MED SURG 201|Section 1 NCLEX Questions, Correct Answers Rationales by class_key; West Coast University, Orange County - MED SURG 201

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Section 1 NCLEX Questions by class-KEY 1. Which of the following are risk factors of cancer? A. Smoking B. Age C. Genetics D. Alcohol consumption E. Exercise 2. TRUE OR FALSE: Maligna... nt tumors may spread to other tissues or organs, while benign tumors do not. A. True B. False 3. MULTIPLE CHOICE: What diagnostic study can be used to diagnose cancer? A. Biopsy B. Ultrasound C. Blood tests D. Sputum culture 4. MULTIPLE CHOICE: Examples of primary prevention include: A. Colonoscopy at age 50 B. Avoidance of tobacco products C. Intake of a diet low in saturated fat in a patient with high cholesterol D. Teaching the importance of exercise to a patient with hypertension 5. MULTIPLE CHOICE: Which is NOT an example of a chronic illness? A. Hypertension B. COPD C. Bronchitis D. Diabetes 6. TRUE OR FALSE: An acutely ill patient should be assessed prior to interview to confirm they are stable? A. True B. False 7. . How can increased IOP cause glaucoma? 8. Cataracts is the opacity within the ______ ? 9. Which eye condition is reversible, glaucoma or cataracts. 10. What are common manifestations of primary open-angle glaucoma? 11. What are common manifestations of acute angle closure glaucoma? 12. What is tonopen for? 13. What is the main, first line of treatment for glaucoma caused by a decrease in aqueous outflow? 14.A client with anemia has a nursing diagnosis of activity intolerance. Which of the following interventions will the nurse plan for this client? A. Promote active and passive range-of-motion activities. B. B. Space activities and plan rest periods. C. C. Teach the client to change position slowly to prevent dizziness. D. D. Teach the client the basics of good nutrition. 14. When a client is in Afib, which medication is appropriate to use? A. Diltiazem B. B. Captopril C. C. Digoxin D. D. Nitroglycerin 15. A patient who has just been admitted with pulmonary edema is scheduled to receive the following medications. Which medication should the nurse question before giving? A. Furosemide (Lasix) 60 mg. B. B. Captopril (Captopril) 25 mg C. C. Digoxin (Lanoxin) 0.125 mg D. Carvedilol (Coreg) 3.125 mg 17. Which of the following patients are at risk for developing Cushing’s Syndrome?* A. A patient with a tumor on the pituitary gland, which is causing too much ACTH to be secreted. B. A patient taking glucocorticoids for several weeks. C. A patient with a tuberculosis infection. D. A patient who is post-opt from an adrenalectomy. 18. Which of the following is not a typical sign and symptom of Cushing’s Syndrome?* A. Hyperpigmentation of the skin B. Hirsutism C. Purplish striae D. Moon Face 19. A patient with Cushing’s syndrome will be undergoing an adrenalectomy. Which of the following will be included in the patient’s discharge teaching after the procedure?* A. Glucocorticoid replacement therapy B. Avoiding avocadoes and pears C. Declomycin therapy D. Signs and symptoms of Grave’s Disease 20. A patient is being discharged home for treatment of hypothyroidism. Which medication is most commonly prescribed for this condition? a. Tapazole b. PTU (propylthiouracil) c. Synthroid d. Inderal 21. You are performing discharge teaching with a patient who is going home on Synthroid. Which statement by the patient causes you to re-educate the patient about this medication? a. “I will take this medication at bedtime with a snack” b. “I will never stop taking this medication abruptly” c. “I f I have palpitations, chest pain, intolerance to heat, or feel restless. I will notify the doctor” d. “ I will not take this medication at the same time I take my Carafate” 22. A patient has a potassium level of 8.9. Which nursing intervention is priority? a. Prepare the patient for dialysis and place the patient on a cardiac monitor b. Administer spironolactone c. Place patient on potassium restrictive diet d. Administer a laxative 23. Which drug require the nurse to monitor the client for signs of hyperkalemia? a. Furosemide b. Metolazone c. Spironolactone d. Hydrochlorothiazide 24. What are the main strategies used to decrease serum phosphorus in CKD? (Select all that apply) A. Reduce dietary phosphorus intake B. Give vitamin D C. Give phosphate binders D. Give a calcimimetic E. Dialysis (in chronic dialysis pt) 25. Patients with CKD have an increased incidence of cardiovascular disease related to (select all that apply) A. hypertension. B. vascular calcifications. C. a genetic predisposition. D. hyperinsulinemia causing dyslipidemia. E. increased high-density lipoproteins levels. 26). The nurse is caring for a client that is hearing impaired. Which of the following approaches will facilitate communication? A. Speak frequently B. Speak loudly C. Speak directly into the impaired ear D. Speak in a normal tone 27). The nurse is performing a voice test to assess hearing. Which of the following describes the accurate procedure for performing this test? A. Stand 4 feet away from the client to ensure that the client can hear at this distance. B. Whisper a statement and ask the client to repeat it. C. Whisper a statement with the examiners back facing the client. D. Whisper a statement while the client blocks both ears. 28). The nurse has notes that the physician has a diagnosis of presbycusis on the client's chart. The nurse plans care knowing the condition is: A. sensorineural hearing loss that occurs with aging B. A conductive hearing loss that occurs with aging. C. Tinnitus that occurs with aging D. Nystagmus that occurs with aging 29). Which of the following are causes of conductive hearing loss? A. Ototoxicity B. Genetic factors C. Otitis media with effusion D. Impacted cerumen E. Noise trauma F. Perforation of the TM 30). The nurse is performing a voice test to assess hearing. Which of the following describes the accurate procedure for performing this test? A. Stand 4 feet away from the client to ensure that the client can hear at this distance B. Whisper a statement and ask the client to repeat it C. Whisper a statement with the examiners back facing the client D. Whisper a statement while the client blocks both ears. 31). Otosclerosis is a common cause of conductive hearing loss. Which such a partial hearing loss: A. Stapedectomy is the procedure of choice B. Hearing aids usually restore some hearing C. The client is usually unable to hear bass tones D. Air conduction is more effective than bone conduction 32). Aling Martha, a 73-year-old widow, tells to the nurse during the admission process that she was recently diagnosed with age-related hearing loss. Upon receiving such information, the nurse is correct if he suspects: A. Ménière's disease B. Otalgia C. Otitis media D. Presbycusis 33). Nurse practice acts are established in each state of the United States to regulate nursing practice. What is a common element of every state practice act? A. Defining the legal scope of nursing practice B. Providing continuing education programs C. Determining the content covered in the NCLEX examination D. Creating institutional policies for health care practices 34). A nurse is caring for a patient in the ICU who is being monitored for a possible cerebral aneurysm following a loss of consciousness in the emergency room. The nurse anticipates preparing the patient for ordered diagnostic tests. This nurse's knowledge of the diagnostic procedures for this condition reflects which aspect of nursing? A. The art of nursing B. The science of nursing C. The caring aspect of nursing D. The holistic approach to nursing 35). What drugs are commonly associated with hearing loss? A. Salicylates, potassium-sparing diuretics, thiazide diuretics, and antibiotics B. Salicylates, insulin, thiazide diuretics, and antibiotics C. Salicylates, loop diuretics, chemotherapy drugs and antibiotics D. Antibiotics, potassium-sparing diuretics, chemotherapy drugs, and corticosteroids 36. A client is receiving post-operative teaching for cataract extraction surgery. What is an indication of the clients understanding of the teaching? A. “I will close my eyes when I lift heavy objects” B. “I will call my primary health care provider if I feel pain in my eye” C. “I don’t need to protect my eye at night when I sleep” D. “I will no longer need glasses to see after the procedure” 37. A client with newly diagnosed glaucoma is being prescribed betaxolol (Betoptic). The client asks what the purpose of the medication is. What is the best description of the medication? A. “Betoptic decreases IOP by reducing aqueous humor production” B. “Betoptic improves optic nerve resistance” C. “Betoptic relieves pain in the eye” D. “Betoptic breaks down aqueous humor to lower IOP” 38. What attributes to damage to the optic nerve in glaucoma? A. Eyestrain in low light environments B. Pressure placed on the optic nerve C. Too little pressure placed on the nerve D. Not wearing appropriate corrective lenses. 39. When providing discharge information to a patient newly diagnosed with asthma, what should the nurse include? 1. Try to identify and eliminate your asthma triggers 2. Measure your peak flow readings every month and keep track in a journal 3. Take a non-steroid anti-inflammatory everyday as part of your treatment 4. Use your corticosteroid when you feel symptoms of an attack. 40. In glomerulonephritis, you can expect to see edema around the face and the eyes. What time of day should you expect the edema to be more prominent? 1. Evening 2. Afternoon 3. Morning 4. Bedtime. 41. You are about to perform a Tensilon test on a patient with Myasthenia Gravis. Which antidote will you have on hand in case of an emergency? 1. Atropine 2. Protamine sulfate 3. Narcan 4. Leukovorin 42. Which of the following are risk factors for heart failure? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY) A. History of preeclampsia B. Hypertension C. Sleep apnea D. Obesity E. Increase HDL F. High sodium intake [Show More]

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