Chamberlain College of Nursing - NR 507 - Quiz-1 Patho (2019/20) Verified Answers 24/25 points.

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NR 507 Week 1 Quiz Question 1 2 / 2 pts Which statement is true about fungal infections? They are prevented by vaccines. Correct! They are controlled by phagocytes and T lymphocytes.... They result in release of endotoxins. They occur only on skin, hair, and nails. The host defense against fungal infection includes the fungistatic properties of neutrophils and macrophages. T lymphocytes are crucial in limiting the extent of infection and producing cytokines to further activate macrophages. Question 2 2 / 2 pts Which statement about vaccines is true? Most viral vaccines are made by using dead organisms. Vaccines provide effective protection for all people against viruses, bacteria, and fungal infections. Most bacterial vaccines contain attenuated organisms. Correct! Vaccines require booster injections to maintain lifelong protection. In general, vaccine-induced protection does not persist as long as infection-induced immunity, thus booster injections may be necessary to maintain protection throughout life. Question 3 2 / 2 pts After sexual transmission of HIV, a person can be infected yet seronegative for _____ months. 18 to 20 Correct! 6 to 14 24 to 36 1 to 2 Antibody appears rather rapidly after infection through blood products, usually within 4 to 7 weeks. After sexual transmission, however, the individual can be infected yet seronegative for 6 to 14 months or, in at least one case, for years. Question 4 2 / 2 pts Once they have penetrated the first line of defense, which microorganisms do neutrophils actively attack, engulf, and destroy by phagocytosis? Mycoplasma Correct! Bacteria Fungi Viruses Invasion results in direct confrontation with an individual’s primary defense mechanisms against bacteria, which include the complement system, antibodies, and phagocytes, such as neutrophils and macrophages. (See Chapters 6, 7, and 8). Question 5 2 / 2 pts Cells in _____ may act as a reservoir in which HIV can be relatively protected from antiviral drugs. bone marrow the thymus gland Correct! the central nervous system the lungs HIV may persist in regions where the antiviral drugs are not as effective, such as the CNS. Question 6 2 / 2 pts What is the role of reverse transcriptase in HIV infection? It transports the RNA into the cell nucleus. Correct! It converts RNA into double-stranded DNA. It converts single DNA into double-stranded DNA. It is needed to produce integrase. One particular family of viruses, retroviruses (e.g., HIV) carries an enzyme reverse transcriptase that creates a double-stranded DNA version of the virus. Question 7 2 / 2 pts Deficiencies in which element can produce depression of both B- and T-cell function? Magnesium Iron Correct! Zinc Iodine Deficient zinc intake can profoundly depress T- and B-cell function. Question 8 2 / 2 pts What is the mechanism in type III hypersensitivity reactions? Cytotoxic T lymphocytes or lymphokine-producing Th1 cells attack and destroy cellular targets directly. Antibodies coat mast cells by binding to receptors that signal its degranulation followed by discharge of preformed mediators. Antibodies bind to the antigen on the cell surface. Correct! Antibodies bind to soluble antigens that were released into body fluids and the immune complexes are deposited in the tissues. Most type III hypersensitivity diseases are caused by antigen-antibody (immune) complexes that are formed in the circulation and deposited later in vessel walls or extravascular tissues (Figure 8-3). Question 9 0 / 2 pts In a type II hypersensitivity reaction, when soluble antigens from infectious agents enter circulation, tissue damage is a result of You Answered phagocytosis by macrophages. phagocytosis in the spleen. complement-mediated cell lysis. Correct Answer neutrophil granules and toxic oxygen products. The components of neutrophil granules, as well as the several toxic oxygen products produced by these cells, damage the tissue. Question 10 2 / 2 pts In which primary immune deficiency is there a partial to complete absence of T-cell immunity? Correct! DiGeorge syndrome Bruton disease Reticular dysgenesis Adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency The principal immunologic defect in DiGeorge syndrome is the partial or complete absence of T-cell immunity. Question 11 2 / 2 pts Hypersensitivity is best defined as a(n) disturbance in the immunologic tolerance of self-antigens. Correct! altered immunologic response to an antigen that results in disease. immunologic reaction of one person to the tissue of another person. undetectable immune response in the presence of antigens. Hypersensitivity is an altered immunologic response to an antigen that results in disease or damage to the host. Question 12 2 / 2 pts What disease involves the deposition of circulating immune complexes containing an antibody against host DNA, resulting in tissue damage? Correct! Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) Hemolytic anemia Pernicious anemia Myasthenia gravis Deposition of circulating immune complexes containing antibody against DNA produces tissue damage in individuals with SLE. Question 13 2 / 2 pts What mechanism occurs in Raynaud phenomenon that classifies it as a type III hypersensitivity reaction? Mast cells bind to specific endothelial receptors that cause them to degranulate, creating a localized inflammatory reaction that occludes capillary circulation. Cytotoxic T lymphocytes attack and destroy the capillaries so that they are unable to perfuse local tissues. Correct! Immune complexes are deposited in capillary beds, blocking circulation. Antibodies detect the capillaries as foreign protein and destroy them using lysosomal enzymes and toxic oxygen species. A form of serum sickness is Raynaud phenomenon, a condition caused by the temperature-dependent deposition of immune complexes in the capillary beds of the peripheral circulation. Question 14 2 / 2 pts Exhaustion occurs if stress continues and _____ is not successful. flight or fight Correct! adaptation alarm arousal Exhaustion occurs if stress continues and adaptation is not successful, ultimately causing impairment of the immune response, heart failure, and kidney failure, leading to death. Question 15 2 / 2 pts Stress-induced norepinephrine results in decreased muscle contraction as a result of an energy depletion. decreased blood flow to the brain and skin. Correct! peripheral vasoconstriction. increased glycogen synthesis in the liver. Norepinephrine regulates blood pressure by constricting smooth muscle in all blood vessels. During stress, norepinephrine raises blood pressure by constricting peripheral vessels. Question 16 0 / 2 pts What effect does estrogen have on lymphocytes? You Answered Enhancement of B cells and T cells Depression of B cells and enhancement of T cells Depression of B cells and T cells Correct Answer Depression of T cells and enhancement of B cells Estrogens generally are associated with a depression of T-cell–dependent immune function and enhancement of B-cell functions. Question 17 2 / 2 pts Stress-age syndrome results in decreased ACTH. catecholamines. Correct! immune system. cortisol. Immunodepression is one of the characteristic changes seen in stress-age syndrome. Question 18 2 / 2 pts Intestinal polyps are benign neoplasms and the first stage in development of colon cancer. These findings support the notion that tumor invasion and metastasis progress more slowly in the gastrointestinal tract. cancers of the colon are more easily diagnosed in the benign form because they can be visualized during colonoscopy. apoptosis is triggered by diverse stimuli including excessive growth. Correct! an accumulation of mutations in specific genes is required for the development of cancer. It is understood that multiple genetic mutations are required for the evolution of full-blown cancer. The remaining options do not address the progression of benign to metastatic tumors. Question 19 2 / 2 pts Many cancers create a mutation of ras. What is ras? A tumor-suppressor gene A growth-promoting gene A cell surface receptor that allows signaling to the nucleus about cell growth Correct! An intracellular signaling protein that regulates cell growth Up to one third of all cancers have an activating mutation in the gene for an intracellular signaling protein called ras. This mutant ras stimulates cell growth even when growth factors are missing. The remaining options do not describe ras. Question 20 2 / 2 pts What is the role of vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF), basic fibroblast growth factor (bFGF), and transforming growth factor-alpha (TGF-α) in cell metastasis? To stimulate growth of nearby tumor cells To prevent cancer cells from escaping apoptosis Correct! To develop new blood vessels to feed cancer cells To act as a chemical gradient to guide cells to blood vessels The angiogenic factors, such as VEGF, platelet-derived growth factor (PDGF), transforming growth factor-alpha (TGF-α), and growth factor bFGF, by recruiting new vascular endothelial cells and initiating the proliferation of existing blood vessel cells, allow small cancers to become large cancers. Question 21 2 / 2 pts Inherited mutations that predispose to cancer are almost invariably what kind of gene? Proto-oncogenes Oncogenes Growth-promoting genes Correct! Tumor-suppressor genes These inherited mutations that predispose to cancer are almost invariably in tumor-suppressor genes. At present there are no data to support the other options as factors related to how inherited mutations cause cancer. Question 22 2 / 2 pts Which cytokine is involved in producing cachexia syndrome? Interleukin-15 (IL-15) Correct! Tumor necrosis factor (TNF) Interleukin-1 (IL-1) Colony-stimulating factor (CSF) Cytokines, including TNF-α, IL-6, and interferon-γ, appear to cause the metabolic alterations associated with tissue loss in cancer wasting. Question 23 2 / 2 pts By what process does the ras gene convert from a proto-oncogene to an oncogene? By designating a chromosome that has a piece of one chromosome fused to a piece of another chromosome Correct! By alternating one or more nucleotide base pairs By duplicating a small piece of a chromosome, repeatedly making numerous copies By promoting proliferation of growth signals by impairing tumor-suppressor genes A point mutation is the alteration of one or a few nucleotide base pairs. This type of mutation can have profound effects on the activity of proteins. A point mutation in the ras gene converts it from a regulated proto-oncogene to an unregulated oncogene, an accelerator of cellular proliferation. The remaining options do not describe point mutation as it affects the conversion of a ras gene. Question 24 2 / 2 pts Which characteristic among women correlates with a high morbidity of cancer of the colon, liver, gallbladder, pancreas, breast, uterus, and kidney? Women who never had children Woman who smoked for more than 10 years Women older than 45 years of age Correct! Women who had a high body mass index A recent hypothesis states that the observed increased incidence of such cancers as breast, endometrium, colon, liver, kidney, and adenomas of the esophagus may be associated with obesity. There are no current data to support the remaining options. Question 25 2 / 2 pts Childhood exposure to all of the following risk factors increases susceptibility to cancer except drugs. viruses. ionizing radiation. Correct! cigarette smoke. Childhood exposure to ionizing radiation, drugs, or viruses has been associated with the risk of developing cancer. Although unhealthy, there are no current data to identify cigarette smoke as a risk factor for childhood cancer. [Show More]

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