Begin with continuous exercise as tolerated below the talk test threshold (VT1) and work up to 20-30 continuous minutes performed 5 days per week c. Perform daily cardiorespiratory exercise for up to 60 minutes per day using a variety of modes to prevent boredom d. Exercise every other day for a minimum of 45 minutes per session at a moderate to high intensity 188. Mark has been your client for six months and has achieved his short-term goals of weight loss and incorporating physical activity into his lifestyle. Recently, while on vacation, Mark suffered a herniated disc. He has been through rehabilitation and cleared by his physician to return to exercise. What would be the BEST course of action as Mark begins to exercise again? a. Daily exercises to increase spinal range of motion and hip flexibility b. Resistance training to increase muscular strength in the spinal extensors c. Muscular endurance and core stability training d. Daily stretching and focus on strength training for the back extensors 189. During your initial interview with a potential client, you learn that she has intentions of attending a weekly yoga class and walking on a treadmill at a local fitness facility three days per week. She tells you that for the past three months she has been making it to the yoga class about every other week, and walks on the treadmill once or twice every other week. According to the stages-of-change model, which stage BEST describes this potential client's readiness for exercise a. Contemplation b. Preparation c. Action d. Maintenance 190. A client you have been working with for two months can now perform 30 minutes of continuous cardiorespiratory exercise just below the talk test threshold. What progression would be MOST appropriate for her next workout? a. Introduce three intervals performed at an exercise intensity just above the second ventilator threshold b. Increase exercise duration to 45 minutes at the same intensity c. Introduce short intervals performed at an exercise intensity just above the first ventilator threshold d. Increase exercise intensity by having her carry 5 pound dumbbells during her walks 191. Following the body-weight squat assessment, your client stated that the movement was felt mainly in the front of the thighs and knees. What exercise should be included in this client's initial program to address the incorrect movement? a. Leg extensions b. Hip-hinge c. Lunge matrix d. Body-weight squat variations 192. You have designed a strength-training program for a client that includes two sets of 8-12 repetitions performed on 10 different exercises, two days per week. The client has just completed 12 repetitions with a 200 pound (91 kg) barbell, while maintaining good form. What would be the MOST appropriate weight to progress him to at his next workout session? a. 205 lb (93.2kg) b. 210 lb (95.5kg) c. 225 lb (102.3kg) d. 235 lb (106.8kg) 193. You are working with a client who tells you that she has her greatest success with commitments when there is a reward for her to earn upon program completion. As such, you work together to create a behavioral contract with built-in rewards to enhance her program adherence. Which of the following sentences represents the MOST effective goal statement for the client's contract? a. "I will eat less fat to create a negative caloric balance so I can lose weight and feel better" b. "I agree to lose weight so I can purchase a new dress in a smaller size" c. "I will lose 15 pounds in one month so I can schedule a tropical vacation" d. "I will lose 1 to 2 pounds per week for the next 2 months so I can buy a new outfit" 194. A client you have been working with for six months is pleased inform you that he has reached his weight-loss goals and has made many beneficial lifestyle modifications. He is worried about regaining the weight, as he read that only about half of the people who lose weight manage to keep it off. Which of the following statements would be the MOST effective in helping him as he progresses into the maintenance stage of behavioral change? a. "Don't worry. You've done such a great job that you're not going to be one of those people who relapses after they have lost weight" b. "It's okay to feel concerned. Temporary breaks from your program are acceptable and are not failures. Let's figure out coping strategies for when they occur" c. "You'll do fine if you keep in mind the reasons why you wanted to change your lifestyle in the first place; to improve your health and have more energy" d. "It's normal to feel concerned. Now that you know your triggers, you should be able to modify your environment to prevent them from happening" 195. In your first meeting with a new client, she tells you that her previous attempts to start exercising have generally ended after only a couple of weeks. Which of the following strategies will MOST likely enhance this client's overall experience and promote adherence and self-efficacy? a. Design a program based on the client's goals and creating enjoyable exercise experiences from the start b. Emphasize baseline fitness assessments as motivation for self-improvement and program adherence c. Focus on recreational activities that are challenging and full of variety, such as recreational dance or sport d. Implement structured exercise that results in a calorie expenditure of 300 to 500 calories 196. In addition to weight loss, your client, Frank, is interested in general nutrition recommendations for decreasing the risk of heart disease. Which of the following responses is MOST representative of the American Heart Association's dietary strategies for optimal cardiovascular risk reduction? a. Minimize the intake of beverages and foods containing artificial sweeteners b. Limit the consumption of saturated fat to less than 7% of total daily energy intake c. Consume 30% of total daily calories from protein d. Choose and prepare foods with moderate amounts of salt or sodium 197. Your client has been instructed by his physician to adopt the DASH eating plan due to his prehypertension and family history of cardiovascular disease. In helping him to better understand the DASH eating plan, which of the following general statements is MOST accurate? a. The DASH eating plan was initially developed to reduce obesity, but has shown to have favorable effects on blood pressure. b. The DASH eating plan is restricted for use by individuals diagnosed with prehypertension or hypertension. c. The DASH eating plan consists primarily of grains, fruits, vegetables, and low-fat dairy products. d. The DASH eating plan recognizes fish as a superior protein source compared to poultry and red meats. 198. Andy, an active college student, has been following an exercise program to maintain his current fitness level, and following a diet plan with an intake of 1400 calories. Recently, he started a running program to prepare for a local half-marathon. He has expressed concern because he notices he is losing weight, which is not one of his goals. Which of the following strategies is the BEST approach to help Andy maintain or improve his running performance and avoid losing weight? a. Suggest that Andy increase his daily caloric intake to match his increased energy needs due to running. b. Instruct Andy to cut back his running mileage until his weight stabilizes and then maintain the new, reduced mileage. c. Recommend that Andy incorporate strength-training into his exercise program to build muscle and reduce weight loss. d. Instruct Andy that weight loss will improve his running time and that after the half-marathon his weight will return to normal. 199. Which of the following goal statements would be MOST appropriate for an individual who needs to lose weight and has struggled with adherence to weight-loss plans in the past? a. Decrease daily caloric intake by 250 calories, while increasing expenditure by 250 calories. b. Decrease daily caloric intake by 300 calories, while increasing expenditure by 400 calories. c. Consume small meals of approximately 300 calories per meal several times each day. d. Consume three moderate-calorie meals and three small 100-calorie snacks each day. 200. Which of the following statements BEST describes the purpose of an informed consent? a. An exculpatory clause or agreement that puts all risks associated with exercise training on the client b. The process of identifying and eliminating or reducing potential liabilities before they occur c. Acknowledgement by the client that they accept the risks inherent with exercise participation d. The legal clause that protects health coaches in cases of acts of commission and omission 201. A client sues a health coach for injuries sustained during an exercise session at the client's home. Which type of insurance is designed to handle this type of claim? a. General liability insurance b. Professional liability insurance c. Disability insurance d. Medical insurance 202. A client is suing a health coach because he claims that during an exercise session, the health coach had him exercising at too high of an intensity, causing him to fall. Which of the following describes the legal concept that was allegedly breached? a. The risk-management plan b. A release of liability c. An act of omission d. The standard of care 203. Which of the following statements BEST describes release of liability or liability waiver? a. An exculpatory clause or agreement that puts all risks associated with exercise training on the client. b. The process of identifying and eliminating or reducing potential liabilities before they occur. c. A fitness professional relies on a defense that an injured client knew that a potential danger existed and decided to act anyway d. Wanton recklessness or intentional misconduct. 204. During an initial interview with a potential client, you notice she is able to express her ideas about what she expects from your services in an honest and straightforward manner. She is also comfortable letting you know if your recommendations for lifestyle modification will not be realistic for her. This individual is exhibiting which personality type? a. Dominant b. Inspiring c. Cautious d. Supportive 205. Health-history Data 206. Gender: Male 207. Age: 48 years 208. Body weight: 210 lb (95.5 kg) 209. Height: 6' (183 cm) 210. Resting blood pressure: 122/78 mmHg (controlled medically) 211. Total cholesterol: 220 mg/dL 212. LDL cholesterol: 120 mg/dL 213. HDL cholesterol: 45 mg/dL 214. Smoking status: Quit 20 years ago 215. Family history: Older brother suffered a stroke at 62 years old 216. Musculoskeletal issues: Mild arthritis in hips, but it does not prevent ADLs 217. Health conditions: Known heart murmur 218. Medications: Daily ibuprofen for arthritic pain and beta blocker for hypertension 219. According to ACSM's guidelines for CVD risk stratification, which of the following actions would be the MOST appropriate for a health coach to take regarding exercise testing for this client? a. Have the client perform a maximal VO2 test b. Contact the client's physician to obtain clearance to conduct a maximal VO2 test c. Ask the client to perform a submaximal VO2test d. Refer the client to his physician for clearance and doctor supervision for exercise testing 220. Health-history Data 221. Gender: Male 222. Age: 48 years 223. Body weight: 210 lb (95.5 kg) 224. Height: 6' (183 cm) 225. Resting blood pressure: 122/78 mmHg (controlled medically) 226. Total cholesterol: 220 mg/dL 227. LDL cholesterol: 120 mg/dL 228. HDL cholesterol: 45 mg/dL 229. Smoking status: Quit 20 years ago 230. Family history: Older brother suffered a stroke at 62 years old 231. Musculoskeletal issues: Mild arthritis in hips, but it does not prevent ADLs 232. Health conditions: Known heart murmur 233. Medications: Daily ibuprofen for arthritic pain and beta blocker for hypertension 234. Which method for monitoring exercise intensity would be MOST appropriate for this client? a. Percentage of maximal heart rate b. Percentage of HRR c. Percentage of VO2R d. Ratings of perceived exertion 235. Health-history Data 236. Gender: Male 237. Age: 48 years 238. Body weight: 210 lb (95.5 kg) 239. Height: 6' (183 cm) 240. Resting blood pressure: 122/78 mmHg (controlled medically) 241. Total cholesterol: 220 mg/dL 242. LDL cholesterol: 120 mg/dL 243. HDL cholesterol: 45 mg/dL 244. Smoking status: Quit 20 years ago 245. Family history: Older brother suffered a stroke at 62 years old 246. Musculoskeletal issues: Mild arthritis in hips, but it does not prevent ADLs 247. Health conditions: Known heart murmur 248. Medications: Daily ibuprofen for arthritic pain and beta blocker for hypertension 249. How would this client's body mass index (BMI) be categorized? a. Underweight b. Normal weight c. Overweight d. obesity 250. Sarah is a college athlete competing on the cross country running team. She is seeking your services to help her with sports nutrition and decreasing body fat to achieve optimum performance. What body-fat percentage range is considered the norm for athletic females? a. 10-13% b. 14-20% c. 21-24% d. 25-29% 251. Ralph has recently graduated from college and is starting his career as a computer technician. He was an accomplished collegiate football player and is seeking your services to help him avoid weight and body-fat gains as he transitions to the sedentary nature of his new "desk job." Which method of body-composition estimation is the MOST appropriate for Ralph? a. Body mass index b. Handheld body-fat scale c. Waist-to-hip ratio d. Skinfold measurements 252. Which of the following statements about the client screening process is MOST accurate? a. A health-risk appraisal should be performed on all clients prior to participation in a physical-activity program. b. A fitness assessment should be performed on all clients prior to participation in a physical-activity program. c. A physician's clearance is required for moderate-risk clients prior to participation in a physical-activity program. d. It is recommended that body composition assessments are performed on all clients prior to participation in a physical-activity program. 253. Which of the following should result in the health coach terminating a submaximal exercise test with a client? a. Increased sweating b. Subject requests to stop c. Heart rate above 150 beats per minute d. Systolic BP greater than 180 mmHg 254. After completing the initial interview and health-risk appraisal with a new client, the health coach believes the client is likely suffering from anorexia nervosa due to her very low BMI and desire to continue to lose weight. Which of the following actions is the MOST appropriate next step? a. Request another meeting to continue the interview and health-risk appraisal b. Refer her to a sports nutritionist to help her with proper nutrition for her exercise program c. Refer her to a registered dietitian who specializes in eating disorders d. Monitor her progress for 3 months to see if she continues to exhibit signs of the condition 255. Which of the following responses is MOST representative of an internal barrier to exercise? a. Lack of confidence about being in the gym environment b. Educational, socioeconomic, and cultural issues c. Lack of support from family and friends d. Overtraining 256. Following your suggestion, Shane has agreed to make a detailed grocery list before going to the store in order to avoid purchasing non-listed items. He also plans to keep a gym bag in his car with all his necessary workout items. Which of the following behavior-modification techniques is Shane demonstrating? a. Behavioral processing b. Decision-making c. Stimulus control d. Self-monitoring 257. You are working with an obese client with a BMI of 31kg/m² and a history of low-back problems. He is currently pain free and has been referred to you by his doctor for "exercise as tolerated". Which of the following guidelines would be LEAST appropriate for programming? a. Include regular aerobic exercise as a crucial element of a low-back exercise program b. Include exercises to help strengthen the lumbar and abdominal muscles c. Incorporate thoracic spine and pelvis mobility exercises d. Focus only on weight loss at this time as low back exercises should not be incorporated until the client has a BMI of 25 or lower 258. Which of the following descriptions BEST describes the principle of overload in exercise training? a. The act of the gradually and incrementally increasing the exercise stimulus for optimal gains in fitness b. Introducing increases in the volume of an established level of exercise c. The fitness level attained after a regular, progressively overloaded training program d. The ability of the body to adapt to the specific types of training placed upon it 259. Which of the following examples provides the BEST description to help a client visualize an accurate representation of 3 ounces of meat, poultry, or fish? a. The size of a thumb tip b. The size of a deck of cards c. The size of a tennis ball d. The size of a baseball 260. Which of the following timeframes does research suggest is the MINIMUM needed for optimum success in a lifestyle-modification program? a. 21 to 45 days b. 6 to 8 weeks c. 16 to 26 weeks d. 6 to 12 months 261. Which of the following would be the BEST primary goal for individuals with type 2 diabetes who are starting an exercise program? a. Weight loss b. Improved fitness c. Hypoglycemia prevention d. Stress reduction 262. Which of the following represents the general guidelines for cardiorespiratory exercise for apparently healthy adults? a. Moderate intensity exercise of 40 to <60% VO2R, performed for 30 minutes, 5 days per week b. Vigorous-intensity exercise of >60% MaxHR, performed for 30 minutes, 5 days per week c. Exercise at RPE >16 (original Borg scale), performed for 30 minutes, 3 days per week d. Exercise at RPE >7 (modified category ratio scale), performed for 30 minutes, 3 days per week 263. Which of the following is a quality of a well-stated goal? a. Measureable b. Sound c. Reflective d. Ambitious 264. A client you have been working with for two months tells you that he is going on a cruise and would like to lose 30 lb within the next two months. What would be the MOST appropriate course of action? a. Increase the level of intensity and duration of cardiorespiratory exercise in his current program b. Recommend an increase in caloric restriction and cardiorespiratory exercise duration c. Suggest a greater emphasis on resistance training by incorporating circuit training d. Discuss the client's perceptions, attitudes, and expectations and reexamine his goals 265. Which of the following options represents the maximum recommended range of weight loss in a 12-week period? a. 6 to 12 pounds (2.7 to 5.5 kg) b. 12 to 24 pounds (5.5 to 10.9 kg) c. 24 to 36 pounds (10.9 to 16.4 kg) d. 36 to 42 pounds (16.4 to 19.1 kg) 266. After six months of regular exercise participation, a client will generally enter which stage of change? a. Action stage b. Preparation stage c. Maintenance stage d. Relapse stage 267. You are working with a client who tells you that she has her greatest success with commitments when there is a self-reward for her to earn upon program completion. As such, you work together to create a behavioral contract with built-in rewards to enhance her program adherence. Which of the following sentences represents the MOST effective goal statement for the client's contract? a. "I will eat less fat to create a negative caloric balance so I can lose weight and feel better." b. "I will lose 1 to 2 pounds per week for the next two months so I can buy a new workout music." c. "I will lose 15 pounds in one month so I can schedule a tropical vacation." d. "I agree to lose weight so I can purchase a new dress in a smaller size." 268. Which of the following describes an effective strategy to use with clients who are in the maintenance stage? a. Structured, regular programming with frequent positive feedback b. Continued evaluation of the pros and cons of engaging in exercise c. Promoting positive outcome expectations and boosting self-confidence d. Maintaining interest and avoiding burnout or boredom 269. You have been working with an obese client for the past 3 months. Your client has not lost any weight but has a healthy lifestyle, exercises daily and eats healthfully. Which of the following courses of action is the MOST appropriate for this client's situation? a. Recommend that your client tries a natural weight loss supplement b. Refer your client to their primary health care provider c. Suggest that the client needs to further reduce the amount of caloric intake to 1200 calories each day d. Increase the volume of the program with an additional group fitness class 270. A client you have been working with informs you that she is three months pregnant. Her BMI before becoming pregnant was 23.0 kg/m2. According to the Institute of Medicine (2009), what is a healthy amount of weight gain for this pregnant client? a. 11-20 pounds (5.0-9.1 kg) b. 15-25 pounds (6.8-11.4 kg) c. 25-35 pounds (11.4-15.9 kg) d. 28-40 pounds (12.7-18.2 kg) 271. A client you are working with has improved the core stability and torso muscular endurance, but still exhibits an exaggerated kyphosis posture. What exercise would be MOST appropriate to add to his program to improve mobility in the thoracic spine? a. Supine internal and external shoulder rotations with tubing b. Push-ups c. Prisoner rotations d. Seated rows using cable resistance 272. A new client has signed up to work with you to lose her last 20 pounds (9.1 kg) of "baby weight." She currently takes yoga classes two days per week and has not participated in regular cardiorespiratory exercise since before her baby was born three years ago. Based on this information, what initial cardiorespiratory training program would be MOST appropriate for her? a. Moderate-intensity cycling program performed for 30-40 minutes, 3-5 days per week b. Moderate-to-vigorous intensity combined with a walking and jogging program performed for 20-30 minutes, 3-5 days per week c. Moderate-intensity program incorporating walking and cycling performed for 15-30 minutes, 3-5 days per week d. Dance-based group exercise classes lasting 60 minutes, performed 3 days per week 273. Which of the following scenarios qualifies as a violation of the ACE code of ethics? a. The health coach keeps client files under lock and key behind the front desk b. The health coach stores files behind the front desk for easy access c. The health coach permits clients to keep their files and then bring them to each session d. The health coach stores clients' files in a personal office behind a locked door 274. Someone who is hired on a short-term basis to perform a specific task or series of tasks is defined as what type of worker? a. Employee b. Independent contractor c. Part-time employees d. Intern 275. When beginning a business as a fitness professional, what is the BEST type of contract to establish with a client? a. Oral contract b. Mutual agreement c. Informed consent d. Written contract 276. Which of the following describes the type of listener that health coaches should aim to be? a. The interrupter b. The active listener c. The focus thief d. The advice giver 277. During your initial meeting with Bob, a 48-year-old male client, he provides you with the following information during his health-history interview: 278. Height: 70 inches (177.8 cm) 279. Weight: 220 lb (100 kg) 280. Resting blood pressure: 128/82 mmHg 281. Total cholesterol: 196 mg/dL 282. LDL cholesterol: 125 mg/dL 283. HDL cholesterol: 46 mg/dL 284. Fasting glucose: 94 mg/dL 285. Current activity: Walks for 20 minutes per day on weekends 286. Current medications: Beta blockers daily 287. Goals: Lose weight and begin training for a marathon for his 50th birthday 288. Bob should limit his intake of which of the following foods based on his health-history information? a. Bananas, carrots, apple juice b. Canned tomato juice, pretzels, frozen pizza c. Cheese, beef, ice cream d. Eggs, bread, milk 289. During your initial meeting with Bob, a 48-year-old male client, he provides you with the following information during his health-history interview: 290. Height: 70 inches (177.8 cm) 291. Weight: 220 lb (109.1 kg) 292. Resting blood pressure: 128/82 mmHg 293. Total cholesterol: 196 mg/dL 294. LDL cholesterol: 125 mg/dL 295. HDL cholesterol: 46 mg/dL 296. Fasting glucose: 94 mg/dL 297. Current activity: Walks for 20 minutes per day on weekends 298. Current medications: Beta blockers daily 299. Goals: Lose weight and begin training for a marathon for his 50th birthday 300. When performing cardiorespiratory exercise, what method should Bob use to monitor his intensity? a. Percentage of HR reserve (HRR) b. Percentage of VO2R c. Ratings of perceived exertion (RPE) d. Percentage of HRmax 301. During your initial meeting with Bob, a 48-year-old male client, he provides you with the following information during his health-history interview: 302. Height: 70 inches (177.8 cm) 303. Weight: 220 lb (109.1 kg) 304. Resting blood pressure: 128/82 mmHg 305. Total cholesterol: 196 mg/dL 306. LDL cholesterol: 125 mg/dL 307. HDL cholesterol: 46 mg/dL 308. Fasting glucose: 94 mg/dL 309. Current activity: Walks for 20 minutes per day on weekends 310. Current medications: Beta blockers daily 311. Goals: Lose weight and begin training for a marathon for his 50th birthday 312. If Bob's current body composition is 20% fat, how much will he weigh if he reaches his target body-fat percentage of 15% if he maintains his current lean body mass? a. 187 lb (85.0kg) b. 193 lb (87.7kg) c. 200 lb (91.0kg) d. 207 lb (94.1kg) 313. Individuals following the DASH eating plan should consume the greatest number of servings from which food group? a. Low-fat or fat-free dairy foods b. Vegetables c. Nuts, seeds, legumes d. Grains 314. Which of the following is MOST important for an executive who travels frequently to facilitate adherence to an exercise program for weight management? a. Ensuring time availability and access to exercise equipment b. Decreasing travel schedule to facilitate program adherence c. Finding group exercise classes while travelling d. Willingness to pack food and snacks for business trips 315. Steve is a middle-aged man with a normal HDL-cholesterol level, but a total cholesterol level of 235 mg/dL. Which of the following general dietary recommendations would be MOST appropriate? a. Limit intake of cholesterol b. Eat a diet high in soluble fiber c. Limit intake of saturated fats d. Reduce total dietary fat to 15-20% of calories 316. You notice that whenever you mention limiting meals eaten at fast food restaurants, your client crosses his arms and looks away. What action would be MOST appropriate for you to take at this time? a. Recognize that the client is reluctant to stop eating fast food and gently explore his resistance b. Explain to the client that continuing to eat fast food will cause his premature death c. Reduce eye contact with the client while he is speaking to help him feel more comfortable d. Suggest that the client will get the most out of his sessions if he pays attention 317. A food has 540 kcal, 15 grams of which come from fat. What percentage of the total calories comes from fat? a. 3% b. 11% c. 19% d. 25% 318. You have been working with Bill for three months. He asks to talk with you about some concerns he has with his failure to reach his exercise program goals. Your BEST initial action would be to __________. a. Reassure him that this is a good program and that he needs to give it more time b. Arrange a time to revisit his goals and discuss a program goal based on the daily process of a healthy lifestyle. c. Suggest that you will create a specific outcome goal for him to replace his current program goals. d. Ask him to write out his own personal goals and confirm the importance of goals as the main focus of an exercise program. 319. Which characteristic is MOST associated with an increased health risk? a. HDL cholesterol = 55 mg/dL b. Body mass index (BMI) = 26.0 kg/m2 c. Resting heart rate = 79 beats per minute (bpm) d. Waist-to-hip ratio (WHR) = 1.03 320. Tom has had great success with his weight-management program. On numerous occasions, Cindy has heard Tom share his success with others, complimenting Cindy and recommending her training services. Cindy would like to share Tom's success to promote her business. She can talk about Tom's progress ___________. a. If she has written consent from Tom b. If he writes out his comments so that Cindy does not misquote him c. Only if Tom is present when she is talking about him d. Because she has observed Tom sharing his results with others 321. A female client lost 30 lb in four months while training with you. She has recently started dating someone with whom she is going out to dinners, movies, and plays multiple nights per week. She has regained 15 lb and has come back to you for help. What would be the BEST way to help her? a. Assist her in developing strategies for increasing exercise and reducing calories when she is alone. b. Work with her to identify ways she could include more active recreation and healthy eating with the new person in her life. c. Congratulate her on her new relationship and tell her not to worry about such a small weight gain. d. Help her to seriously consider whether being in this relationship is in her best interest. 322. What is the BEST reason to refer a client to another professional? a. To increase program adherence and social support with a team approach b. The client requests specific meal plans to help him to lose weight c. The client is categorized as "moderate risk" and wants a submaximal VO2 test d. To develop a strong network of allied healthcare professionals 323. During the initial interview, you learn that your male client is following a 1000-calorie/day diet. He has a weight loss goal of 25 lb (11.4 kg) and has been exercising (aerobic and resistance training) 60 to 90 minutes per day, four to five days per week. He has no significant health problems or risk factors but reports that he has been feeling low in energy. What course of action would be the MOST appropriate? a. Help him to progress his current program because he has no significant health risks. b. Refer him to his personal physician for screening for possible metabolic disorders. c. Discuss his current diet and exercise programs with him and suggest a moderate increase in caloric intake. d. Refer him to a registered dietitian to increase his caloric intake. 324. Standard of care is a legal concept that can be used in the process of determining if __________. a. Your services were equivalent to those of your nearest competitors b. You went above and beyond to provide care to your clients c. The care you provided met current professional standards and guidelines d. You violated your contractual agreement with your client 325. One gram of protein yields how many kcal of energy? a. 4 kcal b. 6 kcal c. 7 kcal d. 9 kcal 326. Which of the following is outside the scope of practice of an ACE-certified Health Coach? a. Suggesting alternative low-fat foods for a client with high cholesterol b. Assessing client dietary intake via a three-day food journal c. Designing meal plans to simplify shopping and menu planning for a client d. Educating a vegetarian client about plant-based sources of protein 327. Which of the following suggestions would be MOST appropriate for an overweight client who frequently eats at restaurants during the work week? a. Provide him with a variety of healthful meals and snacks that he can take to work. b. Help him to understand appropriate portion sizes and lower-fat cooking methods for making more healthful food choices when dining out. c. Recommend that he eat fewer meals during the day so that he can maintain a lower total calorie intake. d. Suggest that he modify his work schedule to allow him to prepare a packed lunch. 328. During the initial interview with an obese client, the client discusses their goal of losing body fat. Which of the following statements is true about exercise intensity for overweight clients who want to lose body fat? a. Low-intensity exercise is recommended because it burns the greatest percentage of calories b. High-intensity exercise is not recommended because it burns the lowest percentage of calories from fat. c. Low-intensity exercise is recommended because it is safer and better tolerated physically and psychologically. d. Very high-intensity exercise is recommended because the client will quickly lose body fat. 329. It is best to ask clients unbiased, nonjudgmental questions when trying to obtain information about their dietary habits. Which of the following is the BEST example of an unbiased, nonjudgmental question? a. You are avoiding fatty foods whenever possible, correct? b. Do you drink a lot of sugary drinks each day or only a few times per week? c. Do you drink caffeinated beverages? d. Are you eating vegetables at most meals like you should? 330. Prior to starting an exercise program with a new client, what is the MOST reliable predictor of exercise adherence? a. Past exercise program participation b. Recent retirement from a successful career c. Completing some education beyond high school d. Being obese with a desire to lose weight 331. A client you have been working with for 14 weeks returns to her regularly scheduled sessions following a one-week cruise. She has been happy about her program, having lost 20 lb (9.1 kg) and increasing her strength and endurance. She is now discouraged as she gained 5 lb (2.3 kg) during the cruise. Which of the following responses would be MOST appropriate to help her get back on track with her workouts and weight loss? a. Explain that relapses are common and help the client to establish new goals and an exercise program to meet these goals. b. Congratulate your client on gaining only 5 lb (2.3 kg), as most people gain more than this on a cruise, and resume training based on her pre-vacation program. c. Express genuineness by sharing a story about the weight you gained during a vacation and ensure her that you can help her to lose that weight within a few weeks. d. Recommend decreased calorie consumption for one week along with extra cardiorespiratory training to help her burn extra calories. 332. A client comes to you claiming, "I want to lose the last 10 lb (4.5 kg) that I have not been able to get rid of since having my child three years ago." During the health-history interview, she tells you that she has been running three miles per day, three or four days per week, and taking yoga classes one or two days per week for the past 18 months. According to the transtheoretical model of behavioral change, this client is in which stage of change? a. Contemplation b. Preparation c. Action d. Maintenance 333. The results of a reassessment you conduct with your client show that his body mass index (BMI) score has dropped from 31 to 28. This information should be documented in which section of a SOAP note? a. Subjective b. Objective c. Assessment d. Plan 334. Which three skinfolds should you measure to estimate percent body fat for a female client using the Jackson and Pollock (1985) equation? a. Triceps, thigh, and suprailium b. Chest, thigh, and abdomen c. Triceps, subscapular, and abdomen d. Subscapular, suprailium, and thigh 335. Male, 47 years old 336. Father had a heart attack at age 59 337. Quit smoking four months ago 338. Sedentary 339. Resting BP = 132/88 mmHg 340. BMI = 28.9 kg/m2 341. Total cholesterol = 198 mg/dL 342. According to the ACSM risk-stratification guidelines, this client, who is looking to participate in moderate exercise, would be classified as __________. a. Low risk b. Moderate risk c. High risk d. Very high risk 343. Male, 47 years old 344. Father had a heart attack at age 59 345. Quit smoking four months ago 346. Sedentary 347. Resting BP = 132/88 mmHg 348. BMI = 28.9 kg/m2 349. Total cholesterol = 198 mg/dL 350. When designing the cardiorespiratory portion of this client's exercise program, what initial exercise intensity would be appropriate based on the ACSM risk-stratification guidelines? a. <40% VO2R b. 40 to 59% VO2R c. >60% VO2R d. Physician's recommendations required 351. Which of the following is the BEST source for current scientifically based research on nutrition and weight management? a. Textbooks used in higher education b. Health and fitness magazines c. Healthful recipe books written by chefs d. Peer-reviewed professional journals 352. A client who has type 2 diabetes has been told by his physician to avoid high-glycemic foods to help with his blood sugar regulation. He is not sure what foods are high-glycemic and asks for your help. You tell him that high-glycemic foods include __________. a. Dried fruit and graham crackers b. Blueberries and refined pasta c. Ice cream and plain yogurt d. Strawberries and oatmeal 353. A bag of pretzels has eight servings, each of which contains 23 grams of carbohydrates, 3 grams of protein, and 0 grams of fat. Based on this information, how many total calories does this bag of pretzels have? a. 104 kcal b. 208 kcal c. 832 kcal d. 1872 kcal 354. Which of the following is the BEST example of a well-stated goal for a client seeking to lose weight? a. "I will reduce my daily total caloric intake by 500 calories to lose fat and reach my goals." b. "I will lower my caloric intake by 500 calories per day and exercise to lose at least 30 lb in the next two months." c. "I will decrease my caloric intake by 250 calories per day and expend 500 additional calories four days per week to lose 10 lb (4.5 kg) in 10 weeks." d. "I will eat less dietary fat to create a negative calorie balance so that I can lose weight to look and feel better." 355. A client you are working with is planning to go on three day charity bike ride with 6 hours each day of cycling. As she prepares for the event she asks you for any tips. What is the BEST information to provide her at this time? a. Increase vitamin and mineral consumption to facilitate oxygen utilization. b. Consume 30 to 60 grams of carbohydrate per hour of training c. Increase protein consumption to facilitate recovery. d. Decrease the length of warm-up to minimize overtraining. 356. An ACE-certified Health Coach is being sued by a former client who suffered a mild heart attack while performing cardiorespiratory exercise. He alleges that the health coach set a target heart rate for him that was too high for his fitness level. Which type of insurance would protect the health coach against claims of this nature? a. Product liability b. Professional liability c. General liability d. Individual medical insurance 357. Based on the dietary information for the four foods below, which one has the highest percentage of calories from fat? 358. Two slices of pizza with vegetables: 359. 298 kcal 360. 13 g protein 361. 35 g carbohydrate 362. 12 g fat 363. Cheeseburger with bun: 364. 355 kcal 365. 18 g protein 366. 37 g carbohydrate 367. 15 g fat 368. Two chicken enchiladas: 369. 471 kcal 370. 27 g protein 371. 40 g carbohydrate 372. 24 g fat 373. Beef stew with potatoes and vegetables (16 oz): 374. 398 kcal 375. 30 g protein 376. 45 g carbohydrate 377. 11 g fat a. Two slices of pizza with vegetables b. Cheeseburger with bun c. Two chicken enchiladas d. Beef stew with potatoes and vegetables (16 oz) 378. You are reviewing your client's food diary and your client reports that she has made significant changes in her dietary patterns and exercise habits. However, her weight has been very stable for the past four weeks. What is the BEST explanation for her weight plateau? a. Many people underestimate their eating and overestimate their physical activity. b. Your client is a compulsive overeater and is not providing you with records because she wants to hide this fact. c. All clients reach a weight plateau at some point during their weight-loss efforts. d. Your client's activity patterns and dietary recommendations need to be recalculated to promote further weight loss. 379. Follow-up assessments show that a female client with whom you have been working has lost 5 lb (2.3 kg), but has seen little change in her body composition. What modification would be MOST important to make to her weight-reduction program at this time? a. Add resistance training two to three days per week to maintain lean body mass and basal metabolic rate. b. Increase cardiorespiratory exercise intensity to increase caloric expenditure so she will lose more weight. c. Decrease caloric intake by 200 kcal per day to facilitate greater fat loss. d. Increase protein consumption to maintain lean body mass while losing weight. 380. Bulimia nervosa is characterized by which of the following? a. A sense of a loss of control with binge eating and then purging via vomiting, laxatives, or excessive exercise b. Extreme weight loss and a drive for thinness even after the individual has dropped below normal weight values c. Periodic bouts of fasting lasting several days, followed by extensive exercise d. Lanugo hair on the face and trunk, cyanosis of the hands and feet, and brittle hair 381. Based on the DASH eating plan, this client should increase his daily intake of which food groups? 382. Breakfast: 3 eggs scrambled, 4 slices of bacon, 2 pieces of toast with butter, 2 cups of orange juice, and coffee 383. Lunch: Roast beef and cheddar cheese sandwich on wheat bread with mayonnaise, an apple, and iced tea 384. Afternoon snack: Banana and 1⁄2-cup of mixed nuts 385. Dinner: 12-ounce chicken breast; 1 cup pasta with tomatoes, basil, and olive oil; dinner roll; and 1 beer a. Fruits and nuts, seeds, and dry beans b. Vegetables and low-fat or fat-free dairy foods c. Fruits and meats, poultry, and fish d. Vegetables and grains and grain products 386. Based on the DASH eating plan, this client should decrease his daily intake of which food group? 387. Breakfast: 3 eggs scrambled, 4 slices of bacon, 2 pieces of toast with butter, 2 cups of orange juice, and coffee 388. Lunch: Roast beef and cheddar cheese sandwich on wheat bread with mayonnaise, an apple, and iced tea 389. Afternoon snack: Banana and 1⁄2-cup of mixed nuts 390. Dinner: 12-ounce chicken breast; 1 cup pasta with tomatoes, basil, and olive oil; dinner roll; and 1 beer a. Grains and grain products b. Meats, poultry, and fish c. Nuts, seeds, and dry beans d. Low-fat or fat-free dairy foods 391. During a reassessment of a client's fitness, he says, "I have been working extra hours the past month, making it difficult to keep up with my regular exercise and I have been skipping meals. I want to make exercise a priority, but I also want to spend free time with my family." Which of the following responses from a health coach would show the most empathy and the use of active listening in helping this client adhere to exercise? a. "So, you have been working extra hours, you are having difficulty exercising regularly, have been skipping meals, and you want to spend more time with your family. Let's modify your program to maximize the time you do have available." b. "I understand that you are busy and that you want to spend more time with your family. You must make time to exercise if you want to be able to keep up with your kids as they get older." c. "Wow, you sound really busy. I know that when I get busy like that it becomes difficult to exercise. Let me give you some strategies that have helped me to maintain activity in the past." d. "It sounds like you have a busy schedule. Let's review your goals and see if there are some physical activities that you can do with your family." 392. Your client has successfully adhered to his exercise program for three months and is excited to reassess his fitness levels to see the improvements he has made. According to the transtheoretical model of behavioral change, this client is in which stage of change? a. Contemplation b. Preparation c. Action d. Maintenance 393. Which of the following nonverbal communication techniques should help instill confidence and build rapport? a. Sit with a comfortable yet strong posture with legs and arms uncrossed, while moving naturally and attempting to maintain eye contact b. Lean forward with arms crossed on the desk, maintain eye contact, and nod in agreement as the client speaks c. Sit up straight, maintain eye contact with the client at all times, and quickly lean forward to convey active listening when the client speaks d. Lean back and casually cross one leg over the other to convey a relaxed demeanor while maintaining eye contact 394. A client tells you in his initial interview that he would like to lose 40 lb (18.2 kg) in two months. What is a more realistic timeframe for this weight to be lost safely and effectively? a. 10 weeks b. 14 weeks c. 17 weeks d. 20 weeks 395. Which of the following is the LEAST likely to facilitate maintenance of weight loss? a. Avoiding all foods rich in fats and simple sugars b. Having good social support c. Keeping a physical-activity log d. Establishing relapse-prevention strategies 396. A new 31-year-old female client tells you that she is in her second pregnancy trimester and hands you a physician's release for continued exercise as tolerated. Which modification to her weight-loss program would be MOST appropriate at this time? a. Recommend that she eat a small snack before exercise sessions and instruct her to keep her heart rate below 140 bpm at all times during exercise. b. Provide her with education on the need to increase caloric intake during the second and third trimesters of pregnancy and also advise that calorie deficits aimed at losing weight should now be discontinued. c. Maintain current nutrition intake and modify the exercise program by discontinuing all exercises conducted in a supine position. d. Suggest that she change her exercise program to aquatic exercise only, and recommend that she add 1000 kcal per day to her diet. 397. A new client you are working with wants to lose 30 lb (13.6 kg) in 20 weeks. She has already decreased her caloric intake from 2,000 to 1,500 kcal per day. How many additional kcal would she have to expend through exercise per week to achieve her goal in the 20th week? a. 1000 kcal per week b. 1750 kcal per week c. 2750 kcal per week d. 3500 kcal per week 398. A 53-year-old male client with type 2 diabetes shows up for his exercise session and seems a bit tired. He tells you that he measured his blood glucose 15 minutes earlier and it was low. What action would be MOST appropriate at this time? a. Postpone exercise until he can get his blood sugar under control. b. Cancel the exercise session and require a physician's evaluation before resuming training sessions with him. c. Have him consume simple carbohydrates and recheck his blood sugar before exercise. d. Extend the warm-up period for this session and decrease the intensity of all exercises. 399. A client tells you that she generally eats a healthy diet, but then consumes a lot of sweets during times of stress. Which of the following responses would be MOST appropriate for a health coach to take? a. Recommend that she avoid having sweets in the house during times of stress. b. Help her identify and recognize her stress triggers and work with her to develop some coping strategies. c. Explain that lapses of this nature are normal, but that she will have to control them if she wants to reach her goals. d. Suggest that she exercise more following stressful times to balance out the calories from sweets. 400. A client you are working with has lost 5 lb (2.3 kg) initially and wants to lose an additional 15 lb (6.8 kg). She has created a negative-calorie balance by decreasing her caloric intake by 200 kcal per day and expending an additional 300 kcal four days per week through exercise. Based on her current negative calorie balance, approximately how long will it take her to reach her goal? a. 8 weeks b. 15 weeks c. 20 weeks d. 26 weeks 401. You are working with a new client who has had multiple failed attempts at weight loss and claims that his busy schedule always gets in the way. Which of the following would be MOST effective in helping this client develop a plan that has a greater chance for success? a. Have him complete a Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire (PAR-Q) b. Discuss high-risk situations and effective coping strategies c. Give him a three-day dietary recall to complete to identify food obstacles d. Perform a thorough health-history interview 402. According to the ACSM risk-stratification guidelines, what exercise intensity would be appropriate for a 58-year-old female client with the following health-history information? 403. Father had a stroke at age 68 404. Never smoked 405. Walks daily for 20-30 minutes 406. Resting BP = 117/74 mmHg 407. Total cholesterol = 183 mg/dL 408. Fasting blood glucose = 92 mg/dL 409. Has occasional heart palpitations a. <40% VO2R b. 40 to 59% VO2R c. >60% VO2R d. Physician's release recommended prior to exercise 410. A 32-year-old client brings a physician's release to his first session for "exercise as tolerated." He says that his doctor told him that he has something called metabolic syndrome and that he needs to lose weight and begin exercising. He says that he feels fine, but has come to you because he trusts his doctor. According to the transtheoretical model of behavioral change, this client is in which stage of change? a. Precontemplation b. Contemplation c. Preparation d. Action 411. During your first meeting with a new client, he tells you that the reason he has come to you for exercise and weight-management counseling is that he has recently been diagnosed with high blood pressure and does not want to die of a stroke like his father did. This client's desire to engage in regular physical activity can be explained by which of the following? a. Self-efficacy b. Transtheoretical model of behavior change c. Health belief model d. Coping strategies 412. When designing an exercise program for a client who wants to lose weight, which of the following strategies would be MOST effective in helping to develop the client's self-efficacy for physical activity and promote exercise adherence? a. Model the program after the programs of other clients who you have helped to achieve their goals. b. Include functional exercises focused on agility to make the program more interesting. c. Design a program similar to those used in reality TV shows focusing on weight loss. d. Implement a program with a series of short-term goals that can be easily achieved. 413. All the following conditions require a health coach to refer a client for medical release prior to exercise EXCEPT __________. a. Pregnancy b. Diabetes mellitus c. Asthma d. Prediabetes 414. A client is feeling ambivalent about the need for a real change, so you have her create a decisional balance worksheet. Which of the following is an advantage to beginning exercise? a. Requires effort b. Takes up time c. Less back pain d. More laundry 415. A health coach appropriately progresses a client's workout to include barbell squats to increase the intensity of her leg workouts. The health coach spots her correctly as she completes the first two sets with ease. During the third set, the health coach is distracted by a fellow employee who enters the weight room. During this distraction, the client loses balance momentarily and has to drop the weight behind her. She immediately complains of back spasms. In this situation, of what act is the health coach MOST liable? a. Negligence due to an act of commission b. Negligence resulting from an act of omission c. An act of gross negligence d. An act of limited liability 416. If a client is injured during a training session led by a health coach outdoors, under which circumstance might a court remove the health coach's potential liability due to an act of God? a. Lightning storm b. Freezing cold weather c. Earthquake d. Excessive humidity 417. You are checking equipment in preparation for your next client to arrive for her training session and notice that an exercise bike is not functioning properly and may pose a danger to your client and other gym members. What is the BEST plan of action to take concerning this piece of equipment? a. Remove the exercise bike from the gym floor b. Put a 'do not use' sign on the exercise bike c. Unplug the exercise bike until it can be repaired d. Leave the exercise bike as is and use the bike next to it 418. What type of supervision is a health coach providing when spotting a client during a squat exercise? a. Spotting supervision b. General supervision c. Hyper-vigilant supervision d. Specific supervision 419. A person with this habit rarely asks about the underlying feeling or emotion attached to a message. a. The faker b. The interrupter c. The intellectual or logical listener d. The rebuttal maker 420. A person with this habit often does not let the speaker articulate his or her feelings or thoughts. a. The advice giver b. The focus thief c. The interrupter d. The faker 421. A person with this habit is typically not concentrating on the speaker. a. The focus thief b. The rebuttal maker c. The advice giver d. The faker 422. A person with this habit is too anxious to speak and shows little concern for the speaker. a. The advice giver b. The focus thief c. The interrupter d. The faker 423. A person with this habit uses the speaker's words as a way to get to his or her own message. a. The advice giver b. The focus thief c. The interrupter d. The faker 424. A person with this habit is most concerned about getting the speaker to see another point of view. a. The focus thief b. The rebuttal maker c. The advice giver d. The faker 425. Motivational interviewing is grounded in expressing ______________. a. sympathy b. empathy c. intrinsic motivation d. extrinsic motivation 426. ____________________ refers to the ability to recognize one's own feelings, as well as the feelings of others. a. Empathy b. Emotional intelligence 427. C. Sympathy 428. D. Cultural competence 429. Answering the following question - Does the individual have the ability to control impulses, manage emotions, act in resilient ways, and follow through on commitments? - is a means of evaluating which component of emotional intelligence? a. self-awareness b. self-efficacy c. self-confidence d. self-regulation 430. A client who has been engaged in lifestyle change for more than six months is in which stage of change? a. precontemplation b. preparation c. action d. maintenance 431. Which of the following nonverbal behaviors often conveys curiosity? a. tilting the head slightly to the side b. tilting the head slightly forward c. slowly nodding d. furrowing the brow 432. A SWOT analysis is typically utilized to assess ________________. a. the effectiveness of an exercise b. a client's readiness to change c. one's self or an opportunity d. a client's overall progress 433. The DISC model can be used to better understand a client's ______________. a. motivation level b. personality type c. stage of readiness d. fitness level 434. Habit strength will typically ______________ as a client moves through the stages of the transtheoretical model of behavioral change. a. decrease b. increase c. fluctuate d. remain steady 435. Which of the following terms is defined as "the demonstration of an attitude of caring"? a. sympathy b. empathy c. respect d. emotion 436. According to cognitive behavioral theory, what is the link between an activating event and the emotional and behavioral consequence of that action? a. the client's actions b. the client's beliefs c. the client's education level d. the client's fitness level 437. What is the final step in the seven-step problem-solving model presented in this chapter? a. implementation b. relapse c. maintenance d. evaluation 438. Which professional would introduce such techniques as meditation, guided imagery, and biofeedback to an athlete's training regimen? a. personal trainer b. nutritionist/registered dietitian c. psychologist/psychiatrist d. licensed healthcare professional 439. Which professional would change the timing of a diabetic client's insulin injections to avoid disruption of his or her training schedule? a. personal trainer b. nutritionist/registered dietitian c. psychologist/psychiatrist d. licensed healthcare professional 440. Which professional would work with a client who has a history of weight-cycling or an uncontrolled chronic condition such as diabetes? a. personal trainer b. nutritionist/registered dietitian c. psychologist/psychiatrist d. licensed healthcare professional 441. Which professional would assess the basic biomechanics of a client and implement an exercise program accordingly? a. personal trainer b. nutritionist/registered dietitian c. psychologist/psychiatrist d. licensed healthcare professional 442. Neuro-linguistic programming is reported to improve an individual's _____________. a. self-efficacy b. self-motivation c. self-esteem d. self-regulation 443. Pavlov's demonstration that animals can be trained to respond to stimuli in predictable ways introduced the concept of _______________. a. constructivism b. cognitive development c. behaviorism d. emotional intelligence 444. A potential client who contacts a health coach to inquire about getting started on a weight-loss program is MOST likely in which stage of the transtheoretical model of behavioral change? a. precontemplation b. contemplation c. action d. maintenance 445. A health coach who is able to put him- or herself "in a client's shoes" demonstrates _____________. a. sympathy b. empathy c. emotional intelligence d. active listening 446. A client tells the health coach that she has been feeling depressed in the evenings and often overeats as a result, in which section of a SOAP note should this information be recorded? a. S b. O c. A d. P 447. What is the belief in one's capabilities to perform a given task? a. shaping b. self-motivation c. high-risk situation d. self-efficacy 448. What is a common scenario or event that causes a client to relapse? a. shaping b. self-motivation c. high-risk situation d. self-efficacy 449. What is the stimulus that precedes a given behavior and signals the likely consequences of that behavior? a. antecedent b. shaping c. self-motivation d. high-risk situation 450. What occurs when reinforcement is used to gradually achieve a target behavior? a. shaping b. self-motivation c. high-risk situation d. self-efficacy 451. What is one's ability to set goals, monitor progress, and self-reinforce? a. shaping b. self-motivation c. high-risk situation d. self-efficacy 452. After months of being upset whenever his wife cooked a "boring, healthy dinner", your client's husband has finally stopped complaining and begun to support her weight-loss efforts. This is an example of _______________. a. positive reinforcement b. negative reinforcement c. extinction d. punishment 453. When social support is broken down into specific types, support from a ________________ is shown to be an important and reliable predictor of program adherence. a. spouse b. coworker c. workout partner d. health coach 454. Which of the following terms is defined as one's belief in personal control over health consequences? a. operant conditioning b. self-efficacy c. decisional balance d. locus of control 455. Which of the following is NOT among the core components of the transtheoretical model of behavioral change? a. decisional balance b. self-efficacy c. operant conditioning d. processes of change 456. A new client tells you that she used to participate in local 10K and half-marathon running events before having twins. Although she wanted to continue running, she has not been active since her children were born two years ago. Now that they are in daycare three days per week, she has begun walking a bit and wants to begin running, with an eventual goal of completing her first marathon. Based on this information, what stages of change has she gone through from pre-pregnancy to meeting with you today? a. action-precontemplation-action b. maintenance-contemplation-action c. action-maintenance-preparation d. maintenance-contemplation-preparation 457. Which of the following strategies would be MOST appropriate during the maintenance stage of change? a. encourage program variety b. encourage evaluation of the pros and cons of making change c. reiterate long-term benefits of adherence d. provide continual feedback on progress 458. During your initial interview with a new client, you learn that his motivation to sign up for weight-management sessions was based on a recent medical exam during which his physician informed him that he is prehypertensive and has dyslipidemia. He also has a family history of cardiovascular disease. His motivation to exercise is MOST likely associated with which of the following? a. transtheoretical model b. health belief model c. operant conditioning d. cognitive behavioral techniques 459. What is the MOST influential source of self-efficacy information related to exercise? a. persuasive verbal feedback b. emotional state and mood c. past exercise performance d. vicarious exercise experiences 460. Sending a text message to a client to remind her of an upcoming appointment is an example of which behavior-change strategy? a. cognitions and behaviors b. stimulus control c. cognitive behavioral techniques d. shaping 461. Which of the following strategies should a health coach AVOID when trying to promote a program ownership on the part of a client? a. having clients journal their thoughts, experiences, and emotions related to the program b. giving clients the information needed to determine the outcome of their programs c. helping clients to reinforce their own behaviors through internal encouragement d. providing clients with increasing amounts of external feedback as the program progresses 462. What is the MOST important thing that health coaches can do to improve the quality of their communication with clients? a. practice being better and more engaged listeners b. demonstrate empathy during all interactions c. mirror the body language of clients d. focus on developing the client's self-efficacy 463. Which of the following is NOT an effective technique for showing empathy when speaking with a client? a. being an active part of the conversation b. following up with detailed questions c. summarizing what you heard in your own words d. sharing a similar experience from your own life 464. Which of the following statements about rapport is LEAST accurate? a. rapport is an important determinant of adherence to an exercise program b. rapport can be firmly established during the first consultation with a new client c. rapport is the foundation of every stage of the ACE IFT Model d. rapport is defined as a relationship of trust and mutual understanding 465. Which of the following statements about self-efficacy is MOST accurate? a. it can take several sessions for a new client to reveal his or her level of self-efficacy regarding exercise performance b. self-efficacy is a personality trait, meaning that it remains largely unchanged throughout one's life c. a client with low self-efficacy will likely appreciate a health coach's efforts to move forward with the program unchanged d. the health coach should continually focus on a client's self-efficacy level during all exercise sessions 466. What should be the health coach's primary focus during all elements of a weight-management program? a. weight-loss success b. the client's experience c. program goals d. overall adherence 467. Which intervention style is defined by: the health coach offers his or her own experiences and point of view. a. prescriptive b. catalytic c. informative d. supportive 468. Which intervention style is defined by: the health coach offers direct suggestions for what clients can do to help themselves reach desired outcomes. a. prescriptive b. catalytic c. informative d. supportive 469. Which intervention style is defined by: the health coach asks questions to encourage new thinking, generate new solutions, and create new options. a. a. prescriptive b. catalytic c. informative d. supportive 470. Which intervention style is defined by: the health coach helps the client express emotions, fears, or thoughts that he or she has not previously confronted. a. informative b. supportive c. confronting d. cathartic 471. Which intervention style is defined by: the health coach builds client confidence by focusing on empowerment, confidence, and the client's own strength and accomplishments. a. catalytic b. informative c. supportive d. cathartic 472. Which intervention style is defined by: the health coach mirrors what the client has said, offers his or her own thoughts about what the client has said in a very direct way, and offers ideas for avoiding stumbling blocks. a. prescriptive b. catalytic c. confronting d. cathartic 473. According to the DISC model, an individual who is task-oriented and outgoing would have which personality type? a. dominant b. inspiring c. supportive d. cautious 474. A health coach who is interacting with a client in an authoritative manner might be using which of the following types of interventions? a. cathartic b. catalytic c. supportive d. informative 475. Which of the following body language indicators may reflect that the client is feeling a high level of tension? a. crossed arms b. biting the lip c. cracking knuckles d. rubbing the nose 476. Which of the following actions is MOST appropriate when using motivational interviewing with a client in the preparation stage of change? a. focus on long-term benefits b. reinforce intrinsic motivation c. validate the client's lack of readiness d. identify obstacles and assist with problem-solving 477. Which of the following is an example of a probing question? a. Why exactly did you skip Saturday's workout? b. how did you feel after Saturday's workout? c. Did you enjoy Saturday's workout? d. Adding 15 minutes to Saturday's workout is a good idea, don't you think? 478. In each session, one of your newest clients asks for websites and journal articles that support the balance-training techniques you are teaching her. What personality type is she MOST likely displaying? a. dominant b. inspiring c. supportive d. cautious 479. Motivational interviewing is a(n) ____________-centered way to help clients overcome ambivalence to change. a. health coach b. client c. outcome d. process 480. Which type of question typically brings a conversation to an end? a. open-ended questions b. closed-ended questions c. leading questions d. funnel questions 481. What verbal listening skill involves the health coach attempting to empathize with the feelings the client is expressing? a. clarifying b. linking c. reflecting d. encouraging 482. Which of the following statements reflects the use of an authoritative approach to coaching? a. "You did an admirable job of staying on track during your vacation. Great work!" b. "I experienced the same obstacles during my own struggles with weight loss" c. "Let's explore your emotional response to overeating at the part" d. "Can you think of any creative solutions to your struggles with eating a healthier breakfast?" 483. Which vitamin helps release energy from fats and vegetables? a. vitamin D b. pantothenic acid c. vitamin E d. carotene 484. Which vitamin aids cell development, functioning of the nervous system, and the metabolism of protein and fat? a. vitamin B12 b. vitamin K c. choline d. thiamin 485. Which vitamin protects blood cells, body tissue, and essential fatty acids from destruction in the body? a. choline b. thiamin c. vitamin D d. vitamin E 486. Which vitamin is essential for blood-clotting functions? a. pantothenic acid b. thiamin c. vitamin K d. choline 487. Which vitamin supports the formation of maintenance of skin, hair, and mucous membranes? a. vitamin D b. pantothenic acid c. vitamin E d. carotene 488. Which vitamin is essential for liver function? a. pantothenic acid b. thiamin c. vitamin K d. choline 489. Which vitamin helps the body release energy from carbohydrates during metabolism? a. pantothenic acid b. thiamin c. vitamin K d. choline 490. Which vitamin aids in bone and tooth formation? a. vitamin D b. vitamin B12 c. vitamin K d. thiamin 491. Which mineral is important in the development of the reproductive system and aids in healing? a. calcium b. magnesium c. iodine d. zinc 492. Which mineral is a component of the hormone thyroxine, which controls metabolism? a. calcium b. magnesium c. iodine d. zinc 493. Which mineral is essential for strong bones, teeth, and muscle tissue and helps to regulate the heart beat? a. calcium b. magnesium c. iodine d. zinc 494. Which mineral protects body tissues against oxidative damage? a. iron b. fluoride c. chromium d. selenium 495. Which mineral stimulates bone formation and inhibits or even reverses dental caries? a. iodine b. iron c. fluoride d. chromium 496. Which mineral maintains acid/base balance and is important in the metabolism of carbohydrates, minerals, and sugar? a. calcium b. magnesium c. iodine d. zinc 497. Which mineral is important for hemoglobin formation and improves blood quality? a. iodine b. iron c. fluoride d. chromium 498. Which mineral is involved in glucose metabolism and increases the effectiveness of insulin? a. iron b. magnesium c. selenium d. chromium 499. Which micronutrient is associated with: newborns are at risk of being deficient in this nutrient, as it does not cross the placenta and is negligible in breast milk. a. sodium b. vitamin K c. iron d. phosphorus 500. Which micronutrient is associated with: like calcium, this nutrient plays a role in the mineralization of bones and teeth. a. iron b. phosphorus c. iodine d. vitamin D 501. Which micronutrient is associated with: substance in plants that improves health and reduces the risk for disease, but is not required for normal functioning. a. vitamin d b. phytochemical c. sodium d. iron 502. Which micronutrient is associated with: a toxicity of this nutrient can be especially hazardous for individuals taking anti-clotting medication, such as Coumadin a. iodine b. vitamin D c. phytochemical d. vitamin E 503. Which micronutrient is associated with: small amounts of sunlight exposure induce the body to make this nutrient. a. iodine b. vitamin D c. phytochemical d. vitamin E 504. Which micronutrient is associated with: a deficiency in this important antioxidant can cause scurvy a. a. iodine b. vitamin D c. phytochemical d. vitamin C 505. Which micronutrient is associated with: a deficiency in this nutrient in childhood and adolescence can lead to decreased peak bone mass and suboptimal bone strength a. iodine b. vitamin D c. calcium d. vitamin E 506. Which micronutrient is associated with: excessive consumption of this electrolyte can contribute to hypertension and osteoporosis a. vitamin C b. sodium c. vitamin K d. iron 507. Which micronutriet is associated with: this nutrient can be stored in the body for future use as the protein complex ferritin a. vitamin C b. sodium c. vitamin K d. iron 508. Which micronutrient is associated with: deficiency or toxicity of this nutrient can cause goiter a. calcium b. iodine c. vitamin E d. iron 509. What maintains the pH of the stomach by signaling the cells that produce hydrochloric acid whenever food enters the stomach? a. gastrin b. secretin c. cholecystokinin d. gastric inhibitory peptide 510. What tells the pancreas when to produce and secrete bicarbonate to neutroalize the stomach acid? a. gastrin b. secretin c. cholecystokinin d. gastric inhibitory peptide 511. What causes the gallbladder to contract and release bile when fat is present in the small intestine, and slows the motility of the intestine to allow absorption of foods that require more time for digestion and absorption? a. gastrin b. secretin c. cholecystokinin d. gastric inhibitory peptide 512. What is the number of calories per gram in carbohydrate? a. 9 b. 4 c. 7 d. 11 513. What is the number of calories per gram in fat? a. 9 b. 4 c. 7 d. 11 514. What is the number of calories per gram in protein? a. 9 b. 4 c. 7 d. 11 515. What is the number of calories per gram in alcohol? a. 9 b. 4 c. 7 d. 11 516. Which of the macronutrients is the body's preferred source of immediate energy? a. protein b. carbohydrate c. fat d. vitamins 517. ____________ serve(s) as the transport mechanism for iron, vitamins, minerals, fats, and oxygen within the body. a. water b. electrolytes c. protein d. antioxidants 518. Which of the following is NOT a determinant of a specific food's protein quality? a. digestibility b. bioavailability c. essential amino-acid composition d. the number of peptide bonds 519. Which type of fat is an excellent source of essential nutrients? a. monounsaturated fat b. trans fat c. saturated fat d. hydrogenated fat 520. When a nutrient is described as "essential", this indicates that it _____________. a. is essential for human survival b. is considered a macronutrient c. must be consumed in the diet d. is key to weight management 521. Where does the majority of food digestion and absorption take place? a. small intestine b. mouth c. large intestine d. stomach 522. In order for ___________ to be digested and become useful to the body, it must undergo denaturation and then deamination. a. fat b. carbohydrate c. protein d. alcohol 523. Which of the following is a water-soluble vitamin? a. vitamin A b. vitamin C c. vitamin D d. vitamin E 524. For which of the following minerals do women have a higher RDA than men? a. iron b. fluoride c. zinc d. calcium 525. Which of the following statements regarding caffeine is NOT accurate? a. caffeine is a diuretic b. caffeine enhances athletic performance c. caffeine contains 7 calories per gram d. caffeine is a stimulant 526. It is important to balance nutrition intake with exercise and insulin or other medications if you have __________. a. hypertension b. diabetes c. osteoporosis d. cardiovascular disease 527. A client should limit saturated fat to <10% of total caloric intake (preferably <7%), added sugars to <10% of total caloric intake, alcohol to no more than one drink per day, and sodium intake to <2.3 g/day if you have ___________. a. hypertension b. diabetes c. osteoporosis d. cardiovascular disease 528. Adequate calcium and vitamin D intake is essential if you have ____________. a. hypertension b. diabetes c. osteoporosis d. cardiovascular disease 529. The DASH eating plan combined with decreased salt intake has been proven to have a positive effect on ____________. a. hypertension b. diabetes c. osteoporosis d. cardiovascular disease 530. Consume 6000ug of folic acid daily from fortified foods or supplements in addition to food forms of folate if a person has ______________. a. diabetes b. iron-deficiency anemia c. pregnancy/lactation d. hypertension 531. It is important to consume a source of vitamin C at each meal, include a serving of meat, fish, poultry, beans or legumes at each meal, and avoid drinking large aounts of coffee or tea if a client has ________________ a. diabetes b. iron-deficiency anemia c. pregnancy/lactation d. hypertension 532. What is the Mifflin-St. Jeor equation for estimating RMR for men? >Correct ANS< - RMR = 99.9 wt (kg) + 6.25 x ht (cm) - 4.92 x age (yrs) + 5 533. What is the Mifflin-St. Jeor equation for estimating RMR for women? >Correct ANS< - RMR = 99.9 wt (kg) + 6.25 x ht (cm) - 4.92 x age (yrs) -161 534. The ingredients listed first on a nutrition facts label are the most ___________ in the product. a. nutritious b. abundant c. calorie-dense d. important 535. According to MyPlate, what percentage of a balanced diet is made up of fruits and vegetables? a. 30% b. 40% c. 50% d. 60% 536. Which of the following is defined as "the levels of intake of essential nutrients that, on the basis of scientific knowledge, are judged by the Food and Nutrition Board to be adequate to meet the known needs of practically all healthy persons"? a. Recommended Dietary Allowances b. Estimated Average Requirement c. Adequate Intake 537. D. Percent Daily Value 538. Which of the following is an accurate macronutrient intake recommendation? a. carbohydrate = 60-70%; protein = 20-35%; fat = 5-10% b. carbohydrates = 45-65%; protein = 10-35%; fat = 20-35% c. carbohydrates = 30-40%; protein = 30-40%; fat = 30-40% d. carbohydrates = 55-75%; protein = 20-45%; fat = 5-25% 539. The glycemic load differs from the glycemic intake in that it takes _____________ into consideration. a. protein quality b. the structure of the fat molecules in the product c. nutrient density d. the amount of carbohydrate being consumed 540. Which of the following is an exmaple of an incomplete protein? a. poultry b. soy c. egg d. nuts 541. Which of the following is NOT among the American Heart Association's recommendations for improving nutrition in young children? a. allow children to determine meal times b. limit sedentary behaviors c. pay attention to portion size d. provide a wide variety of nutrient-dense foods 542. Which of the following individuals should avoid eating sushi, cream cheese made with unpasteurized milk, and raw cookie dough? a. a child who has not yet reached puberty b. a teenage athlete struggling with maintaining an adequate weight c. a pregnant woman in her second trimester d. an older adult with osteoporosis 543. The consumption of complementary proteins is a key consideration for individuals adhering to a _________ diet. a. gluten-free b. vegetarian c. low-carbohydrate d. DASH 544. Clients at risk for heart disease can be challenged by the health coach to eat fewer than 2.3 grams each day of _________. a. sodium b. total fat c. cholersterol d. added sugars 545. What is the equation to calculate BMI? MI = weight (kg) / height2 (m) 546. Men with waist circumferences above ________ and women with waist circumferences above ___________ display elevated cardiovascular risk profiles. >Correct ANS< - 40 inches and 35 inches 547. Which hormone provides short-term information about hunger and satiety; slows emptying of the stomach and sends satiety signals to the hypothalamus, which should inhibit food consumption? a. insulin b. leptin c. cholecystokinin d. ghrelin 548. Which hormone is involved with long-term control of energy intake; produced by the pancreatic beta-cells and secreted in response to elevated blood glucose levels? a. insulin b. leptin c. cholecystokinin d. ghrelin 549. Which hormone provides short-term information about hunger and satiety: stimulates appetite via stimulation of the NPY receptors and by stimulating growth hormone release from the pituitary gland? a. insulin b. leptin c. cholecystokinin d. ghrelin 550. Which hormone is involved with long-term control of energy intake; acts on the hypothalamus via a negative feedback loop to regulate energy intake? a. insulin b. leptin c. cholecystokinin d. ghrelin 551. Which hormone provides short-term information about hunger and satiety; acts on the hypothalamus to suppress appetite, on the pancreas to increase its exocrine secretion of digestive juices, and on the gallbladder to stimulate the release of bile? a. insulin b. Peptide YY c. cholecystokinin d. ghrelin 552. A client with a body mass index of 26.3 is classified a _____________. a. normal weight b. overweight c. obese d. morbidly obese 553. Why does android-pattern obesity increase the risk for coronary heart disease, high blood pressure, diabetes, and stroke more so than gynoid-pattern obesity? a. abdominal fat is more difficult to lose via lifestyle change b. abdominal fat is more closely associated with active overeating c. abdominal fat is more easily released into the bloodstream d. abdominal fat is more closely associated with fat cell hyperplasia 554. Activity thermogenesis, with includes purposeful exercise, accounts for approximately what percentage of daily energy expenditure? a. 60-75% b. 30-50% c. 15-30% d. 5-10% 555. Which of the following hormones has an effect on long-term control of energy intake? a. insulin b. leptin c. cholecystokinin d. ghrelin 556. ________________ was once thought to be a "hunger hormone" responsible for meal initiation, but it is more likely that it functions to prepare the body to deal with incoming food. a. insulin b. leptin c. cholecystokinin d. ghrelin 557. Which of the following is NOT a means of measuring an individual's body-fat percentage? a. hydrostatic weighing b. skinfold measurements c. bioelectrical impedance d. body mass index 558. Which of the following individuals is likely to have experienced fat cell hypertrophy, as opposed to fat cell hyperplasia? a. a 9-month-old girl who is categorized as obese b. a 16-year-old boy who became obese during a growth spurt c. a 40-year-old woman who gained weight, moving her from the overweight to obese category d. a 50-year-old man who has been morbidly obese for most of his adult life 559. What is the simplest means of determining a client's body-fat distribution pattern? a. calculating the waist-to-hip ratio b. hydrostatic weighing c. calculating body mass index d. skinfold measurements 560. Which of the macronutrients is most metabolically costly for the body to convert and store as fat? a. carbohydrate b. fat c. protein d. vitamins 561. What is the primary reason for the variability in basal metabolic rate between individuals? a. nonexercise activity thermogenesis b. passive overeating c. differences in lean body mass d. active overating 562. What is the equation to calculate glycemic load? >Correct ANS< - Glycemic load = GI x carbs (g) / 100 563. A positive energy balance is required during all of the following phases of life EXCEPT ____________ a. infancy b. childhood c. pregnancy d. menopause 564. A client who is expending 2000 calories per week via a new exercise plan needs to consume ___________ fewer calories each week in order to hit her goal of losing 1 pound (0.45k) per week. a. 1000 b. 1500 c. 2000 d. 2500 565. Which of the following factors decreases an individual's basal energy expenditure? a. increasing age b. body temperature c. caffeine consumption d. nicotine use 566. Which of the following can affect the thermic effect of a meal? a. calorie count b. time when eaten c. macronutrient composition d. exercising post-consumption 567. Research has supported the positive effects of __________ on both satiety and thermogenesis. A. fat b. protein c. carbohydrates d. fiber 568. Which pharmacological agent reduces feelings of hunger by increasing norepinephrine and serotonin activity in the brain? a. phentermine 569. b fenfluramine 570. c. orlistat 571. d. sibutramine 572. Which of the following foods is MOST likely to cause a spike in blood glucose and lead to overeating and subsequent weight gain? a. white rice b. bluberries c. plain yogurt d. oatmeal 573. A client eats 12 grams of a food that has a glycemic index of 60. What is the lycemic load of this snack? a. 72 b. 60 c. 7.2 d. 5 574. What is often considered the most effective tool for the treatment of severe obesity? a. fasting b. very low fat diet c. Alli use d. bariatric surgery 575. The health consequences and psychological impact of which eating disorder mirror those of overweight and obesity? a. anorexia nervosa b. bulimia nervosa c. binge eating disorder d. female athlete triad 576. What is the positive coronary artery disease risk-factor threshold for hypertension? a. SBP higher than 140mmHg and DBP higher than 90mmHg b. SBP higher than 120mmHG and DBP higher than 100mmHG c. SBP higher than 130mmHG and DMP higher than 95mmHg d. SBP higher than 150mmHg and DBP higher than 80mmHg 577. What is the positive coronary artery disease risk-factor threshold for dyslipidemia? a. LDL higher than 140mg/dL or HDL lower than 40mg/dL b. LDL higher than 130mg/dL or HDL lower than 60mg/dL c. LDL higher than 130mg/dL or HDL lower than 40mg/dL d. LDL higher than 150mg/dL or HDL lower than 50mg/dL 578. What is the positive coronary artery disease risk-factor threshold for sedentary lifestyle? a. not participating in at least 60 mins of moderate-intensity activity on at least 3 days per week for at least 6 months b. not participating in at least 60 mins of moderate-intensity activity on at least 4 days per week for at least 3 months c. not participating in at least 30 mins of moderate-intensity activity on at least 3 days per week for at least 6 months d. not participating in at least 30 mins of moderate-intensity activity on at least 3 days per week for at least 3 months 579. An individual with which of the following conditions would NOT require a physician's clearance before beginning a weight-management program? a. pregnancy b. hypertension c. BMI of 28 d. elevated triglycerides 580. A client presents with a resting blood pressure of 124/78 mmHg. How would this client be classified? a. normal b. prehypertension c. stage 1 hypertension d. stage 2 hypertension 581. The minimal health screening of a potential client prior to exercise testing and participation must include all of the following EXCEPT: a. identification of signs and symptoms of disease, if any b. evaluation of the client's coronary risk profile c. classification of heart disease risk factors d. psychological health questionnaire to diagnose eating disorders 582. Which of the following is considered a negative risk factor fo coronary artery disease? a. systolic blood pressure of 140mmHg b. body mass index of 28 kg/m2 c. HDL cholesterol of 62 mg/dL d. LDL cholesterol of 120 mg/dL 583. Which of the following individuals is considered at low risk for atherosclerotic disease according the ACSM risk stratification? a. male - age 42; father died at 50 of myocardial infarction; quit smoking 9 months ago b. female - age 56; BMI = 32; nonsmoker c. male - age 47; BMI = 28; serum cholesterol = 212 mg/dL d. female - age 60; fasting blood glucose = 114 mg/dL; HDL cholesterol = 32 584. What is the positive coronary artery disease risk-factor threshold for family history? a. myocardial infarction, coronary revascularization, sudden death before 55 years of age in father or 65 years of age in mother (or other first-degree relative) b. myocardial infarction, coronary revascularization, sudden death before 50 years of age in father or 60 years of age in mother (or other first-degree relative) c. sudden death before 55 years of age in father or 65 years of age in mother (or other first-degree relative) d. myocardial infarction, coronary revascularization 585. What is the positive coronary artery disease risk-factor threshold for prediabetes? a. fasting plasma glucose higher than 150mg/dL but lower than 170mg/dL b. fasting plasma glucose higher than 100mg/dL but lower than 126mg/dL c. fasting plasma glucose higher than 100mg/dL but lower than 120mg/dL d. fasting plasma glucose higher than 140mg/dL but lower than 160mg/dL 586. What is the acceptable body fat percentage for women? a. 10-13% b. 14-20% c. 21-24% d. 25-31% 587. What is the acceptable body fat percentage for men? a. 2-5% b. 6-13% c. 14-17% d. 18-24% 588. What are the 3 skinfold sites to measure body fat for men? a. chest, thigh, suprailium b. chest, thigh, abdomen c. tricep, thigh, abdomen d. tricep, thigh, suprailium 589. What are the 3 skinfold sites to measure body fat for women? a. chest, thigh, suprailium b. chest, thigh, abdomen c. tricep, thigh, abdomen d. tricep, thigh, suprailium 590. Which of the following is NOT a recommended use of body-composition assessment results with a new client? a. to get baseline information b. to compare the client with other new clientele c. to assist in exercise programming d. to promote a client's understanding of body fat 591. Nonessential fat is composed primarily of ______________. a. visceral fat b. triglycerides c. cholesterol d. abdominal fat 592. The risk of which of the following obesity-related diseases is MOST greatly affected by having a BMI above 35? a. heart disease b. stroke c. hypertension d. diabetes 593. Which of the following is NOT part of the female athlete triad? a. menopause b. osteoporosis c. eating disorders d. amenorrhea 594. A body mass index of _____ would place an individual in the "normal weight" category. a. 15 b. 18 c. 22 d. 26 595. The waist-to-hip ratio is BEST used to determine ___________________. a. body-fat distribution b. body-fat percentage c. body mass index d. fat-free mass 596. Which method of determining body composition is considered the "gold standard"? a. hydrostatic weighing b. bioelectrical impedance analysis c. duel energy x-ray absorptiometry d. near-infrared interactance 597. Which method of body-composition assessment is based on the assumption that bone mineral content is directly proportional to the amount of photon energy absorbed by the bone being studied? a. bioelectrical impedance b. dual energy x-ray absorptiometry c. air displacement plethysmography d. near-infrared interactance 598. Air displacement plethysmography is a variation of which other method of body-compositio assessment, in that it uses whole-body air displacement instead of water to measure body volume and density? a. near-infrared interactance b. body mass index c. skinfold measurements d. hydrostatic weighing 599. Water, connective tissues, and internal organs are all included as part of a body's ___________. a. essential fat b. nonessential fat c. fat-free mass d. percent body fat 600. The resting heart rate of sinus bradycardia is ___________. a. <60 bpm b. >100 bpm c. 60-80 bpm d. 80-100 bpm 601. The resting heart rate of normal sinus rhythm is ___________. a. <60 bpm b. >100 bpm c. 60-80 bpm d. 60-100 bpm 602. The resting heart rate of sinus tachycardia is ___________. a. <60 bpm b. >100 bpm c. 60-80 bpm d. 80-100 bpm 603. Which cardiorespiratory fitness assessment uses a client's ability to talk comfortably as a marker of intensity, is a viable alternative to using target heart-rate range calculations based on an age-predicted maximum, and is contraindicated for individuals who are prone to panic/anxiety attacks? a. ventilatory threshold b. Balke & Ware treadmill teste c. Rockport fitness walking test d. VT1 & VT2 test 604. Which cardiorespiratory fitness assessment requires the client to walk 1 mile as quickly as possible, is contraindicated for individuals with osteoarthritis or intermittent leg claudication, and is typically not the best choice for conditioned individuals, as it will under-predict VO2max in this population? a. ventilatory threshold b. Balke & Ware treadmill teste c. Rockport fitness walking test d. VT1 & VT2 test 605. Which cardiorespiratory fitness assessment requires the use of a stethoscope and sphygmomanometer, features a different protocol for men and women, and is contraindicated for individuals with visual or balance problems? a. ventilatory threshold b. Balke & Ware treadmill teste c. Rockport fitness walking test d. VT1 & VT2 test 606. Which assessment is BEST performed during the initial sesion with a new client? a. static posture b. body composition c. health-risk appraisal d. static balance 607. Which of the following is NOT among the reasons why females tend to have higher resting heart rates than males? a. smaller heart chamber size b. lower blood volume c. lower hemoglobin levels d. lower sympathetic nerve activity 608. Having the client sit on an exam table when measuring resting blood pressure, as opposed to in a chair with both feet flat on the floor, may yield which of the following results? a. increase in diastolic blood pressure b. decrease in diastolic blood pressure c. increase in systolic blood pressure d. decrease in systolic blood pressure 609. A blood pressure reading of 142/104 mmHg would be classified as: a. normal b. prehypertension c. stage 1 hypertension d. stage 2 hypertension 610. Prior to reaching the first ventilatory threshold (VT1), the need for oxygen is met primarily through an increase in __________. a. respiratory rate b. tidal volume c. lactate accumulation d. oxygen extraction 611. At what point should the Balke & Ware treadmill exercise test be terminated when performed in a fitness setting? a. when the client can no longer walk with good form b. when the client achieves 100% of his or her age-predicted maximal heart rate c. when the client has completed the 1-mile walk d. when the client achieves 85% of his or her age-predicted maximal heart rate 612. Which assessment is BEST suited for testing large groups of clients at once? a. Rockport fitness walking test b. Balke & Ware treadmill exercise test c. second ventilatory threshold testing d. McGill's torso muscular endurance test battery 613. Rick, an overweight client, is able to correctly perform the stork-stand balance test for 45 seconds. How would you categorize his performance? a. excellent b. good c. average d. fair 614. A client is seated with her hips and knees bent to 90 degrees, aligning the hips, knees, and second toe. Her arms are folded across her chest and she is leaning against a board positioned at a 60-degree incline. The health coach removes the board and measures the amount of time for which the client can hold this position without back support. Which element of McGill's torso endurance test battery is being performed in this scenario? a. trunk lateral endurance test b. trunk flexor endurance test c. trunk extensor endurance test d. trunk postural endurance test 615. Which of the following signifies a "poor" performance of the modified body-weight squat test? a. the client flexes his or her knees to 30 degrees b. the client extends his or her arms to the side to gain balance c. the client experiences varus strain d. the client performs a glute-dominant squat 616. What is the equation to measure maximal heart rate? >Correct ANS< - MHR = 208 - (0.7 x age) 617. What is the equation to measure target heart rate? >Correct ANS< - THR = (HRR - % intensity) + RHR 618. What is the equation to measure heart rate reserve? >Correct ANS< - HRR = MHR - RHR 619. Which of the following is an element of SMART goal setting? a. meaningful b. action-oriented c. relevant d. simple 620. What is typically the most important aspect of health coaching in terms of increasing a client's desire to adopt healthy behaviors over the long term? a. giving advice on lifestyle change b. teaching behavior-change techniques c. modeling perfect exercise technique d. enhancing motivation to change 621. A new client tells his health coach during their initial session together that he came to the health club after being told that his blood pressure was elevated during a health fair at the office building where he works. What is the MOST appropriate response from the health coach? a. refer the client to his personal physician to obtain clearance to exercise b. refer the client to an advanced fitness professional who specializes in working with this population c. discuss the client's goals in an attempt to determine how lowering his blood pressure might improve his quality of life d. ask the client to return once he has transformed this extrinsic goal to an intrinsic goal, as he would be better set up for success 622. Which type of question is MOST appropriate when trying to determine the "why?" behind a client's stated goals? a. closed-ended questions b. open-ended questions c. leading questions d. funnel questions 623. When discussing her favorite types of exercise with her health coach, a new client states that she loves going for long hikes on the weekends, as she enjoys the peace and quiet and the feeling of success after completing a tough hike. Which of the following statements is MOST accurate? a. this client is extrinsically motivated when it comes to this activity b. this client is focused on present goals c. this client is intrinsically motivated when it comes to this activity d. this client is focused on future goals 624. Which principle of lifestyle modification reflects the belief that people are naturally motivated to pursue activities and goals in which they are interested, and from which they feel they derive benefit? a. health belief model b. self-determination theory c. self-efficacy d. operant conditioning 625. A new client who is physically active but struggles with establishing a pattern of healthy eating tells the health coach that, "I am a runner, but I still can't keep my weight down." What type of motivation is this client displaying in terms of physical activity? a. integrated regulation b. intrinsic motivation c. identified regulation d. introjected regulation 626. How does self-efficacy differ from self-confidence? a. self-efficacy changes over time b. self-efficacy never changes, regardless of successes or failures c. self-efficacy is situation- or behavior-specific d. self-efficacy is an outcome of exercise, not an antecedent 627. All of the following statements about self-control are true, EXCEPT: a. most people have the most self-control first thing in the morning b. most people are only able to tolerate a small disruption in their daily routines before it affects self-control levels c. self-control is a limited resource, but is renewed daily d. overweight people typically have little self-control 628. What is the most common reason that people abandon their plans to change behavior? a. stress b. poor results c. task difficulty d. time 629. A discussion designed to help a client weigh the pros and cons of making a behavioral change would be MOST effective during which stage of the transtheoretical model of behavioral change? a. precontemplation b. contemplation c. action d. maintenance 630. Research has consistently shown that __________ is one of the most important components of successful weight-management programs. a. an all-or-nothing approach b. self-monitoring c. treating anxiety d. aggressive goal-setting 631. What is the MOST appropriate response if a health coach suspects a new client of having an eating disorder? a. design a slowly progressing program that focuses on physical activity, not diet b. alert the owner of the fitness facility and limit the individual's access to the building c. design a program that focuses on weight gain and maintenance of lean body mass d. immediately refer the client to the appropriate healthcare provider 632. An overweight client tells his health coach that he is getting very worried about his weight, as much of his family struggles with type 2 diabetes and hypertension. He knows he is at great risk for these conditions and wants to "finally lose weight the right way". This client is a good example of which theory of behavioral change? a. stages of change model b. health belief model c. self-determination theory d. operant conditioning 633. Operant conditioning examines the relationships between behaviors and _____________. a. their antecedents b. their consequences c. self-efficacy d. self-control 634. Which of the following tools is the BEST option when working with a client who is unable to read English? a. food diary b. food record c. 24-hour recall d. food-frequency questionnaire 635. A con shared by all of the tools used to learn more about a client's eating and lifestyle patterns involves __________. a. expense b. recall bias c. respondent burden d. validity 636. If a client decreases daily caloric intake by 300 calories, how many calories would he or she have to expend through physical activity each day in order to achieve a weekly weight loss of 1 pound? a. 100 calories b. 200 calories c. 300 calories d. 400 calories 637. Consumption of which of the following types of food may reduce the risk of heart disease and diabetes and help with weight management? a. non-fat dairy products b. learn proteins c. fruits and vegetables d. whole grains 638. What is the most variable component of 24-hour energy expenditure? a. thermic effect of food b. resting metabolic rate c. thermogenesis d. physical activity 639. What is Phase 1 of the functional movement and resistance training? a. load training b. movement training c. performance training d. stability and mobility training 640. What is Phase 2 of the functional movement and resistance training? a. load training b. movement training c. performance training d. stability and mobility training 641. What is Phase 3 of the functional movement and resistance training? a. load training b. movement training c. performance training d. stability and mobility training 642. What is Phase 4 of the functional movement and resistance training? a. load training b. movement training c. performance training d. stability and mobility training 643. What is Phase 1 of cardiorespiratory training? a. aerobic-base training b. anaerobic-endurance training c. aerobic-efficiency training d. anaerobic-power training 644. What is Phase 2 of cardiorespiratory training? a. aerobic-base training b. anaerobic-endurance training c. aerobic-efficiency training d. anaerobic-power training 645. What is Phase 3 of cardiorespiratory training? a. aerobic-base training b. anaerobic-endurance training c. aerobic-efficiency training d. anaerobic-power training 646. What is Phase 4 of cardiorespiratory training? a. aerobic-base training b. anaerobic-endurance training c. aerobic-efficiency training d. anaerobic-power training 647. Clients take a joint through a movement until the targeted muscles reach a point of tension, hold the stretch for 10 seconds, and then perform an isometric contraction of the agonist for a minimum of six seconds, followed by a 10- to 30- second assisted or passive static stretch. a. myofascial release b. static stretching c. proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation d. active isolated stretching 648. Clients perform small, continuous, back-and-forth movements on a foam roller over a tender region. a. myofascial release b. static stretching c. proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation d. active isolated stretching 649. Clients move a joint to where the targeted muscles reach a point of tension at the end point of the movement. a. myofascial release b. static stretching c. proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation d. active isolated stretching 650. Clients prepare the body for the upcoming workout or sport by mimicking movement patterns that will be performed during the actual workout. a. myofascial release b. dynamic and ballistic stretching c. proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation d. active isolated stretching 651. Clients move the joint from the starting position through the motion to the end point, holding for no more than two seconds, and then return to the starting position to immediately repeat the stretching motion a. myofascial release b. static stretching c. proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation d. active isolated stretching 652. Upon what foundational element is the ACE IFT Model built? a. health improvement b. functional fitness c. developing rapport d. cardiorespiratory fitness 653. Which of the following health benefits is MOST likely to be achieved via even small amounts of weight loss in obese clients? a. prevention of cardiovascular disease b. alleviation of functional impairment c. prevention of type 2 diabetes d. avoidance of musculoskeletal injury 654. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate initial weight-loss goal for obese adults? a. 10% of body weight b. 25 pounds (11kg) c. 20% of body weight d. 40 pounds (18kg) 655. Which of the following is NOT a common biomechanical result of obesity? a. increased anterior pelvic tilt b. forward shift in the body's center of gravity c. increased flexion in the sacroiliac joints d. decreased production of proinflammatory substances 656. A health coach is working with an obese client who complains of pain in her knees and ankles when she walks. Her self-selected walking speed on the treadmill is 3.0 mph with no incline. What is the MOST appropriate response from the health coach? a. increase her walking speed to 3.5 mph and slowly increase the incline b. have her maintain a walking speed of 3 mph, but at a 4% incline c. increase her walking speed to 4 mph with no incline d. decrease her walking speed to 2 mph with no incline 657. What is the primary mode of initial activity to facilitate weight loss? a. resistance training b. aerobic exercise c. functional training d. anaerobic exercise 658. Which of the following elements of the kinetic chain favors mobility over stability? a. ankle b. knee c. lumbar spine d. scapulothoracic 659. Which type of flexibility training requires a health coach or trained partner who is able to assist with a 10- to 30-second stretch following an isometric contraction of the agonist muscle? a. proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation b. static stretching c. active isolated stretching d. myofascial release 660. To facilitate weight loss in obese clients, health coaches should encourage dietary changes that decrease dietary fat to less than _____ of total caloric intake. a. 15% b. 20% c. 25% d. 30% 661. Which of the following is an essential component of the assessment protocol at the very beginning of an exercise program targeting weight loss? a. postural assessment b. health-history screening c. muscular endurance testing d. static balance testing 662. Which phase of the cardiorespiratory training component fit the following descriptions: administer the submaximal talk test to determine HR at VT1, many clients will stay in this phase for many years, progress to lox zone 2 intervals by increasing the time of the work interval and later decreasing the recovery interval time a. aerobic-base training b. aerobic-efficiency training c. anaerobic-endurance training d. anaerobic-power training 663. Which phase of the cardiorespiratory training component fit the following descriptions: focus on steady-state training in zone 1, exercise should be performed at an RPE of 3 to 4 (0 to 10 scale), and progress to the next phase once the client can sustain steady-state cardiorespiratory exercise for 20 to 30 minutes in zone 1 and is comfortable with assessments a. aerobic-base training b. aerobic-efficiency training c. anaerobic-endurance training d. anaerobic-power training 664. Which phase of the cardiorespiratory training component fit the following descriptions: administer the VT2 threshold test to determine HR at VT2, focus on designing programs to help clients who have endurance performance goals and/or are performing seven or more hours of cardiorespiratory exercise each week, and interval and higher-intensity sessions will be very focused in zones 2 and 3, but will make up only a small amount of the total training time to allow for adaptation to the total training load a. aerobic-base training b. aerobic-efficiency training c. anaerobic-endurance training d. anaerobic-power training 665. Which phase of the cardiorespiratory training component fit the following descriptions: zone 3 training will include very intense anaerobic-power intervals, clients will only work in this phase during specific training cycles prior to competition, exercise in this phase will improve phosphagen energy pathways and buffer large accumulations of blood lactate in order to improve speed for short bursts at near-maximal efforts a. aerobic-base training b. aerobic-efficiency training c. anaerobic-endurance training d. anaerobic-power training 666. What is the equation to calculate session RPE? >Correct ANS< - Session RPE = RPE x duration x frequency 667. Which phase of the functional movement and resistance training component fit the following descriptions: the goal of this phase is to condition the postural muscles with volume as opposed to intensity, emphases should be placed on muscle isolation using supportive surfaces and devices prior to introducing integrated strengthening exercises a. stability and mobility training b. movement training c. load training d. performance training 668. Which phase of the functional movement and resistance training component fit the following descriptions: during this phase, the entire kinetic chain is integrated into more dynamic movement, and training in this phase uses body weight as resistance and the levers within the body as drivers to increase exercise intensity a. stability and mobility training b. movement training c. load training d. performance training 669. Which phase of the functional movement and resistance training component fit the following descriptions: training objectives during this phase may include increased muscular endurance, strength, and hypertrophy, and the double-progressive training protocol is used during this phase to improve muscular strength a. stability and mobility training b. movement training c. load training d. performance training 670. Which phase of the functional movement and resistance training component fit the following descriptions: plyometric exercise is often introduced during this phase, and the power training included in this phase is not typically appropriate for the average exerciser who is interested in improving general health and fitness a. stability and mobility training b. movement training c. load training d. performance training 671. Which of the intensity markers that health coaches can use to identify the zone in which a client is training is based on actual changes in ventilation due to physiological adaptations to increasing exercise intensities? a. %VO2R b. talk test c. RPE d. %MHR 672. During which phase of cardiorespiratory training should the health coach introduce intervals in the upper end of zone 2 (RPE of 6 on the 0 to 10 scale)? a. phase 1 b. phase 2 c. phase 3 d. phase 4 673. What should be the PRIMARY focus when working with a client in the aerobic-base training phase? a. improve posture by addressing correctible muscular imbalances b. to increase exercise frequency and duration, not necessarily intensity c. to focus on creating positive exercise experiences d. to develop a baseline level of physical fitness before progressing 674. A client who has been working with a health coach for seven months mentions that she would like to set a goal of completing a 10K run. What phase of cardiorespiratory training is required to reach this goal? a. phase 1 b. phase 2 c. phase 3 d. phase 4 675. Why would a health coach have a client perform the field test to determine the client's heart rate at VT2? a. to determine the client's baseline level of physical fitness during phase 1 b. to program the appropriate exercise intensity for zone 2 training during phase 2 c. to program effective intervals for improving aerobic endurance during phase 3 d. to determine the client's readiness for plyometric training during phase 4 676. The cat-camel exercise and lying hamstrings stretch address which of the following elements of stability and mobility training? a. proximal stability and activating the core b. proximal stability of the scapulothoracic region c. distal mobility of the glenohumeral joint d. proximal mobility of the hips and thoracic region 677. The overhead triceps stretch targets which component of the shoulder capsule? a. inferior b. posterior c. anterior d. superior 678. What is the objective of "shoulder packing"? a. to kinesthetically improve awareness of good scapular position b. to improve rotator cuff function while maintaining good scapular position c. to strengthen the posterior muscles of the shoulder complex d. to strengthen the parascapular muscles 679. Which of the following is considered the MOST advanced progression when addressing a client's static balance? a. narrow stance b. staggered stance c. tandem stance d. single-leg stance 680. Although increases in muscular strength are accompanied by increases in muscular endurance, preferred protocols for strength development place more emphasis on which element of the FIRST acronym? a. frequency b. intesntiy c. sets d. type 681. In which sphere of the socio-ecological perspective does the health coach have the greatest influence? a. individual b. interpersonal c. community d. public policy 682. Which of the following is NOT an element of the transtheoretical model of behavioral change? a. stages of change b. decisional balance c. self-efficacy d. self-reliance 683. Which of the following is NOT a component of a well-constructed behavioral contract? a. commitment b. clarity c. rewards d. punishment 684. Enabling clients to recognize how their current behaviors conflict with their self-identified goals is an element of ___________. a. operant conditioning b. decisional balance c. motivational interviewing d. self-monitoring 685. A client in which stage of the transtheoretical model of behavioral change is MOST likely to exhibit characteristics of being self-reliant? a. action b. prepation c. contemplation d. maintenance 686. (See pic 1) According to the ACSM risk stratification, what is this client's level of risk? a. low risk b. moderate risk c. high risk d. very high risk 687. (See pic 1) Based on the ACE IFT Model, what cardiorespiratory assessment would be MOST appropriate for this client at this time? a. submaximal talk test for VT1 b. Rockport fitness walking test c. no assessment necessary at this time d. VT2 threshold test 688. (See pic 1) Based on this client's current exercise and fitness, what would be the MOST appropriate initial cardiorespiratory program to help him work toward his goals? a. warm up for 15 minutes of steady-state exercise in zone 1, progressively increase duration to 20-30 continuous minutes in zone 1, and then progress to phase 2 b. begin with cardiorespiratory programming in phase 2, with a primary focus on progressing from low-zone 2 intervals to high-zone 2 intervals to boost caloric expenditure c. 20 minutes of continuous zone 1 exercise with brief 1-minute intervals (1:3 work-to-recovery intervals). progress duration to 30 minutes while increasing interval length, and then progress to phase 2 d. warm-up for 15 minutes, with a 5-minute zone 2 interval in the middle and add a 10-minute cool-down with intensity in zone 1 to increase cardiorespiratory training time and boost caloric expenditure 689. (See pic 1) Based on this client's movement and flexibility assessments, which of the following statements is MOST accurate? a. this client exhibits appropriate core stability, but lacks adequate shoulder mobility b. this client presents with a glute-dominant squatting pattern and lacks shoulder mobility c. this client lacks appropriate core stability, and has adequate shoulder mobility d. this client lacks appropriate core stability and shoulder mobility 690. (See pic 1) What would be the appropriate initial functional movement and resistance-training program for this client? a. have the client begin a resistance-training program using an undulating periodization model, and add a dynamic warm-up to improve core stability b. train proper techniques for squatting, lunging, pushing, pulling, and rotation through movement training (phase 2) c. implement a load-training (phase 3) split routine with an expanded flexibility focus during the cool-down d. work on postural stability, core strength and function, and flexibility through stability and mobility training (phase 1) 691. (See pic 2) Which of the following theories of behavioral change MOST accurately depicts this client's concern about the potential for her to develop osteoporosis? a. socioecological model b. transtheoretical model c. health belief model d. self-efficacy 692. (See pic 2) With regard to the modality of resistance-training exercise with external loads, in which stage of change is this client? a. contemplation b. preparation c. action d. maintenance 693. (See pic 2) According to the ACSM risk stratification, what is this client's "total Score" for atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease and associated level of risk? a. total score = 0; low risk b. total score = +1; low risk c. total score = +1; moderate risk d. total score = +2; moderate risk 694. (See pic 2) Based on this client's movement and flexibility assessments, which of the following statements is MOST accurate? a. this client exhibits appropriate core stability, but lacks adequate shoulder mobility b. this client presents with a lumbar-dominant squatting pattern and lacks shoulder mobility c. this client lacks appropriate core stability, and has adequate shoulder mobility d. this client lacks appropriate core stability and shoulder mobility 695. (See pic 2) Which of the following strategies would be MOST helpful for this client related to her goal of reducing her risk of osteoporosis? a. replace one day per week of walking with swimming and consume 2000 mg of calcium daily b. begin progressive resistance-training exercises (starting in phase 2 and then progressing to phase 3) and introduce small amounts of low-fat dairy products c. start with stability and mobility exercises (phase 1) and progress to movement training (phase 2) along with consuming more plant-based calcium-rich foods d. replace one day per week of walking with phase 2 resistance training and refer her to a registered dietitian for nutritional counseling 696. What is a health coach MOST likely to give up when switching form working as an independent contractor to working as an employee at a fitness facility? a. social security taxes being withheld and matched by the facility b. medical benefits covered by the facility c. need for justification from the facility before being fired d. flexibility to set his or her own schedule and pricing 697. Which of the following business practices would be MOST likely to put a facility at risk for improperly categorizing health coaches as independent contractors? a. allowing independent contractors to set their own schedules b. requiring all health coaches to follow the same assessment and programming procedures c. allowing independent contractors to set their own fees d. requiring all health coaches to hold their own professional liability insurance 698. What is the BEST method for ensuring that all aspects of a client-health coach relationship are properly established? a. signed contract b. informed consent c. liability waiver d. verbal agreement 699. in which scenario is the health coach MOST likely to be found guilty of negligence? a. the health coach suffers a low-back injury while spotting a client b. the client gets injured on her way into the fitness facility for her coaching session c. the health coach is talking with another club member while the client injures himself due to poor form d. the client follows his program, but adds more sets on all exercises and sustains an injury as a result 700. What is the legal term used to describe a situation where a health coach fails to act and a client is injured, but the client is determined to have played a role in her or her own injury? a. contributory negligence b. gross negligence c. complete negligence d. comparative negligence 701. what form is used to have the client acknowledge that he or she has been specifically told about the risks associated with the activity in which he or she is about to engage? a. liability waiver b. informed consent c. agreement to participate d. exculpatory clause 702. Health coaches who provide training sessions to individuals and/or groups in clients' homes or outdoor settings should check with their current insurance providers to see if they are covered for training in these settings or if they need to add a(n) ________ policy to their existing professional liability insurance. a. general liability insurance b. keyman insurance c. umbrella insurance d. specific insurance rider 703. Which of the following actions would violate intellectual property laws? a. using music specifically designed for use in fitness facilities during small-group training sessions b. ACE-certified professionals using the ACE-certified logo on their website or clothing c. allowing clients the option of bringing their own music to be played during one-on-one training sessions d. using the ACE-certified logo to promote nutritional products, DVDs, or equipment sold by an ACE-certified professional 704. The concept of ___________ states that a fitness facility or chain can be sued for the actions of one of its employees. a. vicarious liability b. gross negligence c. comparative negligence d. umbrella liability 705. Securing an insurance policy to cover potential liability is an example of which approach to managing risk? a. avoidance b. transfer c. reduction d. retention 706. One of the advantages of performing a SWOT analysis is that it allows the health coach to turn _____________ into ____________. >Correct ANS< - weaknesses; opportunities 707. A client who is "people-oriented" and "outgoing" falls into the ________________ quadrant of the DISC model. >Correct ANS< - inspiring 708. Declarative self-statements ("I will not overeat this weekend") are linked to ____________ motivation, while interrogative self-statements ("Will I avoid overeating this weekend?") are linked to ________ motivation. >Correct ANS< - extrinsic; intrinsic 709. Motivational interviewing is grounded in expressing ____________. >Correct ANS< - empathy 710. The goal in establishing rapport is to build a relationship based on a foundation of ___________ and ___________ >Correct ANS< - trust; credibility 711. Health coaches face unique challenges in communicating with clients, especially at the start, because of the ____________ and _____________ that a client can bring to the conversation >Correct ANS< - emotions; apprehensions 712. Every lifestyle-modification program should start with some sort of ____________ process >Correct ANS< - golf-setting 713. Of all of the skills involved in communicating effectively , the one that makes all the difference is ___________. ctive listening 714. The three steps involved in active listening are ____________, __________ and ____________ >Correct ANS< - mirroring; validating; empathy 715. _________________ refers to the ability of the health coach to respond to people of various backgrounds and affirm the value and worth of all people ultural competence 716. __________ is the result the binding together of glucose and fructose >Correct ANS< - sucrose 717. Approximately ________ of glycogen is stored in the liver and a minimum of ________ of glycogen is stored in muscle >Correct ANS< - 90g; 150g 718. Saturated fat increases levels of _______, which is sometimes called the "bad" cholesterol >Correct ANS< - LDL 719. Proteins are essential for the manufacture of ____________, which the body uses to fight infection. ntibodies 720. ______________ is the condition associated with the ingestion of excessive amounts of fluids >Correct ANS< - hyponatremia 721. The degree to which a mineral can be used by the body is called its __________________ ioavailability 722. The damage-causing process called ____________ is the result of a cell's chronic exposure to oxygen >Correct ANS< - oxidation 723. The _____________ dictates supplement production, marketing, and safety guidelines within the U.S. ietary Supplement Health & Education Act 724. ________ are standardized so that consumers can compare similar products >Correct ANS< - serving sizes 725. The percent daily values are listed for key nutrients to make it easier to _________, __________ and ___________ ompare products; evaluate nutrient content claims; make informed dietary trade-offs 726. The footnote on the bottom of a nutrition facts label reminds consumers that all percent daily values are based on a ________-calorie diet >Correct ANS< - 2000 727. In order to burn 1 pound of fat, a client needs to create a _________-calorie deficit >Correct ANS< - 3500 728. The average person requires __________ grams of protein per kilogram of body weight per day >Correct ANS< - 0.8 to 1 729. __________ is considered the second leading cause of preventable death in America, with smoking being the first >Correct ANS< - obesity 730. In its simplest context, the maintenance of body weight can be seen as involving three main factors: ___________, ___________, and ___________. >Correct ANS< - metabolic utilization of nutrients; dietary habits; physical activity 731. Of the three components of daily energy expenditure, ___________ is the most easily manipulated ctivity thermogenesis 732. The ____________ is greater following a high-protein meal than it is following a high-carbohydrate or high-fat meal >Correct ANS< - thermic effect of food 733. An eating plan is considered "low-carb" if less than ________ of the day's calories comes from carbohydrate >Correct ANS< - 20% 734. Although the combination of __________ and ___________ was not approved by the FDA for weight loss, prescriptions were written for these drugs, which led to serious health complications and resulted in their removal from the market >Correct ANS< - phentermine; fenfluramine 735. ____________ is the first over-the-counter diet pill approved by the FDA lli 736. During a fast, a person can experience a drop in __________, thereby decreasing the number of calories needed to survive asal metabolic rate 737. ____________ is characterized by recurrent episodes of binge eating, followed by compensatory behavior such as vomiting, excessive exercise, fasting, or laxative use ulimia 738. The etiology of _______ may have its roots in chronic exposure to the hormone cortisol inge eating disorders 739. ___________ has among the highest mortality rates for psychiatric disorders norexia 740. Research has linked __________ to the development of anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa nxiety disorder 741. The three categories of commonly used obesity treatments are ___________, ____________, and _____________ programs. >Correct ANS< - self-help; clinical help; non-clinical help 742. A method of approaching healthcare based on the premise that treatment ca be cumulative or incremental is called the ____________ >Correct ANS< - stepped-care model 743. The average resting heart rate is _________, with a range of _____________. >Correct ANS< - 72 bpm; 60-100 bpm 744. The Institute of Medicine recommends that obese individuals have an initial weight-loss goal of ______ over the first six months of a weight-loss program >Correct ANS< - 10% body weight 745. Certain _______ medications that treat psychological conditions can either facilitate or significantly hamper weight loss >Correct ANS< - psychotropic 746. The goal of a behavioral functional assessment is to identify connections between behaviors and the _________ and __________ associated with the behaviors ntecedents; consequences 747. __________ is a process used to determine the percentage of an individual's total body weight that is composed of fat mass versus fat-free mass ody composition analysis 748. Non-essential body fat can be stored ___________, ______________, and _______________ round vital organs; within muscle tissue; directly beneath skin 749. An obese individual has a(n) ______ greater risk of developing heart disease than an individual with a body mass index below 25 >Correct ANS< - 80% 750. For most people, the recommended frequency of body-composition assessment is ____________ >Correct ANS< - 2-3 times per year 751. The use of height-weight tables was originated by the Metropolitan Life Insurance Company, which published desirable weight tables for men and women based on ______ and _______ >Correct ANS< - height; frame size 752. The _________ is a quick and reliable technique for determining body-fat distribution >Correct ANS< - waist-to-hip 753. Skinfold measurement is based on the belief that approximately _______ of total body fat lies under the skin >Correct ANS< - 50% 754. The two primary sources of error when performing skinfold measurements are ______ and _______. >Correct ANS< - improper site determination; improper measurement techniques 755. Skinfold measurements should not be taken after exercise because _______________ >Correct ANS< - the transfer of fluid to skin causue overestimation 756. In hydrostatic weighing, body-fat percentage is calculated from _____________ ody density 757. Waist circumferences of greater than _______ in men and _______ in women are considered strong indicators of abdominal obesity >Correct ANS< - 40 inches; 35 inches 758. At the very least, it is prudent for health coaches to conduct a _________ for every client >Correct ANS< - health-risk appraisal 759. The _____ artery is located on the ventral aspect of the wrist on the side of the thumb >Correct ANS< - radial 760. The ________ artery is located in the neck, lateral to the trachea arotid 761. Increases in stroke volume associated with exercise training lead to reductions in ___________ >Correct ANS< - heart rate 762. ____________ is defined as the outward force exerted by the blood on the vessel walls lood pressure 763. By knowing what the client ______, the health coach can help ensure that goals are real and relevant for the client by framing the lifestyle behaviors in those terms >Correct ANS< - values in life 764. ______ behaviors are engaged in for their own sake and for the pleasure and satisfaction derived from the process of engaging in the activity >Correct ANS< - Intrinsically motivated 765. The majority of a client's motivation should become ________ for long-term success to become more likely >Correct ANS< - intrinsic 766. Friends, family members, and coworkers are _____ factors that may influence lifestyle-modification success >Correct ANS< - social 767. When lapses occur, it is important for clients to avoid feelings of ______ and ______, as these thoughts and eotions can lead to taol relapse and motivational collapse >Correct ANS< - failure; guilt 768. A health coach must listen with _____ and keen an open mind when talking to clients about their lives and challenges >Correct ANS< - empathy 769. Precontemplators and contemplators tend to have especially low ________ in the realm of weight-control behaviors >Correct ANS< - self-efficacy 770. People of similar age, gender, and ethnic background who exercise regularly and who have lost weight and maintained it are excellent ____ for clients struggling with lifestyle modification for weight control >Correct ANS< - role models 771. Meditation and breathing exercises are ________ that may be helpful for managing stress and anxiety >Correct ANS< - relaxation techniques 772. Consciously changing the way a person perceives or thinks about something is called _________ ognitive restructuring 773. _______________ look at the interrelationships between individuals and the environments in which they live and work, and examine the many levels at which individuals are influenced >Correct ANS< - Ecological perspectives 774. The 2008 Physical Activity Guidelines for Americans suggest that adults should participate in structured cardiorespiratory-related physical activity at moderate intensity for at least _____ minutes per week or a vigorous intensity for at least _____ minutes per week to experience the health benefits of exercise >Correct ANS< - 150; 75 775. The first goal of the ACE IFT Model is exercise for _________ >Correct ANS< - improved health 776. The foundation of the ACE IFT Model is built upon _______ >Correct ANS< - rapport 777. Evidence suggests that cardiovascular disease, type 2 diabetes, and the metabolic syndrome are all linked to the proinflammatory state associated with ____________ bdominal obesity 778. __________ and ___________ could be underlying causes of low-back pain in obese individuals ltered posture; lack of spinal mobility 779. A weekly energy expenditure of > ____________ calories per week, which equates to approximately ____ minutes of moderate-intensity physical activity, may be required for long-term weight loss >Correct ANS< - 2000; 60-90 780. Clients are categorized into a given phase based on their ________, ___________, and ________ urrent health; fitness levels; goals 781. __________ track the number of steps an individual takes throughout a given time period >Correct ANS< - pedometers 782. ___________ is the primary cardiorespiratory phase for regular exercises in a fitness facility who have goals for improving or maintaining fitness and/or weight loss >Correct ANS< - phase 2 783. At the beginning of phase 2, the health coach should have the client perform the _______ to determine heart rate at VT1 >Correct ANS< - submaximal talk test 784. A variety of studies with different types of athletes have suggested that ______ of training is performed at intensities lower than VT1 >Correct ANS< - 70-80% 785. When a client has been successful at maintaining a health lifestyle for more than _______, he or she should be self-reliant >Correct ANS< - 6 months 786. The social-cognitive theory posits that all health behaviors are goal-driven through __________ nticipation of outcomes 787. _________ is a formal agreement between the health coach and the client that outlines a set of behaviors for the client to complete with a certain timeline ehavioral contract 788. A ________ can create a diet plan for clients, something that the health coach cannot do >Correct ANS< - registered dietitian [Show More]

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