CST Practice Test #3 (1-175), Questions with accurate answers, rated A. 100% verified

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CST Practice Test #3 (1-175), Questions with accurate answers, rated A. 100% verified The structure that lies along the posterior border of the testis is the: A. prostate B. epididymis C. tuni... ca vaginalis D. ejaculatory duct - ✔✔B. The epididmis is a comma-shaped organ that lies along the posterior border of the testis. The valve between the left atrium and left ventricle is the: A. bicuspid B. tricuspid C. aortic semilunar D. pulmonary semilunar - ✔✔A. The valve between the left atrium and left ventricle is referred to as either the mitral or bicuspid valve. What is the most abundant ion in the body? A. calcium B. sodium C. potassium D. magnesium - ✔✔A. Calcium is the most abundant ion in the body. Which of the follwoing is a method of bacterial survival when enviromental conditions are not conducive to growth and viability? A. conjugation B. transduction C. spore formation D. genetic mutation - ✔✔C. Spore formation happens when enviromental conditions are not conducive to growth and viability. What organ detects changes in the level of insulin and releases chemicals to regulate the level of blood glucose? A. liver B. stomach C. pancreas D. gallbladder - ✔✔C. The pancreas regulates the concentration of sugar glucose levels in the circulatory system. When the concentration of blood glucose increases, the pancreas senses the change and releases insulin, causing the glucose to move from the blood and be stored in the liver and muscles. When the blood level of glucose is too low, the pancreas releases glucagon that causes stored glucose to be released into the circulatory system. What does the term strike-through mean? A. rupture of heat seal during sterilization B. failure of biological indicator during sterilization C. perforation of sharp object through sterile wrapper D. soaking of moisture form unsterile to sterile layers - ✔✔D. When moisture soaks through a drape, gown or package, "strike-through" occurs and the item is contaminated. Which of the following monitoring devices would be used within a vessel? A. ECG lead B. swan ganz C. pulse oximeter D. sphygmomanometer - ✔✔B. A swan ganz monitoring device is inserted within a branch of the pulmonary artery to measure the central venous pressure, pulmonary artery pressure, pulmonary capillary wedge pressure and cardiac output. When adding 30 mL of injectable saline to 30 mL of 0.5% Marcaine, what strength does the drug become? A. 0.25% B. 0.5% C. 0.75% D. 1.0% - ✔✔A. 30(mL) x .5(%) = 60(mL) x X(%) 60mL / 30mL = .5% / X 30 x .5 = 60 x X 15 = 60X 15 / 60 = 60X / 60 X = 0.25 What action should be taken if the patient has withdrawn the surgical informed consent prior to surgery? A. transport patient to OR; inform surgeon B. do not transport patient; inform surgeon C. do not transport patient; inform anesthesia provider D. transport patient to OR; inform OR supervisor - ✔✔B. If a patient has withdrawn the surgical informed consent prior to surgery, then do not transport patient ad inform the surgeon. Confining and containing instruments with bioburden prevents which of the following? A. fomite formation B. personnel injury C. instrument loss D. cross-contamination - ✔✔D. Cross-contamination is the contamination of an individual or object upon contact with a contaminated item. The unsterile size of the perimeter of a sterile wrap is: A. 1/2 inch B. 1 inch C. 2 inches D. 3 inches - ✔✔B. The inside of wrappers is considered sterile except for the one-inch border / perimeter around the outside edge of the wrapper. A substance that inhabits the growth and reproduction of microbes on living tissue is a/an: A. antiseptic B. disinfectant C. sterilant D. sporicidal - ✔✔A. Antiseptic agents are used to perform the patient skin prep, as well as used by surgical team members to perform the surgical scrub; the agents are used to "surgically clean" the skin. What action should be taken by the transporter if a discrepancy occurs in the identification of a patient in the nursing unit? A. try to locate family members to verify patient identity B. transport to OR and inform surgeon of discrepancy C. inform unit clerk of discrepancy and return to OR D. do not transport, inform unit supervisor and OR personnel - ✔✔D. Do not transport, inform unit supervisor, and OR personnel if there is a discrepancy in the identification of a patient on the nursing unit. A patient may be asked to shower at home with an antimicrobial soap before coming to the hospital for surgery to: A. achieve a cumulative antimicrobial effect B. determine if the patient is allergic to the soap C. reduce the amount of time for the pre-op prep D. leave a visible film so the prep borders will show - ✔✔A. Studies have shown patients that were asked to shower with antimicrobial soap at home prior to having surgery demonstrate a decrease in the microbial count on the skin. What are the sequential steps performed prior to entrance into the sterile field? A. gown, glove, scrub B. glove, scrub, gown C. scrub, glove, gown D. scrub, gown, glove - ✔✔D. Before donning the sterile gown and gloves, the sterile members of the OR team must perform the surgical scrub with a chemical antiseptic. Which area is prepped last when preforming the skin prep for a Bartholin's cystectomy? A. anus B. mons pubis C. vagina D. perineum - ✔✔A. For prepping a Bartholin's cystectomy, the anus is prepped last. The sterile surgical technoligist should drape a table from: A. side to side B. back to front C. front to back D. open drape, lay it down - ✔✔C. To avoid contamination and reaching over the non-sterile surface when draping a table, the drape should be placed front to back. Which of the following can be injured if the arm is placed on the arm board greater than 90 degrees? A. brachial plexus B. cervical plexus C. rotator cuff D. acromioclavicular joint - ✔✔A. If the arm is placed on the arm board at greater than 90 degrees the brachial plexus is at risk for injury. What is the purpose of the third lumen in a three-way indwelling floey catheter? A. obtain urine specimen B. instill irrigation fluids C. provide hemostasis D. prevent urine reflux - ✔✔B. The third lumen of the three-way indwelling foley catheter is used for purposes of instilling irrigating fluids into the bladder. Which of the following enlarges and illuminates the surgical field during cataract procedures? A. fluorescent overhead lights B. fiberoptic headlamps C. operating microscope D. surgical loupes - ✔✔C. Operating microscope enlarges and illuminates the surgical field. Small radiopaque surgical patties used during cranial procedures are: A. raytecs B. kittners C. pledgets D. cottonoids - ✔✔D. Cottonoids are small radiopaque surgical patties used during cranial procedures. Which of the following hemostatic agents must be applied dry and only handled with dry gloves and instruments? A. oxycel B. avitene C. gelfoam D. thrombin - ✔✔B. Avitene is a type of collagen material which must be kept dry or it becomes very sticky and difficult to handle. Which surgical specialty would utilize a phacoemulsification machine? A. neurosurgery B. maxillofacial C. ophthalmology D. otorhinolaryngology - ✔✔C. Phacoemulsification machine uses ultrasonic energy to fragment the lens while it irrigates and aspirates the fragments in ophthalmology surgery. Which of the following lasers would be contraindicated for use in the posterior chamber of the eye? A. argon B. excimer C. ho: YAG D. carbon dioxide - ✔✔D. Carbon dioxide laser would be contraindicated for the use in the posterior chamber of the eye because the laser beam cannot travel through clear fluids. In which structure of the heart are the leads for permanent pacemaker placed? A. right ventricle B. left ventricle C. septum D. aorta - ✔✔A. The endocardial electrode is placed in the right ventricle or atrium. For which of the following diagnoses would a patient require pancreaticojejunostomy? A. gastroschisis B. morbid obesity C. neonatal jaundice D. alcoholic pancreatitis - ✔✔D. To relieve pain caused by chronic alcoholic pancreatitis and pseudocysts of the pancreas, a pancreaticojejunostomy may be performed. In which procedure would a bookwalter retractor be used? A. cystectomy B. nephrectomy C. retropubic prostatectomy D. transurethral prostatectomy - ✔✔C. Bookwalter retractor may be used for a retropubic prostatectomy. Which cranial nerve is severed as a last resort treatment of meniere's disease? A. VII B. VIII C. IX D. X - ✔✔B. Meniere's disease is associated with cranial nerve VIII. Brachytherapy is performed to treat: A. uterine prolapse B. endometriosis C. cervical cancer D. menorrhagia - ✔✔C. Brachytherapy is used in the treatment of cervical cancer. Which procedure is performed to improve the vision of patients with myopia? A. radial keratotomy B. scleral buckling C. keratoplasty D. vitrectomy - ✔✔A. Radial keratotomy is a procedure performed to improve vision for patients with myopia. The facial fracture that involves the complete seperation of the maxilla from the cranial base is a/an: A. orbital floor B. zygomatic C. LeFort I D. frontal sinus - ✔✔C. LeFort I fracture is a type of midfacial fracture in which the maxilla is separated from the base of the skull and the upper jaw can be free floating. What is the name of this retractor? A. charnley B. bennett C. harrington D. richardson - ✔✔B. Bennett retractors are frequently used in various types of orthopedic procedures. Where is the incision for a Caldwell-Luc procedure made? A. canine fossa B. frontal sinus C. eyebrow D. tear duct - ✔✔A. Caldwell-Luc procedure involves an incision into the canine fossa of the upper jaw. The device used for real-time intraoperative assessment of blood flow is/an: A. caliper B. doppler C. pacemaker D. manometer - ✔✔B. A doppler device measures the movement of blood through a vessel using ultrasonic, high-frequency waves. The needle holder shown below would be used during a: A. vaginal hysterectomy B. repair of rotator cuff C. tonsillectomy D. craniotomy - ✔✔D. The castroviejo needle holder is a type of microsurgical instrument used during delicate cardiothoracic and vascular procedures, and neurosurgery. A chemical reaction that provides energy by the breakdown of food is: A. anabolism B. catabolism C. metabolism D. commensalism - ✔✔B. The chemical reactions that break down complex organic compounds into simple ones are known as catabolism. Which structure of the ear is responsible for equilibrium? A. semicircular canals B. cranial nerve V C. labyrinth D. cochlea - ✔✔A. The semicircular canals work to maintain the equilibrium of the body. The first step urine production when fluids and dissolved substances are forced through a membrane by pressure is called: A. tubular secretion B. tubular reabsorption C. glomerular filtration D. glomerular absorption - ✔✔C. The first step in the production of urine is called glomerular filtration. The adipose tissue overlying the symphysis is the: A. labia majora B. mons pubis C. perineum D. vestibule - ✔✔B. The elevated adipose tissue over the symphysis is called the mons pubis. The cranial nerve that regulates secretion of gastric juice is the: A. III B. V C. VII D. X - ✔✔D. The vagus cranial nerve (X) regulates the secretion of gastric juices. Phagocytosis by the white blood cells is an example of which line of defense? A. first B. second C. third D. fourth - ✔✔B. Phagocytosis by the white blood cells is an example of the body's secod line of defense. When opening a sterile wrapper, the unsterile person should open the first corner: A. away from self B. toward self C. to the right D. to the left - ✔✔A. When opening a sterile wrapper, the unsterile person should open the corner farthest from the body first. The unsterile person must avoid reaching over a sterile field. Which of the following is the least inert of the synthetic meshes? A. PTFE B. polypropylene C. polyester fiber D. polyglactin 910 - ✔✔C. Polyester fiber mesh is one of the least inert of the synthetic meshes. What radiopaque contrast medium is used intraoperatively when the patient is allergic to iodine? A. isovue B. renografin C. methylene blue D. indigo carmine - ✔✔B. Renografin is used when a patient is allergic to iodine. Which of the following legal terms would apply to a case when a non-english speaking patient signs a surgical informed consent in english, but does not fully understand it? A. assault and battery B. res ipsa loquitur C. respondeat superior D. negligence - ✔✔A. If a non-english speaking patient signs a surgical informed consent in English and does not fully understand it, assult and battery would apply to the situation. Which of the following psychosocial factors is important fo rhte surgical team to address for pediatric patients? A. reliance on others B. postoperatively schedule C. separation anxiety D. appearance of scar - ✔✔C. A fear that most pediatric patients experience is anxiety due to impending separation from the parents. What is the surgical technologist's role during the transfer of the patient from the OR bed to the stretcher? A. completes counts and signs the OR record B. maintains sterility and integrity of backtable C. begins breakdown of sterile setup after drapes removed D. does not remove sterile attire, but aids in patient transfer - ✔✔B. The scrub person should remain sterile and maintain the sterility of the backtable until the patient has left the OR. If any complications should occur in the immediate postoperative period in the OR, the scrub person is prepared to assist. When breaking down the sterile field, the surgical technologist should place the grossly contaminated instruments in which of the following? A. biohazardous bag B. mesh-bottomed flash pan C. basin with sterile saline D. basin with sterile water - ✔✔D. The dirty instruments should be placed in a basin of water for transport to the decontamination room. Saline will damage the coating on the instruments. The instruments should not be transferred dry to the decontamination room allowing the debris to dry making it difficult to clean. How many minutes are unwrapped instruments with no lumens sterilized at 270 degrees F? A. 3 B. 6 C. 9 D. 12 - ✔✔A. Insruments that are unwrapped with no lumens can be sterilized at 270 degrees F for 3 minutes. Which characteristic describes an amphiarthrosis? A. hinge B. immobile C. slightly movable D. freely movable - ✔✔C. An amphiarthrosis refers to a joint that is slightly movable such as the symphysis pubis. What is the recommended method of hair removal from an operative site? A. wet shave with disposable razor B. cream depilatory two days pre-op C. clippers with disposable heads D. dry shave with straight razor and tape - ✔✔C. If a shave is ordered, studies show that the best method is to use clippers with disposable heads to try to prevent cutting or nicking the skin. Which of the following must be in the chart prior to the patient being taken to the OR per The Joint Commission? A. incident report B. advance directive C. insurance authorization D. history and physical - ✔✔D. Certain information and results of tests should be found in the patient's chart such as lab results, radiology reports, consent form for surgery, previous pathology reports, history and physical reports, allergies, handicaps or other limitations. An identification bracelet is placed on a surgical patient upon admission to the: A. facility B. nursing unit C. pre-op care unit D. surgery department - ✔✔A. Upon admission to the facility, the identification bracelet is placed on the surgical patient. To maintain control of the stretcher, the patient should be transported to the OR: A. according to surgeon's orders B. based on patient's request C. head first D. feet first - ✔✔D. To allow the individual transporting the patient the ability to control the stretcher and the patient facing in a normal position, the patient is to be transported feet first at all times. At what point is it appropriate to lower the leg when draping for a knee arthroscopy? A. after the touriquet has been inflated B. before the tourniquet has been deflated C. after the prep is completed D. before exsanguination - ✔✔A. After the tourniquet has been inflated, the leg may be lowered when draping for a knee arthroscopy. Which structure regulates the amount of light entering the eye? A. pupil B. iris C. retina D. cornea - ✔✔B. The iris regulates the amount of light entering the eye and assists in obtaining a clear image. A capillary network of blood vessels within the renal cortex that functions as a filter is called the: A. loop of henle B. renal papillae C. glomerulus D. nephron - ✔✔C. The glomerulus is a capillary network of blood vessels within the renal cortex that functions as a filter. The kidneys are located in the: A. pelvic cavity B. thoracic cavity C. space of retzius D. retroperitoneal space - ✔✔D. Since the kidneys are located behind the peritoneal lining of the abdominal cavity, they are retroperitoneal organs. The most abundant extracellular ion necessary for the transmission of impulses is: A. sodium B. calcium C. chloride D. potassium - ✔✔A. Sodium is the most abundant extracellular ion necessary for the transmission of impulses. The set of teeth that erupt at about 6 months of age and are later replaced are the: A. secondary dentition B. deciduous teeth C. third molars D. bicuspids - ✔✔B. Deciduous teeth (baby teeth) erupt at about 6 months of age and are lost usually between 6 and 12 years of age. What is a frequently used IV barbiturate for general anesthesia induction? A. propofol B. ketamine C. thiopental D. lorazepam - ✔✔C. Thiopental sodium (Pentothal) is commonly used induction drug. Which of the following arteries does not arise directly from the aorta? A. celiac B. vertebral C. superior mesenteric D. left common carotid - ✔✔B. The celiac, mesenteric, and common carotid arteries arise directly from the aorta; the vertebral arteries arise from the subclavian arteries. How long must an item be immersed in glutaraldehyde to be sterile? A. 10 minutes B. 90 minutes C. 6 hours D. 10 hours - ✔✔D. To be considered sterile an item must be completely submerged in glutaraldehyde for 10 hours. Which chemical substance causes the immune system to form antibodies? A. antigens B. interferons C. complements D. immunoglobins - ✔✔A. Antigens are chemical substances that react with the body and cause the formation of antibodies. What is a surgical procedure for the treatment of acute otitis media? A. myringotomy B. stapedectomy C. mastoidectomy D. tympanoplasty - ✔✔A. Myringotomy is an incision into the tympanic membrane in order to suction the infectious fluids and place PE tubes. This is performed for the treatment of chronic acute otitis media. How is the patient positioned on the OR table for a knee arthroscopy? A. trendelenburg, knee over center break B. lateral, hip over lower break C. supine, knee at lower break D. low lithotomy, body centered - ✔✔C. The patient is placed in the supine position with the knees placed at the lower break of the OR table. The end of the OR table is lowered to facilitate moving the operative leg during the arthroscopy. Which of the following instrument sets will be needed when a frontal sinus fracture repair is performed? A. plastic B. craniotomy C. ophthalmic D. vascular - ✔✔B. A craniotomy approach is often used for frontal sinus repair requiring the use of craniotomy instruments. Which of the following procedures is performed for cervical incompetence? A. culdocentesis B. colporrhaphy C. werthiem D. shirodkar - ✔✔D. The placement of a collar suture at the interval cervical os to prevent spontaneous abortion is called a Shirodkar procedure. Another term for the procedure is cerclage and involves the placement of polyester (Mersilene) tape around the internal os and tied. What surgical instrument is used to visualize the prostate and remove tissue during a TURP? A. otis urethrotome B. van buren sounds C. resectoscope D. ureteroscope - ✔✔C. The resectoscope is a combination of a cutting instrument and an endoscope. The surgeon utilizes a loop electrode that excises the prostatic tissue and the endoscope provides visualization of the prostate. Which of the following facilitates exposure for thyroidectomy? A. Interscapular pillow B. Lateral rotation C. Mayfield headholder D. Reverse Trendelenburg - ✔✔A. Several types of devices can be used to hyperextend the neck such as a shoulder roll or interscapular pillow. Which of the following needles would used for a liver biopsy? A. Stamey B. Verres C. Tru-cut D. Interstitial - ✔✔C. A Tru-cut biopsy needle would be used for obtaining a liver tissue biopsy. Why is cardioplegia used? A. Inhibit blood vessel spasm B. Cause diastolic arrest C. Increase force of contraction D. correct acidosis - ✔✔B. Cardioplegia is used during some open heart procedures to arrest the heart and allow the surgeon the ability to perform the procedure. What is the risk if a tourniquet is inflated for a prolonged period of time? A. Tissue necrosis B. Hematoma formation C. Hypotension D. Tetany - ✔✔A. Tissue necrosis can occur if the tourniquet is inflated for a prolonged period of time. What type of speciality equipment uses liquid nitrogen and is often utilized to repair retinal detachments? A. Nezhat B. CUSA C. Nerve Stimulator D. Cryotherapy - ✔✔D. The cryotherapy unit uses liquid nitrogen to deliver extreme cold through an insulated probe to the diseased tissue without damaging the adjacent tissues and is often used to repair retinal detachments. What is done to the umbilicus during the abdominal skin prep? A. Dabbed with first foam sponge only B. Not prepped to prevent contamination C. Prepped separately with cotton applicators D. Filled with prep solution and left pooled - ✔✔C. The umbilicus is prepped last or separately since it is considered a contaminated area. An axillary role is placed for lateral positioning to: A. Aid venous return B. Facilitate respiration C. Create good body alignment D. Allow access to incision site - ✔✔B. An axillary ro [Show More]

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