Microbiology final Ocx. Biol 2421. Questions and Answers (GRADED A)

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104a- Microbiology final Ocx. Biol 2421. Questions and Answers (GRADED A). CH-01Answer Key 1. Microorganisms are best defined as organisms that A. can only be found growing in laboratories. B. are ... too small to be seen with the unaided eye. C. are infectious particles. D. lack a cell nucleus. E. cause human disease. 2. Which of the following are not considered microorganisms? A. Fungi B. Protozoa C. Viruses D. Bacteria E.Mosquitoes 3. Helminths are ______. A. molds B.parasitic worms C. bacteria D. protozoa E. infectious particles 4. Among the types of microorganisms, the ______ are noncellular. A. protozoans B. bacteria C.viruses D. helminths *The replication cycles of viruses (lytic and lysogenic) differ among viruses and are determined by their unique structures and genomes. 5. Studies of the immune response to an infection caused by microorganisms would be performed by a(n) ______. A. hypersensitivity specialist B.immunologist C. geomicrobiologist D. epidemiologist Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. 6. Which of the following pairs of career descriptions and work tasks is not correctly matched? A. Medical microbiologist -- identify the cause of a bladder infection at a hospital lab B. Industrial microbiologist -- manipulate bacterial strains to be less pathogenic C. Agricultural microbiologist -- identify bacterial causes of crop disease D. Public health microbiologist -- track the incidence of AIDS in a population Humans utilize and harness microorganisms and their products. 7. A scientist who studies the influence of microbes in the formation of caves is called a(n) ______. A. astrobiologist B. epidemiologist C. geomicrobiologist D. immunologist Microbes are essential for life as we know it and the processes that support life (e.g., in biogeochemical cycles and plant and/or animal microflora). 8. Astrobiology is considered a sub-discipline of microbiology because A. life elsewhere in the universe is likely to be microbial. B. microbes are known to exist on other planets. C. all extraterrestrials known are microbial. D. only microbes can reproduce under the extreme conditions in outer space. Microorganisms are ubiquitous and live in diverse and dynamic ecosystems. 9. Which of the following does not indicate microbe involvement in energy and nutrient flow? A. Decomposition of dead matter and wastes B. Digestion of complex carbohydrates in animal diets C. Formation of greenhouse gases, CO2 and methane D.Thermal hot springs warmed by heat from earth's interior Microorganisms are ubiquitous and live in diverse and dynamic ecosystems. 10. The microorganisms that recycle nutrients by breaking down dead matter and wastes are called ______. A. fermenters B. eukaryotes C. decomposers D. pathogens E. prokaryotes Bacteria and Archaea exhibit extensive, and often unique, metabolic diversity (e.g., nitrogen fixation, methane production, anoxygenic photosynthesis). Microbes are essential for life as we know it and the processes that support life (e.g., in biogeochemical cycles and plant and/or animal microflora). 11. The majority of oxygen in earth's atmosphere is a product of photosynthesis by ______. A. rain forests B. microorganisms C. green plants D. agricultural lands 12. The three cell types discussed, eukaryotes, archaea, and bacteria, all derived from ______. A. cells with a true nucleus B. the last universal common ancestor C. photosynthetic bacteria D. archaea 13. The first cells appeared about ___ billion years ago. A. 5 B. 4.5 C. 3.5 D. 2 E. 1 14. A hypothesis must be tested many times before it can be considered a theory. TRUE Ability to apply the process of science: Demonstrate an ability to formulate hypotheses and design experiments based on the scientific method. 15. Which area of biology states that living things undergo gradual structural and functional changes over long periods of time? A. Evolution B. Morphology C. Phylogeny D. Genetics E. Transformation The evolutionary relatedness of organisms is best reflected in phylogenetic trees. 16. When humans manipulate the genes of microorganisms, the process is called ______. A. epidemiology B. taxonomy C. bioremediation D. genetic engineering E. immunology Cell genomes can be manipulated to alter cell function. Humans utilize and harness microorganisms and their products. 17. Which activity is an example of biotechnology? A. Bacteria in the soil secreting an antibiotic to kill competitors B. Public health officials monitoring diseases in a community C. Egyptians using moldy bread on wounds D. A microbiologist using the microscope to view bacteria E. Escherichia coli producing human insulin 18. Which of the following is a traditional human use of microorganisms? A. Baking bread B. Cleaning up oil spills C. Treating water and sewage D. Mass-producing antibiotics 19. Using microbes to detoxify a site contaminated with heavy metals is an example of ______. A. biotechnology B. bioremediation C. decomposition D. epidemiology E. immunology 20. Disease-causing microorganisms are called ______. A. pathogens B. decomposers C. fermenters D. bacteria E. eukaryotes 21. The number one worldwide infectious diseases are ______. A. AIDS-related diseases B. malaria and other protozoan diseases C. respiratory diseases D. measles and other rash diseases E. diarrheal diseases 22. Many chronic medical conditions have been found to be associated with microbial agents. TRUE 23. The incidence of deaths from communicable disease is ______ in the United States compared to the entire world. A. less B. greater C. about the same 24. In which way are bacteria and eukaryotes the same? A. Contain a nucleus to hold DNA B. Contain ribosomes for protein synthesis C. Contain membrane-bound organelles D. Have a cell wall for rigidity 25. In which way are archaea and eukaryotes the same? A. Have a cell wall for rigidity B. Can use flagella for movement C. Contain mitochondria for energy production D. Contain membrane-bound organelles 26. All bacteria and archaea are microorganisms, but only some eukaryotes are microorganisms. TRUE 27. Which of the following is a unique characteristic of viruses that distinguishes them from the other major groups of microorganisms? A. Cannot be seen without a microscope B. Contain genetic material C. Cause human disease D. Lack a nucleus E. Lack cell structure 28. Organisms called parasites are ______. A. the decomposers in ecosystems B. always viruses C. always harmful to their host D. free-living 29. Which group of microorganisms is composed only of hereditary material wrapped in a protein covering? A. Yeasts B. Parasites C. Viruses D. Fungi E. Bacteria 30. Eukaryotic cells are larger than bacterial or archaeal cells; all cells are larger than macromolecules. Where do viruses fit on this scale? A. Viruses are smaller than eukaryotic cells, but larger than bacterial or archaeal cells. B. Viruses are smaller than macromolecules. C. Viruses are larger than eukaryotic cells. D. Viruses are smaller than bacterial or archaeal cells, but larger than macromolecules. 31. In general, eukaryotic cells are about ______ times larger than bacterial or archaeal cells. A. 2 B. 10 C. 50 D. 1000 32. Archaeal cells are about ______ bacterial cells. A. ten times smaller than B. the same size as C. ten times larger than 33. Many chronic infections are caused by microbes that associate in communities termed ______. A. biofilms B. virions C. microbiota D. sediments 34. Which of the following historical microbiologists is incorrectly paired with his contribution to the science? A. Francesco Redi: tested spontaneous generation with meat exposed to the air or covered with cloth B. Louis Pasteur: demonstrated that anthrax was caused by a bacterium C. Joseph Lister: promoted disinfecting hands and air prior to surgery D. Antonie van Leeuwenhoek: made and used quality magnifying lenses to observe and record microorganisms 35. In the experiments constructed by Pasteur to disprove spontaneous generation, swan-necked flasks were used. Why was this shape of flask used in this experiment? A. The shape of the glass neck allowed the bacteria into the flask and then into the media, but air could not enter. B. The glass necks needed to be open to the air, yet constructed so that bacteria would settle in the lowest part of the neck. C. These flask shapes were the easiest and cheapest to produce. D. Because the glass necks were stretched out, the heat used to sterilize the medium inside of the flask could not kill the bacteria in the neck. 36. Koch's postulates are criteria used to establish that A. microbes are found on dust particles. B. a specific microbe should be classified in a specific kingdom. C. microbes can be used to clean up toxic spills. D. a specific microbe is the cause of a specific disease. E. life forms can only arise from preexisting life forms. 37. Which of the following is NOT a recent discovery that has had a huge impact on the understanding of microbiology? A. Restriction enzymes B. PCR technique C. Biofilms D. Small RNAs E. All are significant discoveries. 38. The sum total of all the microbes in a certain environment is termed the ______. A. microbiome B. microbial niche C. domain D. biofilm E. phylogeny 39. Which of the following is not a process in the scientific method? A. Systematic observation B. Development of a theory C. Laboratory experimentation D. Formulation of a hypothesis E. Belief in a preconceived idea 40. Experimentation A. is the first step in the scientific method. B. is designed to support an hypothesis. C. provides a means to gather objective data. D. is designed to refute an hypothesis. E. provides a means to gather subjective data. 41. The scientific method includes all of the following except ______. A. experimentation B. hypothesis 42. The scientific method involves formulating a tentative explanation, called the hypothesis, to account for what has been observed or measured. TRUE 43. Caring for patients infected with a new virus requires safety precautions for medical personnel. Choosing appropriate procedures is an example of a(n) ______ process. A. pathogenic B. deductive C. hypothetical D. inductive 44. Sterile refers to ______. A. homogenized B. absence of any life forms and viral particles C. pathogen-free D. pasteurized E. absence of spores lo 45. Taxonomy does not involve ______. A. classification B. a common name C. nomenclature D. identification 46. Which scientific field is involved in the identification, classification, and naming of organisms? A. Nomenclature B. Epidemiology C. Taxonomy D. Phylogeny E. Pathology 47. The orderly arrangement of organisms into a hierarchy of taxa is called ______. A. experimentation B. biotechnology C. classification D. identification E. nomenclature 48. Members of the same species share many more characteristics compared to those shared by members of the same kingdom. TRUE C. publication D. observation 49. Which of the following is a taxon that contains all the other taxa listed? A. Family B. Genus C. Kingdom D. Species E. Phylum 50. The smallest and most significant taxon is a ______. A. kingdom B. phylum C. species D. family E. genus 51. Select the correct descending taxonomic hierarchy (left to right). A. Class, phylum, order B. Family, genus, species C. Kingdom, domain, phylum D. Family, order, class E. Genus, species, family 52. A recently-developed mnemonic for remembering the taxonomic levels from Domain to Species is "Dumb Kids Prefer Candy Over Fancy Green Salad." The word "candy" here is a reminder of the taxonomic level of _______. A. chain B. culture C. category D. colony E. class 53. Which of the following is a scientific name? A. Streptobacilli B. Gram-positive streptococcus C. Anthrax D. Streptococcus pyogenes 54. When assigning a scientific name to an organism, A. the species name is placed first. B. the species name can be abbreviated. C. both genus and species names are italicized or underlined. D. both genus and species names are capitalized. E. the species name is capitalized. 55. Which scientific name is written correctly? A. S. aureus B. Staphylococcus aureus C. Staphylococcus Aureus D. staphylococcus aureus E. Staphylococcus aureus 56. The names of the three proposed domains are: Bacteria, Protista, and Eukarya. FALSE 57. A diagram of the three domains (Bacteria, Archaea, Eukarya) proceeding from the Last Universal Common Ancestor would show Archaea A. branching off the Domain Bacteria. B. branching off the Domain Eukarya. C. as the original cells from which the others derived. 58. Analysis of the small subunit rRNAs from all organisms in the three current domains suggests that A. the prokarytoes, archaea, and eukaryotes are not related. B. the eukaryotes arose from prokaryotes. C. the Archaea are more closely related to bacteria than eukaryotes. D. all modern and extinct organisms on earth arose from a common ancestor. 59. The study of evolutionary relationships among organisms is called ______. A. genetics B. biotechnology C. phylogeny D. taxonomy E. recombinant DNA 60. A scientist studying the sequence of nucleotides in the rRNA of a bacterial species is working on A. recombinant DNA. B. nomenclature. C. determining evolutionary relatedness. D. bioremediation. E. determining if that species is the cause of a new disease. 61. Trees of life that illustrate the phylogenetic relationships of all organisms were traditionally based on ______; newer methods for determining phylogeny rely on ______. A. morphology; virology B. nucleic acid sequences; morphology C. morphology; nucleic acid sequences D. nucleic acid sequences; microbiomes E,morphology; nutritional requirements CH-02: 1. An atom has gained an electron; it has been ______. A. ionized B. oxidized C. neutralized D. reduced E. deionized 1. Anything that occupies space and has mass is called ______. A. matter B. energy C. living D. space E. atomic 2. The electrons of an atom are A. moving in pathways called orbitals. B. used to determine atomic number. C. positively charged. D. always equal to the number of neutrons in an atom. E. found in the nucleus. 3. The electrons of an atom are A. used to determine the atomic weight. B. always equal to the number of protons. C. carrying a positive charge. D. always in full orbitals. E. used to determine the atomic number. 4. All of the following pertain to the atom Carbon-14 except it A. has 14 neutrons. B. is an isotope of carbon. C. has 6 protons. D. has 6 electrons. 5. The subatomic particles that surround the nucleus are the ______. A. protons and neutrons B. neutrons C. electrons D. protons E. protons and electrons B. 6. What is the maximum number of electrons in the second energy shell of an atom? A. 2 B. 4 C. 8 D. 18 E. 32 7. What is the maximum number of electrons in the first energy shell of an atom? A. 2 B. 4 C. 8 D. 18 E. 32 8. Protons and neutrons make up the atom's central core, which is referred to as its ______. A. isotope B. center of gravity C. valence number D. nucleus 9. The valence number is the A. number of protons. B. atomic weight. C. number of neutrons. D. number of electrons in the innermost orbital. E. number of electrons in the outermost orbital. 10. Two or more atoms bonded together are called a(n) ______. A. molecule B. isotope C. ion D. electrolyte E. element 11. What would be the valence number of electrons in the sulfur (S) atom? Its atomic number is 16. A. 2 B. 6 C. 8 D. 16 E. 32 12. Polar molecules A. always contain carbon. B. have an equal charge distribution. C. have an unequal charge distribution. D. always involve oxygen. E. are insoluble in water. 13. Organic chemicals always have a basic framework of the element _____ bonded to other atoms. A. oxygen B. phosphorous C. nitrogen D. hydrogen E. carbon 14. C6H12O6 + C6H12O6  C12 H22O11 + H2O represents A. the formation of a polysaccharide. B. the formation of a peptide bond. C. a decomposition reaction. D. a denaturation reaction. E. a dehydration synthesis. 15. Electrons that participate in chemical bonding are typically located closest to the nucleus. FALSE 16. Substances that release ions when dissolved in water and conduct electricity are ______. A. covalent B. solvents C. nonpolar D. electrons E. electrolytes 16. A capillary tube is used to acquire a small blood sample for CBC (complete blood count) analysis. Suction is not required to transfer the blood from the fingertip prick to the tube in part due to A. covalent bonding between the water molecules. B. cohesive forces between the glass particles of the tube and the water molecules. C. ionic bonding between the water molecules. D. adhesive forces between the water molecules and the glass particles of the tube. 17. Polar molecules are composed of covalently bonded A. carbon atoms. B. ions. C. identical atoms. D. atoms of identical electronegativity. E. atoms of different electronegativity. 18. Covalent bonds A. result from gaining electrons. B. are always nonpolar. C. result from losing electrons. D. are always polar. E. result from sharing electrons. 19. Cations are A. atoms without protons. B. charged subatomic particles. C. atoms that have gained electrons. D. capable of forming ionic bonds with anions. E. atoms that have gained neutrons. 20. A reaction where an electron is lost is called ______. A. oxidation B. reduction C. ionization D. decomposition E. dissolution 21. Ionic bonds A. result from like charge attraction. B. result from transferring electrons. C. are the weakest chemical bonds. D. always involve carbon. E. result from sharing electrons. 22. Hydrogen bonds A. result from attractive forces between molecules with polar covalent bonds. B. are the strongest bonds between molecules. C. result from attractive forces between molecules with polar ionic bonds. D. result from attractive forces between molecules with nonpolar ionic bonds. E. result from attractive forces between molecules with nonpolar covalent bonds. 23. Atoms that gain or lose electrons become charged particles called ______. A. ions B. isotopes C. anions D. cations 24. Which of the following represents a synthesis reaction? A. AB  A + B B. A + B  AB C. AB + XY  AY + XB D. AB + XY  AY + XB 25. Which of the following represents a reversible reaction? A. A + B  AB B. AB  A + B C. AB + XY  AY + XB D. AB + XY  AY + XB 26. Ionic compounds A. are basic in solution. B. are acidic in solution. C. are hydrophobic. D. are hydrophilic. E. always form salts in solution. 27. Water molecules are nonpolar molecules. FALSE 28. Polar molecules have more reactivity compared to nonpolar molecules. TRUE 29. A covalent bond is formed between an anion and a cation. FALSE 30. The important solvent associated with living things is ______. A. benzene B. sodium chloride C. water D. carbon dioxide E. ethyl alcohol 31. The concentration of a solution expresses the amount of solvent present. FALSE 32. In the cell cytoplasm, molecules of ATP are a ______. A. solute B. solvent 33. Burning coal produces sulfur dioxide in the atmosphere. When combined with rain that falls into bodies of water, this leads to A. a greater concentration of OH- ions in the water. B. a decrease in the pH level of the water. C. an increase in pH level of the water. D. no change in the pH level of the water. 34. Compared to a solution of pH 9, a solution of pH 7 A. is more basic. B. has more H+ ions. C. has a higher pH. D. has no OH- ions. 35. Compared to a solution of pH 9, a solution of pH 7 is A. 20 times more basic. B. 2 times more acidic. C. 100 times more acidic. D. 100 times more basic. E. 20 times more acidic. 36. If solution A has a lower pH compared to solution B, then solution A is more acidic than solution B. TRUE 37. One technique for staining bacteria for viewing under the microscope is called the Gram stain. In this technique, alcohol is used as a decolorizer because it degrades the outer membrane found in some bacteria. What chemical component of the cell does alcohol affect? A. Protein B. Lipid C. Nucleic acids D. Carbohydrate 38. What type of bond is formed by dehydration synthesis between two amino acids? A. Ester B. Peptide C. Phosphate D. Disulfide E. Glycosidic 39. The purine ______ always hydrogen bonds with the pyrimidine ______ in double-stranded DNA. A. cytosine; guanine B. thymine; guanine C. guanine; cytosine D. adenine; guanine 40. The only part of an amino acid that differs from other amino acids is its R group. TRUE 41. In what way would life be different if the element carbon was absent? A. There would be no organic compounds. B. There would be no inorganic compounds. C. Life would not exist in any shape or form. D. The concept of pH would not exist. 42. A student forgot to label a beaker containing a DNA solution and a beaker containing a glucose solution. If chemical analysis was performed to identify the contents of each beaker, which of the following would be found in the beaker of DNA but not in the beaker with glucose? A. Nitrogen and phosphorus B. Carbon atoms C. Hydrogen and oxygen atoms D. Fatty acids E. Amino acids 43. All proteins are enzymes. FALSE 44. Which of the following functional groups is mismatched to the organic compound in which it is typically found? A. Carboxyl - fatty acids B. Amino - proteins C. Hydroxyl - alcohols D. Sulfhydryl - proteins E. Phosphate - carbohydrates 45. Most biochemical macromolecules are polymers, which are chains of ______. A. hydrophobic molecules B. hydrogen bonds C. repeating carbohydrates D. electrolytic molecules E. repeating monomers 46. All of the following are monosaccharides except ______. A. glycogen B. fructose C. glucose D. deoxyribose 47. Which of the following would have glycosidic bonds? A. Monosaccharides B. Polypeptides C. Triglycerides D. ATP E. Polysaccharides 48. Starch is the primary storage food for all of the following except ______. A. algae B. some fungi C. green plants D. animals 49. Select the statement that most accurately reflects the process of plant material digestion in humans. A. It requires the action of enzymes called kinases. B. It is linked to the digestion of glycogen. C. It is a process that is dependent upon enzyme (cellulase) production by gut microbiota. D. It is a very efficient process the produces very little undigested material in feces. 50. All of the following are lipids except ______. A. wax B. cholesterol C. phospholipid D. starch E. triglyceride 51. What part of a phospholipid comprises the hydrophobic tail? A. Alcohol B. Hydroxyl C. Phosphate D. Glycerol E. Fatty acids 52. A fat is called _____ if all carbons of the fatty acid chain are single-bonded to 2 other carbons and 2 hydrogens. A. monounsaturated B. unsaturated C. polyunsaturated D. saturated 53. The building blocks of an enzyme are ______. A. nucleotides B. monosaccharides C. amino acids D. glycerol and fatty acids E. phosphate, glycerol, and fatty acids 54. An amino acid contains all of the following except a/n ______. A. phosphate B.  carbon C. carboxyl group D. variable R group E. amino group 55. An example of an amphipathic molecule found in living cells is ______. A. phospholipid B. nucleic acid C. protein D. ATP E. glucose 56. The lipid group that serves as energy storage molecules is the ______. A. triglycerides B. prostaglandins C. steroids D. phospholipids E. waxes 57. All of the following are polysaccharides except A. dextran in some bacterial slime layers. B. agar used to make solid culture media. C. cellulose in certain cell walls. D. sterols in cell membranes. E. a cell's glycocalyx. 58. The lipid group that is the major component of cell membranes is the ______. A. waxes B. steroids C. prostaglandins D. triglycerides E. phospholipids 59. Nucleic acids have primary, secondary, tertiary, and quaternary levels of organization. FALSE 60. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding protein structure? A. Proteins, such as antibodies that are comprised of multiple polypeptide chains, have quaternary structure. B. The folding of a protein to form its active site creates its tertiary structure. C. Beta-pleated sheets are a type of protein secondary structure. D. The sequence of nucleotides determines the primary structure of a protein. 61. Which of the following is not true about enzymes? A. Enzymes are found in all cells. B. Enzymes can be denaturated by heat and other agents. C. Enzymes participate in the cell's chemical reactions. D. Enzymes have high-energy bonds between phosphates. E. Enzymes are catalysts. 62. The alpha () helix is a type of _____ protein structure. A. primary B. secondary C. tertiary D. quaternary 63. The most important outcome of polypeptide intrachain bonding and folding is the unique shape of the protein. TRUE 64. ATP differs from the nucleotides found in DNA in the A. use of phosphate instead of sulfate in the backbone. B. use of phosphorus in the nitrogenous base portion of the molecule. C. sugar portion of the molecule. D. use of uracil in the nitrogenous base portion of the molecule. E. use of adenosine instead of adenine. 65. A new organism was identified that contained arsenic in place of phosphate in its DNA double helix structure. Based upon this information alone, it can be determined that this change will greatly alter the information encoded by this genetic material. FALSE 66. One nucleotide contains one A. phosphate. B. pentose sugar. C. nitrogen base. D. All of the choices are correct. 67. Purines and pyrimidines are components in the building block units of all ______. A. amino acids B. polysaccharides C. carbohydrates D. enzymes E. nucleic acids 68. Which of the following is not a pyrimidine? A. Adenine B. Thymine C. Cytosine D. Uracil 69. Which pertains to DNA but not to RNA? A. Contains ribose B. Contains nucleotides C. Contains thymine D. Contains adenine E. Contains uracil 70. Which of the following is a correct description of a component of the ATP molecule? A. Sugar: deoxyribose B. Sugar: ribose C. Nitrogenous base: alanine D. High energy bond: peptide bond E. High energy bond: glycosidic bond 71. ATP is best described as A. a double helix. B. the energy molecule of cells. C. an electron carrier. D. an enzyme. 72. A culture of an organism believed to cause intestinal symptoms is viewed under the microscope, and the microbiologist observes a cell membrane, flagella, mitochondria, and some dark unrecognizable structures within each cell. The microbiologist notes that the cells are eukaryotic because A. the dark structures must be the cell nuclei. B. only eukaryotic cells have a cell membrane. C. only eukaryotic cells have flagella. D. only eukaryotic cells have mitochondria. 73. NASA has published a list of criteria for identifying fossil bacteria in samples from Mars, as part of a search for evidence of life. Which of the following is good evidence for the presence of bacterial cells? A. Three-dimensional organization of cells in a starburst pattern B. No evidence of water in the surrounding mineral C. Cell size of 0.5 to 2 microns D. Absence of carbon in the material 74. Characteristics shared by all cells include A. a membrane serving as a cell boundary. B. the possession of genetic information. C. the presence of cellular fluid. D. All of the choices are correct. 75. All cells contain A. uracil in their DNA. B. ribosomes for protein synthesis. C. cell walls made of cellulose. D. organelles for compartmentalization. E. mitochondria to generate ATP CH-03: Micro Multiple Choice Questions 1. A microbiologist inoculates Staphylococcus aureus into a culture medium. Following incubation, both Staphylococcus aureus and Staphylococcus epidermidis are determined to be growing in this culture. What is the most likely explanation? A. The microbiologist used too much inoculum. B. The culture medium was selective. C. The culture medium was differential. D. The culture was contaminated. E. The incubation temperature was incorrect. 2. A microbiologist inoculates Staphylococcus epidermidis and Escherichia coli into a culture medium. Following incubation, only the E. coli grows in the culture. What is the most likely explanation? A. The culture medium was selective. B. The culture medium was differential. C. The microbiologist used too much inoculum. D. The culture was contaminated. E. The incubation temperature was incorrect. 3. Robert Koch and his colleagues first used agar in bacteriological media. Why was this ingredient an improvement on previous materials used to culture bacteria? A. Agar can convert from liquid to solid form, and back again, very easily. B. Agar is a complete source of nutrients for most bacteria. C. Bacteria growing on the solidified medium did not degrade or break down the agar. D. Agar was less expensive than the nutrients that Koch was previously using in the lab. 4. The bacterium Neisseria gonorrhoeae causes the sexually-transmitted infection gonorrhea. Although it can be isolated from the vagina, there are numerous normal biota in that location as well. To generate a pure culture of this pathogenic bacterium, the best choice is a(n) ______. A. differential medium B. enrichment medium C. selective medium D. liquid medium 5. Thioglycolate medium contains the following: yeast extract, pancreatic digest of casein, glucose, L-cysteine, sodium chloride, sodium thioglycolate, and agar. It is considered a complex medium because A. depending on their oxygen utilization pattern, organisms will grow differently on it. B. it has multiple ingredients for a broad range of nutrients. C. both yeast extract and pancreatic digest of casein are not chemically defined. D. thioglycolate has a carbon-sulfur bond that many microbes cannot break enzymatically. 6. Humans can see objects as small as 0.1 mm. Leeuwenhoek's best microscope could magnify objects to 300X. Which of the following would be invisible using Leeuwenhoek's microscope? A. Poliovirus, 30 nm A. Red blood cell, 8 m C. Escherichia coli, 1 m X 4 m D. Pandora virus, 0.5 mm X 1 mm 7. Cells of Staphylococcus aureus are cocci measuring about 1 m in diameter. In a textbook image of S. aureus, each cell measures about 1 cm. The magnification of the image on the page is ______. A. 10,000X B. 1,000X C. 100X D. 0.01X E. 0.001X F. 0.0001X G. This is impossible to calculate without more information. 8. Table 3.6 in your textbook uses Paramecium to illustrate several types of light microscopy. Each image is magnified 230X and measures about 4 cm. The actual size of a Paramecium is about ______. A. 920 m B. 0.2 m C. 175 m D. 57.5 m E. 4,000 m 9. Your microscope has a resolving power of 0.15 m. The specimen that you will be observing has bacterial cocci the size of 0.1 m in diameter. Which of the following statements is correct? A. The cocci will appear much smaller than their actual size because of the low resolution. B. The cocci will be fuzzy-looking and blend together. C. The cocci will not be visible. D. The cocci will be readily visible and distinct. 10. A microbiology student with a visual disability is viewing a sample of Bacillus endospores in a phase contrast microscope that is linked to an iPad. By "stretching" the image on the iPad screen, the student can increase the apparent size of the endospores. How does this manipulation affect resolution and contrast? (No software is being used to alter the image!) A. Only the magnification can be increased; resolution and contrast are unchanged. B. Contrast will improve because the microscope is phase-contrast. C. Both magnification and resolution increase; contrast is unchanged. D. Resolution and magnification will decrease because the screen is not as good as the human eye. 11. Agar is an important component of media because A. agar provides a solid surface for bacterial growth. B. bacteria require agar as a source of carbon. C. agar inhibits mold growth. D. agar prevents contamination. 12. The Five I's of studying microorganisms include all of the following except ______. A. identification B. isolation C. incubation D. infection E. inoculation 13. The term that refers to the purposeful addition of microorganisms into a laboratory nutrient medium is ______. A. inoculation B. contamination C. infection D. immunization E. isolation 14. A pure culture contains A. only bacteria. B. only one identified species of microorganism. C. a variety of species from the same genus. D. microbes from a single source. 15. The correct microbiological term for the sample of specimen that is put into a nutrient medium to produce a culture is ______. A. loop B. inoculum C. streak D. colony 16. Which isolation technique is most effective for the majority of applications and is most commonly used for colony isolation in the laboratory? A. Spread plate B. Streak plate C. Pour plate D. Culture plate E. Loop dilution 17. Which of the following is not an inoculating tool? A. Pipette B. Swab C. Petri dish D. Loop E. Needle 18. What is the term for a culture made from one isolated colony? A. Axenic B. Mixed C. Pure D. Both axenic and mixed are correct. E. Both axenic and pure are correct. 19. Newly inoculated cultures must be _____ at a specific temperature and time to encourage growth. A. incubated B. streaked C. spread D. poured 20. The procedures for culturing a microorganism require the use of a microscope. FALSE 21. Some microbes are not capable of growing on artificial media as pure cultures. TRUE 22. Mixed cultures are also referred to as contaminated cultures. FALSE 23. Bacterial cultures are easily identified from their microscopic appearance. FALSE 24. Which method often results in colonies developing down throughout the agar along with some colonies on the surface? A. Spread plate B. Pour plate C. Replica plate D. Streak plate 25. All of the following are examples of different types of microbiological media except ______. A. agar B. enriched C. broth D. Petri dish E. semisolid 26. Which of the following is essential for the development of discrete, isolated colonies? A. Solid medium B. Differential medium C. Broth medium D. Assay medium E. Selective medium 27. Which of the following is produced by adding 1% to 5% agar to nutrient broth that is then boiled and cooled? A. A pure culture B. A contaminated medium C. A liquid medium D. A mixed culture E. A solid medium 28. The three physical forms of laboratory media are ______. A. solid, semisolid, and liquid B. reducing, transport, and enumeration C. a streak plate, a pour plate, and a broth D. solid, liquid, and gas 29. Agar is a complex polysaccharide that comes from a/an ______. A. bacterium B. algae C. fungus D. marine invertebrate E. green plant 30. Which of the following is not a benefit of agar as a solid medium? A. Holds moisture B. Flexibility C. Solid at room temperature D. Can be inoculated and poured at a temperature that is not harmful E. Easily digested by most microbes 31. A medium that is gel-like has less agar in it compared to a solid medium. TRUE 32. Which type of medium would be the best choice when shipping a sample of bacteria from a clinic to a laboratory for testing? A. Thioglycolate medium B. Eosin-methylene blue agar C. Transport medium D. Blood agar 33. A common medium for culturing fastidious bacteria is ______. A. trypticase soy agar B. reducing medium C. mannitol salt agar D. blood agar E. MacConkey medium 34. A reducing medium contains A. sugars that can be fermented. B. extra oxygen. C. hemoglobin, vitamins, or other growth factors. D. substances that remove oxygen. E. inhibiting agents. 35. Which type of medium distinguishes different types of microorganisms based on an observable change in the colonies or in the medium? A. Enriched B. Enumeration C. Selective D. Reducing E. Differential 36. Differential media result in which of the following observable characteristics? A. Differently colored colonies B. Different media color after incubation C. Chemical precipitates D. Gas bubbles E. All of the choices are correct. 37. A reducing medium is used to culture ______ organisms. A. fastidious B. pathogenic C. anaerobic D. aerobic 38. Mannitol salt agar is selective for organisms in which bacterial genus? A. Salmonella B. Staphylococcus C. Escherichia D. Neisseria E. Streptococcus 39. A microbiologist must culture a patient's feces for intestinal pathogens. Which of the following components would likely be present in a selective medium for this purpose? A. Thioglycolic acid B. Sheep red blood cells C. Bile salts D. Peptone E. NaCl 40. Bacteria that require special growth factors and complex nutrients are termed ______. A. fermentative B. hemolytic C. fastidious D. aerobic E. anaerobic 41. A selective medium contains one or more substances that inhibit growth of some microbes to facilitate the growth of other desired microbes. TRUE 42. Eosin-methylene blue agar, or EMB, is a commonly used bacteriological medium for growing gramnegative bacteria from complex environments. It contains two dyes, eosin and methylene blue, as well as the sugar lactose. Eosin is a pH indicator that changes color when the medium is acidic, while methylene blue inhibits the growth of most gram-positive bacteria. If an organism consumes lactose, acid will be produced, causing the bacterial colonies to change color. Based upon this description, this medium is ______. A. reducing B. for enrichment C. selective D. differential and selective E. differential 43. A nutrient medium that has all of its chemical components identified and their precise concentrations known and reproducible is termed ______. A. reducing B. enriched C. complex D. defined 44. A nutrient medium that contains at least one ingredient that is not chemically defined is termed ______. A. enriched B. complex C. reducing D. synthetic 45. All of the following are diameters of cells that would be resolved in a microscope with a limit of resolution of 0.2 µm except ______. A. 0.2 mm B. 0.1 µm C. 2.0 µm D. 0.2 µm 46. Who invented the first crude microscope by grinding glass? A. Lister B. Schultz and Schwann C. Leeuwenhoek D. Redi E. Pasteur 47. The simple microscopes used by the earliest practitioners of microscopy contained which of the following? A. Magnifying lens B. Oil-immersion lens C. Lamp D. Ocular E. Condenser 48. The _____ of the microscope holds and allows selection of the objective lenses. A. ocular B. condenser C. stage D. nosepiece 49. Which of the following parts of a microscope magnifies the specimen to produce a real image of the specimen? A. Body B. Condenser C. Objective lens D. Ocular lens E. Nosepiece 50. Which of the following parts of the microscope magnifies the specimen to produce the virtual image of the specimen? A. Ocular lens B. Objective lens C. Condenser D. Body 51. If a microbiologist is studying a specimen at a total magnification of 950X, what is the magnifying power of the objective lens if the ocular lens is 10X? A. 95X B. 940X C. 950X D. 9500X 52. Magnification is achieved in a compound microscope through the initial magnification of the specimen by the _____ lens. This image is then projected to the _____ lens that will further magnify the specimen to form a virtual image received by the eye. A. ocular; oil immersion B. scanning; objective C. ocular; objective D. objective; ocular 53. Which term refers to the microscope's ability to show two separate objects as discrete and distinct? A. Contrast B. Magnification C. Refraction D. Resolution 54. The wavelength of light used and the numerical aperture governs ______. A. resolution B. contrast C. illumination D. size of the field E. magnification 55. Scattering of peripheral light rays through the glass slide under very high magnification can be prevented by ______. A. the condenser B. the ocular C. immersion oil D. the cover slip 56. The type of microscopy in which you would observe brightly illuminated specimens against a black background is ______. A. dark-field B. confocal C. fluorescence D. phase-contrast E. electron 57. Which type of microscopy transforms the subtle variations in cell density into differences in light intensity, allowing for increased internal detail without staining? A. Electron B. Fluorescence C. Bright-field D. Confocal E. Phase-contrast 58. Which type of microscope shows cells against a white background? A. Confocal B. Electron C. Bright-field D. Fluorescence E. Phase-contrast 59. All of the following pertain to the fluorescence microscope except A. it is a type of compound microscope. B. it is used to diagnose certain infections. C. it uses electrons to produce a specimen image. D. it requires the use of dyes like acridine or fluorescein. E. it requires an ultraviolet radiation source. 60. A scanning confocal microscope A. produces specimen images on electron micrographs. B. uses dyes that emit visible light when excited by ultraviolet radiation. C. uses ultraviolet light to form a specimen image. D. scans narrow planes and can build a three-dimensional image of the specimen. 61. The specimen preparation technique that is best for viewing cell motility is the ______. A. flagellar stain B. Gram stain C. negative stain D. hanging drop E. fixed, stained smear 62. The bending of light rays as they pass from one medium to another is called refraction. TRUE 63. A differential interference contrast microscope uses dyes to give colored, three-dimensional images. FALSE 64. Which type of microscope does not use light in forming the specimen image? A. Electron B. Dark-field C. Phase-contrast D. Bright-field E. Fluorescence 65. Which type of microscope achieves the greatest resolution and highest magnification? A. Bright-field B. Fluorescence C. Electron D. Dark-field E. Phase-contrast 66. Which type of microscope cannot image live specimens? A. Differential interference B. Bright-field C. Electron D. Dark-field E. Phase-contrast 67. Which type of microscope bombards a whole, metal-coated specimen with electrons moving back and forth over it? A. Transmission electron B. Differential interference contrast C. Scanning electron D. Phase-contrast E. Fluorescence 68. Comparing transmission electron microscopy with scanning electron microscopy, the following statement is true. A. Transmission EM is used for internal detail of cells and subcellular structures. B. Transmission EM gives detail of the external architecture of cells. C. Transmission EM requires dyes. D. Transmission EM can provide good images of bacteria but not viruses. 69. The purpose of staining cells on a microscope slide is to ______. A. secure them to the slide B. kill them C. observe motility D. enlarge the cells E. add contrast to see them better 70. The Gram staining procedure is best described as a ______ staining technique. A. negative B. simple C. selective D. differential 71. What do the Gram stain, the acid-fast stain, and the endospore stain have in common? A. They use heat to force the dye into cell structures. B. The staining outcome varies with the charge of the cell wall. C. They are used on a wet mount of the specimen. D. They are differential stains. E. They use a negative stain technique. 72. Basic dyes are A. repelled by cells. B. attracted to the acidic surface of bacterial cells. C. used in negative staining. D. dyes such as India ink and nigrosin. E. anionic. 73. A microbiologist makes a fixed smear of bacterial cells and stains it with methylene blue. All cells appear blue under the oil immersion lens. This is an example of ______. A. simple staining B. negative staining C. capsule staining D. the acid-fast stain E. using an acidic dye 74. Fixed smears of specimens are required to perform the Gram stain or the endospore stain. TRUE 75. Following a properly-performed Gram stain, gram-positive bacteria will appear as pink or red cells. FALSE CH-04: Test Bank Key Multiple Choice Questions 1. E. coli has been isolated and cultured from three different individuals. Upon biochemical testing of these three cultures, you find that there are differences in some reactions. What is the best explanation of these differences? 43. These represent three different species of E. coli. B. This is normal genetic variation seen among strains of E. coli. C. Two of the cultures are mutants of the other. D. The other two cultures are not really E. coli. E. Mistakes have been made in the test interpretation. 2. In which situation would a bacterium most likely have cytoplasmic inclusions? A. When producing an endospore B. When the cell is synthesizing flagella C. When the cell is starved for nutrients D. In a habitat abundant in nutrients 3. If you observe rod-shaped, pink cells on a slide that had just been Gram stained, you can assume that their cell envelope contains endotoxin. TRUE 2-20-13 4. You apply the acid-fast stain method to a patient's specimen, an aspirate from the lungs. Microscopic examination reveals a large number of bright pink-red bacillus-shaped bacteria in the smear. Which statement is true? A. This is the expected outcome for normal sputum. B. The patient has pneumonia. C. The patient has tuberculosis. D. The patient has an HIV infection. 44. A patient has a serious respiratory infection. A sputum sample yielded a bacterium that did not have any peptidoglycan. You hypothesize that the identity of this microbe could possibly be ______. A. Streptococcus pneumoniae B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis C. Borrelia burgdorferi 45. Staphylococcus aureus 46. Mycoplasma pneumoniae 45. You have made a smear of a bacterial culture and have performed the Gram stain on it. Looking at the organism under the microscope, you notice that the cells do not seem to be the dark blue-purple of a gram-positive reaction, but instead are light purple. Your staining procedure was performed correctly. What is your best explanation as to why the bacteria have stained this way? A. The bacteria were taken from an inappropriate medium, and a chemical is interfering with proper staining of the cells. B. There is something in the wall of the bacteria that has affected the uptake of the crystal violet into the cell wall, thereby staining it improperly. C. The specimen did not undergo heat fixation before staining; therefore, the primary dye does not stick properly to the wall. D. These are mutant bacteria which cannot be stained like other bacteria. 46. You have found a mutant of Streptococcus pneumoniae that has lost the ability to produce a capsule. If you inject this strain into a population of healthy mice, what prediction can you make about the consequences? A. The mice will get a severe case of pneumonia and recover. B. The mice will remain healthy. C. The mice will die of pneumonia. D. The infection will respond to antiviral medication. 46. You've just isolated a new bacterium in pure culture, and you culture it on a general purpose medium where its cells have a coccobacillus morphology. When you examine the cells after culturing on a variety of differential media, you find that in some cases, the cells appear as coccobacillus, but in others, they can be filamentous, cocci, or club-shaped. The best explanation for this observation is that A. the media were incubated at an incorrect temperature. B. the differential media are contaminated. C. the microscope is out of adjustment. D. the bacterium is pleomorphic. E. your culture has become contaminated. 47. You've just isolated a new bacterium in pure culture, and you culture it on a general purpose medium where its cells have a rod-shape (bacillus) morphology. In addition to culturing it on solid media, you inoculate a slide to grow it as a biofilm. When you use confocal microscopy to image the biofilm, you observe that there are several cellular morphologies, ranging from coccus to coccobacillus to long bacillus. The best explanation for this observation is that 47. the confocal microscope is out of adjustment. 48. the biofilm is no longer a pure culture of the microbe. 49. the biofilm culture was not incubated under the appropriate conditions. 50. the microenvironments within a biofilm promote structural variation. 10. A new drug is found to act by blocking the incorporation of subunits into sterol molecules for the cell membrane. Which statement is true? 48. Only archaeal cells would be affected by this drug. 49. Only biofilms would be affected by this drug. C. Most bacteria would be unaffected by this drug. D. A drug with this mechanism would be an excellent antibiotic. E. This kind of drug would destroy viruses only. 50. You need to determine if a pure culture of bacteria is gram-positive or gram-negative, but you've just spilled your only solution of crystal violet so you can't do a Gram stain. You decide to try a lysozyme treatment on a sample of each culture and then examine the samples under the microscope. The expected result is A. gram-positives will lyse and appears as debris; gram-negatives will lyse but more slowly. B. gram-positives will lyse and appears as debris; gram-negatives will be unaffected. C. gram-positives will lyse and appears as debris; gram-negatives will lose cellular morphology and appear as cocci. D. gram-negatives will lyse and appears as debris; gram-positives will lose cellular morphology and appear as cocci. E. gram-negatives will lyse and appears as debris; gram-positives will be unaffected. F. Researchers studying the rigidity and flexibility of the cell envelope used chemotaxis to measure the ability of microbes to squeeze through tight spaces. E. coli, a gram-negative bacterium, was able to traverse narrower channels than B. subtilis, a gram-positive microbe, even though both cells are the same size when grown without restriction. E. coli has the more flexible cell envelope because lipopolysaccharide has no charge. it has fewer flagella. it has only a single membrane. there is less structural carbohydrate. there are fewer protein receptors. 51. The process of sporangium formation and endospore maturation requires 6-8 hours. What is most likely to result if the temperature of the environment was raised to 100°C about 2 hours after the process started? A. The chromosome in the endospore would likely carry mutations. B. The endospore would form more slowly and be heat resistant. C. The endospore would form properly but would be unable to germinate. D. The organism would be termed a hyperthermophile. E. The endospore would not form properly because it is not yet heat resistant. 52. Archaea have been found in many microenvironments in the human body. Which of the following microenvironments is most likely to fit with the designation of Archaea as "extremophiles?" A. The inner ear can withstand increased pressure. B. The surface of the tongue has salt receptors. C. The gingiva and the gut are anaerobic. D. The temperature of the testes is less than 37°C. 53. At present, the most accurate indicator of evolutionary relatedness among organisms is the 54. size of the bacterial chromosome. 55. similarities of cell membrane proteins. 56. sequence of the ribosomal small subunit RNA. 57. size of the ribosomes. 58. size of the periplasmic space. E. Serological analysis for bacterial identification typically involves using specific antibodies to the bacterial cell antigens. a microscope to determine cell morphology. the determination of guanine + cytosine base concentrations. methods to identify cell enzymes. the analysis of the appearance of colonies. 55. Which of the following bacteria is not closely related to the others? A. Salmonella enterica subsp. enterica B. Salmonella enterica subsp. indica C. Salmonella bongori 56. Salmonella enterica subsp. Arizonae 57. Which of the following is mismatched? A. Tenericutes - waxy, acid-fast cell walls B. Gracilicutes - gram-negative cell walls C. Mendosicutes - archaea cell walls D. Firmicutes - gram-positive cell walls 58. A research laboratory that identifies the subspecies of bacterial isolates from a recent Salmonella epidemic would refer to Bergey's Manual of ______ Bacteriology for guidance in identification. A. Systematic B. Classical C. Evolutionary 59. A clinical laboratory that identifies the bacterial agents that cause human disease would refer to Bergey's Manual of ______ Bacteriology for guidance in identification. A. Systematic B. Determinative C. Classical D. Evolutionary E. Determinative 60. The reference for bacterial descriptions and classifications is _____ Manual of Systematic Bacteriology. A. Leeuwenhoek's B. Lister's C. Koch's D. Bergey's E. Pasteur's 61. Which of the following is not a phenotypic trait of bacteria? A. Cell shape B. Biochemical reactions C. rRNA sequence 62. Nutrient requirements 63. Archaea do not have the typical peptidoglycan structure found in bacterial cell walls. TRUE 64. Which of the following is mismatched? Psychrophiles - adapted to very low temperatures Extreme halophiles - adapted to salty habitats Methanogens - convert CO2 and H2 into methane Hyperthermophiles - adapted to high temperatures Thermoplasmas - adapted to warm-blooded animal environments 25. Halobacterium salinarum lives in and requires a high salt concentration. This is an example of an archaeon described as a ______. 65. barophile 66. halophile 67. thermophile 68. psychrophile 66. The function of bacterial endospores is A. to provide a protected site for photosynthesis. B. storage of excess cellular building blocks. C. protection of genetic material during harsh conditions. D. reproduction and growth. 67. Chemical analysis of a bacterial cell detects dipicolinic acid. What is the identity of this structure? A. Nucleoid B. Cell wall C. Biofilm D. Capsule E. Endospore F. Endospores are metabolically inactive. resistant to heat and chemical treatments. resistant to destruction by radiation. living structures. All of the choices are correct. 29. Bacterial endospores are produced by ______. A. Entamoeba 68. Bacillus C. Mycoplasma 70. Staphylococcus 71. All of the following occur during endospore germination except A. the cell grows out of its protein coats. B. binding of a small organic molecule to initiate germination. C. dehydration of the cell components. D. enzymes digest the endospore cortex. 72. All of the following structures contribute to the ability of pathogenic bacteria to cause disease except ______. gram-negative outer membrane inclusions slime layer capsule fimbriae C. Magnetosomes are infoldings of the cell membrane. found in all bacteria and some archaea. responsible for the heat resistance of endospores. also termed metachromatic granules. composed of magnetic iron oxide particles. F. Plasmids are found in all bacteria. are essential for survival. are located in microcompartments. cannot be passed between organisms. E. often carry genes controlling pathogenicity. 73. Endospores of certain bacterial species can enter tissues in the human body, germinate, and cause an infectious disease. TRUE 74. Boiling water (100°C) can normally destroy endospores. FALSE 75. All bacterial cells have ______. an S-layer flagella the ability to produce endospores capsules a chromosome 76. Which of the following bacterial structures is incorrectly matched with a function? A. Nucleoid - hereditary material B. Plasmids - contain genes essential for growth and metabolism C. Cytoplasm - dense, gelatinous solution D. Ribosomes - protein synthesis E. Inclusions - excess cell nutrients and materials 38. The site for ATP synthesis in bacterial cells is the ______. A. cell membrane B. mitochondrion C. cell wall D. microcompartment E. ribosome 39. The most immediate result of destruction of a cell's ribosomes would be that A. material would not cross the cell membrane. B. the chromosome would unravel. C. protein synthesis would stop. D. holes would appear in the capsule. E. glycogen inclusions would form. 40. The chromosome in bacteria and archaea A. contains all the cell's plasmids. B. is located in the cell membrane. C. forms a single linear strand of DNA. D. is part of the nucleoid . 41. The chemical components of ribosomes are proteins and ______. A. mRNA B. tRNA C. rRNA D. DNA 42. Some bacteria have a cytoskeleton of sterols to help maintain their shape. FALSE 43. A bacterial genus that has waxy mycolic acid in the cell walls is ______. A. Bacillus B. Mycobacterium C. Mycoplasma D. Corynebacterium. E. Streptococcus 44. Mycobacterium and Nocardia are different from most gram-positive bacteria in that their cell walls A. contain a layer of lipopolysaccharide. B. contain more peptidoglycan. C. are easily decolorized during staining. D. contain unique, waxy lipids. 45. Which of the following does not pertain to endotoxin? A. Endotoxin can cause septic shock in the human body. B. Endotoxin is found in acid-fast bacterial cell walls. C. Endotoxin can stimulate fever in the human body. D. Endotoxin is a bacterial cell wall lipid. 46. Lipopolysaccharide is an important cell envelope component of ______. A. acid-fast bacteria B. gram-positive bacteria C. gram-negative bacteria D. mycoplasmas E. protoplasts 47. Which of the following is not true of the outer membrane? A. The uppermost layer is made of lipopolysaccharide. B. The lipid portion of the lipopolysaccharide layer is termed endotoxin. C. Gram-positive bacteria have an outer membrane. D. The innermost layer is a phospholipid bilayer. E. Porins create channels through the outer membrane. 48. The cell envelope or its parts can interact with human tissue and cause disease. TRUE 49. Peptidoglycan is a unique macromolecule found in bacterial ______. A. slime layers B. capsules C. cell walls D. cell membranes E. inclusions 50. A bacterial cell wall that has primarily peptidoglycan with small amounts of teichoic acid and lipoteichoic acid is ______. A. a spheroplast B. acid-fast C. gram-negative D. gram-positive E. a protoplast 51. The macromolecule containing alternating N-acetylglucosamine (NAG) and N-acetylmuramic acid (NAM) chains cross-linked by short peptide fragments is ______. A. lysozyme B. lipopolysaccharide C. mycolic acid D. peptidoglycan E. teichoic acid 52. Gram-negative bacteria A. have a more complex cell envelope with a greater variation in chemical composition. B. appear purple following the Gram stain. C. are generally more susceptible to antibiotics than gram-positive bacteria. D. include all pathogens. . 53. If bacteria living in salty seawater were displaced to a freshwater environment, the cell structure that would prevent the cells from rupturing is the ______. A. slime layer B. capsule C. endospore D. cell membrane E. cell wall 54. The outcome of the Gram stain is based on differences in the ______. A. cell membrane B. flagella C. cell wall D. ribosomes 55. Which is the correct order for the application of reagents in the Gram stain? A. Crystal violet, iodine, alcohol/acetone, safranin B. Iodine, safranin, crystal violet, alcohol/acetone C. Crystal violet, alcohol/acetone, iodine, safranin D. Crystal violet, safranin, iodine, alcohol/acetone E. Safranin, crystal violet, alcohol/acetone, iodine 56. The cell membrane, the cell wall, and the outer membrane comprise the ______. A. cell envelope B. slime layer C. glycocalyx D. S-layer E. Peptidoglycan 57. During the Gram stain, the application of alcohol results in the decolorization of ______ cells. A. gram-positive B. gram-negative C. all D. pleomorphic 58. Mycobacterium and Nocardia are distinguished from other bacteria by the ______ stain. A. endospore B. basic C. methylene blue D. Gram E. acid-fast 59. The chemical bonds in peptidoglycan can be hydrolyed by the enzyme _____, found in tears and saliva. A. lysozyme B. penicillinase C. peptidase D. kinase 60. Lysozyme is most effective against ______. A. gram-positive organisms B. archaea C. mycoplasmas D. cyanobacteria E. gram-negative organisms 61. If the bacterial cells were viewed immediately after crystal violet was applied during the Gram stain procedure, gram-positive cells would be purple but gram-negative cells would be colorless. FALSE 62. The cell envelope of gram-positive bacteria has two layers: a thick cell wall and the cell membrane. TRUE 63. Hot carbol fuchsin is the primary dye in the acid-fast stain. TRUE 64. The region between the bacterial cell membrane and the cell wall is called the outer membrane. FALSE 65. Both gram-positive and gram-negative cells have outer membranes. FALSE 66. Chemotaxis refers to the ability of a cell to A. move in response to light. B. move in response to a chemical. C. transport desired molecules into a cell. D. halt movement in response to a chemical. 67. A nutrient binds to receptors near the flagellar basal body. This will result in A. inhibition of flagella rotation. B. numerous tumbles. C. clockwise rotation of flagella. D. counterclockwise rotation of flagella. 68. A bacterial cell exhibiting chemotaxis must have ______. A. a capsule B. flagella C. thylakoids D. metachromatic granules E. fimbriae 69. Flagella move in a whip-like motion. FALSE 70. Which external structure protects bacteria from phagocytosis? A. Cell membrane B. Capsule C. Fimbriae D. Slime layer 71. Two structures that allow bacteria to adhere to surfaces are ______ and ______. A. actin filaments; phospholipid membranes B. lipopolysaccharide; techoic acid C. endospores; metachromatic granules D. fimbriae; capsules E. pili; ribosomes 72. Spirochetes are able to move due to ______. A. cilia serving as walking feet B. a membrane-bound flagellum C. glycocalyx for gliding motility D. a periplasmic flagellum E. pseudopods 73. Two functions of bacterial appendages are ______ and ______. A. attachment; motility B. motility; energy production C. antibiotic resistance; motility D. attachment; energy production 74. The basal body of a flagellum is anchored into the ______. A. hook B. cell membrane C. cell wall D. peptidoglycan layer E. outer membrane 75. The term that refers to the presence of flagella all over the cell surface is ______. A. peritrichous B. lophotrichous C. monotrichous D. atrichous E. amphitrichous 76. The term that refers to the presence of a tuft of flagella emerging from a single site is ______. A. amphitrichous B. lophotrichous C. atrichous D. peritrichous E. monotrichous 77. The term that refers to flagella at both poles of the cell is ______. A. peritrichous B. atrichous C. monotrichous D. amphitrichous E. lophotrichous 78. The bacterial flagellum has three components. In order from the cytoplasm to the external environment, they are ______. A. hook, basal body, and filament B. filament, hook, and basal body C. filament, basal body, and hook D. basal body, hook, and filament E. basal body, filament, and hook 79. The short, numerous appendages used by some bacterial cells for adhering to surfaces are called ______. A. periplasmic flagella (axial filaments) B. flagella C. fimbriae D. cilia E. pili 80. The transfer of genes during bacterial conjugation involves rigid, tubular appendages called ______. A. periplasmic flagella (axial filaments) B. fimbriae C. sex pili D. cilia E. flagella 81. A slime layer gives bacterial cells greater pathogenicity than a capsule. FALSE 82. When bacilli in a chain fold back upon each other like a hinge, this cellular arrangement is termed a ______. A. strep B. staph C. sarcina D. tetrad E. palisade 83. An irregular cluster of spherical bacterial cells is termed ______. A. staphylospirillum B. streptobacillus C. staphylobacillus D. streptococcus E staphylococcus 84. A chain of rod-shaped cells would be called a ______. A. palisade B. Staphylobacillus C. streptobacillus D. staphylococcus E. streptococcus 85. Which term is not used to describe bacterial cell shape? A. Spirochete B. Vibrio C. Coccus D. Bacillus E. Tetrad 86. The term diplococcus refers to an irregular cluster of spherical bacterial cells. FALSE 87. Bacterial cells could have any of the following appendages except ______. A. cilia B. fimbriae C. periplasmic flagella (axial filaments) D. flagella E. pili 88. Which of the following is not a characteristic of bacteria? A. Ribosomes are present as the site of protein synthesis. B. Organelles termed mitochondria are the site of ATP production. C. The cell wall is made of peptidoglycan or other distinct polysaccharides. D. DNA is free in the cytoplasm. 89. The bacterial cell membrane is a site for many enzymes and metabolic reactions. TRUE 90. Which of the following statements regarding chemotaxis is incorrect? A. In a cell with peritrichous flagella, each flagellum moves individually but in a coordinated direction during a run. B. In a tumble, the flagellum reverses direction, causing the cell to stop moving and change course. C. When a cell detects a nutrient gradient, it will increase the frequency of runs to move toward the nutrient. D. The fuel for flagellar motion is not ATP, but a proton gradient. 91. Alcohol-based hand sanitizers specifically target lipids, making them most effective when trying to eliminate ______. A. endospores B. biofilms C. gram-positives D. viruses E. gram-negatives 92. Which of the following properties are shared by both bacteria and archaea? A. Single, circular chromosome B. Method of DNA compaction C. Cell wall polysaccharides D. Ester linkages in fatty acids 93. The division of microbes termed the Mendosicutes have a cell wall type best described as ______. A. lacking a cell wall B. archaeal C. gram-positive D. gram-negative 94. The division of microbes termed the Firmicutes have a cell wall type best described as ______. A. gram-positive B. archaeal C. lacking a cell wall D. gram-negative CH-05 Multiple Choice Questions 64. In the condition called athlete's foot, the fungus Trichophyton consumes the keratin protein found in hair, nails, and dead skin. Which of the following descriptors does not apply to Trichophyton? Eukaryote Parasite Saprobe Heterotroph 65. Which of the following statements is correct? All saprobes are heterotrophic, but only some are parasitic. All heterotrophs are fungi, and include both parasites and saprobes. All heterotrophs are parasites, but only some are saprobes. All fungi, whether parasite or saprobe, are heterotrophs. 69. A saprobe differs from a parasite in that A. a saprobe has the ability to undergo meiosis to produce sexual spores, but a parasite can only perform mitosis to produce asexual spores. B. a saprobe derives nutrients from dead plants and animals, but a parasite derives nutrients from living plants and animals. C. a saprobe has a pseudohyphae morphology, but a parasite has true hyphae. D. a saprobe is a fungus, but a parasite is a protozoan. 67. Most fungi obtain nutrients from dead plants and animals. These fungi are called ______. A. mutualistic B. saprobes C. free-living D. parasites E. antagonists 68. Endosymbiosis of cyanobacteria is widely accepted as an explanation for the development of chloroplasts. The presence of endosymbiotic cyanobacteria provided a cell with the advantage of ______. A. tolerance to oxygen B. photosynthesis C. an electron transport chain D. simple, rapid gene transfer E. a membrane-bound nucleus G. The endosymbiotic theory says that precursor eukaryotic cells acquired cilia by endosymbiosis with a(n) _____ ancestor and others gained photosynthetic ability from endosymbiosis with a(n) _____ ancestor. archaeal, cyanobacterial protozoan, algal spiral, cyanobacterial helminth, algal 69. The endosymbiotic theory has been developed to explain the emergence of ______. A. eukaryotes B. prokaryotes C. viruses 71.bacteria E. archaea 72. Biologists have found evidence that eukaryotic cells evolved from prokaryotic organisms by a process of intracellular ______. A. commensalism B. parasitism C. symbiosis D. mutualism 9. Select that statement that reflects evidence that directly supports the endosymbiotic theory. A. The electron transport system is located in the cell membrane in bacteria, while in eukaryotes it is located in the mitochondrial cristae. B. Enzymes for photosynthesis are found embedded in membranes of the Golgi apparatus. C. Lysosomes contain their own DNA in the form of plasmids. D. Glycolysis occurs in the cytoplasm of bacterial cells. 73. Which of the following pairs is mismatched? Protozoa; unicellular Algae; multicellular Fungi; multicellular Protozoa; multicellular Helminths; multicellular Fungi; unicellular D. Protists include ______. yeasts and molds algae and protozoa helminths D. viruses G. bacteria 74. Which of the following is found in eukaryotic cells but not in bacterial cells? A. Nucleus B. Mitochondria C. Endoplasmic reticulum D. Lysosomes E. All of the choices are correct. 13. You are observing an organism under the microscope and you note that it has a cell wall, no chloroplasts, and a nucleus. Your prediction would be that this organism is a(n) ______. A. alga B. protozoan C. bacterium D. fungus E. virus 14. You are observing an organism under the microscope, and it is clearly multicellular with no cell walls. Your prediction is that this organism is a(n) ______. A. alga B. fungus C. helminth D. protozoan E. bacterium 75. Eukaryotic flagella differ from bacterial flagella because only eukaryotic flagella A. facilitate chemotaxis. B. are used for cell motility. C. are long, whip-like structures. D. contain microtubules. E. facilitate phototaxis. 16. Cilia are exhibited by certain ______. 76. fungi 77.protozoa 78.algae 79. viruses 77.bacteria F. There are nine peripheral pairs and one central pair of _____ found inside eukaryotic flagella and cilia. microtubules active proteins cilia D. endoflagella 39. filaments 40. As part of their reproductive cycle, helminths produce egg and sperm cells. Both of these eukaryotic cell types have an outer surface composed of polysaccharides known as the ______. A. cell wall B. microtubule C. cell membrane D. cyst E. glycocalyx 41. The glycocalyx of a eukaryotic cell is A. mostly polysaccharides. B. also called the cell wall. C. composed of many diverse proteins. D. a protective mechanism against osmotic lysis. 42. the site where many metabolic reactions occur. 20. Which of the following is not a function of the eukaryotic glycocalyx? 43. Protection 44. Reception of chemical signals 45. Adherence 46. Movement 44. Which of the following organisms has a cell wall? A. Candida albicans B. Entamoeba histolytica C. Enterobius vermicularis D. Trypanosoma cruzi 22. Cell walls are not typically possessed by ______. 45.algae 46.protozoa 47. fungi 48.bacteria 46. Chitin is a chemical component of the cell walls of ______. A. helminths B. protozoa C. algae D. fungi E. bacteria F. The cell membranes of bacteria and eukaryotes are quite similar, differing only in the presence of phospholipids. being selectively permeable. the ability to transport wastes out of the cell. the presence of sterols. the presence of proteins in the bilayer. \ 25. The eukaryotic cell membrane is composed of ______. F. sterols G. proteins H. phospholipids I. sterols, proteins, and phospholipids E. sterols and phospholipids only 49. The eukaryotic cell membrane is a bilayer of sterols. FALSE 50. The cell walls of fungi and algae are chemically identical to the bacterial cell wall. FALSE 51. The site for ribosomal RNA synthesis is the ______. A. Golgi apparatus B. nucleus C. ribosome D. lysosome E. nucleolus 29. When a eukaryotic cell is not undergoing mitosis, the DNA and its associated proteins appear as a visible, threadlike mass called ______. 52.nucleoplasm 53. the nuclear envelope 54. chromatin 55. the nucleolus 56. the nucleosome E. Histones are on the surface of rough endoplasmic reticulum. found in polyribosomes. enzymes found in lysosomes. proteins of the cytoskeleton. proteins associated with DNA in the nucleus. 54. The passageways in the nuclear envelope for movement of substances between the nucleus and cytoplasm are called nuclear ______. A. histones B. pores C. chromatin D. endoplasmic reticulum E. inclusions 55. In eukaryotic cells, which of the following organelles contain DNA? A. Nucleus, nucleolus, and Golgi apparatus B. Nucleus, chloroplast, and peroxisome C. Nucleus, mitochondria, and Golgi apparatus D. Nucleus, endoplasmic reticulum, and Golgi apparatus E. Nucleus, chloroplast, and mitochondrion 56. Chromosomes are generally not visible by light microscopy unless the cell is undergoing nuclear division. TRUE F. The nuclear envelope is a single lipid layer. FALSE 58. Which organelle is found in algae but not in protozoa or fungi? A. Endoplasmic reticulum B. Chloroplasts C. Mitochondria D. Golgi apparatus E. Lysosomes 59. Chloroplasts are composed of membranous sacs called ______ that carry chlorophyll. Surrounding these sacs is a ground substance called ______. A. thylakoids; stroma B. grana; stroma C. cristae; matrix D. cristae; stroma E. thylakoid; matrix 60. Pfiesteria is a(n) ______ that produces a toxin harmful to humans. A. endospore B. protozoan C. helminth 61. fungus 62.alga F. All algae have chloroplasts. TRUE 62. The plasma cells of the immune system are responsible for secreting protein antibodies into the bloodstream. Within the plasma cell, the antibody moves through several organelles in what order? Ribosomes, Golgi apparatus, endoplasmic reticulum, lysosome Ribosomes, Golgi apparatus, endoplasmic reticulum, vesicles Ribosomes, endoplasmic reticulum, nucleolus, Golgi apparatus, vesicles Ribosomes, endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi apparatus, vesicles Ribosomes, vesicles, endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi apparatus 63. Rough endoplasmic reticulum is studded with ribosomes. TRUE 64. The series of tunnel-like membranes functioning in transport and storage are the ______. chloroplasts Golgi apparatus endoplasmic reticulum mitochondria lysosomes 65. An organelle that is a stack of flattened, membranous sacs and functions to receive, modify, and package proteins for secretion is the ______. mitochondrion endoplasmic reticulum chloroplast Golgi apparatus lysosome 66. The vesicle that originates from the Golgi apparatus and contains a variety of digestive enzymes is the ______. ribosome magnetosome C. centrosome 67. lysosome 68. inclusion 68. The eukaryotic cell organelle that most resembles a bacterial cell is the ______. A. lysosome B. Golgi apparatus C. ribosome D. nucleus E. mitochondrion 69. Which organelle contains cristae where enzymes and electron carriers for aerobic respiration are found? A. Endoplasmic reticulum B. Golgi apparatus C. Mitochondrion D. Chloroplast E. Lysosome 70. Mitochondria possess all of the following except ______. cristae 70S ribosomes enzymes for photosynthesis electron carriers metabolic enzymes 71. Eukaryotic mitochondria have their own 70S ribosomes and circular DNA. TRUE 72. The size of a eukaryotic ribosome is ______. A. 40S B. 70S C. 50S D. 80S E. 30S 73. In eukaryotic cells, ribosomes have two locations. They are scattered in the ______ and on the surface of ______. A. nucleus; endoplasmic reticulum B. nucleus; Golgi apparatus C. cytoplasm; Golgi apparatus D. cytoplasm; endoplasmic reticulum 74. The drug cytochalasin targets actin filaments in the cytoskeleton, preventing them from forming. Treatment of a cell with cytochalasin would result in its inability to ______. A. form cellular extensions B. transport substances within the cell C. form the nuclear envelope structure D. prevent mutations in its chromosome 75. Choose the correct order of the three main types of cytoskeletal elements in increasing order of size. A. Actin filaments, intermediate filaments, flagella B. Actin filaments, intermediate filaments, microtubules C. Microtubules, flagella, cilia D. Microtubules, intermediate filaments, actin filaments E. Microtubules, cilia, flagella 76. The cytoskeleton A. anchors organelles. B. provides architectural support. C. functions in movements of the cytoplasm. D. helps maintain cell shape. E. All of the choices are correct. 77. When fungal buds remain attached in a row following cell division, the resulting chains of yeast cells are called ______. A. mycelia B. pseudohyphae C. molds D. dimorphic E. septa 78. The long, thread-like branching cells of molds are called ______. A. pseudohyphae B. asci C. conidiophores D. septa E. hyphae 55. All fungi can form hyphae. FALSE 79. Fungi that grow as yeasts at one temperature but as molds at another temperature are called ______. A. pseudohyphae B. spores C. dimorphic D. parasites E. saprobes 80. Which is not a characteristic of fungi? A. Heterotrophic nutrition B. Photosynthetic C. Include single-cell and filamentous forms D. Presence of cell walls 81. The intertwined mass of hyphae that constitutes the body of a mold is a ______. A. rhizoid B. bud C. stock D. mycelium E. stem 82. Fungal asexual spores A. produce offspring with different combinations of genes from the parent. B. cannot be seen using a light microscope. 83.are produced when nutrients are limiting. 84.are the products of meiotic division by a single parent cell. 85.are used to identify fungi. E. Fungi can reproduce both sexually and asexually. TRUE 61. Fungi reproduce sexually less frequently than asexually. What might be the reason behind this infrequency of sexual reproduction? A. Sexual reproduction requires two genetically different strains of the fungus to come together. B. Sexual reproduction is more energy-intensive than asexual reproduction. C. In asexual reproduction, one parent divides. D. All statements are true. 85. In producing beer and wine, humans have exploited the microbial ability to ferment sugar to alcohol. The microbes responsible for this process are ______. A. algae B. bacteria C. protozoans D. fungi 86. Infections caused by fungi are called mycoses. TRUE F. In humans, fungi can only infect the skin. FALSE 87. All fungi cause some kind of disease in plants or animals. FALSE 66. Protozoan cells do not exhibit ______. 88. motility B. a cell wall 89.heterotrophic nutrition 90. cyst formation 91.ectoplasm and endoplasm 90. There are no algae that can cause human disease. FALSE 91. The motile, feeding stage of protozoa is called the ______. A. oocyst B. cyst C. sporozoite D. food vacuole E. trophozoite 92. Protozoan endoplasm contains ______. A. cilia B. oral grooves C. ectoplasm D. flagella E. mitochondria 93. Plankton are floating communities of helminths. FALSE 94. Protozoa are classified into four groups based on ______. A. their pathogenicity B. how they move C. their required nutrients D. the resistance properties of their cysts 72. A protozoan having a flagellum would be classified in the genus ______. A. Entamoeba B. Toxoplasma C. Trypanosoma D. Enterobius E. Plasmodium 73. A group of protozoa that are not motile are the ______. A. Plasmodium sp. B. ciliates C. amoebas D. dimorphics E. trophozoites 95. Algae are classified into divisions based principally on their type of motility. FALSE 75. A protozoan cyst differs from a helminth egg in that A. a cyst is metabolically active, but an egg is not. B. cysts have a uniform structure, but eggs have a wide variety of morphologies. C. the cyst can germinate to form the organism but the egg must be fertilized. D. the chromosome is free in the cytoplasm of a cyst, but enclosed in a nucleus in an egg. 76. During unfavorable growth conditions, many protozoa can convert to a resistant, dormant stage called a(n) ______. A. seed B. trophozoite C. endospore D. cyst E. sporozoa 77. Protozoan cysts are A. analogous to bacterial endospores. B. part of all protozoan life cycles. C. the primary form of replication. D. necessary for transmission to a new host. E. are produced by binary fission. 78. A specimen from a patient suffering diarrhea shows a one-celled organism in the microscope. The organism moves very slowly by protruding its cytoplasm. You would predict that the patient has an infection caused by ______. A. Entamoeba B. Toxoplasma C. Plasmodium D. Trichomonas E. Giardia 79. Which pair is mismatched? A. Histoplasma - causes Ohio Valley fever B. Giardia - transmitted by feces in drinking water C. Trichomonas - sexually transmitted D. Trypanosoma - causes African sleeping sickness E. Plasmodium - causes Chagas disease 80. Amoebic dysentery is most commonly contracted through A. contaminated blood products. B. insect bites. C. puncture wounds. D. the fecal-oral route from contaminated food or water. E. direct transmission from one host to another. 81. After returning from a trip to Africa, Tom feels tired and weak and has severe anemia. A blood smear reveals a protozoan in his blood and the health care provider diagnoses malaria. Which of the following could be the causative agent of this disease? A. Plasmodium vivax B. Giardia lamblia C. Trichophyton rubrum D. Taenia solium E. HIV 82. You are attempting to identify the type of helminth that has been isolated from a patient stool sample. The most important consideration to make this distinction is to A. examine the sample to see if microscopic eggs are present. B. ask the patient about recent food and water consumption. C. look at the gross anatomy to determine if the body is segmented or not. D. determine if the cells are eukaryotic or bacterial by looking for nuclei. 83. The two major groups of helminths are the ______ and the ______. A. roundworms; pinworms B. roundworms; flatworms C. tapeworms; flukes D. cestodes; trematodes 84. In humans, helminths generally infect the ______. A. nervous system B. gastrointestinal tract C. skin D. urinary tract E. muscular system 85. All of the following are helminths except ______. A. tapeworms B. flukes C. trypanosomes D. roundworms E. pinworms 86. Which of the following does not pertain to helminths? A. Eggs and sperm used for reproduction B. Often alternate hosts in complex life cycles C. Parasitic worms D. Members of Kingdom Protista E. Have organ systems 87. Larvae and eggs are developmental forms of ______. A. helminths B. protozoa C. fungi D. yeasts E. algae 88. Adulthood and mating of helminths occur in which host? A. Primary host B. Secondary host C. Definitive host D. Transport host E. Mating occurs in all hosts. 89. Larval development of helminths occurs in which host? A. Primary host B. Intermediate host C. Definitive host D. Transport host E. Larval development takes place in all hosts. 90. Parasitic helminths have a highly developed ______ system to enhance host transmission. A. muscular B. nervous C. digestive D. respiratory E. reproductive 91. Eating undercooked meat can lead to food-borne disease via helminthic infection. What is the common host for Taenia solium? A. Ducks B. Geese C. Cows D. Pigs E. Chickens 92. In the life cycle of the pinworm Enterobius, a common pediatric infection, the child carries the adult worm in his/ her intestine. The adult worm releases eggs, which are transmitted out of the body in the feces. The child will scratch the itching anal region, picking up the worm eggs and re-inserting them into his/her mouth. For this helminth life cycle, the human is the ______ host. A. intermediate B. definitive C. primary D. intermediate and definitive CH-06: micro Multiple Choice Questions 1. Viruses exhibit all the following except ______. 39.definite shape 40. metabolism 41.genes 42.ability to infect host cells 43.ultramicroscopic size ASM Objective: 04.04 The synthesis of viral genetic material and proteins is dependent on host cells. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 06.02 Summarize arguments on both sides of the debate regarding the classification of viruses as living organisms. Learning Outcome: 06.03 Identify effective terms to describe the behavior of viruses. Learning Outcome: 06.04 Discuss the size of viruses relative to other microorganisms. Section: 06.02 Topic: General Viral Properties 2. Host cells of viruses include ______. F. humans and other animals G. plants and fungi H. bacteria I. protozoa and algae J. All of the choices are correct. ASM Objective: 04.04 The synthesis of viral genetic material and proteins is dependent on host cells. ASM Objective: 05.01 Microorganisms are ubiquitous and live in diverse and dynamic ecosystems. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 06.02 Summarize arguments on both sides of the debate regarding the classification of viruses as living organisms. Section: 06.02 Topic: General Viral Properties 41. Viruses ______. A. cannot be seen in a light microscope B. are prokaryotic C. contain 70S ribosomes D. undergo binary fission ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 06.02 Summarize arguments on both sides of the debate regarding the classification of viruses as living organisms. Learning Outcome: 06.03 Identify effective terms to describe the behavior of viruses. Learning Outcome: 06.04 Discuss the size of viruses relative to other microorganisms. Section: 06.03 Topic: General Viral Properties 42. Viral capsids are made from subunits called ______. 44.envelopes 45. spikes 46. capsomeres 47.prophages 48.peptones ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 06.05 Describe the function and structure(s) of viral capsids. Section: 06.03 Topic: Viral Structure 43. Helical and icosahedral are terms used to describe the shape of a viral ______. 47. spike 48. capsomere 49.envelope 50. capsid 51. core ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 06.05 Describe the function and structure(s) of viral capsids. Section: 06.03 Topic: Viral Structure 47. A/an _____ is the protein shell around the nucleic acid core of a virus. A. capsomere B. capsid C. spike D. envelope E. monolayer ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 06.05 Describe the function and structure(s) of viral capsids. Section: 06.03 Topic: Viral Structure 7. One of the principal viral capsid shapes is a 20-sided figure with 12 evenly spaced corners referred to as a/an _____ capsid. 48. spiked 49. complex 50. icosahedral 51.helical 52.buckeyball ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 06.05 Describe the function and structure(s) of viral capsids. Section: 06.03 Topic: Viral Structure 51. A naked virus only has a/an ______. A. capsomere B. nucleocapsid C. envelope D. antigenic surface ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 06.06 Distinguish between enveloped and naked viruses. Section: 06.03 Topic: Viral Structure 50. Which of the following is not a typical capsid shape? A. Tetrahedral B. Complex C. Helical D. Icosahedron ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 06.05 Describe the function and structure(s) of viral capsids. Section: 06.03 Topic: Viral Structure 51. All of the following pertain to virus envelopes except A. gained as a virus leaves the host cell membrane. B. gained as a virus leaves the nuclear membrane. C. contain special virus proteins. D. help the virus particle attach to host cells. E. located between the capsid and nucleic acid. ASM Objective: 02.05 The replication cycles of viruses (lytic and lysogenic) differ among viruses and are determined by their unique structures and genomes. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 06.06 Distinguish between enveloped and naked viruses. Section: 06.03 Topic: Viral Structure G. Viral spikes A. are always present on enveloped viruses. B. attach the viral capsid and envelope. 52.allow bacteria to evade host defenses. 53. are derived from host proteins. E. are for recognition among the various types of viruses. ASM Objective: 02.05 The replication cycles of viruses (lytic and lysogenic) differ among viruses and are determined by their unique structures and genomes. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 06.07 Explain the importance of viral surface proteins, or spikes. Section: 06.03 Topic: Viral Structure 54. The core of every virus particle always contains ______. A. DNA B. capsomeres C. enzymes D. DNA and RNA E. either DNA or RNA ASM Objective: 02.05 The replication cycles of viruses (lytic and lysogenic) differ among viruses and are determined by their unique structures and genomes. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 06.08 Compare and contrast the composition of a viral genome to that of a cellular organism's genome. Section: 06.03 Topic: Viral Structure 59. Which of the following is not associated with every virus? A. Envelope B. Capsomeres C. Capsid D. Nucleic acid E. Genome ASM Objective: 02.05 The replication cycles of viruses (lytic and lysogenic) differ among viruses and are determined by their unique structures and genomes. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 06.06 Distinguish between enveloped and naked viruses. Section: 06.03 Topic: Viral Structure 60. Viral nucleic acid types include which of the following? F. Double-stranded DNA G. Single-stranded DNA H. Double-stranded RNA I. Single-stranded RNA J. All of the choices are correct. ASM Objective: 02.05 The replication cycles of viruses (lytic and lysogenic) differ among viruses and are determined by their unique structures and genomes. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 06.09 Diagram the possible nucleic acid configurations exhibited by viruses. Section: 06.03 Topic: Viral Structure 56. Reverse transcriptase synthesizes A. a positive RNA strand from a negative RNA strand. B. a negative RNA strand from a positive RNA strand. C. viral RNA from DNA. D. viral DNA from RNA. ASM Objective: 02.05 The replication cycles of viruses (lytic and lysogenic) differ among viruses and are determined by their unique structures and genomes. ASM Objective: 04.04 The synthesis of viral genetic material and proteins is dependent on host cells. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 06.08 Compare and contrast the composition of a viral genome to that of a cellular organism's genome. Section: 06.03 Topic: Viral Replication 57. A negative RNA virus must first A. synthesize a DNA copy of its genome. B. synthesize a negative RNA copy of its genome. C. synthesize a positive RNA copy of its genome. D. transcribe reverse transcriptase. E. transcribe RNA polymerase. ASM Objective: 04.04 The synthesis of viral genetic material and proteins is dependent on host cells. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 06.09 Diagram the possible nucleic acid configurations exhibited by viruses. Section: 06.03 Topic: Viral Replication 58. Viruses with _____-sense RNA contain the correct message for translation, while viruses with _____-sense RNA must first be converted into a correct message. A. positive; negative B. negative; positive C. primary; secondary D. secondary; primary E. intermediate; primary ASM Objective: 02.05 The replication cycles of viruses (lytic and lysogenic) differ among viruses and are determined by their unique structures and genomes. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 06.09 Diagram the possible nucleic acid configurations exhibited by viruses. Section: 06.03 Topic: Viral Replication 60. Classification of viruses into families involves determining all the following characteristics except A. type of nucleic acid. B. type of capsid. C. presence of an envelope. D. biochemical reactions. E. number of strands in the nucleic acid. ASM Objective: 04.04 The synthesis of viral genetic material and proteins is dependent on host cells. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 06.11 Demonstrate how family and genus names in viruses are written. Section: 06.04 Topic: Viral Classification 59. Which of the following represents a virus family name? A. Herpes simplex virus B. Herpesviridae 61. Picornavirus 62. Enterovirus 63. Hepatitis B virus ASM Objective: 01.05 The evolutionary relatedness of organisms is best reflected in phylogenetic trees. ASM Topic: Module 01 Evolution Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 06.11 Demonstrate how family and genus names in viruses are written. Section: 06.04 Topic: Viral Classification 62. Which of the following is not a viral order in the classification system? A. Caudovirales B. Vaccinia virus F. Nidovirales G. Mononegavirales ASM Objective: 01.05 The evolutionary relatedness of organisms is best reflected in phylogenetic trees. ASM Topic: Module 01 Evolution Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 06.11 Demonstrate how family and genus names in viruses are written. Section: 06.04 Topic: Viral Classification 63. The correct sequence of events in viral multiplication is A. penetration, uncoating, synthesis, adsorption, assembly, and release. B. uncoating, penetration, synthesis, assembly, absorption, and release. C. adsorption, penetration, uncoating, synthesis, assembly, and release. D. assembly, synthesis, uncoating, release, penetration, and adsorption. E. adsorption, release, synthesis, uncoating, assembly, and penetration. ASM Objective: 02.05 The replication cycles of viruses (lytic and lysogenic) differ among viruses and are determined by their unique structures and genomes. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 06.12 Diagram the six-step life cycle of animal viruses. Section: 06.05 Topic: Viral Replication 65. Viruses acquire envelopes around their nucleocapsids during ______. replication assembly adsorption release penetration ASM Objective: 02.05 The replication cycles of viruses (lytic and lysogenic) differ among viruses and are determined by their unique structures and genomes. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 06.06 Distinguish between enveloped and naked viruses. Learning Outcome: 06.12 Diagram the six-step life cycle of animal viruses. Section: 06.05 Topic: Viral Replication 66. In general, most DNA viruses multiply in the host cell's _____, while most RNA viruses multiply in the host cell's _____. nucleus; cytoplasm cytoplasm; cell membrane cell membrane; cytoplasm cytoplasm; nucleus nucleus; endoplasmic reticulum ASM Objective: 02.05 The replication cycles of viruses (lytic and lysogenic) differ among viruses and are determined by their unique structures and genomes. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 06.09 Diagram the possible nucleic acid configurations exhibited by viruses. Learning Outcome: 06.12 Diagram the six-step life cycle of animal viruses. Section: 06.05 Topic: Viral Replication 70. Host range is limited by the A. type of nucleic acid in the virus. B. age of the host cell. C. type of host cell receptors on cell membrane. D. size of the host cell. ASM Objective: 02.05 The replication cycles of viruses (lytic and lysogenic) differ among viruses and are determined by their unique structures and genomes. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 06.07 Explain the importance of viral surface proteins, or spikes. Section: 06.05 Topic: Viral Replication 68. Oncogenic viruses include all the following except ______. A. hepatitis B virus B. measles virus C. Papillomavirus D. HTLV-I and HTLV-II viruses 69. Epstein-Barr virus ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 06.14 Provide examples of persistent and transforming infections, describing their effects on the host. Learning Outcome: 06.19 Analyze the relative importance of viruses in human infection and disease. Section: 06.05 Topic: Viral Replication H. Which of the following is/are type(s) of cytopathic effects? Inclusions in the nucleus Multinucleated giant cells Inclusions in the cytoplasm D. Rounding of cells 70. All of the choices are correct. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 06.13 Define the term cytopathic effect and provide one example. Section: 06.05 Topic: Viral Replication 72. The envelope of enveloped viruses A. is identical to the host plasma membrane. B. is only composed of host endomembrane. C. does not contain spikes. D. is obtained by viral budding or exocytosis. E. makes the virus very susceptible to drug therapy. ASM Objective: 02.05 The replication cycles of viruses (lytic and lysogenic) differ among viruses and are determined by their unique structures and genomes. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 06.06 Distinguish between enveloped and naked viruses. Section: 06.03 Topic: Viral Classification 73. Viruses attach to their hosts via ______. A. host glycoproteins B. host phospholipids C. viral phospholipids D. viral flagella E. carbohydrate attachments of the viral capsid ASM Objective: 02.05 The replication cycles of viruses (lytic and lysogenic) differ among viruses and are determined by their unique structures and genomes. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 06.07 Explain the importance of viral surface proteins, or spikes. Section: 06.03 Topic: Viral Structure 74. Viral tissue specificities are called ______. ranges virions receptacles tropisms uncoating ASM Objective: 05.01 Microorganisms are ubiquitous and live in diverse and dynamic ecosystems. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 06.07 Explain the importance of viral surface proteins, or spikes. Section: 06.03 Topic: Viral Structure E. The process of dissolving the envelope and capsid to release the viral nucleic acid is ______. adsorption penetration uncoating synthesis assembly ASM Objective: 02.05 The replication cycles of viruses (lytic and lysogenic) differ among viruses and are determined by their unique structures and genomes. ASM Objective: 04.04 The synthesis of viral genetic material and proteins is dependent on host cells. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 06.12 Diagram the six-step life cycle of animal viruses. Section: 06.05 Topic: Viral Replication H. Which of the following occurs during assembly? The nucleocapsid is formed. New viral nucleic acid is formed. Viral spikes insert in host cell membrane. The nucleocapsid is formed and viral spikes insert in host cell membrane. E. The viral envelope and the host cell membrane fuse. ASM Objective: 04.04 The synthesis of viral genetic material and proteins is dependent on host cells. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 06.12 Diagram the six-step life cycle of animal viruses. Section: 06.05 Topic: Viral Replication 75. Mammalian viruses capable of starting tumors are ______. A. chronic latent viruses B. oncoviruses C. syncytia D. inclusion bodies ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 06.14 Provide examples of persistent and transforming infections, describing their effects on the host. Section: 06.05 Topic: Viral Replication 76. Persistent viruses that can reactivate periodically are ______. A. chronic latent viruses B. oncoviruses C. syncytia D. inclusion bodies E. cytopathic ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 06.14 Provide examples of persistent and transforming infections, describing their effects on the host. Section: 06.03 Topic: Viral Replication 80. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a transformed cell? Viral nucleic acid integrated into host DNA Decreased growth rate Alterations in chromosomes Changes in cell surface molecules Capacity to divide indefinitely ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 06.14 Provide examples of persistent and transforming infections, describing their effects on the host. Section: 06.05 Topic: Viral Replication 78. New, nonenveloped virus release occurs by ______. lysis budding exocytosis both lysis and budding both budding and exocytosis ASM Objective: 02.05 The replication cycles of viruses (lytic and lysogenic) differ among viruses and are determined by their unique structures and genomes. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 06.06 Distinguish between enveloped and naked viruses. Learning Outcome: 06.12 Diagram the six-step life cycle of animal viruses. Section: 06.05 Topic: Viral Replication G. What structures are used by bacteriophages to attach to host cell receptors? A. Viral sheaths 40. Tail fibers C. Nucleic acids D. Capsid heads ASM Objective: 02.05 The replication cycles of viruses (lytic and lysogenic) differ among viruses and are determined by their unique structures and genomes. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 06.07 Explain the importance of viral surface proteins, or spikes. Section: 06.05 Topic: Viral Replication 41. Which of the following is incorrect about prophages? A. Present when the virus is in lysogeny B. Formed when viral DNA enters chromosome C. Replicated with host DNA and passed on to progeny D. Cause lysis of host cells E. Occur when temperate phages enter host cells ASM Objective: 02.05 The replication cycles of viruses (lytic and lysogenic) differ among viruses and are determined by their unique structures and genomes. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 06.15 Provide a thorough description of lysogenic and lytic bacteriophage infections. Section: 06.05 Topic: Bacteriophage Cycles 42. T-even phages ______. A. include the poxviruses B. infect Escherichia coli cells C. enter host cells by engulfment D. have helical capsids ASM Objective: 02.05 The replication cycles of viruses (lytic and lysogenic) differ among viruses and are determined by their unique structures and genomes. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 06.15 Provide a thorough description of lysogenic and lytic bacteriophage infections. Section: 06.05 Topic: Bacteriophage Cycles 43. The event that occurs in bacteriophage multiplication that does not occur in animal virus replication is A. adsorption to the host cells. B. injection of only the viral nucleic acid into the host cell. C. host cell synthesis of viral enzymes and capsid proteins. D. assembly of nucleocapsids. E. replication of viral nucleic acid. ASM Objective: 02.05 The replication cycles of viruses (lytic and lysogenic) differ among viruses and are determined by their unique structures and genomes. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 06.12 Diagram the six-step life cycle of animal viruses. Learning Outcome: 06.15 Provide a thorough description of lysogenic and lytic bacteriophage infections. Section: 06.05 Topic: Viral Replication 47. Viruses that cause infection resulting in alternating periods of activity with symptoms and inactivity without symptoms are called ______. latent oncogenic prions viroids delta agents ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 06.14 Provide examples of persistent and transforming infections, describing their effects on the host. Learning Outcome: 06.19 Analyze the relative importance of viruses in human infection and disease. Section: 06.05 Topic: Viral Replication 45. Uncoating of viral nucleic acid A. does not occur in bacteriophage multiplication. B. involves enzymatic destruction of the capsid. C. occurs during penetration in the multiplication cycle. D. occurs before replication. E. All of the choices are correct. ASM Objective: 02.05 The replication cycles of viruses (lytic and lysogenic) differ among viruses and are determined by their unique structures and genomes. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 06.12 Diagram the six-step life cycle of animal viruses. Learning Outcome: 06.15 Provide a thorough description of lysogenic and lytic bacteriophage infections. Section: 06.05 Topic: Viral Replication 49. In transduction, the viral genome A. initiates lysis of the host. B. includes DNA from the previous host. C. is replicated in the cytoplasm. D. is replicated in the nucleus. ASM Objective: 04.04 The synthesis of viral genetic material and proteins is dependent on host cells. ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 06.15 Provide a thorough description of lysogenic and lytic bacteriophage infections. Section: 06.05 Topic: Bacteriophage Cycles 47. Lysogeny refers to A. altering the host range of a virus. B. the latent state of herpes infections. C. virions exiting host cell. D. the viral genome inserting into bacterial host chromosome. ASM Objective: 02.05 The replication cycles of viruses (lytic and lysogenic) differ among viruses and are determined by their unique structures and genomes. ASM Objective: 04.04 The synthesis of viral genetic material and proteins is dependent on host cells. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 06.15 Provide a thorough description of lysogenic and lytic bacteriophage infections. Section: 06.05 Topic: Bacteriophage Cycles G. Viruses that infect bacteria are specifically called ______. viroids prions bacteriophages satellite viruses ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 06.15 Provide a thorough description of lysogenic and lytic bacteriophage infections. Section: 06.05 Topic: Bacteriophage Cycles J. During lysogeny, an inactive prophage state occurs when the viral DNA is inserted into the host ______. cytoplasm nucleus nucleolus DNA cell membrane ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 06.15 Provide a thorough description of lysogenic and lytic bacteriophage infections. Section: 06.05 Topic: Bacteriophage Cycles 50. What type of phage enters an inactive prophage stage? Primary Secondary Temperate Temporary Transformed ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 06.15 Provide a thorough description of lysogenic and lytic bacteriophage infections. Section: 06.05 Topic: Bacteriophage Cycles 51. The activation of a prophage is called ______. A. activation B. lysogeny C. transformation D. induction E. adsorption ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 06.15 Provide a thorough description of lysogenic and lytic bacteriophage infections. Section: 06.05 Topic: Bacteriophage Cycles 52. When a bacterium acquires a trait from its temperate phage, it is called ______. A. transformation B. lysogenic conversion C. viral persistence D. transcription E. translation ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 06.15 Provide a thorough description of lysogenic and lytic bacteriophage infections. Section: 06.05 Topic: Bacteriophage Cycles 57. Which of the following will not support viral cultivation? A. Live lab animals B. Embryonated bird eggs C. Primary cell cultures D. Continuous cell cultures E. All of the choices will support viral cultivation. ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 06.17 Describe three ways in which viruses are cultivated. Section: 06.06 Topic: Viral Replication F. Visible, clear, well-defined patches in a monolayer of virus-infected cells in a culture are called ______. patches buds plaques cytopathic effects pocks ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 06.17 Describe three ways in which viruses are cultivated. Section: 06.06 Topic: Viral Replication 55. Viral growth in bird embryos can cause discrete, opaque spots in the embryonic membranes called ______. A. patches B. buds C. plaques D. cytopathic effects E. pocks ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 06.17 Describe three ways in which viruses are cultivated. Section: 06.06 Topic: Viral Replication 56. Cells grown in culture form a/an ______. A. monolayer B. bilayer C. aggregate D. plaque ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 06.17 Describe three ways in which viruses are cultivated. Section: 06.06 Topic: Viral Replication 53. Diagnosis of viral infections sometimes involves analyzing the patient's blood for specific _____ that the immune system produces against the virus. 57.glycoproteins 58.antibodies 59. complement proteins 60.antigens ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 06.19 Analyze the relative importance of viruses in human infection and disease. Section: 06.06 Topic: Viral Replication G. Freshly isolated animal tissue that is placed in a growth medium and allowed to produce a cell monolayer is referred to as a/n _____ cell culture. initial primary secondary continuous positive ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 06.17 Describe three ways in which viruses are cultivated. Section: 06.06 Topic: Viral Replication 59. A common method for cultivating viruses in the lab is to use in vitro systems called _____ cultures. A. embryo B. cell C. plaque D. bacteriophage E. egg ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 06.17 Describe three ways in which viruses are cultivated. Section: 06.06 Topic: Viral Replication 60. Infectious protein particles are called ______. A. viroids B. phages C. prions D. oncogenic viruses E. spikes ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 06.18 List three noncellular infectious agents besides viruses. Section: 06.07 Topic: Prions 61. Infectious naked strands of RNA that affect plants are called ______. A. viroids B. phages C. prions D. oncogenic viruses E. spikes ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 06.18 List three noncellular infectious agents besides viruses. Section: 06.07 Topic: General Viral Properties 58. Creutzfeldt-Jacob disease is 63. caused by a chronic latent virus. 64. initiated by an oncogenic virus. 65. caused by a viroid. 66.a spongiform encephalopathy of humans. 67.also called "mad cow disease." ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 06.18 List three noncellular infectious agents besides viruses. Learning Outcome: 06.19 Analyze the relative importance of viruses in human infection and disease. Section: 06.07 Topic: Prions G. Satellite viruses are also called viroids. dependent on other viruses for replication. the cause of spongiform encephalopathies. significant pathogens of plants. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 06.18 List three noncellular infectious agents besides viruses. Section: 06.07 Topic: General Viral Properties 60. Two noncellular agents, smaller than viruses, are infectious proteins called _____ and infectious RNA strands called _____. 63.prions; capsomeres 64. virions; prions 65. viroids; phages 66.prions; phages 67.prions; viroids ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 06.18 List three noncellular infectious agents besides viruses. Section: 06.07 Topic: Prions 61. Who developed a rabies vaccine after realizing the disease was caused by something smaller than a bacterium? 64.Leeuwenhoek 65. Koch 66. Pasteur 67. Cohn 68. Ivanovski ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 06.04 Discuss the size of viruses relative to other microorganisms. Learning Outcome: 06.19 Analyze the relative importance of viruses in human infection and disease. Section: 06.01 Topic: General Viral Properties 65. The primary purpose(s) of viral cultivation is/are to isolate and identify viruses in clinical specimens. prepare viruses for vaccines. do detailed research on viral structure, lifestyle, genetics, and effects on host cells. perform wide-scale harvesting of viruses. All of the choices are correct. ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Learning Outcome: 06.16 List the three principal purposes for cultivating viruses. Section: 06.06 Topic: Viral Replication True / False Questions 66. When a virus enters a host cell, the viral genes redirect the genetic and metabolic activities of the host cell. TRUE ASM Objective: 04.04 The synthesis of viral genetic material and proteins is dependent on host cells. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 06.02 Summarize arguments on both sides of the debate regarding the classification of viruses as living organisms. Learning Outcome: 06.03 Identify effective terms to describe the behavior of viruses. Section: 06.05 Topic: Viral Replication 67. Viruses are used to produce vaccines for prevention of certain viral infections. TRUE ASM Objective: 06.03 Humans utilize and harness microorganisms and their products. ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 06.16 List the three principal purposes for cultivating viruses. Learning Outcome: 06.19 Analyze the relative importance of viruses in human infection and disease. Section: 06.08 Topic: General Viral Properties 65. Viruses are considered ultramicroscopic because they range in size from 2 mm to 450 mm. FALSE ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 06.04 Discuss the size of viruses relative to other microorganisms. Section: 06.03 Topic: General Viral Properties 69. A fully formed virus that can cause an infection in a host cell is called a virion. TRUE ASM Objective: 02.05 The replication cycles of viruses (lytic and lysogenic) differ among viruses and are determined by their unique structures and genomes. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 06.03 Identify effective terms to describe the behavior of viruses. Section: 06.03 Topic: General Viral Properties 69. Spikes are glycoproteins that can be found projecting from the viral capsid. TRUE ASM Objective: 02.05 The replication cycles of viruses (lytic and lysogenic) differ among viruses and are determined by their unique structures and genomes. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 06.07 Explain the importance of viral surface proteins, or spikes. Section: 06.03 Topic: Viral Structure 68. Each virus is classified into a genus based on its host, target tissue, and type of disease it causes. FALSE ASM Objective: 05.01 Microorganisms are ubiquitous and live in diverse and dynamic ecosystems. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 06.11 Demonstrate how family and genus names in viruses are written. Section: 06.06 Topic: Viral Classification 70. Animal viruses have the ability to attach to and enter almost any animal host cell. FALSE ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 06.12 Diagram the six-step life cycle of animal viruses. Section: 06.05 Topic: Viral Replication 71. Viral spikes are inserted into the host cell membrane before budding or exocytosis. TRUE ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 06.07 Explain the importance of viral surface proteins, or spikes. Learning Outcome: 06.12 Diagram the six-step life cycle of animal viruses. Section: 06.03 Topic: Viral Structure 72. Prophages can be activated into viral replication and enter the lytic cycle. TRUE ASM Objective: 02.05 The replication cycles of viruses (lytic and lysogenic) differ among viruses and are determined by their unique structures and genomes. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 06.15 Provide a thorough description of lysogenic and lytic bacteriophage infections. Section: 06.05 Topic: Bacteriophage Cycles 73. Bacteriophages do not undergo adsorption to specific host cell receptors prior to penetration. FALSE ASM Objective: 02.05 The replication cycles of viruses (lytic and lysogenic) differ among viruses and are determined by their unique structures and genomes. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 06.15 Provide a thorough description of lysogenic and lytic bacteriophage infections. Section: 06.05 Topic: Bacteriophage Cycles 74. Viruses are the most common cause of acute infections that do not result in hospitalization. TRUE ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 06.19 Analyze the relative importance of viruses in human infection and disease. Section: 06.08 Topic: General Viral Properties 75. The adeno-associated virus (AAV) and the delta agent are prions. FALSE ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 06.18 List three noncellular infectious agents besides viruses. Section: 06.08 Topic: Prions 76. Viruses are simple, noncellular, and lack mRNA. TRUE ASM Objective: 02.05 The replication cycles of viruses (lytic and lysogenic) differ among viruses and are determined by their unique structures and genomes. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 06.02 Summarize arguments on both sides of the debate regarding the classification of viruses as living organisms. Learning Outcome: 06.03 Identify effective terms to describe the behavior of viruses. Section: 06.02 Topic: General Viral Properties 77. Viruses mutate, and some viruses have not been discovered. TRUE ASM Objective: 04.01 Genetic variations can impact microbial functions (e.g., in biofilm formation, pathogenicity and drug resistance). ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 06.16 List the three principal purposes for cultivating viruses. Learning Outcome: 06.19 Analyze the relative importance of viruses in human infection and disease. Section: 06.08 Topic: General Viral Properties 78. Viruses are not filterable. FALSE ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron). ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 06.01 Describe the significance of viruses being recognized as "filterable." Section: 06.01 Topic: General Viral Properties 79. Viruses are unable to multiply outside of a host cell. TRUE ASM Objective: 04.04 The synthesis of viral genetic material and proteins is dependent on host cells. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 06.02 Summarize arguments on both sides of the debate regarding the classification of viruses as living organisms. Learning Outcome: 06.03 Identify effective terms to describe the behavior of viruses. Section: 06.02 Topic: General Viral Properties Multiple Choice Questions 79. A treatment for bacterial infections from the early 20th century has made a comeback; the use of bacterial viruses to eliminate bacterial infections. Which explanation most accurately describes the mechanism of action behind this treatment? A. A wide variety of bacteria cause a large percentage of human infections, producing much sickness and death. B. Viruses can infect bacteria, transferring pathogenic genes. The viral genes can then be suppressed, causing the bacteria to not replicate viruses. C. The attachment structures on the virus and the receptors on the host cells make for exquisite specificity of viruses for particular bacterial species. D. Antibiotic resistance in humans is on the increase, so using a different kind of therapy is more beneficial. ASM Objective: 02.05 The replication cycles of viruses (lytic and lysogenic) differ among viruses and are determined by their unique structures and genomes. ASM Objective: 06.03 Humans utilize and harness microorganisms and their products. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 06.15 Provide a thorough description of lysogenic and lytic bacteriophage infections. Learning Outcome: 06.19 Analyze the relative importance of viruses in human infection and disease. Section: 06.08 Topic: Bacteriophage Cycles 80. Some animals can become infected with multiple influenza virus strains usually associated with other animals. Which statement below describes the result of these infections? A. A new novel strain of flu may be produced, for which the human population has no immunity. B. Major genetic variations in the flu viruses can be reproduced. C. The viral genomes within the host cells can become recombined. D. All of the choices are correct. ASM Objective: 04.01 Genetic variations can impact microbial functions (e.g., in biofilm formation, pathogenicity and drug resistance). ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 06.19 Analyze the relative importance of viruses in human infection and disease. Section: 06.08 Topic: Viral Replication 81. How are viroids transmitted? A. Respiratory secretions B. Sex C. Plant seeds D. Blood products 82. Tamiflu is a common medication given for influenza treatment. It works by protecting and blocking sialic acid molecules on the surfaces of host cells and influenza virus envelopes as they leave the cell. Which statement reflects the mechanism of Tamiflu's action? A. Tamiflu blocks protein synthesis of the viral genome. B. Tamiflu interferes with the replication of +ssRNA from the -ssRNA genome of the flu virus. C. Tamiflu interferes with the release of the budding viruses from the infected host cells. D. Tamiflu interferes with the metabolic properties of the virus. Topic: Viral Replication 83. Successful anti-HIV drug therapies today work by blocking the action of viral reverse transcriptase. Select which step of virus multiplication that would be directly blocked by this mechanism. A. Adsorption B. Penetration C. Synthesis D. Assembly E. Release Viral Properties 84. You are working in a laboratory that is studying a newly isolated virus. Your job is to culture the virus using in vitro methods. Upon observing your inoculated tissue culture specimen one day, you notice clumps of cells growing on top of the original monolayer of cells. Microscopic analysis of stained cells from the culture reveal an alteration in host cell membrane protein content and chromosomal structure. Based upon this information, you hypothesize that the virus you are studying is ______. A. a bacteriophage B. a prion C. a viroid D. an oncovirus E. a satellite virus 85. Select the statement that most accurately describes the action of antimicrobial drugs today. A. Antiviral drug treatment is more effective than vaccination against a viral disease. B. Effective antiviral drugs have a long history of development and use. C. Antiviral drugs often result in toxic side effects due to their inhibition of host cell activity. D. The development of antiviral drug resistance has not been observed, as compared to the high rate of antibiotic resistance seen today. 80. Sterilizing filters have a pore size of 0.22 m. Which of the following statements is true? A.Bacterial cells are typically between 1,000-10,000 nm and pass through the filter, whereas most viruses are between 20 and 200 nm and are therefore blocked. B.Bacterial cells are typically between 1-10 m and pass through the filter, whereas most viruses are between 20 and 200 nm and are therefore blocked. C. Bacterial cells are typically between 1-10 m and are blocked by the filter, whereas most viruses are between 20 and 200 nm and therefore pass through. D.Bacterial cells are typically between 1-10 nm and are blocked by the filter, whereas most viruses are between 20 and 200 m and therefore pass through. 87. Compared to bacteria that have a typical size range between 1-10 m, 81. viruses range in size between 20-200 nm and are much larger than bacterial cells. 82. viruses have a much greater size range; between 22 nm and 1000 nm. 83.all viruses are 22 nm. 84. viruses are larger and are blocked by sterilizing filters. Topic: General Viral Properties 82. In order to synthesize proteins, a virus with a genome comprised of single-stranded negative-sense RNA A. can directly translate its negative-sense RNA strand into proteins. B. must use reverse transcriptase to make a negative-sense DNA strand first. C. must use DNA polymerase to make a positive-sense DNA strand first. D. must use its negative-sense strand as a template to make a positive-sense RNA. Topic: Viral Replication 83. In order to replicate within a host cell, a virus with a genome comprised of single-stranded positive-sense RNA must use its genomic strand as a template to make copies of negative-sense RNA for packaging. must use its genomic strand as a template to make copies of positive-sense RNA for packaging. C.must first use its genomic strand as a template to make a negative-sense RNA, which then serves as a template to synthesize positive-sense RNA for packaging. 86. must first use its genomic strand as a template to make copies of DNA for packaging. True / False Questions F. Viral nomenclature uses the same system as living organisms; a genus and specific epithet is designated for each virus. FALSE Topic: Viral Classification Multiple Choice Questions 86. Viral classification has changed over the years and while they are given genus names, the use of species names has not been widely accepted. This is because A. viruses are not organisms. B. viruses change over time making species characteristics difficult to stabilize. C. viruses that could be classified into a single species may have many, but not all, properties in common. D. All of the above are arguments against using species designations for viruses. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 06.10 Develop two arguments against assigning species names to viruses. Section: 06.04 Topic: Viral Classification True / False Questions 87. Using species names for viruses is controversial since viruses are not considered living organisms, and they change over time so characteristics that may be used for speciation are unstable. TRUE ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 06.10 Develop two arguments against assigning species names to viruses. Section: 06.04 Topic: Viral Classification Multiple Choice Questions G. Antiviral drugs are often difficult to develop, largely because viruses are obligate intracellular parasites so the drugs must enter the host cell and often cause toxic side effects in order to destroy the virus. viruses are more abundant in the body than bacterial cells. viruses are much smaller than bacterial cells. viruses are more pathogenic than bacterial cells. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 06.20 Discuss the primary reason that antiviral drugs are more difficult to design than antibacterial drugs. Section: 06.08 Topic: Viral Replication 88. A treatment for bacterial infections from the early 20th century has made a comeback; the use of bacterial viruses to eliminate bacterial infections. Which explanation most accurately describes the reason for the return of this treatment? A wide variety of bacteria cause a large percentage of human infections, producing much sickness and death. Viruses can infect bacteria, transferring pathogenic genes; the viral genes can then be suppressed, causing the bacteria to not replicate viruses. The attachment structures on the virus and the receptors on the host cells make for exquisite specificity of viruses for particular bacterial species. D. Antibiotic resistance in bacteria is on the increase, so using a different kind of therapy offers an alternative to traditional drugs. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 06.19 Analyze the relative importance of viruses in human infection and disease. Learning Outcome: 06.20 Discuss the primary reason that antiviral drugs are more difficult to design than antibacterial drugs. Section: 06.08 Topic: General Viral Properties 89. Which of the following is a true statement regarding lysogeny? A. Once the phage genome is integrated into the host cell, it remains there permanently. B. The host bacterial cell acquires new characteristics that are often detrimental to humans. C. It halts the viral life cycle because the phage genes are no longer replicated. The host bacterial cell is lysed once the phage genome is integrated. 92. Why do some animal viruses have an external envelope, while bacteriophages never do? A. Some animal viruses bud out, taking part of the plasma membrane with them, whereas phages always lyse the host bacterial cell when they exit. B. When bacteriophages bud out, the plasma membrane is beneath the cell wall and therefore cannot be removed. C. When animal cells are lysed, part of the plasma membrane attaches to the virus; in bacterial cells, it is covered by the cell wall. D. When phages bud out of the host bacterial cell, they take with them part of the cell wall which forms the capsid, not an envelope. CH-07: Test Bank Key Multiple Choice Questions 29. Many lakes in the United States are suffering from periodic algae blooms, which can be thought of as an infection of the lake. Although the algae are naturally-occurring in the lake, when adjacent farm fields are overfertilized with diammonium phosphate, the run-off deposits these nutrients in the lake, allowing the algae to grow without limit. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding the overgrowth of algae? A. Lakes have sufficient micronutrients for algae to grow. B. The algae are heterotrophs. C. The nitrogen in the fertilizer is in the ammonium form, the preferred nitrogen source of most microbes. D. The phosphorus in the fertilizer is in the phosphate form, the preferred phosphorus source of most microbes. E. The carbon source for these algae is not limiting in lakes. ASM Objective: 03.01 Bacteria and Archaea exhibit extensive, and often unique, metabolic diversity (e.g., nitrogen fixation, methane production, anoxygenic photosynthesis). ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 07.01 List the essential nutrients of a bacterial cell. Learning Outcome: 07.02 Differentiate between macronutrients and micronutrients. Learning Outcome: 07.03 List and define four different terms that describe an organism's sources of carbon and energy. Section: 07.01 30. Following the Deepwater Horizon accident in the Gulf of Mexico in 2010, bioremediation was used to eliminate much of the oil from the contaminated water. To encourage the growth of oil-degrading microbes, "fertilizer" including iron and nitrogen was added to the water. Which of the following statements regarding the growth of these microbes is incorrect? A. The concentration of sulfate in the Gulf of Mexico is sufficient for the growth of oil-degrading microbes. B. Large amounts of iron were needed, as iron is a macronutrient for oil-degrading microbes. C. Nitrogen gas (N2) present in air is not in a form that can be used by oil-degrading microbes. D. The oil-degrading microbes used oil (hydrocarbons) as their carbon source. ASM Objective: 03.01 Bacteria and Archaea exhibit extensive, and often unique, metabolic diversity (e.g., nitrogen fixation, methane production, anoxygenic photosynthesis). ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 07.01 List the essential nutrients of a bacterial cell. Learning Outcome: 07.02 Differentiate between macronutrients and micronutrients. Section: 07.01 Topic: Microbial Ecology Topic: Microbial Growth Topic: Microbial Nutrition 31. Most of the dry weight of a microbial cell is from ______. A. water B. minerals C. inorganic compounds D. organic compounds E. salts ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 07.01 List the essential nutrients of a bacterial cell. Section: 07.01 Topic: Microbial Nutrition 32. Which compound has the highest concentration in a cell? NH3 CO2 H2O CH4 Glucose ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 07.01 List the essential nutrients of a bacterial cell. Section: 07.01 Topic: Cellular Transport 33. Which of the following is not a major element of a microbial cell? A. Oxygen B. Carbon C. Copper D. Hydrogen E. Nitrogen ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 07.01 List the essential nutrients of a bacterial cell. Section: 07.01 Topic: Microbial Nutrition 34. An organic nutrient that cannot be synthesized by the organism and must be provided is called a(n) ______. A. element B. trace element C. growth factor D. macronutrient E. compound ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 07.01 List the essential nutrients of a bacterial cell. Section: 07.01 Topic: Microbial Nutrition 35. Calcium is required for bacteria because it A. stabilizes the ribosomes. B. stabilizes the cell wall. C. maintains cellular pH. D. makes strong cell walls. E. stabilizes the nucleoid. ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 07.01 List the essential nutrients of a bacterial cell. Section: 07.01 Topic: Microbial Nutrition 37. Growth factors A. are inorganic. B. are synthesized by the organism. C. contain elemental oxygen. D. cannot be synthesized by the organism. E. All of the choices are correct. ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 07.01 List the essential nutrients of a bacterial cell. Section: 07.01 Topic: Microbial Nutrition True / False Questions F. Inorganic nitrogen must be converted to ammonia to be used by a cell. TRUE ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 07.01 List the essential nutrients of a bacterial cell. Section: 07.01 Topic: Microbial Nutrition Multiple Choice Questions 10. Microorganisms require large quantities of ______ for use in cell structure and metabolism. 38. water B. growth factors C. macronutrients D. trace elements E. electrolytes ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 07.02 Differentiate between macronutrients and micronutrients. Section: 07.01 Topic: Microbial Nutrition 11. Microorganisms require small quantities of ______ for enzyme function and maintenance of protein structure. A. macronutrients B. growth factors C. electrolytes D. trace elements 44. water ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 07.02 Differentiate between macronutrients and micronutrients. Section: 07.01 Topic: Microbial Nutrition 40. An important mineral ion found in the cytochrome pigments of cellular respiration is ______. A. zinc B. magnesium C. calcium D. iron E. potassium ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 07.02 Differentiate between macronutrients and micronutrients. Section: 07.01 Topic: Microbial Nutrition 13. An important mineral ion that is a component of chlorophyll and serves as a stabilizer of membranes and ribosomes is ______. 44. zinc 45. iron 46. calcium 47. magnesium 48.potassium ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 07.02 Differentiate between macronutrients and micronutrients. Section: 07.01 Topic: Microbial Nutrition True / False Questions 49. Phosphorus is one of the major elements needed in larger quantities by microorganisms. TRUE ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 07.02 Differentiate between macronutrients and micronutrients. Section: 07.01 Topic: Microbial Nutrition Multiple Choice Questions 52. An organism that uses CO2 for its carbon needs and sunlight for its energy needs would be called a ______. A. chemoheterotroph B. halotroph C. saprobe D. photoautotroph E. heterotroph ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 07.03 List and define four different terms that describe an organism's sources of carbon and energy. Section: 07.01 Topic: Microbial Nutrition 48. The methanogens, producers of methane gas, require environments that A. have abundant oxygen and CO2. B. are directly exposed to sunlight. C. are extremely cold. D. are very acidic. E. are anaerobic with hydrogen gas and CO2. ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Objective: 05.01 Microorganisms are ubiquitous and live in diverse and dynamic ecosystems. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 07.03 List and define four different terms that describe an organism's sources of carbon and energy. Section: 07.01 Topic: Microbial Nutrition True / False Questions 53. Whether an organism is an autotroph or heterotroph depends on its source of nitrogen. FALSE ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 07.03 List and define four different terms that describe an organism's sources of carbon and energy. Section: 07.01 Topic: Microbial Nutrition 52. Whether an organism is a phototroph or a chemotroph depends on its source of energy. TRUE ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 07.03 List and define four different terms that describe an organism's sources of carbon and energy. Section: 07.01 Topic: Microbial Nutrition 51. Lithoautotrophs use inorganic nutrients for carbon and energy sources. TRUE ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 07.03 List and define four different terms that describe an organism's sources of carbon and energy. Section: 07.01 Topic: Microbial Nutrition Multiple Choice Questions 20. This microbe is photosynthetic, but in the absence of light it can use organic compounds as an energy source. Its carbon source is an organic compound. The appropriate classification for this organism would be ______. A. chemoautotroph B. lithotroph C. photoautotroph D. photoheterotroph ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 07.03 List and define four different terms that describe an organism's sources of carbon and energy. Section: 07.01 Topic: Microbial Nutrition 52. A saprobe differs from a parasite in that A. a saprobe is a fungus, but a parasite can be any type of microbe. B. a saprobe cannot infect a human, but a parasite is always infectious. C. a saprobe derive nutrients from dead plants and animals, but a parasite derives nutrients from living plants and animals. D. a saprobe does not harm a host that it lives on, whereas a parasite does harm a host. ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 07.04 Define saprobe and parasite, and provide microbial examples of each. Section: 07.01 Topic: Microbial Ecology H. Organisms that feed on dead organisms for nutrients are called ______. lithoautotrophs parasites autotrophs saprobes phototrophs ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 07.04 Define saprobe and parasite, and provide microbial examples of each. Section: 07.01 Topic: Microbial Ecology Topic: Microbial Nutrition True / False Questions 54. Obligate saprobes can adapt to a living host. FALSE ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 07.04 Define saprobe and parasite, and provide microbial examples of each. Section: 07.01 Topic: Microbial Nutrition 55. A saprobe with a cell wall will utilize extracellular digestion. TRUE ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 07.04 Define saprobe and parasite, and provide microbial examples of each. Section: 07.01 Topic: Microbial Nutrition 61. Saprobes do not need a carbon source for growth and metabolism. FALSE ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 07.04 Define saprobe and parasite, and provide microbial examples of each. Section: 07.01 Topic: Microbial Nutrition Multiple Choice Questions K. Contractile vacuoles are used to expel excess water from cells. found in bacterial cells. important to certain organisms in hypertonic environments. protein carriers in cell membranes. used to bring solutes into a cell. ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same processes as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 07.05 Compare and contrast the processes of diffusion and osmosis. Learning Outcome: 07.06 Identify the effects of isotonic, hypotonic, and hypertonic conditions on a cell. Section: 07.01 Topic: Cellular Transport 57. The movement of molecules from an area of high concentration to an area of lower concentration is called ______. A. osmosis B. facilitated diffusion C. endocytosis D. active transport E. diffusion ASM Objective: 06.02 Microorganisms provide essential models that give us fundamental knowledge about life processes. ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 07.05 Compare and contrast the processes of diffusion and osmosis. Learning Outcome: 07.07 Name two types of passive transport and three types of active transport. Section: 07.01 Topic: Cellular Transport 58. Diffusion of water through a semipermeable membrane is called ______. A. diffusion B. osmosis C. endocytosis D. active transport E. facilitated diffusion ASM Objective: 06.02 Microorganisms provide essential models that give us fundamental knowledge about life processes. ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 07.05 Compare and contrast the processes of diffusion and osmosis. Learning Outcome: 07.07 Name two types of passive transport and three types of active transport. Section: 07.01 Topic: Cellular Transport 59. Bacteria living in a freshwater stream that are transferred to ocean water would A. be in an isotonic solution. B. gain water. C. be in a hypotonic solution. D. become dehydrated due to the loss of water. ASM Objective: 06.02 Microorganisms provide essential models that give us fundamental knowledge about life processes. ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 07.06 Identify the effects of isotonic, hypotonic, and hypertonic conditions on a cell. Section: 07.01 Topic: Cellular Transport 61. Which of the following microorganisms would find hypotonic conditions most damaging? A. Bacteria B. Protozoa C. Algae D. Cyanobacteria E. Fungi ASM Objective: 06.02 Microorganisms provide essential models that give us fundamental knowledge about life processes. ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Blooms Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 07.06 Identify the effects of isotonic, hypotonic, and hypertonic conditions on a cell. Section: 07.01 Topic: Cellular Transport 60. The cell wall will help prevent the cell from bursting in ______ conditions. A. hypotonic B. mesotonic C. hypertonic D. isotonic ASM Objective: 06.02 Microorganisms provide essential models that give us fundamental knowledge about life processes. ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 07.06 Identify the effects of isotonic, hypotonic, and hypertonic conditions on a cell. Section: 07.01 Topic: Cellular Transport 32. You want to experiment with microbial growth in various nutrients, so you inoculate a loopful of E. coli into a tube of honey. Which statement best describes what you expect to happen and why? A. E. coli does not grow because it has been dehydrated by the honey. B. E. coli will not grow because the excessive sugar is toxic. C. E. coli grows well in the honey because fructose is a good carbon source. D. E. coli do not grow because there is only sugar in the honey and no other nutrients. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 07.06 Identify the effects of isotonic, hypotonic, and hypertonic conditions on a cell. Section: 07.02 Topic: Microbial Growth 33. Which organism has a challenge to maintain cellular electrolyte and fluid balance in its environment? A. A protozoan in a fresh water lake B. A bacterium in a fresh-water lake C. A bacterium in Great Salt Lake D. All of the above have problems in maintaining electrolyte and fluid balance within the cell. ASM Objective: 05.01 Microorganisms are ubiquitous and live in diverse and dynamic ecosystems. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 07.06 Identify the effects of isotonic, hypotonic, and hypertonic conditions on a cell. Section: 07.01 Topic: Environmental Influences Topic: Microbial Ecology 64. The movement of substances from lower to higher concentration across a semipermeable membrane via a specific protein carrier and cell expenditure of energy is called ______. A. osmosis B. diffusion C. active transport D. endocytosis E. facilitated diffusion ASM Objective: 06.02 Microorganisms provide essential models that give us fundamental knowledge about life processes. ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 07.07 Name two types of passive transport and three types of active transport. Section: 07.01 Topic: Cellular Transport 63. The movement of substances from higher to lower concentration across a semipermeable membrane via a specific protein carrier but without energy expenditure is called ______. A. facilitated diffusion B. active transport C. diffusion D. endocytosis E. osmosis ASM Objective: 06.02 Microorganisms provide essential models that give us fundamental knowledge about life processes. ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 07.07 Name two types of passive transport and three types of active transport. Section: 07.01 Topic: Cellular Transport 36. The process by which a cell uses ATP to enclose a substance in its membrane, by forming a vacuole and engulfing it, is called ______. 64.active transport 65. facilitated diffusion 66.endocytosis 67.diffusion 68.osmosis ASM Objective: 06.02 Microorganisms provide essential models that give us fundamental knowledge about life processes. ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 07.07 Name two types of passive transport and three types of active transport. Section: 07.01 Topic: Cellular Transport 66. Which of the following require the cell to use energy? Osmosis Diffusion Facilitated diffusion Endocytosis ASM Objective: 06.02 Microorganisms provide essential models that give us fundamental knowledge about life processes. ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 07.07 Name two types of passive transport and three types of active transport. Section: 07.01 Topic: Cellular Transport 67. Nutrient absorption is mediated by the ______. nuclear membrane proteins in the periplasmic space peptidoglycan layer cell wall cell membrane ASM Objective: 02.03 Bacteria and Archaea have specialized structures (e.g., flagella, endospores, and pili) that often confer critical capabilities. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 07.07 Name two types of passive transport and three types of active transport. Section: 07.01 Topic: Cellular Transport 71. Facilitated diffusion is limited by A. osmotic pressure. B. the size of the pores in the membrane. C. the size of the cell. D. the substrate concentration. E. carrier proteins in the membrane. ASM Objective: 06.02 Microorganisms provide essential models that give us fundamental knowledge about life processes. ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 07.07 Name two types of passive transport and three types of active transport. Section: 07.01 Topic: Cellular Transport 69. When whole cells or large molecules in solution are engulfed by a cell, this endocytosis is specifically termed ______. A. facilitated diffusion B. pinocytosis C. facilitated transport D. phagocytosis E. exocytosis ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 07.07 Name two types of passive transport and three types of active transport. Section: 07.01 Topic: Cellular Transport 70. Mediated transport of polar molecules and ions across the plasma membrane utilizes a(n) _____ carrier that binds to the substance and causes a conformational change to allow its movement across the membrane. A. porin B. lipid C. protein D. enzyme ASM Objective: 06.02 Microorganisms provide essential models that give us fundamental knowledge about life processes. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 07.07 Name two types of passive transport and three types of active transport. Section: 07.01 Topic: Cellular Transport True / False Questions I. Facilitated diffusion and active transport require a carrier protein to mediate the movement across the plasma membrane. TRUE ASM Objective: 06.02 Microorganisms provide essential models that give us fundamental knowledge about life processes. ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 07.07 Name two types of passive transport and three types of active transport. Section: 07.01 Topic: Microbial Nutrition Multiple Choice Questions 43. Cultures of a bacterial strain were incubated in a refrigerator (5°C), on a lab bench (22°C), in a 37°C incubator, and in a 50°C incubator. After incubation, there was no growth at 37°C and 50°C, slight growth in the refrigerator, and abundant growth on the lab bench top. Which term best describes this organism? 71. Halophile B. Psychrotroph 73. Capnophile 74. Mesophile 75. Anaerobe ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 07.08 List and define five terms used to express a microbe's optimal growth temperature. Section: 07.02 Topic: Environmental Influences 74. A microorganism that has an optimum growth temperature of 37°C, but can survive short exposure to high temperatures is called a(n) ______. A. thermophile B. psychrophile C. thermoduric microbe 75.extremophile 76. facultative psychrophile ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 07.08 List and define five terms used to express a microbe's optimal growth temperature. Section: 07.02 Topic: Environmental Influences F. An organism that grows slowly in the cold but has an optimum growth temperature of 32°C is called a(n) ______. thermophile facultative psychrophile psychrophile thermoduric microbe extremophile ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 07.08 List and define five terms used to express a microbe's optimal growth temperature. Section: 07.02 Topic: Environmental Influences I. An organism with a temperature growth range of 45°C to 60°C would be called a(n) ______. psychrophile extremophile facultative psychrophile thermophile thermoduric microbe ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 07.08 List and define five terms used to express a microbe's optimal growth temperature. Section: 07.02 Topic: Environmental Influences 76. Human pathogens fall into the group called ______. A. halophiles B. thermophiles C. acidophiles D. mesophiles E. psychrophiles ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 07.08 List and define five terms used to express a microbe's optimal growth temperature. Section: 07.02 Topic: Environmental Influences 48. Which statement is correct regarding microbial growth on food at refrigeration temperatures? A. The absence of light in the refrigerator greatly reduces the growth of most microbial pathogens. B. Most food does not have enough oxygen content for microorganisms to thrive. C. There is no growth of microbes in food in the refrigerator; the cold temperature kills or inactivates microbial cells. D. The growth of microbes in food depends on their optimal growth temperature; some grow slowly and others faster. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 07.08 List and define five terms used to express a microbe's optimal growth temperature. Section: 07.02 Topic: Environmental Influences 77. All of the following could find a location in or on human body tissues suitable for growth except ______. A. capnophiles B. mesophiles C. anaerobes D. psychrophiles E. facultative anaerobes ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 07.08 List and define five terms used to express a microbe's optimal growth temperature. Section: 07.02 Topic: Environmental Influences 81. The term obligate refers to existing in a very narrow niche. using chemicals for energy production. the ability to exist in a wide range of conditions. using oxygen for metabolism. using light for energy production. ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 07.09 Summarize three ways in which microorganisms function in the presence of oxygen. Section: 07.02 Topic: Environmental Influences 79. The term facultative refers to using oxygen for metabolism. using light for energy production. existing in a very narrow niche. the ability to exist in a wide range of conditions. using chemicals for energy production. ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 07.09 Summarize three ways in which microorganisms function in the presence of oxygen. Section: 07.02 Topic: Environmental Influences 52. Cultures of a bacterial strain were incubated in a standard incubator, in an anaerobic jar, and in a candle jar. After incubation, there was moderate growth of cultures in the candle and anaerobic jars, but heavy growth of the culture in the incubator. This species is a(n) ______. H. facultative anaerobe I. anaerobe J. microaerophile K. obligate aerobe L. capnophile ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 07.09 Summarize three ways in which microorganisms function in the presence of oxygen. Section: 07.02 Topic: Environmental Influences 41. A microorganism that does not have catalase or superoxide dismutase would find it difficult to live in an environment with ______. A. temperatures above 37° C B. high salt C. carbon dioxide D. oxygen E. high acidity ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 07.09 Summarize three ways in which microorganisms function in the presence of oxygen. Section: 07.02 Topic: Environmental Influences 42. A microaerophile A. grows with or without oxygen. B. needs normal atmospheric levels of oxygen. C. requires a small amount of oxygen but won't grow at normal atmospheric levels of oxygen. D. grows best in an anaerobic jar. ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 07.09 Summarize three ways in which microorganisms function in the presence of oxygen. Section: 07.02 Topic: Environmental Influences 43. The toxic superoxide ion is converted to harmless oxygen by two enzymes, A. superoxide dismutase and hydrogen peroxidase. B. superoxide dismutase and oxidase. C. superoxide dismutase and catalase. D. catalase and hydrogen peroxidase. E. catalase and oxidase. ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 07.09 Summarize three ways in which microorganisms function in the presence of oxygen. Section: 07.02 Topic: Environmental Influences 44. An organism that can use gaseous oxygen in metabolism and has the enzymes to process toxic oxygen products is a(n) ______. A. aerobe B. microaerophile C. facultative anaerobe D. obligate anaerobe ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 07.09 Summarize three ways in which microorganisms function in the presence of oxygen. Section: 07.02 Topic: Environmental Influences 48. An organism that can exist in both oxygen and oxygen-free environments is a(n) ______. obligate anaerobe microaerophile facultative anaerobe aerobe obligate aerobe ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 07.09 Summarize three ways in which microorganisms function in the presence of oxygen. Section: 07.02 Topic: Environmental Influences 46. An organism that cannot tolerate an oxygen environment is a(n) ______. A. obligate anaerobe B. obligate aerobe C. facultative anaerobe D. aerobe E. microaerophile ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 07.09 Summarize three ways in which microorganisms function in the presence of oxygen. Section: 07.02 Topic: Environmental Influences 50. An organism that cannot grow without oxygen is a(n) ______. A. aerobe B. obligate aerobe C. facultative anaerobe D. microaerophile E. obligate anaerobe ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 07.09 Summarize three ways in which microorganisms function in the presence of oxygen. Section: 07.02 Topic: Environmental Influences 48. What type of medium is used to demonstrate oxygen requirements of microbes? A. Sodium chloride B. Blood agar C. Sulfite polymyxin sulfadiazine D. Thioglycollate ASM Objective: 08.02 Use pure culture and selective techniques to enrich for and isolate microorganisms. ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 07.09 Summarize three ways in which microorganisms function in the presence of oxygen. Section: 07.02 Topic: Microbial Growth True / False Questions H. Anaerobes can be cultured in a CO2 environment. TRUE ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 07.09 Summarize three ways in which microorganisms function in the presence of oxygen. Section: 07.02 Topic: Environmental Influences Multiple Choice Questions 62. A bacterium is inoculated into a tube of thioglycollate and incubated. After incubation, turbidity appears throughout, top to bottom, with the greatest turbidty at the very top. This bacterium would be called a(n) ______. A. microaerophile B. psychrotroph C. facultative anaerobe D. aerotolerant microbe E. obligate aerobe ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 07.09 Summarize three ways in which microorganisms function in the presence of oxygen. Section: 07.02 Topic: Environmental Influences 63. You have inoculated a Clostridium species into a tube of media. After incubation, you observe that there is no growth, and you remember that Clostridium is an obligate anaerobe. What is the best explanation for the observed lack of growth? A. There is not enough water in the environment for Clostridium to grow. B. There is not enough oxygen for use when toxic oxygen is present. C. Oxygen in the medium destroys the enzymes needed by Clostridium to undergo aerobic respiration. D. Clostridium does not have enzymes to process toxic oxygen. ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 07.09 Summarize three ways in which microorganisms function in the presence of oxygen. Section: 07.02 Topic: Environmental Influences K. Microorganisms that live in severe habitats, such as very hot, acidic, or salty environments, are called ______. halophiles thermophiles psychrophiles barophiles extremophiles ASM Objective: 05.01 Microorganisms are ubiquitous and live in diverse and dynamic ecosystems. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 07.10 Identify three other physical factors that microbes must contend with in the environment. Section: 07.02 Topic: Environmental Influences Topic: Microbial Growth 51. A halophile would grow best in ______. fresh water ponds hot geyser springs arid, desert soil acid pools salt lakes ASM Objective: 05.01 Microorganisms are ubiquitous and live in diverse and dynamic ecosystems. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 07.10 Identify three other physical factors that microbes must contend with in the environment. Section: 07.02 Topic: Environmental Influences 52. A barophile would grow best in ______. A. acid pools B. deep oceans C. arid, desert soil D. hot geyser springs E. salt lakes ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 07.10 Identify three other physical factors that microbes must contend with in the environment. Section: 07.02 Topic: Environmental Influences True / False Questions 53. Most microorganisms can only grow in habitats that are similar to human body conditions. FALSE ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 07.10 Identify three other physical factors that microbes must contend with in the environment. Section: 07.01 Topic: Microbial Nutrition 58. The majority of microbes live and grow in habitats between pH 7 and 9. FALSE ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 07.10 Identify three other physical factors that microbes must contend with in the environment. Section: 07.02 Topic: Environmental Influences Multiple Choice Questions 69. You inoculate a bacterium into three tubes of nutrient broth medium containing added salt: 0.5% NaCl, 5% NaCl, and 15% NaCl. After incubation, you notice significant turbidity in the 15% NaCl medium and modest turbidity in the 5% NaCl medium. There is no growth in the third tube. This organism would be termed ______. A. osmophobic B. halophilic C. haloduric D. barophilic ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 07.10 Identify three other physical factors that microbes must contend with in the environment. Section: 07.02 Topic: Environmental Influences 70. After using jelly on a sandwich, you close the jar and place it on a room temperature shelf instead of in the refrigerator. When you open the jar several weeks later, you notice microbial growth on the surface. What type of organism is likely to grow in this environment? A. Bacteria B. Virus C. Protozoa D. Fungus ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 07.10 Identify three other physical factors that microbes must contend with in the environment. Section: 07.02 Topic: Environmental Influences G. Organisms called _____ live on or in the body of a host and cause some degree of harm. aerobes pathogens commensals mesophiles halophiles ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 07.11 List and describe the five major types of microbial association. Section: 07.02 Topic: Microbial Ecology Topic: Microbial Nutrition 72. E. coli bacteria normally live in the human gut and produce vitamin K that the body uses. This is best termed a ______ relationship. 56. mutualistic 57. saprobic 58.parasitic 59.antagonistic ASM Objective: 05.01 Microorganisms are ubiquitous and live in diverse and dynamic ecosystems. ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 07.11 List and describe the five major types of microbial association. Section: 07.02 Topic: Microbial Ecology 57. The production of antibiotics is a form of antagonism called ______. A. symbiosis B. synergism C. antibiosis D. mutualism ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 07.11 List and describe the five major types of microbial association. Section: 07.02 Topic: Microbial Ecology 61. When microbes live independently but cooperate and share nutrients, it is called ______. A. symbiosis B. synergism C. mutualism D. antibiosis ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 07.11 List and describe the five major types of microbial association. Section: 07.02 Topic: Microbial Ecology H. When microbes are in a close nutritional relationship and one benefits but the other is not harmed, it is called ______. mutualism commensalism synergism symbiosis ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 07.11 List and describe the five major types of microbial association. Section: 07.02 Topic: Microbial Ecology 60. In a close relationship, a change in one partner that results from a change in the other partner is termed ______. A. mutualism B. symbiosis C. synergism D. coevolution E. antibiosis ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 07.11 List and describe the five major types of microbial association. Section: 07.02 Topic: Microbial Ecology True / False Questions 61. In a commensal relationship, the commensal benefits but the cohabitant is neither harmed nor benefited. TRUE ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 07.11 List and describe the five major types of microbial association. Section: 07.02 Topic: Microbial Ecology Multiple Choice Questions 78. What is the difference between mutualism and synergism? A. In a synergistic relationship, both organisms benefit, but in a mutualistic relationship both organisms are harmed. B. In a mutualistic relationship, both organisms benefit, but in a synergistic relationship both organisms are harmed. C. In a synergistic relationship, the organisms cannot survive without each other. D. In a mutualistic relationship, the organisms are dependent upon each other. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 07.11 List and describe the five major types of microbial association. Section: 07.02 Topic: Microbial Ecology 79. Termites are insects that require the protozoan Trichonympha in their gut to synthesize the enzyme cellulase to degrade the cellulose in wood. The protozoan uses the end products of the cellulose breakdown (glucose). This is a(n) ______ relationship. A. antagonistic B. mutualistic C. parasitic D. commensualistic ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 07.11 List and describe the five major types of microbial association. Section: 07.02 Topic: Microbial Ecology 62. The biofilm that forms in your shower ("shower curtain scum") can tolerate exposure to hot water when you shower and is resistant to desiccation between showers. The microbes in the biofilm are not endospores, so what is the best explanation for their survival under these conditions? A. Bioflms are composed of diverse microbes, and within each biofilm, there are certain to be endosporeformers and thermophiles. B. The shower hasn't been thoroughly cleaned in a while, and when I really scrub it, the microbes will all be killed. C. Although some microbes will be killed, those embedded deeply within the biofilm are protected from environmental challenges. D. Dead skin cells continuously replenish the biofilm, and organic soaps provide a continuous carbon source. ASM Objective: 05.02 Most bacteria in nature live in biofilm communities. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 07.12 Discuss characteristics of biofilms that differentiate them from planktonic bacteria and their infections. Section: 07.02 Topic: Environmental Influences Topic: Microbial Growth 68. Which of the following properties is likely to be found in a pioneer colonizer of a biofilm on an artificial joint implant? The ability to grow at thermophilic body temperature,(37 ºC) Surface structures for attaching to tissue The ability to use the titanium from the implant as an energy source No susceptibility to reactive oxygen species like peroxides ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 07.12 Discuss characteristics of biofilms that differentiate them from planktonic bacteria and their infections. Section: 07.02 Topic: Environmental Influences Topic: Microbial Growth H. Microbes in a biofilm use quorum sensing to assess the size of a particular microbial population. transfer genetic material among individual cells. inactivate antibiotic molecules. attach to surfaces. ASM Objective: 05.02 Most bacteria in nature live in biofilm communities. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 07.12 Discuss characteristics of biofilms that differentiate them from planktonic bacteria and their infections. Section: 07.02 Topic: Environmental Influences Topic: Microbial Ecology 68. Which of the following is not a step in binary fission of bacterial cells? Protein band forms in the center of the cell to mark the division site. Chromosome is replicated. Mitotic spindle segregates daughter chromosomes. Septum formation separates the cytoplasm of the daughter cells. ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 07.13 Summarize the steps of cell division used by most bacteria; name another method used by fewer bacterial species. Section: 07.03 Topic: Microbial Growth 69. As described in "A Note About Bacterial Reproduction -- and the "Culture Bias,"" the organism Epulopiscium does not divide by binary fission. Rather, each cell increases in size and divides to produce multiple daughter cells that are held within the original cell well. After lysis, those daughters are released to repeat the process. Assuming Epulopiscium could be grown in pure culture in the laboratory in broth and on solid media (it currently cannot), which method would be best for measuring the increase in biomass during growth? The viable plate count; each colony derives from a single cell and the number of colonies equals the number of cells. Turbidity readings from a spectrophotometer; the increase in biomass will directly vary with the turbidity of the culture. Chemostat growth; it will prevent the culture from entering the death phase. Direct microscopic count; the experimenter can directly count the number of cells and extrapolate to the biomass. ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Objective: 08.04 Estimate the number of microorganisms in a sample (using, for example, direct count, viable plate count, and spectrophotometric methods). ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Blooms Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 07.13 Summarize the steps of cell division used by most bacteria; name another method used by fewer bacterial species. Learning Outcome: 07.16 Identify one quantitative and one qualitative method used for analyzing bacterial growth. Section: 07.03 Topic: Microbial Growth 66. Endospore-forming bacteria like Bacillus species begin the sporulation process with an asymmetric cell division to produce two cells with different fates. One will differentiate into the endospore, and the other is the sporangium that will ultimately lyse to release the mature endospore. (Review Process Figure 4.24.) During this asymmetric cell division, one of the compartments does not receive an intact copy of the chromosome. Which compartment can function with only part of the genome and why? The sporangium; much of the genome is "junk DNA" and not required for endospore maturation. The sporangium; it supports endospore development and then lyses. The endospore; the endospore is built from the outside via the sporangium and not from the inside. The endospore; it is a dormant stage and requires very little to maintain its dormancy. ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 07.13 Summarize the steps of cell division used by most bacteria; name another method used by fewer bacterial species. Section: 07.03 Topic: Microbial Growth True / False Questions 67. After binary fission, daughter cells will differ genetically. FALSE ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 07.13 Summarize the steps of cell division used by most bacteria; name another method used by fewer bacterial species. Section: 07.03 Topic: Microbial Growth Multiple Choice Questions 68. The time interval from parent cell to two new daughter cells is called ______. the generation time the lag time the culture time binary fission the death phase ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 07.14 Define doubling time, and describe how it leads to exponential growth. Section: 07.03 Topic: Microbial Growth True / False Questions 70. Bacteria like E. coli have an average generation time of 24 hours. FALSE ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 07.14 Define doubling time, and describe how it leads to exponential growth. Section: 07.03 Topic: Microbial Growth 70. The time it takes for a freshly inoculated agar culture to develop visible colonies is primarily governed by the generation time of that species. TRUE ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 07.14 Define doubling time, and describe how it leads to exponential growth. Section: 07.03 Topic: Microbial Growth Multiple Choice Questions 90. A loopful of bacteria containing 1000 bacterial cells is inoculated into a nutrient broth and incubated. After a negligible lag phase, the culture goes into exponential growth for two hours. The generation time for the bacterium is fifteen minutes. Which equation is the correct one to determine the number of cells present after two hours of log phase growth? A. 1000 X 2 X 2 X 15 B. 1000 X 28 C. 1000 X 16 D. 1000 X 22 ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 07.14 Define doubling time, and describe how it leads to exponential growth. Section: 07.03 Topic: Microbial Growth 71. The phase of the bacterial growth curve in which the rate of multiplication equals the rate of cell death is the ______. A. stationary phase B. lag phase C. death phase D. exponential phase E. telophase ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 07.15 Compare and contrast the four phases of growth in a bacterial growth curve. Section: 07.03 Topic: Microbial Growth 92. The phase of the bacterial growth curve in which newly inoculated cells are adjusting to their new environment, metabolizing but not growing at an exponential rate, is the ______. 72. stationary phase 73.prophase 74.death phase 75. lag phase 76.exponential phase ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 07.15 Compare and contrast the four phases of growth in a bacterial growth curve. Section: 07.03 Topic: Microbial Growth 73. The phase of the bacterial growth curve that shows the maximum rate of cell division is the ______. A. death phase B. lag phase C. prophase D. exponential phase E. stationary phase ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 07.15 Compare and contrast the four phases of growth in a bacterial growth curve. Section: 07.03 Topic: Microbial Growth True / False Questions 74. A closed culture system is used to determine a population growth curve. TRUE ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 07.15 Compare and contrast the four phases of growth in a bacterial growth curve. Section: 07.03 Topic: Microbial Growth Multiple Choice Questions 75. In the viable plate count method, a measured volume of a culture is evenly spread across an agar surface and incubated. Each _____ represents one _____ from the original sample. A. cell; colony B. colony; cell C. generation; cell D. species; colony E. cell; cell ASM Objective: 08.04 Estimate the number of microorganisms in a sample (using, for example, direct count, viable plate count, and spectrophotometric methods). ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 07.16 Identify one quantitative and one qualitative method used for analyzing bacterial growth. Section: 07.03 Topic: Microbial Growth 76. When it is important to count the number of cells, determine cell size, and differentiate between dead and live cells, a(n) ______ is used. A. SEM B. Coulter counter C. methylene indicator dye D. flow cytometer E. spectrophotometer ASM Objective: 08.04 Estimate the number of microorganisms in a sample (using, for example, direct count, viable plate count, and spectrophotometric methods). ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 07.16 Identify one quantitative and one qualitative method used for analyzing bacterial growth. Section: 07.03 Topic: Microbial Growth True / False Questions 77. The degree of turbidity in a broth culture correlates to the amount of cell growth. TRUE ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 07.16 Identify one quantitative and one qualitative method used for analyzing bacterial growth. Section: 07.03 Topic: Microbial Growth 78. A Coulter counter can count viable cells as well as determine their size. FALSE CH-08: Test Bank Key Multiple Choice Questions 1. The term used to describe all of the chemical reactions within a cell is ______. 53. catabolism 54. redox reactions 55.phosphorylation 56. metabolism 57. cellular respiration ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.01 Describe the relationship among metabolism, catabolism, and anabolism. Section: 08.01 Topic: Principles of Metabolism 49. Enzymes are A. broken down in reactions that require energy input. B. proteins that function as catalysts. C. used up in chemical reactions. D. not needed for catabolic reactions. E. carbohydrate or protein in composition. ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.02 Fully discuss the structure and function of enzymes. Section: 08.01 Topic: Enzymes 54. The formation of peptide bonds between amino acids to build a polypeptide is an example of ______. A. anabolism B. phosphorylation C. fermentation D. catabolism E. glycolysis ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Learning Outcome: 08.01 Describe the relationship among metabolism, catabolism, and anabolism. Section: 08.01 Topic: Principles of Metabolism 53. Reactants are converted to products by A. enzymes releasing energy. B. breaking and forming bonds. C. enzymes binding to products. D. reactants always releasing energy. ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 08.01 Describe the relationship among metabolism, catabolism, and anabolism. Section: 08.01 Topic: Principles of Metabolism 52. Each of the following are true of enzymes except A. they can be used over and over. B. they may or may not require cofactors. C. their active site is specific to the substrate. D. they increase the activation energy of a reaction. E. their action may involve minerals. ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 08.02 Fully discuss the structure and function of enzymes. Section: 08.01 Topic: Enzymes 53. The cell's metabolic reactions involve the participation of ______ that lower the activation energy needed for the initiation of a reaction. A. cofactors B. vitamins C. enzymes D. ATP E. coenzymes ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.02 Fully discuss the structure and function of enzymes. Section: 08.01 Topic: Enzymes I. An apoenzyme is ______. part of a simple enzyme also called a coenzyme the protein part of a holoenzyme often an inorganic metal ion an RNA molecule ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.03 Differentiate between an apoenzyme and a holoenzyme. Section: 08.01 Topic: Enzymes 55. A holoenzyme is a combination of a protein and one or more substances called ______. A. substrates B. apoenzymes C. catalysts D. cofactors E. ribozymes ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.03 Differentiate between an apoenzyme and a holoenzyme. Section: 08.01 Topic: Enzymes 56. Important components of coenzymes are _______. A. vitamins B. metallic ions C. active sites D. substrates E. ribozymes ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.02 Fully discuss the structure and function of enzymes. Learning Outcome: 08.03 Differentiate between an apoenzyme and a holoenzyme. Section: 08.01 Topic: Enzymes 62. A type of cofactor would be ______. A. vitamins B. metallic ions C. active sites D. substrates E. ribozymes ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.02 Fully discuss the structure and function of enzymes. Learning Outcome: 08.03 Differentiate between an apoenzyme and a holoenzyme. Section: 08.01 Topic: Enzymes L. Ribozymes are ______. ribosomes which catalyze reactions unique to prokaryotes unique to eukaryotes catalysts for RNA splicing catalysts for DNA splicing ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.02 Fully discuss the structure and function of enzymes. Section: 08.01 Topic: Enzymes 58. Enzymes that are only produced when substrate is present are termed ______. A. exoenzymes B. endoenzymes C. constitutive enzymes D. induced enzymes E. conjugated enzymes ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.04 Differentiate between an endoenzyme and exoenzyme, and between constitutive and regulated enzymes. Section: 08.01 Topic: Enzymes 13. Enzymes that catalyze the removal of electrons from one substrate and the addition of electrons to another are called ______. A. transferases 59.oxidoreductases C. lyases D. isomerases 60. ligases ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.02 Fully discuss the structure and function of enzymes. Section: 08.01 Topic: Enzymes 14. The bacterial genus Bacillus can utilize starch as a nutrient by splitting the starch molecule into smaller molecules of glucose with the addition of water. The enzymes to do this would be classified as ______. transferases B. oxidoreductases C. ligases D. hydrolases E. isomerases ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 08.02 Fully discuss the structure and function of enzymes. Section: 08.01 Topic: Enzymes 15. Enzymes that catalyze the removal of a a functional group and its subsequent attachment to a new substrate are called ______. A. transferases 61.oxidoreductases C. isomerases D. lyases 65. ligases ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.02 Fully discuss the structure and function of enzymes. Section: 08.01 Topic: Enzymes 64. The most likely place where an exoenzyme participates in a chemical reaction is ______. A. in mitochondria B. within the cell membrane C. in lysosomes D. in cytoplasm E. outside of the cell ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 08.04 Differentiate between an endoenzyme and exoenzyme, and between constitutive and regulated enzymes. Section: 08.01 Topic: Enzymes 69. All of the following are exoenzymes except ______. A. ATP synthase B. streptokinase C. penicillinase D. collagenase ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.04 Differentiate between an endoenzyme and exoenzyme, and between constitutive and regulated enzymes. Section: 08.01 Topic: Enzymes 67. During aerobic cellular respiration, the final electron acceptor is ______. pyruvic acid oxygen nitrate cytochrome C FAD ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.13 Discuss the significance of the electron transport system. Learning Outcome: 08.14 State two ways in which anaerobic respiration differs from aerobic respiration. Section: 08.03 Topic: Aerobic/Anaerobic Respiration 68. Anabolic reactions that involve ligases and release water molecules when bonds are formed are called ______ reactions. reduction condensation oxidation transfer ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 08.01 Describe the relationship among metabolism, catabolism, and anabolism. Learning Outcome: 08.02 Fully discuss the structure and function of enzymes. Section: 08.01 Topic: Enzymes 20. Your bacterium is growing on a type of medium called casein agar, which contains milk protein (casein). There is a clear zone around the growth area of the bacterium, showing that it is synthesizing the enzymes needed to catalyze the breakdown of casein. These enzymes are considered ______. 72.apoenzymes 73.exoenzymes 74. ribozymes 70.endoenzymes ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 08.04 Differentiate between an endoenzyme and exoenzyme, and between constitutive and regulated enzymes. Section: 08.01 Topic: Enzymes 71. Enzymes that function inside a cell are ______. A. apoenzymes B. exoenzymes C. constitutive enzymes D. regulated enzymes E. endoenzymes ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.04 Differentiate between an endoenzyme and exoenzyme, and between constitutive and regulated enzymes. Section: 08.01 Topic: Enzymes J. Enzymes that are always present, regardless of the amount of substrate, are ______. apoenzymes exoenzymes constitutive enzymes regulated enzymes endoenzymes ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.04 Differentiate between an endoenzyme and exoenzyme, and between constitutive and regulated enzymes. Section: 08.01 Topic: Enzymes 72. When enzyme action stops due to a buildup of end product that acts as a regulatory molecule, this control is called ______. A. competitive inhibition B. enzyme induction C. enzyme repression D. noncompetitive inhibition ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.06 Describe how enzymes are controlled. Section: 08.01 Topic: Enzymes 76. Each of the following are denaturing agents except ______. A. high temperature B. low temperature C. high pH D. low pH ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.02 Fully discuss the structure and function of enzymes. Learning Outcome: 08.06 Describe how enzymes are controlled. Section: 08.01 Topic: Enzymes 77. Noncompetitive inhibition is best described as 75. the substrate binding to DNA, blocking enzyme transcription. B. the end product binding to DNA, blocking enzyme transcription. C. the substrate binding to enzyme in a regulatory site. D. the end product binding to enzyme in noncompetitive site. E .an anabolic reaction. ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.06 Describe how enzymes are controlled. Section: 08.01 Topic: Enzymes 77. Metabolic pathways that regenerate their starting molecule are called _____ pathways. linear bidirectional convergent cyclic divergent ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.05 Diagram the four major patterns of metabolism. Section: 08.01 Topic: Enzymes Topic: Principles of Metabolism 78. When the product of reaction A becomes the reactant of reaction B, this exemplifies a _______ metabolic pathway. G. linear H. bidirectional I. convergent J. cyclic K. divergent ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.05 Diagram the four major patterns of metabolism. Section: 08.01 Topic: Enzymes Topic: Principles of Metabolism J. Most electron carriers are ______. coenzymes enzymes hydrogen inorganic phosphate ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.09 Identify electron carriers used by cells. Section: 08.02 Topic: Principles of Metabolism 77. Exergonic reactions A. include synthesis of large carbohydrates. B. only occur in heterotrophs. C. occur during aerobic cellular respiration. D. do not occur in anaerobic cellular respiration. E. occur when ADP binds to inorganic phosphate to form ATP. ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 08.01 Describe the relationship among metabolism, catabolism, and anabolism. Section: 08.02 Topic: Principles of Metabolism 78. In the cell, energy released by electrons is often used to phosphorylate ______. A. ATP B. ADP C. pyruvic acid D. oxygen E. NAD ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.07 Name the chemical in which energy is stored in cells. Section: 08.02 Topic: Principles of Metabolism 82. In addition to electrons, which of the following is also involved in electron transfer? ADP Glucose Carbon Hydrogen Carbon dioxide ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.09 Identify electron carriers used by cells. Section: 08.02 Topic: Principles of Metabolism 80. Each of the following are electron carriers except ______. NAD FAD NADP FADP ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.09 Identify electron carriers used by cells. Section: 08.02 Topic: Principles of Metabolism 33. FAD, NADP, NAD, and coenzyme A are all carriers of ________. A. hydrogens B. electrons M. ATP D. Both hydrogens and electrons are correct. ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.09 Identify electron carriers used by cells. Section: 08.02 Topic: Principles of Metabolism 42. The step involving ATP, hexokinase, and the phosphorylation of glucose to glucose-6-phosphate is A. the final step of the Krebs cycle. B. the first redox reaction of the electron transport system. C. an example of oxidative phosphorylation. D. an example of substrate-level phosphorylation. E. an example of photophosphorylation. ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 08.11 Construct a paragraph summarizing glycolysis. Section: 08.02 Topic: Principles of Metabolism 43. Which of the following is not a process that regenerates ATP? A. Oxidative phosphorylation B. Reductive phosphorylation C. Substrate-level phosphorylation D. Photophosphorylation ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.07 Name the chemical in which energy is stored in cells. Section: 08.02 Topic: Principles of Metabolism 44. All of the following pertain to glycolysis except A. it occurs without oxygen. B. it ends with formation of pyruvic acid. C. it occurs during fermentation. D. it degrades glucose to CO2 and H2O. E. it involves reduction of NAD. ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.11 Construct a paragraph summarizing glycolysis. Section: 08.03 Topic: Aerobic/Anaerobic Respiration 45. Glycolysis uses 2 ATP and produces A. 2 ATP only if oxygen is present. B. 2 ATP without oxygen. C. 4 ATP only if oxygen is present. D. 4 ATP without oxygen. ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 08.10 List three basic catabolic pathways and the estimated ATP yield for each. Learning Outcome: 08.11 Construct a paragraph summarizing glycolysis. Section: 08.03 Topic: Aerobic/Anaerobic Respiration 49. The formation of citric acid from oxaloacetic acid and an acetyl group begins ______. glycolysis the electron transport system the Krebs cycle fermentation oxidative phosphorylation ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 08.12 Describe the Krebs cycle and compare the process between bacteria and eukaryotes. Section: 08.03 Topic: Aerobic/Anaerobic Respiration 47. Which of the following is not part of the step that occurs between glycolysis and the Krebs cycle? A. Reduction of NAD+ B. Coenzyme A attaches to an acetyl group C. Oxidation of pyruvic acid D. Pyruvic acid accepts electrons from NADH ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 08.11 Construct a paragraph summarizing glycolysis. Learning Outcome: 08.12 Describe the Krebs cycle and compare the process between bacteria and eukaryotes. Section: 08.03 Topic: Aerobic/Anaerobic Respiration 51. Substrate-level phosphorylation occurs in A. glycolysis and the electron transport chain. B. photosynthesis and glycolysis. C. glycolysis and the Krebs cycle. D. the Krebs cycle and the electron transport system. E. the electron transport system only. ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 08.07 Name the chemical in which energy is stored in cells. Learning Outcome: 08.11 Construct a paragraph summarizing glycolysis. Learning Outcome: 08.12 Describe the Krebs cycle and compare the process between bacteria and eukaryotes. Section: 08.02 Topic: Principles of Metabolism 49. The majority of NADH is produced in ______. A. glycolysis B. the Krebs cycle I. the electron transport system J. photosynthesis K. fermentation ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.09 Identify electron carriers used by cells. Learning Outcome: 08.12 Describe the Krebs cycle and compare the process between bacteria and eukaryotes. Section: 08.03 Topic: Aerobic/Anaerobic Respiration L. In bacterial cells, the electron transport system is located in the ______. cell membrane mitochondria chloroplasts ribosomes cytoplasm ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 08.13 Discuss the significance of the electron transport system. Section: 08.03 Topic: Aerobic/Anaerobic Respiration 52. Each NADH that enters the electron transport system results in the production of _____ ATPs. 2 3 24 36 38 ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.10 List three basic catabolic pathways and the estimated ATP yield for each. Learning Outcome: 08.13 Discuss the significance of the electron transport system. Section: 08.03 Topic: Aerobic/Anaerobic Respiration 53. As the electron transport carriers shuttle electrons, they actively pump _____ into the outer membrane compartment, setting up a concentration gradient called the proton motive force. A. ATP B. phosphate C. hydrogen ions D. oxygen E. NADH ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 08.13 Discuss the significance of the electron transport system. Section: 08.03 Topic: Aerobic/Anaerobic Respiration 45. The redox carriers of the electron transport system that have a tightly bound metal atom responsible for accepting and donating electrons are ______. 54. NAD molecules 55. FAD molecules 56. NADP molecules 57. the cytochromes 58. the flavoproteins ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 08.08 Create a general diagram of a redox reaction. Learning Outcome: 08.09 Identify electron carriers used by cells. Learning Outcome: 08.13 Discuss the significance of the electron transport system. Section: 08.02 Topic: Principles of Metabolism 54. Each FADH2 from the Krebs cycle that enters the electron transport system results in the production of _____ ATP(s). 59.1 60.2 61.3 62.4 63.5 ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.10 List three basic catabolic pathways and the estimated ATP yield for each. Learning Outcome: 08.13 Discuss the significance of the electron transport system. Section: 08.05 Topic: Aerobic/Anaerobic Respiration H. In which pathway is the most NADH generated? The electron transport system The Krebs cycle Glycolysis Alcoholic fermentation Mixed acid fermentation ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.12 Describe the Krebs cycle and compare the process between bacteria and eukaryotes. Section: 08.03 Topic: Aerobic/Anaerobic Respiration 60. During which phase of cellular respiration is the majority of ATP formed? A. Electron transport system B. The Krebs cycle C. Glycolysis D. Processing of pyruvic acid for the Krebs cycle E. All phases produce the same number of ATP molecules. ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.10 List three basic catabolic pathways and the estimated ATP yield for each. Learning Outcome: 08.13 Discuss the significance of the electron transport system. Section: 08.03 Topic: Aerobic/Anaerobic Respiration 58. In bacterial cells, when glucose is completely oxidized by all the pathways of aerobic cellular respiration, what is the maximum number of ATP generated? A. 2 B. 3 C. 24 D. 36 E. 38 ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 08.10 List three basic catabolic pathways and the estimated ATP yield for each. Section: 08.03 Topic: Aerobic/Anaerobic Respiration 62. In which stage of aerobic respiration is water produced? A. Glycolysis B. The Krebs cycle C. The electron transport system ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.13 Discuss the significance of the electron transport system. Section: 08.03 Topic: Aerobic/Anaerobic Respiration I. How many carbon dioxide molecules are produced by the complete aerobic breakdown of one glucose molecule? 2 3 4 5 6 ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.10 List three basic catabolic pathways and the estimated ATP yield for each. Learning Outcome: 08.12 Describe the Krebs cycle and compare the process between bacteria and eukaryotes. Section: 08.03 Topic: Aerobic/Anaerobic Respiration 61. An oxidase detection test can be used to identify certain bacteria because they are missing or lack expression of ______. A. cytochrome C oxidase B. NAD C. mitochondria D. ATP synthase E. coenzyme Q ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 08.13 Discuss the significance of the electron transport system. Section: 08.03 Topic: Aerobic/Anaerobic Respiration 62. What chemical causes death in many eukaryotes because it blocks cytochrome C oxidase? A. Copper B. Iron C. Cyanide D. Oxygen E. Carbon monoxide ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.13 Discuss the significance of the electron transport system. Section: 08.03 Topic: Aerobic/Anaerobic Respiration 63. Which of the following is not true of anaerobic respiration? A. It involves glycolysis. B. It generates some ATP. C. It utilizes an electron transport system. D. It uses the same final electron acceptor as aerobic respiration. ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 08.14 State two ways in which anaerobic respiration differs from aerobic respiration. Section: 08.03 Topic: Aerobic/Anaerobic Respiration 69. Reduction of nitrogen-oxygen ions and compounds by some bacteria is called ______. aerobic respiration denitrification nitrification fermentation deamination ASM Objective: 03.01 Bacteria and Archaea exhibit extensive, and often unique, metabolic diversity (e.g., nitrogen fixation, methane production, anoxygenic photosynthesis). ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.14 State two ways in which anaerobic respiration differs from aerobic respiration. Section: 08.03 Topic: Aerobic/Anaerobic Respiration I. The reactions of fermentation function to produce _______ molecules for further use in glycolysis. pyruvic acid ATP NAD+ NADH glucose ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.15 Summarize the steps of microbial fermentation and list three useful products it can create. Section: 08.03 Topic: Fermentation J. When glucose is broken down by glycolysis during bacterial fermentation, what is the usual net production of ATP? 69.2 70.3 71.24 72.36 73.38 ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.10 List three basic catabolic pathways and the estimated ATP yield for each. Learning Outcome: 08.15 Summarize the steps of microbial fermentation and list three useful products it can create. Section: 08.03 Topic: Fermentation 70. Mixed acid fermentation produces butyric acid. occurs in all bacteria. produces several different acids plus CO2 and H2 gases. is seen in Streptococcus and Lactobacillus. also produces ethanol. ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 08.15 Summarize the steps of microbial fermentation and list three useful products it can create. Section: 08.03 Topic: Fermentation 67. Fermentation ______. requires an organic electron acceptor requires oxygen only occurs in aerobic organisms is equivalent to aerobic respiration in ATP production is the same as anaerobic respiration ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.15 Summarize the steps of microbial fermentation and list three useful products it can create. Section: 08.03 Topic: Fermentation 60. Which of the following is not a photosynthetic pigment? A. Carotenoid B. Leukophyll C. Phycobilin D. Chlorophyll ASM Objective: 03.02 The interactions of microorganisms among themselves and with their environment are determined by their metabolic abilities (e.g., quorum sensing, oxygen consumption, nitrogen transformations). ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.19 Summarize the overall process of photosynthesis in a single sentence. Section: 08.05 Topic: Photosynthesis 68. Which of the following is not true of the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis? They occur in thylakoid membranes. They generate NADPH. They generate glucose from CO2 and H2O. The photons cause magnesium to release electrons. ATP is generated by a chemiosmotic mechanism. ASM Objective: 03.02 The interactions of microorganisms among themselves and with their environment are determined by their metabolic abilities (e.g., quorum sensing, oxygen consumption, nitrogen transformations). ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.20 Discuss the relationship between light-dependent and light-independent reactions. Section: 08.05 Topic: Photosynthesis 62. The unknown bacterium that you are testing makes the enzyme phenyalanine deaminase, as indicated by the results of a phenylalanine test. This enzyme facilitates the removal of a/an ______ group from the organic compound so it can be converted into an intermediate compound for the Krebs cycle. 69. carboxyl 70.amino 71.phosphate 72.hydroxyl ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 08.16 Describe how noncarbohydrate compounds are catabolized. Section: 08.04 Topic: Biosynthesis 71. The property of organisms to integrate catabolic and anabolic pathways to improve cell efficiency is called ______. A. metabolism B. amphibolism C. anabolism D. catabolism E. biosynthesis ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.18 Define amphibolism. Section: 08.04 Topic: Biosynthesis 71. The process of forming glucose from various metabolic intermediates is called ______. A. glycolysis B. amphibolism C. phosphorylation D. amination E. gluconeogenesis ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.16 Describe how noncarbohydrate compounds are catabolized. Section: 08.04 Topic: Biosynthesis 72. The principle sites of amphibolic interaction occur during ______. A. glycolysis and photosynthesis B. the Krebs cycle and the electron transport system C. glycolysis and the Krebs cycle D. fermentation and the Krebs cycle E. fermentation and glycolysis ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.18 Define amphibolism. Section: 08.04 Topic: Biosynthesis 77. Intermediates from the Krebs cycle can be converted to amino acids by the process of ______. amination deamination phosphorylation beta oxidation gluconeogenesis ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.17 Provide an overview of the anabolic stages of metabolism. Section: 08.04 Topic: Biosynthesis 78. Which of the following characterize the Calvin cycle? 74. A process that requires light 75. Nitrogen is fixed into an organic form 76. Produces glucose as an end product 77. Produces carbon dioxide and water 78. Produces oxygen ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.21 Explain the role of the Calvin cycle in the process of photosynthesis. Section: 08.05 Topic: Photosynthesis True / False Questions 75. ATP molecules are catalysts that lower the activation energy needed to initiate a reaction. FALSE ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.02 Fully discuss the structure and function of enzymes. Learning Outcome: 08.07 Name the chemical in which energy is stored in cells. Section: 08.02 Topic: Enzymes Topic: Principles of Metabolism 76. Building block molecules for biosynthetic pathways come from the cell's catabolic pathways and from the environment. TRUE ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.01 Describe the relationship among metabolism, catabolism, and anabolism. Learning Outcome: 08.17 Provide an overview of the anabolic stages of metabolism. Section: 08.04 Topic: Biosynthesis 77. Hydrolysis reactions are catabolic reactions that use water to split the reactant into smaller subunits. TRUE ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.01 Describe the relationship among metabolism, catabolism, and anabolism. Section: 08.02 Topic: Enzymes 78. Exoenzymes from pathogens are called virulence factors. TRUE ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 08.04 Differentiate between an endoenzyme and exoenzyme, and between constitutive and regulated enzymes. Section: 08.02 Topic: Enzymes 79. The best way to control a metabolic pathway is to control the fastest enzyme in the series. FALSE ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 08.06 Describe how enzymes are controlled. Section: 08.02 Topic: Enzymes 79. Denaturing an apoenzyme will destroy the three-dimensional shape of the protein, making it nonfunctional. TRUE ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.03 Differentiate between an apoenzyme and a holoenzyme. Section: 08.02 Topic: Enzymes 80. ATP is composed of deoxyribose, adenine, and three phosphate groups. FALSE ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.07 Name the chemical in which energy is stored in cells. Section: 08.03 Topic: Principles of Metabolism 81. Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate is an intermediary of glycolysis that can also be utilized in biosynthetic pathways. TRUE ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 08.11 Construct a paragraph summarizing glycolysis. Learning Outcome: 08.17 Provide an overview of the anabolic stages of metabolism. Section: 08.04 Topic: Aerobic/Anaerobic Respiration 85. ATP synthase is a complex enzyme needed for oxidative phosphorylation. TRUE ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.13 Discuss the significance of the electron transport system. Section: 08.03 Topic: Aerobic/Anaerobic Respiration 83. All aerobic bacterial species have identical electron acceptors in their electron transport systems. FALSE ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 08.13 Discuss the significance of the electron transport system. Learning Outcome: 08.14 State two ways in which anaerobic respiration differs from aerobic respiration. Section: 08.03 Topic: Aerobic/Anaerobic Respiration 84. Only yeast produce alcohol as a fermentation product. FALSE ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 08.15 Summarize the steps of microbial fermentation and list three useful products it can create. Section: 08.03 Topic: Fermentation 84. Oxygen-containing ions are used by some bacteria in their electron transport system. TRUE ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.13 Discuss the significance of the electron transport system. Learning Outcome: 08.14 State two ways in which anaerobic respiration differs from aerobic respiration. Section: 08.02 Topic: Aerobic/Anaerobic Respiration 87. Microbes can utilize only carbohydrates for energy production. FALSE ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.16 Describe how noncarbohydrate compounds are catabolized. Section: 08.03 Topic: Aerobic/Anaerobic Respiration G. Photosynthesis occurs in chloroplasts of prokaryotes. FALSE ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.19 Summarize the overall process of photosynthesis in a single sentence. Section: 08.05 Topic: Photosynthesis 87. All organisms that are photosynthetic are oxygenic. FALSE ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 08.19 Summarize the overall process of photosynthesis in a single sentence. Section: 08.05 Topic: Photosynthesis 88. Recently discovered bacteria that inhabit the ocean floor undergo photosynthesis using light from chemical reactions, the breaking of mineral crystals, or from bubble formation. TRUE ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 08.19 Summarize the overall process of photosynthesis in a single sentence. Section: 08.05 Topic: Photosynthesis Multiple Choice Questions 84. Sulfa drugs like Bactrim, given for bacterial infections, inhibit bacteria by blocking folic acid synthesis. The precursor molecule of folic acid is para-amino benzoic acid (PABA). Interestingly, PABA has a structure very similar to a sulfa drug. If a sulfa drug is present, the bacterial enzyme will bind the sulfa drug because of structural similarity. This is an example of ______. A. enzyme induction B. enzyme repression C. noncompetitive inhibition D. competitive inhibition E. catabolite repression ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 08.06 Describe how enzymes are controlled. Section: 08.02 Topic: Enzymes 86. When comparing fermentation and anaerobic respiration, which statement would be true? A. Fermentation and anaerobic respiration are the same. B. Fermentation produces carbon dioxide, whereas anaerobic respiration does not. C. Anaerobic respiration and fermentation both employ the electron transport system. D. Both anaerobic respiration and fermentation use phosphorylation to make ATP. ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 08.10 List three basic catabolic pathways and the estimated ATP yield for each. Learning Outcome: 08.14 State two ways in which anaerobic respiration differs from aerobic respiration. Learning Outcome: 08.15 Summarize the steps of microbial fermentation and list three useful products it can create. Section: 08.03 Topic: Aerobic/Anaerobic Respiration Topic: Fermentation 87. The space between the cell membrane and the cell wall is important during aerobic respiration. Why? A. Hydrogen ions are transported out into the space to set up a hydrogen gradient. B. Cytochrome electron carriers are located in the space. C. Oxygen combines with electrons in that space to form water. D. Pyruvate is transported into the space to be converted into acetyl coenzyme A to enter the Krebs cycle. ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 08.13 Discuss the significance of the electron transport system. Section: 08.03 Topic: Aerobic/Anaerobic Respiration H. A bacterium that you isolated from pond water appears to use light for energy. Based upon this information, you inoculate the organism into fresh media, infused with lots of carbon dioxide. Even after incubation at the correct temperature (of pond water), the organism is not growing. Your best explanation of what might have happened is there was no sulfur compound added to the medium, that could be used as an electron donor. no oxygen was added to the medium so the organism died. there is some inhibitory chemical that is preventing the growth of the bacterium. you were using the wrong type of sunlight as the energy source for the bacterium. ASM Objective: 03.01 Bacteria and Archaea exhibit extensive, and often unique, metabolic diversity (e.g., nitrogen fixation, methane production, anoxygenic photosynthesis). ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 08.19 Summarize the overall process of photosynthesis in a single sentence. Section: 08.05 Topic: Photosynthesis 89. Below is a metabolic pathway having 3 chemical reactions and 3 enzymes. Enzyme 1 has 2 binding sites-- 1 for the substrate A and another for the end product D. As the pathway proceeds, the end product in higher quantities will react with enzyme 1, blocking the enzyme's binding to the substrate. Which statement is true about this pathway? enz1 enz2 enz3 Substrate A --> B --> C --> D end product A. This is a case of noncompetitive inhibition. B. As a result of the inhibition of the enzyme, there will eventually be less substrate converted to the end product D. C. Enzyme 1 has an active site and a regulatory site. D. All of the choices are correct. ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 08.06 Describe how enzymes are controlled. Section: 08.01 Topic: Enzymes Topic: Principles of Metabolism 89. Which of the following metabolic system descriptions is mismatched? Cyclic - the starting molecule is regenerated to initiate another turn Convergent - a linear pathway branches into two or more alternative processes Linear - the product of enzyme A becomes the substrate for enzyme B Divergent - one or more branches deviate from a linear path ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 08.05 Diagram the four major patterns of metabolism. Section: 08.01 Topic: Principles of Metabolism 90. Oxidoreductase apoenzymes utilize a coenzyme to function. The NAD + and FAD coenzymes A. carry only electrons between molecules. B. are oxidized when they remove electrons from the substrate. C. are reduced when they remove electrons from the substrate. D. are reduced when they add electrons to the substrate. ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 08.08 Create a general diagram of a redox reaction. Learning Outcome: 08.09 Identify electron carriers used by cells. Section: 08.02 Topic: Principles of Metabolism 93. Often the mnemonic device "OIL RIG" is used to remember the principles of redox reactions. Oxidation Is Loss and Reduction Is Gain of what? A. Electrons only B. Hydrogen only C. Oxygen only D. Electrons and hydrogen E. Oxygen and electrons ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 08.08 Create a general diagram of a redox reaction. Section: 08.02 Topic: Principles of Metabolism 91. Which of the following statements is false regarding amphibolic pathways? Metabolic pathways are amphibolic, that is, catabolism and anabolism are intertwined in order to conserve energy in the cell. B Glucose is broken down in glycolysis; however, not all of the intermediates in the pathway are utilized as an . energy source. Many leave the pathway to serve as precursors for complex molecules. 92. Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate is used as a precursor for amino acid, lipid, and carbohydrate synthesis. 93. All organisms use metabolic pathways to synthesize the 20 amino acids necessary for protein synthesis using precursors from catabolic processes. 94. Glucose is broken down during glycolysis to pyruvate; however, when glucose is in short supply, pyruvate is used as a precursor in the process of gluconeogenesis. ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 08.18 Define amphibolism. Topic: Principles of Metabolism 93. The relationship between the light-dependent and light-independent reactions in photosynthesis is that A.the ATP made during the light-dependent reactions is used for the growth and development of the cell and the ATP from the oxidation of glucose drives the light reactions. B. the light-independent reactions are driven by the ATP and NADPH generated from the light reactions. C. the energy stored in the glucose made during the Calvin cycle is used to drive the light reactions. D. the light-dependent and light-independent reactions both take place within the membranes of bacterial cells or thylakoid membranes of chloroplasts. ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 08.20 Discuss the relationship between light-dependent and light-independent reactions. Topic: Photosynthesis True / False Questions 94. Cells generate ATP from the release of chemical energy from nutrients, whereas chlorophyll-containing organisms generate ATP via the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis as well as from the oxidation of nutrients. TRUE ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Learning Outcome: 08.20 Discuss the relationship between light-dependent and light-independent reactions. Section: 08.05 Topic: Photosynthesis Multiple Choice Questions 95. One turn of the Calvin cycle fixes a molecule of CO2 gas and is driven by 3 molecules of ATP and 2 molecules of NADPH from the light reactions. Which of the following is true? A. It takes 3 turns of the cycle, 9 molecules of ATP, and 6 molecules of NADPH to make one molecule of glucose. B. It takes 6 turns of the cycle, 18 molecules of ATP, and 12 molecules of NADPH to make a glucose molecule. C. The cycle must be carried out in the dark. D. The cycle is exergonic. ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 08.21 Explain the role of the Calvin cycle in the process of photosynthesis. Topic: Photosynthesis True / False Questions 96. During the Calvin cycle, carbon dioxide gas is fixed into a solid, organic form; this is an endergonic process driven by ATP generated from aerobic respiration. FALSE ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 08.21 Explain the role of the Calvin cycle in the process of photosynthesis. Section: 08.05 Topic: Photosynthesis Multiple Choice Questions 76. Which of the following processes is endergonic? A. Beta oxidation of fatty acids B. Carbon fixation C. The oxidation of glucose D. Deamination E. Burning wood ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 08.01 Describe the relationship among metabolism, catabolism, and anabolism. Section: 08.01 Topic: Principles of Metabolism 77. The light-harvesting units in the thylakoid membranes are the ______. A. ATP synthases B. electrons C. ATP molecules D. photosystems E. grana ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 08.19 Summarize the overall process of photosynthesis in a single sentence. Section: 08.05 Topic: Photosynthesis 78. What process is described here? A concentration gradient of H + ions is created in the periplasmic space by actively transporting the ions across the membrane using the energy liberated when carrier molecules are oxidized. When the H + ions pass through ATPase, enough energy is generated to add phosphate groups onto ADP molecules. 78. Fermentation 79. The Calvin cycle 80. Substrate-level phosphorylation 81. Oxidative phosphorylation 82. Deamination ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 08.10 List three basic catabolic pathways and the estimated ATP yield for each. Learning Outcome: 08.13 Discuss the significance of the electron transport system. Section: 08.03 Topic: Principles of Metabolism 80. Glycolysis and the Krebs cycle yield 10 molecules of NADH per molecule of glucose. How many molecules of ATP will be made from them in the electron transport system? A. 10 B. 38 C. 36 D. 2 E. 30 CH-09: Multiple Choice Questions 1. Microorganisms exhibit genomes contained on 56. chromosomes. 57.plasmids. 58. mitochondrial DNA. 59. chloroplast DNA. 60. All of the choices are correct depending on the type of microorganism observed. ASM Objective: 04.01 Genetic variations can impact microbial functions (e.g., in biofilm formation, pathogenicity and drug resistance). ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 09.01 Define the terms genome and gene. Section: 09.01 Topic: Nucleic Acid Structure/Function 57. Eukaryotic chromosomes differ from bacterial chromosomes because only eukaryotes have A. histone proteins. B. chromosomes in a nucleus. C. several to many chromosomes. D. elongated, not circular, chromosomes. E. All of the choices are correct. ASM Objective: 04.01 Genetic variations can impact microbial functions (e.g., in biofilm formation, pathogenicity and drug resistance). ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 09.01 Define the terms genome and gene. Section: 09.01 Topic: Nucleic Acid Structure/Function 63. Which of the following is not true of an organism's genotype? A. It contains structural genes that code for proteins. B. It has regulatory genes that control gene expression. C. It contains genes that code for RNA. D. It is inherited. E. It has expressed traits governed by the genes. ASM Objective: 04.01 Genetic variations can impact microbial functions (e.g., in biofilm formation, pathogenicity and drug resistance). ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 09.02 Differentiate between genotype and phenotype. Section: 09.01 Topic: Nucleic Acid Structure/Function M. The _____ is all of the genetic material of a cell. proteome chromosome genome plasmid prophage ASM Objective: 04.01 Genetic variations can impact microbial functions (e.g., in biofilm formation, pathogenicity and drug resistance). ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 09.01 Define the terms genome and gene. Section: 09.01 Topic: Nucleic Acid Structure/Function 59. A nucleosome is a linear chromosome wound around the _______. A. nuclear membrane B. rRNA C. mRNA D. histone E. nucleolus ASM Objective: 04.01 Genetic variations can impact microbial functions (e.g., in biofilm formation, pathogenicity and drug resistance). ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 09.03 Diagram a segment of DNA, labeling all important chemical groups within the molecule. Section: 09.01 Topic: Nucleic Acid Structure/Function 6. A ______ is a specific segment of DNA that codes for the production of one functional product. a. intron b. exon c. gene d. operator e. triplet ASM Objective: 04.01 Genetic variations can impact microbial functions (e.g., in biofilm formation, pathogenicity and drug resistance). ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 09.01 Define the terms genome and gene. Section: 09.01 Topic: Nucleic Acid Structure/Function 7. The expression of genetic traits is referred to as the organism's ______. 61.genome 62.genotype 63.proteome 64.phenotype 65.proteotype ASM Objective: 04.01 Genetic variations can impact microbial functions (e.g., in biofilm formation, pathogenicity and drug resistance). ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 09.02 Differentiate between genotype and phenotype. Section: 09.01 Topic: Nucleic Acid Structure/Function 8. The DNA of an organism is made up of subunits called _______. 62.histones 63.amino acids 64.nucleotides 65. mRNA 66.polymerases ASM Objective: 04.01 Genetic variations can impact microbial functions (e.g., in biofilm formation, pathogenicity and drug resistance). ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 09.03 Diagram a segment of DNA, labeling all important chemical groups within the molecule. Section: 09.01 Topic: Nucleic Acid Structure/Function 62. Which is incorrect about purines? A. They are only found in DNA, not in RNA. B. They are nitrogenous bases. C. They are always paired with a specific pyrimidine. D. They include adenine and guanine. E. They are found within nucleotides. ASM Objective: 04.01 Genetic variations can impact microbial functions (e.g., in biofilm formation, pathogenicity and drug resistance). ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 09.03 Diagram a segment of DNA, labeling all important chemical groups within the molecule. Learning Outcome: 09.07 Identify important structural and functional differences between RNA and DNA. Section: 09.01 Topic: Nucleic Acid Structure/Function 66. The antiparallel arrangement within DNA molecules refers to A. each base bonding at the 1'position of the sugar. B. a purine always bonding to a pyrimidine. C. one helix strand that runs from the 5'to 3'direction and the other strand runs from the 3'to 5'direction. D. an original parent DNA strand and one newly synthesized DNA strand comprising a new DNA molecule. ASM Objective: 04.01 Genetic variations can impact microbial functions (e.g., in biofilm formation, pathogenicity and drug resistance). ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 09.03 Diagram a segment of DNA, labeling all important chemical groups within the molecule. Section: 09.01 Topic: Nucleic Acid Structure/Function 65. All of the following pertain to nitrogenous bases except A. they form pairs by hydrogen bonding. B. guanine pairs with uracil. C. adenine pairs with thymine. D. cytosine and thymine are pyrimidines. E. they allow variation from one nucleotide to another which creates the encoded information. ASM Objective: 04.01 Genetic variations can impact microbial functions (e.g., in biofilm formation, pathogenicity and drug resistance). ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 09.03 Diagram a segment of DNA, labeling all important chemical groups within the molecule. Section: 09.01 Topic: Nucleic Acid Structure/Function 70. Each nucleotide is composed of A. one phosphate, one nitrogenous base, and one sugar. B. one phosphate, one nitrogenous base, and two sugars. C. two phosphates, one nitrogenous base, and one sugar. D. two phosphates, one nitrogenous base, and two sugars. E. one phosphate, two nitrogenous bases, and one sugar. ASM Objective: 04.01 Genetic variations can impact microbial functions (e.g., in biofilm formation, pathogenicity and drug resistance). ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 09.03 Diagram a segment of DNA, labeling all important chemical groups within the molecule. Section: 09.01 Topic: Nucleic Acid Structure/Function 68. Base pairs in DNA are held together by ______ bonds. peptide nonpolar covalent polar covalent hydrogen sulfhydryl ASM Objective: 04.01 Genetic variations can impact microbial functions (e.g., in biofilm formation, pathogenicity and drug resistance). ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 09.03 Diagram a segment of DNA, labeling all important chemical groups within the molecule. Section: 09.01 Topic: Nucleic Acid Structure/Function 69. The duplication of a cell's DNA is called _______. mitosis replication transcription translation mutation ASM Objective: 04.01 Genetic variations can impact microbial functions (e.g., in biofilm formation, pathogenicity and drug resistance). ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 09.04 Summarize the steps of bacterial DNA replication and the enzymes used in this process. Section: 09.01 Topic: DNA Replication 75. Structural genes code for A. ribosomal RNA molecules. B. transfer RNA molecules. C. cellular proteins. D. gene expression elements. ASM Objective: 04.01 Genetic variations can impact microbial functions (e.g., in biofilm formation, pathogenicity and drug resistance). Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 09.01 Define the terms genome and gene. Learning Outcome: 09.06 Explain how the classical view of the “central dogma” has been changed by recent science. Section: 09.02 Topic: Protein Synthesis 71. During replication, each parent DNA strand serves as a _____ for synthesis of new DNA strands. A. copy point B. template C. comparison molecule D. scaffold E. reservoir ASM Objective: 04.01 Genetic variations can impact microbial functions (e.g., in biofilm formation, pathogenicity and drug resistance). ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 09.04 Summarize the steps of bacterial DNA replication and the enzymes used in this process. Section: 09.01 Topic: Nucleic Acid Structure/Function 72. Semiconservative replication refers to A. each base bonding at the 1'position of the sugar. B. a purine always bonding to a pyrimidine. C. one helix strand that runs from the 5'to 3'direction and the other strand that runs from the 3'to 5'direction. D. an original parent DNA strand and one newly synthesized DNA strand comprising a new DNA molecule. ASM Objective: 04.01 Genetic variations can impact microbial functions (e.g., in biofilm formation, pathogenicity and drug resistance). ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 09.04 Summarize the steps of bacterial DNA replication and the enzymes used in this process. Section: 09.01 Topic: DNA Replication K. DNA polymerase III is needed for adding nucleotides during mRNA synthesis. synthesizes new DNA only in the 5'to 3'direction. cannot add nucleotides to the lagging strand. synthesizes an RNA primer. ASM Objective: 04.01 Genetic variations can impact microbial functions (e.g., in biofilm formation, pathogenicity and drug resistance). ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 09.04 Summarize the steps of bacterial DNA replication and the enzymes used in this process. Section: 09.01 Topic: DNA Replication 73. Okazaki fragments are attached to the growing end of the lagging strand by _______. A. DNA ligase B. DNA polymerase C. DNA helicase D. DNA gyrase E. primase ASM Objective: 04.01 Genetic variations can impact microbial functions (e.g., in biofilm formation, pathogenicity and drug resistance). ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 09.04 Summarize the steps of bacterial DNA replication and the enzymes used in this process. Learning Outcome: 09.05 Compare and contrast the synthesis of leading and lagging strands during DNA replication. Section: 09.01 Topic: DNA Replication 78. The enzyme that helps pack DNA into the cell by coiling the DNA into a tight bundle is _______. A. DNA ligase B. DNA polymerase C. DNA helicase D. DNA gyrase E. primase ASM Objective: 04.01 Genetic variations can impact microbial functions (e.g., in biofilm formation, pathogenicity and drug resistance). ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 09.04 Summarize the steps of bacterial DNA replication and the enzymes used in this process. Section: 09.01 Topic: DNA Replication 76. The enzyme that can proofread replicating DNA, detect incorrect bases, excise them, and correctly replace them is _______. A. DNA ligase B. DNA polymerase C. DNA helicase D. DNA gyrase E. primase ASM Objective: 04.01 Genetic variations can impact microbial functions (e.g., in biofilm formation, pathogenicity and drug resistance). ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 09.04 Summarize the steps of bacterial DNA replication and the enzymes used in this process. Section: 09.01 Topic: DNA Replication 79. The site where the old DNA strands separate and new DNA strands will be synthesized is called the ________. primer Okazaki fragment template rolling circle replication fork ASM Objective: 04.01 Genetic variations can impact microbial functions (e.g., in biofilm formation, pathogenicity and drug resistance). ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 09.04 Summarize the steps of bacterial DNA replication and the enzymes used in this process. Section: 09.01 Topic: DNA Replication 80. DNA gyrase A. copies DNA bases. B. synthesizes RNA primers. C. closes gaps between DNA bases. D. removes supercoiling ahead of origin. ASM Objective: 04.01 Genetic variations can impact microbial functions (e.g., in biofilm formation, pathogenicity and drug resistance). ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 09.04 Summarize the steps of bacterial DNA replication and the enzymes used in this process. Section: 09.01 Topic: DNA Replication L. Helicase ______. unwinds DNA supercoils DNA unwinds RNA winds RNA ASM Objective: 04.01 Genetic variations can impact microbial functions (e.g., in biofilm formation, pathogenicity and drug resistance). ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 09.04 Summarize the steps of bacterial DNA replication and the enzymes used in this process. Section: 09.01 Topic: DNA Replication K. DNA Polymerase I removes primers. adds bases to new DNA chain. seals DNA gaps. proofreads DNA chain. ASM Objective: 04.01 Genetic variations can impact microbial functions (e.g., in biofilm formation, pathogenicity and drug resistance). ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 09.04 Summarize the steps of bacterial DNA replication and the enzymes used in this process. Section: 09.01 Topic: DNA Replication 78. DNA Polymerase III A. synthesizes the primer. B. removes the primer. C. joins Okazaki fragments. D. unzips the DNA helix. E. proofreads new DNA. ASM Objective: 04.01 Genetic variations can impact microbial functions (e.g., in biofilm formation, pathogenicity and drug resistance). ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 09.04 Summarize the steps of bacterial DNA replication and the enzymes used in this process. Section: 09.01 Topic: DNA Replication 79. A permanent, inheritable change in the genetic information is called ________. A. translation B. transcription C. a mutation D. an alteration E. regeneration ASM Objective: 04.01 Genetic variations can impact microbial functions (e.g., in biofilm formation, pathogenicity and drug resistance). ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 09.19 Define the term mutation and discuss one positive and one negative example of it in microorganisms. Section: 09.05 Topic: Mutations 83. Replication of DNA begins at a/an _______ rich area. guanine-cytosine uracil-adenine adenine-thymine adenine-cytosine guanine-adenine ASM Objective: 04.01 Genetic variations can impact microbial functions (e.g., in biofilm formation, pathogenicity and drug resistance). ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 09.04 Summarize the steps of bacterial DNA replication and the enzymes used in this process. Section: 09.01 Topic: DNA Replication 29. A primer comprised of _______ is needed at the origin of nucleotide addition. 81.polymerase III 82.polymerase I 83.helicase 84. RNA 85. DNA ASM Objective: 04.01 Genetic variations can impact microbial functions (e.g., in biofilm formation, pathogenicity and drug resistance). ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 09.04 Summarize the steps of bacterial DNA replication and the enzymes used in this process. Section: 09.01 Topic: DNA Replication N. Groups of three consecutive bases along the DNA of a gene have the code for one _______. protein nucleotide amino acid purine ASM Objective: 04.01 Genetic variations can impact microbial functions (e.g., in biofilm formation, pathogenicity and drug resistance). ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 09.06 Explain how the classical view of the “central dogma” has been changed by recent science. Section: 09.01 Topic: DNA Replication 43. The three-base sequence on DNA that codes for an amino acid is called a/an ________. A. codon B. exon C. anticodon D. intron E. triplet ASM Objective: 04.01 Genetic variations can impact microbial functions (e.g., in biofilm formation, pathogenicity and drug resistance). ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 09.06 Explain how the classical view of the “central dogma” has been changed by recent science. Section: 09.01 Topic: DNA Replication 44. The RNA molecules that carry amino acids to the ribosomes during protein synthesis are called ________. A. ribosomal RNA B. messenger RNA C. transfer RNA D. primer RNA E. ribozymes ASM Objective: 04.01 Genetic variations can impact microbial functions (e.g., in biofilm formation, pathogenicity and drug resistance). ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 09.09 List the three types of RNA directly involved in translation. Section: 09.02 Topic: Protein Synthesis 33. Which molecule is translated into an amino acid sequence? 45. Ribosomal RNA 46. Messenger RNA 47. Transfer RNA 48. Primer RNA 49. Ribozymes ASM Objective: 04.01 Genetic variations can impact microbial functions (e.g., in biofilm formation, pathogenicity and drug resistance). ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 09.09 List the three types of RNA directly involved in translation. Section: 09.02 Topic: Protein Synthesis 46. RNA molecules differ from DNA molecules because only RNA A. has ribose. B. has uracil. C. is typically one strand of nucleotides. D. does not have thymine. E. All of the choices are correct. ASM Objective: 04.01 Genetic variations can impact microbial functions (e.g., in biofilm formation, pathogenicity and drug resistance). ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 09.07 Identify important structural and functional differences between RNA and DNA. Section: 09.02 Topic: Nucleic Acid Structure/Function 50. Which of the following is not a type of microRNA? tRNA miRNA C. Antisense RNA 48. Riboswitch 49. siRNA ASM Objective: 04.01 Genetic variations can impact microbial functions (e.g., in biofilm formation, pathogenicity and drug resistance). ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 09.06 Explain how the classical view of the “central dogma” has been changed by recent science. Section: 09.02 Topic: Protein Synthesis 52. All of the following pertain to transcription except A. it occurs on a ribosome in the cytoplasm. B. it occurs before translation. C. it requires RNA polymerase. D. it requires a template DNA strand. E. it is a process that contributes to the synthesis of protein. ASM Objective: 04.01 Genetic variations can impact microbial functions (e.g., in biofilm formation, pathogenicity and drug resistance). ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 09.08 Illustrate the steps of transcription, noting the key elements and the direction of mRNA synthesis. Section: 09.02 Topic: Protein Synthesis 50. The nontranscribed region of DNA to which RNA polymerase binds to initiate transcription is called the ________. A. promoter B. operator C. operon D. exon E. intron ASM Objective: 04.03 The regulation of gene expression is influenced by external and internal molecular cues and/or signals. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 09.08 Illustrate the steps of transcription, noting the key elements and the direction of mRNA synthesis. Section: 09.02 Topic: Gene Regulation Topic: Protein Synthesis L. RNA polymerase binds to the start codon. termination sequence. regulation sequence. promoter sequence. ASM Objective: 04.03 The regulation of gene expression is influenced by external and internal molecular cues and/or signals. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 09.08 Illustrate the steps of transcription, noting the key elements and the direction of mRNA synthesis. Section: 09.02 Topic: Gene Regulation Topic: Protein Synthesis M. Which of the following is incorrect about transfer RNA? A. It has a bottom hairpin loop with an anticodon. B. It has an anticodon that is complementary to a codon. 53. It contains a binding site for an amino acid. 54. The initiator tRNA that binds to the P site has the anticodon UAC. 55. The initiator tRNA in bacteria carries tryptophan. ASM Objective: 04.01 Genetic variations can impact microbial functions (e.g., in biofilm formation, pathogenicity and drug resistance). ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Blooms Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 09.09 List the three types of RNA directly involved in translation. Section: 09.02 Topic: Protein Synthesis 55. If a codon for alanine is GCA, then the anticodon is ______. A. GCA B. CGT C. ACG D. CGU E. UGC ASM Objective: 04.01 Genetic variations can impact microbial functions (e.g., in biofilm formation, pathogenicity and drug resistance). ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 09.10 Define the terms codon and anticodon and list the four known start and stop codons. Section: 09.02 Topic: Protein Synthesis 41. The following pertain to ribosomes during protein synthesis except 59. they contain codons within their rRNA molecules. 60. they participate only in translation. 61. they bind to the 5'end of mRNA by their small subunit. 62. they use their large subunit to supply enzymes for peptide bonding. 63. they shift towards the 3'direction along the mRNA strand from one codon to the next. ASM Objective: 04.01 Genetic variations can impact microbial functions (e.g., in biofilm formation, pathogenicity and drug resistance). ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 09.09 List the three types of RNA directly involved in translation. Learning Outcome: 09.11 Identify the locations of the promoter, the start codon, and the A and P sites during translation. Section: 09.02 Topic: Protein Synthesis 64. Which of the following is incorrect about termination codons? A. They are also called nonsense codons. B. They are the location where the bond between the final tRNA and the polypeptide is broken. C. They include AUG. D. They are UAA, UAG, and UGA. E. They do not have corresponding tRNA. ASM Objective: 04.01 Genetic variations can impact microbial functions (e.g., in biofilm formation, pathogenicity and drug resistance). ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 09.10 Define the terms codon and anticodon and list the four known start and stop codons. Section: 09.02 Topic: Protein Synthesis 43. Which of the following is not associated with a bacterial ribosome? A. It is a 70s holoenzyme. I. It has a peptide (P) site. J. It has an exit site. D. Its small subunit provides the enzymes for making peptide bonds. 61. It has an amino acid (A) site. ASM Objective: 04.01 Genetic variations can impact microbial functions (e.g., in biofilm formation, pathogenicity and drug resistance). ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 09.12 Indicate how eukaryotic transcription and translation differ from these processes in bacteria and archaea. Section: 09.02 Topic: Protein Synthesis 44. A sequence of bases within a gene that does not code for protein is called a/n _______. 59.promoter 60.operator 61.operon 62.exon 63. intron ASM Objective: 04.01 Genetic variations can impact microbial functions (e.g., in biofilm formation, pathogenicity and drug resistance). ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 09.12 Indicate how eukaryotic transcription and translation differ from these processes in bacteria and archaea. Section: 09.02 Topic: Protein Synthesis 63. Split genes A. are common in bacteria and eukaryotes. B. only have exons initially transcribed to mRNA. C. have introns located only at the beginning and end of a coding region. D. are acted upon by spliceosomes to excise introns and then join exons. ASM Objective: 04.01 Genetic variations can impact microbial functions (e.g., in biofilm formation, pathogenicity and drug resistance). ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 09.12 Indicate how eukaryotic transcription and translation differ from these processes in bacteria and archaea. Section: 09.02 Topic: Protein Synthesis J. Which is incorrect about inducible operons? A. They have genes turned off by a buildup of end product. B. They are often for use in catabolic pathways. 62. They are normally turned off. 63. They are turned on by the substrate of the enzyme. 64. They include the lac operon. ASM Objective: 04.03 The regulation of gene expression is influenced by external and internal molecular cues and/or signals. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 09.14 Define the term operon and explain one advantage it provides to a bacterial cell. Learning Outcome: 09.15 Differentiate between repressible and inducible operons and provide an example of each. Section: 09.03 Topic: Gene Regulation 47. The operon segment composed of the gene that codes for a protein repressor is called the ________. 63.operator 64. structural locus 65. regulator 66.promoter ASM Objective: 04.03 The regulation of gene expression is influenced by external and internal molecular cues and/or signals. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 09.14 Define the term operon and explain one advantage it provides to a bacterial cell. Section: 09.03 Topic: Gene Regulation 64. Synthesis of an inducible enzyme requires A. repressor alone bound to operator. B. substrate bound to repressor. C. substrate bound to promoter. D. corepressor and repressor binding to operator. ASM Objective: 04.03 The regulation of gene expression is influenced by external and internal molecular cues and/or signals. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 09.15 Differentiate between repressible and inducible operons and provide an example of each. Section: 09.03 Topic: Gene Regulation 70. Synthesis of a repressible enzyme is inhibited by repressor alone bound to operator. substrate bound to repressor. substrate bound to promoter. corepressor and repressor binding to operator. ASM Objective: 04.01 Genetic variations can impact microbial functions (e.g., in biofilm formation, pathogenicity and drug resistance). ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 09.15 Differentiate between repressible and inducible operons and provide an example of each. Section: 09.03 Topic: Gene Regulation K. Full induction of the lactose operon requires lactose present. lactose and glucose present. lactose present without glucose. lactose and arabinose present. ASM Objective: 04.03 The regulation of gene expression is influenced by external and internal molecular cues and/or signals. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Blooms Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 09.15 Differentiate between repressible and inducible operons and provide an example of each. Section: 09.03 Topic: Gene Regulation 74. The lactose repressor is transcribed with the structural lac genes. is activated by binding lactose. is inactivated by binding lactose. requires lactose for its transcription. ASM Objective: 04.03 The regulation of gene expression is influenced by external and internal molecular cues and/or signals. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 09.15 Differentiate between repressible and inducible operons and provide an example of each. Section: 09.03 Topic: Gene Regulation 71. Gene regulation can involve a protein repressor that blocks ______ from initiating transcription. DNA polymerase I DNA polymerase III RNA polymerase mRNA rRNA ASM Objective: 04.03 The regulation of gene expression is influenced by external and internal molecular cues and/or signals. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 09.14 Define the term operon and explain one advantage it provides to a bacterial cell. Learning Outcome: 09.15 Differentiate between repressible and inducible operons and provide an example of each. Section: 09.03 Topic: Gene Regulation 53. Repressible operons require that ______ binds to the repressor protein before it can bind to the operator. 68. the product 69.a cofactor 70.a coenzyme 71. the substrate 72. the reactant ASM Objective: 04.03 The regulation of gene expression is influenced by external and internal molecular cues and/or signals. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 09.15 Differentiate between repressible and inducible operons and provide an example of each. Section: 09.03 Topic: Gene Regulation 69. A mutation that changes a normal codon to a stop codon is called a ______ mutation. a. point b. silent c. back d. missense e. nonsense ASM Objective: 04.01 Genetic variations can impact microbial functions (e.g., in biofilm formation, pathogenicity and drug resistance). ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 09.20 Differentiate among frameshift, nonsense, silent, and missense mutations. Section: 09.05 Topic: Mutations 73. The most serious type of mutation is a ______ mutation. point silent frameshift back ASM Objective: 04.01 Genetic variations can impact microbial functions (e.g., in biofilm formation, pathogenicity and drug resistance). ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 09.20 Differentiate among frameshift, nonsense, silent, and missense mutations. Section: 09.05 Topic: Mutations 72. If the wild type DNA sequence reads THE CAT ATE THE BIG RAT, what type of mutation would change the sequence to THE CAT ATA ETH EBI GRA T? A. Missense B. Nonsense C. Insertion D. Deletion E. Silent ASM Objective: 04.01 Genetic variations can impact microbial functions (e.g., in biofilm formation, pathogenicity and drug resistance). ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Blooms Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 09.20 Differentiate among frameshift, nonsense, silent, and missense mutations. Section: 09.05 Topic: Mutations 72. If the wild type DNA sequence reads THE CAT ATE THE BIG RAT, what type of mutation would change the sequence to THE CAT ATE THE BAG RAT? A. Point B. Nonsense C. Insertion D. Deletion E. Silent ASM Objective: 04.01 Genetic variations can impact microbial functions (e.g., in biofilm formation, pathogenicity and drug resistance). ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Blooms Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 09.20 Differentiate among frameshift, nonsense, silent, and missense mutations. Section: 09.05 Topic: Mutations 73. If the wild type DNA sequence reads THE CAT ATE THE BIG RAT, what type of mutation would change the sequence to THE CAT ATE (stop)? A. Missense B. Nonsense C. Insertion D. Deletion E. Silent ASM Objective: 04.01 Genetic variations can impact microbial functions (e.g., in biofilm formation, pathogenicity and drug resistance). ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Blooms Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 09.20 Differentiate among frameshift, nonsense, silent, and missense mutations. Section: 09.05 Topic: Mutations 79. A frameshift is caused by ______ mutations. missense and insertion missense and nonsense nonsense and deletion deletion and insertion insertion and nonsense ASM Objective: 04.01 Genetic variations can impact microbial functions (e.g., in biofilm formation, pathogenicity and drug resistance). ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 09.20 Differentiate among frameshift, nonsense, silent, and missense mutations. Section: 09.05 Topic: Mutations 79. What type of mutation alters the base but not the amino acid being coded for? A. Silent B. Back C. Point D. Nonsense E. Missense ASM Objective: 04.01 Genetic variations can impact microbial functions (e.g., in biofilm formation, pathogenicity and drug resistance). ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Learning Outcome: 09.20 Differentiate among frameshift, nonsense, silent, and missense mutations. Section: 09.05 Topic: Mutations 76. A screening system called the _______ test is used for detecting chemicals with carcinogenic potential. A. Koch B. Ames C. mutation D. cancer E. Iowa ASM Objective: 04.01 Genetic variations can impact microbial functions (e.g., in biofilm formation, pathogenicity and drug resistance). ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 09.19 Define the term mutation and discuss one positive and one negative example of it in microorganisms. Section: 09.05 Topic: Mutations 77. The process in which mutations are removed and the correct bases added is called ________. A. transduction B. excision repair C. frameshift D. back-mutation E. transformation ASM Objective: 04.01 Genetic variations can impact microbial functions (e.g., in biofilm formation, pathogenicity and drug resistance). ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 09.19 Define the term mutation and discuss one positive and one negative example of it in microorganisms. Section: 09.05 Topic: Mutations 78. Bacterial conjugation involves A. a bacteriophage carrying donor DNA to the recipient cell. B. a donor cell with a plasmid that synthesizes a pilus. C. naked DNA fragments from a lysed donor cell taken up by a recipient cell. D. new progeny cells with genes from two parent bacterial cells. ASM Objective: 04.01 Genetic variations can impact microbial functions (e.g., in biofilm formation, pathogenicity and drug resistance). ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 09.18 Describe three forms of horizontal gene transfer used in bacteria. Section: 09.04 Topic: Genetic Recombination in Bacteria 79. Which cell can transfer the most DNA? A. F + cell B. F-cell C. Hfr cell D. R cell E. B cell ASM Objective: 04.01 Genetic variations can impact microbial functions (e.g., in biofilm formation, pathogenicity and drug resistance). ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 09.18 Describe three forms of horizontal gene transfer used in bacteria. Section: 09.04 Topic: Genetic Recombination in Bacteria 80. Which of the following is not a type of bacterial DNA recombination? A. Transformation B. Conjugation C. Mitosis D. Transduction ASM Objective: 04.01 Genetic variations can impact microbial functions (e.g., in biofilm formation, pathogenicity and drug resistance). ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 09.18 Describe three forms of horizontal gene transfer used in bacteria. Section: 09.04 Topic: Genetic Recombination in Bacteria 80. Which of the following is not true of conjugation? A. Involves direct contact between cells B. Transfers genes for drug resistance C. Transfers genes for enzymes and adherence molecules D. Involves the action of bacteriophage E. The donor retains a copy of the transferred genes ASM Objective: 04.01 Genetic variations can impact microbial functions (e.g., in biofilm formation, pathogenicity and drug resistance). ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 09.18 Describe three forms of horizontal gene transfer used in bacteria. Section: 09.04 Topic: Genetic Recombination in Bacteria 81. Hfr transfer involves all of the following except A. gene integration into the bacterial chromosome. B. independent plasmid transfer. C. F factor is part of the F+ donor chromosome. D. high frequency transfer. E. a pilus connection between F+ and F- cells. ASM Objective: 04.01 Genetic variations can impact microbial functions (e.g., in biofilm formation, pathogenicity and drug resistance). ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Learning Outcome: 09.18 Describe three forms of horizontal gene transfer used in bacteria. Section: 09.04 Topic: Genetic Recombination in Bacteria 68. The transfer of DNA fragments from a dead cell to a live, competent recipient cell that results in a changed recipient cell is termed ________. 82. transduction 83. conjugation 84. transformation 85. transmission 86. mitosis ASM Objective: 04.01 Genetic variations can impact microbial functions (e.g., in biofilm formation, pathogenicity and drug resistance). ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Learning Outcome: 09.18 Describe three forms of horizontal gene transfer used in bacteria. Section: 09.04 Topic: Genetic Recombination in Bacteria 69. The development of virulent, toxin-producing bacterial strains due to the presence of a temperate phage can occur through the process of ________. 86.bacterial conjugation 87. transformation 88.generalized transduction 89. specialized transduction ASM Objective: 04.01 Genetic variations can impact microbial functions (e.g., in biofilm formation, pathogenicity and drug resistance). ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 09.18 Describe three forms of horizontal gene transfer used in bacteria. Section: 09.04 Topic: Genetic Recombination in Bacteria 85. A bacteriophage transfers a random fragment of DNA of the previous host to the current host. This is an example of A. conjugation. B. generalized transduction. C. specialized transduction. D. the creation of an Hfr cell. ASM Objective: 04.01 Genetic variations can impact microbial functions (e.g., in biofilm formation, pathogenicity and drug resistance). ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 09.18 Describe three forms of horizontal gene transfer used in bacteria. Section: 09.04 Topic: Genetic Recombination in Bacteria 85. The jumping of a gene from one location to another is done by ________. conjugation transposons transformation transduction transmission ASM Objective: 04.01 Genetic variations can impact microbial functions (e.g., in biofilm formation, pathogenicity and drug resistance). ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 09.17 Explain the defining characteristics of a recombinant organism. Section: 09.04 Topic: Genetic Recombination in Bacteria 88. Which of the following is not true of transposons? A. They can change pigmentation. B. They can replace damaged DNA. C. They can transfer drug resistance. D. They can change the genome. E. They are always part of plasmids. ASM Objective: 04.01 Genetic variations can impact microbial functions (e.g., in biofilm formation, pathogenicity and drug resistance). ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 09.17 Explain the defining characteristics of a recombinant organism. Section: 09.04 Topic: Genetic Recombination in Bacteria H. Which of the following additions have been made to principles of the central dogma of biology? DNA information cannot be converted into RNA information. Protein information can be converted into DNA information. RNA can be used to regulate gene function. DNA codes for proteins. ASM Objective: 04.02 Although the central dogma is universal in all cells, the processes of replication, transcription, and translation differ in Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukaryotes. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 09.06 Explain how the classical view of the “central dogma” has been changed by recent science. Section: 09.02 Topic: Protein Synthesis 74. In Griffith's experiments with Streptococcus pneumoniae, rough nonencapsulated streptococci were converted into smooth encapsulated streptococci in the presence of the heat-killed smooth encapsulated streptococci. Which microbial process had Griffith identified? 88. Transduction 89. Conjugation 90. Transformation 91. Cloning ASM Objective: 04.01 Genetic variations can impact microbial functions (e.g., in biofilm formation, pathogenicity and drug resistance). ASM Objective: 04.05 Cell genomes can be manipulated to alter cell function. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 09.18 Describe three forms of horizontal gene transfer used in bacteria. Section: 09.04 Topic: Genetic Recombination in Bacteria 89. Of the following list, which antibiotics affect protein synthesis? A. Penicillin B. Tetracycline C. Chloramphenicol D. Ciprofloxacin E. Both tetracycline and chloramphenicol are correct. ASM Objective: 04.01 Genetic variations can impact microbial functions (e.g., in biofilm formation, pathogenicity and drug resistance). ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 09.16 List several antibiotic drugs and their targets within the transcription and translation machinery. Section: 09.03 Topic: Gene Regulation True / False Questions I. The smallest unit of heredity is a chromosome. FALSE ASM Objective: 04.01 Genetic variations can impact microbial functions (e.g., in biofilm formation, pathogenicity and drug resistance). ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 09.01 Define the terms genome and gene. Section: 09.01 Topic: Nucleic Acid Structure/Function J. DNA polymerase can only add new nucleotides to the 3'DNA end of the template. TRUE ASM Objective: 04.01 Genetic variations can impact microbial functions (e.g., in biofilm formation, pathogenicity and drug resistance). ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 09.04 Summarize the steps of bacterial DNA replication and the enzymes used in this process. Section: 09.02 Topic: Protein Synthesis 90. DNA replication proceeds in one direction around the bacterial chromosome. FALSE ASM Objective: 04.01 Genetic variations can impact microbial functions (e.g., in biofilm formation, pathogenicity and drug resistance). ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 09.04 Summarize the steps of bacterial DNA replication and the enzymes used in this process. Section: 09.01 Topic: DNA Replication 79. Transcription occurs within the nucleus or at the nucleoid. TRUE ASM Objective: 04.01 Genetic variations can impact microbial functions (e.g., in biofilm formation, pathogenicity and drug resistance). ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 09.08 Illustrate the steps of transcription, noting the key elements and the direction of mRNA synthesis. Section: 09.02 Topic: Protein Synthesis 91. In bacteria, initiator tRNA carries formyl methionine. TRUE ASM Objective: 04.01 Genetic variations can impact microbial functions (e.g., in biofilm formation, pathogenicity and drug resistance). Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 09.10 Define the terms codon and anticodon and list the four known start and stop codons. Learning Outcome: 09.11 Identify the locations of the promoter, the start codon, and the A and P sites during translation. Learning Outcome: 09.12 Indicate how eukaryotic transcription and translation differ from these processes in bacteria and archaea. Section: 09.02 Topic: Protein Synthesis 94. Introns have no detectable functions. FALSE ASM Objective: 04.01 Genetic variations can impact microbial functions (e.g., in biofilm formation, pathogenicity and drug resistance). ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 09.12 Indicate how eukaryotic transcription and translation differ from these processes in bacteria and archaea. Section: 09.02 Topic: Protein Synthesis 92. Excised introns form structures called lariats. TRUE ASM Objective: 04.01 Genetic variations can impact microbial functions (e.g., in biofilm formation, pathogenicity and drug resistance). Blooms Level: 1. Remember Blooms Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 09.12 Indicate how eukaryotic transcription and translation differ from these processes in bacteria and archaea. Section: 09.02 Topic: Protein Synthesis 83. Lactose is a corepressor in the lac operon. FALSE ASM Objective: 04.03 The regulation of gene expression is influenced by external and internal molecular cues and/or signals. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 09.15 Differentiate between repressible and inducible operons and provide an example of each. Section: 09.03 Topic: Gene Regulation 95. Repressible operons are normally turned on in the cell. TRUE ASM Objective: 04.03 The regulation of gene expression is influenced by external and internal molecular cues and/or signals. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 09.15 Differentiate between repressible and inducible operons and provide an example of each. Section: 09.04 Topic: Gene Regulation 94. Induced mutations are initiated by errors in DNA replication. FALSE ASM Objective: 04.01 Genetic variations can impact microbial functions (e.g., in biofilm formation, pathogenicity and drug resistance). ASM Objective: 04.05 Cell genomes can be manipulated to alter cell function. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 09.19 Define the term mutation and discuss one positive and one negative example of it in microorganisms. Section: 09.05 Topic: Mutations 95. DNA photolyase, in the presence of visible light, can repair DNA damage due to ultraviolet radiation. TRUE ASM Objective: 04.01 Genetic variations can impact microbial functions (e.g., in biofilm formation, pathogenicity and drug resistance). ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 09.19 Define the term mutation and discuss one positive and one negative example of it in microorganisms. Section: 09.05 Topic: Mutations 96. All mutations are not beneficial to the cell. FALSE ASM Objective: 04.01 Genetic variations can impact microbial functions (e.g., in biofilm formation, pathogenicity and drug resistance). ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 09.19 Define the term mutation and discuss one positive and one negative example of it in microorganisms. Section: 09.05 Topic: Mutations Multiple Choice Questions 97. An unidentified cell was found to contain introns and exons. It also expresses DNA polymerase and RNA polymerase. Although it exhibits a promoter region, it has no operons. You conclude that this cell A. is eukaryotic. B. is prokaryotic. C. is either a prokaryotic or eukaryotic cell. D. is actually a virus. ASM Objective: 04.02 Although the central dogma is universal in all cells, the processes of replication, transcription, and translation differ in Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukaryotes. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Blooms Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 09.12 Indicate how eukaryotic transcription and translation differ from these processes in bacteria and archaea. Section: 09.02 Topic: DNA Replication Topic: Protein Synthesis 77. Looking at your results of the Ames test using bacteriological agar medium plates lacking the amino acid histidine, you find that there are many colonies growing on the agar. How do you interpret this result? A. The bacterium has turned its operon genes on, producing proteins necessary for growth. B. The chemical being tested is mutagenic. C. The bacterium does not have any plasmids, so it cannot grow on the medium. D. The drug being tested has no inhibitory effect on the bacterium; therefore, it is not a good antibiotic to give for treatment of disease. ASM Objective: 04.01 Genetic variations can impact microbial functions (e.g., in biofilm formation, pathogenicity and drug resistance). ASM Objective: 04.03 The regulation of gene expression is influenced by external and internal molecular cues and/or signals. Blooms Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 09.19 Define the term mutation and discuss one positive and one negative example of it in microorganisms. Section: 09.05 Topic: Mutations 90. A mutation has occurred during DNA replication while the cell was preparing to divide. As a result of this, the codon ACU of mRNA has now become ACC. Interestingly, there is no change to the protein being made. Why not? A. This is a silent mutation. B. The original amino acid isoleucine was changed to leucine, but they are the same variation of amino acid so no change to the protein. C. The mutation was fixed, and even though the codon is now ACC the correct amino acid is put into place for the normal protein. D. This is not a mutation that causes a big change, so there is no change to the protein being made. ASM Objective: 04.01 Genetic variations can impact microbial functions (e.g., in biofilm formation, pathogenicity and drug resistance). ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Blooms Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 09.20 Differentiate among frameshift, nonsense, silent, and missense mutations. Section: 09.05 Topic: Mutations True / False Questions 91. A bacterial cell has replicated its plasmid, and when this cell divides into 2 daughter cells, each cell receives one copy of the plasmid. This is an example of horizontal gene transfer. FALSE ASM Objective: 04.01 Genetic variations can impact microbial functions (e.g., in biofilm formation, pathogenicity and drug resistance). ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 09.18 Describe three forms of horizontal gene transfer used in bacteria. Section: 09.04 Topic: Genetic Recombination in Bacteria Multiple Choice Questions 92. You have taken E. coli strain A which has its own plasmids, and mixed it with E. coli B strain without plasmids. E. coli B cells now have plasmids but, in addition, they also carry some genes from E. coli A strain. What has happened is A. the E. coli B cells have become mutants of the original culture. B. vertical transmission of DNA has occurred. C. an example of transformation. D. the cells of E. coli A were Hfr cells. ASM Objective: 04.01 Genetic variations can impact microbial functions (e.g., in biofilm formation, pathogenicity and drug resistance). ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Blooms Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 09.18 Describe three forms of horizontal gene transfer used in bacteria. Section: 09.04 Topic: Genetic Recombination in Bacteria 79. The fundamental difference between an organism's genotype and its phenotype is that A.the phenotype refers to all of the genetic material in the organism, whereas the genotype represents only the genetic material that is expressed into proteins. B. the genotype refers to the organism's genes and the phenotype refers to the non-coding segments of DNA. C. the genotype refers to eukaryotic genes that contain both introns and exons, whereas phenotype refers to bacterial DNA that has only exons. D.the genotype refers to all of the genetic material in the organism, whereas the phenotype represents only the genetic material that is expressed into proteins. ASM Objective: 04.02 Although the central dogma is universal in all cells, the processes of replication, transcription, and translation differ in Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukaryotes. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Blooms Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 09.02 Differentiate between genotype and phenotype. Section: 09.01 Topic: Nucleic Acid Structure/Function 83. The mechanism of DNA synthesis differs between the two new daughter strands during replication. This is due to the fact that A. both RNA primers attach to the 3'end of the template strands, which are at opposite ends from each other. B. both daughter strands can't extend toward the replication fork because there would not be room for two DNA polymerase enzymes. C. one RNA primer attaches to the 5'end of the parent strand and the other primer to the 3'end. D. the DNA strands run antiparallel to each other and the DNA polymerase can only add nucleotides to the 3' end of the growing strand. ASM Objective: 04.02 Although the central dogma is universal in all cells, the processes of replication, transcription, and translation differ in Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukaryotes. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Blooms Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 09.05 Compare and contrast the synthesis of leading and lagging strands during DNA replication. Section: 09.01 Topic: DNA Replication 81. DNA polymerase can catalyze a dehydration synthesis reaction only at the 3'carbon of the daughter strand of DNA. This means that A. the antiparallel nature of the parent molecules determine that the leading strand must be grown in away from the fork and the lagging strand is synthesized continuously toward the fork. fragments away from the fork and the lagging strand is synthesized continuously toward the fork. the leading and lagging strands extend in the 3'- 5'direction toward the replication fork as the nucleotide bases are exposed. Okazaki fragments extend toward the replication fork as the parent strands are unzipped by helicase. since the strands are antiparallel, one strand will grow toward the fork as it opens, and the other strand will grow in fragments away from the fork. ASM Objective: 04.02 Although the central dogma is universal in all cells, the processes of replication, transcription, and translation differ in Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukaryotes. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Blooms Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 09.05 Compare and contrast the synthesis of leading and lagging strands during DNA replication. Section: 09.01 Topic: DNA Replication 82. In order for protein synthesis to begin, which of the following statements reflects the correct sequence of events? A. The AUG codon on mRNA base pairs with the UAC anticodon on tRNA allowing the small and large ribosomal subunits to join the complex. B. Translation begins when the ribosome translocates from the A site to the P site on the mRNA C. The 5'end of the mRNA binds to the small ribosomal subunit, and the large subunit joins, creating the P and A sites where reactions between codons on the mRNA and anticodons on tRNA are stabilized. D. The 3'end of the mRNA binds to the small ribosomal subunit and the AUG anticodon on the tRNA base pairs with the UAC codon on the mRNA, allowing the large ribosomal subunit to attach. ASM Objective: 04.02 Although the central dogma is universal in all cells, the processes of replication, transcription, and translation differ in Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukaryotes. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Blooms Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 09.11 Identify the locations of the promoter, the start codon, and the A and P sites during translation. Section: 09.02 Topic: Protein Synthesis 83. The fields of genomics and proteomics differ in that A. the field of genomics involves the study of DNA replication and the field of proteomics refers to the study of transcription and translation. B. genomics refers to the study of an organism's entire genome, whereas proteomics is the study of expressed proteins. C. genomics is the study of an organism's chromosomes and the resulting proteins are studied in the field of proteomics. D. genomics is the study of an organism's chromosomes and proteomics is the study of transcription and translation of proteins. ASM Objective: 04.02 Although the central dogma is universal in all cells, the processes of replication, transcription, and translation differ in Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukaryotes. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 09.13 Explain the relationship between genomics and proteomics. Section: 09.02 Topic: Nucleic Acid Structure/Function 84. The field of genomics refers to A. the study of an organism's complete genome, including plasmid, mitochondrial, and chloroplast DNA. B. the study of chromosomal DNA. C. the study of an organism's plasmids. D. the study of cellular, but not viral, genomes. ASM Objective: 04.02 Although the central dogma is universal in all cells, the processes of replication, transcription, and translation differ in Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukaryotes. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Blooms Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 09.13 Explain the relationship between genomics and proteomics. Section: 09.02 Topic: Nucleic Acid Structure/Function True / False Questions F. Proteomics is the study of all proteins that are expressed by an organism, whereas genomics refers to the study of the organism's entire genome, not simply the protein-coding regions. TRUE ASM Objective: 04.02 Although the central dogma is universal in all cells, the processes of replication, transcription, and translation differ in Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukaryotes. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 09.13 Explain the relationship between genomics and proteomics. Section: 09.02 Topic: Nucleic Acid Structure/Function Multiple Choice Questions 86. The antibiotic rifamycin is selectively toxic in blocking protein synthesis in Mycobacterium tuberculosis because A. the drug binds to the initiator tRNA, preventing the formation of the protein synthesis initiation complex in the bacterial cell. B. it binds preferentially to bacterial RNA polymerase rather than the eukaryotic protein, effectively halting transcription in the pathogen but not the host. C. the antibiotic binds to the mRNA once synthesized, preventing it from participating in the initiation complex with the ribosome. D.bacterial ribosomes are 70s whereas host ribosome are 80s, thus the antibiotic binds to the M. tuberculosis ribosome but does not bind to the eukaryotic machinery. ASM Objective: 04.03 The regulation of gene expression is influenced by external and internal molecular cues and/or signals. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 09.16 List several antibiotic drugs and their targets within the transcription and translation machinery. Section: 09.03 Topic: Gene Regulation 87. Erythromcycin, a macrolide, inhibits protein synthesis A. by interfering with both the initiation and elongation stages of translation. B. by binding to the tRNA preventing peptide bond formation between amino acids. C. by preventing the formation of the initiation complex. D. by binding to the ribosome, preventing translocation due to interference with the attachment of mRNA. ASM Objective: 04.03 The regulation of gene expression is influenced by external and internal molecular cues and/or signals. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Blooms Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 09.16 List several antibiotic drugs and their targets within the transcription and translation machinery. Section: 09.03 Topic: Gene Regulation 88. Streptomycin, an aminoglycoside, inhibits protein synthesis A. by preventing the formation of the initiation complex. B. by binding to the tRNA preventing peptide bond formation between amino acids. C. by binding to the ribosome, preventing translocation due to interference with the attachment of mRNA. D. by interfering with both the initiation and elongation stages of translation. ASM Objective: 04.03 The regulation of gene expression is influenced by external and internal molecular cues and/or signals. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Blooms Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 09.16 List several antibiotic drugs and their targets within the transcription and translation machinery. Section: 09.03 Topic: Gene Regulation F. The term 'recombinant organism' refers to an organism that has genes passed down from the parent cell to the daughter cells during binary fission. genetically engineered cells, but not those that have new genes as a result of horizontal gene transfer. an organism that expresses proteins coded for by genes that originated in a different organism. an organism that has recombined its genes. ASM Objective: 04.01 Genetic variations can impact microbial functions (e.g., in biofilm formation, pathogenicity and drug resistance). ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 09.17 Explain the defining characteristics of a recombinant organism. Section: 09.04 Topic: Genetic Recombination in Bacteria True / False Questions 89. Recombinant organisms are those that have received new DNA in the form of a conjugated plasmid; genetically engineered cells are not considered recombinant. FALSE CH-10: Multiple Choice Questions 1. Any use of an organism's biochemical processes to create a product is referred to as ______. 33.genetic engineering 34.biotechnology 35. recombinant DNA 36.gel electrophoresis 37.gene probes ASM Objective: 04.05 Cell genomes can be manipulated to alter cell function. ASM Objective: 06.03 Humans utilize and harness microorganisms and their products. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 10.01 Provide examples of practical applications of modern genetic technologies. Section: 10.01 Topic: Basics of Genetic Engineering 2. The various techniques by which scientists manipulate DNA in the lab are termed ______. G. genetic engineering H. biotechnology I. recombinant DNA J. gel electrophoresis K. gene probes ASM Objective: 04.05 Cell genomes can be manipulated to alter cell function. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 10.01 Provide examples of practical applications of modern genetic technologies. Section: 10.01 Topic: Basics of Genetic Engineering 35. A technique that separates a readable pattern of DNA fragments is ______. A. genetic engineering B. biotechnology C. recombinant DNA D. gel electrophoresis E. gene probes ASM Objective: 04.05 Cell genomes can be manipulated to alter cell function. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 10.03 Describe how gel electrophoresis is used to analyze DNA. Section: 10.02 Topic: Genetic Analyses 36. DNA strands can be clipped crosswise at selected positions by using enzymes called ______. A. palindromes B. reverse transcriptases C. restriction endonucleases D. ligases E. DNA polymerases ASM Objective: 04.05 Cell genomes can be manipulated to alter cell function. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 10.02 Explain the role of restriction endonucleases in the process of genetic engineering. Section: 10.02 Topic: Basics of Genetic Engineering 5. Geneticists can create sequences of DNA from RNA using enzymes called ______. 38.palindromes 39. reverse transcriptases 40. restriction endonucleases 41. ligases 42. DNA polymerases ASM Objective: 04.05 Cell genomes can be manipulated to alter cell function. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 10.01 Provide examples of practical applications of modern genetic technologies. Section: 10.02 Topic: Recombinant DNA Technology L. EcoRI and HindIII are ______. palindromes reverse transcriptases restriction endonucleases ligases DNA polymerases ASM Objective: 04.05 Cell genomes can be manipulated to alter cell function. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 10.02 Explain the role of restriction endonucleases in the process of genetic engineering. Section: 10.02 Topic: Basics of Genetic Engineering Topic: Recombinant DNA Technology 39. Sequences of DNA that are identical when read from the 5'to 3'direction on one strand and the 3'to 5' direction on the other strand are ______. A. palindromes B. reverse transcriptases C. restriction endonucleases D. ligases E. DNA polymerases ASM Objective: 04.05 Cell genomes can be manipulated to alter cell function. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 10.02 Explain the role of restriction endonucleases in the process of genetic engineering. Section: 10.02 Topic: Basics of Genetic Engineering Topic: Recombinant DNA Technology 45. Analysis of DNA fragments in gel electrophoresis is based on A. larger fragments moving slowly and remaining closer to the wells. B. DNA having an overall negative charge and moving to the positive pole. C. DNA fragments being stained so that they can be seen. D. application of an electric current through the gel causing DNA fragments to migrate. 41. All of the choices are correct. ASM Objective: 04.05 Cell genomes can be manipulated to alter cell function. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 10.03 Describe how gel electrophoresis is used to analyze DNA. Section: 10.02 Topic: Recombinant DNA Technology 49. DNA strands can begin to separate at the temperature of ______. A. 37oC B. 42oC C. 60oC D. 90oC E. 100oC ASM Objective: 06.03 Humans utilize and harness microorganisms and their products. ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 10.04 List the steps in the polymerase chain reaction; discuss one disadvantage to this technique. Section: 10.02 Topic: Genetic Analyses 50. DNA fragments can be separated in gel electrophoresis because phosphate groups have a net negative charge. nitrogenous bases have a net negative charge. nitrogenous bases have a net positive charge. phosphate groups have a net positive charge. ASM Objective: 06.03 Humans utilize and harness microorganisms and their products. ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 10.03 Describe how gel electrophoresis is used to analyze DNA. Section: 10.02 Topic: Basics of Genetic Engineering Topic: Genetic Analyses 11. Restriction endonucleases recognize and clip DNA base sequences called ______. 58. codons 59.palindromes 60. introns 61.exons 62.genes ASM Objective: 06.03 Humans utilize and harness microorganisms and their products. ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 10.02 Explain the role of restriction endonucleases in the process of genetic engineering. Section: 10.02 Topic: Basics of Genetic Engineering Topic: Genetic Analyses 12. In the formation of recombinant DNA, what enzyme is needed to seal the sticky ends of genes into plasmids or chromosomes? 50. DNA polymerase I 51. DNA polymerase II 52. DNA helicase 53. DNA ligase 54. Primase ASM Objective: 06.03 Humans utilize and harness microorganisms and their products. ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 10.05 Describe how recombinant DNA is created; discuss its role in gene cloning. Section: 10.02 Topic: Basics of Genetic Engineering Topic: Genetic Analyses 55. Labeled, known, short stretches of DNA used to detect a specific sequence of nucleotides in a mixture are known as ______. A. genetic engineering B. biotechnology C. recombinant DNA D. gel electrophoresis E. gene probes ASM Objective: 06.03 Humans utilize and harness microorganisms and their products. ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 10.01 Provide examples of practical applications of modern genetic technologies. Section: 10.02 Topic: Genetic Analyses 54. Gene probes can be labeled for detection with reporter molecules such as _____. A. enzymes B. fluorescent dyes C. radioisotopes D. All of the choices above can be used. ASM Objective: 06.03 Humans utilize and harness microorganisms and their products. ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 10.01 Provide examples of practical applications of modern genetic technologies. Section: 10.02 Topic: Genetic Analyses 15. Fluorescent in situ hybridization (FISH) probes are applied to intact cells and observed microscopically for the presence and location of M. DNA. N. proteins. O. a specific genetic marker sequence. P. recombinant DNA. Q. RNA. ASM Objective: 06.03 Humans utilize and harness microorganisms and their products. ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 10.01 Provide examples of practical applications of modern genetic technologies. Section: 10.02 Topic: Genetic Analyses 54. Two different nucleic acids can _____ by annealing at their complementary sites. A. form a peptide bond B. covalently bond C. ligate D. hybridize ASM Objective: 06.03 Humans utilize and harness microorganisms and their products. ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 10.01 Provide examples of practical applications of modern genetic technologies. Section: 10.02 Topic: Genetic Analyses 17. Which of the following is not true of fluorescent in situ hybridization (FISH)? J. Probes can be applied to intact cells. K. Probes can locate genes on chromosomes. L. It can be used to identify unknown bacteria without culturing. M. It uses electrophoresis to separate the DNA. N. It can be used to detect RNA in cells. ASM Objective: 06.03 Humans utilize and harness microorganisms and their products. ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 10.01 Provide examples of practical applications of modern genetic technologies. Section: 10.02 Topic: Genetic Analyses 61. The size of DNA is often given in the number of _____ that it contains. A. genes B. codons C. base pairs D. proteins E. triplets ASM Objective: 06.03 Humans utilize and harness microorganisms and their products. ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 10.03 Describe how gel electrophoresis is used to analyze DNA. Section: 10.02 Topic: Genetic Analyses 58. Amplification of DNA is accomplished by ______. A. a Southern blot B. a Western blot C. DNA sequencing D. gene probes E. the polymerase chain reaction ASM Objective: 06.03 Humans utilize and harness microorganisms and their products. ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 10.04 List the steps in the polymerase chain reaction; discuss one disadvantage to this technique. Section: 10.02 Topic: Genetic Analyses 64. DNA polymerases used in PCR A. use an RNA template to make complementary DNA. B. must remain active at very cold temperatures. C. include Taq polymerases and Vent polymerase. D. are labeled with fluorescent dyes. ASM Objective: 06.03 Humans utilize and harness microorganisms and their products. ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 10.04 List the steps in the polymerase chain reaction; discuss one disadvantage to this technique. Section: 10.02 Topic: Genetic Analyses N. Which PCR step causes the denaturation of double-stranded DNA? Add DNA polymerase and nucleotides at 72° C. Cool DNA to between 50° C and 65° C. Add primers. Heat target DNA to 94° C. Repeat the cycle of heating and cooling. ASM Objective: 06.03 Humans utilize and harness microorganisms and their products. ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 10.04 List the steps in the polymerase chain reaction; discuss one disadvantage to this technique. Section: 10.02 Topic: Genetic Analyses 60. Which PCR step synthesizes complimentary DNA strands? A. Heat target DNA to 94° C. B. Add DNA polymerase and nucleotides at 72° C. C. Repeat the cycle of heating and cooling. D. Cool DNA to between 50° C and 65° C. E. Add primers. ASM Objective: 06.03 Humans utilize and harness microorganisms and their products. ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 10.04 List the steps in the polymerase chain reaction; discuss one disadvantage to this technique. Section: 10.02 Topic: Genetic Analyses 60. Thermococcus litoralis and Thermus aquaticus are thermophilic bacteria that are A. principal sources of restriction endonucleases. B. used as cloning vectors. C. genetically engineered bacteria. D. sources of heat-stable DNA polymerases. ASM Objective: 06.03 Humans utilize and harness microorganisms and their products. ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 10.04 List the steps in the polymerase chain reaction; discuss one disadvantage to this technique. Section: 10.02 Topic: Genetic Analyses 66. The primers in PCR are A. synthetic DNA oligonucleotides. B. reverse transcriptases. C. bacterial enzymes. D. DNA polymerases. E. short RNA strands. ASM Objective: 06.03 Humans utilize and harness microorganisms and their products. ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 10.04 List the steps in the polymerase chain reaction; discuss one disadvantage to this technique. Section: 10.02 Topic: Genetic Analyses 67. If you start with 3 double-stranded DNA fragments, after 4 cycles of PCR you will have ____ fragments. A. 12 B. 24 C. 27 D. 48 E. 81 ASM Objective: 06.03 Humans utilize and harness microorganisms and their products. ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Blooms Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 10.04 List the steps in the polymerase chain reaction; discuss one disadvantage to this technique. Section: 10.02 Topic: Genetic Analyses 26. Which of the following is a list of the materials required for PCR? A. Primers, Taq DNA polymerase, nucleotides B. Primers, Taq RNA polymerase, nucleotides C. Reverse transcriptase, Taq RNA polymerase, nucleotides D. Reverse transcriptase, Taq DNA polymerase, nucleotides ASM Objective: 06.03 Humans utilize and harness microorganisms and their products. ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 10.04 List the steps in the polymerase chain reaction; discuss one disadvantage to this technique. Section: 10.02 Topic: Genetic Analyses 27. The deliberate removal of genetic material from one organism and its subsequent transfer into the genome of another organism is a specific technique called ______. 63.genetic engineering 64.biotechnology C. recombinant DNA technology 67.gel electrophoresis 68.gene probe technology ASM Objective: 04.05 Cell genomes can be manipulated to alter cell function. ASM Objective: 06.03 Humans utilize and harness microorganisms and their products. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 10.05 Describe how recombinant DNA is created; discuss its role in gene cloning. Section: 10.02 Topic: Recombinant DNA Technology 66. Each of the following are features of a cloning host except A. quick generation time. B. minimal growth requirements. C. mapped genome. D. pathogenicity. E. transformable. ASM Objective: 06.03 Humans utilize and harness microorganisms and their products. ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 10.05 Describe how recombinant DNA is created; discuss its role in gene cloning. Section: 10.02 Topic: Recombinant DNA Technology 71. Each of the following are features of a cloning vector except A. origin of replication. B. reverse transcriptases. C. genetic markers used to screen for recombinants. 69. capacity for large inserts. E. multiple cloning sites. ASM Objective: 04.05 Cell genomes can be manipulated to alter cell function. ASM Objective: 06.03 Humans utilize and harness microorganisms and their products. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 10.05 Describe how recombinant DNA is created; discuss its role in gene cloning. Section: 10.02 Topic: Recombinant DNA Technology 70. Common vectors used to transfer a piece of DNA into a cloning host are plasmids. viruses. bacteriophages. artificial chromosomes. All of the choices are correct. ASM Objective: 06.03 Humans utilize and harness microorganisms and their products. ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 10.05 Describe how recombinant DNA is created; discuss its role in gene cloning. Section: 10.02 Topic: Recombinant DNA Technology 76. Genomic _____ are collections of isolated genes maintained in cloning hosts. A. DNA B. libraries C. clones D. digests E. books ASM Objective: 04.05 Cell genomes can be manipulated to alter cell function. ASM Objective: 06.03 Humans utilize and harness microorganisms and their products. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 10.05 Describe how recombinant DNA is created; discuss its role in gene cloning. Section: 10.02 Topic: Recombinant DNA Technology 72. Which of the following is not true of vectors? A. They are easy to manipulate. 73. They can detect RNA in cells. C. An origin of replication (ORI) is present. L. They contain a gene for drug resistance. M. They must accept DNA of desired size. ASM Objective: 04.05 Cell genomes can be manipulated to alter cell function. ASM Objective: 06.03 Humans utilize and harness microorganisms and their products. ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 10.05 Describe how recombinant DNA is created; discuss its role in gene cloning. Section: 10.02 Topic: Recombinant DNA Technology 33. Which of the following is the second step in gene mapping? 74. Target DNA removed from cells and isolated 75. Cloning host treated with calcium chloride and receives plasmid 76. Separate DNA fragments with gel electrophoresis 79. Desired protein is produced by cloning host 80. Gene is amplified by multiplication of cloning host ASM Objective: 06.03 Humans utilize and harness microorganisms and their products. ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 10.10 Outline in general terms the process of DNA sequencing. Section: 10.03 Topic: Genetic Analyses 77. Which step in gene mapping involves transformation? A. Target DNA removed from cells and isolated B. Cloning host receives plasmid 81. Target DNA and plasmid treated with the same restriction endonuclease 82. Desired protein is produced by cloning host 83. Gene is amplified by multiplication of cloning host ASM Objective: 04.05 Cell genomes can be manipulated to alter cell function. ASM Objective: 06.03 Humans utilize and harness microorganisms and their products. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 10.05 Describe how recombinant DNA is created; discuss its role in gene cloning. Section: 10.02 Topic: Recombinant DNA Technology M. Which step in gene mapping can occur even more rapidly by PCR? Target DNA removed from cells and isolated Cloning host treated with calcium chloride and receives plasmid Target DNA and plasmid treated with the same restriction endonuclease Desired protein is produced by cloning host Gene is amplified by multiplication of cloning host ASM Objective: 06.03 Humans utilize and harness microorganisms and their products. ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 10.04 List the steps in the polymerase chain reaction; discuss one disadvantage to this technique. Section: 10.02 Topic: Genetic Analyses 36. Making new genomes is called ______. L. bioengineering M. synthetic biology N. genetic engineering O. cloning P. recombinant DNA ASM Objective: 04.05 Cell genomes can be manipulated to alter cell function. ASM Objective: 06.03 Humans utilize and harness microorganisms and their products. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Learning Outcome: 10.01 Provide examples of practical applications of modern genetic technologies. Section: 10.03 Topic: Recombinant DNA Technology 79. The commercial product Frostban consists of a genetically altered bacterium which prevents ice crystals from forming on plants, thereby reducing freezing of plants and financial distress to the farmers as a result of freezing weather. This product contains a strain of ______. A. Escherichia coli B. Saccharomyces cerevisiae C. Thermus aquaticus D. Pseudomonas fluorescens E. Pseudomonas syringae ASM Objective: 04.05 Cell genomes can be manipulated to alter cell function. ASM Objective: 06.03 Humans utilize and harness microorganisms and their products. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 10.07 List examples of genetically modified bacteria, plants, and animals and a purpose for each. Section: 10.03 Topic: Recombinant DNA Technology 80. Recombinant strains of _____ are released to colonize plant roots to produce an insecticide to destroy invading insects. A. Pseudomonas syringae B. Saccharomyces cerevisiae C. Pseudomonas fluorescens D. Escherichia coli E. Thermus aquaticus ASM Objective: 04.05 Cell genomes can be manipulated to alter cell function. ASM Objective: 06.03 Humans utilize and harness microorganisms and their products. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 10.07 List examples of genetically modified bacteria, plants, and animals and a purpose for each. Section: 10.03 Topic: Recombinant DNA Technology 84. Transgenic animals can be engineered to become factories for manufacturing proteins. are often obtained from germline engineering. will pass the genes on to their offspring. commonly include mice. All of the choices are correct. ASM Objective: 04.05 Cell genomes can be manipulated to alter cell function. ASM Objective: 06.03 Humans utilize and harness microorganisms and their products. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 10.07 List examples of genetically modified bacteria, plants, and animals and a purpose for each. Section: 10.03 Topic: Recombinant DNA Technology 86. Transgenic organisms are ______. created in nature only microorganisms copyrighted patented ASM Objective: 04.05 Cell genomes can be manipulated to alter cell function. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 10.07 List examples of genetically modified bacteria, plants, and animals and a purpose for each. Section: 10.03 Topic: Recombinant DNA Technology 41. Transgenic animals are referred to as _____ modified organisms. O. chemically P. physically Q. naturally R. genetically ASM Objective: 04.05 Cell genomes can be manipulated to alter cell function. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 10.07 List examples of genetically modified bacteria, plants, and animals and a purpose for each. Section: 10.03 Topic: Recombinant DNA Technology 44. Genetically modified organisms include _____. A. bacteria B. viruses C. plants D. nonhuman animals E. All of the above have been genetically modified. ASM Objective: 04.05 Cell genomes can be manipulated to alter cell function. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 10.07 List examples of genetically modified bacteria, plants, and animals and a purpose for each. Section: 10.03 Topic: Recombinant DNA Technology 45. When patient tissues are transfected with viruses carrying a needed, normal human gene, the technique is called ______. A. cloning B. gene therapy C. antisense therapy D. DNA fingerprinting ASM Objective: 06.03 Humans utilize and harness microorganisms and their products. ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 10.08 Differentiate between somatic and germline gene therapy. Section: 10.04 Topic: Genetic Medicine 50. Which of the following is a promising treatment for stopping the expression of an unwanted gene? A. DNA fingerprinting B. Antisense therapy C. Gene therapy D. Cloning ASM Objective: 04.05 Cell genomes can be manipulated to alter cell function. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 10.09 Describe miRNAs and ways in which their discovery can impact human disease. Section: 10.04 Topic: Genetic Medicine 47. The first genetically engineered protein approved for human use was ______. A. human insulin B. hemophilia factor VIII C. human adrenaline D. human testosterone E. human growth hormone ASM Objective: 06.03 Humans utilize and harness microorganisms and their products. ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 10.06 Provide several examples of recombinant products that have contributed to human health. Section: 10.03 Topic: Genetic Medicine Topic: Recombinant DNA Technology 46. Humans display how much DNA similarity with mice? 51.50% 52.60% 53.70% 54.80% 55.90% ASM Objective: 04.02 Although the central dogma is universal in all cells, the processes of replication, transcription, and translation differ in Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukaryotes. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 10.10 Outline in general terms the process of DNA sequencing. Section: 10.04 Topic: Genetic Analyses 50. What type of DNA map is most detailed? A. Linkage B. Sequence C. Physical D. Geographical E. Chromosomal ASM Objective: 04.02 Although the central dogma is universal in all cells, the processes of replication, transcription, and translation differ in Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukaryotes. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 10.10 Outline in general terms the process of DNA sequencing. Section: 10.04 Topic: Genetic Analyses 53. What type of DNA map gives locations and sizes of DNA sections? A. Linkage B. Sequence C. Physical D. Geographical E. Chromosomal ASM Objective: 04.02 Although the central dogma is universal in all cells, the processes of replication, transcription, and translation differ in Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukaryotes. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 10.10 Outline in general terms the process of DNA sequencing. Section: 10.04 Topic: Genetic Analyses 51. The study of genomes of a particular community is called ______. A. metabolomics B. proteomics C. genomology D. genomics E. metagenomics ASM Objective: 04.03 The regulation of gene expression is influenced by external and internal molecular cues and/or signals. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 10.01 Provide examples of practical applications of modern genetic technologies. Section: 10.01 Topic: Genetic Analyses M. Which of the following techniques is mismatched with its use in DNA fingerprinting? A. PCR amplification to get more copies of DNA N. Hybridization probes to digest the DNA sample C. Electrophoresis to separate DNA fragments D. Southern blot for a visual record of DNA fragments 56. Restriction endonucleases to cut DNA ASM Objective: 06.03 Humans utilize and harness microorganisms and their products. ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 10.11 Outline the general steps in DNA profiling. Section: 10.05 Topic: Genetic Analyses 56. Of the following choices, which could be used in the treatment of a patient in order to determine the patient's cancer subtype? A. Western Blot analysis B. PCR C. Microarray analysis D. Transformation 64. Oryza sativa ASM Objective: 06.03 Humans utilize and harness microorganisms and their products. ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 10.13 Describe the utility of DNA microarray technology. Section: 10.05 Topic: Genetic Analyses True / False Questions 65. Restriction endonucleases are obtained from various species of bacteria. TRUE ASM Objective: 06.03 Humans utilize and harness microorganisms and their products. ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 10.02 Explain the role of restriction endonucleases in the process of genetic engineering. Section: 10.02 Topic: Basics of Genetic Engineering K. When DNA is heated, the two strands will separate. TRUE ASM Objective: 04.02 Although the central dogma is universal in all cells, the processes of replication, transcription, and translation differ in Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukaryotes. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 10.04 List the steps in the polymerase chain reaction; discuss one disadvantage to this technique. Section: 10.02 Topic: Basics of Genetic Engineering 62. Reverse transcriptase is used to make cDNA from an RNA template. TRUE ASM Objective: 06.03 Humans utilize and harness microorganisms and their products. ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 10.01 Provide examples of practical applications of modern genetic technologies. Section: 10.02 Topic: Basics of Genetic Engineering 64. After three replication cycles in PCR, there will be a total of three double-stranded DNA molecules. FALSE ASM Objective: 06.03 Humans utilize and harness microorganisms and their products. ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 10.04 List the steps in the polymerase chain reaction; discuss one disadvantage to this technique. Section: 10.02 Topic: Genetic Analyses 64. Viruses are often used as cloning hosts in recombinant DNA methods. FALSE ASM Objective: 06.03 Humans utilize and harness microorganisms and their products. ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 10.05 Describe how recombinant DNA is created; discuss its role in gene cloning. Section: 10.02 Topic: Recombinant DNA Technology K. Vectors often contain a gene conferring drug resistance to their cloning host, in order to detect cells harboring the plasmid. TRUE ASM Objective: 06.03 Humans utilize and harness microorganisms and their products. ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 10.05 Describe how recombinant DNA is created; discuss its role in gene cloning. Section: 10.02 Topic: Recombinant DNA Technology 65. E. coli is the best host for cloning because it possesses the mechanisms for processing and modifying proteins. TRUE ASM Objective: 06.03 Humans utilize and harness microorganisms and their products. ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 10.07 List examples of genetically modified bacteria, plants, and animals and a purpose for each. Section: 10.03 Topic: Recombinant DNA Technology 67. An example of gene therapy is the insertion of the gene for human growth hormone into E. coli cells. FALSE ASM Objective: 06.03 Humans utilize and harness microorganisms and their products. ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 10.08 Differentiate between somatic and germline gene therapy. Section: 10.03 Topic: Recombinant DNA Technology 65. Transformation and transduction are methods used to introduce DNA into host cells. TRUE ASM Objective: 06.03 Humans utilize and harness microorganisms and their products. ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 10.05 Describe how recombinant DNA is created; discuss its role in gene cloning. Section: 10.03 Topic: Recombinant DNA Technology 71. The process of introducing a needed, normal gene into human cells is called DNA mapping. FALSE ASM Objective: 06.03 Humans utilize and harness microorganisms and their products. ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 10.08 Differentiate between somatic and germline gene therapy. Section: 10.05 Topic: Genetic Analyses L. It is now possible to very quickly map the genome of an organism or virus. TRUE ASM Objective: 06.03 Humans utilize and harness microorganisms and their products. ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 10.10 Outline in general terms the process of DNA sequencing. Section: 10.05 Topic: Genetic Analyses 75. It is possible to identify mRNA molecules using fluorescently labeled cDNA. TRUE ASM Objective: 06.03 Humans utilize and harness microorganisms and their products. ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 10.13 Describe the utility of DNA microarray technology. Section: 10.05 Topic: Genetic Analyses 72. Identification of unique DNA fingerprints relies on the presence of single nucleotide polymorphisms among samples. TRUE ASM Objective: 06.03 Humans utilize and harness microorganisms and their products. ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 10.12 Discuss the significance of single nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs) in DNA analysis. Section: 10.05 Topic: Genetic Analyses Multiple Choice Questions 65. What is the evolutionary advantage of bacteria producing restriction endonucleases? A. Bacteria use these enzymes to attack other bacteria and destroy their DNA. B. They make these enzymes for humans to use in manipulating DNA. C. These enzymes are a defensive measure of bacteria to defend themselves against invading DNA of bacteriophages. D. Bacteria use these enzymes to repair their own mistakes made during DNA replication. ASM Objective: 06.03 Humans utilize and harness microorganisms and their products. ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Blooms Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 10.02 Explain the role of restriction endonucleases in the process of genetic engineering. Section: 10.01 Topic: Basics of Genetic Engineering 66. You want to identify Mycobacterium tuberculosis in a patient sputum sample. Which procedure would be most useful in this case? A. Whole genome sequencing B. Polymerase chain reaction C. DNA probe analysis D. Microarray analysis ASM Objective: 06.03 Humans utilize and harness microorganisms and their products. ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Blooms Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 10.01 Provide examples of practical applications of modern genetic technologies. Section: 10.02 Topic: Genetic Analyses 67. Why is an enzyme from a thermophilic bacterium used in PCR? A. The enzyme makes DNA that is more similar to human DNA. B. This thermohile's enzyme will synthesize DNA. C. DNA is replicated at a high temperature that denatures most proteins. D. It is cheaper to obtain from live microorganisms than producing the enzyme in a lab. ASM Objective: 06.03 Humans utilize and harness microorganisms and their products. ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Blooms Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 10.04 List the steps in the polymerase chain reaction; discuss one disadvantage to this technique. Section: 10.02 Topic: Genetic Analyses 68. In choosing the vector used to carry human genes into a host cell, which of the following should be the important consideration? A. How much donor DNA can be carried on the vector B. What kind of plasmid it is C. Whether the vector comes from a bacterium or a virus D. Whether the vector contains RNA or DNA ASM Objective: 06.03 Humans utilize and harness microorganisms and their products. ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Blooms Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 10.05 Describe how recombinant DNA is created; discuss its role in gene cloning. Section: 10.02 Topic: Recombinant DNA Technology 69. Your infant has been diagnosed with severe combined immunodeficiency disease (SCID). Your doctor suggests which treatment as a possible cure for the disease? Genome mapping Reverse transcription C. Gene therapy D. Microarrays ASM Objective: 06.03 Humans utilize and harness microorganisms and their products. ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Blooms Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 10.08 Differentiate between somatic and germline gene therapy. Section: 10.04 Topic: Genetic Medicine 73. You have made a specific DNA probe that will bind to a key sequence on the DNA of Neisseria gonorrhoeae, allowing your company to market a gonorrhea test kit that can be used to identify the bacterium in genital tract specimens. However, upon testing it out against a known Neisseria gonorrhoeae culture, you find that it does not work. Which of the following is a possible explanation for this negative result? You forgot to label the probe sequence with a reporter molecule. You forgot to add the mRNA to the DNA probe sample. You forgot to digest the probe with restriction endonucleases. You forgot to incubate the test at the 75oC temperature required for hybridization. ASM Objective: 06.03 Humans utilize and harness microorganisms and their products. ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Blooms Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 10.01 Provide examples of practical applications of modern genetic technologies. Section: 10.02 Topic: Genetic Analyses Topic: Genetic Medicine 71. The enzyme required to attach the sticky ends of DNA and used when splicing DNA fragments into other DNA is ______. A. endonuclease B. ligase C. reverse transcriptase D. helicase ASM Objective: 06.03 Humans utilize and harness microorganisms and their products. ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 10.05 Describe how recombinant DNA is created; discuss its role in gene cloning. Section: 10.01 Topic: Basics of Genetic Engineering 70. Before the advent of biotechnology, diabetics would use insulin harvested from cows. Now they receive human insulin produced through ______. gel electrophoresis gene therapy PCR recombinant DNA technology ASM Objective: 04.05 Cell genomes can be manipulated to alter cell function. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Blooms Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 10.06 Provide several examples of recombinant products that have contributed to human health. Section: 10.03 Topic: Recombinant DNA Technology 74. Which of the following recombinant DNA technology products is mismatched? Erythropoietin - stimulates erythrocyte production in bone marrow Factor VIII - a protein necessary for the coagulation cascade Interferons - stimulate antiviral protein production Tissue plasminogen activating factor - stimulates blood clotting ASM Objective: 04.05 Cell genomes can be manipulated to alter cell function. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Blooms Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 10.06 Provide several examples of recombinant products that have contributed to human health. Section: 10.03 Topic: Recombinant DNA Technology 73. The difference between somatic cell gene therapy and germline therapy is that A. germline therapy overcomes a protein malfunction in specific tissues but is not repaired in the entire organism and cannot be passed on to offspring. B. somatic cell gene therapy is introduced into the egg, sperm or developing embryo, whereas germline therapy introduces a new gene into a mature tissue. C.somatic cell gene therapy overcomes a protein malfunction in specific tissues but is not repaired in the entire organism and cannot be passed on to offspring. D. germline therapy is the temporary repair of a genetic mutation, whereas somatic cell therapy is a permanent fix. ASM Objective: 04.05 Cell genomes can be manipulated to alter cell function. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Blooms Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 10.08 Differentiate between somatic and germline gene therapy. Section: 10.04 Topic: Genetic Medicine True / False Questions 73. The advantage of germline therapy over somatic cell therapy is that the normal gene is inserted into an egg, sperm, or developing embryo so that the repair is present in every cell of the organism as it matures to adulthood. TRUE ASM Objective: 04.05 Cell genomes can be manipulated to alter cell function. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Blooms Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 10.08 Differentiate between somatic and germline gene therapy. Section: 10.04 Topic: Genetic Medicine Multiple Choice Questions 74. Micro RNA therapy is based on the premise that A. miRNA molecules function to regulate gene expression, usually by inhibiting transcription; a nonfunctional miRNA can be replaced thereby reducing unwanted protein production. B. miRNA molecules function to regulate gene expression, usually by promoting translation; a nonfunctional miRNA can be repaired thereby reducing unwanted protein production. C. miRNA molecules function to regulate gene expression, usually by initiating transcription; an overproduction of miRNA can be replaced thereby promoting necessary protein production. D. miRNA molecules function to regulate protein production, usually by inhibiting translation; a hyperactive miRNA can be replaced thereby reducing unwanted proteins. ASM Objective: 04.05 Cell genomes can be manipulated to alter cell function. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Blooms Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 10.09 Describe miRNAs and ways in which their discovery can impact human disease. Section: 10.04 Topic: Genetic Medicine True / False Questions 80. When micro RNA molecules malfunction, their effect is limited to the inhibition of protein production, which results in tumor growth. FALSE ASM Objective: 04.05 Cell genomes can be manipulated to alter cell function. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Blooms Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 10.09 Describe miRNAs and ways in which their discovery can impact human disease. Section: 10.04 Topic: Genetic Medicine Multiple Choice Questions 80. SNPs are derived from ______. A. genetic engineering B. frameshift mutations C. gene therapy D. point mutations ASM Objective: 04.01 Genetic variations can impact microbial functions (e.g., in biofilm formation, pathogenicity and drug resistance). ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 10.12 Discuss the significance of single nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs) in DNA analysis. Section: 10.05 Topic: Genetic Analyses 77. Often natural disasters leave little intact DNA with which to identify the victim's remains using traditional DNA fingerprinting techniques. The discovery of ______ made genetic analysis possible with minute amounts of genetic material. A. miRNAs B. frameshift mutations C. SNPs D. microarrays ASM Objective: 04.05 Cell genomes can be manipulated to alter cell function. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Blooms Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 10.12 Discuss the significance of single nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs) in DNA analysis. Section: 10.05 Topic: Genetic Analyses True / False Questions 78. The field of pharmacogenomics uses knowledge of an individual's single nucleotide polymorphisms to determine how they will respond to a particular drug. TRUE ASM Objective: 04.03 The regulation of gene expression is influenced by external and internal molecular cues and/or signals. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Blooms Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 10.12 Discuss the significance of single nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs) in DNA analysis. Section: 10.05 Topic: Genetic Analyses Multiple Choice Questions 79. Microarray analysis is used to A. analyze an organism's entire genome. B. determine which genes are being expressed in an organism. C. determine the size of gene fragments after digesting with restriction endonucleases. D. analyze an individual's single nucleotide polymorphisms. Topic: Genetic Analyses 80. One reason the field of proteomics is continually evolving following the systematic study of an organism's genome is because A. it became apparent that while the organism's genome is relatively stable, protein expression in an organism is constantly changing. B. the expression of proteins is fixed in each organism so sequencing the genome is essential to understanding phenotypes. C. it became apparent that protein expression is relatively uniform, whereas the genome is constantly changing. D. once the genome had been sequenced, all protein expression was understood. ASM Objective: 04.03 The regulation of gene expression is influenced by external and internal molecular cues and/or signals. ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Blooms Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 10.14 Define proteome, and explain how it differs from genome. Section: 10.06 Topic: Genetic Analyses True / False Questions 81. A proteome is an organism's full array of expressed proteins, and proteomics is the study of those proteins and the functions they mediate. TRUE CH-11: Multiple Choice Questions 43. Which of the following microbial forms has the highest resistance to physical and chemical controls? A. Naked viruses B. Protozoan cysts C. Fungal spores D. Bacterial endospores E. Yeast ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 11.02 Identify the types of microorganisms that are most resistant and least resistant to control measures. Section: 11.01 Topic: Basics of Microbial Control 2. The process that destroys or removes all microorganisms and microbial forms, including bacterial endospores, on inanimate objects is ______. R. disinfection S. sterilization T. antisepsis U. sanitization V. degermation ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 11.01 Distinguish among the terms sterilization, disinfection, antisepsis, and decontamination. Section: 11.01 Topic: Basics of Microbial Control 3. The use of a physical or chemical process to destroy vegetative pathogens on inanimate objects is ______. 40.disinfection 41. sterilization 42.antisepsis 43. sanitization 44.degermation ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 11.01 Distinguish among the terms sterilization, disinfection, antisepsis, and decontamination. Section: 11.01 Topic: Basics of Microbial Control 46. The use of chemical agents directly on exposed body surfaces to destroy or inhibit vegetative pathogens is ______. A. disinfection B. sterilization C. antisepsis D. sanitization ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 11.01 Distinguish among the terms sterilization, disinfection, antisepsis, and decontamination. Section: 11.01 Topic: Basics of Microbial Control 42. Scrubbing or immersing the skin in chemicals to reduce the numbers of microbes on the skin is ______. A. disinfection B. sterilization C. sanitization D. degermation ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 11.01 Distinguish among the terms sterilization, disinfection, antisepsis, and decontamination. Section: 11.01 Topic: Basics of Microbial Control 50. Which of the following types of control agents would be used to achieve sterility? A. Virucide B. Bactericide C. Germicide D. Sporicide E. Fungicide ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 11.01 Distinguish among the terms sterilization, disinfection, antisepsis, and decontamination. Section: 11.01 Topic: Basics of Microbial Control 51. The easiest microbial forms to kill or inhibit are ______. naked viruses vegetative bacteria and fungi endospores protozoan cysts mycobacteria and staphylococci ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 11.02 Identify the types of microorganisms that are most resistant and least resistant to control measures. Section: 11.01 Topic: Basics of Microbial Control 8. The method of removing vegetative microbial life forms and debris to reduce contamination to safe levels is termed ______. 63.antisepsis 64.disinfection 65. sterilization 66.decontamination 67. sanitization ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 11.01 Distinguish among the terms sterilization, disinfection, antisepsis, and decontamination. Section: 11.01 Topic: Basics of Microbial Control 55. The method of removing vegetative life forms from living surfaces is termed ______. A. antisepsis B. disinfection C. sterilization D. decontamination ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 11.01 Distinguish among the terms sterilization, disinfection, antisepsis, and decontamination. Section: 11.01 Topic: Basics of Microbial Control 56. The removal of all life forms from inanimate objects is termed ______. A. antisepsis B. disinfection C. sterilization D. decontamination E. degerming ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 11.01 Distinguish among the terms sterilization, disinfection, antisepsis, and decontamination. Section: 11.01 Topic: Basics of Microbial Control 11. The alcohol wipe used on a patient's skin before an injection is an example of ______. 55.antisepsis 56.disinfection 57. sterilization 58.decontamination 59. sanitization ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 11.17 Explain the mode of action of alcohols and their limitation as effective antimicrobials. Section: 11.03 Topic: Chemical Control Methods 53. Which is correct regarding the rate of microbial death? A. Cells die at increasingly greater rates. B. Only older cells die in a culture. C. Cells in a culture die at a constant rate. D. Upon contact with the control agent, all cells die at one time. E. Cells become metabolically inactive but are never killed. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 11.03 Compare the action of microbicidal and microbistatic agents, providing an example of each. Section: 11.01 Topic: Basics of Microbial Control 55. Which of the following factors will influence the action of microbial agents? A. The number of microorganisms B. The type of microorganisms present O. Temperature and pH P. Mode and dosage of the agent Q. All of the choices will influence the action. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 11.01 Distinguish among the terms sterilization, disinfection, antisepsis, and decontamination. Section: 11.01 Topic: Basics of Microbial Control 62. Microbial death occurs when there is A. no movement. B. no reproduction. C. a change in appearance. D. a decrease in size. E. All of the choices occur. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 11.03 Compare the action of microbicidal and microbistatic agents, providing an example of each. Section: 11.01 Topic: Basics of Microbial Control 15. Each of the following is a target of antimicrobial agents except ______. 59. cell walls 60. cell membranes 61. ribosomes 62. cellular proteins 63. cytoplasm ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 11.04 Name four categories of cellular targets for physical and chemical agents. Section: 11.01 Topic: Basics of Microbial Control 65. Surfactants work by A. coating the organism preventing interaction with its environment. B. blocking transport into the organism. C. blocking transport out from the organism. D. disrupting membrane integrity. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 11.04 Name four categories of cellular targets for physical and chemical agents. Section: 11.01 Topic: Basics of Microbial Control O. Some microbial control agents are able to _____ cell proteins by breaking bonds that maintain the native state, the three-dimensional configuration of the proteins. mutate bind dissolve denature ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 11.04 Name four categories of cellular targets for physical and chemical agents. Section: 11.01 Topic: Basics of Microbial Control 61. Agents that can denature microbial proteins include all of the following except ______. A. moist heat B. alcohol C. acids D. metallic ions E. X rays ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 11.11 Differentiate between the two types of radiation control methods, providing an application of each. Section: 11.01 Topic: Basics of Microbial Control 61. Which of the following does not affect microbial nucleic acids? A. Moist heat B. Ultraviolet light C. X rays D. Ethylene dioxide E. Formaldehyde ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 11.05 Name six methods of physical control of microorganisms. Section: 11.01 Topic: Chemical Control Methods Topic: Physical Control Methods 67. Physical agents for controlling microbial growth include all of the following except ______. A. ultraviolet radiation B. boiling water C. pasteurization D. hydrogen peroxide ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 11.05 Name six methods of physical control of microorganisms. Section: 11.03 Topic: Physical Control Methods 68. Sterilization is achieved by A. flash pasteurization. B. hot water. C. boiling water. D. steam autoclave. E. All of the choices are correct. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 11.01 Distinguish among the terms sterilization, disinfection, antisepsis, and decontamination. Section: 11.01 Topic: Basics of Microbial Control 65. Dry heat A. is less efficient than moist heat. B. cannot sterilize. C. includes tyndallization. D. is used in devices called autoclaves. E. will sterilize at 121°C for 15 minutes. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 11.06 Compare and contrast moist and dry heat methods of control, and identify multiple examples of each. Section: 11.02 Topic: Physical Control Methods 69. The minimum sterilizing conditions in a steam autoclave are A. 121°C at 15 psi for 15 minutes. B. 63°C for 30 minutes. C. 100°C for 30 minutes. D. 160°C for 2 hours. E. 71.6°C for 15 seconds. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 11.06 Compare and contrast moist and dry heat methods of control, and identify multiple examples of each. Section: 11.02 Topic: Physical Control Methods 24. The shortest time required to kill or inactivate all the microbes in a sample at a specified temperature is called the 67. thermal death point (TDP). 68. thermal death time (TDT). 69. sporicidal time. 70.death phase point. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 11.07 Define thermal death time and thermal death point, and describe their role in proper sterilization. Section: 11.02 Topic: Physical Control Methods 25. The lowest temperature needed to kill or inactivate all microbes in 10 minutes is the 72. thermal death point (TDP). 73. thermal death time (TDT). 74. sporicidal time. 75.death phase point. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 11.07 Define thermal death time and thermal death point, and describe their role in proper sterilization. Section: 11.02 Topic: Physical Control Methods 70. Disinfection of beverages such as apple juice, milk, and wine is optimally achieved by ______. filtration chlorination pasteurization boiling water moist heat autoclave ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 11.05 Name six methods of physical control of microorganisms. Section: 11.02 Topic: Physical Control Methods 71. Placing organisms at 4o C is ______. bactericidal bacteriostatic decontamination sterilization germicidal ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 11.03 Compare the action of microbicidal and microbistatic agents, providing an example of each. Section: 11.02 Topic: Physical Control Methods 77. Pasteurization A. kills all vegetative forms. B. reduces the number of vegetative forms. C. reduces the number of endospores. 73. increases food nutrient value. E. is used to sterilize food products. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 11.06 Compare and contrast moist and dry heat methods of control, and identify multiple examples of each. Section: 11.02 Topic: Physical Control Methods 74. _____ heat is more rapidly effective and efficient compared to _____ heat. A. High; dry B. High; moist C. Dry; moist D. Moist; dry E. Moist; high ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 11.06 Compare and contrast moist and dry heat methods of control, and identify multiple examples of each. Section: 11.02 Topic: Physical Control Methods N. A method for sterilizing milk, called _____ treatment, uses 134°C for 1 to 2 seconds. pasteurization batch pasteurization flash pasteurization ultra high temperature E. tyndallization ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 11.06 Compare and contrast moist and dry heat methods of control, and identify multiple examples of each. Learning Outcome: 11.08 Explain four different methods of moist heat control. Section: 11.02 Topic: Physical Control Methods 77. What instrument is most effective for pressure-temperature sterilization? A. Water-bath B. Autoclave C. Incubator D. Oven E. Bunsen burner ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 11.08 Explain four different methods of moist heat control. Section: 11.02 Topic: Physical Control Methods 81. Intermittent sterilization, which uses 3 days of lower temperature steam for short periods of time, is also called ______. A. pasteurization B. incubation C. tyndallization D. disinfection E. desiccation ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 11.08 Explain four different methods of moist heat control. Section: 11.02 Topic: Physical Control Methods 78. Which of the following is not a primary target of milk pasteurization? A. Salmonella B. Campylobacter jejuni C. Lactobacillus D. Listeria monocytogenes E. Brucella ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 11.08 Explain four different methods of moist heat control. Section: 11.02 Topic: Physical Control Methods 84. Vials of microorganisms that undergo the freeze-drying process, called _____, will remain preserved and viable for years. desiccation flash freeze lyophilization pasteurization sterilization ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 11.10 Identify advantages and disadvantages of cold treatment and desiccation. Section: 11.02 Topic: Physical Control Methods N. Removal of moisture by dehydration is called ______. flash freeze pasteurization desiccation lyophilization sterilization ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 11.10 Identify advantages and disadvantages of cold treatment and desiccation. Section: 11.02 Topic: Physical Control Methods Q. _____ radiation excites atoms to a higher energy state within molecules such as DNA, which leads to the formation of pyrimidine dimers. Ultraviolet Ionizing Infrared Gamma Particle ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 11.11 Differentiate between the two types of radiation control methods, providing an application of each. Section: 11.02 Topic: Physical Control Methods 80. Electrons are ejected from atoms in cells when organisms are exposed to ______. A. desiccation B. ultraviolet light C. ethyl alcohol D. hydrogen peroxide E. gamma rays and X rays ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 11.11 Differentiate between the two types of radiation control methods, providing an application of each. Section: 11.02 Topic: Physical Control Methods 81. Which of the following items are typically irradiated in order to kill microbes? A. Cured meats B. Human tissues such as heart valves and skin C. Operating room air D. Surgical gloves E. All of the choices are correct. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Learning Outcome: 11.11 Differentiate between the two types of radiation control methods, providing an application of each. Section: 11.02 Topic: Physical Control Methods 85. Which control method would not be a suitable choice for killing Mycobacterium in a capped culture tube? Ultraviolet (germicidal) light Gamma rays 121°C at 15 psi for 15 minutes 160°C for 2 hours All of the choices are correct. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 11.11 Differentiate between the two types of radiation control methods, providing an application of each. Section: 11.02 Topic: Physical Control Methods 87. Which of the following forms of radiation are in order from the most penetrating to the least penetrating? Gamma, cathode, X rays Gamma, X rays, cathode Cathode, gamma, X ray X ray, gamma, cathode Cathode, X ray, gamma ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 11.11 Differentiate between the two types of radiation control methods, providing an application of each. Section: 11.02 Topic: Physical Control Methods S. HEPA filters are used to remove microbes from air. liquids. human tissues. medical instruments. All of the choices are correct. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 11.12 Outline the process of filtration and describe its two advantages in microbial control. Section: 11.02 Topic: Physical Control Methods 45. The use of filtration for sterilization A. leaves behind endospores. B. removes toxins. C. uses heat and filtration. D. relies on gravity. E. can remove viruses. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 11.12 Outline the process of filtration and describe its two advantages in microbial control. Section: 11.02 Topic: Physical Control Methods 46. _____ is a control method that removes microorganisms rather than inhibiting or killing them. A. Disinfection B. Filtration C. Boiling D. Radiation E. Sterilization ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 11.12 Outline the process of filtration and describe its two advantages in microbial control. Section: 11.02 Topic: Physical Control Methods 51. Which of the following is not a factor that affects germicidal activity? A. Material being treated B. Length of exposure C. Strength of the germicide D. Microorganism being treated E. All of the choices are factors. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 11.14 Name the desirable characteristics of chemical control agents. Section: 11.03 Topic: Chemical Control Methods 48. All of the following pertain to hypochlorites except A. they cause denaturation of enzymes. B. they release hypochlorous acid in solution. C. they are found in common household bleach. D. they are used to disinfect dairy, restaurant, and medical equipment. E. they are found in iodophors. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 11.14 Name the desirable characteristics of chemical control agents. Section: 11.03 Topic: Chemical Control Methods 56. Iodophors include ______. betadine chlorhexidine alcohols chloramines tincture of iodine ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 11.15 Discuss several different halogen agents and their uses in microbial control. Section: 11.03 Topic: Chemical Control Methods 51. _____ is a halogen used in gaseous and liquid form for large scale disinfection of drinking water and sewage. A. Iodine B. Chlorine C. Bromine D. Fluorine E. Betadine ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 11.15 Discuss several different halogen agents and their uses in microbial control. Section: 11.03 Topic: Chemical Control Methods 54. Which of the following is not true of chloramines? A. They contain chlorine. B. They are used to treat wounds and skin surfaces. C. They are safer than free chlorine. D. They can sanitize and disinfect. E. They form trihalomethanes with organic compounds. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 11.16 List advantages and disadvantages to the use of phenolic compounds as control agents. Section: 11.03 Topic: Chemical Control Methods 49. All of the following are phenols or phenolics except ______. 52.hexachlorophene B. Zephiran N. cresols O. triclosan P. Lysol ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 11.16 List advantages and disadvantages to the use of phenolic compounds as control agents. Section: 11.03 Topic: Chemical Control Methods O. The compound that is an organic base containing chlorine and two phenolic rings, and is used increasingly for wound degerming, neonatal washes, hand scrubbing, and prepping surgical skin sites is ______. a quaternary ammonium compound carbolic acid triclosan formalin chlorhexidine ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 11.14 Name the desirable characteristics of chemical control agents. Section: 11.03 Topic: Chemical Control Methods 57. Which of the following germicides is/are also sporicidal? Betadine Chlorine Phenolics Chlorhexidine E. All of these except phenolics. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 11.15 Discuss several different halogen agents and their uses in microbial control. Section: 11.03 Topic: Chemical Control Methods 57. Alcohols A. denature proteins when in a 50-95% alcohol-water solution. B. disinfect items when soaking method is utilized. 65.are skin degerming agents. 66.at 50% or higher concentrations dissolve cell membrane lipids. 67. All of the choices are correct. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 11.17 Explain the mode of action of alcohols and their limitation as effective antimicrobials. Section: 11.03 Topic: Chemical Control Methods 66. The chemical agent/s that produce/s highly reactive hydroxyl-free radicals and also decomposes to O2 gas is ______. A. hydrogen peroxide B. chlorhexidine C. iodophors D. cationic detergents E. Cidex ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 11.18 Pinpoint the most appropriate applications of hydrogen peroxide agents. Section: 11.03 Topic: Chemical Control Methods L. Hydrogen peroxide is sporicidal. fungicidal. bactericidal. virucidal. All of the choices are correct. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 11.18 Pinpoint the most appropriate applications of hydrogen peroxide agents. Section: 11.03 Topic: Chemical Control Methods 63. All of the following act as surfactants except ______. A. detergents B. quaternary ammonia C. iodine D. soaps E. alcohols ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 11.19 Define the term surfactant, and explain this antimicrobial's mode of action. Section: 11.03 Topic: Chemical Control Methods 65. Which of the following is not a heavy metal? A. Tincture of iodine B. Merthiolate C. Silver nitrate solution D. Zinc E. Mercurochrome ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 11.20 Identify examples of some heavy metal control agents and their most common applications. Section: 11.03 Topic: Chemical Control Methods 65. _____ solution was introduced in the late 19th century for preventing gonococcal infections in a newborn's eyes after exposure to the mother's infected birth canal. A. Merthiolate B. Silver nitrate C. Triclosan D. Zinc oxide E. Betadine ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 11.20 Identify examples of some heavy metal control agents and their most common applications. Section: 11.03 Topic: Chemical Control Methods L. Heavy metals work by binding to DNA. mutating DNA. rupturing the cell membrane. inactivating proteins. dissolving the cell wall. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 11.20 Identify examples of some heavy metal control agents and their most common applications. Section: 11.03 Topic: Chemical Control Methods 66. Which of the following is not used as an antiseptic? A. Iodophor B. Aqueous glutaraldehyde C. 3% hydrogen peroxide D. Chlorhexidine E. Merthiolate ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 11.21 Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of aldehyde agents in microbial control. Section: 11.03 Topic: Chemical Control Methods 68. Which of the following is not true of glutaraldehyde? A. It cross-links proteins on cell surfaces. B. It is classified as a carcinogen. C. It inactivates endospores in 3 hours. 66. It inactivates viruses. 67. It does not damage plastics. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 11.21 Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of aldehyde agents in microbial control. Section: 11.03 Topic: Chemical Control Methods 61. Endospores can be inactivated by 72.dry heat at 170°C for 2 hours. 73. incineration. 74.glutaraldehyde for 3 or more hours. 75.ethylene oxide for 3 or more hours. 76. All of the choices are correct. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 11.02 Identify the types of microorganisms that are most resistant and least resistant to control measures. Section: 11.01 Topic: Chemical Control Methods Topic: Physical Control Methods M. Which is mismatched? Iodophor - iodine Sodium hypochlorite - chlorine Merthiolate - silver Benzalkonium chloride - quaternary ammonium compound Formalin - formaldehyde ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 11.15 Discuss several different halogen agents and their uses in microbial control. Section: 11.03 Topic: Chemical Control Methods 76. All of the following are alkylating control agents except ______. iodophor propylene oxide formaldehyde ethylene oxide glutaraldehyde ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 11.15 Discuss several different halogen agents and their uses in microbial control. Learning Outcome: 11.21 Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of aldehyde agents in microbial control. Learning Outcome: 11.22 Identify applications for ethylene oxide sterilization. Section: 11.03 Topic: Chemical Control Methods 73. The sterilizing gas used in chemiclaves is ______. chlorine dioxide iodophor glutaraldehyde ethylene oxide formaldehyde ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 11.22 Identify applications for ethylene oxide sterilization. Section: 11.03 Topic: Chemical Control Methods 74. Ethylene oxide is only effective with high heat. a halogen. the active agent in household bleach. used as an antiseptic against anaerobes. sporicidal. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 11.22 Identify applications for ethylene oxide sterilization. Section: 11.03 Topic: Chemical Control Methods 71. Which of the following acids is not used to destroy or inhibit microbial cells in food? Benzoic acid Acetic acid Lactic acid Phosphoric acid Propionic acid ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 11.14 Name the desirable characteristics of chemical control agents. Section: 11.03 Topic: Chemical Control Methods 75. Using a HEPA filter in a vacuum or furnace is an example of which microbial control method? Surfactant Gases Chemical agent D. Dry control ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 11.12 Outline the process of filtration and describe its two advantages in microbial control. Section: 11.02 Topic: Physical Control Methods 74. In lab, inoculating loops are sterilized using ______. A. chemicals B. incineration C. filtration D. moist heat E. gas sterilization ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 11.09 Explain two methods of dry heat control. Section: 11.02 Topic: Physical Control Methods 74. Antimicrobial agents can target the cell wall by A. blocking its synthesis. B. digesting it. C. denaturing proteins. D. All of the choices are correct. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 11.04 Name four categories of cellular targets for physical and chemical agents. Section: 11.01 Topic: Basics of Microbial Control 75. Which of the following represents the use of osmotic pressure as a microbial control method? A. Exposing dental equipment to UV light B. Bleaching a kitchen counter C. Salting of meat D. Rinsing of a cut with Betadine ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 11.13 Identify some common uses of osmotic pressure as a control method. Section: 11.02 Topic: Physical Control Methods True / False Questions 81. All microbicidal agents are sterilants. FALSE ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 11.01 Distinguish among the terms sterilization, disinfection, antisepsis, and decontamination. Section: 11.01 Topic: Basics of Microbial Control 81. Bacteriostatic agents kill bacterial cells. FALSE ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 11.03 Compare the action of microbicidal and microbistatic agents, providing an example of each. Section: 11.01 Topic: Basics of Microbial Control 78. Prions require more extensive methods of sterilization than are needed for bacterial endospores. TRUE ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 11.02 Identify the types of microorganisms that are most resistant and least resistant to control measures. Section: 11.01 Topic: Basics of Microbial Control 79. The presence of organic matter such as saliva and pus can interfere with the actions of disinfectants. TRUE ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 11.02 Identify the types of microorganisms that are most resistant and least resistant to control measures. Learning Outcome: 11.03 Compare the action of microbicidal and microbistatic agents, providing an example of each. Section: 11.01 Topic: Basics of Microbial Control 80. When a control agent targets the metabolic processes of microbial cells, active younger cells typically die more rapidly than older cells. TRUE ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 11.02 Identify the types of microorganisms that are most resistant and least resistant to control measures. Section: 11.01 Topic: Basics of Microbial Control 76. A microorganism that is not motile and has stopped metabolizing is considered dead. FALSE ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 11.03 Compare the action of microbicidal and microbistatic agents, providing an example of each. Section: 11.01 Topic: Basics of Microbial Control 81. Most microbial contaminants of food are killed or inactivated at freezing temperatures. FALSE ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 11.10 Identify advantages and disadvantages of cold treatment and desiccation. Section: 11.02 Topic: Physical Control Methods 78. Pasteurization is used to sterilize milk. FALSE ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 11.06 Compare and contrast moist and dry heat methods of control, and identify multiple examples of each. Learning Outcome: 11.08 Explain four different methods of moist heat control. Section: 11.02 Topic: Physical Control Methods 79. Pasteurization does not inactivate endospores or thermoduric microbes. TRUE ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 11.06 Compare and contrast moist and dry heat methods of control, and identify multiple examples of each. Learning Outcome: 11.08 Explain four different methods of moist heat control. Section: 11.02 Topic: Physical Control Methods 80. Ionizing radiation is more effective than nonionizing radiation in killing or inactivating microbes. TRUE ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 11.11 Differentiate between the two types of radiation control methods, providing an application of each. Section: 11.02 Topic: Physical Control Methods 81. Chlorine compounds remain stable and effective in the presence of excess organic matter. FALSE ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 11.15 Discuss several different halogen agents and their uses in microbial control. Section: 11.03 Topic: Chemical Control Methods 82. Alcohols are more effective at inactivating enveloped viruses than naked viruses. TRUE ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 11.17 Explain the mode of action of alcohols and their limitation as effective antimicrobials. Section: 11.03 Topic: Chemical Control Methods 81. Isopropyl alcohol wiped across a skin site can sterilize it. FALSE ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 11.17 Explain the mode of action of alcohols and their limitation as effective antimicrobials. Section: 11.03 Topic: Chemical Control Methods 84. Hydrogen peroxide is used in the process of sterilizing instruments such as endoscopes. TRUE ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 11.18 Pinpoint the most appropriate applications of hydrogen peroxide agents. Section: 11.03 Topic: Chemical Control Methods 82. Ozone is a very effective disinfectant. TRUE ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 11.14 Name the desirable characteristics of chemical control agents. Section: 11.03 Topic: Chemical Control Methods 87. Soaps and detergents are very effective as sterilants. FALSE ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 11.19 Define the term surfactant, and explain this antimicrobial's mode of action. Section: 11.03 Topic: Chemical Control Methods 90. Organisms in the genus Pseudomonas are resistant to quats. TRUE ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 11.19 Define the term surfactant, and explain this antimicrobial's mode of action. Section: 11.03 Topic: Chemical Control Methods 86. Chlorine and ethylene oxide are sterilizing gases. TRUE ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 11.22 Identify applications for ethylene oxide sterilization. Section: 11.03 Topic: Chemical Control Methods 87. Aniline dyes like crystal violet have antimicrobial activity particularly against gram-positive bacteria and some fungi. TRUE ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 11.14 Name the desirable characteristics of chemical control agents. Section: 11.03 Topic: Chemical Control Methods Multiple Choice Questions 90. You have inherited some old glass baby milk bottles from your grandmother, and you would like to use them instead of plastic bottles. The bottles are placed into a large metal container and placed in the oven at 325o F for about 2 hours. What factor would you change if you wanted the sterilization to occur much quicker? A. Place the bottles outside in the sunlight and then place in the oven B. Use a pressure cooker to sterilize the bottles with steam C. Pour an antimicrobial chemical into the bottles before placing into the oven D. Increase the temperature of the oven by 5 degrees ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. Blooms Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 11.08 Explain four different methods of moist heat control. Learning Outcome: 11.09 Explain two methods of dry heat control. Section: 11.02 Topic: Physical Control Methods 91. Your aim is to sterilize prosthetic devices like heart valves and artificial joint structures before being used in the patient. Considering where they will be placed and the probable composition of the devices, what would be the best chemical to use? A. Crystal violet dye B. Iodine C. Quaternary ammonium compounds D. Bleach ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 11.14 Name the desirable characteristics of chemical control agents. Section: 11.03 Topic: Chemical Control Methods 92. Which antimicrobial method does not sterilize? A. Ionizing radiation B. Ethylene oxide gas C. Autoclave D. Pasteurization ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 11.08 Explain four different methods of moist heat control. Learning Outcome: 11.14 Name the desirable characteristics of chemical control agents. Learning Outcome: 11.22 Identify applications for ethylene oxide sterilization. Section: 11.02 Section: 11.03 Topic: Chemical Control Methods Topic: Physical Control Methods 86. You have some old plastic Petri dishes that you would like to use for pouring bacteriological agar plates. The only method of physical sterilization is ultraviolet radiation sterilization with your UV light (you cannot use the autoclave because it will disfigure and melt the plastic). After sterilizing the plates, pouring the sterilized agar medium, and then leaving the plates out at room temperature for a day or two to let them solidify and dry, you find contaminating bacterial colonies growing on the agar. Predict what has happened in this situation. The room temperature enhanced the growth of normal biota of the agar. Air got into the poured agar plates, contaminating them. The lids of the Petri dishes were inadvertently left on while being sterilized. The agar had bacteria in it, even after sterilization in the autoclave. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 11.11 Differentiate between the two types of radiation control methods, providing an application of each. Section: 11.02 Topic: Physical Control Methods 89. Your friend Joe recently visited the doctor for steroid injections into his knee to reduce swelling due to a previous knee injury. Within a couple of days, he had an infection caused by Pseudomonas, a very pathogenic and drug resistant bacterium. Luckily, Joe went to the doctor immediately and received antibiotics. The doctor tells him that the same problem has occurred to many other people across the United States. Predict the most likely cause of this situation. A. The steroid was contaminated at the production plant, so all batches of that drug made at that plant were contaminated with the bacterium. B. The bacterium is normally on the skin of people, so can easily access the patient's blood during the needle stick. C. The staff giving the steroid injections did not use proper aseptic technique. D. The needles were re-used and already contaminated before being used on the patients. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 11.03 Compare the action of microbicidal and microbistatic agents, providing an example of each. Learning Outcome: 11.05 Name six methods of physical control of microorganisms. Learning Outcome: 11.14 Name the desirable characteristics of chemical control agents. Section: 11.01 Topic: Basics of Microbial Control I. The difference between thermal death time and thermal death point in microbicidal activity is that A. thermal death time is the greatest amount of time required to kill an organism at a specific temperature, . whereas thermal death temperature is the lowest temperature required to kill an organism in 10 minutes. B. thermal death time is the shortest amount of time required to kill an organism at a specific temperature, whereas thermal death temperature is the lowest temperature required to kill an organism in 30 minutes. C. thermal death time is the shortest amount of time required to kill an organism at a 100o C, whereas thermal death temperature is the lowest temperature required to kill an organism in 10 minutes. D. thermal death time is the shortest amount of time required to kill an organism at a specific temperature, . whereas thermal death temperature is the lowest temperature required to kill an organism in 10 minutes. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 11.07 Define thermal death time and thermal death point, and describe their role in proper sterilization. Section: 11.02 Topic: Physical Control Methods 92. When considering time and temperature as factors in microbicidal activity, A. they are directly proportional to each other. B. they are inversely proportional to each other. C. they must be of equal value e.g. 30 minutes at 30o C. D. time is not a factor, only temperature. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 11.07 Define thermal death time and thermal death point, and describe their role in proper sterilization. Section: 11.02 Topic: Physical Control Methods 90. Which of the following is a disadvantage of dry heat methods such as using a Bunsen burner to incinerate microbes from an inoculating loop and the use of a hot air oven? A. Bunsen burners and hot air ovens only reach a maximum of 100o C so they are not effective against endospores. B. Neither of these methods actually sterilize; they only kill vegetative cells. C. Bunsen burners take too long to sterilize and hot air ovens are hazardous for the operators. D. Use of an open flame can be dangerous and hot air ovens take much longer to sterilize than autoclaves. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 11.09 Explain two methods of dry heat control. Section: 11.02 Topic: Physical Control Methods K. Which of the following is true regarding the use of osmotic pressure as an antimicrobial agent? Salts and sugars external to a microbe create a hypotonic environment, which causes lysis of the cell. Salt is an effective solute to create an osmotic pressure gradient outside of a cell; however, the use of sugar, such as in jams and jellies, works via a different mechanism. Exposing a microbe to a hypertonic environment draws water out of the cell, causing plasmolysis. Exposing organisms to the air on a benchtop so they completely dry out is an example of using osmotic pressure as a means of microbial control. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 11.13 Identify some common uses of osmotic pressure as a control method. Section: 11.02 Topic: Physical Control Methods 91. Which of the following represents microbial control by osmotic pressure? Pickling cucumbers and other vegetables for long-term storage Placing fruit slices on a drying rack Canning tomatoes after a summer growing season to use throughout the winter The crew of the Mayflower using salted meats throughout their voyage to the New World ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 11.13 Identify some common uses of osmotic pressure as a control method. Section: 11.02 Topic: Physical Control Methods 92. Which of the following is an advantage to using phenolics as antimicrobial agents? A. The presence of organic matter does not limit its antimicrobial qualities. B. They are not susceptible to resistance by organisms. C. They have low toxicity. D. They are effective sterilants against all microbial forms. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 11.16 List advantages and disadvantages to the use of phenolic compounds as control agents. Section: 11.03 Topic: Chemical Control Methods True / False Questions 95. Continued widespread use of the phenolic compound triclosan is advantageous in that it is important to remove as many organisms as possible from our hands and there is little risk of resistant organisms evolving. FALSE ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 11.16 List advantages and disadvantages to the use of phenolic compounds as control agents. Section: 11.03 Topic: Chemical Control Methods 93. Surgeons preparing for an invasive surgical procedure will scrub their hands thoroughly, and then they use a strong alcohol-based hand sanitizer which renders their hands sterile. FALSE ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 11.01 Distinguish among the terms sterilization, disinfection, antisepsis, and decontamination. Section: 11.01 Topic: Basics of Microbial Control Multiple Choice Questions 103. Which of the following methods of microbial control is mismatched? A. Pickling eggs - osmotic pressure B. Exposure of surgical equipment to ultraviolet light - radiation C. Heating a liquid to 71.6o C for 15 seconds - pasteurization D. Autoclaving nutrient agar before pouring into Petri plates - sterilization ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 11.05 Name six methods of physical control of microorganisms. Section: 11.02 Topic: Physical Control Methods 95. Cold temperatures are considered microbistatic, whereas excessive heat is considered microbicidal. This is due to the fact that A. . in cold temperatures, the energy of activation is not sufficient to drive chemical reactions regardless of the presence of enzymes, whereas excessive heat denatures enzymes and/or incinerates the cell causing irreparable damage. A. cold temperatures denature enzymes causing irreparable damage to the cell, whereas heat limits the energy of activation available to drive chemical reactions. B. cold temperatures freeze and therefore kill the cell, whereas excess heat keeps the cell metabolically active but not dividing. C. cold temperatures halt binary fission and is therefore considered a sterilant, whereas heat does not kill spores so it is not an effective method of control. CH-12: Multiple Choice Questions 1. Substances that are naturally produced by certain microorganisms that can inhibit or destroy bacteria are called ______. R. semisynthetic drugs S. broad-spectrum drugs T. antibiotics U. synthetic drugs V. narrow-spectrum drugs ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 12.02 Identify sources of the most commonly used antimicrobial drugs. Learning Outcome: 12.13 Identify the targets of several antibiotics that inhibit protein synthesis. Section: 12.01 Topic: Principles of Antimicrobial Therapy 63. Antimicrobials effective against a wide variety of microbial types are termed ______. A. antibiotics B. narrow-spectrum drugs C. semisynthetic drugs D. synthetic drugs E. broad-spectrum drugs ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 12.08 Distinguish between broad-spectrum and narrow-spectrum antimicrobials, and explain the significance of the distinction. Section: 12.01 Topic: Principles of Antimicrobial Therapy 64. Antibiotics are derived from all of the following, except ______. A. Penicillium B. Bacillus C. Staphylococcus D. Streptomyces E. Cephalosporium ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 12.02 Identify sources of the most commonly used antimicrobial drugs. Learning Outcome: 12.14 Identify the cellular target of quinolones, and provide two examples of these drugs. Section: 12.01 Topic: Principles of Antimicrobial Therapy 66. Important characteristics of antimicrobial drugs include A. low toxicity for human tissues. B. high toxicity against microbial cells. C. a lack of serious side effects in humans. D. stability and solubility in body tissues and fluids. E. All of the choices are correct. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 12.01 State the main goal of antimicrobial treatment. Section: 12.01 Topic: Principles of Antimicrobial Therapy 5. An ideal antimicrobial therapeutic drug exhibits all of the following characteristics, except P. they are nontoxic to host. Q. they are easily broken down by host. R. they are easily administered. S. they have limited capacity to elicit resistance. T. they are nonallergenic. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 12.01 State the main goal of antimicrobial treatment. Section: 12.01 Topic: Principles of Antimicrobial Therapy 62. The use of a drug to prevent imminent infection is called ______. A. competitive inhibition B. synergism C. prebiotics D. prophylaxis E. lantibiotics ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 12.01 State the main goal of antimicrobial treatment. Section: 12.01 Topic: Principles of Antimicrobial Therapy 62. The use of any chemical in the treatment, relief, or prophylaxis of a disease is called ______. A. prophylaxis B. chemotherapy C. selective toxicity D. nephrotoxicity E. synergism ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 12.01 State the main goal of antimicrobial treatment. Section: 12.01 Topic: Principles of Antimicrobial Therapy 68. Penicillins and cephalosporins A. destroy peptidoglycan. B. are metabolic analogs of PABA and block folic acid synthesis. C. attach to the 30S ribosomal subunit and disrupt protein synthesis. D. damage cell membranes. E. block peptidases that cross-link glycan molecules. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 12.09 Trace the development of penicillin antimicrobials, and identify which microbes they are effective against. Section: 12.03 Topic: Antibacterials 69. Selective toxicity refers to damage to A. pathogenic organisms. B. prokaryotic cell membranes. C. the target organisms but not vertebrate cells. D. nucleic acids. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 12.05 Explain the concept of selective toxicity. Section: 12.02 Topic: Principles of Antimicrobial Therapy 10. Each of the following affect cell walls, except ______. 66.penicillin 67. cycloserine 68. vancomycin 69.erythromycin 70. cephalosporin ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 12.09 Trace the development of penicillin antimicrobials, and identify which microbes they are effective against. Learning Outcome: 12.11 List examples of other beta-lactam antibiotics. Learning Outcome: 12.12 Describe common cell wall antibiotics that are not in the beta-lactum class of drugs. Section: 12.03 Topic: Antibacterials 70. Aminoglycosides A. destroy peptidoglycan. B. are metabolic analogs of PABA and block folic acid synthesis. C. attach to the 30S ribosomal subunit and disrupt protein synthesis. D. damage cell membranes. E. block peptidases that cross-link glycan molecules. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 12.13 Identify the targets of several antibiotics that inhibit protein synthesis. Section: 12.03 Topic: Antibacterials 71. Each of the following target bacterial ribosomes, except ______. A. streptomycin B. gentamycin C. polymyxins D. tetracycline E. erythromycin ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 12.13 Identify the targets of several antibiotics that inhibit protein synthesis. Section: 12.03 Topic: Antibacterials 76. Antibiotics that disrupt bacterial ribosomes can also affect A. eukaryotic large ribosomal subunit. B. eukaryotic small ribosomal subunit. C. ribosomal RNA. D. eukaryotic mitochondrial ribosomes. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 12.13 Identify the targets of several antibiotics that inhibit protein synthesis. Section: 12.03 Topic: Antibacterials 14. Drugs that insert on the _____ ribosomal subunit prevent peptide bond formation or inhibit translocation of the subunit during translation. 71.30S 72.40S 73.50S 74.60S 75.70S ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 12.13 Identify the targets of several antibiotics that inhibit protein synthesis. Section: 12.03 Topic: Antibacterials 15. Which of the following antimicrobials does not inhibit DNA synthesis? 72. Chloroquine 73. Quinolone 74. Penicillin 75. Azidothymidine 76. Acyclovir ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 12.10 Describe the action of beta-lactamases, and explain their importance in drug resistance. Learning Outcome: 12.14 Identify the cellular target of quinolones, and provide two examples of these drugs. Section: 12.03 Topic: Antibacterials 78. Sulfonamides A. interfere with elongation of peptidoglycan. B. are metabolic analogs of PABA and block folic acid synthesis. C. attach to the 30S ribosomal subunit and disrupt protein synthesis. D. damage cell membranes. E. block peptidases that cross-link glycan molecules. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 12.06 Describe the five major targets of antimicrobial agents, and list major drugs associated with each. Section: 12.03 Topic: Antibacterials 74. Sulfa drugs work on A. nucleic acid biosynthesis. B. ribosome biosynthesis. C. peptidoglycan biosynthesis. D. folic acid biosynthesis. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 12.06 Describe the five major targets of antimicrobial agents, and list major drugs associated with each. Section: 12.03 Topic: Antibacterials 75. Sulfonamides are analogs of PABA and, as a result, they inhibit _____ synthesis. A. protein B. DNA C. RNA D. folic acid E. phospholipid ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 12.06 Describe the five major targets of antimicrobial agents, and list major drugs associated with each. Section: 12.03 Topic: Antibacterials O. Drugs that act by mimicking the normal substrate of an enzyme, thereby blocking its active site, are called ______. inhibitors blockers competitive inhibitors noncompetitive inhibitors ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 12.06 Describe the five major targets of antimicrobial agents, and list major drugs associated with each. Section: 12.03 Topic: Antibacterials 78. Ampicillin, amoxicillin, mezlocillin, and penicillin G all have ______. A. a beta-lactam ring. B. an expanded spectrum of activity. C. resistance to the action of penicillinase. D. a semisynthetic nature. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 12.09 Trace the development of penicillin antimicrobials, and identify which microbes they are effective against. Learning Outcome: 12.11 List examples of other beta-lactam antibiotics. Section: 12.03 Topic: Antibacterials 82. A chemical that inhibits beta-lactamase enzymes is ______. A. synercid B. penicillinase C. aztreonam D. clavulanic acid E. imipenem ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 12.10 Describe the action of beta-lactamases, and explain their importance in drug resistance. Section: 12.03 Topic: Antibacterials 79. What molecule will allow some bacteria to be resistant to many penicillins? A. Synercid B. Penicillinase C. Aztreonam D. Clavulanic acid E. Imipenem ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 12.10 Describe the action of beta-lactamases, and explain their importance in drug resistance. Section: 12.03 Topic: Antibacterials 85. All of the following pertain to cephalosporins, except they have a beta-lactam ring. they have greater resistance to beta-lactamases. newer generations have activity against gram-negative bacteria. O. many are administered by injection, not orally. P. they are are synthetic drugs. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 12.06 Describe the five major targets of antimicrobial agents, and list major drugs associated with each. Section: 12.03 Topic: Antibacterials R. Which antimicrobial does not inhibit cell wall synthesis? Gentamicin Vancomycin Cephalosporins Penicillins Carbapenems ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 12.06 Describe the five major targets of antimicrobial agents, and list major drugs associated with each. Learning Outcome: 12.13 Identify the targets of several antibiotics that inhibit protein synthesis. Section: 12.03 Topic: Antibacterials 81. Which drug is used to treat cases of tuberculosis? A. Penicillin G B. Vancomycin C. Tetracycline D. Synercid E. Isoniazid ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 12.06 Describe the five major targets of antimicrobial agents, and list major drugs associated with each. Section: 12.03 Topic: Antibacterials 82. What drug is used in cases of penicillin and methicillin resistance and also used to treat endocarditis? A. Penicillin G B. Vancomycin C. Tetracycline D. Erythromycin E. Isoniazid ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 12.11 List examples of other beta-lactam antibiotics. Learning Outcome: 12.14 Identify the cellular target of quinolones, and provide two examples of these drugs. Section: 12.03 Topic: Antibacterials 86. Clavulanic acid inhibits beta-lactamase activity. peptidoglycan synthesis. formation of peptidoglycan cross linkages. cell membrane synthesis. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 12.10 Describe the action of beta-lactamases, and explain their importance in drug resistance. Section: 12.03 Topic: Antibacterials 88. All _____ consist of a thiazolidine ring, a beta-lactam ring, and an R group. penicillins tetracyclines macrolides cephalosporins aminoglycosides ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 12.11 List examples of other beta-lactam antibiotics. Section: 12.03 Topic: Antibacterials T. A major source of naturally produced penicillin is the mold ______. Penicillium notatum Penicillium chrysogenum Penicillium familiaris Naturally produced penicillin is no longer used. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 12.11 List examples of other beta-lactam antibiotics. Section: 12.01 Topic: Antibacterials 46. What antibiotic is mixed with neomycin and polymyxin to make an antibiotic ointment (Neosporin) for superficial skin infections? A. Vancomycin B. Bacitracin C. Chloramphenicol D. Streptomycin E. Clindamycin ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 12.12 Describe common cell wall antibiotics that are not in the beta-lactum class of drugs. Learning Outcome: 12.13 Identify the targets of several antibiotics that inhibit protein synthesis. Section: 12.03 Topic: Antibacterials 31. Infections caused by gram-negative bacilli are often treated with ______. 47.penicillin G 48. vancomycin 49.aminoglycosides 50. synercid 51. isoniazid ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 12.13 Identify the targets of several antibiotics that inhibit protein synthesis. Section: 12.03 Topic: Antibacterials 52. Which antimicrobial does not interfere with protein synthesis? A. Aminoglycosides B. Tetracyclines C. Erythromycin D. Trimethroprim E. Chloramphenicol ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 12.13 Identify the targets of several antibiotics that inhibit protein synthesis. Section: 12.03 Topic: Antibacterials 33. Which of these drugs has the most narrow-spectrum activity? 49. Tetracycline 50. Isoniazid 51. Erythromycin 52. Aminoglycosides 53. Cephalosporins ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 12.07 Identify which categories of drugs are most selectively toxic, and explain why. Learning Outcome: 12.08 Distinguish between broad-spectrum and narrow-spectrum antimicrobials, and explain the significance of the distinction. Section: 12.03 Topic: Antibacterials 57. Antimicrobials that are macrolides disrupt cell membrane function. include tetracyclines. include azithromycin, clarithromcyin, and erythromycin. are very narrow-spectrum drugs. are hepatotoxic. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 12.13 Identify the targets of several antibiotics that inhibit protein synthesis. Section: 12.03 Topic: Antibacterials 35. The drug that is used to treat typhoid fever and brain abscesses, but can cause aplastic anemia, is ______. 52. chloramphenicol 53. clindamycin 54. ciprofloxacin 55.bacitracin 56.gentamicin ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 12.13 Identify the targets of several antibiotics that inhibit protein synthesis. Learning Outcome: 12.23 Distinguish between drug toxicity and allergic reactions to drugs. Section: 12.03 Topic: Antibacterials 55. Which of the following is not an aminoglycoside? A. Streptomycin B. Gentamicin C. Tetracycline D. Amikacin E. Tobramycin ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 12.13 Identify the targets of several antibiotics that inhibit protein synthesis. Section: 12.03 Topic: Antibacterials 53. Which of the following antibacterial drug groups does not target protein synthesis? A. Oxazolidinones B. Macrolides C. Aminoglycosides D. Sulfonamides E. Tetracyclines ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 12.04 Define therapeutic index, and identify whether a high or a low index is preferable in a drug. Learning Outcome: 12.13 Identify the targets of several antibiotics that inhibit protein synthesis. Section: 12.03 Topic: Antibacterials Q. Which antibiotic is used to treat MRSA and VRE infections? Synercid Clindamycin Linezolid Azithromycin Clarithromycin ASM Objective: 04.02 Although the central dogma is universal in all cells, the processes of replication, transcription, and translation differ in Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukaryotes. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 12.13 Identify the targets of several antibiotics that inhibit protein synthesis. Section: 12.04 Topic: Drug Resistance P. Which group are the key drugs used to treat Hansen's disease (leprosy)? Sulfonamides Sulfones Fluoroquinolones Polymyxins Streptomyces ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 12.06 Describe the five major targets of antimicrobial agents, and list major drugs associated with each. Section: 12.03 Topic: Antibacterials 58. All of the following pertain to fluoroquinolones, except they are broad spectrum. they include ciprofloxacin and levofloxacin. they are nephrotoxic. they are used to treat respiratory, urinary, and sexually transmitted infections. they are readily absorbed from intestines. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 12.14 Identify the cellular target of quinolones, and provide two examples of these drugs. Learning Outcome: 12.17 Name the four main categories of antifungal agents, and provide one example of each. Section: 12.03 Topic: Antibacterials 58. Which of the following is not true of polymyxins? A. The source is Bacillus polymyxa. B. They are narrow spectrum. C. They are toxic to kidneys. D. They target cell walls. E. They can be used to treat severe urinary tract infections caused by gram-negative bacilli. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 12.15 Name two drugs that target the cellular membrane. Learning Outcome: 12.18 List four antiprotozoal drugs and three antihelminthic drugs used today. Section: 12.03 Topic: Antibacterials 68. The antifungal drug that can be used to treat serious systemic fungal infections is ______. A. nystatin B. griseofulvin C. amphotericin B D. sulfa drugs E. metronidazole ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 12.17 Name the four main categories of antifungal agents, and provide one example of each. Section: 12.03 Topic: Antimicrobials for Eukaryotic Infections 67. Ketoconazole, fluconazole, clotrimazole, and miconazole are broad-spectrum azoles used to treat _____ infections. A. bacterial B. fungal C. protozoan D. helminthic E. viral ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 12.18 List four antiprotozoal drugs and three antihelminthic drugs used today. Section: 12.03 Topic: Antimicrobials for Eukaryotic Infections M. Which of the following is not a drug group used to treat fungal infections? Quinolones Macrolide polyene antibiotics Griseofulvin Synthetic azoles Flucytosine ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 12.14 Identify the cellular target of quinolones, and provide two examples of these drugs. Learning Outcome: 12.17 Name the four main categories of antifungal agents, and provide one example of each. Learning Outcome: 12.18 List four antiprotozoal drugs and three antihelminthic drugs used today. Section: 12.03 Topic: Antimicrobials for Eukaryotic Infections 64. The drug used for several protozoan infections is ______. A. nystatin B. griseofulvin C. amphotericin B D. sulfa drugs E. metronidazole ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 12.18 List four antiprotozoal drugs and three antihelminthic drugs used today. Learning Outcome: 12.21 List five cellular or structural mechanisms that microbes use to resist antimicrobials. Section: 12.03 Topic: Antimicrobials for Eukaryotic Infections 66. Mebendazole, thiabendazole, and ivermectin are drugs used to treat _____ infections. A. bacterial B. fungal C. protozoan D. helminthic E. viral ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 12.18 List four antiprotozoal drugs and three antihelminthic drugs used today. Learning Outcome: 12.21 List five cellular or structural mechanisms that microbes use to resist antimicrobials. Section: 12.03 Topic: Antimicrobials for Eukaryotic Infections 47. There are fewer antifungal, antiprotozoan, and antihelminthic drugs compared to antibacterial drugs because fungi, protozoa, and helminths 66.do not cause many human infections. 67.are not affected by antimicrobials. 68.are so similar to human cells that drug selective toxicity is difficult to achieve. 69.are parasites found inside human cells. 70.have fewer target sites in their cells compared to bacteria. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 12.18 List four antiprotozoal drugs and three antihelminthic drugs used today. Learning Outcome: 12.21 List five cellular or structural mechanisms that microbes use to resist antimicrobials. Section: 12.03 Topic: Antimicrobials for Eukaryotic Infections M. Primaquine and chloroquine are drugs used in the treatment of ______ infections. A. gram-positive bacterial B. gram-negative bacterial 67. fungal D. protozoan 69. viral ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 12.18 List four antiprotozoal drugs and three antihelminthic drugs used today. Section: 12.03 Topic: Antimicrobials for Eukaryotic Infections 68. Which of the following is not used to treat malaria? A. Quinine B. Chloroquine C. Metronidazole D. Primaquine E. Meflaquine ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 12.18 List four antiprotozoal drugs and three antihelminthic drugs used today. Learning Outcome: 12.21 List five cellular or structural mechanisms that microbes use to resist antimicrobials. Section: 12.03 Topic: Antimicrobials for Eukaryotic Infections 77. Which of the following is not a mode of action of antiviral drugs? Block penetration Block transcription and translation Inhibit DNA synthesis Block maturation Bond to ergosterol in the cell membrane ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 12.19 Describe two major modes of action of antiviral drugs. Learning Outcome: 12.22 Discuss at least three novel antimicrobial strategies that are under investigation. Section: 12.03 Topic: Antivirals N. An antiviral that is a guanine analog would have an antiviral mode of action that blocks penetration. blocks transcription and translation. inhibits DNA synthesis. blocks maturation. bonds to ergosterol in the cell membrane. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 12.19 Describe two major modes of action of antiviral drugs. Learning Outcome: 12.22 Discuss at least three novel antimicrobial strategies that are under investigation. Section: 12.03 Topic: Antivirals 52. Antiviral drugs that target reverse transcriptase would be used to treat infections caused by ______. 77. influenza A virus 78. HIV 79.herpes zoster virus 80. respiratory syncytial virus 81.hepatitis C virus ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 12.19 Describe two major modes of action of antiviral drugs. Section: 12.03 Topic: Antivirals 53. Acyclovir is used to treat infections caused by ______. 74. influenza A virus 75. HIV 76.herpes simplex virus 77. respiratory syncytial virus 78.hepatitis C virus ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 12.19 Describe two major modes of action of antiviral drugs. Section: 12.03 Topic: Antivirals 75. Which of the following blocks HIV binding to host cell receptors? AZT Acyclovir Nevirapine Fuzeon Amantidine ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 12.19 Describe two major modes of action of antiviral drugs. Learning Outcome: 12.22 Discuss at least three novel antimicrobial strategies that are under investigation. Section: 12.03 Topic: Antivirals 72. Which of the following is not a therapeutic benefit of interferon? Reduces healing time Increases white blood cell count Prevents or reduces some cold symptoms Slows progress of some cancers Treats hepatitis C ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 12.19 Describe two major modes of action of antiviral drugs. Learning Outcome: 12.22 Discuss at least three novel antimicrobial strategies that are under investigation. Section: 12.03 Topic: Antivirals 76. The cellular basis for bacterial resistance to antimicrobials include bacterial chromosomal mutations. synthesis of enzymes that alter drug structure. prevention of drug entry into the cell. alteration of drug receptors on cell targets. All of the choices are correct. ASM Objective: 01.02 Mutations and horizontal gene transfer, with the immense variety of microenvironments, have selected for a huge diversity of microorganisms. ASM Topic: Module 01 Evolution Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 12.20 Discuss two possible ways that microbes acquire antimicrobial resistance. Section: 12.04 Topic: Drug Resistance 75. The multidrug resistant pumps in many bacterial cell membranes function by A. bacterial chromosomal mutations. B. synthesis of enzymes that alter drug structure. C. removing the drug from the cell when it enters. ASM Objective: 02.02 Bacteria have unique cell structures that can be targets for antibiotics, immunity, and phage infection. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 12.21 List five cellular or structural mechanisms that microbes use to resist antimicrobials. Section: 12.04 Topic: Drug Resistance 75. Microbial resistance resulting from mutation occurs because A. bacterial genomes undergo mutation rapidly. B. bacterial genomes undergo mutation often. C. short generation times accumulate mutations in populations. D. mutations are passed between organisms. E. All of the choices are correct. ASM Objective: 01.02 Mutations and horizontal gene transfer, with the immense variety of microenvironments, have selected for a huge diversity of microorganisms. ASM Topic: Module 01 Evolution Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 12.20 Discuss two possible ways that microbes acquire antimicrobial resistance. Section: 12.04 Topic: Drug Resistance 76. Each of the following results in drug resistance, except A. a drug being pumped out of the cell. B. a drug being used as a nutrient by the cell. C. a drug binding site being altered. D. a drug being inactivated. E. a drug being blocked from entering the cell. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 12.20 Discuss two possible ways that microbes acquire antimicrobial resistance. Learning Outcome: 12.24 Define the term superinfection, and summarize how it develops in a patient. Section: 12.04 Topic: Drug Resistance 82. Each of the following is a mechanism for drug resistance transfer between microorganisms, except ______. transposons R-plasmids conjugation mutation ASM Objective: 01.02 Mutations and horizontal gene transfer, with the immense variety of microenvironments, have selected for a huge diversity of microorganisms. ASM Topic: Module 01 Evolution Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 12.20 Discuss two possible ways that microbes acquire antimicrobial resistance. Learning Outcome: 12.23 Distinguish between drug toxicity and allergic reactions to drugs. Section: 12.04 Topic: Drug Resistance 82. Each of the following contributes to emerging drug resistance except A. overuse of antibiotics. B. improper use of antibiotics. C. multiple drug therapy. D. ingestion of antibiotics with animal feed. E. addition of antibiotics to common household products. ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 12.21 List five cellular or structural mechanisms that microbes use to resist antimicrobials. Section: 12.04 Topic: Drug Resistance 79. Nutrients that encourage the growth of beneficial microbes in the intestines are known as ______. A. prebiotics B. probiotics C. lantibiotics D. phytobiotics E. riboswitches ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Objective: 06.03 Humans utilize and harness microorganisms and their products. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 12.22 Discuss at least three novel antimicrobial strategies that are under investigation. Section: 12.04 Topic: Principles of Antimicrobial Therapy 80. The use of vaginal inserts of Lactobacillus to restore a healthy acidic environment is an example of ______. A. prebiotics B. probiotics C. lantibiotics D. phytobiotics E. riboswitches ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Objective: 06.03 Humans utilize and harness microorganisms and their products. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 12.22 Discuss at least three novel antimicrobial strategies that are under investigation. Section: 12.04 Topic: Principles of Antimicrobial Therapy 64. Broad-spectrum drugs that disrupt the body's normal biota often cause ______. 82.nephrotoxicity 83. superinfections 84.allergic reactions 85.drug toxicity ASM Objective: 05.01 Microorganisms are ubiquitous and live in diverse and dynamic ecosystems. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 12.24 Define the term superinfection, and summarize how it develops in a patient. Section: 12.05 Topic: Principles of Antimicrobial Therapy 65. The drug used against intestinal anaerobic bacteria, that can also alter normal biota leading to antibioticassociated colitis, is ______. 82. chloramphenicol 83. clindamycin 84. ciprofloxacin 85.bacitracin 86.gentamicin ASM Objective: 05.01 Microorganisms are ubiquitous and live in diverse and dynamic ecosystems. ASM Objective: 05.02 Most bacteria in nature live in biofilm communities. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 12.24 Define the term superinfection, and summarize how it develops in a patient. Section: 12.04 Topic: Principles of Antimicrobial Therapy 83. Side effects that occur in patient tissues while they are on antimicrobial drugs include all of the following, except A. development of resistance to the drug. B. hepatotoxicity. C. nephrotoxicity. D. diarrhea. E. deafness. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 12.23 Distinguish between drug toxicity and allergic reactions to drugs. Section: 12.05 Topic: Principles of Antimicrobial Therapy 82. A superinfection results from A. build up of a drug to toxic levels in the patient. B. the wrong drug administered to the patient. C. an immune system reaction to the drug. D. a decrease in most normal biota resulting in the overgrowth of an unaffected species. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 12.24 Define the term superinfection, and summarize how it develops in a patient. Section: 12.05 Topic: Principles of Antimicrobial Therapy 83. The _____ are drugs that deposit in developing teeth and cause a permanent brown discoloration. A. streptomycins B. cephalosporins C. macrolides D. tetracyclines E. penicillins ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 12.08 Distinguish between broad-spectrum and narrow-spectrum antimicrobials, and explain the significance of the distinction. Learning Outcome: 12.23 Distinguish between drug toxicity and allergic reactions to drugs. Section: 12.03 Topic: Antibacterials 88. Drug susceptibility testing determines A. the patient's response to various antimicrobials. B. the pathogen's response to various antimicrobials. C. if normal biota will be affected by antimicrobials. 91. if the drug is increasing to toxic levels in a patient. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 12.03 Summarize two methods for testing antimicrobial susceptibility. Section: 12.01 Topic: Principles of Antimicrobial Therapy 88. A clinical microbiologist makes serial dilutions of several antimicrobials in broth, and then incubates each drug dilution series with a standard amount of a patient's isolated pathogen. What is this microbiologist setting up? A. A Kirby-Bauer technique B. A antibiogram C. An E-test D. A minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC) test 87. A therapeutic index (TI) ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Objective: 08.05 Use appropriate microbiological and molecular lab equipment and methods. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Blooms Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 12.03 Summarize two methods for testing antimicrobial susceptibility. Section: 12.01 Topic: Principles of Antimicrobial Therapy 90. A ratio of the dose of the drug that is toxic to humans versus the minimum effective dose for that pathogen is assessed to predict the potential for toxic drug reactions. This is called the ______. A. Kirby-Bauer technique B. antibiogram C. E-test D. minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC) E. therapeutic index (TI) ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 12.03 Summarize two methods for testing antimicrobial susceptibility. Section: 12.01 Topic: Principles of Antimicrobial Therapy J. If pathogen A is more resistant to an erythromycin disc on a Kirby-Bauer plate compared to pathogen B, then pathogen A will have a/n _____ zone of inhibition compared to pathogen B. smaller equal larger ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Objective: 08.07 Document and report on experimental protocols, results and conclusions. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Blooms Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 12.03 Summarize two methods for testing antimicrobial susceptibility. Section: 12.01 Topic: Principles of Antimicrobial Therapy 73. A drug exhibiting which therapeutic index value would be the safest, most effective to use on a patient? 93.20 94.10 95.1 96.0.1 97. Any choice would be equally effective. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 12.03 Summarize two methods for testing antimicrobial susceptibility. Section: 12.01 Topic: Principles of Antimicrobial Therapy 91. Who is considered to be the father of modern antibiotics? A. Domagk B. Crick C. Fleming D. Chargaff L. Watson ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 12.09 Trace the development of penicillin antimicrobials, and identify which microbes they are effective against. Section: 12.01 Topic: Principles of Antimicrobial Therapy 75. Which two antibiotics affect nucleic acids of bacteria? 92. Tetracycline and amphotericin B 93. Trimethoprim and sulfonamides 94. Rifampin and quinolones 95. Tetracycline and bacitracin 96. Penicillin and vancomycin ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 12.14 Identify the cellular target of quinolones, and provide two examples of these drugs. Section: 12.03 Topic: Antibacterials True / False Questions 93. Antimicrobial drugs that inhibit folic acid synthesis work with no side effects because mammals must get folic acid from their diet. TRUE ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 12.06 Describe the five major targets of antimicrobial agents, and list major drugs associated with each. Section: 12.05 Topic: Principles of Antimicrobial Therapy 94. Species of Bacillus produce bacitracin and the polymyxin drugs. TRUE ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 12.14 Identify the cellular target of quinolones, and provide two examples of these drugs. Learning Outcome: 12.15 Name two drugs that target the cellular membrane. Section: 12.03 Topic: Antibacterials 96. An antibiotic of the penicillin family is penicillin G. TRUE ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 12.09 Trace the development of penicillin antimicrobials, and identify which microbes they are effective against. Section: 12.03 Topic: Antibacterials 94. The first modern antimicrobial drugs were sulfa drugs. TRUE ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 12.06 Describe the five major targets of antimicrobial agents, and list major drugs associated with each. Section: 12.03 Topic: Antibacterials 96. Ciprofloxacin is used to treat viral respiratory infections. FALSE ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 12.14 Identify the cellular target of quinolones, and provide two examples of these drugs. Section: 12.03 Topic: Antibacterials 81. Resistance genes can be transferred to other bacterial cells during transformation, transduction, and conjugation. TRUE ASM Objective: 01.02 Mutations and horizontal gene transfer, with the immense variety of microenvironments, have selected for a huge diversity of microorganisms. ASM Topic: Module 01 Evolution Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 12.20 Discuss two possible ways that microbes acquire antimicrobial resistance. Learning Outcome: 12.23 Distinguish between drug toxicity and allergic reactions to drugs. Section: 12.04 Topic: Drug Resistance 96. Bacteria can have a natural resistance to a drug to which they have never been exposed. TRUE ASM Objective: 01.02 Mutations and horizontal gene transfer, with the immense variety of microenvironments, have selected for a huge diversity of microorganisms. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 12.20 Discuss two possible ways that microbes acquire antimicrobial resistance. Learning Outcome: 12.23 Distinguish between drug toxicity and allergic reactions to drugs. Section: 12.04 Topic: Drug Resistance 96. When a patient's immune system reacts adversely to a drug, this serious side effect is called a superinfection. FALSE ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 12.24 Define the term superinfection, and summarize how it develops in a patient. Section: 12.05 Topic: Principles of Antimicrobial Therapy 97. Drugs that are hepatotoxic cause damage to a patient's kidneys. FALSE ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 12.07 Identify which categories of drugs are most selectively toxic, and explain why. Learning Outcome: 12.23 Distinguish between drug toxicity and allergic reactions to drugs. Section: 12.01 Section: 12.05 Topic: Principles of Antimicrobial Therapy 98. The MIC is the smallest concentration of an antimicrobial required to inhibit the growth of the microbe. TRUE ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Objective: 08.05 Use appropriate microbiological and molecular lab equipment and methods. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 12.03 Summarize two methods for testing antimicrobial susceptibility. Section: 12.01 Topic: Principles of Antimicrobial Therapy 78. The Kirby-Bauer test uses an agar surface seeded with the test bacterium, and small discs containing a specific concentration of several drugs are placed on the surface. TRUE ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Objective: 08.05 Use appropriate microbiological and molecular lab equipment and methods. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 12.03 Summarize two methods for testing antimicrobial susceptibility. Section: 12.01 Topic: Principles of Antimicrobial Therapy 80. An antimicrobial with a low therapeutic index is a safer choice compared to a drug with a high therapeutic index. FALSE ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. Blooms Level: 2. Understand Blooms Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 12.04 Define therapeutic index, and identify whether a high or a low index is preferable in a drug. Section: 12.01 Topic: Principles of Antimicrobial Therapy 84. It is better to use a broad-spectrum drug instead of a more specific, narrow-spectrum drug. FALSE ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 12.08 Distinguish between broad-spectrum and narrow-spectrum antimicrobials, and explain the significance of the distinction. Section: 12.03 Topic: Principles of Antimicrobial Therapy 82. Newer, more expensive antimicrobials are always better to use than cheaper, older drugs. FALSE ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 12.01 State the main goal of antimicrobial treatment. Section: 12.01 Topic: Principles of Antimicrobial Therapy F. Indwelling catheter biofilm infections are more resistant to antibiotics than nonbiofilm infections. TRUE ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 12.16 Describe the unique methods used to treat biofilm infections. Learning Outcome: 12.19 Describe two major modes of action of antiviral drugs. Section: 12.05 Topic: Principles of Antimicrobial Therapy 83. The use of antibiotics in cattle feed leads to the development of antibiotic-resistant bacteria. TRUE ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 12.23 Distinguish between drug toxicity and allergic reactions to drugs. Learning Outcome: 12.24 Define the term superinfection, and summarize how it develops in a patient. Section: 12.05 Topic: Principles of Antimicrobial Therapy 84. Drug toxicity occurs when an antimicrobial drug acts as antigen and stimulates an allergic response. FALSE ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 12.23 Distinguish between drug toxicity and allergic reactions to drugs. Section: 12.05 Topic: Principles of Antimicrobial Therapy Multiple Choice Questions 93. A patient has a staphylococcal infection of the blood; a septicemia - very serious and possibly deadly. As the doctor, you would like to prescribe a relatively non-toxic and inexpensive drug out of the cephalosporin family. However, if the patient harbors a strain of Staphylococcus that is resistant to a variety of antibiotics, you would prefer to use vancomycin-- which is highly effective against Staphylococcus. Which of the following explains why the cephalosporin drug is preferred for use over the vancomycin? A. You would rather give an inexpensive drug to save the family money. B. You really do not know that much about vancomycin, so you would rather go with a drug that you can find out more about. C. Vancomycin is very toxic, and the Staphylococcus strain could become resistant leaving no back-up drugs with which to treat the infection. D. Vancomycin is one of the most selectively toxic drugs there is, so you would prefer one that has a more broadspectrum effect. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 12.21 List five cellular or structural mechanisms that microbes use to resist antimicrobials. Section: 12.03 Topic: Drug Resistance 94. You have given a dosage of an antibiotic to a patient for his infection, but the patient is not getting any better. The MIC tests shows that the drug that you prescribed, at the dosage that was given, should work against this particular strain of bacterium. What do you think might be the problem? A. The drug might be broken down in the patient's body before it can have its full effect on the bacterium. B. The patient is resistant to the drug. C. The bacterium is immune to the chemical effects of the drug. D. The drug was improperly made at the pharmaceutical company, so is no longer effective. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 12.01 State the main goal of antimicrobial treatment. Section: 12.01 Topic: Principles of Antimicrobial Therapy 95. Alexander Fleming had been running tests using Staphylococcus, and he left some plates out to incubate. Evidently, after returning to his lab after the weekend, he found that Penicillium mold was growing on his agar plates containing the growth of Staphylococcus. Looking more closely, he found a large, clear area around the mold colony where Staphylococcus colonies did not grow. Given this situation, a valid hypothesis would be that A. the Staphylococcus was being inhibited by the Penicillium mold. B. the Penicillium mold was being killed by the Staphylococcus. C. the bacteriological medium being used in the plates was somehow inhibitory to the Staphylococcus growth. D. the room temperature incubation was inhibitory to the growth of Staphylococcus. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 12.09 Trace the development of penicillin antimicrobials, and identify which microbes they are effective against. Section: 12.01 Topic: Antibacterials 85. Your patient has been on antibiotics for 6 weeks after a case of streptococcal endocarditis, an infection of the inner heart wall. The infection clears up. However, the patient just visited you about a urinary tract infection, and the lab verified that the culprit was E. coli. What do you hypothesize happened in this situation? A. The lab has made a mistake in identifying the cause, and, in fact, the UTI was caused by the original Streptococcus. B. The lab has made a mistake in identifying the cause, and, in fact, the endocarditis was caused by the E. coli. C. Her normal microbiota in the genitourinary tract were killed, allowing E. coli (not killed by the antibiotics) to establish an infection. D. The antibiotics damaged her immune system, making her very susceptible to environmental bacteria. ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 12.24 Define the term superinfection, and summarize how it develops in a patient. Section: 12.05 Topic: Principles of Antimicrobial Therapy 97. Three classmates from microbiology class are talking about drug resistance. They each disagree about the definition of the term so they state his or her definition and give a justification. Compare the various definitions and justifications below and pick the one that is most accurate. A. The bacterium becomes immune to the drug; the drug no longer kills or inhibits the bacterium. B. The person becomes resistant to the drug; the body adjusts to the dosage of the chemical and no longer responds to its action. C. The drug is changed in the body and is inactivated physically and chemically so it no longer works properly against the bacterium. D. The bacterium has changed physically or chemically in some way to be able to destroy the drug or avoid its action, allowing it to grow unimpeded by the drug. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 12.20 Discuss two possible ways that microbes acquire antimicrobial resistance. Section: 12.04 Topic: Drug Resistance 98. Over 50 percent of all sales of medically important antibiotics in the United States are for livestock use. Why is this problematic for humans? A. The livestock will become resistant to the antibiotics and not respond to treatment when they have infections. B. Resistant bacteria grow in the animals and may then be passed to humans. C. The use of antibiotics for livestock means that there are not enough for use in the human population. D. The animals may become sick from the antibiotic ingestion. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 12.20 Discuss two possible ways that microbes acquire antimicrobial resistance. Learning Outcome: 12.21 List five cellular or structural mechanisms that microbes use to resist antimicrobials. Section: 12.04 Topic: Drug Resistance G. The production of antibiotics by microbes evolved so that bacteria and viruses could be eliminated. the growth of other organisms sharing their habitat was inhibited, thus giving them a selective advantage. certain environments can be protected from pathogenic bacteria. diseases could be cured. ASM Objective: 02.02 Bacteria have unique cell structures that can be targets for antibiotics, immunity, and phage infection. ASM Objective: 06.03 Humans utilize and harness microorganisms and their products. ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 12.02 Identify sources of the most commonly used antimicrobial drugs. Section: 12.01 Topic: Principles of Antimicrobial Therapy 87. A high therapeutic index is advantageous. This refers to A. the ratio between high selective toxicity and low human toxicity. B. the ratio between low selective toxicity and high human toxicity. C. high efficacy of the drug against the target microbe. D. selective toxicity and human toxicity are both high. ASM Objective: 02.02 Bacteria have unique cell structures that can be targets for antibiotics, immunity, and phage infection. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 12.04 Define therapeutic index, and identify whether a high or a low index is preferable in a drug. Section: 12.01 Topic: Principles of Antimicrobial Therapy 88. Selective toxicity exhibited by a drug means that A. the drug is effective against the target organism, but not the human host. B. the drug kills some organisms but not others. C. the drug is effective against gram-positive bacteria but not gram-negative. D. the drug is toxic to the human host but ineffective against the organism. ASM Objective: 02.02 Bacteria have unique cell structures that can be targets for antibiotics, immunity, and phage infection. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 12.05 Explain the concept of selective toxicity. Section: 12.02 Topic: Principles of Antimicrobial Therapy 89. Beta-lactams are selectively toxic because A. they cause hepato- and nephrotoxicity in humans. B. they often initiate the evolution of drug-resistant organisms. C. they inhibit the formation of peptidoglycan, which humans do not make. D. they initiate allergic reactions in many humans. ASM Objective: 02.02 Bacteria have unique cell structures that can be targets for antibiotics, immunity, and phage infection. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Blooms Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 12.05 Explain the concept of selective toxicity. Section: 12.02 Topic: Principles of Antimicrobial Therapy True / False Questions G. Selective toxicity should be avoided when developing a new antimicrobial drug. FALSE ASM Objective: 02.02 Bacteria have unique cell structures that can be targets for antibiotics, immunity, and phage infection. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 12.05 Explain the concept of selective toxicity. Section: 12.02 Topic: Principles of Antimicrobial Therapy Multiple Choice Questions 90. The most selectively toxic drugs are those that A. cause damage to host tissues. B. target microbial sites that are not present in humans, e.g., the bacterial cell wall. C. target structures present in both microbes and humans, thus causing host tissue damage. D. cause allergic reactions in humans. ASM Objective: 02.02 Bacteria have unique cell structures that can be targets for antibiotics, immunity, and phage infection. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 12.07 Identify which categories of drugs are most selectively toxic, and explain why. Section: 12.02 Topic: Principles of Antimicrobial Therapy 90. Organisms have a tendency to develop resistance to beta-lactams, and humans can develop allergic reactions to them. A drug that also targets the cell wall and can be used as an alternative is ______. streptomycin vancomycin tetracycline chloramphenicol fluoroquinolone ASM Objective: 02.02 Bacteria have unique cell structures that can be targets for antibiotics, immunity, and phage infection. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 12.12 Describe common cell wall antibiotics that are not in the beta-lactum class of drugs. Section: 12.03 Topic: Principles of Antimicrobial Therapy F. Drugs that target the plasma membrane are able to do so because they are able to denature the membrane-associated proteins, creating pores thereby disrupting the integrity. they target the phosphate group on the phospholipids, breaking down the bilayer. they act as enzymes to break down the phospholipids. they contain a lipid part that enables them to act as a detergent. ASM Objective: 02.02 Bacteria have unique cell structures that can be targets for antibiotics, immunity, and phage infection. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Blooms Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 12.15 Name two drugs that target the cellular membrane. Section: 12.03 Topic: Principles of Antimicrobial Therapy F. Which of the following phrases reflects an effective treatment of biofilms? Add DNase to the antibiotics to disrupt extracellular debris Interrupt quorum-sensing pathways, preventing signaling between cells Pre-treat with newly-discovered antimicrobials before exposure to established drugs All of the above have been shown to enhance biofilm elimination. ASM Objective: 04.01 Genetic variations can impact microbial functions (e.g., in biofilm formation, pathogenicity and drug resistance). ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Blooms Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 12.16 Describe the unique methods used to treat biofilm infections. Section: 12.03 Topic: Principles of Antimicrobial Therapy F. Why do researchers often include DNase in their antibiotic preparations to eliminate biofilms? Targeting the bacterial chromosome is the most effective way to kill biofilm bacteria. If the microbe's genome can be destroyed, the cell will die. The antibiotics cannot readily penetrate the extracellular debris, which often includes DNA from lysed cells. The antibiotics target the cell wall and the DNase targets the genome, effectively destroying the biofilm. ASM Objective: 04.01 Genetic variations can impact microbial functions (e.g., in biofilm formation, pathogenicity and drug resistance). ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow Blooms Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 12.16 Describe the unique methods used to treat biofilm infections. Section: 12.03 Topic: Principles of Antimicrobial Therapy 109. Bacteriophages selectively infect bacterial cells. How might they be used as a therapeutic treatment in humans? A. Phages can carry genes into cells which will genetically modify the host cells to prevent infection. B Humans suffering from infections with antibiotic resistant bacteria can be treated with phages, which will . infect and lyse the bacterial cells, leaving human cells unaffected. C. Bacteriophages can be used to genetically engineer bacterial cells making them more susceptible to drugs. D. Phages can be used to stimulate human immune cells to attack and kill bacterial cells. CH-13: Multiple Choice Questions 76. The term infection refers to microorganisms colonizing the body. contact with microorganisms. contact with pathogens. pathogens penetrating host defenses. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 13.01 Differentiate among the terms colonization, infection, and disease. Section: 13.01 Topic: Development of an Infection 77. Which of the following is not correct terminology used for resident biota? Pathogenic biota Normal biota Indigenous biota Normal microbiota Commensals ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Objective: 06.01 Microbes are essential for life as we know it and the processes that support life (e.g., in biogeochemical cycles and plant and/or animal microflora). ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 13.02 Identify the sites where normal biota is found in humans. Section: 13.01 Topic: Resident Microbiota 79. Endogenous infectious agents arise from microbes that are ______. A. in food B. the patient's own normal biota C. on fomites D. in the air E. transmitted from one person to another ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Objective: 06.01 Microbes are essential for life as we know it and the processes that support life (e.g., in biogeochemical cycles and plant and/or animal microflora). ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 13.01 Differentiate among the terms colonization, infection, and disease. Learning Outcome: 13.07 List several portals of entry and exit. Section: 13.01 Topic: Resident Microbiota 4. Based on new information from the Human Microbiome Project, the human body typically begins to be colonized by its normal biota A. before birth, in utero. 75.during and immediately after birth. 76. when a child first goes to school. 77. when an infant gets its first infectious disease. 78.during puberty. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Objective: 06.01 Microbes are essential for life as we know it and the processes that support life (e.g., in biogeochemical cycles and plant and/or animal microflora). ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 13.02 Identify the sites where normal biota is found in humans. Section: 13.02 Topic: Resident Microbiota 76. Resident biota are found in/on the ______. A. skin B. mouth C. nasal passages D. large intestine E. All of the choices are correct. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Objective: 06.01 Microbes are essential for life as we know it and the processes that support life (e.g., in biogeochemical cycles and plant and/or animal microflora). ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 13.02 Identify the sites where normal biota is found in humans. Section: 13.01 Topic: Resident Microbiota P. Normal biota includes each of the following except ______. bacteria fungi protozoans viruses All of the choices are correct. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Objective: 06.01 Microbes are essential for life as we know it and the processes that support life (e.g., in biogeochemical cycles and plant and/or animal microflora). ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 13.02 Identify the sites where normal biota is found in humans. Section: 13.01 Topic: Resident Microbiota 79. Each of the following is inoculation of normal biota to a newborn except A. the birth process through the birth canal. B. bottle feeding. C. breast feeding. D. contact with hospital staff. E. All of the choices are correct. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Objective: 06.01 Microbes are essential for life as we know it and the processes that support life (e.g., in biogeochemical cycles and plant and/or animal microflora). ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 13.02 Identify the sites where normal biota is found in humans. Section: 13.01 Topic: Resident Microbiota 8. The effect of beneficial microbes of normal biota against invading microbes is called ______. 83. microbial antagonism 84.endogenous infection 85. infectious disease 86.axenic 87.gnotobiotism ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Objective: 06.01 Microbes are essential for life as we know it and the processes that support life (e.g., in biogeochemical cycles and plant and/or animal microflora). ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 13.02 Identify the sites where normal biota is found in humans. Learning Outcome: 13.04 Explain some of the variables that influence whether a microbe will cause a disease in a particular host. Section: 13.02 Topic: Resident Microbiota 80. All of the following genera are considered resident biota of skin sites except ______. A. Escherichia B. Staphylococcus C. Corynebacterium D. Micrococcus E. Candida ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Objective: 06.01 Microbes are essential for life as we know it and the processes that support life (e.g., in biogeochemical cycles and plant and/or animal microflora). ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 13.02 Identify the sites where normal biota is found in humans. Section: 13.01 Topic: Resident Microbiota 86. Resident biota of the gastrointestinal tract include ______. Streptococcus Bacteroides Lactobacillus Haemophilus All of the choices are correct. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Objective: 06.01 Microbes are essential for life as we know it and the processes that support life (e.g., in biogeochemical cycles and plant and/or animal microflora). ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 13.02 Identify the sites where normal biota is found in humans. Section: 13.01 Topic: Resident Microbiota 11. Which genus is resident biota of the mouth, large intestine, and within the vagina from puberty to menopause? Q. Lactobacillus R. Treponema S. Haemophilus T. Escherichia U. Clostridium ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Objective: 06.01 Microbes are essential for life as we know it and the processes that support life (e.g., in biogeochemical cycles and plant and/or animal microflora). ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 13.02 Identify the sites where normal biota is found in humans. Section: 13.01 Topic: Resident Microbiota S. Opportunistic pathogens cause disease in every individual. cause disease in compromised individuals. are always pathogens. have well-developed virulence factors. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 13.04 Explain some of the variables that influence whether a microbe will cause a disease in a particular host. Learning Outcome: 13.05 Differentiate between a microbe's pathogenicity and its virulence. Section: 13.02 Topic: Resident Microbiota 82. Pathogenic microbes that cause disease in healthy people are called ______. A. opportunistic pathogens B. normal biota C. indigenous biota D. true pathogens E. micropathogens ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 13.04 Explain some of the variables that influence whether a microbe will cause a disease in a particular host. Learning Outcome: 13.05 Differentiate between a microbe's pathogenicity and its virulence. Section: 13.02 Topic: Resident Microbiota 83. Which of the following is not a factor that weakens host defenses against infections? A. Genetic defects in immunity B. Physical and mental stress C. Strong, healthy body D. Chemotherapy E. Old age ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 13.04 Explain some of the variables that influence whether a microbe will cause a disease in a particular host. Section: 13.02 Topic: Virulence/Host Damage 87. Which genus is the most common resident biota of mouth surfaces? Lactobacillus Streptococcus Haemophilus Escherichia Mycobacterium ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Objective: 06.01 Microbes are essential for life as we know it and the processes that support life (e.g., in biogeochemical cycles and plant and/or animal microflora). ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 13.02 Identify the sites where normal biota is found in humans. Section: 13.01 Topic: Resident Microbiota 89. TORCH is an acronym that represents the most common ______. A. genera of resident biota B. sexually transmitted infections U. portals of entry V. vectors W. infections of the fetus and neonate ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 13.14 List six different modes of horizontal transmission, providing an infectious disease spread by each. Section: 13.02 Topic: Transmission of Infections 47. The greatest number of pathogens enter the body through the ______. A. respiratory system B. gastrointestinal system C. urinary system D. genital system E. skin ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 13.07 List several portals of entry and exit. Section: 13.02 Topic: Transmission of Infections 52. An infectious agent that originates from outside the body is called ______. A. exogenous B. an exotoxin C. an enterotoxin D. endogenous E. axenic ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 13.07 List several portals of entry and exit. Section: 13.01 Topic: Resident Microbiota 53. An infectious agent already existing on or in the body is called ______. A. exogenous B. an exotoxin C. an enterotoxin D. endogenous E. axenic ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 13.07 List several portals of entry and exit. Section: 13.01 Topic: Resident Microbiota 20. The minimum number of microbes required for infection to proceed is termed a/an ______. 54. virulence factor 55. indigenous biota 56. infectious dose 57.endotoxin 58. minimal dose ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 13.08 Define infectious dose and explain its role in establishing infection. Section: 13.02 Topic: Development of an Infection 21. Which of the following is not a structure used for bacterial adhesion? 58. Fimbriae 59. Surface proteins 60. Specialized receptors 61. Adhesive slime or capsules 62. Cilia ASM Objective: 02.03 Bacteria and Archaea have specialized structures (e.g., flagella, endospores, and pili) that often confer critical capabilities. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 13.04 Explain some of the variables that influence whether a microbe will cause a disease in a particular host. Learning Outcome: 13.06 List the steps a microbe has to take to get to the point where it can cause disease. Section: 13.02 Topic: Virulence/Host Damage 57. Once a microbe has entered a host, what process performed by certain white blood cells will attempt to destroy the microbes? A. Phagocytosis B. Adhesion C. Encapsulation D. Margination E. Exocytosis ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 13.06 List the steps a microbe has to take to get to the point where it can cause disease. Section: 13.02 Topic: Development of an Infection 56. Which of the following is not an antiphagocytic factor? A. Secretion of slime B. Production of leukocidins C. Adhering to the host D. Secretion of a capsule E. Ability to survive intracellularly ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 13.06 List the steps a microbe has to take to get to the point where it can cause disease. Section: 13.02 Topic: Development of an Infection 54. Virulence factors include all of the following except ______. A. capsules B. ribosome C. exoenzymes D. endotoxin E. exotoxin ASM Objective: 02.03 Bacteria and Archaea have specialized structures (e.g., flagella, endospores, and pili) that often confer critical capabilities. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 13.05 Differentiate between a microbe's pathogenicity and its virulence. Learning Outcome: 13.09 Describe three ways microbes cause tissue damage. Section: 13.02 Topic: Virulence/Host Damage R. Microbial hyaluronidase, coagulase, and streptokinase are examples of _____. adhesive factors exotoxins hemolysins antiphagocytic factors exoenzymes ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 13.09 Describe three ways microbes cause tissue damage. Learning Outcome: 13.10 Compare and contrast major characteristics of exotoxins and endotoxin. Section: 13.02 Topic: Virulence/Host Damage Q. Exotoxins are ______. proteins secreted by living bacterial cells only released after a cell is damaged or lysed antiphagocytic factors secretions that always target nervous tissue lipopolysaccharides ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 13.09 Describe three ways microbes cause tissue damage. Learning Outcome: 13.10 Compare and contrast major characteristics of exotoxins and endotoxin. Section: 13.02 Topic: Virulence/Host Damage 59. Enterotoxins are ______. virulence factors toxins that target the intestines proteins exotoxins All of the choices are correct. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 13.09 Describe three ways microbes cause tissue damage. Learning Outcome: 13.10 Compare and contrast major characteristics of exotoxins and endotoxin. Section: 13.02 Topic: Virulence/Host Damage 28. Which term-definition pair is mismatched? 59. Fimbriae - adherence to substrate 60. Capsule - antiphagocytic factor 61. Coagulase - dissolves fibrin clots 62.Leukocidins - damage white blood cells 63. Hemolysins - damage red blood cells ASM Objective: 02.03 Bacteria and Archaea have specialized structures (e.g., flagella, endospores, and pili) that often confer critical capabilities. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 13.09 Describe three ways microbes cause tissue damage. Section: 13.02 Topic: Virulence/Host Damage 69. Keratinase has the greatest effect on the ______. A. respiratory system B. gastrointestinal system C. urinary system D. genital system E. skin ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 13.09 Describe three ways microbes cause tissue damage. Section: 13.02 Topic: Virulence/Host Damage 68. Mucinase has the greatest effect on the ______. A. respiratory system B. gastrointestinal system C. urinary system D. genital system E. skin ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 13.09 Describe three ways microbes cause tissue damage. Section: 13.02 Topic: Virulence/Host Damage N. Exotoxins ______. are secreted by pathogenic organisms are bound to the membrane of pathogenic organisms are bound to the cell wall of pathogenic organisms cause more damage than endotoxins are host specific ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 13.10 Compare and contrast major characteristics of exotoxins and endotoxin. Section: 13.02 Topic: Virulence/Host Damage 65. An endotoxin is ______. A. secreted by pathogenic organisms B.indicative of gram-negative bacterial infection C. secreted by gram-positive organisms 67. indicative of fungal infections 68. indicative of viral infections ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 13.10 Compare and contrast major characteristics of exotoxins and endotoxin. Section: 13.02 Topic: Virulence/Host Damage 33. Lipopolysaccharide of the outer membrane of gram-negative cell walls is called ______. A. exotoxin B. endotoxin C. enterotoxin D. leukocidin E. hemolysin ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 13.10 Compare and contrast major characteristics of exotoxins and endotoxin. Section: 13.02 Topic: Virulence/Host Damage 71. Various bacterial enzymes that dissolve fibrin clots are ______. A. coagulases B. mucinases C. keratinases D. kinases E. hyaluronidases ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 13.09 Describe three ways microbes cause tissue damage. Section: 13.02 Topic: Virulence/Host Damage N. Which of the following is the endotoxin? Hemolysin Hyaluronidase Streptokinase Collagenase Lipopolysaccharide ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 13.10 Compare and contrast major characteristics of exotoxins and endotoxin. Section: 13.02 Topic: Virulence/Host Damage 68. Hyaluronidase is a virulence factor in ______. A. amoebic dysentery B. ringworm C. clostridia D. cold virus E. diphtheria ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 13.09 Describe three ways microbes cause tissue damage. Section: 13.02 Topic: Virulence/Host Damage 70. The suffix –itis means ______. A. blood B. a disease or morbid process C. an inflammation D. tumor E. pertaining to ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 13.01 Differentiate among the terms colonization, infection, and disease. Section: 13.02 Topic: Infectious Disease Terminology 69. The suffix –osis means ______. A. blood B. a disease or morbid process C. an inflammation D. tumor E. pertaining to ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 13.01 Differentiate among the terms colonization, infection, and disease. Section: 13.02 Topic: Infectious Disease Terminology 78. The suffix –emia means ______. blood a disease or morbid process an inflammation tumor pertaining to ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 13.01 Differentiate among the terms colonization, infection, and disease. Section: 13.02 Topic: Infectious Disease Terminology O. The stage of an infectious disease when specific signs and symptoms are seen and the pathogen is at peak activity is the ______. prodromal stage convalescent stage incubation period period of invasion ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 13.12 Draw and label a curve representing the course of clinical infection. Section: 13.02 Topic: Development of an Infection 82. The time from when pathogen first enters the body and begins to multiply, until symptoms first appear is the ______. prodromal stage convalescent stage incubation period period of invasion ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 13.12 Draw and label a curve representing the course of clinical infection. Section: 13.02 Topic: Development of an Infection 79. The initial, brief period of early, general symptoms such as fatigue and muscle aches is the ______. prodromal stage convalescent stage incubation period period of invasion ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 13.12 Draw and label a curve representing the course of clinical infection. Section: 13.02 Topic: Infectious Disease Terminology 43. Which of the following is a mismatched term and description? 76. Secondary infection - infection spreads to several tissue sites 77. Mixed infection - several agents established at infection site 78. Acute infection - rapid onset of severe, short-lived symptoms 79.Local infection - pathogen remains at or near entry site 80. Toxemia - pathogen's toxins carried by the blood to target tissues ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 13.01 Differentiate among the terms colonization, infection, and disease. Section: 13.02 Topic: Development of an Infection 73. The subjective evidence of disease sensed by the patient is termed a/an ______. syndrome symptom sign pathology inflammation ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 13.09 Describe three ways microbes cause tissue damage. Section: 13.02 Topic: Development of an Infection 77. The objective, measurable evidence of disease evaluated by an observer is termed a/an ______. syndrome symptom sign pathology inflammation ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 13.09 Describe three ways microbes cause tissue damage. Section: 13.02 Topic: Development of an Infection 76. Local edema, swollen lymph nodes, fever, soreness, and abscesses are indications of ______. A. toxemia B. inflammation C. sequelae D. a syndrome E. latency ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 13.09 Describe three ways microbes cause tissue damage. Section: 13.02 Topic: Development of an Infection 76. A symptom is _______. A. an objective indication of disease B. a subjective indication of disease C. measurable by health care personnel D. a temperature ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 13.09 Describe three ways microbes cause tissue damage. Section: 13.02 Topic: Development of an Infection 77. A sign is A. an objective indication of disease. B. a subjective indication of disease. C. measurable by health care personnel. D. malaise and body aches. E. an objective indication of disease that is measurable by health care personnel. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 13.09 Describe three ways microbes cause tissue damage. Section: 13.02 Topic: Development of an Infection 83. Leukopenia is the _____ in the level of white blood cells in a patient. elevation stabilization decrease abnormal production ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 13.09 Describe three ways microbes cause tissue damage. Section: 13.02 Topic: Virulence/Host Damage 50. The term _____ refers to the presence of small numbers of bacteria in the blood. 83.bacteremia 84. septicemia 85. viremia 86. toxemia ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 13.01 Differentiate among the terms colonization, infection, and disease. Section: 13.02 Topic: Development of an Infection 80. Infections that go unnoticed because there are no symptoms are called ______. A. syndromes B. malaise C. inflammation D. asymptomatic E. secondary infections ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 13.01 Differentiate among the terms colonization, infection, and disease. Section: 13.02 Topic: Development of an Infection 81. Which of the following is not a normal portal of exit of an infectious disease? A. Removal of blood B. Urogenital tract and feces C. Coughing and sneezing D. Skin E. All of these are normal exit portals. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 13.07 List several portals of entry and exit. Section: 13.02 Topic: Development of an Infection 86. Which of the following is an example of sequelae? A. Headache from meningitis B. Difficulty swallowing from streptococcal infection C. Arthritis from Lyme disease D. Diarrhea from Salmonella enteritidis infection ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 13.09 Describe three ways microbes cause tissue damage. Section: 13.02 Topic: Virulence/Host Damage 54. Some diseases can cause long-term or permanent damage in the patient termed ______. 87.edema 88. sequelae 89.granulomas 90.abcesses 91. swollen lymph nodes ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 13.09 Describe three ways microbes cause tissue damage. Section: 13.02 Topic: Virulence/Host Damage 84. The primary, natural habitat of a pathogen where it continues to exist is called the ______. A. fomite B. carrier C. vector D. reservoir E. source ASM Objective: 05.01 Microorganisms are ubiquitous and live in diverse and dynamic ecosystems. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 13.13 Differentiate among the various types of reservoirs, providing examples of each. Section: 13.02 Topic: Transmission of Infections 83. Someone who inconspicuously harbors a pathogen and spreads it to others is a _______. A. fomite B. carrier C. vector D. reservoir E. source ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 13.13 Differentiate among the various types of reservoirs, providing examples of each. Learning Outcome: 13.14 List six different modes of horizontal transmission, providing an infectious disease spread by each. Section: 13.02 Topic: Transmission of Infections 84. An animal, such as an arthropod, that transmits a pathogen from one host to another is a ______. A. fomite B. carrier C. vector D. reservoir E. source ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 13.14 List six different modes of horizontal transmission, providing an infectious disease spread by each. Section: 13.02 Topic: Transmission of Infections 89. An intermediary inanimate object from which an infectious agent is acquired is termed a ______. A. fomite B. carrier C. vector D. reservoir ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 13.14 List six different modes of horizontal transmission, providing an infectious disease spread by each. Section: 13.02 Topic: Transmission of Infections 92. Reservoirs include ______. A. humans B. animals C. soil D. water E. All of the choices are correct. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 13.13 Differentiate among the various types of reservoirs, providing examples of each. Section: 13.02 Topic: Transmission of Infections 89. Animals that participate in the life cycles of pathogens and transmit pathogens from host to host are ______. A. fomites B. aerosols C. mechanical vectors D. droplet nuclei E. biological vectors ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 13.14 List six different modes of horizontal transmission, providing an infectious disease spread by each. Section: 13.02 Topic: Transmission of Infections 61. An infection spread between animals and humans is a ______. A. secondary infection B. sequela C. healthcare-associated infection D. zoonosis ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 13.14 List six different modes of horizontal transmission, providing an infectious disease spread by each. Section: 13.02 Topic: Transmission of Infections 62. Carriers that shed and transmit pathogens while they are recovering from an infectious disease are called ______ carriers. 88.asymptomatic 89.passive 90. incubation 91. chronic 92. convalescent ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 13.13 Differentiate among the various types of reservoirs, providing examples of each. Learning Outcome: 13.14 List six different modes of horizontal transmission, providing an infectious disease spread by each. Section: 13.02 Topic: Transmission of Infections 63. Carriers that shed and transmit pathogens a long time after they have recovered from an infectious disease are called ______ carriers. 91.asymptomatic 92.passive 93. incubation 94. chronic 95. convalescent ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 13.13 Differentiate among the various types of reservoirs, providing examples of each. Learning Outcome: 13.14 List six different modes of horizontal transmission, providing an infectious disease spread by each. Section: 13.02 Topic: Transmission of Infections 64. All communicable diseases ______. K. are contagious B. only occur in animals 98.are caused by microorganisms or their products 99.are caused by vectors 100. involve viruses as the pathogen ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 13.01 Differentiate among the terms colonization, infection, and disease. Section: 13.02 Topic: Development of an Infection 92. An inanimate object that harbors and transmits a pathogen is a ______. A. fomite B. carrier C. vector D. reservoir E. source ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 13.14 List six different modes of horizontal transmission, providing an infectious disease spread by each. Section: 13.02 Topic: Transmission of Infections M. A laboratory technologist splashed a blood specimen onto his face, eyes, nose, and mouth. This specimen was from an HIV positive patient. If this blood exposure leads to HIV infection in the technologist, the transmission route is ______. direct fomite vehicle droplet nuclei aerosol ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 13.14 List six different modes of horizontal transmission, providing an infectious disease spread by each. Section: 13.02 Topic: Transmission of Infections 97. The dried residues of fine droplets from mucus or saliva that harbor and transmit pathogen are ______. fomites aerosols mechanical vectors droplet nuclei biological vectors ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 13.14 List six different modes of horizontal transmission, providing an infectious disease spread by each. Section: 13.02 Topic: Transmission of Infections 95. Which of the following is a direct contact method of microbe transmission? A. Fomites B. Water C. Droplet nuclei D. Aerosols E. Droplets ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 13.14 List six different modes of horizontal transmission, providing an infectious disease spread by each. Section: 13.02 Topic: Transmission of Infections 97. Which of the following is transmission of disease from mother to fetus? A. Vertical B. Direct C. Vector D. Droplets E. Fomites ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 13.07 List several portals of entry and exit. Section: 13.02 Topic: Transmission of Infections 70. Which of the following is not true regarding healthcare-associated infections? 95. These infections are only transmitted by medical personnel. 96. These infections often involve the patient's urinary tract and surgical incisions. 97. The patient's resident biota can be the infectious agent. 98. Escherichia coli and staphylococci are common infectious agents. 99. Medical and surgical asepsis help lower their occurrence. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 13.15 Define healthcare-associated infection, listing the most common types. Section: 13.02 Topic: Transmission of Infections 71. Which of the following does not illustrate the use of universal precaution methods in the handling of patients and body substances? 97. Mask and gloves 98. Proper disposal of needles 99. Healthcare worker with active, open lesions handling patients 97. Hand washing 98. Sterilizing or disinfection of dental hand pieces ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 13.15 Define healthcare-associated infection, listing the most common types. Section: 13.02 Topic: Transmission of Infections 97. When would Koch's postulates be utilized? A. to determine the cause of a patient's illness in a hospital microbiology lab B. to develop a new antibiotic in a pharmaceutical lab C. to determine the cause of a new disease in a microbiology research lab D. to formulate a vaccine against a new pathogen in a genetic engineering lab 98. whenever the scientific method cannot be used to investigate a microbiological problem ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 13.16 List Koch’s postulates, and explain alternative methods for identifying an etiologic agent. Section: 13.02 Topic: Development of an Infection 99. The study of the frequency and distribution of a disease in a defined population is ______. A. pathology B. clinical microbiology C. medicine D. immunology E. epidemiology ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 13.17 Summarize the goals of epidemiology and the role of the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC). Section: 13.03 Topic: Epidemiology 79. The principal government agency responsible for tracking infectious diseases in the United States is the A. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention. B. World Health Organization. C. National Institutes of Health. D. United States Department of Agriculture. E. Infection Control Committee. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 13.17 Summarize the goals of epidemiology and the role of the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC). Section: 13.03 Topic: Epidemiology 81. The number of new cases of a disease in a population over a specific period of time compared with the healthy population is the ______. A. mortality rate B. morbidity rate C. incidence rate D. prevalence rate E. epidemic rate ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 13.19 Differentiate between the terms incidence and prevalence. Section: 13.03 Topic: Epidemiology 76. A disease that has a steady frequency over time in a particular geographic location is referred to as ______. 85.epidemic 86.endemic 87.pandemic 88. sporadic 89. chronic ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 13.17 Summarize the goals of epidemiology and the role of the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC). Section: 13.03 Topic: Epidemiology 83. The total number of deaths in a population due to a disease is the ______ rate. A. morbidity B. mortality C. incidence D. endemic E. pandemic ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 13.17 Summarize the goals of epidemiology and the role of the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC). Section: 13.03 Topic: Epidemiology G. The number of persons afflicted with an infectious disease is the _____ rate. morbidity mortality incidence endemic pandemic ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 13.17 Summarize the goals of epidemiology and the role of the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC). Section: 13.03 Topic: Epidemiology 84. What is one goal of the Human Microbiome Project? A. To sequence the DNA of all microorganisms B. To study the prevalence of disease C. To study microorganisms in an artificial habitat 85. To provide comprehensive characterization of microbiota relating to human health and disease 86. To elucidate genetically linked diseases ASM Objective: 05.01 Microorganisms are ubiquitous and live in diverse and dynamic ecosystems. ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Objective: 06.01 Microbes are essential for life as we know it and the processes that support life (e.g., in biogeochemical cycles and plant and/or animal microflora). ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 13.03 Discuss how the Human Microbiome Project has changed our understanding of normal biota. Section: 13.01 Topic: Resident Microbiota 86. Bacterial toxins are chemical products made by bacteria. A person ingests some honey containing Clostridium botulinum. The C. botulinum is actively growing and releases toxin in the honey. The person becomes ill from ingesting the toxin. This is an example of a/an ______. A. intoxication B. toxemia C. hemolysin D. pandemic E. infection ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 13.10 Compare and contrast major characteristics of exotoxins and endotoxin. Section: 13.02 Topic: Virulence/Host Damage True / False Questions H. A pathologic state begins with contact with a microbe. TRUE ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 13.01 Differentiate among the terms colonization, infection, and disease. Section: 13.01 Topic: Infectious Disease Terminology 82. Under certain circumstances, a person's resident biota can act as opportunistic pathogens. TRUE ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Objective: 06.01 Microbes are essential for life as we know it and the processes that support life (e.g., in biogeochemical cycles and plant and/or animal microflora). ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 13.04 Explain some of the variables that influence whether a microbe will cause a disease in a particular host. Learning Outcome: 13.06 List the steps a microbe has to take to get to the point where it can cause disease. Section: 13.02 Topic: Infectious Disease Terminology 83. The skin's resident biota are localized to only the outermost superficial layer of the epidermis. FALSE ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Objective: 06.01 Microbes are essential for life as we know it and the processes that support life (e.g., in biogeochemical cycles and plant and/or animal microflora). ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 13.02 Identify the sites where normal biota is found in humans. Section: 13.01 Topic: Resident Microbiota 88. The virulence factors of a pathogen are determined by how strong or weak a patient's body defenses are at the time of infection. FALSE ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 13.04 Explain some of the variables that influence whether a microbe will cause a disease in a particular host. Learning Outcome: 13.05 Differentiate between a microbe's pathogenicity and its virulence. Section: 13.02 Topic: Virulence/Host Damage 89. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention assigns the most virulent microbes known to cause human disease to biosafety level 4. TRUE ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 13.17 Summarize the goals of epidemiology and the role of the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC). Section: 13.03 Topic: Epidemiology 90. A fetus can get an infection when a pathogen in the mother's blood is capable of crossing the placenta to the fetal circulation and tissues. TRUE ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 13.07 List several portals of entry and exit. Section: 13.02 Topic: Transmission of Infections H. When an infected person is in the incubation period, that person cannot transmit the pathogen to others. FALSE ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 13.12 Draw and label a curve representing the course of clinical infection. Section: 13.02 Topic: Transmission of Infections 91. Septicemia means that a pathogen is present and multiplying in the blood. TRUE ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 13.01 Differentiate among the terms colonization, infection, and disease. Section: 13.02 Topic: Infectious Disease Terminology 91. Latency is a dormant state of an infectious agent. TRUE ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 13.01 Differentiate among the terms colonization, infection, and disease. Learning Outcome: 13.04 Explain some of the variables that influence whether a microbe will cause a disease in a particular host. Section: 13.02 Topic: Development of an Infection G. Fomites, food, and air serve as indirect transmission routes of pathogens. TRUE ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 13.14 List six different modes of horizontal transmission, providing an infectious disease spread by each. Section: 13.02 Topic: Transmission of Infections G. Koch's postulates are easily satisfied for viral diseases. FALSE ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 13.16 List Koch’s postulates, and explain alternative methods for identifying an etiologic agent. Section: 13.02 Topic: Development of an Infection Multiple Choice Questions 92. Which is not true about the Human Microbiome Project? A. The HMP can only identify bacteria, not viruses. B. The importance of the project is in analyzing the normal biota and correlating with human health and disease. C. The HMP is looking for pathogens as well as nonpathogens in and on the human body. D. Molecular biological lab techniques will be used for identification rather than standard biochemical lab techniques. ASM Objective: 05.01 Microorganisms are ubiquitous and live in diverse and dynamic ecosystems. ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other. ASM Objective: 06.01 Microbes are essential for life as we know it and the processes that support life (e.g., in biogeochemical cycles and plant and/or animal microflora). ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 13.03 Discuss how the Human Microbiome Project has changed our understanding of normal biota. Section: 13.01 Topic: Resident Microbiota 93. Treponema pallidum is the bacterium that causes syphilis. The gram-negative spirochete has never been cultured on bacteriological media. Select the statement that most accurately describes this disease-causing microbe. A. There is no way to perform an epidemiological study on this disease. B. Koch's postulates cannot be fulfilled for this disease. C. Because the bacterium cannot be grown, there is no way to characterize the organism as to staining features, biochemical test reactions, molecular testing, etc. D. There is no satisfactory way to identify the disease without being able to grow it. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 13.16 List Koch’s postulates, and explain alternative methods for identifying an etiologic agent. Section: 13.02 Topic: Development of an Infection 94. Your patient has a rash, a fever, and a very high white blood cell count. Blood specimens are taken, put into culture bottles, and sent down to the microbiology lab for incubation and analysis. Select the statement that best reflects why microbial analysis of blood is an important step in patient diagnosis. A. Microbial growth in blood samples may indicate sepsis. B. A few bacterial cells in a blood sample are no big deal and should be ignored. C Blood specimens are often obtained through poor aseptic technique by the healthcare worker: this is documentation of their failure to employ proper universal precautions. D. A lack of microbes in the blood means that the patient's health is critical. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 13.02 Identify the sites where normal biota is found in humans. Section: 13.01 Topic: Resident Microbiota 95. If you were a bacterial cell, which of the following would be the most beneficial for you to have or be able to make for the survival of your species? A. Endospore B. Cilia C. Pilus D. Exotoxin ASM Objective: 02.03 Bacteria and Archaea have specialized structures (e.g., flagella, endospores, and pili) that often confer critical capabilities. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 13.04 Explain some of the variables that influence whether a microbe will cause a disease in a particular host. Section: 13.02 Topic: Virulence/Host Damage 96. You are studying a newly identified infectious disease within a population. Think of the typical graph of the course of infection--incubation period through to convalescent period. The new disease reveals a course of infection characterized by fluctuating symptoms, with intermittent periods of invasion (acute period) between prodromal periods. The whole course of infection occurs over a period of months or even years. Based upon the information presented, select the statement that most accurately reflects this new infectious disease. A. This infectious disease exhibits latency. B. This is not an infectious disease at all. C. The host has immune problems and this is the typical course of a disease for that population. D. Viral infections always present with this type of disease course. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 13.12 Draw and label a curve representing the course of clinical infection. Section: 13.02 Topic: Development of an Infection G. In the movie "Contagion", one person who has become infected with a recombinant pathogenic virus spreads it to a large number of people with whom she comes into contact. Those people then spread it to others, and, before you know it, the disease has spread all over the world. This is an example of a _______ epidemic. point-source common-source propagated endemic ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 13.20 Discuss the three major types of epidemics, and identify the epidemic curves associated with each. Section: 13.03 Topic: Epidemiology 98. Assume that there are 335,104 new cases of gonorrhea reported among the U.S. population. When calculated, this would be 115.2 per 100,000 or approximately 1 reported case per 1,000 population. The value represents ______. A. prevalence rate B. incidence rate C. morbidity rate D. mortality rate ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 13.19 Differentiate between the terms incidence and prevalence. Section: 13.03 Topic: Epidemiology 99. The prevalence rate of tuberculosis in one particular county in Texas is 7/1000 people, while the incidence rate for 2011 is 2/1000 people. Analyze this data and summarize the situation. A. The data were collected incorrectly because the two values should match. B. Incidence rate should really be higher than prevalence rate because it includes all new cases for the year. C. Prevalence rate is higher than incidence rate because the number of people still alive with tuberculosis is higher because of better treatments. D. Prevalence rate and incidence rate cannot be determined for the same disease. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 13.19 Differentiate between the terms incidence and prevalence. Section: 13.03 Topic: Epidemiology 110. The difference between the terms pathogenicity and virulence is that pathogenic organisms cause disease, virulent organisms do not. virulent organisms cause disease, pathogens do not. pathogens cause disease and their virulence describes the degree of pathogenicity. virulent organisms cause disease and their pathogenicity describes the degree of disease manifestations. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 13.05 Differentiate between a microbe's pathogenicity and its virulence. Section: 13.02 Topic: Infectious Disease Terminology True / False Questions E. The terms pathogenicity and virulence can be used synonymously because they both refer to an organism's ability to cause disease. FALSE ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 13.05 Differentiate between a microbe's pathogenicity and its virulence. Section: 13.02 Topic: Infectious Disease Terminology 102. Virulence refers to the degree of pathogenicity manifested by a microbe, not simply whether or not it causes disease. TRUE ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Learning Outcome: 13.05 Differentiate between a microbe's pathogenicity and its virulence. Section: 13.02 Topic: Infectious Disease Terminology Multiple Choice Questions 103. Physicians are required to report new cases of gonorrhea to the CDC, whereas new cases of genital herpes are not notifiable. Evaluate the statements below and choose which statement best represents why some diseases are reportable and others are not. A. Gonorrhea is treatable with antibiotics and therefore may develop resistance; genital herpes is not treatable with antibiotics. B. Genital herpes is less deadly than gonorrhea. C. Gonorrhea is more contagious than genital herpes. D. Gonorrhea affects certain populations and geographic areas, whereas genital herpes does not. ASM Objective: 07.04 Ability to understand the relationship between science and society: Identify and discuss ethical issues in microbiology. ASM Topic: Module 07 Scientific Thinking Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 13.18 Identify why some diseases are "notifiable," and provide four examples of such reportable diseases. Section: 13.03 Topic: Epidemiology 104. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention mandates that some diseases must be reported, while it is not necessary for others. This is so that A. statistics may be gathered for certain diseases. B. the incidence and prevalence for diseases of public health importance can be tracked. C. disease trends and areas of outbreak can be monitored for certain diseases. D. high-risk epidemics can be identified and dealt with as quickly as possible. E. All of the above answers validate why it is important to report certain diseases to the CDC. ASM Objective: 07.04 Ability to understand the relationship between science and society: Identify and discuss ethical issues in microbiology. ASM Topic: Module 07 Scientific Thinking Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 13.18 Identify why some diseases are "notifiable," and provide four examples of such reportable diseases. Section: 13.03 Topic: Epidemiology 105. Since the 1970s, approximately 40 new infectious disease agents have been discovered, including SARS, chikungunya and zika. The ability of these agents to spread rapidly and cause global concern is due to all of the following except A. individuals are traveling more frequently and farther distances than in the previous half-century. B. communities are becoming more sparsely populated. C. communities are spreading into rural areas/wildlife habitats. D. communities are becoming more densely populated. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 13.21 List examples of emerging and reemerging infectious diseases. Section: 13.03 Topic: Epidemiology 106. Diseases can re-emerge for a variety of reasons. Evaluate the following statements and choose the one that does not provide evidence for a re-emergence. A. Pathogens evolve over time. B. Climate change influences arthropods to expand their geographical areas. C. Humans have avoided animal habitats. D. Agents of bioterrorism have been introduced into a population. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 13.21 List examples of emerging and reemerging infectious diseases. Section: 13.03 Topic: Epidemiology True / False Questions 107. For a successful emergence or re-emergence to occur, a pathogen must be introduced into a vulnerable population and have the ability to spread readily from person-to-person causing disease. TRUE ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 13.21 List examples of emerging and reemerging infectious diseases. Section: 13.03 Topic: Epidemiology Multiple Choice Questions 108. Which of the following is not true of the preliminary findings by the HMP thus far? A. the number of bacterial genes outnumber human genes by millions in the holobiont B. there are many more sterile sites in the human than were previously assumed C. microbial antagonism prevents potential pathogens in the resident biota from causing disease D. viruses have played an important role in guiding the evolution of both humans and their resident flora ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 13.03 Discuss how the Human Microbiome Project has changed our understanding of normal biota. Section: 13.01 Topic: Resident Microbiota 109. An example of an epigenetic change is A. a microbe secreting hyaluronidase to break down host hyaluronic acid. B. Clostridium tetani secreting the exotoxin tetanospasmin. C. a gram-negative organism releasing lipopolysaccharide from its cell wall upon lysis. D. a microbe that can induce changes in host DNA, resulting in suppression of defenses or weakening of individual cells. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 13.11 Explain what an epigenetic change is and how it can influence virulence. Section: 13.02 Topic: Virulence/Host Damage 110. All of the following are examples of epigenetic changes except A. histones are altered, which affects replication and transcription. B. microbial mucinase digests the protective lining of mucous membranes. C. host cell genome is altered, interrupting transcription. D. microbe binds to small RNAs disrupting gene regulation. 111. An epigenetic change is one that occurs when a microbial cell produces a toxin or an exoenzyme that directly damages host cells. FALSE CH-14: Multiple Choice Questions 60. Components of the first line of defense include all of the following, except A. the tough cell sheet of the upper epidermis of the skin. B. the flushing action of tears and blinking. C. nasal hairs. D. phagocytic white blood cells. E. the flushing action of urine. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Objective: 06.01 Microbes are essential for life as we know it and the processes that support life (e.g., in biogeochemical cycles and plant and/or animal microflora). ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 14.02 Identify three components of the first line of defense. Section: 14.01 Topic: Anatomy/Physiology of Defense Topic: Basic Host Defenses Topic: First Line of Defense 61. Nonspecific chemical defenses include A. lysozyme. B. lactic acid and electrolytes of sweat. C. the skin's acidic pH and fatty acids. D. stomach hydrochloric acid. E. All of the choices are correct. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Objective: 06.01 Microbes are essential for life as we know it and the processes that support life (e.g., in biogeochemical cycles and plant and/or animal microflora). ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 14.02 Identify three components of the first line of defense. Section: 14.01 Topic: Anatomy/Physiology of Defense Topic: Basic Host Defenses Topic: First Line of Defense 1. The chemical found in tears and saliva that hydrolyzes the peptidoglycan in certain bacterial cell walls is ______. A. lactic acid B. bile C. histamine D. hydrochloric acid E. lysozyme ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Objective: 06.01 Microbes are essential for life as we know it and the processes that support life (e.g., in biogeochemical cycles and plant and/or animal microflora). ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 14.02 Identify three components of the first line of defense. Section: 14.01 Topic: Anatomy/Physiology of Defense Topic: Basic Host Defenses Topic: First Line of Defense 2. The body region where a ciliary escalator helps to sweep microbes trapped in mucus away from that body site is the ______. A. digestive tract B. eyes C. skin D. respiratory tract E. urinary tract ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Objective: 06.01 Microbes are essential for life as we know it and the processes that support life (e.g., in biogeochemical cycles and plant and/or animal microflora). ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 14.01 Summarize the three lines of host defenses. Learning Outcome: 14.02 Identify three components of the first line of defense. Section: 14.01 Topic: Anatomy/Physiology of Defense Topic: Basic Host Defenses Topic: First Line of Defense 5. Which body region is protected by fatty acids, acidic pH, lactic acid, and a tough cell barrier with its own normal biota? A. Eyes B. Skin C. Urinary tract D. Digestive tract E. Respiratory tract ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Objective: 06.01 Microbes are essential for life as we know it and the processes that support life (e.g., in biogeochemical cycles and plant and/or animal microflora). ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 14.01 Summarize the three lines of host defenses. Learning Outcome: 14.02 Identify three components of the first line of defense. Section: 14.01 Topic: Anatomy/Physiology of Defense Topic: Basic Host Defenses Topic: First Line of Defense 6. Keratin is an important aspect of nonspecific defense because it A. is toxic to pathogens. B. destroys pathogens. C. physically restricts pathogens to a specific region. D. creates a physical barrier against pathogens. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Objective: 06.01 Microbes are essential for life as we know it and the processes that support life (e.g., in biogeochemical cycles and plant and/or animal microflora). ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 14.02 Identify three components of the first line of defense. Section: 14.01 Topic: Anatomy/Physiology of Defense Topic: Basic Host Defenses Topic: First Line of Defense 7. All of the following are physical barriers to pathogens, except ______. hairs T cells unbroken skin mucous tears ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Objective: 06.01 Microbes are essential for life as we know it and the processes that support life (e.g., in biogeochemical cycles and plant and/or animal microflora). ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 14.02 Identify three components of the first line of defense. Section: 14.01 Topic: Anatomy/Physiology of Defense Topic: Basic Host Defenses Topic: First Line of Defense E. Lysozyme is found in ______. tears salivary secretions sweat from sweat glands All of the choices are correct. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Objective: 06.01 Microbes are essential for life as we know it and the processes that support life (e.g., in biogeochemical cycles and plant and/or animal microflora). ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 14.02 Identify three components of the first line of defense. Section: 14.01 Topic: Anatomy/Physiology of Defense Topic: Basic Host Defenses Topic: First Line of Defense 10. A properly functioning immune system is responsible for A. surveillance of the body. B. recognition of foreign material. C. destruction of foreign material. D. All of the choices are correct. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Objective: 06.01 Microbes are essential for life as we know it and the processes that support life (e.g., in biogeochemical cycles and plant and/or animal microflora). ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 14.01 Summarize the three lines of host defenses. Section: 14.01 Topic: Basic Host Defenses 11. Immune system cells differentiate between self and foreign cells by their ______. A. markers B. sizes C. cell processes D. shapes E. cell walls ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Objective: 06.01 Microbes are essential for life as we know it and the processes that support life (e.g., in biogeochemical cycles and plant and/or animal microflora). ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 14.04 Define marker, and discuss its importance in the second and third lines of defense. Section: 14.02 Topic: Basic Host Defenses 13. The term _____ is given to any foreign substance that stimulates a specific immune system response. A. antibody B. allergen C. antigen D. foreign body ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Objective: 06.01 Microbes are essential for life as we know it and the processes that support life (e.g., in biogeochemical cycles and plant and/or animal microflora). ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 14.01 Summarize the three lines of host defenses. Learning Outcome: 14.04 Define marker, and discuss its importance in the second and third lines of defense. Section: 14.01 Section: 14.02 Topic: Basic Host Defenses 12. The main function of the mononuclear phagocyte system is to provide F. surveillance cells. G. a connection between tissues and organs. H. filtration of extracellular fluid. I. filtration of blood. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Objective: 06.01 Microbes are essential for life as we know it and the processes that support life (e.g., in biogeochemical cycles and plant and/or animal microflora). ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 14.05 Name four body compartments that participate in immunity. Learning Outcome: 14.06 List the components of the mononuclear phagocyte system. Section: 14.03 Topic: Second Line Innate Defenses 14. Which of the following fluid compartments is not a partner in immune function? A. Extracellular fluid B. Intracellular fluid C. Blood stream D. Lymphatic system ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Objective: 06.01 Microbes are essential for life as we know it and the processes that support life (e.g., in biogeochemical cycles and plant and/or animal microflora). ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 14.05 Name four body compartments that participate in immunity. Section: 14.03 Topic: Anatomy/Physiology of Defense Topic: Second Line Innate Defenses 15. Plasma is the liquid portion of blood in which blood cells are suspended. is mostly water. contains albumin and globulins. contains fibrinogen. All of the choices are correct. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Objective: 06.01 Microbes are essential for life as we know it and the processes that support life (e.g., in biogeochemical cycles and plant and/or animal microflora). ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 14.05 Name four body compartments that participate in immunity. Learning Outcome: 14.08 Differentiate between whole blood, plasma, and serum. Section: 14.03 Topic: Anatomy/Physiology of Defense Topic: Second Line Innate Defenses E. Which of the following is incorrect about blood cells? A. They develop from undifferentiated stem cells. B. They include glial cells. 17. They include erythrocytes that, when mature, lose their nuclei. 18. After birth, they are produced in red bone marrow sites. 19. They include leukocytes that are either granulocytes or agranulocytes. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Objective: 06.01 Microbes are essential for life as we know it and the processes that support life (e.g., in biogeochemical cycles and plant and/or animal microflora). ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 14.09 Name six types of blood cells that function in nonspecific immunity, and specify the most important function of each. Section: 14.03 Topic: Anatomy/Physiology of Defense Topic: Second Line Innate Defenses F. The blood cells that function in allergic reactions and inflammation, contain peroxidase and lysozyme, and particularly target parasitic worms and fungi are ______. basophils lymphocytes eosinophils monocytes neutrophils ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Objective: 06.01 Microbes are essential for life as we know it and the processes that support life (e.g., in biogeochemical cycles and plant and/or animal microflora). ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 14.09 Name six types of blood cells that function in nonspecific immunity, and specify the most important function of each. Section: 14.03 Topic: Anatomy/Physiology of Defense Topic: Second Line Innate Defenses 18. The least numerous of all white blood cells that release histamine during inflammation and allergic reactions are ______. A. eosinophils B. lymphocytes C. neutrophils D. monocytes E. basophils ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Objective: 06.01 Microbes are essential for life as we know it and the processes that support life (e.g., in biogeochemical cycles and plant and/or animal microflora). ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 14.09 Name six types of blood cells that function in nonspecific immunity, and specify the most important function of each. Section: 14.03 Topic: Anatomy/Physiology of Defense Topic: Second Line Innate Defenses 18. Which white blood cells comprise 20% to 30% of the circulating WBCs and are the cells that function in the body's specific immune system? 19. Monocytes 20.Lymphocytes 21. Neutrophils 22. Eosinophils 23. Basophils ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Objective: 06.01 Microbes are essential for life as we know it and the processes that support life (e.g., in biogeochemical cycles and plant and/or animal microflora). ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 14.09 Name six types of blood cells that function in nonspecific immunity, and specify the most important function of each. Section: 14.03 Topic: Anatomy/Physiology of Defense Topic: Second Line Innate Defenses 20. The most numerous WBCs that have multilobed nuclei and are very phagocytic are ______. A. neutrophils B. lymphocytes C. monocytes D. basophils E. eosinophils ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Objective: 06.01 Microbes are essential for life as we know it and the processes that support life (e.g., in biogeochemical cycles and plant and/or animal microflora). ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 14.09 Name six types of blood cells that function in nonspecific immunity, and specify the most important function of each. Section: 14.03 Topic: Anatomy/Physiology of Defense Topic: Second Line Innate Defenses 21. Which white blood cells comprise 3-7% of circulating WBCs, are phagocytic, and can migrate out into body tissues to differentiate into macrophages? Basophils Eosinophils Neutrophils Monocytes Lymphocytes ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Objective: 06.01 Microbes are essential for life as we know it and the processes that support life (e.g., in biogeochemical cycles and plant and/or animal microflora). ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 14.09 Name six types of blood cells that function in nonspecific immunity, and specify the most important function of each. Section: 14.03 Topic: Second Line Innate Defenses 22. All of the following pertain to platelets, except they are not whole cells but are pieces of cells. they originate from giant multinucleate cells called megakaryocytes. they function in blood clotting and inflammation. they function primarily in hemostasis. they contain hemoglobin to transport oxygen and carbon dioxide. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 14.08 Differentiate between whole blood, plasma, and serum. Section: 14.03 Topic: Anatomy/Physiology of Defense 23. Hematopoiesis is the production of only red blood cells. loss of blood due to hemorrhaging. migration of white blood cells from the blood out to the tissues. production of white blood cells, red blood cells, and platelets. plugging of broken vessels to stop bleeding. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 14.08 Differentiate between whole blood, plasma, and serum. Learning Outcome: 14.09 Name six types of blood cells that function in nonspecific immunity, and specify the most important function of each. Section: 14.03 Topic: Second Line Innate Defenses 24. Plasma cells are derived from T lymphocytes. function in cell-mediated immunity. function in blood clotting. produce and secrete antibodies. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 14.10 Describe the major roles of T and B lymphocytes. Section: 14.03 Topic: Basic Host Defenses 25. Which type of white blood cell is particularly attracted to sites of parasitic worm infections? 25. Basophils 26. Neutrophils 27.Lymphocytes 28. Eosinophils E. Monocytes ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 14.09 Name six types of blood cells that function in nonspecific immunity, and specify the most important function of each. Section: 14.03 Topic: Second Line Innate Defenses 28. All of the following are granulocytes except _____. A. neutrophils B. eosinophils C. lymphocytes D. basophils E. All of the choices are granulocytes. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 14.09 Name six types of blood cells that function in nonspecific immunity, and specify the most important function of each. Section: 14.03 Topic: Second Line Innate Defenses F. The granules of neutrophils contain ______. histamine antigens peroxidase digestive enzymes antibodies ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 14.09 Name six types of blood cells that function in nonspecific immunity, and specify the most important function of each. Section: 14.03 Topic: Second Line Innate Defenses F. The granules of eosinophils contain ______. peroxidase antigens histamine antibodies serotonin ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 14.09 Name six types of blood cells that function in nonspecific immunity, and specify the most important function of each. Section: 14.03 Topic: Second Line Innate Defenses 30. The granules of basophils contain ______. A. digestive enzymes B. histamine C. antigens D. antibodies E. lysozyme ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 14.09 Name six types of blood cells that function in nonspecific immunity, and specify the most important function of each. Section: 14.03 Topic: Second Line Innate Defenses 31. Place the following cells in order from greatest to least phagocytic activity: neutrophils, eosinophils, macrophages. A. Macrophages, eosinophils, neutrophils B. Neutrophils, macrophages, eosinophils C. Eosinophils, macrophages, neutrophils D. Neutrophils, eosinophils, macrophages E. Macrophages, neutrophils, eosinophils ASM Objective: 06.04 Because the true diversity of microbial life is largely unknown, its effects and potential benefits have not been fully explored. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 14.09 Name six types of blood cells that function in nonspecific immunity, and specify the most important function of each. Section: 14.03 Topic: Second Line Innate Defenses 32. Neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils are called _____ because they have prominent cytoplasmic inclusions that appear with identifying, characteristic colors in a stained blood smear. A. agranulocytes B. granulocytes C. monocytes D. leukocytes ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 14.09 Name six types of blood cells that function in nonspecific immunity, and specify the most important function of each. Section: 14.03 Topic: Second Line Innate Defenses 38. Humoral immunity involves ______, while _____ function in cell-mediated immunity. T cells; B cells monocytes; basophils B cells; neutrophils basophils; T cells B cells; T cells ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 14.09 Name six types of blood cells that function in nonspecific immunity, and specify the most important function of each. Learning Outcome: 14.10 Describe the major roles of T and B lymphocytes. Section: 14.03 Topic: Basic Host Defenses 34. When monocytes migrate from the blood out to the tissues, they are transformed by inflammatory mediators to develop into ______. A. macrophages B. primary phagocytes C. neutrophils D. killer T cells E. cytotoxic T cells ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 14.09 Name six types of blood cells that function in nonspecific immunity, and specify the most important function of each. Section: 14.03 Topic: Second Line Innate Defenses 33. A type of monocyte that has long, thin processes to trap pathogens is a(n) ______. A. dendritic cell B. platelet C. macrophage D. eosinophil E. mast cell ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 14.09 Name six types of blood cells that function in nonspecific immunity, and specify the most important function of each. Section: 14.03 Topic: Second Line Innate Defenses 36. Which of the following lymphoid organs or tissues has the immunological function of filtering pathogens from the blood? A. Tonsils B. Thymus C. Lymph nodes D. Spleen E. GALT ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 14.06 List the components of the mononuclear phagocyte system. Learning Outcome: 14.07 Fully describe the structure and function of the lymphatic system. Section: 14.03 Topic: Anatomy/Physiology of Defense 37. What structures are found along lymphatic vessels and are heavily clustered in the armpit, groin, and neck? A. Spleen B. Thymus C. GALT D. Tonsils E. Lymph nodes ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 14.07 Fully describe the structure and function of the lymphatic system. Section: 14.03 Topic: Anatomy/Physiology of Defense 44. Which gland shrinks in size during adulthood and has hormones that function in maturation of T lymphocytes? A. GALT B. Spleen C. Lymph nodes D. Thymus E. Tonsils ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 14.07 Fully describe the structure and function of the lymphatic system. Section: 14.03 Topic: Anatomy/Physiology of Defense W. The lymphoid tissues of the intestinal tract are collectively referred to as ______. GALT the thymus lymph nodes tonsils the spleen ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 14.07 Fully describe the structure and function of the lymphatic system. Section: 14.03 Topic: Anatomy/Physiology of Defense 45. Diapedesis is the A. production of only red blood cells. B. plugging of broken vessels to stop bleeding. C. production of white blood cells, red blood cells, and platelets. D. migration of white blood cells from the blood out to the tissues. E. loss of blood due to hemorrhaging. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 14.13 Outline the steps in inflammation. Section: 14.03 Topic: Second Line Innate Defenses 47. The four classic signs and symptoms of inflammation include all of the following except ______. A. pain B. redness C. warmth D. chills E. swelling ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 14.13 Outline the steps in inflammation. Section: 14.03 Topic: Second Line Innate Defenses 43. All of the following are events of early inflammation except A. macrophages appear first and begin phagocytosis. B. chemical mediators and cytokines are released. C. brief vasoconstriction is followed by vasodilation. D. exudate and pus can accumulate. E. capillaries become more permeable, resulting in edema. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 14.13 Outline the steps in inflammation. Section: 14.03 Topic: Anatomy/Physiology of Defense 51. Which of the following is incorrect about inflammation? A. Serotonin causes smooth muscle contraction. B. Inflammation can last hours to years. C. Basophils and mast cells release histamine. D. Fever could be beneficial to inhibiting the pathogen. E. Pyrogens cause vasodilation and increased capillary permeability. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 14.13 Outline the steps in inflammation. Section: 14.04 Topic: Second Line Innate Defenses 52. Histamine, serotonin, and bradykinin are all mediators that increase chemotaxis. mediators of T-cell activity. fever inducers. mediators of B-cell activity. vasoactive mediators. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 14.13 Outline the steps in inflammation. Section: 14.04 Topic: Second Line Innate Defenses 43. Each of the following is a term reflecting a process involved in the migration of white blood cells except ______. 68. chemotaxis 69. vasodilation 70. motility 71.phagocytosis 72.diapedesis ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 14.13 Outline the steps in inflammation. Section: 14.04 Topic: Second Line Innate Defenses 56. The leakage of vascular fluid into tissues is called ______. A. pus B. chemotaxis C. edema D. vasoactivity E. diapedesis ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 14.13 Outline the steps in inflammation. Section: 14.04 Topic: Second Line Innate Defenses 45. Which of the following is mismatched in relation to inflammation? 57. Tumor - cancer 58. Rubor - redness 59. Dolor - pain 60. Calor - warmth ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 14.13 Outline the steps in inflammation. Section: 14.04 Topic: Second Line Innate Defenses 60. Which of the following is not a chief function of inflammation? A. Cause a fever B. Start tissue repair C. Block further invasion D. Mobilize and attract immune components to injury site E. Destroy microbes ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 14.13 Outline the steps in inflammation. Section: 14.04 Topic: Second Line Innate Defenses 54. The circulating substances that affect the hypothalamus and initiate fever are ______. A. interferons B. lysozymes C. complement D. leukotrines E. pyrogens ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 14.13 Outline the steps in inflammation. Section: 14.04 Topic: Second Line Innate Defenses 56. A person will typically experience the sensation of _____ when fever is starting to occur in the body. A. pain B. chills C. sweating D. heat ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 14.14 Discuss the mechanism of fever and its role in nonspecific immunity. Section: 14.04 Topic: Second Line Innate Defenses W. Each of the following are benefits of fever except it increases the availability of iron. it increases metabolism. it stimulates hematopoiesis. it increases phagocytosis. it reduces the ability of temperature-sensitive organisms to multiply. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 14.14 Discuss the mechanism of fever and its role in nonspecific immunity. Section: 14.04 Topic: Second Line Innate Defenses 64. Which of the following is not a type of phagocyte? A. Monocyte B. Lymphocyte C. Macrophage D. Neutrophil E. Kupffer cell ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 14.12 Summarize the steps in phagocytosis, and describe the roles of PAMPs in this process. Section: 14.04 Topic: Second Line Innate Defenses 65. Which of the following is not an event of phagocytosis? A. Ingestion B. Destruction C. Diapedesis D. Chemotaxis E. Phagolysosome formation ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 14.12 Summarize the steps in phagocytosis, and describe the roles of PAMPs in this process. Section: 14.04 Topic: Second Line Innate Defenses 67. What type of molecules act to draw phagocytes to foreign substances? A. PAMPs B. IFNs C. BALTs D. RES E. MALTs ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 14.12 Summarize the steps in phagocytosis, and describe the roles of PAMPs in this process. Section: 14.04 Topic: Second Line Innate Defenses U. Which of the following is a chemical used by phagocytes to destroy ingested foreign substances? Hydrogen peroxide Nitric oxide Lactic acid Superoxide anion All of these are used. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 14.12 Summarize the steps in phagocytosis, and describe the roles of PAMPs in this process. Section: 14.04 Topic: Second Line Innate Defenses 63. All of the following pertain to interferon except A. it inhibits viruses, tumors, and cancer gene expression. B. it increases capillary permeability and vasodilation. C. it is produced by certain white blood cells and tissue cells. D. it includes alpha, beta, and gamma types. E. it is a protein. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 14.16 Name four types of antimicrobial proteins. Section: 14.04 Topic: Second Line Innate Defenses 63. Which of the following is incorrect about complement? A. It acts in a cascade reaction. B. It is composed of at least 20 blood proteins. C. It involves a classical pathway. D. It only appears in the blood during a response to a pathogen. E. It involves an alternate pathway. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 14.15 Compare and contrast the three different complement pathways. Section: 14.04 Topic: Second Line Innate Defenses 69. The membrane attack stage of the complement cascade involves A. initiation of the cascade. B. the production of inflammatory cytokines. C. C1q binding to surface receptors on a membrane. D. a ring-shaped protein digesting holes in bacterial cell membranes and virus envelopes. E. the cleaving of C3 to yield C3a and C3b. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 14.16 Name four types of antimicrobial proteins. Section: 14.04 Topic: Second Line Innate Defenses 70. The _____ system of blood proteins act to lyse foreign cells and viruses. A. lymphoid B. cell-mediated C. complement D. humoral immunity ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 14.15 Compare and contrast the three different complement pathways. Section: 14.04 Topic: Second Line Innate Defenses 58. What is the first step in the major events of the inflammatory process? 71. Activation of complement 72. Vascular reactions 73. Injury and mast cells releasing chemical mediators 74. Formation of pus and edema 75. Scar formation and/or resolution ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 14.13 Outline the steps in inflammation. Section: 14.04 Topic: Second Line Innate Defenses 59. During what process are hypochlorite and hydrogen peroxide produced in order to destroy bacteria and inhibit viral replication? 71. Complement production 72. Inflammation 73. Interferon production 74.Lysozyme production 75. Phagocytosis ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 14.12 Summarize the steps in phagocytosis, and describe the roles of PAMPs in this process. Section: 14.04 Topic: Second Line Innate Defenses 60. Which protein can be produced by a virus-infected cell, in order to communicate with other cells that need to produce antiviral proteins? 72. Albumin 73. Histamine 74. Interferon 75. Complement 76.Lysozyme ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 14.16 Name four types of antimicrobial proteins. Section: 14.04 Topic: Second Line Innate Defenses True / False Questions 77. Genetic differences among species and within a species can convey genetic immunity to certain diseases. TRUE ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 14.01 Summarize the three lines of host defenses. Section: 14.01 Topic: Basic Host Defenses 77. Plasma is also called lymph. FALSE ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 14.07 Fully describe the structure and function of the lymphatic system. Learning Outcome: 14.08 Differentiate between whole blood, plasma, and serum. Section: 14.03 Topic: Anatomy/Physiology of Defense 78. B lymphocytes and T lymphocytes mature in the thymus gland. FALSE ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 14.09 Name six types of blood cells that function in nonspecific immunity, and specify the most important function of each. Learning Outcome: 14.10 Describe the major roles of T and B lymphocytes. Section: 14.03 Topic: Basic Host Defenses 80. Monocytes and lymphocytes are agranular leukocytes. TRUE ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 14.09 Name six types of blood cells that function in nonspecific immunity, and specify the most important function of each. Section: 14.03 Topic: Anatomy/Physiology of Defense 79. During inflammation, a high neutrophil count is a common sign of bacterial infection. TRUE ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 14.09 Name six types of blood cells that function in nonspecific immunity, and specify the most important function of each. Section: 14.03 Topic: Anatomy/Physiology of Defense 77. Inflammatory responses are orchestrated by the immune system and are part of the body's third line of defense. FALSE ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 14.13 Outline the steps in inflammation. Section: 14.04 Topic: Second Line Innate Defenses Q. Endotoxin is an exogenous pyrogen. TRUE ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 14.14 Discuss the mechanism of fever and its role in nonspecific immunity. Section: 14.04 Topic: Second Line Innate Defenses 80. A low to moderate fever in an otherwise healthy person should be treated immediately with antipyretic drugs. FALSE ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 14.14 Discuss the mechanism of fever and its role in nonspecific immunity. Section: 14.04 Topic: Second Line Innate Defenses 88. During phagocytosis, intracellular digestion begins as soon as the phagosome is formed. FALSE ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 14.12 Summarize the steps in phagocytosis, and describe the roles of PAMPs in this process. Section: 14.04 Topic: Second Line Innate Defenses 81. The production of interferon will protect the host cell from a viral infection. FALSE ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 14.16 Name four types of antimicrobial proteins. Section: 14.04 Topic: Second Line Innate Defenses 87. Complement proteins are produced by the spleen. FALSE ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 14.15 Compare and contrast the three different complement pathways. Section: 14.04 Topic: Second Line Innate Defenses V. Certain complement components stimulate inflammation and phagocytosis. TRUE ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 14.15 Compare and contrast the three different complement pathways. Section: 14.04 Topic: Second Line Innate Defenses Multiple Choice Questions 73. After loading wood into a fireplace, you realize you have gotten a splinter in your finger. Within a short period of time, your finger is painful, red, and swollen, and is warm to the touch. This is an example of ______. A. nonspecific resistance B. specific resistance C. acquired immunity D. adaptive immunity ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 14.01 Summarize the three lines of host defenses. Section: 14.01 Topic: Basic Host Defenses Topic: Second Line Innate Defenses T. Mycobacterium tuberculosis has chemicals in its cell wall that inhibit the fusion of phagocytic vacuoles with lysosomes. Which statement is true? Complement proteins will take over to destroy the bacteria. Antibodies produced by the cells can more effectively kill the bacteria. The bacterium can survive and replicate inside of the phagocytic cell. The bacterium can produce chemicals which can destroy the macrophage housing the bacterium. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 14.12 Summarize the steps in phagocytosis, and describe the roles of PAMPs in this process. Section: 14.04 Topic: Second Line Innate Defenses 75. You have severe itching problems when bitten by an insect. Your friend gives you an ointment to spread on your skin around the bite so that the redness and itching do not bother you. The likely mechanism of this medication would be A. the inactivation of neutrophils. B. the destruction of phagocytic cells. C. to act as an antagonist of histamine. D. the inhibition of lysozyme. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 14.13 Outline the steps in inflammation. Section: 14.04 Topic: Second Line Innate Defenses 76. Your 81-year old grandfather has been diagnosed with cancer of the thymus. The doctor is urging surgical removal of the cancer, but you and the family are worried about the consequences of removing an entire organ such as the thymus. Which statement is correct? A. Your grandfather would not be able to produce complement proteins necessary for pathogen control and inflammation. B. Your grandfather will have a loss of T lymphocytes and will have an immune deficiency. C. Your grandfather would not have sufficient phagocytic cells and would not be able to contain bacterial infections. D. There is nothing to worry about; thymus removal will not affect your grandfather's immune status at his age. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 14.07 Fully describe the structure and function of the lymphatic system. Section: 14.03 Topic: Basic Host Defenses 77. A patient visits your clinic often with recurrent respiratory infections. Based upon their medical history, it appears they have been an active smoker for over 40 years. Select the statement that most accurately reflects how this information may reveal why the patient is highly susceptible to respiratory pathogens. A. Smoking can paralyze the ciliary escalator. B. Smoking decreases the formation and effectiveness of complement proteins. C. Smoking directly inhibits B- and T-cell action. D. Smoking decreases the activity of neutrophils. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 14.02 Identify three components of the first line of defense. Section: 14.01 Topic: Basic Host Defenses 83. The normal human microbiota is considered part of the 1st line of defense because A. microbial antagonism keeps potential pathogens in check. B. microbiota cause an inflammatory response, eliminating pathogens. C. pathogens and normal biota cannot exist in the same location. D. resident bacterial cells stimulate phagocytosis of pathogens. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 14.03 Discuss the role of normal biota as a first-line defense mechanism. Section: 14.01 Topic: First Line of Defense 84. Microbial antagonism is the A. prevention of immune responses by the resident microbiota. B. suppression of the complement cascade by microbes. C. competition for nutrients, oxygen, and space between the resident microbiota and potential pathogens. D. inhibition of T cell binding to microbes. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 14.03 Discuss the role of normal biota as a first-line defense mechanism. Section: 14.01 Topic: First Line of Defense True / False Questions 88. Despite not being a physical barrier, the resident microbiota are considered part of the first line of defense since they stimulate inflammation and fever, enhancing pathogen removal. FALSE ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 14.03 Discuss the role of normal biota as a first-line defense mechanism. Section: 14.01 Topic: First Line of Defense Multiple Choice Questions 90. Genetic markers that distinguish a self cell from a foreign invader are typically ______. DNA or RNA lipids or lipoproteins proteins or glycoproteins polysaccharides ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 14.04 Define marker, and discuss its importance in the second and third lines of defense. Section: 14.02 Topic: Basic Host Defenses X. The mononuclear phagocyte system (MPS) is an intricate network throughout the body that comprises connective tissue and monocytes. connective tissue and lymphocytes. connective tissue fibers and phagocytic white blood cells. connective tissue fibers, mast cells, and basophils. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 14.06 List the components of the mononuclear phagocyte system. Section: 14.03 Topic: Anatomy/Physiology of Defense 48. All of the following comprise the second line of defense except ______. A. phagocytosis B. fever C. inflammation D. antibody production E. complement proteins ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 14.11 List the four major categories of nonspecific immunity. Section: 14.04 Topic: Second Line Innate Defenses 53. One of the major differences between the first and second line of defense is that A. the first line defenses involve complement proteins whereas the second line defenses involve antibodies. B. the first line defenses involve the respiratory tract whereas the second line defenses involve the gastrointestinal tract. C. the first line defenses are mechanisms whereas the second line defenses are physical barriers to infection. D. the first line defenses are anatomical barriers whereas the second line defenses are mechanisms. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 14.11 List the four major categories of nonspecific immunity. Section: 14.04 Topic: Second Line Innate Defenses True / False Questions 54. The second line of defense includes inflammation, phagocytosis, fever, and antimicrobial proteins. TRUE ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 14.11 List the four major categories of nonspecific immunity. Section: 14.04 Topic: Second Line Innate Defenses Multiple Choice Questions 59. Which of the following represents the correct order of activity in the complement cascade? A. Amplification, initiation, membrane attack, and polymerization B. Polymerization, initiation, membrane attack, and amplification C. Initiation, membrane attack, polymerization, and amplification D. Membrane attack, initiation, polymerization, and amplification E. Initiation, amplification, polymerization, and membrane attack ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 14.15 Compare and contrast the three different complement pathways. Section: 14.04 Topic: Second Line Innate Defenses 63. If an individual has a genetic disorder whereby they lack the ability to make complement protein C3, the likely consequence is excessive fever development. enhanced inflammation. a higher incidence of bacterial and viral infections. an inability to synthesize antibodies. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 14.15 Compare and contrast the three different complement pathways. Section: 14.04 Topic: Second Line Innate Defenses 58. You cut your finger dicing chicken for dinner. Which of the following is not a source of chemicals that stimulate the inflammatory response that results from the injury? A. Bacterial cells that infect the wound B. Antibody-producing plasma cells C. Localized leukocytes D. Host tissues damaged by the knife ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 14.13 Outline the steps in inflammation. Section: 14.04 Topic: Second Line Innate Defenses True / False Questions 57. Interferons do not protect the cell that secretes them. TRUE ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 14.16 Name four types of antimicrobial proteins. Section: 14.04 Topic: Second Line Innate Defenses 55. The alternate complement pathway uses complement proteins C1, C2, and C4. FALSE 56. Monocytes are the mature form of macrophages; they are found in tissues. FALSE Multiple Choice Questions 50. A foreign molecule that causes a specific immune response is a(n) ______. A. PAMP B. marker C. antigen D. hapten E. antibody ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 15.01 Describe how the third line of defense is different from the other host defense mechanisms. Section: 15.01 Topic: Antigens and Antibodies 51. Acquired specific immunity involves the response of A. interferon. B. mucus membranes. C. skin barriers. D. lysozyme. E. B and T lymphocytes. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 15.05 Compare and contrast the process of antigen recognition in T cells and B cells. Section: 15.01 Topic: Adaptive Line of Defense 52. The embryonic yolk sac, the liver, and the bone marrow are sites where A. T lymphocytes complete maturation. B. immune responses to antigen occur. C. stem cells give rise to immature lymphocytes. D. antigen is filtered from the blood. E. antigen is filtered from tissue fluid. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 15.06 Summarize the maturation process of both B cells and T cells. Section: 15.01 Topic: Lymphocyte Development and Maturation 4. The antibody-secreting progeny cells of a B-cell clone are called 53.plasma cells. 54.antibodies. 55.bursa cells. 56.activated macrophages. 57. sensitized T cells. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 15.15 Diagram the steps of B-cell activation, and list the types of B cells produced in this process. Learning Outcome: 15.08 Outline the processes of clonal selection and expansion. Section: 15.01 Topic: Humoral Response (or Antibody-Mediated Response) Topic: Lymphocyte Development and Maturation 54. Helper T cells A. activate B cells and other T cells. B. suppress immune reactions. C. function in allergic reactions. D. directly destroy target cells. E. secrete antibodies. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 15.06 Summarize the maturation process of both B cells and T cells. Learning Outcome: 15.14 Summarize the process of T-cell activation, and list major types of T cells produced in this process. Section: 15.01 Topic: Cell-Mediated Response 55. Plasma cells A. function in allergic reactions. B. secrete antibodies. C. directly destroy target cells. D. activate B cells and other T cells. E. suppress immune reactions. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 15.15 Diagram the steps of B-cell activation, and list the types of B cells produced in this process. Section: 15.01 Topic: Humoral Response (or Antibody-Mediated Response) 56. Lymphocyte maturation involves hormonal signals that initiate development. B cells maturing in bone marrow sites. T cells maturing in the thymus. release of mature lymphocytes to begin migration to various lymphoid organs. All of the choices are correct. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 15.06 Summarize the maturation process of both B cells and T cells. Learning Outcome: 15.07 Draw a diagram illustrating how lymphocytes are capable of responding to nearly any antigen imaginable. Section: 15.01 Topic: Lymphocyte Development and Maturation 58. What type of cells secrete antibodies? A. Antigen-presenting cells B. Cytotoxic T cells C. Helper T cells D. Plasma cells E. Memory B cells ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 15.15 Diagram the steps of B-cell activation, and list the types of B cells produced in this process. Section: 15.01 Topic: Humoral Response (or Antibody-Mediated Response) Topic: Lymphocyte Development and Maturation 60. Cell surface markers involved in immune reactions A. are the result of genetic expression. B. function in recognition of self molecules. C. receive and transmit chemical messages among other cells of the system. D. aid in cellular development. E. All of the choices are correct. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 15.03 Discuss four major functions of immune system markers. Learning Outcome: 15.04 Define the role of the major histocompatibility complex (MHC), and list the three classes of MHC genes. Section: 15.01 Topic: Adaptive Line of Defense Topic: Lymphocyte Development and Maturation 61. The major histocompatibility complex is A. a set of glycoproteins, called MHC antigens, found on all body cells. B. a set of genes that code for MHC glycoproteins. C. found on the third chromosome. D. located in the thymus gland. E. All of the choices are correct. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 15.04 Define the role of the major histocompatibility complex (MHC), and list the three classes of MHC genes. Section: 15.01 Topic: Adaptive Line of Defense Topic: Lymphocyte Development and Maturation 62. Class II MHC genes code for A. certain secreted complement components. B. self receptors recognized by T lymphocytes. C. all HLA antigens. D. receptors located primarily on macrophages and B cells. E. All of the choices are correct. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 15.04 Define the role of the major histocompatibility complex (MHC), and list the three classes of MHC genes. Learning Outcome: 15.09 Describe the structure of both a B-cell receptor and a T-cell receptor. Section: 15.01 Topic: Lymphocyte Development and Maturation 2. Class I MHC genes code for A. self receptors recognized by T lymphocytes. B. all HLA antigens. C. receptors located primarily on macrophages and B cells. D. certain secreted complement components. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 15.04 Define the role of the major histocompatibility complex (MHC), and list the three classes of MHC genes. Learning Outcome: 15.09 Describe the structure of both a B-cell receptor and a T-cell receptor. Section: 15.01 Topic: Lymphocyte Development and Maturation 3. The histocompatibility complex proteins function in A. antibody proliferation. B. T cell maturation. C. recognition of self. D. B cell maturation. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 15.04 Define the role of the major histocompatibility complex (MHC), and list the three classes of MHC genes. Section: 15.01 Topic: Lymphocyte Development and Maturation 6. MHC molecules are found on all of the following cells except ______. A. red blood cells B. epithelial cells C. eosinophils D. islet of Langerhans cells E. leukocytes ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 15.04 Define the role of the major histocompatibility complex (MHC), and list the three classes of MHC genes. Section: 15.01 Topic: Lymphocyte Development and Maturation 7. Lymphocytes A. possess MHC antigens for recognizing self. B. have membrane receptors that recognize foreign antigens. C. gain tolerance to self by destruction of lymphocytes that could react against self. D. develop into clones of B and T cells with extreme variations of specificity. E. All of the choices are correct. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 15.04 Define the role of the major histocompatibility complex (MHC), and list the three classes of MHC genes. Learning Outcome: 15.06 Summarize the maturation process of both B cells and T cells. Learning Outcome: 15.07 Draw a diagram illustrating how lymphocytes are capable of responding to nearly any antigen imaginable. Section: 15.02 Topic: Adaptive Line of Defense Topic: Lymphocyte Development and Maturation 8. The monomer subunit of immunoglobulin molecules has all of the following except two identical light polypeptide chains. two identical heavy polypeptide chains. four antigen binding sites. disulfide bonds between polypeptide chains. a variable and constant region on each polypeptide chain. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 15.19 List the five types of antibodies and important characteristics of each. Section: 15.02 Topic: Antigens and Antibodies F. The region of each antibody molecule where amino acid composition is highly diversified from one clone of B lymphocytes to another is the ______ region. joining variable constant hinge light ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 15.19 List the five types of antibodies and important characteristics of each. Section: 15.02 Section: 15.06 Topic: Antigens and Antibodies 11. Which of the following is not true of the antigen-independent period of lymphocyte development? A. Many lymphocytes with different specificities are formed. B. Random genetic rearrangements occur to produce different surface protein receptors. C. Lymphocytes with specificity for self are destroyed. D. Lymphocytes form from stem cells in the bone marrow. E. Mature lymphocytes populate lymphatic organs and encounter antigens. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 15.05 Compare and contrast the process of antigen recognition in T cells and B cells. Section: 15.02 Topic: Adaptive Line of Defense 12. Destruction of lymphocytes with self-specificity is called ______. A. proliferation. B. differentiation. C. clonal selection. D. clonal deletion. E. hypersensitivity. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 15.08 Outline the processes of clonal selection and expansion. Section: 15.02 Topic: Adaptive Line of Defense Topic: Lymphocyte Development and Maturation 14. Properties of effective antigens include all of the following except A. they are foreign to the immune system. B. they have molecular complexity. C. they are large molecules with a minimum molecular weight of 1,000. D. they are large polymers made up of repeating subunits. E. they are cells or large, complex molecules. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 15.10 Compare the terms antigen and epitope. Learning Outcome: 15.11 List characteristics of antigens that optimize their immunogenicity. Section: 15.01 Topic: Antigens and Antibodies J. The molecular fragment on an antigen molecule that a lymphocyte recognizes and responds to is called a(n) ______. hapten antigen binding site variable region epitope ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 15.10 Compare the terms antigen and epitope. Section: 15.03 Topic: Antigens and Antibodies 15. Small foreign molecules that are too small by themselves to elicit an immune response are termed ______. A. haptens B. antigen binding sites C. epitopes D. variable regions ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 15.10 Compare the terms antigen and epitope. Learning Outcome: 15.11 List characteristics of antigens that optimize their immunogenicity. Section: 15.03 Topic: Antigens and Antibodies 16. Superantigens are body tissues that the immune system mistakes as foreign. cell markers found in some member of a species but not in other members. bacterial toxins that activate T cells at a 100 times greater rate than other antigens. antigens that evoke allergic reactions. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 15.05 Compare and contrast the process of antigen recognition in T cells and B cells. Learning Outcome: 15.12 Describe how the immune system responds to alloantigens and superantigens. Section: 15.03 Topic: Antigens and Antibodies F. Antigens that elicit allergic reactions are called ______. allergens autoantigens superantigens heterophilic antigens ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 15.07 Draw a diagram illustrating how lymphocytes are capable of responding to nearly any antigen imaginable. Learning Outcome: 15.11 List characteristics of antigens that optimize their immunogenicity. Learning Outcome: 15.12 Describe how the immune system responds to alloantigens and superantigens. Section: 15.03 Topic: Antigens and Antibodies 20. Which of the following is not a property of B cells? A. They produce plasma cells and memory cells. B. They have receptors called immunoglobulins. C. They mature in the bone marrow. D. They require antigen presented with MHC proteins. E. There are low numbers circulating in the blood. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 15.15 Diagram the steps of B-cell activation, and list the types of B cells produced in this process. Section: 15.04 Topic: Humoral Response (or Antibody-Mediated Response) G. Antigen presenting cells include dendritic cells. include macrophages. engulf and modify antigen to be more immunogenic. hold and present processed antigen on their cell membrane surface. All of the choices are correct. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 15.12 Describe how the immune system responds to alloantigens and superantigens. Learning Outcome: 15.13 List the types of cells that can act as antigen-presenting cells. Section: 15.03 Topic: Adaptive Line of Defense 19. T cell response to T-dependent antigens requires A. typically a protein antigen. B. binding of the T cell to a class II MHC receptor on a macrophage. C. binding of the T cell to a site on the antigen. D. interleukin-1 activating the T helper cell. E. All of the choices are correct. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 15.05 Compare and contrast the process of antigen recognition in T cells and B cells. Learning Outcome: 15.06 Summarize the maturation process of both B cells and T cells. Section: 15.05 Topic: Cell-Mediated Response 28. During presentation of APC-bound antigen, macrophages and dendritic cells secrete the cytokine _____, which activates T helper cells. 24. interferon 25.histamine 26. interleukin-2 27. interleukin-1 ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 15.14 Summarize the process of T-cell activation, and list major types of T cells produced in this process. Section: 15.05 Topic: Cell-Mediated Response 21. Which is incorrect about the Fc region of an immunoglobulin? A. It contains an effector molecule that can bind to cells such as macrophages and mast cells. B. It forms the antigen binding sites. C. It determines the class to which the immunoglobulin belongs. D. It contains an effector molecule that can fix complement. E. It is called the crystallizable fragment. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 15.18 Diagram an antibody binding antigen, and list the possible end results of this process. Learning Outcome: 15.19 List the five types of antibodies and important characteristics of each. Section: 15.06 Topic: Antigens and Antibodies Topic: Humoral Response (or Antibody-Mediated Response) 22. Which process involves antibodies covering surface receptors on a virus or toxin molecule, thereby disrupting their activity? Opsonization Neutralization Complement fixation Agglutination Anamnestic response ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 15.18 Diagram an antibody binding antigen, and list the possible end results of this process. Section: 15.06 Topic: Antigens and Antibodies Topic: Humoral Response (or Antibody-Mediated Response) 23. Which process involves antibodies cross-linking cells or particles into large aggregates? Neutralization Opsonization Complement fixation Agglutination Anamnestic response ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 15.18 Diagram an antibody binding antigen, and list the possible end results of this process. Learning Outcome: 15.19 List the five types of antibodies and important characteristics of each. Section: 15.05 Topic: Antigens and Antibodies Topic: Humoral Response (or Antibody-Mediated Response) 24. Which process involves antibodies coating microorganisms in order to facilitate phagocytosis? Opsonization Agglutination Anamnestic response Neutralization Complement fixation ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 15.18 Diagram an antibody binding antigen, and list the possible end results of this process. Learning Outcome: 15.19 List the five types of antibodies and important characteristics of each. Section: 15.05 Topic: Antigens and Antibodies Topic: Humoral Response (or Antibody-Mediated Response) 26. Which process involves a more rapid synthesis and greatly increased titer of antibody when the immune system is subsequently exposed to the same antigen? Opsonization Anamnestic response Neutralization Complement fixation Agglutination ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 15.20 Draw and label a graph illustrating the development of a secondary immune response. Section: 15.06 Topic: Adaptive Line of Defense 29. The immunoglobulin class that has a dimer form found in mucus, saliva, colostrum, and other body secretions is ______. A. IgG B. IgM C. IgD D. IgA E. IgE ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 15.19 List the five types of antibodies and important characteristics of each. Section: 15.06 Topic: Adaptive Line of Defense Topic: Antigens and Antibodies Topic: Humoral Response (or Antibody-Mediated Response) F. The immunoglobulin class that is the only one capable of crossing the placenta is ______. IgA IgG IgM IgD IgE ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 15.19 List the five types of antibodies and important characteristics of each. Section: 15.06 Topic: Antigens and Antibodies Topic: Humoral Response (or Antibody-Mediated Response) 29. The immunoglobulin class that has an Fc region that binds to receptors on basophils and mast cells is ______. A. IgA B. IgG C. IgM D. IgD E. IgE ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 15.19 List the five types of antibodies and important characteristics of each. Section: 15.06 Topic: Antigens and Antibodies Topic: Humoral Response (or Antibody-Mediated Response) G. All of the following are characteristics of IgM except it can serve as a B-cell receptor. it is a dimer. it is the first class synthesized by a plasma cell. it has 10 antigen binding sites. it contains a central J chain. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 15.19 List the five types of antibodies and important characteristics of each. Section: 15.06 Topic: Antigens and Antibodies Topic: Humoral Response (or Antibody-Mediated Response) G. Which immunoglobulin class/es can fix complement? IgM only IgG only IgD only IgM and IgG IgE and IgA ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 15.19 List the five types of antibodies and important characteristics of each. Section: 15.06 Topic: Antigens and Antibodies Topic: Humoral Response (or Antibody-Mediated Response) 31. The immunoglobulin/s found on the surface of B cells is/are A. IgM only. B. IgG only. C. IgD only. D. IgM and IgD. E. IgD and IgE. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 15.19 List the five types of antibodies and important characteristics of each. Section: 15.06 Topic: Antigens and Antibodies Topic: Humoral Response (or Antibody-Mediated Response) 32. The most abundant class of antibodies in serum is _____. A. IgE B. IgM C. IgA D. IgG E. IgD ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 15.19 List the five types of antibodies and important characteristics of each. Section: 15.06 Topic: Antigens and Antibodies Topic: Humoral Response (or Antibody-Mediated Response) 33. Each _____ fragment of an antibody molecule contains the variable regions of a heavy and light chain that folds into a groove for one epitope. A. variable B. Fc C. hinge D. FAb E. terminal ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 15.18 Diagram an antibody binding antigen, and list the possible end results of this process. Section: 15.06 Topic: Antigens and Antibodies Topic: Humoral Response (or Antibody-Mediated Response) 39. An activated TH cell produces _____, which is a growth factor for T helper cells and cytotoxic T cells. interleukin-1 interleukin-2 interleukin-12 antiserum complement ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 15.14 Summarize the process of T-cell activation, and list major types of T cells produced in this process. Section: 15.03 Section: 15.04 Topic: Cell-Mediated Response 43. What process generates many B cells and T cells that are activated against specific antigens? 35. Antigen expression 36. Antigen presentation 37. Clonal expansion 38. Antibody production 39. Opsonization ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 15.08 Outline the processes of clonal selection and expansion. Section: 15.04 Topic: Adaptive Line of Defense 37. The most significant cells in graft rejection are A. delayed hypersensitivity T cells. B. natural killer (NK) cells. C. suppressor T cells. D. cytotoxic T cells. E. helper T cells. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 15.14 Summarize the process of T-cell activation, and list major types of T cells produced in this process. Learning Outcome: 15.16 Describe the main functions of the major T-cell types and their subsets. Section: 15.05 Topic: Cell-Mediated Response 45. Which lymphocytes lack specificity for antigen and attack cancer cells and virus-infected cells? 38. Delayed hypersensitivity T cells 39. Natural killer (NK) cells 40. Suppressor T cells 41. Helper T cells 42. Cytotoxic T cells ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 15.14 Summarize the process of T-cell activation, and list major types of T cells produced in this process. Learning Outcome: 15.16 Describe the main functions of the major T-cell types and their subsets. Section: 15.05 Topic: Cell-Mediated Response 45. Cytotoxic T cells A. secrete interleukin-2 to stimulate B and T cells. B. lack specificity for antigen. C. secrete granzymes and perforins that damage target cells. D. are activated by free, soluble antigens. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 15.14 Summarize the process of T-cell activation, and list major types of T cells produced in this process. Learning Outcome: 15.16 Describe the main functions of the major T-cell types and their subsets. Section: 15.05 Topic: Cell-Mediated Response X. Which of the following is not a target for TC cells? Pig transplanted heart Human transplanted liver Virus-infected cells Cancer cells Bacteria ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 15.17 Explain the role of cytotoxic T cells in apoptosis, and list the potential targets of this process. Learning Outcome: 15.18 Diagram an antibody binding antigen, and list the possible end results of this process. Section: 15.05 Topic: Cell-Mediated Response Y. Specific immunity provides long-lasting protection through the production of _____. 46. memory cells 47.plasma cells 48. T helper cells 49.antibodies 50.phagocytotic cells ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 15.08 Outline the processes of clonal selection and expansion. Section: 15.05 Section: 15.06 Topic: Adaptive Line of Defense Topic: Cell-Mediated Response Topic: Humoral Response (or Antibody-Mediated Response) 48. An example of artificial passive immunity would be A. chickenpox infection, followed by lifelong immunity. B. chickenpox vaccine triggering extended immunity to chickenpox. C. giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease. D. a fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 15.21 List the four categories of acquired immunity, and provide examples of each. Section: 15.07 Topic: Classification of Acquired Immunities 44. An example of natural passive immunity would be A. giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease. B. chickenpox infection, followed by lifelong immunity. C. chickenpox vaccine triggering extended immunity to chickenpox. D. a fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 15.21 List the four categories of acquired immunity, and provide examples of each. Section: 15.07 Topic: Classification of Acquired Immunities 52. An example of artificial active immunity would be A. chickenpox vaccine triggering extended immunity to chickenpox. B. a fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta. C. giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease. D. chickenpox infection, followed by lifelong immunity. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 15.07 Draw a diagram illustrating how lymphocytes are capable of responding to nearly any antigen imaginable. Learning Outcome: 15.21 List the four categories of acquired immunity, and provide examples of each. Section: 15.07 Topic: Classification of Acquired Immunities 53. An example of natural active immunity would be chickenpox infection, followed by lifelong immunity. giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease. a fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta. chickenpox vaccine triggering extended immunity to chickenpox. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 15.21 List the four categories of acquired immunity, and provide examples of each. Section: 15.07 Topic: Classification of Acquired Immunities 73. Edward Jenner's work involved A. development of passive immunotherapy. B. immunization using a related, less pathogenic organism to give protection against a more pathogenic one. C. development of an immunization to protect people against cowpox. D. inoculation of dried pus from smallpox pustules into a person to stimulate immunity. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 15.23 List several types of vaccines, and discuss how they are utilized today. Section: 15.07 Topic: Immunization 57. Immunotherapy is the A. use of antitoxins. B. use of immune serum globulin. C. conferring of passive immunity. D. administering of preformed antibodies. E. All of the choices are correct. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 15.23 List several types of vaccines, and discuss how they are utilized today. Section: 15.07 Topic: Immunization 55. High titers of specific antibodies are characteristic of 61. specific immune globulin (SIG). 62.gamma globulin. 63. toxoids. 64. immune serum globulin (ISG). 65.attenuated vaccines. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 15.23 List several types of vaccines, and discuss how they are utilized today. Section: 15.07 Topic: Immunization 61. Killed or inactivated vaccines are prepared by A. treatment with formalin, heat, or radiation. B. removal of virulence genes from the microbe. C. passage of the pathogen through unnatural hosts or tissue culture. D. long-term subculturing of the microbe. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 15.23 List several types of vaccines, and discuss how they are utilized today. Learning Outcome: 15.24 Explain the principle of herd immunity and the risks that unfold when it is not maintained. Section: 15.07 Topic: Immunization 55. Live, attenuated vaccines A. include the Sabin polio vaccine. B. include the measles, mumps, rubella vaccine (MMR). C. contain viable microbes that can multiply in the person. D. require smaller doses and fewer boosters compared to inactivated vaccines. E. All of the choices are correct. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 15.23 List several types of vaccines, and discuss how they are utilized today. Section: 15.07 Topic: Immunization 57. Acellular vaccines and subunit vaccines A. contain modified bacterial exotoxin molecules. B. contain select antigenic components of a pathogen rather than whole cells or viruses. C. utilize DNA strands that will produce the antigen. D. confer passive immunity. E. are always genetically engineered. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 15.23 List several types of vaccines, and discuss how they are utilized today. Section: 15.07 Topic: Immunization X. Antitoxins are always genetically engineered. confer passive immunity. contain select antigenic components of a pathogen rather than whole cells or viruses. utilize DNA strands that will produce the antigen. contain modified bacterial exotoxin molecules. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 15.23 List several types of vaccines, and discuss how they are utilized today. Section: 15.07 Topic: Immunization 65. Vaccinia virus is often used in the technique to make A. a booster. B. gamma globulin. C. an adjuvant. D. a "Trojan horse" recombinant vaccine. E. antibodies to toxin. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 15.22 Discuss the qualities of an effective vaccine. Learning Outcome: 15.23 List several types of vaccines, and discuss how they are utilized today. Section: 15.07 Topic: Immunization 66. Which of the following is a special binding substance that enhances immunogenicity and prolongs antigen retention at the injection site? A. "Trojan horse" recombinant vaccine B. Booster C. Gamma globulin D. Antibodies to toxin E. Adjuvant ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 15.23 List several types of vaccines, and discuss how they are utilized today. Section: 15.07 Topic: Immunization 68. All nucleated cells contain A. class II MHC. B. class I MHC. C. secretory antibodies. D. IgD receptors. E. IgE receptors. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 15.04 Define the role of the major histocompatibility complex (MHC), and list the three classes of MHC genes. Section: 15.01 Topic: Adaptive Line of Defense V. During which response to the antigen do we display a latent period of no secretory antibody synthesis? Primary Secondary Tertiary Quaternary ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 15.20 Draw and label a graph illustrating the development of a secondary immune response. Section: 15.06 Topic: Adaptive Line of Defense True / False Questions 64. Antibody molecules circulate in lymph, blood, and tissue fluids. TRUE ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 15.07 Draw a diagram illustrating how lymphocytes are capable of responding to nearly any antigen imaginable. Learning Outcome: 15.19 List the five types of antibodies and important characteristics of each. Section: 15.06 Topic: Antigens and Antibodies Topic: Humoral Response (or Antibody-Mediated Response) 64. Human B lymphocytes mature in an intestinal region called the bursa. FALSE ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 15.06 Summarize the maturation process of both B cells and T cells. Section: 15.01 Topic: Adaptive Line of Defense 70. Activation of B cells can occur when antigen binds to B cell surface immunoglobulin receptors. TRUE ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 15.06 Summarize the maturation process of both B cells and T cells. Section: 15.04 Topic: Humoral Response (or Antibody-Mediated Response) 71. Clonal selection requires the presence of foreign antigens. TRUE ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 15.08 Outline the processes of clonal selection and expansion. Section: 15.02 Topic: Adaptive Line of Defense 76. After secreting antibodies during an immune response, plasma cells then differentiate into memory cells. FALSE ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 15.06 Summarize the maturation process of both B cells and T cells. Section: 15.06 Topic: Humoral Response (or Antibody-Mediated Response) 76. The hinge region of an antibody has a hypervariable amino acid region where the antigenic determinant fits. FALSE ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 15.18 Diagram an antibody binding antigen, and list the possible end results of this process. Section: 15.06 Topic: Antigens and Antibodies 77. The structural and functional differences that distinguish immunoglobulin isotypes are due to variations associated with their Fc fragments. TRUE ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 15.18 Diagram an antibody binding antigen, and list the possible end results of this process. Section: 15.06 Topic: Antigens and Antibodies 78. One plasma cell will secrete antibodies of various classes, but the antibodies will all have the same specificity. TRUE ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 15.19 List the five types of antibodies and important characteristics of each. Section: 15.06 Topic: Antigens and Antibodies Topic: Humoral Response (or Antibody-Mediated Response) 79. The secondary response to an antigen is more rapid and robust than the primary response. TRUE ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 15.20 Draw and label a graph illustrating the development of a secondary immune response. Section: 15.06 Topic: Humoral Response (or Antibody-Mediated Response) 78. Gamma globulin can be given as immunotherapy to confer artificial passive immunity. TRUE ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 15.23 List several types of vaccines, and discuss how they are utilized today. Section: 15.07 Topic: Immunization Multiple Choice Questions 79. The array of potential antibodies to the variety of possible antigens is amazing. Which statement explains this development? A. Mutations in the antibody gene occur within the activated B cells, since they meet the antigen. B. The existing antibody molecules change their shapes, allowing them to fit with a large number of antigens. C. There is a shuffling of genes that code for self markers as well as nonself markers, mixing them together and producing reactive lymphocytes to those markers. D. Recombination of genes coding for the variable regions of immunoglobulins occurs during the developmental stage of lymphocyte production. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 15.07 Draw a diagram illustrating how lymphocytes are capable of responding to nearly any antigen imaginable. Section: 15.02 Topic: Lymphocyte Development and Maturation 80. A cytotoxic T lymphocyte, having been activated against a particular viral antigen, "sees" this same antigen displayed on the surface of a host cell. What will happen? A. The cytotoxic T cell will produce proteins that cause the host body cell to die. B. The cytotoxic body cell will activate B cells which then produce antibody against the antigen. C. The antigen will move inside of the host body cell, thereby hiding from the cytotoxic T cell. D. The cytotoxic T cell will produce antibodies against the antigen. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 15.17 Explain the role of cytotoxic T cells in apoptosis, and list the potential targets of this process. Section: 15.05 Topic: Cell-Mediated Response 76. Fluzone is a brand name for a very commonly given influenza vaccine. The vaccine is prepared by first harvesting flu viruses in chicken embryos and then breaking apart virus particles into protein subunits, thereby inactivating the virus. Your friend refuses to get the vaccine. Which of these statements is the only valid reason for her not to get the flu vaccine? A. She could pass the virus onto her baby, causing the child to become autistic. B. She is allergic to eggs. C. She could catch the flu from the inactivated vaccine. 79. She could die from the vaccine. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 15.22 Discuss the qualities of an effective vaccine. Section: 15.07 Topic: Immunization 77. You do not really want to get your 3 children vaccinated. Your view is why do it when others around you will get the vaccine and end up protecting you and your children. Which is an accurate statement that your physician may provide to you in response to your challenge to vaccination? A. This is not a smart choice. If enough people choose not to get vaccinated, the susceptible population grows to a large size, breaking the protective effect of herd immunity. B. Your choice is fine; your children will never become infected since this is actually the basis of herd immunity. C. This is not a smart choice. You could face potential arrest for not vaccinating your child per the regulations of the U.S. government. D. Your choice is fine; maybe you will change your mind when your child goes to college. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 15.24 Explain the principle of herd immunity and the risks that unfold when it is not maintained. Section: 15.07 Topic: Immunization 78. You have received the first hepatitis A vaccine. It was required for your mission trip to Nicaragua in Central America, where hepatitis A is common. However, you never went back for the booster shot of the vaccine, which should have been received within 6 months of the initial vaccination. What statement accurately reflects your present immunity to this pathogen? A. You are at risk to get hepatitis A since your immune status is only partial. Not enough immune memory cells were produced since you received one dosage of vaccine, so you are likely to get the disease when exposed to the virus. B. The one dosage is not enough because it only activated humoral immunity. The second dosage is used to activate cell-mediated immunity. The combination of the two immune responses gives you 100% coverage of immunity to hepatitis A. C. This is not a problem because the second dosage is just extra protection. Your immune status would be very high. D. Not a problem because at any time, in a year, 5 years, etc., you can go get the booster vaccine for hepatitis A and be fully covered by immunity. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 15.24 Explain the principle of herd immunity and the risks that unfold when it is not maintained. Section: 15.07 Topic: Immunization 79. A patient enters your clinic with a suspected helminthic infection. In support of this diagnosis, you suspect elevated levels of which antibody in the patient's serum? A. IgG B. IgM C. IgE D. IgD ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 15.19 List the five types of antibodies and important characteristics of each. Section: 15.06 Topic: Antigens and Antibodies 80. As an adult who never developed chickenpox infection as a child, you elect to receive the protective vaccine against this pathogen at the age of 35. This vaccine will stimulate A. latency. B. an anamnestic response. C. a primary immune response. D. a secondary immune response. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 15.20 Draw and label a graph illustrating the development of a secondary immune response. Learning Outcome: 15.21 List the four categories of acquired immunity, and provide examples of each. Section: 15.06 Section: 15.07 Topic: Classification of Acquired Immunities Topic: Immunization 81. Autoimmune disorders are characterized by immune destruction of self tissues. The underlying basis of these disorders is A. lack of an anamnestic response. B. an overproduction of complement. C. a lack of immune tolerance. D. an oversecretion of antibodies from memory B cells. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 15.08 Outline the processes of clonal selection and expansion. Section: 15.03 Topic: Lymphocyte Development and Maturation 81. The adaptive immune response differs from the innate response in that A. the adaptive immune response targets specific immunogens and remembers them, mounting an even stronger response on subsequent encounters, whereas the innate response is nonspecific and has no memory. B. B and T lymphocytes can each target multiple proteins, whereas the innate response targets only a single type of antigen. C. the adaptive immune response involves physical barriers and nonspecific processes, whereas the innate immune response relies on the actions of B and T lymphocytes. D. the innate immune response targets a specific immunogen and remembers it to mount an even stronger response on subsequent encounters with that immunogen, whereas the adaptive response is nonspecific and has no memory. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 15.01 Describe how the third line of defense is different from the other host defense mechanisms. Section: 15.01 Topic: Adaptive Line of Defense 80. The third line of defense against foreign invaders can be described as having _______ and ________. A. surveillance; complexity B. specificity; memory C. complexity, versatility D. diversity; barriers ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 15.01 Describe how the third line of defense is different from the other host defense mechanisms. Section: 15.01 Topic: Adaptive Line of Defense 78. Which of the statements below represents the correct order of events in the adaptive immune response? A. Lymphocyte challenge, antigen presentation, lymphocyte development, lymphocyte response B. Antigen presentation, lymphocyte development, lymphocyte challenge, lymphocyte response C. Antigen presentation, lymphocyte challenge, lymphocyte development, lymphocyte response D. Lymphocyte development, antigen presentation, lymphocyte challenge, lymphocyte response ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 15.02 List the four stages of a specific immune response. Section: 15.01 Topic: Adaptive Line of Defense R. In order for B cells to produce antibodies and cytotoxic T cells to attack infected host cells, they must first recognize self markers, develop specificity for the markers, and then produce clones. be activated by interleukins, encounter an antigen, and then develop specificity toward it. encounter an antigen, develop specificity for that antigen, and then remember the antigen. undergo maturation, encounter their specific antigen target, and then become activated through cytokines. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 15.02 List the four stages of a specific immune response. Section: 15.01 Topic: Adaptive Line of Defense True / False Questions 81. The adaptive immune system is complex, but it can be summarized in four consecutive stages: i) lymphocyte encounter with an immunogen, ii) development of lymphocyte specificity against that immunogen, iii) 2nd encounter with the immunogen, and iv) development of memory cells. FALSE ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 15.02 List the four stages of a specific immune response. Section: 15.01 Topic: Adaptive Line of Defense Multiple Choice Questions 89. Which of the following statements does not represent the role of a cell marker in the third line of defense? A. They serve as transcription factors to initiate antibody production. B. They serve as recognition factors for self and nonself molecules. C. They are attachment sites for foreign molecules. D. They receive and transmit signals to coordinate the immune response. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 15.03 Discuss four major functions of immune system markers. Section: 15.01 Topic: Adaptive Line of Defense True / False Questions 82. B and T lymphocytes are specific; they have only a single type of cell marker on their surface. FALSE ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 15.03 Discuss four major functions of immune system markers. Section: 15.01 Topic: Adaptive Line of Defense Multiple Choice Questions 88. B cell receptors differ from T cell receptors in that B cell receptors are comprised of four polypeptides, whereas T cell receptors have only two polypeptides in their quaternary structure. B cell receptors have two antigen binding sites, whereas T cell receptors have only one antigen binding site. B cell receptors are immunoglobulin in nature, whereas T cell receptors are not immunoglobulin molecules. B cell receptor immunoglobulins can be secreted as antibodies, whereas T cell receptors are never secreted. All of the choices represent differences between B cell and T cell receptors. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 15.09 Describe the structure of both a B-cell receptor and a T-cell receptor. Section: 15.02 Topic: Lymphocyte Development and Maturation W. Which of the following do not serve as antigen presenting cells? Dendritic cells Basophils Macrophages B lymphocytes ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 15.13 List the types of cells that can act as antigen-presenting cells. Section: 15.03 Topic: Adaptive Line of Defense U. Not all phagocytic cells are antigen-presenting cells. B cells, macrophages, and dendritic cells differ from neutrophils in that they synthesize ______ . CD8 receptors MHC-II receptors MHC-I receptors interleukin-2 CD4 receptors ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 15.13 List the types of cells that can act as antigen-presenting cells. Section: 15.03 Topic: Adaptive Line of Defense 84. The ability of TC cells to initiate apoptosis in virally-infected cells and cancer cells is dependent on their ability to produce __________ and __________; proteins that punch holes in the target cell membrane. A. interleukin-1; interleukin-2 B. perforin; granzyme C. interferon; interleukins D. antibodies; interferons ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 15.17 Explain the role of cytotoxic T cells in apoptosis, and list the potential targets of this process. Section: 15.05 Topic: Cell-Mediated Response 85. All of the following statements reflect the qualities of a safe and effective vaccine, except A. the injected material should be antigenic, but not pathogenic. B. it should have a long shelf-life, be cheap to produce, and easy to administer. C. efficacy must be maintained by booster shots every 5 years. D. it should confer both humoral and cell-mediated immunity. CH-16: Multiple Choice Questions 7. The major category(ies) of hypersensitivity(ies) that typically involve(s) a B-cell immunoglobulin response include(s) A. type I only. B. type I and type IV. C. type IV only. D. type I, type II, and type III. E. type I, type II, type III, and type IV. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 16.02 Identify the four major categories of hypersensitivity, or overreaction to antigens. Section: 16.01 Topic: Hypersensitivities 8. Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A. Food allergy - type I hypersensitivity B. Poison ivy dermatitis - type IV hypersensitivity C. Transfusion reaction - type II hypersensitivity D. Hay fever - type IV hypersensitivity E. Serum sickness - type III hypersensitivity ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 16.02 Identify the four major categories of hypersensitivity, or overreaction to antigens. Section: 16.01 Topic: Hypersensitivities 3. Any heightened immune response resulting in tissue damage is called a(n) ______. 9. immunodeficiency 10.desensitization 11.autoimmune disease 12.hypersensitivity 13. transfusion reaction ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 16.02 Identify the four major categories of hypersensitivity, or overreaction to antigens. Section: 16.01 Topic: Hypersensitivities G. The study of diseases associated with excesses and deficiencies of the immune system is ______. humoralpathology hemopathology epidemiology immunopathology histopathology ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 16.01 Define immunopathology, and describe the two major categories of immune dysfunction. Section: 16.01 Topic: Autoimmunity Topic: Hypersensitivities Topic: Immunodeficiency 12. Atopy and anaphylaxis are hypersensitivities in the category(ies) A. type I only. B. type I and type IV. C. type IV only. D. type I, type II, and type III. E. type I, type II, type III, and type IV. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 16.02 Identify the four major categories of hypersensitivity, or overreaction to antigens. Section: 16.02 Topic: Hypersensitivities 13. Bee sting venom is considered to be which type of allergen? A. Injectant B. Ingestant C. Inhalant D. Contactant ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 16.03 Summarize genetic and environmental factors that influence allergy development. Section: 16.02 Topic: Hypersensitivities 15. Fungal spores and animal dander are considered to be which type of allergen? A. Injectant B. Contactant C. Inhalant D. Ingestant ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 16.03 Summarize genetic and environmental factors that influence allergy development. Section: 16.02 Topic: Hypersensitivities K. The initial encounter with an allergen is called the _____ dose. sensitizing provocative allergic hypersensitivity desensitizing ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 16.04 Outline the steps of a type I allergic response, and discuss the effects on target organs and tissue. Section: 16.02 Topic: Hypersensitivities 16. A second encounter with an allergen that causes a response is called the _____ dose. A. sensitizing B. provocative C. allergic D. hypersensitivity E. desensitizing ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 16.04 Outline the steps of a type I allergic response, and discuss the effects on target organs and tissue. Section: 16.02 Topic: Hypersensitivities 17. What will be the immediate action of an allergen when it enters the body for a second time? A. Binding of allergen to adjacent IgE binding sites on mast cells and basophils B. Histamine acts on smooth muscle C. Prostaglandins cause vasodilation and increased vascular permeability G. Binding of IgE by the Fc region to mast cells and basophils H. Degranulation ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 16.04 Outline the steps of a type I allergic response, and discuss the effects on target organs and tissue. Section: 16.02 Topic: Hypersensitivities 21. Which event represents the process of releasing chemical mediators? A. Histamine acting on smooth muscle H. Binding of IgE by the Fc region to mast cells and basophils C. Prostaglandins causing vasodilation and increased vascular permeability 20. Binding of allergen to adjacent IgE binding sites on mast cells and basophils 21. Degranulation ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 16.04 Outline the steps of a type I allergic response, and discuss the effects on target organs and tissue. Section: 16.02 Topic: Hypersensitivities 28. Which event occurs with the sensitizing dose of allergen? A. Degranulation B. Binding of allergen to adjacent IgE binding sites on mast cells and basophils C. Binding of IgE by the Fc region to mast cells and basophils D. Histamine acting on smooth muscle E. Prostaglandins causing vasodilation and increased vascular permeability ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 16.04 Outline the steps of a type I allergic response, and discuss the effects on target organs and tissue. Section: 16.02 Topic: Hypersensitivities 13. Which of the following is not a possible outcome of a type I hypersensitivity reaction? 22. Diarrhea 23. Rashes 24. Contact dermatitis 25. Sneezing 26. Rhinitis ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 16.02 Identify the four major categories of hypersensitivity, or overreaction to antigens. Section: 16.02 Topic: Hypersensitivities 23. Histamine causes all of the following except relaxation of vascular smooth muscle. pruritis and headache. increased sensitivity to pain. wheal and flare reaction in skin. constriction of smooth muscle of bronchi and the intestine. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 16.04 Outline the steps of a type I allergic response, and discuss the effects on target organs and tissue. Section: 16.02 Topic: Hypersensitivities 24. The chemical mediator that causes prolonged bronchospasm, vascular permeability, and mucus secretion of asthmatic patients is ______. histamine leukotriene platelet-activating factor serotonin prostaglandin ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 16.04 Outline the steps of a type I allergic response, and discuss the effects on target organs and tissue. Section: 16.02 Topic: Hypersensitivities 25. Which type/s of hypersensitivities is IgG is involved with? Anaphylaxis Antibody-mediated Immune complex-mediated Both anaphylaxis and antibody-mediated. Both antibody-mediated and immune complex-mediated. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 16.12 Identify commonalities and differences between type II and type III hypersensitivities. Section: 16.03 Section: 16.04 Topic: Hypersensitivities 27. Allergic reactions to penicillins are considered a(n) _____ hypersensitivity. T-cell-mediated antibody-mediated immune complex-mediated immediate Both T-cell-mediated and antibody-mediated are correct. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 16.05 Identify three conditions caused by IgE-mediated allergic reactions. Section: 16.02 Topic: Hypersensitivities 30. Allergies run in families because A. the variable region of antibodies is genetically determined. B. immunoglobulins pass from mother to fetus. C. immunoglobulins pass through breast milk. D. the relative production of IgE is inherited. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 16.03 Summarize genetic and environmental factors that influence allergy development. Section: 16.02 Topic: Hypersensitivities G. A chronic, local allergy such as hay fever is considered ______. antibody-mediated atopic systemic anaphylactic delayed T-cell-mediated ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 16.03 Summarize genetic and environmental factors that influence allergy development. Section: 16.02 Topic: Hypersensitivities 30. A systemic, sometimes fatal, reaction with airway obstruction and circulatory collapse is ______. A. atopic B. delayed C. systemic anaphylaxis D. antibody-mediated E. T-cell-mediated ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 16.05 Identify three conditions caused by IgE-mediated allergic reactions. Learning Outcome: 16.06 Describe the symptoms of anaphylaxis, and link to physiological events. Section: 16.02 Topic: Hypersensitivities H. A seasonal reaction to inhaled allergens is ______. eczema asthma atopic dermatitis anaphylaxis allergic rhinitis ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 16.05 Identify three conditions caused by IgE-mediated allergic reactions. Section: 16.02 Topic: Hypersensitivities H. All of the following are associated with IgE and mast-cell-mediated allergy except ______. allergic asthma systemic lupus erythematosus drug allergies eczema anaphylaxis ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 16.05 Identify three conditions caused by IgE-mediated allergic reactions. Section: 16.02 Topic: Hypersensitivities 32. Epinephrine A. inhibits the activity of lymphocytes. B. reverses constriction of airways. C. is an antihistamine. D. causes desensitization. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 16.06 Describe the symptoms of anaphylaxis, and link to physiological events. Section: 16.02 Topic: Hypersensitivities 33. Allergic patients receiving small, controlled injections of specific allergens are undergoing ______. A. sensitization B. desensitization C. degranulation D. tissue matching ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 16.08 Explain the mode of action of two strategies for treating type I allergic reactions. Section: 16.02 Topic: Hypersensitivities 34. An antihistamine will A. bind to histamine receptors on target organs. B. reverse spasms of respiratory smooth muscles. C. block synthesis of leukotrienes. D. inhibit the activity of lymphocytes. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 16.06 Describe the symptoms of anaphylaxis, and link to physiological events. Section: 16.02 Topic: Hypersensitivities 40. Corticosteroids will inhibit the activity of lymphocytes. bind to histamine receptors on target organs. block synthesis of leukotrienes. reverse spasms of respiratory smooth muscles. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 16.08 Explain the mode of action of two strategies for treating type I allergic reactions. Section: 16.02 Topic: Hypersensitivities 40. All of the following are involved in type II hypersensitivity except ______. A. IgM B. complement C. foreign cells D. IgE E. IgG ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 16.09 List the three immune components causing cell lysis in type II hypersensitivity reactions. Section: 16.03 Topic: Hypersensitivities 38. Human blood types involve all of the following except A. MHC genes. B. inheritance of two of three possible alleles. C. ABO antigen markers. D. genes that code for an enzyme that adds a terminal carbohydrate to RBC receptors. E. genetically determined glycoprotein markers. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 16.10 Explain the molecular basis for the ABO blood groups, and identify the blood type of a "universal donor" and the blood type of a "universal recipient." Section: 16.03 Topic: Hypersensitivities 43. The serum of a person with blood type A and Rh- will have the ability to make which of the following antibodies? A. Anti-B B. Anti-A C. Anti-A, anti-B, and anti-Rh D. Anti-A and anti-Rh E. Anti-B and anti-Rh ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 16.10 Explain the molecular basis for the ABO blood groups, and identify the blood type of a "universal donor" and the blood type of a "universal recipient." Section: 16.03 Topic: Hypersensitivities 46. A person with O type blood A. lacks A and B antigens. B. is called a universal recipient. C. lacks all of the alleles for ABO blood type. D. could not have the Rh factor. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 16.10 Explain the molecular basis for the ABO blood groups, and identify the blood type of a "universal donor" and the blood type of a "universal recipient." Section: 16.03 Topic: Hypersensitivities 31. A person who produces anti-A and anti-B serum antibodies will have blood type ______. Z. Rh AA. A BB. AB CC. O DD. B ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 16.10 Explain the molecular basis for the ABO blood groups, and identify the blood type of a "universal donor" and the blood type of a "universal recipient." Section: 16.03 Topic: Hypersensitivities 51. Transfusion of the wrong blood type can cause A. recipient antibody activation of the complement cascade to attack the RBCs. B. fever and anemia. C. systemic shock and kidney failure. D. massive hemolysis of the donor RBCs. E. All of the choices are correct. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 16.09 List the three immune components causing cell lysis in type II hypersensitivity reactions. Section: 16.03 Topic: Hypersensitivities 49. A female who is Rh– A. can never have an Rh+ baby. B. is at risk for a pregnancy resulting in hemolytic disease of the newborn. C. inherited two dominant genes. D. is in the majority of the population with regard to Rh status. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 16.11 Explain the role of Rh factor in hemolytic disease development and how the disease is prevented in newborns. Section: 16.03 Topic: Hypersensitivities 45. The potential for hemolytic disease of the newborn occurs when A. fetal Rh- cells enter an Rh+ mother. B. fetal Rh+ cells enter an Rh+ mother. C. maternal Rh+ cells enter an Rh- fetus. D. fetal Rh+ cells enter an Rh- mother. E. maternal Rh- cells enter an Rh+ fetus. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 16.11 Explain the role of Rh factor in hemolytic disease development and how the disease is prevented in newborns. Section: 16.03 Topic: Hypersensitivities 53. Once a mother has been sensitized to the Rh factor, A. all other Rh+ fetuses are at risk. B. she can be given RhoGAM in future pregnancies to prevent hemolytic disease of the newborn. C. she can never again have a low risk pregnancy. D. only future Rh- fetuses are at risk. E. None of the choices are correct. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 16.11 Explain the role of Rh factor in hemolytic disease development and how the disease is prevented in newborns. Section: 16.03 Topic: Hypersensitivities 54. Which of the following is not true of type III hypersensitivity? The Arthus reaction is a local response. Antigen-antibody complexes are deposited in the basement membrane of epithelial tissues. It involves an immune complex reaction. Serum sickness is a systemic response. It involves production of IgE antibodies. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 16.12 Identify commonalities and differences between type II and type III hypersensitivities. Learning Outcome: 16.13 Describe the ways in which the Arthus reaction differs from serum sickness. Section: 16.04 Topic: Hypersensitivities 74. Which of the following is not a target for immune complex deposition? A. Heart and lungs B. Brain C. Kidneys D. Joints E. Blood vessels and skin ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 16.12 Identify commonalities and differences between type II and type III hypersensitivities. Section: 16.04 Topic: Hypersensitivities 58. Large quantities of antibodies that react to the second entry of antigen and lead to formation of antigenantibody complexes occurs in A. hemolytic disease of the newborn. B. anaphylaxis. C. serum sickness. D. delayed hypersensitivity. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 16.12 Identify commonalities and differences between type II and type III hypersensitivities. Learning Outcome: 16.13 Describe the ways in which the Arthus reaction differs from serum sickness. Section: 16.04 Topic: Hypersensitivities 66. Contact dermatitis involves A. a sensitizing and provocative dose. B. an allergen entering the skin. C. T lymphocytes secreting inflammatory cytokines. D. the production of itchy papules and blisters. E. All of the choices are correct. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 16.14 Identify one type IV delayed hypersensitivity reaction, and describe the role of T cells in the pathogenesis of this condition. Section: 16.05 Topic: Hypersensitivities 62. What may result when grafted tissue such as bone marrow contains passenger lymphocytes? A. Formation of autoantibodies B. Host rejection of graft C. Hypogammaglobulinemia D. Graft versus host disease ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 16.15 List four classes of grafts, and explain how host versus graft and graft versus host diseases develop. Section: 16.05 Topic: Hypersensitivities 56. Tissue transplanted from one body site on a patient to a different body site on that patient is called a(n) ______. A. allograft B. xenograft C. isograft D. hypograft E. autograft ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 16.15 List four classes of grafts, and explain how host versus graft and graft versus host diseases develop. Section: 16.05 Topic: Hypersensitivities 58. Autoimmunity is typically due to A. autoantibodies and T cells. B. a transfusion reaction. C. IgE and mast cells. D. graft rejection. E. a deficiency in T-cell development. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 16.16 Outline at least three different explanations for the origin of autoimmunity. Section: 16.06 Topic: Autoimmunity Y. Autoantibodies cause tissue injury in all of the following diseases except multiple sclerosis. tuberculin reaction. rheumatoid arthritis. myasthenia gravis. Graves'disease. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 16.17 List three autoimmune diseases, and describe immunologic features common to all. Section: 16.06 Topic: Autoimmunity 66. All of the following are autoimmune diseases except A. type I diabetes. B. metastatic cancer. C. systemic lupus erythematosus. D. rheumatoid arthritis. 67. Graves'disease. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 16.17 List three autoimmune diseases, and describe immunologic features common to all. Section: 16.06 Topic: Autoimmunity 69. Myasthenia gravis disease arises from the production of autoantibodies against A. cells in thyroid follicles. B. sodium pump proteins in the cell membrane. C. acetylcholine receptors on smooth muscle. D. myelin sheath cells of the nervous system. E. acetylcholine receptors on skeletal muscle. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 16.17 List three autoimmune diseases, and describe immunologic features common to all. Section: 16.06 Topic: Autoimmunity W. In multiple sclerosis, autoantibodies attack sodium pump proteins in the cell membrane. acetylcholine receptors on skeletal muscle. acetylcholine receptors on smooth muscle. cells in thyroid follicles. myelin sheath cells of the nervous system. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 16.17 List three autoimmune diseases, and describe immunologic features common to all. Section: 16.06 Topic: Autoimmunity 65. Which of the following is not a possible explanation for the origin of autoimmune diseases? A. Sequestered antigens B. Forbidden clones C. Molecular mimicry D. The gut microbiome E. All the choices are currently being investigated as possible explanations. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 16.16 Outline at least three different explanations for the origin of autoimmunity. Section: 16.06 Topic: Autoimmunity 65. What can be a consequence of a genetic deficiency in B-cell survival and maturity? A. Graft versus host disease B. Formation of autoantibodies C. Hypogammaglobulinemia D. Host rejection of graft ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 16.18 Distinguish between primary and secondary immunodeficiencies, explaining how each develops. Section: 16.07 Topic: Immunodeficiency 49. DiGeorge syndrome is the result of 71.autoantibodies. 72.a genetic defect in the development of both T cells and B cells. 73.delayed hypersensitivity. 74. congenital absence or immaturity of the thymus gland. 75. failure of B-cell development and maturity. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 16.18 Distinguish between primary and secondary immunodeficiencies, explaining how each develops. Section: 16.07 Topic: Immunodeficiency 72. Severe combined immunodeficiencies (SCIDs) are due to A. autoantibodies. B. failure of B-cell development and maturity. C. congenital absence or immaturity of the thymus gland. D. delayed hypersensitivity. E. a genetic defect in the development of both T cells and B cells. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 16.19 Define severe combined immunodeficiency, and discuss current therapeutic approaches to this type of disease. Section: 16.07 Topic: Immunodeficiency 51. An example of a secondary acquired immunodeficiency is 77. AIDS. 78.adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency. 79. DiGeorge syndrome. 80.agammaglobulinemia. 81. SCID. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 16.18 Distinguish between primary and secondary immunodeficiencies, explaining how each develops. Learning Outcome: 16.20 List three conditions that can lead to the development of secondary immunodeficiency diseases. Section: 16.05 Topic: Hypersensitivities 52. All of the following can result in acquired immune deficiency except ______. 77.enzyme deficiency 78. stress 79. malnutrition 80. radiation treatment 81.bacterial infection ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 16.20 List three conditions that can lead to the development of secondary immunodeficiency diseases. Section: 16.07 Topic: Immunodeficiency 78. In the theory for allergic desensitization, which immunoglobulin blocks the allergen from binding with IgE? A. IgD B. IgE C. IgA D. IgM E. IgG ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 16.08 Explain the mode of action of two strategies for treating type I allergic reactions. Section: 16.01 Topic: Hypersensitivities 79. Degranulation of mast cells leads to A. decreased mucus production. B. constriction of blood vessels. C. lymph node swelling. D. constricted bronchioles. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 16.04 Outline the steps of a type I allergic response, and discuss the effects on target organs and tissue. Section: 16.03 Topic: Hypersensitivities True / False Questions 80. Systemic anaphylaxis can quickly result in airway blockage, shock, and death. TRUE ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 16.06 Describe the symptoms of anaphylaxis, and link to physiological events. Section: 16.03 Topic: Hypersensitivities 81. Food allergies include gastrointestinal symptoms and often hives. TRUE ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 16.04 Outline the steps of a type I allergic response, and discuss the effects on target organs and tissue. Learning Outcome: 16.05 Identify three conditions caused by IgE-mediated allergic reactions. Section: 16.03 Topic: Hypersensitivities 80. Allergic rhinitis is also known as asthma. FALSE ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 16.05 Identify three conditions caused by IgE-mediated allergic reactions. Section: 16.03 Topic: Hypersensitivities 82. A person who is Rh- will have anti-Rh antibodies in his/her serum from early infancy. FALSE ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 16.11 Explain the role of Rh factor in hemolytic disease development and how the disease is prevented in newborns. Section: 16.04 Topic: Hypersensitivities 81. The tuberculin reaction develops within 30 minutes of the skin test in people with prior sensitization due to tuberculosis infection. FALSE ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 16.14 Identify one type IV delayed hypersensitivity reaction, and describe the role of T cells in the pathogenesis of this condition. Section: 16.05 Topic: Hypersensitivities 79. During graft rejection, cytotoxic T cells of the recipient recognize and respond to foreign class I MHC receptors on the grafted cells. TRUE ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 16.15 List four classes of grafts, and explain how host versus graft and graft versus host diseases develop. Section: 16.06 Topic: Hypersensitivities S. The allergen in poison ivy plants is an oil called urushiol. TRUE ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 16.03 Summarize genetic and environmental factors that influence allergy development. Section: 16.03 Topic: Hypersensitivities 82. A xenograft is graft tissue from a donor of one species transplanted to a recipient of another species. TRUE ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 16.15 List four classes of grafts, and explain how host versus graft and graft versus host diseases develop. Section: 16.05 Topic: Hypersensitivities 90. Eczema is an autoimmune disorder. FALSE ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 16.17 List three autoimmune diseases, and describe immunologic features common to all. Section: 16.06 Topic: Autoimmunity 64. A viral infection can lead to the development of type I diabetes. TRUE ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 16.17 List three autoimmune diseases, and describe immunologic features common to all. Section: 16.06 Topic: Autoimmunity 83. The most common immunoglobulin deficiency is an IgG deficiency. TRUE ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 16.18 Distinguish between primary and secondary immunodeficiencies, explaining how each develops. Section: 16.07 Topic: Immunodeficiency 89. AIDS is a secondary immunodeficiency disease that affects several types of immune cells. TRUE ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 16.20 List three conditions that can lead to the development of secondary immunodeficiency diseases. Section: 16.07 Topic: Immunodeficiency Multiple Choice Questions 67. Predict why insect stings and medication injections more often provoke anaphylactic shock, as compared to other allergens found in food or in air. A. The allergens go directly into the blood in large amounts, compared to allergens entering the digestive tract or respiratory tract. B. Chemicals from insects cause a combination of antibody types to be produced, resulting in much larger amounts of total antibody. C. Histamine is overproduced as a result of injected chemicals. D. Chemicals injected as medications cause problems in immune response, resulting in a reduced immune coverage. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 16.06 Describe the symptoms of anaphylaxis, and link to physiological events. Section: 16.03 Topic: Hypersensitivities X. John, a Peace Corps worker in the country of Mali in Africa, was in a car accident while traveling through a rural area. He was treated at a tiny rural hospital, and due to his loss of blood, he required a transfusion. John has B- blood type and has never received a transfusion before. Which statement is correct regarding this scenario? A. He can be given types O or B, no matter whether Rh- or Rh+. At this point in time, he does not have anti-Rh antibody. O has no antigens on the blood cells, so he is also safe to receive that type in addition to his own B type. B. He can safely receive O- blood even though he makes anti-A antibodies. C. He can be given A+ blood type in addition to B+. Rh- means that he makes no antibody to Rh. D. The preferred blood type to give John, in addition to his own B type blood, would be AB. Both types of blood have the B antigen on the cells, so they would correspond to his own antigens. As for Rh, he can receive only Rh- blood since he would have a reaction against Rh+. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 16.10 Explain the molecular basis for the ABO blood groups, and identify the blood type of a "universal donor" and the blood type of a "universal recipient." Section: 16.03 Topic: Hypersensitivities 69. You have dermatitis triggered by a particular material in your socks. Your feet are covered with a really itchy rash, which has developed blisters over the last day or so. You had first worn them 2 to 3 days ago, and you did not launder them after buying them at the store. Finding some antihistamine medication in your bathroom cabinet, you decide to take it to relieve the itching rash. Which statement is true? A. The anti-histamine will have no effect because once a type I hypersensitivity kicks in, it will last for a few days. B. The rash will go away because the antihistamine neutralizes the histamine chemicals coming from mast cells in your skin. C. The anti-histamine will have no effect on the rash because histamine is not the chemical mediator in this hypersensitivity. D. The antihistamine will make the rash worse because it reacts with chemicals release by the lymphocytes in your skin, exacerbating the situation. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 16.14 Identify one type IV delayed hypersensitivity reaction, and describe the role of T cells in the pathogenesis of this condition. Section: 16.05 Topic: Hypersensitivities Ranking Questions 86. Place these events in the pathogenesis of contact dermatitis in order, with 1 being the first step. 3 Sensitized T lymphocytes recognize the antigen and make cytokine chemicals. 4 Cytokine chemicals attract macrophages, dendritic cells, and cytotoxic T lymphocytes to the site of the antigen. 5 Chemicals are released from phagocytic cells and cytotoxic T cells, resulting in host tissue damage. 1 A chemical is absorbed through the skin. 2 The antigen is identified by a dendritic cell. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 16.14 Identify one type IV delayed hypersensitivity reaction, and describe the role of T cells in the pathogenesis of this condition. Section: 16.05 Topic: Immunodeficiency Multiple Choice Questions 71. You were out in the garage going through boxes when you were bitten by an a spider. You tell the doctor that the spider was tiny and black, causing the doctor to think perhaps that it was a black widow spider The doctor gives you an injection of antibody to the spider venom to give you immediate protection. The antibody is produced in horses by injecting them with small doses of the spider venom, causing the horse's immune system to make large amounts of specific antibody to the antigen. The horse serum is then purified before being given to humans. A week later, you notice a red rash spreading away from the injection spot, where the doctor gave you the anti-venom shot. A few days later, the rash has spread and swelling in also present. You have joint pain as well as sore muscles all over your body. The lymph nodes in the armpit are swollen and painful. Going back to the doctor, he diagnoses you with A. a Staphylococcus infection related to the spider bite. B. serum sickness. C. a delayed type hypersensitivity mediated by cytotoxic T cells along with helper T cells. D. Arthus reaction. E. anaphylactic shock. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 16.13 Describe the ways in which the Arthus reaction differs from serum sickness. Section: 16.04 Topic: Hypersensitivities 72. In systemic lupus erythematosis (called lupus), complexes of antibody and antigen form, and these immune complexes insert themselves into small blood vessels, joints, heart, and kidney, causing damage to the organ tissue. The course of the disease is unpredictable, with periods of illness alternating with remissions. How is lupus, a type III autoimmune disease, similar to the tuberculin reaction, a type IV hypersensitivity reaction? A. Both lupus and the tuberculin reaction utilize IgE in their mechanisms. B. Both lupus and the tuberculin reaction are immediate hypersensitivities, occurring within a few hours. C. Both lupus and the tuberculin reaction involve large amounts of antibody production. D. The mechanism of both lupus and the tuberculin reaction involve large amounts of inflammatory chemicals released into tissue. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 16.14 Identify one type IV delayed hypersensitivity reaction, and describe the role of T cells in the pathogenesis of this condition. Section: 16.04 Section: 16.05 Topic: Hypersensitivities 73. Many men make antibodies to sperm, resulting in destruction of sperm to the point of sterility. What would be the likely origin of this autoimmune disease? A. T helper cells erroneously identify sperm cells as foreign invaders, triggering the T cytotoxic cells to start killing sperm. B. Since sperm are not made until after puberty, the immune system cannot scan the antigens on the sperm for immune tolerance. After sperm are made and the immune system sees them, they are recognized as foreign. C. Antigens on sperm cells are similar to antigens on a variety of bacteria like Streptococcus. After a strep throat caused by Streptococcus, the immune system produces antibodies to streptococcal antigens, which then cross react with sperm antigens and destroy them. D. These antibodies are produced as a result of mutations in T lymphocytes, causing them to make large amounts of antibody. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 16.17 List three autoimmune diseases, and describe immunologic features common to all. Section: 16.06 Topic: Autoimmunity 89. Immunopathology is defined as the study of immunodeficiencies. the study of AIDS. the study of autoimmune diseases. the study of immune imbalance, whether hyper- or hypoactivity. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 16.01 Define immunopathology, and describe the two major categories of immune dysfunction. Section: 16.01 Topic: Autoimmunity Topic: Immunodeficiency 91. An effective test to determine whether an individual is allergic to a specific substance is to test for the allergen in the blood. test for levels of IgE specific for the allergen. test for high levels of IgG in the serum. inject high levels of the allergen so see if the patient goes into anaphylactic shock. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 16.07 Briefly describe two methods for diagnosing allergies. Section: 16.02 Topic: Hypersensitivities True / False Questions Y. Autoimmune diseases and immunodeficiencies are studied and treated by immunopathologists. TRUE ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 16.01 Define immunopathology, and describe the two major categories of immune dysfunction. Section: 16.01 Topic: Autoimmunity Topic: Immunodeficiency Multiple Choice Questions 49. High levels of tryptase in the blood is indicative of A. a viral and/or fungal infection. B. high levels of degranulating mast cells suggesting an allergic reaction. C. overuse of dietary supplements. D. a bacterial infection. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 16.07 Briefly describe two methods for diagnosing allergies. Section: 16.02 Topic: Hypersensitivities True / False Questions 54. The leukocyte histamine-release test (LHRT) measures the amount of histamine released from the patient’s mast cells and eosinophils when exposed to a specific allergen. FALSE ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 16.07 Briefly describe two methods for diagnosing allergies. Section: 16.02 Topic: Hypersensitivities 55. Before a type II hypersensitivity can proceed, three immune components must be in place: complement, IgG, and IgM. TRUE ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 16.09 List the three immune components causing cell lysis in type II hypersensitivity reactions. Section: 16.03 Topic: Hypersensitivities Multiple Choice Questions 60. Infection with enteroviruses, such as rotavirus and cytomegalovirus, has been implicated in the onset of type I diabetes. This area of research involves the study of ______. A. molecular mimicry B. forbidden clones C. the gut microbiome D. sequestered antigens ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 16.16 Outline at least three different explanations for the origin of autoimmunity. Section: 16.06 Topic: Autoimmunity 64. SCID is defined by a lack of functional B and T cells which eliminates protection by humoral and cell-mediated immunity. Which of the following is true? A genetic defect disrupts the development of the lymphocytic cell lines. A genetic mutation renders the individual incapable of removing a toxic DNA metabolite from lymphocytes, which ultimately destroys them. Genes coding for B and T cell receptors are mutated so the cells are incapable of binding antigens. Genes that code for interleukin receptors are mutated so the individual's B and T cells do not receive the activation signals, rendering them useless. All of the above describe cases of SCID. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 16.19 Define severe combined immunodeficiency, and discuss current therapeutic approaches to this type of disease. Section: 16.07 Topic: Immunodeficiency 59. All of the following represent potential therapy for patients with SCID except A. stem cell grafts. B. graft versus host. C. transfusion with adensosine deaminase. D. gene therapy. E. bone marrow transplants. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 16.19 Define severe combined immunodeficiency, and discuss current therapeutic approaches to this type of disease. Section: 16.07 Topic: Immunodeficiency 58. Serum sickness and the Arthus reaction are both type III hypersensitivities, but they differ in that A. serum sickness is a systemic reaction to an injected therapy, whereas the Arthus reaction remains localized to the injection site. B. serum sickness is an infection in the blood serum, whereas the Arthus reaction is a swelling in the joints. C. serum sickness is vomiting and diarrhea in response to animal serum, whereas the Arthus reaction causes arthritis. D. serum sickness is a localized reaction to an injected therapy, whereas the Arthus reaction is systemic. CH-17: Multiple Choice Questions 48. Which of the following is not a phenotypic method of identification? Antibody response Acid-fast reaction Gram stain reaction Endospore production Morphology ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 17.01 List the three major categories of microbial identification techniques. Section: 17.02 Topic: Clinical Microbiology Topic: Phenotypic Methods for Identification 49. Biochemical tests include all of the following except A. gas production tests. B. sugar fermentation tests. C. antibiotic sensitivity tests. D. ribotyping tests. 51. tests for the presence of specific enzymes. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Objective: 08.02 Use pure culture and selective techniques to enrich for and isolate microorganisms. ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 17.07 Explain the main principle behind biochemical testing, and identify examples of such tests. Section: 17.01 Section: 17.02 Topic: Clinical Microbiology Topic: Culturing Microorganisms Topic: Identifying Microorganisms Topic: Phenotypic Methods for Identification 3. The primary advantage of genotypic analysis for identification is that 52. it is less expensive than other methods. 53. culturing of the organism is not required. 54. it is easier than any other method. 55. it is widely available. ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 17.01 List the three major categories of microbial identification techniques. Section: 17.01 Topic: Genetic Analyses 53. Specimen collection A. does not require special handling. B. must be done under sterile conditions. C. is always done by a medical professional. D. must utilize aseptic techniques. ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 17.02 Summarize factors that may affect the identification of an infectious agent from a patient sample. Section: 17.01 Topic: Clinical Microbiology Topic: Culturing Microorganisms 5. All of the following are routinely collected for microbial analysis of a specimen except ______. 58. skin 59. spinal fluid 60. saliva 61.blood 62.hair ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 17.02 Summarize factors that may affect the identification of an infectious agent from a patient sample. Section: 17.01 Topic: Clinical Microbiology Topic: Culturing Microorganisms 55. Which sample is not collected by sterile needle aspiration? A. Blood B. Urine C. Cerebrospinal fluid D. Tissue fluids E. All of the choices are collected by sterile needle aspiration. ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 17.02 Summarize factors that may affect the identification of an infectious agent from a patient sample. Section: 17.01 Topic: Clinical Microbiology Topic: Culturing Microorganisms 56. Direct antigen testing differs from direct fluorescence testing in that the results A. require an electron microscope. B. are less accurate. C. are more accurate. D. require specialized equipment. E. are read with the naked eye. ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Objective: 08.05 Use appropriate microbiological and molecular lab equipment and methods. ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 17.10 Explain how fluorescent antibodies can be used in the diagnosis of microbial disease. Section: 17.04 Topic: Identifying Microorganisms Topic: Immunologic Methods for Identification 57. Urine and fecal specimens require sterile collection conditions. incubation in differential media. incubation in selective media. Both sterile collection conditions and incubation in differential media are correct. Both incubation in differential media and incubation in selective media are correct. ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 17.02 Summarize factors that may affect the identification of an infectious agent from a patient sample. Section: 17.01 Topic: Clinical Microbiology Topic: Culturing Microorganisms 59. Phage typing is useful in identifying ______. A. Mycobacterium leprae B. Streptococcus pyogenes C. Clostridium D. Treponema pallidum E. Salmonella ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 17.05 Summarize the most common methods used for direct examination of a specimen. Section: 17.03 Topic: Clinical Microbiology Topic: Culturing Microorganisms Topic: Identifying Microorganisms Topic: Phenotypic Methods for Identification 61. Which test is especially good for bacteria that are not readily cultivated in the lab? A. Gram stain B. Phage test C. Direct antigen test D. Direct fluorescence antibody (DFA) test E. Dichotomous key analysis ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Blooms Level: 1. Remember Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 17.10 Explain how fluorescent antibodies can be used in the diagnosis of microbial disease. Section: 17.04 Topic: Identifying Microorganisms Topic: Immunologic Methods for Identification 62. Which of the following is not a genotypic method of identification? A. Pulse-field gel electrophoresis B. DNA analysis with probes C. G + C composition D. Direct antigen testing E. rRNA sequencing ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 17.10 Explain how fluorescent antibodies can be used in the diagnosis of microbial disease. Learning Outcome: 17.16 Summarize two genotypic methods that involve DNA analysis. Section: 17.03 Section: 17.04 Topic: Genetic Analyses Topic: Immunologic Methods for Identification 63. Which test compares the percentage of cytosine and guanine bases to adenine and thymine bases? A. Direct antigen testing B. DNA analysis with probes C. Electrophoresis 3. G + C composition 4. rRNA sequencing ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 17.16 Summarize two genotypic methods that involve DNA analysis. Section: 17.03 Topic: Genetic Analyses 4. The property of a test to detect even small amounts of antibodies or antigens that are test targets is ______. A. cross-reaction B. agglutination C. precipitation D. specificity E. sensitivity ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 17.09 Differentiate between sensitivity and specificity. Section: 17.04 Topic: Immunologic Methods for Identification 8. The property of a test to detect only a certain antibody or antigen and not to react with any others is ______. A. specificity B. sensitivity C. cross-reaction D. agglutination E. precipitation ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 17.09 Differentiate between sensitivity and specificity. Section: 17.04 Topic: Immunologic Methods for Identification 9. A serum titer involves A. quantifying the number of infectious particles in a specimen. B. determining the lowest dilution of serum that produces a visible reaction. C. determining the highest dilution of serum that produces a visible reaction. D. the Western blot method. ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 17.08 Define the term serology, and explain the immunologic principle behind serological tests. Section: 17.04 Topic: Immunologic Methods for Identification 14. A positive serological test for tuberculosis indicates that the patient has active tuberculosis. is an asymptomatic carrier of tuberculosis. is immune to tuberculosis. has been exposed to tuberculosis. ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 17.08 Define the term serology, and explain the immunologic principle behind serological tests. Section: 17.04 Topic: Identifying Microorganisms Topic: Immunologic Methods for Identification H. Serological testing can be used to test each of the following except ______. cerebrospinal fluid blood serum skin urine saliva ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 17.08 Define the term serology, and explain the immunologic principle behind serological tests. Section: 17.04 Topic: Immunologic Methods for Identification 13. Titer is the amount of _____ in serum. A. antibody B. antigen C. WBC D. memory cells E. complement ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 17.08 Define the term serology, and explain the immunologic principle behind serological tests. Section: 17.04 Topic: Immunologic Methods for Identification 14. Serological testing relies upon A. the specificity of the Fc region of antibodies. B. a patient who is not immunocompromised. C. the specificity of the variable regions of antibodies. D. a very high viral or bacterial load in the patient. ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 17.08 Define the term serology, and explain the immunologic principle behind serological tests. Section: 17.04 Topic: Immunologic Methods for Identification 16. Antibody testing requires A. only a known antigen. B. only a known antibody. C. both a known antigen and a known antibody. D. either a known antigen or a known antibody. ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 17.08 Define the term serology, and explain the immunologic principle behind serological tests. Section: 17.04 Topic: Immunologic Methods for Identification 21. What type of test will detect cell-associated antigens? L. Cross-reaction M. Sensitivity N. Agglutination O. Precipitation P. Specificity ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 17.11 Compare and contrast agglutination and precipitation reactions, and provide one example of how each is used to diagnose infectious disease. Section: 17.04 Topic: Immunologic Methods for Identification 17. Soluble antigens are detected in what type of test? A. Specificity B. Cross-reactions C. Agglutination D. Precipitation E. Sensitivity ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 17.09 Differentiate between sensitivity and specificity. Section: 17.04 Topic: Immunologic Methods for Identification 18. What type of test affixes an antigen to an inert particle such as a latex bead? Precipitation Cross-reactions Agglutination Sensitivity Specificity ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 17.11 Compare and contrast agglutination and precipitation reactions, and provide one example of how each is used to diagnose infectious disease. Section: 17.04 Topic: Immunologic Methods for Identification I. Precipitation tests involve all of the following except a cloudy or opaque zone developing where antigen and antibody react. they rely on formation of visible clumps for detection. they can be done in a test tube by carefully adding antiserum over antigen solution. they include the VDRL test for syphilis. they are often performed in agar gels. ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 17.11 Compare and contrast agglutination and precipitation reactions, and provide one example of how each is used to diagnose infectious disease. Section: 17.04 Topic: Immunologic Methods for Identification 25. The testing method involving the separation of serum proteins by electrophoresis, their subsequent transfer to special filters, and then probing with patient sera is called 22. the Western blot. B. immunelectrophoresis. I. a radioimmunoassay (RIA). J. Ouchterlony double diffusion. K. the Quellung test. ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Objective: 08.05 Use appropriate microbiological and molecular lab equipment and methods. Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 17.08 Define the term serology, and explain the immunologic principle behind serological tests. Section: 17.04 Topic: Immunologic Methods for Identification 22. Which of the following is not an agglutination test? A. Blood typing B. Widal test C. Rapid plasma reagin (RPR) test D. Counterimmunoelectrophoresis E. Weil-Felix reaction ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 17.11 Compare and contrast agglutination and precipitation reactions, and provide one example of how each is used to diagnose infectious disease. Section: 17.04 Topic: Immunologic Methods for Identification 29. In precipitation tests, the antigen A. -antibody complex settles to the bottom of the tube. B. is a whole cell. C. is an insoluble molecule. D. is a soluble molecule. ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 17.11 Compare and contrast agglutination and precipitation reactions, and provide one example of how each is used to diagnose infectious disease. Section: 17.04 Topic: Immunologic Methods for Identification 27. Syphilis can be diagnosed by the A. Widal test. B. antistreptolysin O test. C. Weil-Felix reaction. D. latex agglutination test. E. rapid plasma reagin test. ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 17.11 Compare and contrast agglutination and precipitation reactions, and provide one example of how each is used to diagnose infectious disease. Section: 17.04 Topic: Immunologic Methods for Identification 29. The radioimmunoassay test is used frequently for A. identification of bacteria. B. determining levels of hormones. C. identification of viruses. D. separation of DNA fragments. ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 17.08 Define the term serology, and explain the immunologic principle behind serological tests. Section: 17.04 Topic: Immunologic Methods for Identification 24. The VRDL test detects ______. Salmonella Rickettsia syphilis Candida ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 17.11 Compare and contrast agglutination and precipitation reactions, and provide one example of how each is used to diagnose infectious disease. Section: 17.03 Section: 17.04 Topic: Clinical Microbiology Topic: Immunologic Methods for Identification 31. Which of the following is correct regarding the polymerse chain reaction test? A. Sheep red blood cells are added to the gel. B. The two strands of the DNA molecules are separated by heat. C. Antigen and antibody are allowed to react first. D. An enzyme-linked indicator is added. ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 17.15 Explain how PCR is used in microbial identification tests. Section: 17.03 Topic: Genetic Analyses 25. Which test is the confirming test for people who initially tested antibody-positive in the screening ELISA test? Radioimmunoassay (RIA) Quellung test Immunelectrophoresis Ouchterlony double diffusion Western blot ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 17.12 Summarize the process of Western blotting, and explain how it can be used in microbial identification. Section: 17.04 Topic: Immunologic Methods for Identification 33. Serotyping of bacteria cannot be used to identify which component? A. DNA B. Flagella C. Capsule D. Cell wall ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 17.16 Summarize two genotypic methods that involve DNA analysis. Section: 17.04 Topic: Clinical Microbiology Topic: Identifying Microorganisms 26. The Western blot test is confirmatory for HIV because it A. is more sensitive than the ELISA. 28.has fewer false positives than the ELISA. C. requires electrophoresis, whereas the ELISA does not. D. uses an indicator of some sort to visualize the antibody. 31. All of the choices are correct. ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 17.08 Define the term serology, and explain the immunologic principle behind serological tests. Learning Outcome: 17.12 Summarize the process of Western blotting, and explain how it can be used in microbial identification. Section: 17.04 Topic: Immunologic Methods for Identification 35. Viruses can be used to identify bacteria because of viral specificity for a host cell. This identification method is called ______. A. phage typing B. probing C. ELISA D. immunochromatography ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 17.07 Explain the main principle behind biochemical testing, and identify examples of such tests. Section: 17.02 Topic: Clinical Microbiology Topic: Culturing Microorganisms Topic: Identifying Microorganisms 36. Which test is used to identify antigens on red blood cells for blood typing? H. Western blot B. Agglutination C. Precipitation D. Microarrays 31.ELISA ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 17.11 Compare and contrast agglutination and precipitation reactions, and provide one example of how each is used to diagnose infectious disease. Section: 17.04 Topic: Immunologic Methods for Identification 37. A direct immunofluorescence test involves a(n) I. agglutination reaction. J. lysis reaction. C. known antibody binding to an unknown antigen. I. precipitation reaction. ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 17.10 Explain how fluorescent antibodies can be used in the diagnosis of microbial disease. Section: 17.04 Topic: Immunologic Methods for Identification 33. Which test uses radioactive isotopes to label antibodies or antigens in order to detect minute amounts of corresponding antigen or antibody? A. Immunelectrophoresis B. Radioimmunoassay (RIA) C. Ouchterlony double diffusion D. Quellung test E. Western blot ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 17.01 List the three major categories of microbial identification techniques. Section: 17.04 Topic: Immunologic Methods for Identification 34. The dyes fluorescein and rhodamine A. can be used to label antibodies in immunofluorescence tests. B. emit visible light in response to ultraviolet radiation. C. are observed using fluorescence microscopy. 35.are used to identify pathogens of chlamydiosis, Legionnaires'disease, and others. 36. All of the choices are correct. ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 17.10 Explain how fluorescent antibodies can be used in the diagnosis of microbial disease. Section: 17.04 Topic: Immunologic Methods for Identification 40. Alkaline phosphatase is an enzyme used in _____ tests. 41. indirect fluorescent antibody 42. ELISA 43. Western blot 44.direct fluorescent antibody ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 17.14 Explain the difference between a direct and an indirect ELISA. Section: 17.04 Topic: Immunologic Methods for Identification 41. A positive direct ELISA result requires 41.one known antibody, one unknown antibody, and an unknown antigen. 42.one known antibody, one unknown antibody, and a known antigen. 43. two known antibodies and one known antigen. 44. two known antibodies and one unknown antigen. ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 17.14 Explain the difference between a direct and an indirect ELISA. Section: 17.04 Topic: Immunologic Methods for Identification 42. The indirect ELISA test is commonly used to diagnose infections caused by all of the following except ______. 39.hepatitis A virus 40. rubella virus 41.hepatitis C virus 42. HIV 43. Helicobacter ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 17.14 Explain the difference between a direct and an indirect ELISA. Section: 17.04 Topic: Immunologic Methods for Identification 44. In vivo testing is useful for diagnosing ______. A. hepatitis A B. HIV C. tuberculosis D. whooping cough E. rubella ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 17.01 List the three major categories of microbial identification techniques. Section: 17.04 Topic: Immunologic Methods for Identification 47. The tuberculin skin test is read A. within 1 hour. B. after 12 hours. C. from 12-24 hours. D. from 24-48 hours. E. from 48-72 hours. ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 17.03 Compare microbial identification tests performed on microbial isolates with those performed on patients themselves. Section: 17.04 Topic: Immunologic Methods for Identification EE. When minute samples of DNA need to be genetically analyzed for identification purposes, which test can be effectively used? Weil-Felix reaction PCR Direct fluorescence antibody Western Blot Widal ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 17.15 Explain how PCR is used in microbial identification tests. Section: 17.03 Topic: Genetic Analyses True / False Questions 52. It is necessary to do lab tests to diagnose all diseases. FALSE ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 17.01 List the three major categories of microbial identification techniques. Section: 17.01 Topic: Clinical Microbiology 50. When antibodies or other substances in serum cross-react with the test reagents, a false positive result can occur. TRUE ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 17.08 Define the term serology, and explain the immunologic principle behind serological tests. Section: 17.04 Topic: Immunologic Methods for Identification 46. Serological testing always involves reactions between specific antibody and antigen. TRUE ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 17.08 Define the term serology, and explain the immunologic principle behind serological tests. Section: 17.04 Topic: Immunologic Methods for Identification 54. Serological tests should have low sensitivity and specificity. FALSE ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 17.09 Differentiate between sensitivity and specificity. Section: 17.04 Topic: Immunologic Methods for Identification 55. The ELISA is commonly used for diagnosing salmonellosis. FALSE ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 17.17 Describe how RNA analysis has influenced the process of infectious disease diagnosis. Section: 17.04 Topic: Immunologic Methods for Identification 55. ELISA tests use a fluorescent dye as a label to trace antigen-antibody reactions. FALSE ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 17.14 Explain the difference between a direct and an indirect ELISA. Section: 17.04 Topic: Immunologic Methods for Identification 75. The tuberculin test is an example of an in vitro serological test. FALSE ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 17.03 Compare microbial identification tests performed on microbial isolates with those performed on patients themselves. Section: 17.04 Topic: Immunologic Methods for Identification 59. The polymerase chain reaction requires endonuclease to cut samples of DNA. FALSE ASM Objective: 08.05 Use appropriate microbiological and molecular lab equipment and methods. ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 17.15 Explain how PCR is used in microbial identification tests. Section: 17.03 Topic: Genetic Analyses Multiple Choice Questions 54. A urine specimen obtained from a patient went to the microbiology lab for a bacterial culture and antibiotic sensitivity testing. The specimen sat out on the processing counter for a couple of hours before being cultured. Twenty fours hours later, the lab report goes into the computer---over 100,000 bacterial cells per milliliter of urine. Which statement is an accurate assessment of these results? A. The bacterial count is not accurate since the culture sat without refrigeration. B. Not all bacteria will grow on bacteriological media, so the total count is grossly underestimated. C. Urine samples have to be taken from the kidney in order to get a true bacterial count. D. Urine is a sterile fluid as it leaves the body, so it is likely that the specimen was mishandled by the nursing staff when the sample was obtained. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Objective: 08.04 Estimate the number of microorganisms in a sample (using, for example, direct count, viable plate count, and spectrophotometric methods). ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Blooms Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 17.02 Summarize factors that may affect the identification of an infectious agent from a patient sample. Learning Outcome: 17.05 Summarize the most common methods used for direct examination of a specimen. Section: 17.01 Topic: Clinical Microbiology 55. A patient's vaginal specimen is sent from the walk-in clinic to the microbiology laboratory. There it is cultured on bacteriological media and then placed into an ambient air incubator set at 22% oxygen and 37 degrees Celsius. The patient is strongly suspected of having gonorrhea. She had sexual contact with a partner recently diagnosed with gonorrhea, and she is now displaying the typical symptoms of a vaginal exudateor fluid. Neisseria gonorrhoeae is a microaerophilic gram-negative coccus-shaped bacterium. Seventy-two hours later, the culture has still not grown Neisseria gonorrhoeae so the lab reports the results back as negative. Interpret this result. A. The inoculating loop was too hot while streaking the specimen onto agar medium, and the bacteria were all killed. B. The clinical personnel took the sample from an incorrect body area. C. The culture was placed into the wrong environment for Neisseria gonorrhoeae. D. Neisseria gonorrhoeae cannot be grown in bacteriological media and requires genetic analysis for identification. ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Blooms Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 17.02 Summarize factors that may affect the identification of an infectious agent from a patient sample. Section: 17.02 Topic: Clinical Microbiology Topic: Culturing Microorganisms Topic: Identifying Microorganisms 56. Dr. John Doe, a research microbiologist for a university medical center, has been accused of sending Bacillus anthracis, the causative agent of anthrax, through the mail to the President. You, as a public health official with the CDC, have to determine if it is the same strain as the two strains of B. anthracis found cultured in his lab. Which method of identification would you use to compare these three bacterial samples? A. Gram staining B. Serological testing using agglutination C. Biochemical test identification D. Pulse-field gel electrophoresis ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Blooms Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 17.16 Summarize two genotypic methods that involve DNA analysis. Section: 17.03 Topic: Genetic Analyses 57. Both pulse-field gel electrophoresis and Western blotting utilize electrophoresis in their procedures. When comparing the two procedures, which statement is true? A. Pulse-field gel electrophoresis is used for genetic analysis. B. Pulse-field gel electrophoresis separates DNA fragments while Western blotting separates proteins. C. The presence of antibodies in a patient specimen can be identified in the Western Blot. D. Pulse-field gel electrophoresis is excellent for identifying minute genetic differences among strains of one species of an organism. E. All of the statements are true. ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Blooms Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 17.12 Summarize the process of Western blotting, and explain how it can be used in microbial identification. Learning Outcome: 17.16 Summarize two genotypic methods that involve DNA analysis. Section: 17.03 Section: 17.04 Topic: Genetic Analyses 58. Your daughter probably has strep throat caused by Streptococcus pyogenes. The traditional method of diagnosis involves culturing on blood agar, but this process is time consuming. Your doctor wants a more rapid identification of the infectious agent using a specimen directly obtained from the patient's throat. He would prefer to use a test that can be read in his office without having to culture and isolate the organism. He would likely choose the A. immunochromatographic test. B. Western Blot test. C. direct fluorescence test. D. pulse-field gel electrophoresis. ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Blooms Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 17.13 Describe two rapid immunologic methods for the detection of either microbial antigens or microbe-specific antibodies within a specimen. Section: 17.04 Topic: Immunologic Methods for Identification 59. Mycobacterium tuberculosis has traditionally been identified in patient samples using biochemical tests, and more recently through DNA probe analysis. In vivo testing can also be completed using the tuberculin skin test. A more recent test that seems to be surpassing the others is the QuantiFERON-TB gold test. Blood samples are mixed with protein antigens of M. tuberculosis. After 16 to 24 hours of incubation, the amount of the cytokine interferon produced by the patient's cells is measured. If the patient is infected with M. tuberculosis, their WBCs will release interferon in response to contact with the tuberculosis protein antigens. This test falls under which category of identification tests? A. Enzymatic test 67. Microarray test C. Immunologic test D. DNA fingerprinting test E. Genotypic test ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Blooms Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 17.08 Define the term serology, and explain the immunologic principle behind serological tests. Section: 17.05 Topic: Clinical Microbiology Topic: Identifying Microorganisms 60. The ELISA test has been used as the most common, rapid screening test for HIV infection. Its sensitivity is very high but its specificity is rather low (for an important identification test). Which statement describes this accurately? A. Only certain kinds of instruments can be used to pick up the small amounts of fluorescence given off in the ELISA. B. The test can identify the patient's antibody to HIV only when it is large quantities. C. A false positive test result may develop due to the test antigens capturing normal antibodies. D. The patient's specimen has to be handled in a certain way to maintain the integrity of the viral DNA. ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Blooms Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 17.14 Explain the difference between a direct and an indirect ELISA. Section: 17.04 Topic: Immunologic Methods for Identification 61. You are the supervisor of a new reference microbiology laboratory, which will receive clinical specimens for identification of bacterial pathogens. When choosing the types of media to order for culture and isolation procedures in your laboratory, what question(s) do you need to answer? A. What type of bacteria will you be culturing? B. What are the growth factors required by the bacteria that you will be identifying? C. What kind of microbiota will the patient specimens contain? D. All statements are correct. ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Blooms Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 17.02 Summarize factors that may affect the identification of an infectious agent from a patient sample. Section: 17.02 Topic: Clinical Microbiology Topic: Culturing Microorganisms Topic: Identifying Microorganisms 62. Which statement about clinical identification tests is true? A. Microarray tests are based on electrophoresis methodology. B. Serological tests are always based on identifying antibodies in the patient. C. Biochemical tests are quicker than genetic analysis tests. D. Not all diseases are identified by clinical tests. ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 17.01 List the three major categories of microbial identification techniques. Section: 17.01 Topic: Clinical Microbiology Topic: Identifying Microorganisms 63. If you were going to identify microorganisms within a specimen containing large numbers of organisms (seawater, normal microbiota, etc.), you would have to A. use a wide variety of microbiological media to identify all of the different species of microorganisms. B. use a wide variety of antibodies to react with the antigens. C. use different kinds of serological tests. D. amplify gene sequences within the sample to identify each of the different organisms. ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Blooms Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 17.15 Explain how PCR is used in microbial identification tests. Section: 17.03 Topic: Genetic Analyses 64. You would like to identify as many bacterial species as possible in the human mouth. Why is biochemical testing not the most efficient and accurate method of completing this task? A. B Biochemical testing, using a variety of media, is inaccurate. It has been replaced by more advanced testing procedures. Since you do not know the growth characteristics and metabolic properties of the bacteria in the mouth, you cannot determine all varieties of media to use for isolation and culture. C. Bacteriological media is very expensive, particularly when you would have to use a variety of types to identify the different bacteria. D. Bacteria in the mouth are difficult to grow because of the adverse conditions in the oral habitat. ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Blooms Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 17.02 Summarize factors that may affect the identification of an infectious agent from a patient sample. Learning Outcome: 17.05 Summarize the most common methods used for direct examination of a specimen. Section: 17.02 Topic: Culturing Microorganisms 65. Staphylococcus aureus can be identified by mixing the organism with specific antibody and visually recognizing a clumping reaction between the antigen and the antibody. This is a(n) _______ test. A. microarray B. ELISA C. agglutination D. biochemical ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 17.11 Compare and contrast agglutination and precipitation reactions, and provide one example of how each is used to diagnose infectious disease. Section: 17.04 Topic: Immunologic Methods for Identification 66. The polymerase chain reaction can be used for identification of A. microorganisms. B. antibodies in the patient's serum. C. growth characteristics of microorganisms. D. proteins. ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 17.15 Explain how PCR is used in microbial identification tests. Section: 17.03 Topic: Genetic Analyses 67. Which test cannot be used for identification of a person's HIV status? A. Immunochromatographic testing B. Biochemical tests C. Western Blot D. ELISA ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 17.07 Explain the main principle behind biochemical testing, and identify examples of such tests. Section: 17.04 Topic: Clinical Microbiology Topic: Immunologic Methods for Identification 68. You place an inoculum of your bacterium on a glass slide and add a drop of hydrogen peroxide reagent. Promptly you see bubbles appear, indicating the presence of a particular enzyme that the bacterium produces. What type of identification test does this exemplify? A. Precipitation test B. Immunochromatography C. Microarray D. Biochemical test ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). Blooms Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 17.07 Explain the main principle behind biochemical testing, and identify examples of such tests. Section: 17.02 Topic: Clinical Microbiology Topic: Identifying Microorganisms True / False Questions 69. Nucleic acid testing is appropriate as a testing method when one is not sure what microorganisms are present in the specimen. TRUE ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 17.16 Summarize two genotypic methods that involve DNA analysis. Section: 17.03 Topic: Genetic Analyses Topic: Identifying Microorganisms Multiple Choice Questions 70. Which of these tests is an in vivo test? A. Tuberculin test B. Western Blot C. Agglutination test D. PCR ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 17.03 Compare microbial identification tests performed on microbial isolates with those performed on patients themselves. Section: 17.04 Topic: Immunologic Methods for Identification 71. Microarrays, hybridization tests, and ribotyping are increasing in frequency in their use in clinical labs for diagnosis of infectious diseases and the microorganisms causing them. Why is this? A. They have greater specificity for the organism because they employ specific antibody. B. They are cheaper than biochemical tests. C. The tests are more easily performed in a doctor's office or hospital, right there where the specimens are taken. D. Genomic testing has less errors compared to biochemical tests and serological tests. ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Blooms Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 17.16 Summarize two genotypic methods that involve DNA analysis. Learning Outcome: 17.18 Explain why isolating a pathogen through standard culture methods may become an outdated diagnosis strategy. Section: 17.03 Topic: Genetic Analyses ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Blooms Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 17.02 Summarize factors that may affect the identification of an infectious agent from a patient sample. Section: 17.02 Topic: Clinical Microbiology Topic: Culturing Microorganisms Topic: Identifying Microorganisms 72. You have a very sore throat with symptoms indicating strep throat. Since you are taking microbiology right now, you decide that you will take a swab from your throat and swab it onto an enrichment medium like a blood agar plate or a brain-heart infusion agar plate. Why is this not a good idea? A. Due to the fact that you cannot easily see the sampling site, there is a high probability that you will not be able to obtain your own specimen without contaminating the sample with your own normal biota. B. You are on a diet now, and you are afraid that the food that you are eating will in some way impact the growth of the bacteria. As a result, you will not get valid results. C. You use a mouthwash a couple of times a day, so you think that the antibacterial properties of the mouthwash will inhibit or kill the oral bacteria and results in invalid results. D. All of these statements are correct. 73. In your microbiology lab, your class is identifying bacteria. You are using dichotomous keys to aid in the identification process using the data from a variety of biochemical tests. What problems do you foresee in this procedure? A. Dichotomous keys are not valid for identification. B. If you misread a biochemical test or write down the wrong result, the key will likely take you to an alternative organism that is not your unknown bacterium. C. Dichotomous keys are too sophisticated to read properly, so you are worried that there will be a large degree of error in your identification. D. The dichotomous key does not contain information on your bacterium. ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Blooms Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 17.07 Explain the main principle behind biochemical testing, and identify examples of such tests. Section: 17.02 Topic: Identifying Microorganisms True / False Questions 74. Antibiotics are often added to biochemical media to restrict the growth to only those organisms that are being looked for in the specimens. TRUE ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 17.07 Explain the main principle behind biochemical testing, and identify examples of such tests. Section: 17.02 Topic: Clinical Microbiology Topic: Culturing Microorganisms Topic: Identifying Microorganisms Multiple Choice Questions 57. The difference between presumptive and confirmatory data in specimen identification is that A. presumptive data affords a preliminary identification such as the genus, and confirmatory data identifies the species of the organism. B. presumptive data is an educated guess whereas confirmatory data identifies the specific genus and species of the organism. C. presumptive data is more accurate than confirmatory data. D. presumptive data identifies the species, and confirmatory data identifies the genus of the organism. ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 17.04 Differentiate between presumptive and confirmatory data in the process of specimen analysis. Section: 17.01 Topic: Identifying Microorganisms 59. Phenotypic testing is often beneficial in identifying infectious agents from patient samples; however, some disadvantages include A. organisms must be grown on the same culture media so it is difficult to distinguish them from each other. B. lengthy culturing times and the inability to grow some bacteria in vitro. C. difficulty in identifying motile organisms. D. non-specificity of some biochemical tests since all pathogens utilize the same substrate as a fuel source. ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Blooms Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 17.06 Name two disadvantages associated with phenotypic identification methods. Section: 17.02 Topic: Phenotypic Methods for Identification Z. A method of identification using immobilized, known antigens to identify unknown antibodies and vice versa, where the presence of the agent being tested for immediately brings about a color change is called ______. ELISA Western blotting immunochromatography radioimmunoassay ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Blooms Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 17.13 Describe two rapid immunologic methods for the detection of either microbial antigens or microbe-specific antibodies within a specimen. Section: 17.03 Topic: Immunologic Methods for Identification 67. Technology has introduced a range of specific, rapid tests for identifying and diagnosing infectious disease. While culturing a pathogen from a patient is always advantageous, what disadvantage(s) exist for traditional diagnostic techniques? A. The isolated organism is not the pathogen causing the disease. B. Critically ill patients may have to wait up to 48 hours for a culture to grow. 68. Certain pathogens are not able to be cultured in vitro. 69. Some diseases are caused by more than one organism. 70. All of the above are valid arguments against traditional diagnostic techniques. ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 17.18 Explain why isolating a pathogen through standard culture methods may become an outdated diagnosis strategy. Section: 17.05 Topic: Identifying Microorganisms 70. Microarrays are a powerful diagnostic tool because A. ribosomal RNA can be isolated, sequenced, and analyzed with speed and accuracy. B. PCR can be performed rapidly and the DNA matched against known gene sequence. C. analysis of the pathogen's genome can be performed and the gene sequences compared to suspected pathogens. D. a patient sample can be simultaneously tested for potentially thousands of suspected agents in the realm of the afflicting disease. ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Blooms Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 17.19 List the major advantages of microarray methods of diagnosis. Section: 17.05 Topic: Genetic Analyses X. Scanning the whole genome of every infectious agent in a patient sample and comparing that to known genome sequences maintained in libraries would be the most accurate and efficient way to diagnose disease. We are moving closer to this becoming a reality largely because gene libraries have greater accessibility. more people are being trained in high throughput genetic analysis. multiple organisms have the same genome so it will minimize the number of screenings necessary. the cost of high throughput genetic analysis has plummeted in recent years and continues to decrease. ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Blooms Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 17.20 Summarize the benefits of using whole-genome sequencing of patient samples for disease diagnosis. Section: 17.05 Topic: Genetic Analyses 66. Depending on the organism, direct examination of a specimen is often the most rapid diagnostic tool used in the clinical microbiology lab. You have a sample of pus from a patient's penis. What will be the easiest test to confirm that the patient has gonorrhea? A. Agglutination reaction B. Gram stain C. Microarray D. ELISA ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Blooms Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 17.05 Summarize the most common methods used for direct examination of a specimen. Section: 17.02 Topic: Identifying Microorganisms 66. The gene that codes for the bacterial 16s RNA molecule is highly conserved across species, but also contains hypervariable regions that are highly species-specific. FISH analysis of rRNA is beneficial because A. it can narrow down the list of potential infectious organisms to three or four. B. it is much cheaper than traditional analytical methods. C. it can precisely identify the 16s sequences from patient samples without the lag time it takes to culture the organism. D. it incorporates both direct testing and serological testing for added accuracy. ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Blooms Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 17.17 Describe how RNA analysis has influenced the process of infectious disease diagnosis. Section: 17.04 Topic: Genetic Analyses 76. The difference between direct and indirect immunofluorescence testing is that A. Direct testing adds antibodies directly to antigens, whereas indirect testing cultures the organisms first and adds fluorescent tags to the patient sample. B. Direct testing determines the identity of an unknown antibody in a patient sample, whereas indirect testing determines whether the patient is infected with a specific antigen. C. Indirect testing determines the identity of an unknown antigen in a patient sample, whereas direct testing determines whether the patient has been exposed to an antigen as evidenced by the presence of antibodies in their sera. D. Direct testing determines the identity of an unknown antigen in a patient sample, whereas indirect testing determines whether the patient has been exposed to an antigen as evidenced by the presence of antibodies in their sera. ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Blooms Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 17.10 Explain how fluorescent antibodies can be used in the diagnosis of microbial disease. Section: 17.03 Topic: Immunologic Methods for Identification True / False Questions 73. An infectious organism isolated from a patient has a sequence on its genome TATTGAAGC. This will hybridize to the RNA probe UAUUGAAGC. FALSE CH-18: Multiple Choice Questions 15. Microbes are not likely to be found in which of the following locations on human skin? Hair follicle Sebaceous gland Sensory nerve fiber in the dermis The stratum corneum ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 18.01 Describe the important anatomical features of the skin. Learning Outcome: 18.03 List the types of normal biota presently known to occupy the skin. Section: 18.01 Section: 18.02 Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections I. The integument includes all of the following except ______. skin hair sweat glands surface capillaries nails ASM Objective: 05.01 Microorganisms are ubiquitous and live in diverse and dynamic ecosystems. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 18.01 Describe the important anatomical features of the skin. Section: 18.01 Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections 14. In the skin, blood vessels are found in the ______. A. dermis and subcutaneous layers B. dermis C. stratum corneum D. subcutaneous layer E. stratum basale ASM Objective: 05.01 Microorganisms are ubiquitous and live in diverse and dynamic ecosystems. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 18.01 Describe the important anatomical features of the skin. Section: 18.01 Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections 15. Which of the following statements about blisters is correct? A. Blisters result from a separation of epidermis from dermis. B. Blisters originate in the subcutaneous layer. C. Blisters are confined to the epidermis. D. Blisters originate in the dermis. ASM Objective: 05.01 Microorganisms are ubiquitous and live in diverse and dynamic ecosystems. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 18.01 Describe the important anatomical features of the skin. Section: 18.01 Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections 17. Which of the following skin defenses and its mechanism is mismatched? A. Antimicrobial peptides; disrupt positively charged bacterial membranes B. Sebum; lipid hydrolysis leads to toxic by-products that inhibit microbial growth C. Lysozyme; hydrolyzes peptidoglycan in bacterial cell walls D. Keratinized surface; protein that provides waterproofing ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 18.02 List the natural defenses present in the skin. Section: 18.01 Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections Q. Protective features of the skin include all of the following except ______. R. high pH high salt content lysozyme a keratinized surface resident biota ASM Objective: 05.01 Microorganisms are ubiquitous and live in diverse and dynamic ecosystems. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 18.02 List the natural defenses present in the skin. Section: 18.01 Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections 18. Which material in skin provides protection from abrasions, water damage, and microorganism entry? A. Salt B. Lysozyme C. Keratin D. Sweat E. Sebum ASM Objective: 05.01 Microorganisms are ubiquitous and live in diverse and dynamic ecosystems. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 18.02 List the natural defenses present in the skin. Section: 18.01 Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections 19. The environment of human skin requires an adaptation for microbes that can tolerate moderately ______ conditions. alkaline thermophilic halophilic anaerobic psychrophilic ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 18.03 List the types of normal biota presently known to occupy the skin. Section: 18.02 Topic: Bacteria Topic: Culturing Microorganisms J. Which microorganism species is most well-adapted to life on the skin? A. Corynebacterium diphtheriae 23. Candida albicans C. Staphylococcus epidermidis D. Malassezia E. Streptococcus pyogenes ASM Objective: 05.01 Microorganisms are ubiquitous and live in diverse and dynamic ecosystems. ASM Objective: 06.01 Microbes are essential for life as we know it and the processes that support life (e.g., in biogeochemical cycles and plant and/or animal microflora). ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 18.03 List the types of normal biota presently known to occupy the skin. Section: 18.02 Topic: Culturing Microorganisms L. The smallpox vaccine uses the ______ virus. variola herpes simplex C. human herpesvirus 6 23. smallpox 24. vaccinia ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 18.04 List the possible causative agents for each of the infectious skin conditions: MRSA, impetigo, cellulitis, staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome, gas gangrene, vesicular or pustular rash diseases, maculopapular rash diseases, wartlike eruptions, large pustular skin lesions, and superficial mycosis. Learning Outcome: 18.06 List the conditions for which vaccination is recommended. Section: 18.03 Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections Topic: Viruses True / False Questions 30. Impetigo involves itching papules that break and form a very contagious yellow crust. TRUE ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 18.04 List the possible causative agents for each of the infectious skin conditions: MRSA, impetigo, cellulitis, staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome, gas gangrene, vesicular or pustular rash diseases, maculopapular rash diseases, wartlike eruptions, large pustular skin lesions, and superficial mycosis. Section: 18.03 Topic: Bacteria Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections Multiple Choice Questions 28. Which of the following statements about measles is incorrect? A. Dry cough, sore throat, fever, and conjunctivitis are symptoms. B. Humans are the only reservoir for the pathogen. C. It may involve a fatal complication called subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE). D. Secondary bacterial otitis media and sinusitis can occur. E. It is transmitted by direct contact with the rash. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 18.04 List the possible causative agents for each of the infectious skin conditions: MRSA, impetigo, cellulitis, staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome, gas gangrene, vesicular or pustular rash diseases, maculopapular rash diseases, wartlike eruptions, large pustular skin lesions, and superficial mycosis. Section: 18.03 Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections Topic: Viruses 25. Measles is described as a ______ skin lesion. macule bulla pustular maculopapular vesicular ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 18.04 List the possible causative agents for each of the infectious skin conditions: MRSA, impetigo, cellulitis, staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome, gas gangrene, vesicular or pustular rash diseases, maculopapular rash diseases, wartlike eruptions, large pustular skin lesions, and superficial mycosis. Section: 18.03 Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections Topic: Viruses 14. Which of the following is a febrile disease characterized by a rash and is caused by a virus that can cross the placenta to cause serious fetal damage? 26. Measles 27. Impetigo 28. Shingles 29. Smallpox 30. Rubella ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 18.04 List the possible causative agents for each of the infectious skin conditions: MRSA, impetigo, cellulitis, staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome, gas gangrene, vesicular or pustular rash diseases, maculopapular rash diseases, wartlike eruptions, large pustular skin lesions, and superficial mycosis. Learning Outcome: 18.09 Discuss the relative dangers of rubella and rubeola viruses in different populations. Section: 18.03 Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections Topic: Viruses 27. Which of the following statements is correct regarding rubella? It manifests as high fever, severe sore throat, severe cough, and myalgia. It is not preventable by a vaccine. It is associated with congenital transmission causing miscarriage, deafness, and cardiac and mental defects in the infant. It is caused by the measles virus (Morbillivirus). ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 18.04 List the possible causative agents for each of the infectious skin conditions: MRSA, impetigo, cellulitis, staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome, gas gangrene, vesicular or pustular rash diseases, maculopapular rash diseases, wartlike eruptions, large pustular skin lesions, and superficial mycosis. Learning Outcome: 18.09 Discuss the relative dangers of rubella and rubeola viruses in different populations. Section: 18.03 Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections Topic: Viruses 16. The organisms that cause ringworm, or tinea, use keratin protein as their growth substrate. This is why these infections A. cause a discoloration of the skin by damaging skin pigment protein. B. produce a rash all over the body during an infection. C. are restricted to superficial skin layers. D. have a high mortality rate. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 18.04 List the possible causative agents for each of the infectious skin conditions: MRSA, impetigo, cellulitis, staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome, gas gangrene, vesicular or pustular rash diseases, maculopapular rash diseases, wartlike eruptions, large pustular skin lesions, and superficial mycosis. Section: 18.03 Topic: Fungi Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections 29. The enzyme that clots plasma is ______. catalase staphylokinase hyaluronidase kinase coagulase ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 18.04 List the possible causative agents for each of the infectious skin conditions: MRSA, impetigo, cellulitis, staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome, gas gangrene, vesicular or pustular rash diseases, maculopapular rash diseases, wartlike eruptions, large pustular skin lesions, and superficial mycosis. Section: 18.03 Topic: Bacteria Topic: Identifying Microorganisms 32. Necrotizing fasciitis is A. typically a sequelae of streptococcal pharyngitis. B. possibly caused by antibodies to Group A streptococci that cross-react with body tissues. C. also called impetigo. D. associated with strains of Streptococcus pyogenes producing destructive enzymes and toxins. E. not treatable with antimicrobial drugs. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 18.04 List the possible causative agents for each of the infectious skin conditions: MRSA, impetigo, cellulitis, staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome, gas gangrene, vesicular or pustular rash diseases, maculopapular rash diseases, wartlike eruptions, large pustular skin lesions, and superficial mycosis. Section: 18.03 Topic: Bacteria Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections 19. Which of the following is the most common form of transmission for impetigo? I. Body fluids J. Mechanical vectors K. Blood L. Fomites M. Direct contact ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 18.04 List the possible causative agents for each of the infectious skin conditions: MRSA, impetigo, cellulitis, staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome, gas gangrene, vesicular or pustular rash diseases, maculopapular rash diseases, wartlike eruptions, large pustular skin lesions, and superficial mycosis. Section: 18.03 Topic: Clinical Microbiology Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections 32. Impetigo is caused by ______. A. C. perfringens B. C. diphtheriae C. S. aureus D. S. pyogenes E. Both S. aureus and S. pyogenes are correct. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 18.04 List the possible causative agents for each of the infectious skin conditions: MRSA, impetigo, cellulitis, staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome, gas gangrene, vesicular or pustular rash diseases, maculopapular rash diseases, wartlike eruptions, large pustular skin lesions, and superficial mycosis. Section: 18.03 Topic: Identifying Microorganisms Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections K. The toxin of Staphylococcus aureus that causes blisters and desquamation of skin in staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome is ______. enterotoxin hemolysin exfoliative toxin erythrogenic toxin toxic shock syndrome toxin ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 18.04 List the possible causative agents for each of the infectious skin conditions: MRSA, impetigo, cellulitis, staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome, gas gangrene, vesicular or pustular rash diseases, maculopapular rash diseases, wartlike eruptions, large pustular skin lesions, and superficial mycosis. Section: 18.03 Topic: Bacteria Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections J. Infections caused by Staphylococcus aureus include all of the following except ______. carbuncles scalded skin syndrome chickenpox meningitis impetigo ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 18.04 List the possible causative agents for each of the infectious skin conditions: MRSA, impetigo, cellulitis, staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome, gas gangrene, vesicular or pustular rash diseases, maculopapular rash diseases, wartlike eruptions, large pustular skin lesions, and superficial mycosis. Section: 18.03 Topic: Bacteria Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections 34. Which of the following statements does not pertain to Streptococcus pyogenes? A. It causes gas gangrene. B. It secretes streptokinase. C. It is often spread from an endogenous source. D. It coats itself with host proteins. E. It causes impetigo. ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 18.04 List the possible causative agents for each of the infectious skin conditions: MRSA, impetigo, cellulitis, staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome, gas gangrene, vesicular or pustular rash diseases, maculopapular rash diseases, wartlike eruptions, large pustular skin lesions, and superficial mycosis. Section: 18.03 Topic: Bacteria Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections 35. Streptococcus pyogenes causes all of the following infections except ______. A. scalded skin syndrome B. impetigo C. erysipelas D. necrotizing fasciitis E. scarlet fever ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 18.04 List the possible causative agents for each of the infectious skin conditions: MRSA, impetigo, cellulitis, staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome, gas gangrene, vesicular or pustular rash diseases, maculopapular rash diseases, wartlike eruptions, large pustular skin lesions, and superficial mycosis. Section: 18.03 Topic: Bacteria Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections 37. Which of the following is not true of cellulitis? A. Surgery may be required for treatment. B. Lymphangitis may occur with this infection. C. It is caused by S. aureus or S. pyogenes. D. It affects the epidermis layer of the skin. E. It causes pain, tenderness, swelling, and warmth. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 18.04 List the possible causative agents for each of the infectious skin conditions: MRSA, impetigo, cellulitis, staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome, gas gangrene, vesicular or pustular rash diseases, maculopapular rash diseases, wartlike eruptions, large pustular skin lesions, and superficial mycosis. Section: 18.03 Topic: Bacteria Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections 45. Which of the following is not true of staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome (SSSS)? It predominantly affects newborns and babies. It is an exotoxin-mediated disease. The toxins cause bullous lesions. The skin splits between the dermis and epidermis. The skin splits within the epidermis. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 18.04 List the possible causative agents for each of the infectious skin conditions: MRSA, impetigo, cellulitis, staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome, gas gangrene, vesicular or pustular rash diseases, maculopapular rash diseases, wartlike eruptions, large pustular skin lesions, and superficial mycosis. Section: 18.03 Topic: Bacteria Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections 45. The main causative agent of gas gangrene is ______. A. Streptococcus pyogenes B. Clostridium perfringens C. Staphylococcus aureus D. Mycobacterium leprae E. Staphylococcus epidermidis ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 18.04 List the possible causative agents for each of the infectious skin conditions: MRSA, impetigo, cellulitis, staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome, gas gangrene, vesicular or pustular rash diseases, maculopapular rash diseases, wartlike eruptions, large pustular skin lesions, and superficial mycosis. Section: 18.03 Topic: Bacteria Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections 44. Smallpox is a disease in which A. fever, malaise, and rash occur. B. the virus becomes latent in ganglia of sensory neurons. C. recurrent episodes are called shingles. D. transmission occurs by direct contact with skin crusts. E. All of the choices are correct. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 18.04 List the possible causative agents for each of the infectious skin conditions: MRSA, impetigo, cellulitis, staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome, gas gangrene, vesicular or pustular rash diseases, maculopapular rash diseases, wartlike eruptions, large pustular skin lesions, and superficial mycosis. Section: 18.03 Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections Topic: Viruses 45. Chickenpox A. is transmitted by inhalation of respiratory secretions. B. is transmitted by skin lesion contact or airborne spread of lesion material. C. has an incubation period of 10 to 20 days. D. has fever and vesicular rash that occurs in successive crops. E. All of the choices are correct. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 18.04 List the possible causative agents for each of the infectious skin conditions: MRSA, impetigo, cellulitis, staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome, gas gangrene, vesicular or pustular rash diseases, maculopapular rash diseases, wartlike eruptions, large pustular skin lesions, and superficial mycosis. Learning Outcome: 18.05 Identify which of these conditions are transmitted to the respiratory tract through droplet contact. Section: 18.03 Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections Topic: Viruses 48. Human herpesvirus 3 (HHV-3) A. uses the respiratory epithelium as its portal of entry. B. becomes latent in dorsal root ganglia that serve specific dermatomes. C. has humans as its reservoir. D. causes chickenpox and shingles. E. All of the choices are correct. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 18.04 List the possible causative agents for each of the infectious skin conditions: MRSA, impetigo, cellulitis, staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome, gas gangrene, vesicular or pustular rash diseases, maculopapular rash diseases, wartlike eruptions, large pustular skin lesions, and superficial mycosis. Section: 18.03 Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections Topic: Viruses FF. If a person who has never been infected with human herpesvirus 3 comes in contact with the fluid of shingles lesions, they will come down with ______. chickenpox herpes keratitis herpes labialis infectious mononucleosis shingles ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 18.04 List the possible causative agents for each of the infectious skin conditions: MRSA, impetigo, cellulitis, staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome, gas gangrene, vesicular or pustular rash diseases, maculopapular rash diseases, wartlike eruptions, large pustular skin lesions, and superficial mycosis. Section: 18.03 Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections Topic: Viruses 53. Oral lesions called Koplik's spots are seen in patients with ______. A. croup B. measles C. influenza D. rubella E. mumps ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 18.04 List the possible causative agents for each of the infectious skin conditions: MRSA, impetigo, cellulitis, staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome, gas gangrene, vesicular or pustular rash diseases, maculopapular rash diseases, wartlike eruptions, large pustular skin lesions, and superficial mycosis. Section: 18.03 Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections Topic: Viruses 51. Which of the following statements is incorrect about the MMR vaccine? A. It is given in early childhood. B. It contains toxoids. C. It protects against three different viral diseases. D. It contains attenuated viruses. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 18.04 List the possible causative agents for each of the infectious skin conditions: MRSA, impetigo, cellulitis, staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome, gas gangrene, vesicular or pustular rash diseases, maculopapular rash diseases, wartlike eruptions, large pustular skin lesions, and superficial mycosis. Learning Outcome: 18.06 List the conditions for which vaccination is recommended. Section: 18.03 Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections Topic: Viruses 47. Measles is also known as ______. A. varicella B. fifth disease C. rubella D. shingles E. rubeola ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 18.04 List the possible causative agents for each of the infectious skin conditions: MRSA, impetigo, cellulitis, staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome, gas gangrene, vesicular or pustular rash diseases, maculopapular rash diseases, wartlike eruptions, large pustular skin lesions, and superficial mycosis. Section: 18.03 Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections Topic: Viruses 56. Which of the following is not true of measles? A. It causes cell membranes to fuse to form syncytia. B. Its causative agent is a member of the Morbillivirus genus. C. It is transmitted by respiratory droplets. D. It is a single-stranded nonenveloped RNA virus. E. It is in the Paramyxovirus family. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 18.04 List the possible causative agents for each of the infectious skin conditions: MRSA, impetigo, cellulitis, staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome, gas gangrene, vesicular or pustular rash diseases, maculopapular rash diseases, wartlike eruptions, large pustular skin lesions, and superficial mycosis. Section: 18.03 Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections Topic: Viruses 56. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding fifth disease? It is caused by Parvovirus B19. It is a childhood febrile disease characterized by a red rash on the cheeks. The causative agent is capable of crossing the placenta. D. It is characterized by a maculopapular rash that lasts for days to weeks. 76. All of the choices are correct. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 18.04 List the possible causative agents for each of the infectious skin conditions: MRSA, impetigo, cellulitis, staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome, gas gangrene, vesicular or pustular rash diseases, maculopapular rash diseases, wartlike eruptions, large pustular skin lesions, and superficial mycosis. Section: 18.03 Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections Topic: Viruses 60. Which of the following statement is incorrect about warts? A. Topical salicylic acid can be used for removal. B. They are frequently cancerous. C. They are transmitted by direct contact or fomites. D. They include deep plantar warts on the soles of the feet. 68. They are caused by human papillomaviruses (HPV). ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 18.04 List the possible causative agents for each of the infectious skin conditions: MRSA, impetigo, cellulitis, staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome, gas gangrene, vesicular or pustular rash diseases, maculopapular rash diseases, wartlike eruptions, large pustular skin lesions, and superficial mycosis. Section: 18.03 Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections Topic: Viruses 38. Cutaneous anthrax is A. seen in epidemic proportions in the United States. B. a high mortality disease. C. found only in humans. D. transmitted by contact. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 18.04 List the possible causative agents for each of the infectious skin conditions: MRSA, impetigo, cellulitis, staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome, gas gangrene, vesicular or pustular rash diseases, maculopapular rash diseases, wartlike eruptions, large pustular skin lesions, and superficial mycosis. Section: 18.03 Topic: Bacteria Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections 63. Which form of anthrax involves a black eschar on the skin? A. Gastrointestinal B. Inhalational C. Cutaneous D. Muscular ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 18.04 List the possible causative agents for each of the infectious skin conditions: MRSA, impetigo, cellulitis, staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome, gas gangrene, vesicular or pustular rash diseases, maculopapular rash diseases, wartlike eruptions, large pustular skin lesions, and superficial mycosis. Topic: Bacteria Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections 40. Leishmaniasis is transmitted through the bite of a(n) ______. 58. Anopheles mosquito 59. tsetse fly 60.hard-bodied tick 61. sand fly 62. reduviid "kissing" bug ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 18.04 List the possible causative agents for each of the infectious skin conditions: MRSA, impetigo, cellulitis, staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome, gas gangrene, vesicular or pustular rash diseases, maculopapular rash diseases, wartlike eruptions, large pustular skin lesions, and superficial mycosis. Section: 18.03 Topic: Protozoans Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections 60. Which of the following is mismatched? A. Tinea capitis - ringworm of the beard B. Tinea cruis - ringworm of the groin C. Tinea unguium - ringworm of the nails D. Tinea corporis - ringworm of the body E. Tinea pedis - ringworm of the foot ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 18.04 List the possible causative agents for each of the infectious skin conditions: MRSA, impetigo, cellulitis, staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome, gas gangrene, vesicular or pustular rash diseases, maculopapular rash diseases, wartlike eruptions, large pustular skin lesions, and superficial mycosis. Section: 18.03 Topic: Fungi Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections AA. Transmission of tineas include human to human. animal to human. soil to human. All of the choices are correct. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 18.04 List the possible causative agents for each of the infectious skin conditions: MRSA, impetigo, cellulitis, staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome, gas gangrene, vesicular or pustular rash diseases, maculopapular rash diseases, wartlike eruptions, large pustular skin lesions, and superficial mycosis. Section: 18.03 Topic: Fungi Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections 68. Which of the following is not a causative agent of cutaneous mycoses? A. Malassezia B. Trichophyton C. Microsporum D. Epidermophyton ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 18.04 List the possible causative agents for each of the infectious skin conditions: MRSA, impetigo, cellulitis, staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome, gas gangrene, vesicular or pustular rash diseases, maculopapular rash diseases, wartlike eruptions, large pustular skin lesions, and superficial mycosis. Section: 18.03 Topic: Fungi Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections 71. Which of the following is the causative agent of tinea versicolor? A. Epidermophyton B. Microsporum C. Malassezia D. Trichophyton ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 18.04 List the possible causative agents for each of the infectious skin conditions: MRSA, impetigo, cellulitis, staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome, gas gangrene, vesicular or pustular rash diseases, maculopapular rash diseases, wartlike eruptions, large pustular skin lesions, and superficial mycosis. Section: 18.03 Topic: Fungi Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections True / False Questions 71. All warts caused by human papillomaviruses are linked to cancers. FALSE ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 18.04 List the possible causative agents for each of the infectious skin conditions: MRSA, impetigo, cellulitis, staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome, gas gangrene, vesicular or pustular rash diseases, maculopapular rash diseases, wartlike eruptions, large pustular skin lesions, and superficial mycosis. Section: 18.03 Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections Y. Chickenpox is caused by an orthopoxvirus. FALSE ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 18.04 List the possible causative agents for each of the infectious skin conditions: MRSA, impetigo, cellulitis, staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome, gas gangrene, vesicular or pustular rash diseases, maculopapular rash diseases, wartlike eruptions, large pustular skin lesions, and superficial mycosis. Section: 18.03 Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections Topic: Viruses 67. Debridement of diseased tissue is important in the care of patients with gas gangrene. TRUE ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 18.04 List the possible causative agents for each of the infectious skin conditions: MRSA, impetigo, cellulitis, staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome, gas gangrene, vesicular or pustular rash diseases, maculopapular rash diseases, wartlike eruptions, large pustular skin lesions, and superficial mycosis. Section: 18.03 Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections 67. Molluscum contagiosum is transmitted by direct contact with skin lesions, fomites, and sexual activity. TRUE ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 18.04 List the possible causative agents for each of the infectious skin conditions: MRSA, impetigo, cellulitis, staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome, gas gangrene, vesicular or pustular rash diseases, maculopapular rash diseases, wartlike eruptions, large pustular skin lesions, and superficial mycosis. Section: 18.03 Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections Topic: Viruses 77. Mottled, discolored skin pigmentation is observed in patients with tinea versicolor. TRUE ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 18.04 List the possible causative agents for each of the infectious skin conditions: MRSA, impetigo, cellulitis, staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome, gas gangrene, vesicular or pustular rash diseases, maculopapular rash diseases, wartlike eruptions, large pustular skin lesions, and superficial mycosis. Section: 18.03 Topic: Fungi Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections Multiple Choice Questions 50. Your sister cut herself with a knife, and within a few days, she had a severe pus-producing infection of the hand. A day later, skin begins to come off, exposing muscle and other tissue below the skin. Predict what caused the severity of this infection. A. The infectious agent is a fungus. B. This is not an infectious disease; it is an autoimmune disease. C. The infectious agent produces exotoxins. D. The infectious agent is likely a virus. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 18.04 List the possible causative agents for each of the infectious skin conditions: MRSA, impetigo, cellulitis, staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome, gas gangrene, vesicular or pustular rash diseases, maculopapular rash diseases, wartlike eruptions, large pustular skin lesions, and superficial mycosis. Section: 18.03 Topic: Bacteria Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections 51. In a recent surgery, when the cut area was sutured, bacteria entered the open tissue. As a result, you now have an infection of deep tissue exhibiting redness, swelling, pain, fever, and a rash. With your knowledge of microbiology, you predict that you have a developed an infection caused by ______. A. Neisseria B. human herpesvirus 3 C. E. coli D. Staphylococcus ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 18.04 List the possible causative agents for each of the infectious skin conditions: MRSA, impetigo, cellulitis, staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome, gas gangrene, vesicular or pustular rash diseases, maculopapular rash diseases, wartlike eruptions, large pustular skin lesions, and superficial mycosis. Section: 18.03 Topic: Bacteria Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections 74. Which of the following statements regarding viremia is incorrect? A. HHV-3 is disseminated to the skin by viremia. B. Droplet transmission of viruses like the measles virus results in viremia. C. The variola virus multiplies in white blood cells, and cell lysis results in viremia. D. Shingles is a manifestation of persistent viremia after a course of chicken pox. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 18.05 Identify which of these conditions are transmitted to the respiratory tract through droplet contact. Section: 18.03 Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections Topic: Viruses True / False Questions 82. Diseases that manifest as skin rashes are transmitted through direct contact with affected individuals or with fomites. FALSE ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 18.05 Identify which of these conditions are transmitted to the respiratory tract through droplet contact. Section: 18.03 Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections Multiple Choice Questions 82. Considering the diseases and conditions described in this chapter, those transmitted by respiratory droplets are caused by ______. A. viruses B. bacteria C. fungi D. All of these answers are correct. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 18.05 Identify which of these conditions are transmitted to the respiratory tract through droplet contact. Section: 18.03 Topic: Bacteria Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections 80. Which of the following statements concerning rubella immunization is correct? A. A child born with congenital rubella may be immunized to prevent recurrence of the disease. B. A pregnant woman who contracts rubella should be immunized to protect her unborn child. C. Administration of the rubella vaccine at 12 to 15 months of age is good protection against congenital rubella. D. The rubella vaccine given in childhood can protect both the child and any children that she may bear in the future. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 18.06 List the conditions for which vaccination is recommended. Learning Outcome: 18.09 Discuss the relative dangers of rubella and rubeola viruses in different populations. Section: 18.03 Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections Topic: Viruses 81. Which of the following statements regarding vaccines as disease preventatives is incorrect? A. Zostavax is recommended for older adults to prevent shingles. B. The Carter Center has promoted the development of a vaccine against river blindness. C. There is currently no smallpox vaccine available to the general public. D. Immunization is currently not possible against Clostridium perfringens. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 18.06 List the conditions for which vaccination is recommended. Section: 18.03 Topic: Bacteria Topic: Clinical Microbiology 82. Despite the fact that skin-to-skin contact is important in establishing bonding between babies and their caregivers, that same contact can also expose them to pathogens. You have been asked to teach a short class for child care workers to help them identify highly contagious diseases that can cause outbreaks in their environment. Which two of these conditions are most common and most infectious in babies? Impetigo and ringworm Impetigo and cellulitis Impetigo and conjunctivitis Conjunctivitis and rubella Ringworm and hand, foot, and mouth disease ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 18.07 Summarize methods used to distinguish infections caused by Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus pyogenes, and discuss the spectrum of skin and tissue diseases caused by each. 81. Impetigo can be caused by either Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus pyogenes. Culture-based identification of the causative organism can be complicated by the common surface antigens of these two organisms. the ability of S. aureus to kill S. pyogenes. the fastidious nature of both organisms. their common optimal growth temperature, 37°C. ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 18.07 Summarize methods used to distinguish infections caused by Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus pyogenes, and discuss the spectrum of skin and tissue diseases caused by each. Section: 18.03 Topic: Clinical Microbiology Topic: Identifying Microorganisms Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections 83. To perform the coagulase test on a strain of bacteria that is believed to be S. aureus, the first step is to inoculate a tube of ______ with the strain of interest. A. blood plasma B. nutrient broth C. mannitol salt medium D. blood ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). ASM Objective: 08.05 Use appropriate microbiological and molecular lab equipment and methods. ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills Blooms Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 18.07 Summarize methods used to distinguish infections caused by Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus pyogenes, and discuss the spectrum of skin and tissue diseases caused by each. Section: 18.03 Topic: Bacteria Topic: Clinical Microbiology Topic: Phenotypic Methods for Identification 82. Staphylococcus can be differentiated from Streptococcus by the ______. A. Gram stain B. catalase test C. fermentation of mannitol D. coagulase test E. cellular morphology ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 18.07 Summarize methods used to distinguish infections caused by Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus pyogenes, and discuss the spectrum of skin and tissue diseases caused by each. Section: 18.03 Topic: Bacteria Topic: Clinical Microbiology Topic: Identifying Microorganisms True / False Questions 80. The most serious teratogenic effects of intrauterine rubella infection occur if it is acquired during the third trimester. FALSE ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 18.09 Discuss the relative dangers of rubella and rubeola viruses in different populations. Section: 18.03 Topic: Eye Infections Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections Topic: Viruses Multiple Choice Questions T. Current recommendations for the treatment of MRSA infections in the United States will change based on patterns of antibiotic resistance. the cost of different antibiotics. the availability of different antibiotics. congressional approval. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 18.08 Provide an update of the status of MRSA infections in the United States. Section: 18.03 Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections 83. Current recommendations in the United States for treatment of MRSA are to use A. more than one antibiotic. B. no antibiotics to allow the immune system to function. C. any antibiotic other than methicillin. D. no antibiotics to curb the development of resistance. E. erythromycin and a second antibiotic. ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 18.08 Provide an update of the status of MRSA infections in the United States. Section: 18.03 Topic: Clinical Microbiology Topic: Skin/Skeletal Infections 91. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding the effects of rubella and rubeola in different populations? A. Infection during pregnancy with either of these viruses can cause serious injury to the fetus. B. A 30-year-old man infected with rubella will experience severe symptoms and require constant medical attention for several weeks. C. A six-year-old child infected with rubeola will experience fever, cough, and a rash, and barring complications, should recover in a few weeks. D. Congenital rubella is least serious if it is contracted during the final trimester of pregnancy. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 18.09 Discuss the relative dangers of rubella and rubeola viruses in different populations. Section: 18.03 Topic: Viruses 84. Which of the following ocular tissues and infections is mismatched? A. Conjunctivitis; milky discharge and infection of eyelid lining B. River blindness; microfilariae visible in the vitreous chamber C. Keratitis; infection of deep eye tissue D. Trachoma; infection of epithelial cells ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 18.11 List the natural defenses present in the eye. Section: 18.04 Section: 18.06 Topic: Eye Infections 90. Eyes are relatively vulnerable to infection because they are not covered by keratinized epithelium. immune privilege restricts access to the cells conferring innate immunity. there is scant normal microbiota to serve a protective role. All of these answers are correct. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 18.10 Describe the important anatomical features of the eye. Learning Outcome: 18.11 List the natural defenses present in the eye. Section: 18.04 Section: 18.05 Topic: Eye Infections Y. The two tissues of the eye with exposed surfaces susceptible to contamination are the ______ and the ______. conjunctiva; cornea conjunctiva; lens cornea; lens conjunctiva; iris cornea; iris ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 18.10 Describe the important anatomical features of the eye. Section: 18.04 Topic: Eye Infections V. Among the natural defenses present in tears is the protein lactoferrin. As you can infer from its name, it is also present in milk and other body secretions, and its function involves binding iron ions. The presence of lactoferrin in tears is protective against bacterial infection because all pathogens must acquire iron from their environment and lactoferrin ensures that the iron concentration is low. pathogens with magnetosomes will be segregated from the eye tissue and swept away by the tears. in the presence of lysozyme, as found in tears, the proteins form a protective barrier on the lens. free iron serves as an immune signal to recruit T cells to the eye. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 18.11 List the natural defenses present in the eye. Section: 18.04 Topic: Clinical Microbiology Topic: Eye Infections 69. A higher rate of eye infections can be expected from a person who _____. A. is very young B. wears glasses C. cannot produce tears 85.has a vitamin deficiency ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 18.11 List the natural defenses present in the eye. Section: 18.06 Topic: Eye Infections 87. Which of the following provides the eye with its best defense against microorganisms? A. Tears B. Conjunctiva C. Eyelashes D. Eyelids E. Lymphocytes ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 18.11 List the natural defenses present in the eye. Section: 18.04 Topic: Eye Infections 90. Which of the following statements regarding eye infections is correct? Immune privilege restricts virtually all microbes from the tissues of the eye. Inflammation occurs in most eye infections and serves to initiate repair of the damaged tissue. Lysozyme in tears targets the gram-negative microbes that contact the eye. Eye infections may be opportunistic infections by the normal microbiota of the eye. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 18.12 List the types of normal biota presently known to occupy the eye. Section: 18.05 Topic: Eye Infections True / False Questions 92. The eye generally has a large percentage of normal biota present. FALSE ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 18.12 List the types of normal biota presently known to occupy the eye. Section: 18.05 Topic: Eye Infections Z. Occassionally, Staphylococcus epidermidis may be isolated from the eye. TRUE ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 18.12 List the types of normal biota presently known to occupy the eye. Section: 18.05 Topic: Bacteria Topic: Eye Infections 50. Herpes keratitis is an infection of the eye. TRUE ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 18.13 List the possible causative agents for each of the infectious eye diseases: conjunctivitis, trachoma, keratitis, and river blindness. Section: 18.06 Topic: Eye Infections Topic: Viruses Multiple Choice Questions 55. Which of the following is not true of bacterial conjunctivitis? A. It can be caused by S. pyogenes or S. pneumoniae. B. Infection produces a clear discharge from the eye. C. It can be transmitted through both direct and indirect contact. D. Treatment is with a broad-spectrum topical antibiotic. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 18.13 List the possible causative agents for each of the infectious eye diseases: conjunctivitis, trachoma, keratitis, and river blindness. Section: 18.06 Topic: Bacteria Topic: Eye Infections 56. Which of the following statements is true of viral conjunctivitis? A. It is caused by adenoviruses. B. It is caused by Chlamydia trachomatis or Neisseria gonorrhoeae. C. It has a mucopurulent discharge. D. It must be treated with both topical and oral antibiotics. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 18.13 List the possible causative agents for each of the infectious eye diseases: conjunctivitis, trachoma, keratitis, and river blindness. Section: 18.06 Topic: Eye Infections Topic: Viruses 61. Which eye disease is characterized by a pannus forming over the cornea? A. Trachoma B. Keratitis C. Stye D. River blindness E. Simple conjunctivitis ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 18.13 List the possible causative agents for each of the infectious eye diseases: conjunctivitis, trachoma, keratitis, and river blindness. Section: 18.06 Topic: Bacteria Topic: Eye Infections 65. The causative agent of trachoma is ______. A. herpes simplex virus type 1 (HSV-1) B. adenovirus 60. N. gonorrhoeae 61. S. aureus 62. C. trachomatis ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 18.13 List the possible causative agents for each of the infectious eye diseases: conjunctivitis, trachoma, keratitis, and river blindness. Section: 18.06 Topic: Bacteria Topic: Eye Infections 59. Keratitis is usually caused by ______. A. Streptococcus pyogenes B. Staphylococcus aureus C. Neisseria gonorrhoeae D. herpes simplex virus type 1 (HSV-1) ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 18.13 List the possible causative agents for each of the infectious eye diseases: conjunctivitis, trachoma, keratitis, and river blindness. Section: 18.06 Topic: Eye Infections Topic: Viruses 57. River blindness is A. endemic in Australia, New Zealand, and South Pacific islands. B. preventable by a vaccine administered to travelers. C. transmitted by mosquito vector. D. a disease caused by helminths invading the eyes. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 18.13 List the possible causative agents for each of the infectious eye diseases: conjunctivitis, trachoma, keratitis, and river blindness. Section: 18.06 Topic: Eye Infections Topic: Helminths 81. The disease pathogenesis seen in river blindness is caused by ______. S. Wolbachia bacteria T. Onchocerca volvulus worms U. a blood fluke V. herpes simplex virus type 1 (HSV-1) W. Both Wolbachia and Onchocerca volvulus are correct. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 18.13 List the possible causative agents for each of the infectious eye diseases: conjunctivitis, trachoma, keratitis, and river blindness. Section: 18.06 Topic: Eye Infections Topic: Helminths R. What is the only way to prevent non-neonatal conjunctivitis? Screen pregnant women Good hygiene Prophylactic antiviral chemotherapy Vaccine Insect repellent ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 18.13 List the possible causative agents for each of the infectious eye diseases: conjunctivitis, trachoma, keratitis, and river blindness. Learning Outcome: 18.14 Discuss why there are distinct differential diagnoses for neonatal and non-neonatal conjunctivitis. Section: 18.06 Topic: Eye Infections 83. Your child has developed an eye infection with a yellowish discharge. You predict that this is a case of ______. A. herpes keratitis B. bacterial conjunctivitis C. helminth infection D. rubella E. trachoma 60. Neonatal conjunctivitis differs from non-neonatal conjunctivitis in that a. it is transmitted during birth and occurs only in neonates less than 4 weeks old. b. neonates have immune privilege, and are therefore more susceptible to all types of infection. c. it cannot be prevented as the causative organisms are normal microbiota for the mother. d. neonatal conjunctivitis can be caused by Chlamydia trachomatis, Neisseria gonnorhoeae, or any number of viruses. CH-19: Multiple Choice Questions 29. Which brain defense restricts substances from entering the brain via the vascular system? A. Meninges B. Blood-brain barrier C. Macrophages D. Microglia E. Cranium ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 19.01 Describe the important anatomical features of the nervous system. Learning Outcome: 19.02 List the natural defenses present in the nervous system. Section: 19.01 Topic: Nervous System Infections 26. Cerebrospinal fluid is found in the ______. pia mater dura mater subarachnoid space arachnoid mater All of the choices are correct. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 19.01 Describe the important anatomical features of the nervous system. Section: 19.01 Topic: Nervous System Infections 31. Place the following components of the nervous system anatomy in order from skull to brain. Pia mater, arachnoid mater, subarachnoid space, dura mater Subarachnoid space, arachnoid mater, dura mater, pia mater Dura mater, arachnoid mater, subarachnoid space, pia mater Arachnoid mater, subarachnoid space, dura mater, pia mater Dura mater, arachnoid mater, pia mater, subarachnoid space ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 19.01 Describe the important anatomical features of the nervous system. Section: 19.01 Topic: Nervous System Infections 28. The presence of Neisseria in a sample of cerebrospinal fluid indicates that the patient is healthy; Neisseria is part of the normal biota. the patient has an infection with Neisseria. there is a deficiency in the patient's blood-brain barrier. the patient has previously had an infection with Neisseria. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 19.02 List the natural defenses present in the nervous system. Learning Outcome: 19.03 Discuss the current state of knowledge regarding the normal biota of the nervous system. Learning Outcome: 19.04 List the possible causative agents for meningitis and neonatal/infant meningitis. Section: 19.02 Topic: Bacteria 30. The concept of "immune privilege" explains why the central nervous system has more MHC markers than other tissues. a greater immune response than the rest of the body. a completely different set of immune responses. a reduced immune response compared to the rest of the body. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 19.02 List the natural defenses present in the nervous system. Section: 19.01 Topic: Nervous System Infections 33. Which type of cell has phagocytic capabilities in the central nervous system? A. Macrophages B. Neurons C. Astrocytes D. Schwann cells E. Microglial cells ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 19.02 List the natural defenses present in the nervous system. Section: 19.01 Topic: Nervous System Infections N. The gut-brain axis refers to changes in brain chemistry and behavior caused by the gut microbiota. neurons in the spinal cord that connect the gut and the brain. the location of dormant viruses that infect both the gut and the brain. pores in the blood-brain barrier that permit the passage of glucose and other nutrients. ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 19.03 Discuss the current state of knowledge regarding the normal biota of the nervous system. Section: 19.02 Topic: Bacteria 33. The normal biota of the central nervous system includes ______. A. Neisseria meningitidis B. Herpes simplex I C. Herpes simplex II D. Streptococcus agalactiae E. The CNS has no normal biota. ASM Objective: 05.01 Microorganisms are ubiquitous and live in diverse and dynamic ecosystems. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 19.03 Discuss the current state of knowledge regarding the normal biota of the nervous system. Section: 19.02 Topic: Culturing Microorganisms Topic: Nervous System Infections L. Although many viruses can cause meningitis, the most common viral cause is ______. cytomegalovirus enterovirus arenavirus herpes simplex arbovirus ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 19.04 List the possible causative agents for meningitis and neonatal/infant meningitis. Learning Outcome: 19.05 Identify which of the agents causing meningitis is the most common and which is the most deadly. Section: 19.03 Topic: Identifying Microorganisms Topic: Viruses K. The organism responsible for the majority of neonatal meningitis is ______. Listeria monocytogenes Streptococcus agalactiae Neisseria meningitidis Haemophilus influenzae Escherichia coli K1 ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 19.04 List the possible causative agents for meningitis and neonatal/infant meningitis. Learning Outcome: 19.05 Identify which of the agents causing meningitis is the most common and which is the most deadly. Section: 19.03 Topic: Fungi Topic: Nervous System Infections True / False Questions 11. Pneumovax is a vaccine for prevention of disease caused by strains of Neisseria meningitidis. FALSE ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 19.04 List the possible causative agents for meningitis and neonatal/infant meningitis. Learning Outcome: 19.09 Identify the conditions for which vaccination is available. Section: 19.03 Topic: Bacteria Topic: Nervous System Infections Multiple Choice Questions 36. Meningococcemia is A. best treated with penicillin G. B. associated with vascular collapse, hemorrhage, and petechiae. C. started from a nasopharyngeal infection. D. caused by a gram-negative diplococcus. E. All of the choices are correct. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 19.04 List the possible causative agents for meningitis and neonatal/infant meningitis. Section: 19.03 Topic: Nervous System Infections 38. Which of the following does not apply to Neisseria meningitidis? A. It can be easily transmitted in day care facilities, dorms, and military barracks. B. Its reservoir is the nasopharynx of human carriers. C. Its virulence factors include a capsule, pili, endotoxin, and IgA protease. D. It causes a serious meningitis. E. It is a common cause of bacterial pneumonia. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. Blooms Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 19.04 List the possible causative agents for meningitis and neonatal/infant meningitis. Section: 19.03 Topic: Bacteria Topic: Nervous System Infections 14. Which of the following is/are a sign or symptom of meningitis? 46. Headache 47. Stiff neck 48. White blood cells in cerebrospinal fluid 49. Fever 50. All of the choices are correct. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 19.04 List the possible causative agents for meningitis and neonatal/infant meningitis. Section: 19.03 Topic: Nervous System Infections 46. Meningococci initially colonize the ______. A. Eustachian tube B. oral mucosa C. nasopharynx D. lacrimal ducts ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 19.04 List the possible causative agents for meningitis and neonatal/infant meningitis. Section: 19.03 Topic: Bacteria Topic: Nervous System Infections 45. Neisseria meningitidis is transmitted by ______. A. an insect vector B. sexual contact C. fomites D. close contact ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 19.04 List the possible causative agents for meningitis and neonatal/infant meningitis. Section: 19.03 Topic: Bacteria Topic: Nervous System Infections 46. Treatment for Neisseria meningitidis consists of ______. A. intravenous penicillin G B. vancomycin C. rifampin D. oral penicillin G E. tetracycline ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 19.04 List the possible causative agents for meningitis and neonatal/infant meningitis. Section: 19.03 Topic: Bacteria Topic: Nervous System Infections 49. Which of the following is not true of Streptococcus pneumoniae? A. It is a small, gram-negative coccus. B. It is the most frequent cause of community-acquired meningitis. C. It has a polysaccharide capsule that resists phagocytosis. D. It produces an alpha-hemolysin and hydrogen peroxide. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 19.04 List the possible causative agents for meningitis and neonatal/infant meningitis. Section: 19.03 Topic: Nervous System Infections GG. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding Listeria monocytogenes? It is fastidious. It does not produce a capsule. It is resistant to salt. It is resistant to cold. It is resistant to heat. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 19.04 List the possible causative agents for meningitis and neonatal/infant meningitis. Section: 19.03 Topic: Bacteria Topic: Nervous System Infections 54. Which organism is a common cause of meningitis in AIDS patients and can be found in bird droppings? A. Listeria monocytogenes B. Neisseria meningitidis C. Cryptococcus neoformans D. Streptococcus agalactiae E. Haemophilus influenzae ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 19.04 List the possible causative agents for meningitis and neonatal/infant meningitis. Section: 19.03 Topic: Fungi Topic: Nervous System Infections 52. Cryptococcus neoformans is a ______. A. gram-positive bacterium B. prion C. fungus D. gram-negative bacterium ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 19.04 List the possible causative agents for meningitis and neonatal/infant meningitis. Section: 19.03 Topic: Fungi Topic: Nervous System Infections 48. Agricultural workers and field archaeologists are exposed to this organism which, despite entering via the respiratory tract, can cause meningitis. A. Cryptococcus neoformans B. Haemophilus influenzae C. Streptococcus pneumoniae D. Coccidioides immitis E. Neisseria meningitidis ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 19.04 List the possible causative agents for meningitis and neonatal/infant meningitis. Section: 19.03 Topic: Fungi Topic: Nervous System Infections 23. Arthrospores of Coccidioides immitis develop into ______ that will release endospores into the lungs. 57. capsules 58.hyphae 59. capsids 60. spherules 61.buds ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 19.04 List the possible causative agents for meningitis and neonatal/infant meningitis. Section: 19.03 Topic: Fungi Topic: Nervous System Infections 57. Neonatal meningitis is most commonly transmitted by ______. transplacental infection breastfeeding hospital personnel exposure from other infants exposure in the birth canal ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 19.04 List the possible causative agents for meningitis and neonatal/infant meningitis. Section: 19.03 Topic: Nervous System Infections 77. The organism found in contaminated powdered infant formula that can cause meningitis is ______. A. Escherichia coli K1 B. Escherichia coli O157:H7 C. Cronobacter sakazakii D. Cryptococcus neoformans E. Streptococcus agalactiae ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 19.04 List the possible causative agents for meningitis and neonatal/infant meningitis. Section: 19.03 Topic: Bacteria Topic: Nervous System Infections True / False Questions 61. Cryptococcal meningitis is highly communicable among humans. FALSE ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 19.04 List the possible causative agents for meningitis and neonatal/infant meningitis. Section: 19.03 Topic: Fungi Topic: Nervous System Infections 69. Viral meningitis normally requires aggressive antiviral treatment. FALSE ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 19.04 List the possible causative agents for meningitis and neonatal/infant meningitis. Section: 19.03 Topic: Nervous System Infections Topic: Viruses Multiple Choice Questions 64. Which of the following is not true of meningoencephalitis? A. The condition involves infection of both the brain and meninges. 63. The mode of transmission is via respiratory droplets. C. The treatment for primary amoebic meningoencephalitis (PAM) is mostly ineffective. 61. The causative organisms are Naegleria fowleri and Acanthamoeba. ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 19.05 Identify which of the agents causing meningitis is the most common and which is the most deadly. Learning Outcome: 19.06 Discuss important features of meningoencephalitis, encephalitis, and subacute encephalitis. Section: 19.03 Topic: Nervous System Infections Topic: Protozoans BB. Which of the following is caused by Haemophilus influenzae? A. Pharyngitis B. Tetanus C. Kuru D. Influenza (flu) E. Bacterial meningitis ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral or detrimental ways. ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems Blooms Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 19.05 Identify which of the agents causing meningitis is the most common and which is the most deadly. Section: 19.03 Topic: Bacteria Topic: Nervous System Infections 30. Which of the following diseases exhibits the highest mortality rate? [Show More]

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