NETA TEST BANK. NETA practice exam with explanations. Top Exam Questions and answers, 100% Accurate.

Document Content and Description Below

NETA TEST BANK. NETA practice exam with explanations. Top Exam Questions and answers, 100% Accurate. which of the following statements represents an outcome-oriented goal? A. I will complete a m... inimum of two resistance training sessions each week B. I reduce my body weight by 15 lb over the next 3 months. C. I would decrease my calorie intake by 3000 calories per day - ✔✔-B. I reduce my body with my 15 lb over the next 3 months remember that outcome-oriented goes are long term what is the primary muscle involved in horizontal adduction of the humerus? A. rhomboids B. posterior deltoids C. pectoralis major D. gastrocnemius I - ✔✔-C. pectoralis major when performing standing hip abduction using a cable column, which of the following modifications would decrease the torque applied to the hip joint? A. selecting a heavier weight on the cable column B. positioning the ankle strap closer to the ankle C. stepping further away from the cable column D. Raising the ankle strap closer to the knee - ✔✔-D. raising the ankle strap closer to the knee an emergency bar contains 3 grams of fat, 32 grams of carbohydrates, and 12 grams of protein what percent of the total calories are derived from carbohydrates A. 13.3% B. 23.6% C. 45.5% D. 63.1% how is this question calculated? - ✔✔-D. 63.1% 3 grams fat x 9 calories is 27 32 g carbs x 4 calories is 128 12g protein*4 calories is 48 27 +128 + 48 =203 128/203 =.6305 the results of a Rockport 1 mile walk test indicate that a client's estimated maximum oxygen consumption vo2max is 37.6 ml in kilograms per minute. based on this information, what is the clients estimated maximum capacity Express in METs? A. 7.6 mets B. 10.7 mets C. 12.4 mets D. 15.1 mets how is this answer calculated - ✔✔-B. 10.7 mets 1 MET = 3.5 37.6/3.5 =10.7 which of the following methods is most appropriate to monitor the exercise intensity of a client with hypertension who takes beta blockers prescribed by a healthcare provider? (taking beta-blockers mean that his heart rate will be lower due to the medicine) A. rating of perceived exertion using the category ratio scale B. target heart rate established as a percent of age predicted maximum heart rate C. target heart rate established as a percent of heart rate reserve D. heart rate monitor preprogrammed with the client's target heart rate - ✔✔-A. a rating of perceived exertion using the category ratio scale rate of perceived exertion is a subjective scale used to identify in military exercise intensity during cardio-respiratory exercise and physical activity. 198, 271 a rating of 12 to 13 is considered to be moderate intensity and a rating of 14 to 17 is considered to be vigorous intensity on the category ratio scale that is from value 0 to 10 a rating of 526 represents moderate-intensity and a rating from 7 to 8 represents vigorous-intensity. a 50 year old male client has a resting blood pressure of 136 / 98 mmhg, a total cholesterol level of 260 mg / DL, and a HDL level of 55 mg / DL. he has been sedentary for the last 10 years and has not use tobacco products in his. based on the information provided, how many major, controllable risk factors for cardiovascular disease does the client have? A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5 A normal resting heart rate is between 60 and 90 bpm Resting heart rate above 100 bpm indicates illness He is high risk because his total cholesterol is 260 which is above 240 High density Lipo proteins HDL 55 mg means that he is borderline for cardiovascular diseaseCVD - ✔✔-B. 3 prior to a personal training session a client indicates that she has been experiencing some left knee soreness that persist for several days after running on the treadmill in which section of progress note is this information to be documented A. subjective B. objective C. assessment D. plan - ✔✔-A. subjective explanation: subjective information that the client gives you. a new member of the health club has signed up for fitness orientation to learn how to use exercise equipment individual indicates that he does not have currently performed any regular physical activity based on information provided in which stage of the transtheoretical model is this individual with regards to the adoption of physical active lifestyle A. precontemplation B. contemplation C. preparation D. action - ✔✔-C. preparation Explanation a male client currently weighs 237 lb 107.5 kg mg based on the skinfold testing his estimated body composition is currently 24% body fat what is the goal body weight to reduce his body composition to 20% body fat A. 181 lb is 82.1 kg B. 204 lb is 92.5 kg C. 216 lb is 98.0 kg D. 225 lb 102.1 kg mg how do you calculate this - ✔✔-D. 225 lb 102.1 kg mg explanation: 237*24%=56.88 237-56.88=180.12 100%-20%=80%. 180.12÷80%=225.15 multiplication subtraction subtraction division MSSD which of the following is common liability exposure for personal trainers? A. better to conduct appropriate crip participation screening procedures prior to initiating an exercise program with the new client B. referring a client with symptomatic cardiovascular disease to an appropriate health care provider B. educating a client with regard to healthy dietary habits in accordance with the dietary guidelines for Americans D. purchasing an insufficient amount of professional liability insurance coverage Q - ✔✔-A. which of the following key processes of motivational interviewing is addressed first to help prospective client overcome ambivalence to regular physical activity? A. planning B. focusing C. engaging D. evoking - ✔✔-c. engaging but book says evoking explanation a personal trainer employed at the local fitness center, which of the following is a violation of NETAS professional code of ethics A. declining personal training services to a member of the facility who has medical needs beyond the scope of the personal trainers education in experience B. attempting to engage a personal trainer client and to an intimate relationship outside of the fitness industry C. promoting personal training services by posting a fire in displaying business cards in the fitness center and throughout the facility D. canceling a session with a crying because he personal training accidentally double booked their schedule - ✔✔-B which of the following best describe the physical activity readiness questionnaire par Q. PAR Q is a A. document used to explain the potential risk in discomfort associated with exercise B. document completed by a healthcare provider indicating medical clearance to participate in an exercise program C. questioning used to identify individuals current stage of behavioral change D. screening tool used to identify those who should consult with a healthcare provider prior to participating in an exercise program - ✔✔-D. screening tool used to identify those who should consult with a healthcare provider prior to participating in the exercise program which of the following statements is an example of an amplified reflection? A. so on the one hand you enjoy eating snack foods, but you have also mentioned that you feel much better when you eat more fruits and vegetables B. it sounds like it would be absolutely impossible to make time for exercise program in your busy schedule C. so you are feeling overwhelmed by all of your commitments and frustrated that exercise is not fit into your schedule D. I hear you saying that you don't have time to prepare healthy meals do to your busy schedule of work and then getting your kids to their after-school activities - ✔✔-B. it sounds like it would be absolutely impossible to make time exercise program in your busy schedule amplified reflections over exaggerate which of the following is recommended during the concentric phase of a resistance training exercise for a participant performing 8 to 10 repetitions percent should A. inhale B. hold their breath C. exhale D. perform the valsalva maneuver - ✔✔-C. exhale At what cadence is the metrognome inset when performing the YMCA 3-minute step test A. 54 beats per minute B. 60 beats per minute C. 88 beats per minute D. 96 beats per minute - ✔✔-D. 96 beats per minute this test is uses a 12 inch high step with a stepping rate of 24 step cycles per minute or 96 Best contacts per minute with an oxygen consumption of 25.8 ml which of the following strategies is likely to be most effective to establish rapport with prospective clients A. greet fitness center members with a genuine smile and remember each member's name B. opposed members in the fitness center and point out the errors and their exercise technique C. allow members to complete their workouts independently without being interrupted D. inform members of your qualifications, knowledge, and experience as a personal trainer - ✔✔-A. greet fitness center members with a genuine smile and remember each member's name according to the dietary guidelines for Americans adults should A. completely abstain from all added sugars B. consume no more than 2,300 of sodium daily C. shift from foods containing unsaturated fats to protein-based foods with saturated fats D. strive to consume at least 400 mg of dietary cholesterol per day - ✔✔-B. consume no more than 2,300 of sodium daily page 107 a 35 year old male client has a resting heart rate of 68. calculate the target heart rate range corresponding to 50% to 70% of his heart rate reserve A. 110 to 135 bpm B. 118 to 142 beats per minute c. 127 to 150 beats per minute d. 135 to 158 beats per minute how is this calculated? - ✔✔-C. 127 to 150 beats per minute 220-35 = 185. 220-35=185 185-68=117. 185-68=117 117×.50= 58.5. 117×.70=81.9 58.5+68=126.5 81.9+68=149.9 when measuring resting blood pressure, the last audible korotkoff sound represents the A. rate pressure product B. diastolic pressure C. oxygen deficit D. systolic pressure - ✔✔-B. diastolic pressure systolic blood pressure is high point at which the first or two or more korotkoff sounds is heard and diastolic blood pressure is the point before The disappearance of the korotkoff sounds page 150 which of the following strategies may be effective to increase a client self-efficacy with regard to the adoption of regular physical activity A. share the testimonials of other clients who have experienced positive outcomes as a result of their exercise B. establish challenging goals focus on long-term outcomes of regular exercise C. VP client through a difficult interval training program to increase their tolerance of exercise D. inform the client about your education, credentials, and experience as an exercise professional - ✔✔- A. share testimonials of other clients who have experience positive outcomes as a result to regular exercise which of the following resistance training exercise is contradicted for a client who has been recently diagnosed by healthcare provider as having shoulder impingement syndrome A. seated narrow row machine B. lat pulldown on a cable bass machine C. shoulder extensions using resistance tubing D. side lying shoulder external rotation using a dumbbell - ✔✔-B. lat pulldown on a Cable bass exercise shoulder impingement syndrome is overhead movements that cause pain voiceover have movement such as lat pulldown shoulder press and military press. according to the physical activity guidelines for Americans in 2008 for substantial health benefits adults should perform A. muscle strengthening activities for more days per week B. 75 minutes of vigorous-intensity aerobic physical activity on a daily basis C. no more than 200 minutes of moderate-intensity physical activity per week D.at least 150 minutes of moderate-intensity aerobic physical activity each week - ✔✔-D. at least 150 minutes of moderate-intensity aerobic physical activity each week during the concentric phase of a barbell bench press which of the following joint actions occur A. elbow flexion and shoulder abduction B. scapular retraction (pulling shoulders back) and shoulder flexion C. arm horizontal adduction and elbow extension D. shoulder extension and arm horizontal abduction. - ✔✔-C. horizontal abduction in elbow extension the concentric phase is when you press the weight up and elbows will extend according to the recommended macronutrient proportions for adults, what is the maximum amount of fat per day for a 2200 calorie diet? A. 73 g B. 49 grams C. 86 grams D. 193 g from chapter 8 - ✔✔-C. 86 grams which of the following refers to the established nutrient level based on scientific evidence, to meet the requirements for nearly all healthy individuals? A. estimated average requirement (EAR) represents the average daily intake that is likely to make a nutritional requirements of approximately half of the healthy population. it is not used as an individual nutrition recommendation or go, but rather is used for statistical analysis when setting the RDAs B. recommended dietary allowance (RDA) C. adequate intake (AI) wich is set by apparently healthy individuals because there isn't enough scientific evidence to establish an RDA D. tolerable upper intake level (UL) represents the highest average level of nutrient intake that does not pose any risk of adverse health effects - ✔✔-B. recommended dietary allowance the dangerous condition in which the bloods water to sodium ratio severely elevated causing a decrease in plasma sodium concentration is known as A. dehydration B. hypertension (high blood pressure) C. hyponatremia D. hyperlipidemia (abnormally high concentration of fats and lipids in the blood) - ✔✔-C. hyponatremia based on pre and post weight measurements, it is determined that your client lost 2 lb of body weight during a five kilometer 3.1 miles run on a hot summer morning. what is a minimum amount of fluid that should be ingested after the race to rehydrate the athlete A. 24 fluid ounces (if you lost 1lb) B. 36 fluid ounces C. 48 fluid ounces (if you lost 2 lb) D. 72 fluid ounces (if you lost 3 lb) - ✔✔-C. 48 fluid ounces you should drink 24 oz for every pound of weight loss through sweat which of the following is the best example of complementary proteins A. peanut butter and white bread B. black beans and brown rice C. peanut butter and strawberry D. broccoli and ranch veggie dip complimentary - ✔✔-C. peanut butter and strawberry consuming incomplete proteins in combination May provide all the essential amino acids in which case to foods are referred to as complementary proteins examples includes beans plus brown rice, peanut butter + whole wheat bread, and peas plus pasta. 7. which of the following is an expected adaptation in response to regular cardio-respiratory exercise? A. decrease in capillary density of type 1 muscle fibers B. decreased parasympathetic nervous system tone C. increased submaximal left ventricle stroke volume D. increased resting diastolic blood pressure - ✔✔-C. increase submaximal left ventricle stroke volume it has been suggested that the stroke volume of highly-trained endurance athletes continues to increase up to the maximum one of the primary adaptations to regular cardio-respiratory exercise is an increase in the left ventricle stroke volume at rest during submaximal exercise in at maximum exertion. Increased submaximal left ventricle stroke volume is the same as decreased heart rate 7. which of the following activities is most appropriately associated with the anaerobic glycolysis energy system? A. jogging one mile at a half marathon Race pace B. running one lap or 400 mi around in Olympic size track C. sprinting 3/4 of the length of a football field D. walking 3 miles in less than an hour. - ✔✔-B. running one lap or 400m around in Olympic size track anaerobic glycolysis is the primary metabolic pathway during high-intensity, short-duration activities lasting up to 2 to 3 minutes such as middle-distance sprints to 200 to 800m, moderate-intensity resistance training 6 to 15 -RM or a rally during racquetball or short uphill climb on a bike. 7 which of the following adaptations is likely to have the most significant impact on increase maximum oxygen consumption seen with regular endurance exercise training? A. decrease maximum heart rate B. increased stroke volume C. decrease Mitochondrial size and density D. increase maximum heart rate - ✔✔-B. increased stroke volume it has been suggested that the stroke volume of highly-trained endurance athletes continues to increase up to the maximum effort. long chains of glucose are stored as glycogen in the_________and__________. A. tendons, ligaments B. stomach, blood C. skeletal muscle, liver D. lungs, smooth muscle - ✔✔-C. skeletal muscle, liver 7. which of the following metabolic pathways is primarily responsible for the energy supplied during power and speed activities? A. fatty acid oxidation B. phosphagen system C. anaerobic glycolysis D. aerobic glycolysis - ✔✔-B. Phosphagen system phosphagen system has the most immediate source of additional ATP. the phosphagen system is the dominant metabolic pathway for the production of ATP during high-intensity, very short duration activities such as short sprints that are <100 meters. a set of heavy resistance training(1-5RM) most field events in track and field or a spike in volleyball. generally addict recovery can be obtained within two to three minutes, prepare the muscles for the next bout of high-intensity activity. which of the following are characteristics of type llb or llx muscle fibers A. high resistance to fatigue (type 1) B. slow speed of contraction(slow twitch muscle fibers are known as type one. type 1 muscle fibers are well suited for low-to-moderate intensity endurance activities such as walking, jogging, and cycling, produce a relatively low amount of force and highly resistant to fatigue. C. large number of mitochondria ( D. high Force production - ✔✔-D. high Force production which of the following joint actions occurs during the concentric phase of a dumbbell chest press - ✔✔- horizontal abduction in elbow extension the concentric phase is when you press the weight up and elbows will extend the NETA group exercise in personal trainer certifications are valid for____years from the date of. need a certified professionals must complete at minimum of___continue education credits eecs prior to the certification expiration date in order to be eligible for renew? A. 3, 15 B. 2, 20 C. 5, 20 D. 4, 26 - ✔✔-B. 2, 20 which of the following is considered to be a violation of NETAS professional code of ethics? A.store personal training client files and a locked file cabinet and a security office space within your health club B. refer clients with special medical needs to a qualified healthcare provider C.enter into an intimate sexual relationship with an emotionally vulnerable personal training client D. inspect all fitness equipment on a regular basis to ensure proper function and safety - ✔✔-c. enter into an intimate sexual relationship with an emotionally vulnerable personal training client. which of the following roles or hats of a fitness professional is best represented by asking thoughtful questions to facilitate self-directed behavioral change A. instructor B. role model C. leader D. coach - ✔✔-D. coach according to the US department of labor's bureau of labor statistics, employment opportunities for fitness professionals are expected to_________over the current decade ending in 2014 A. remain unchanged B. decrease C. increase D. be limited - ✔✔-C. increase which of the following is a set of guidelines es [Show More]

Last updated: 1 year ago

Preview 1 out of 92 pages