NR 507 Week 6 Quiz Advanced Pathophysiology (2020) – Chamberlain college of nursing | NR507 Week 6 Quiz Advanced Pathophysiology (2020)

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NR 507 Week 6 Quiz Advanced Pathophysiology (2020) – Chamberlain college of nursing Advanced Pathophysiology Week 6 Quiz Question 1 2 / 2 pts _____ is a chronic inflammatory joint disease ch... aracterized by stiffening and fusion of the spine and sacroiliac joints. Fibromyalgia Ankylosing spondylitis Paget disease You Answered Rheumatoid arthritis Ankylosing spondylitis (AS) (spondyloarthritis) is a chronic, inflammatory joint disease characterized by stiffening and fusion (ankylosis) of the spine and sacroiliac joints. Question 2 2 / 2 pts Considering the pathophysiology of osteoporosis, what are the effects of extracellular signal regulated kinases (ERKs) and receptor activator of RANKL on osteoblasts and osteoclasts? Correct! ERKs and RANKL increase the life span of osteoclasts and decrease the life span of osteoblasts. ERKs and RANKL increase the life span of osteoblasts and decrease the life span of osteoclasts. ERKs increase the life span of osteoclasts and RANKL decreases the life span of osteoblasts. ERKs increase the life span of osteoblasts and RANKL decreases the life span of osteoclasts. In addition to ERKs, RANKL is required for the antiapoptotic and thus longer life span of osteoclasts. These effects increase the life span of osteoclasts (i.e., longer bone resorbing) and shorten the life span of the bone-forming cells, or osteoblasts. Question 3 2 / 2 pts Rhabdomyolysis is characterized by lysis of skeletal muscle cells through the initiation of the complement cascade. paralysis of skeletal muscles resulting from impaired nerve supply. smooth muscle degeneration resulting from ischemia. Correct! release of myoglobin from damaged striated muscle cells. Muscle cell damage releases the myoglobin. Question 4 2 / 2 pts A(n) _____ fracture is a fracture at a site of a preexisting bone abnormality, usually by a force that would not normally cause a fracture. incomplete idiopathic Correct! pathologic greenstick A pathologic fracture is a break at the site of a preexisting abnormality, usually by force that would not fracture a normal bone. Question 5 2 / 2 pts Which disorder is characterized by the formation of abnormal new bone at an accelerated rate beginning with excessive resorption of spongy bone? Osteosarcoma Correct! Paget disease Osteomalacia Osteoporosis Paget disease (osteitis deformans) is a state of increased metabolic activity in bone characterized by abnormal and excessive bone remodeling, both resorption and formation. Chronic accelerated remodeling eventually enlarges and softens the affected bones. Question 6 2 / 2 pts By the time osteoporosis is visible on x-ray, up to ____% of bone has been lost. 60 50 Correct! 30 40 Generally, osteoporosis is detected radiographically as increased radiolucency of bone. By the time abnormalities are detected by x-ray examination, as much as 25% to 30% of bone tissue may have been lost. Question 7 2 / 2 pts What pattern of bone destruction is described as not well defined and not easily separated from normal bone? You Answered Permeative Moth-eaten Porous Geographic Moth-eaten destruction is described as not well defined and not easily separated from normal bone. Question 8 2 / 2 pts The pain experienced in Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease is referred to as involving knees, inner thighs, and groin and is described as a continuous ache and relieved by anti-inflammatory drugs. elbows and upper and lower arms and is described as a continuous ache and relieved by anti-inflammatory drugs. elbows and upper and lower arms that is aggravated by activity and relieved by rest. Correct! knees, inner thighs, and groin that is aggravated by activity and relieved by rest. The child often complains of a limp or pain for several months. The pain usually is referred to the knee, inner thigh, and groin, following the path of the obturator nerve. In some children, pain may be absent or minimal. If pain is present, it is usually aggravated by activity and relieved by rest. Question 9 2 / 2 pts Ewing sarcoma arises from embryonal osteocytes. Correct! bone marrow. bone-producing mesenchymal cells. metadiaphysis of long bones. Arising from bone marrow, Ewing sarcoma can break through the cortex of the bone to form a soft-tissue mass. Question 10 2 / 2 pts Molecular analysis has demonstrated that osteosarcoma is associated with TSC2. TP53. myc. Correct! src. The oncogene src also has been associated with osteosarcoma. Question 11 2 / 2 pts Which serum laboratory test is elevated in all forms of osteogenesis imperfecta? Correct! Alkaline phosphatase Calcium Phosphorus Total protein Serum alkaline phosphatase is elevated in all forms of the disease. Question 12 2 / 2 pts What diagnosis is given when the infant’s hip maintains contact with the acetabulum, but is not well seated within the hip joint? Correct! Subluxated hip Dislocated hip Dislocatable hip Subluxable hip The subluxated hip maintains contact with the acetabulum but is not well seated within the hip joint. Question 13 2 / 2 pts In osteomyelitis, bacteria gain access to the subperiosteal space in the metaphysis, which is considered the “path of least resistance.” What factor makes this route for bacteria the path of least resistance? Correct! Cortex of the bone in this area is porous or maze-like. Blood supply to the metaphysis is easily compromised. Macrophages and lymphocytes have limited access to the subperiosteal space. Bacteria usually spread down the medullary cavity of the bone. This is the path of least resistance because the cortex of the bone in this area is porous or maze-like and the inflammatory response blocks spread within the bone. Question 14 2 / 2 pts Facioscapulohumeral muscular dystrophy is likely inherited from one’s maternal lineage. Correct! affected parent. father. mother. Facioscapulohumeral muscular dystrophy is a mild form of progressive, autosomal dominant (the parent who carries the gene) muscular dystrophy. Question 15 2 / 2 pts Which protein, absent in muscle cells of Duchenne muscular dystrophy, mediates the anchoring of skeletal muscles fibers to the basement membrane? Troponin Syntrophin Correct! Dystrophin Laminin Dystrophin is present in normal muscle cells and absent in Duchenne muscular dystrophy. Dystrophin mediates anchorage of the actin cytoskeleton of skeletal muscle fibers to the basement membrane through a membrane glycoprotein complex. Question 16 2 / 2 pts What clinical manifestations do allergic, atopic, and stasis dermatitis have in common? Scaling and crusting of lesions Correct! Erythema and pruritus Edema and vesicular lesions Petechiae and hyperpigmentation All three conditions present with erythema and pruritus. Question 17 2 / 2 pts Chickenpox may be followed years later by warts (verrucae). erysipelas. cytomegalovirus. Correct! herpes zoster. Herpes zoster (shingles) and varicella (chickenpox) are caused by the same herpesvirus—VZV. Varicella is a primary infection followed years later by herpes zoster, particularly among those who are immunosuppressed. Question 18 2 / 2 pts _____ of the epidermis initiate immune responses and provide defense against environmental antigens. Correct! Langerhans cells Keratinocytes Merkel cells Melanocytes Langerhans cells (a type of dendritic cell) and dermal dendritic cells initiate an immune response by presenting processed antigen to T cells, thus providing a defense against environmental antigens. Question 19 2 / 2 pts Scleroderma is more common in women and is associated with a(n) X-linked recessive gene. X-linked dominant gene. Correct! autoantibodies. virus. Scleroderma means sclerosis of the skin, and the disease is associated with immune dysregulation and several autoantibodies. The disease is more prominent in women. Question 20 2 / 2 pts Which malignancy is characterized by slow-growing lesions that usually have depressed centers and rolled borders and are frequently located on the face and neck? Kaposi sarcoma Squamous cell carcinoma You Answered Malignant melanoma Basal cell carcinoma They usually have depressed centers and rolled borders. Lesions are seen most often on people who live in regions with intense sunlight and on those areas of the skin most exposed—namely, the face and neck. Question 21 2 / 2 pts Which immunoglobulin is elevated in atopic dermatitis? IgG Correct! IgE IgM IgA In the acute phase of atopic dermatitis, inflammation is associated with activation of Th-1 cells with overexpression of cytokines (IL-4, IL-5, and IL13) and chemokines (CCL1 and CCL18) with increases in IgE, eosinophils, and macrophages. Question 22 2 / 2 pts Which vascular anomaly is a congenital malformation of dermal capillaries that does not fade with age? Cutaneous hemangioma Strawberry hemangioma Correct! Port-wine (nevus flammeus) stain Cavernous hemangioma A port-wine stain is present at birth or within a few days after birth and does not fade with age. Question 23 2 / 2 pts Which skin disorder has as its hallmark clinical manifestation skin lesions that rupture, creating a thin, flat, honey-colored crust? Rubella Tinea capitis Atopic dermatitis Correct! Vesicular impetigo The lesions begin as small vesicles with a honey-colored serum. Yellow to white-brown crusts form as the vesicles rupture and extend radially (Figure 45-4). Question 24 2 / 2 pts What is a common source of tinea corporis? Mites Ticks Fleas Correct! Kittens As in tinea capitis, contact with kittens and puppies is a common source of the disorder. Question 25 2 / 2 pts Thrush is a superficial infection that commonly occurs in children and is caused by Correct! Candida albicans. Staphylococcus. herpesvirus. Streptococcus. C. albicans infection is a superficial fungal infection that commonly occurs in children. C. albicans is part of the normal skin flora in certain individuals and invades susceptible tissue sites if the predisposing factors are not eliminated. [Show More]

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