WGU D027 Course Material Questions with Verified Answers

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Which of the following is not a cellular function? - ANSWER-Combustion - All living cells must absorb and metabolize sources of energy, excrete waste and by-products of those processes, and reproduc... e to continue offspring. Pyrotechnic processes (i.e. combustion) are generally metaphorical. What are mitochondria responsible for? - ANSWER-Energy production - Mitochondria are the energy production organelles of the cell responsible for the major metabolic processes of creating units of energy (e.g., ATP). Which if the following can cause edema? - ANSWER-Increased lymphatic pressure - Decreased vascular and lymphatic pressure does not generally result in the movement and accumulation of fluid into extravascular spaces. Increased plasma pressure in the vascular results in hypertension, while increased lymphatic pressure will readily result in the pooling of lymphatic drainage into third spaces (i.e. edema). Which of the following best describes the result of cellular reproduction? - ANSWER-Two diploid cells, called daughter cells, are produced - The resultant offspring of cellular reproduction is the creation of two daughter cells after the completion of mitosis or meiosis. Interphase is the longest period that a cell spends its life cycle and is the preparatory stage before cellular reproduction. Anaphase is the separation of genetic materials to the opposing centromeres of the cell, followed by telophase. What indicates hypokalemia? - ANSWER-Serum K decreases to less than 3.5 - Normal serum potassium (K), also known as eukalemia, is generally 3.5-5.5 mEq/L, with some variations of +/- 0.1-0.3 mEq/L depending on the laboratory testing, age, and other potential patient-specific conditions and variations. Alterations in fluid volume or the administration of a supplement alone do not necessarily contribute to the development of hypokalemia. What is an example of both hyperplasia and hypertrophy? - ANSWER-Uterine enlargement due to pregnancy - Hyperplasia is the increase in the number of cells of an organ or tissue, while hypertrophy is the enlargement of the cells of a given organ or tissue without a change in the number of cells. Muscle cells grow and enlarge (hypertrophy) in response to increased work or stress from exercise or increased cardiovascular pressures. When a liver is damaged or part of it is removed, it is the one internal solid organ capable of regeneration to repair itself creating more cells (hyperplasia). During pregnancy, the uterus must both grow to create more cells and enlarge those existing cells in preparation for the support of a fetus. What regulates the sodium balance? - ANSWER-Aldosterone - Aldosterone is a regulatory hormone produced by the adrenal glands to affect the kidneys' regulation of sodium, potassium, and water excretion. What is the alteration if the extracellular fluid volume is less than normal? - ANSWER-Hypotonic - In hypotonic states, the cell size is increased as a result of water moving from the extracellular fluid (ECF) into the cell to increase intracellular fluid. Iso- or normotonic states are a balanced state between intra- and extracellular fluid volumes. Hypertonic states cause water to shift out of the cell to increase the ECF above normal. When in excess, what do buffers absorb? - ANSWER-Hydrogen - Excesses of acid or base, H+ or hydroxyl ion (OH−), are absorbed for the purpose of maintaining pH homeostasis (pH of 7.38-7.42) Which of the following would a patient with metabolic acidosis have? - ANSWER-pH below 7.35; Bicarbonate level below 22 mEq/L - The diagnosis of metabolic acidosis requires that the testing of arterial blood finds that the pH is less than 7.35 and the bicarbonate level is less than 22 mEq/L. What is the process by which RNA directs the synthesis of polypeptides? - ANSWER-Translation - Translation refers to this process. Transcription is another process in which RNA is synthesized. Mutation means genetic material has been modified through inheritance. Creation is a term that does not apply in this context. What is the recurrence rate for autosomal dominant disease? - ANSWER-50% - For a couple in which one or both partners are affected by the disease, the chance of each child being heterozygous affected is 50%. Which of the following statements is true about autosomal recessive disease? - ANSWER-It affects both men and women equally - A criterion for recognizing the inheritance of an autosomal recessive disease is that men and women will be affected by it in equal measure. What is the proportion of the population affected by a disease at the specific point in time? - ANSWER-Prevalence rate - Incidence rate refers to how many new cases there are of a disease within a period of time divided by the number of the population's individuals. The prevalence rate is affected by the incidence rate and how long the affected patients survive. Risk factor is anything that could lead to disease. Relative risk is the measure of a risk factor effect. Which of the following should be completed when a disease is multifactorial but has a larger genetic component? - ANSWER-Get a thorough family history - Environment and lifestyle choices may influence a disease, but diseases such as breast cancer are hereditary, so the family history should be reviewed. Which action is the purpose of the inflammatory process? - ANSWER-To destroy foreign, invasive microorganisms - The general purpose of inflammation is to initiate the destruction of foreign or invasive organisms. As a secondary effect, it increases the healing and immune response processes of the body. What causes edema that occurs during the inflammatory process? - ANSWER-Increased vascular permeability - Increased pressure in the vasculature secondary to the vasodilatory effects of inflammation will result in the leakage of fluid into third spaces (i.e., edema). Previousquestion In what structure do B lymphocytes mature and become B cells? - ANSWER-Bone marrow - The bone marrow is where immature immune cells, such as B and T lymphocytes, reside to mature into B cells. After this maturation process, these cells migrate to other organ sites such as the thyroid, spleen, and thymus to enter their final stages of differentiation and development. Which type of immunity occurs when antibodies are transferred from donor to recipient? - ANSWER-Passive acquired immunity - Active immune processes are the self-originating processes of the immune system that occur from (acquired) or without (innate) prior exogenous simulation or exposure to foreign antigens. Passive immunity is stabilized. Existing immune responses that are present with or without simulation can arise or be created from oneself (innate) or acquired from an outside source (e.g. donor antibodies). What does T-cell activity cause in older adults? - ANSWER-Increased susceptibility for infection - As the human body ages, the immune system's effectiveness to coordinate responses to pathogens and other foreign antigens wanes and the risk for disease increases. What is a dermatitis caused by prolonged exposure to chemicals such as acids or soaps also known as? - ANSWER-Irritant contact dermatitis - Prolonged, superficial skin exposure to foreign irritants (e.g., acids or soaps) is a manifestation of an innate, local inflammatory response. The conditions of allergic, stasis, and atopic dermatitis involve more systemic processes of the immune system and vasculature. Which of the following is a self-limiting disease associated with Herpes type viruses and a herald patch? - ANSWER-Pityriasis rosea - Lichen planus, acne vulgaris, and erythema multiforme are conditions generally associated with or caused by autoimmune dysregulation, bacteria, and varieties of foreign antigen (medications, virus, etc.). Pityriasis rosea in particular is associated with and triggered by Herpes viruses, manifesting itself as a herald patch. What is a furuncle? - ANSWER-An infection of the hair follicle that extends to the surrounding tissue - Abscess, dermis, and fungal infections are generally more widespread or larger processes that require broad or systemic treatment. A furuncle, though uncomfortable to painful, is a generally localized infection that is self-resolving or that requires local, minor treatment. What type of lesion may be malignant in the form of squamous cell carcinoma (SCC)? - ANSWER-Actinic keratosis - Actinic keratosis, which is caused by exposure to UV radiation, is a precursor lesion of SCC What type of abnormal cell growth does carcinoma refer to? - ANSWER-Epithelial cells - Carcinoma refers to dysplastic epithelial cells that have penetrated the entire thickness of the epithelium into the basement membrane. What is a characteristic of a malignant tumor? - ANSWER-Absence of normal tissue organization - Healthy tissue is made up of non-cancerous cells that are well-differentiated, connected via a well-organized stroma and that stay put. Malignant tumors lack those characteristics as well as normal tissue organization. Which lifestyle factor has not been linked to the development of cancer? - ANSWER-Extreme exercise - Tobacco use, obesity, and alcohol consumption are causal for numerous cancers, which can be prevented. Exercise helps prevent colon cancer and likely helps prevent endometrial, breast, and other cancers as well. Which pediatric malignancy is linked to the family of origin? - ANSWER-Wilms tumor - Wilms tumor is kidney cancer in childhood caused by inherited genes. The main causes of liver cancer are hepatitis, fatty liver disease, and alcohol use. The main cause of cervical cancer is HPV infection. Leukemia is caused by mutations to hematopoietic stem cells. Which of the following drugs is classified as hormonal treatment for breast cancer? - ANSWER-Tamoxifen - Lapatinib is a tyrosine kinase inhibitor. Paclitaxil is an antimicrotubule agent. Rituximab is a CD20-directed cytolytic monoclonal antibody. Tamoxifen is an anti-estrogen medication used in the treatment of estrogen-linked breast cancer. Where do the cancers treated with glucocorticoids stem from? - ANSWER-Lymphoid tissue - Glucocorticoids, along with other medications, are used to treat cancers of the lymphoid tissue (lymphocytic leukemias, Hodgkin disease, non-Hodgkin lymphomas, and multiple myeloma). A 23-year-old woman comes in for prenatal counseling. While completing her family history, she reports her brother has cystic fibrosis. She does not know if she is a carrier. She asks if her children will be affected by the disease. What is an accurate way to determine the likelihood of this patient's children being affected? - ANSWER-A genetic or a carrier test - Cystic fibrosis is a hereditary disease that impacts the lungs and digestive system. It is the result of the cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator gene mutation. The disease occurs when an individual inherits the mutated gene from each parent. When only one mutated gene is inherited, the individual is labeled a carrier. A 31-year-old man comes into the office for an exam. He is 6' 5 " with a high-pitched voice, and he has a moderate degree of mental impairment. It is discovered upon exam that his body hair is sparse, his testes are small, and he has gynecomastia. Which genetic disorder should this patient be tested for? - ANSWER-Klinefelter syndrome - Klinefelter syndrome is a hereditary disease also known as 47,XXY or XXY that manifests as the series of symptoms described. The symptoms are expressed as a result of the presence of two or more X chromosomes in males. It is often not diagnosed until adulthood. A six-month-old female infant with failure to thrive comes in to the office with her parents. It is noticed upon exam that the patient has facial deformities and is jaundiced. A complete blood count (CBC) is ordered, which reveals anemia. When that patient's blood is examined under a microscope, the red blood cells appear small and abnormally shaped. A mutational analysis is ordered, and alpha thalassemia is diagnosed. What is the likelihood of incidence of these parent's future children having alpha thalassemia? - ANSWER-25% - Alpha thalassemia is a hereditary blood disorder characterized by reduction in hemaglobin production. Each individual inherits two copies of the HBA1 gene and two copies of the HBA2 gene from each parent. If at least one copy of the four is missing, a variation of alpha thalassemia can result. That means that future offspring have a one in four chance of the disease. Which chamber of the heart has the thinnest muscle in the heart? - ANSWER-Right atrium - The ventricles possess cardiac muscles that are the thickest lined chambers of the heart because their blood volume burden must be pumped to the lungs and the rest of the body, which are areas of high resistance. The atria receive blood from either the rest of the body via the vena cava (right) or lungs (left). They must only pump the volume directly to the ventricles. The coronary arteries encircle the chambers of the heart to supply the nutrients needed to keep the tissue alive. During diastole, which part of the heart is filling with blood? - ANSWER-Both ventricles - Systole reflects the perfusing pressure of the cardiovascular system where the ventricles eject blood from the heart. Once complete, a resting period—diastole—follows, where blood must refill the ventricles directly from the collection that occurred in the atria. Oxygenated blood flows through which vessel? - ANSWER-Pulmonary vein - The superior vena cava carries all the deoxygenated blood from peripheral circulation back to the heart where it enters the right atrium to be pumped into the right ventricle. The right ventricle pumps to the lungs for oxygenation via the pulmonary artery. After pulmonary circulation, the oxygenated blood is carried back to the heart via the pulmonary vein. Which complex (wave) represents the sum of all ventricular muscle cell depolarizations? - ANSWER-QRS - The QRS wave of an electrocardiogram (ECG or EKG) represents the largest spike in electrical activity of the heart, as ventricular muscle cells perform the highest burden of work to pump blood volume out of the heart in that instance. What effect does atherosclerosis have on the development of an aneurysm? - ANSWER-Erodes the vessel wall - Atherosclerosis, also known as the process of "hardening of the arteries" and secondary to plaque formation, weakens the flexibility of a blood vessel wall. Without vascular compliance, the vessel wall becomes more rigid and susceptible to rupture (i.e., an aneurysm). What is the effect of oxidized low-density lipoproteins (LDLs) in atherosclerosis? - ANSWER-LDLs cause smooth muscle proliferation - Within the arterial wall subintima, oxidized LDLs stimulate macrophage foam cell formation and proinflammatory pathways, which lead to smooth muscle proliferation, fatty streak creation, and eventual fibrous plaque overlays (McCance, p. 699 & 1072). Which factor is responsible for the hypertrophy of the myocardium associated with hypertension? - ANSWER-Angiotensin II - Angiotensin II leads to myocardial hypertrophy, poor myocardial compliance, and ventricular dilation through stimulating increased cardiac preload and afterload and direct toxicity to myocardial cells. It causes sarcomere death, abnormal collagen matrices, and interstitial fibrosis (McCance, p. 1099). Most cardiovascular developments occur between which weeks of gestation? - ANSWER-Fourth and seventh weeks - During weeks four to seven, the primitive heart tube progresses through numerous stages of development leading to a developed heart with distinct atria, ventricles, and cardiac vessels. Which compensatory mechanism is spontaneously used by children diagnosed with tetralogy of Fallot (TOF) to relieve hypoxic spells? - ANSWER-Squatting - Spontaneous squatting helps relieve hypercyanotic events in older children through increasing systemic vascular r [Show More]

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