HR Operations, Employee Relations and Health, Safety, & Security Complete Test With 100% Correct Answers HR Operations Sample test 1

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HR Operations, Employee Relations and Health, Safety, & Security Complete Test With 100% Correct Answers HR Operations Sample test 1 1. Lewin’s theories included that if people are active in dec... isions affecting them, they are more likely to adopt new ways. This is a fundamental principle upon which this approach is founded: a. OD Organization development is a planned, organization-wide effort to increase an organization’s effectiveness and viability. At the core of OD is the concept of organization, defined as two or more people working together toward one or more shared goals. Lewin believed that the motivation to change was strongly related to action: If people are active in decisions affecting them, they are more likely to adopt new ways. 2. Whistle blower protection policies do NOT normally include: a. Requirements that internal reporting processes must be followed prior to outside agency involvement A whistleblower is a person who raises a concern about wrongdoing occurring in an organization or body of people. Whistleblowers frequently face reprisal, sometimes at the hands of the organization or group which they have accused. In cases where whistle blowing on a specified topic is protected by statute, U.S. courts have generally held that such whistleblowers are protected from retaliation. In passing the 2002 Sarbanes Oxley Act, the Senate Judiciary Committee found that whistleblower protections were dependent on the patchwork and vagaries of varying state statutes. Still, a wide variety of federal and state laws protect employees who call attention to violations, help with enforcement proceedings, or refuse to obey unlawful directions. Generally, whistleblowers have the legal right to go to outside agencies to report perceive wrongdoings such as lawyers, the media, law enforcement or watchdog agencies, or other local, state, or federal agencies. 3. To avoid potential conflicts of interests, the HR professional should normally avoid all of the following situations EXCEPT: a. Use confidential information to gain an advantage for your employer Human Resources professionals face business ethics choices and their consequences daily. Generally, HR professionals should not undertake any action that results in personal gain at the expense of the company’s goals. In this question, three of the answer options may result in personal gain for the HR practitioner while one option, using confidential information to gain an advantage for the employer, is an accepted practice of business and the HR professional has a duty to assist the employer 4. Which of the following is the BEST description of the lawful rights employees have when believing an entity has committed a HIPAA violation a. File complaint with Department of Health & Human services The DHHS Office of Civil Rights enforces the privacy standards of HIPAA. While HIPAA protects the health information of individuals, it does not create a private cause ofaction for those aggrieved. The Secretary of the Department of Health and Human Services has discretion in determining the amount of any penalty based on the nature and extent of the violation and the nature and extent of the harm resulting from the violation. The secretary is prohibited from imposing civil penalties, except in cases of willful neglect, if the violation is corrected within 30 days 5. The HR manager conducts an opinion survey of all the members of an underperforming department. The members of the department are BEST represented by the statistical definition of a: a. Population A sample is a subject chosen from a population for investigation. A random sample is one chosen by a method involving an unpredictable component. Cluster sampling involves selecting the sample units in groups. Since all members of the department were tested, the correct answer is the entire population was examined, not a sample. 6. Which is NOT normally considered a step in HR forecasting a. Completing job evaluations on vital job classes Forecasting a company’s future demand in human resources is a necessary procedure in light of organizational objectives and strategies. Completing job evaluations to determine the relative internal worth of a position is not generally a part of forecasting and planning for the future. 7. This provides the BEST framework or context upon which the company’s strategies are formulated a. Mission Statement A mission statement is a formal, short, written statement of the purpose of an organization. The mission statement should guide the actions of the organization, spell out its overall goal, provide a sense of direction, and guide decision making. It provides the framework or context within which the company’s strategies are formulated. The mission statement defines the fundamental purpose of an organization or an enterprise, succinctly describing why it exists and what it does to achieve its Vision. 8. Under current federal law, the privacy rights of employees are protected in regards to: a. Personal health information New technologies make it possible for employers to monitor many aspects of their employees’ jobs, especially on telephones, computer terminals, through electronic and voice mail, and when employees are using the internet. Such monitoring is virtually unregulated. Therefore, unless company policy specifically states otherwise, employers may listen, watch and read most of the workers workplace communications. HIPAA does provide privacy rights in regards to protected health information. 9. Which word is the antithesis of the concept of strategic? a. ReactiveThe most important part of being strategic is being so well prepared that you are always on the proactive side of problem solving. Proactive is the word most associated with strategic, not reactive which is the opposite. 10. XYZ Corporation has been receiving customer complaints about slow phone response times when calling customer service. Management has noticed an increase in personal calls and distracted performance from the Reps. What is the BEST way to motivate them? a. Involve the Reps in addressing the issues Employee involvement, teams, and employee empowerment enable people to make decisions about their work. This employee involvement, teambuilding approach, and employee empowerment increases loyalty and fosters ownership. 11. In today’s modern performance management system, this quality is NOT considered strategically essential a. Easy to administrate While a modern and progressive performance management system must be tied to firm goals, be measurable and as factual as possible, and focus on developing and encouraging employee development, it is not always designed for ease of administration. The goal of the system is to ensure employees are focusing their work efforts in ways that contribute to achieving the agency’s mission. While the other answer options are strategically critical to the modern performance management, ease of administration is more of a tactical issue and not as vital. 12. Sabanes Oxley and the major stock exchanges require publicly traded organizations to have this a. Code of conduct A formal, written code of conduct is critical in order to transform ethical behavior into something more tangible for employees. Such a code is now a requirement for public companies, as mandated by the Sarbanes-Oxley Act and by the listing requirements of the major stock exchanges. SOX requires whistle blower protection but the stock exchanges do not. There is no requirement for either an ombudsman or shareholder input by SOX or the stock exchanges. 13. In terms of organizational structure, employees working in a functionally staffed organization will MOST likely a. Perform a specialized set of tasks Employees within the functional divisions of an organization tend to perform a specialized set of tasks, for instance the engineering department would be staffed only with software engineers. This leads to operational efficiencies within that group. However it could also lead to a lack of communication between the functional groups within an organization, making the organization slow and inflexible. As a whole, a functional organization is best suited as a producer of standardized goods and services at large volume and low cost. Coordination and specialization of tasks are centralized in a functional structure, which makes producing a limited amount of products or services efficient and predictable14. As the HR Manager, you are tasked with developing a new Benefits program. You are currently checking project timelines and budgets, changing action plans as necessary. Which of the four management functions are you likely performing when you perform these activities? a. Controlling The four functions of management or the POLC model includes planning, leading, organizing, and controlling. Planning is the logical thinking through goals and making the decision as to what needs to be accomplished in order to reach the organizations’ objectives. Leadership is the power of persuasion of one person over others to inspire actions towards achieving the goals of the company. Organization is a matter of appointing individuals to assignments or responsibilities that blend together to develop one purpose, to accomplish the goals. However, the correct answer for this questions is controlling. This is the process that guarantees plans are being implemented properly. 15. In an ever changing world, organizational core values are BEST employed when they are a. Constant The core values of an organization are those values we hold which form the foundation on which we perform work and conduct ourselves. We have an entire universe of values, but some of them are so primary, so important to us that throughout the changes in society, government, politics, and technology they are STILL the core values we will abide by. In an ever changing world, core values are constant. Core values are not descriptions of the work we do or the strategies we employ to accomplish our mission. The values underlie our work, how we interact with each other, and which strategies we employ to fulfill our mission. The core values are the basic elements of how we go about our work. They are the practices we use, or should be using, every day in everything we do. 16. Assuming all EEOC requirements have been met, the final say in selecting a job candidate for a position will MOST probably be the: a. Department Manager Not only must the HR department attract qualified applicants through job postings or other forms of advertising, but it also assists in screening candidates’ resumes and bringing those with the proper qualifications in for an interview. The final say in selecting the candidate will probably be the line manager’s, assuming all Equal Employment Opportunity Commission requirements are met. The supervisor will have a lot of input by the department manager must give the thumbs up except for situations with extenuating issues 17. Metrics for Human Management systems have become more important as organizations have recognized that intellectual assets drive company value. Which concept is MOST associated with HR metrics? a. Balanced Scorecard Human Resource Metrics has become important for Balanced Scorecards and other performance measurement systems. The reason is due to the need for effectivemanagement over human resource capital; i.e. the intellectual capital that drives value. And to make matters more urgent, senior management often fails to comprehend the value of human resources within the organization. It is quite common to see little emphasis on human resource management within a balanced scorecard. Consequently, it has become very important to demonstrate the value of human resource capital to executive management. HR Metrics, like other measurements within the Balanced Scorecard, should have strong connections to the strategies of the company. This will help ensure that the evaluation of HR really matters to the organization and we are working to make things happen 18. S.M.A.R.T. is an acronym MOST associated with: a. MBO theory Management by Objectives, or MBO, is a management strategy that uses the S.M.A.R.T. method for setting objectives that are specific, measureable, achievable, realistic, and time based. 19. What is the revenue per employee of a company which has 150 employees in North Carolina, 90 employees in Texas, and 60 employees in California and total annual revenue of 20 million dollars? a. $66,667 150+90+60=300 total employees. $20,000,000 divided by 300 employees = $66,667 per employee 20. Which is MOST associated with the strategic planning tool of environmental scanning a. Benchmarking Traditional long-range planning models, with their inward focus and reliance on historical data, do not encourage decision makers to anticipate environmental changes and assess their impact on the organization. Environmental scanning is part of an external analysis of those factors that affect the strategic planning process. An external analysis is the broader activity of understanding the changing external environment that may impact the organization. Employee turnover statistics are part of the internal analysis while the other three answer options are all conducted externally to the organization. Benchmarking is a process of comparing an organization’s or company’s performance to that of other organizations or companies. The other answer options are all part of the internal analysis of performance. 21. There are federal laws dealing with employee privacy rights in a typical U.S. workplace. a. Few Typically, most employees and many employers believe there are a plethora of privacy laws in the U.S. The truth is there are few. Only HIPAA and the privacy Act, which applies to public employers, have any noticeable effects on employee rights. 22. Codes of conduct are:a. Aspirational statements of principles, policies, and rules for operations that a corporation voluntarily agrees to follow Codes of conduct provide a framework for identifying appropriate ethical behavior for corporations to follow. While usually voluntary in nature, they may carry a stigma if not followed by mainstream organizations. They are based on normative principles that most business leaders have agreed to follow 23. To increase employee engagement, research indicates that employers are NOT required to provide employees with: a. Pro union sentiment accompanied by an ADR process Employee engagement is a positive attitude held by the employee toward the organization and its values. An engaged employee is aware of business context, and works with colleagues to improve performance within the job for the benefit of the organization. Employee engagement is what we get when an employee is motivated by the job; is successful in the job; is well managed by the supervisor and paid fairly by management. A unionized workforce with an alternative dispute resolution process is not generally associated as they often foster animosity and suspicion between the employer and employees 24. When planning to select a vendor to outsource some aspects of HR, the FIRST step is: a. Obtain understanding of the organization and its needs Another ADDIE example. The needs assessment comes first. In this process model, the needs assessment is to first understand the organization and its needs prior to seeking any vendors 25. This is MOST associated with the DMAIC problem solving process found in Six Sigma a. PDCA The DMAIC project methodology has five phases: define the problem, measure key aspects of the process, analyze the data, improve the current process, and control the future state process. PDCA, plan-do-check-act, is an iterative four step problem solving process typically used in business process improvement. It is also known as the Deming cycle, Shewhart cycle, Deming wheel, or plan-do-study-act. The concept of PDCA is based on the scientific method, as developed from the work of Francis Bacon. The scientific method can be written as hypothesis, experiment, and evaluation; or plan, do, and check. Six Sigma projects follow the DMAIC project methodologies inspired by Deming’s plan do check act cycle. A Pareto chart, named after Vilfredo Pareto, is the wrong answer for this question but it is a type of chart which contains both bars and a line graph where the purpose is to highlight the most important among a set of factors. Sample Test 2: 1. This is defined as a set of competencies demonstrating the ability one has to recognize his or her behaviors, moods, and impulses, and to manage them best according to the situation: a. EQEmotional Intelligence is considered to involve emotional empathy; attention to, and discrimination of one’s emotions; accurate recognition of one’s own and others’ moods; mood management or control over emotions; response with appropriate adaptive emotions and behaviors in various life situations; and balancing of honest expression of emotions against courtesy, consideration, and respect; i.e., possession of good social skills and communication skills. Situational leadership is not the correct answer as the question asked the set of competencies one possesses, not a management style. Personality is not correct since personality refers to the emotion, thought, and behavior patterns unique to an individual. Personality influences one’s tendencies, such as a preference for introversion or extroversion. Like Intelligence Quotient, personality cannot be used to predict EQ. 2. According to research on leadership theory, which of the following is BEST answer? a. There is no one relationship style appropriate for all situations Leadership style is the manner and approach of providing direction, implementing plans, and motivating people Kurt Lewin’s research found that although good leaders use all multiple styles, with one of them normally dominant, bad leaders tend to stick with one style. A good leader uses various approaches, depending on what forces are involved between the followers, the leader and the situation. Situational leadership theory assumes that different situations call for different characteristics; according to this group of theories, no single optimal psychographic profile of a leader exists. According to the theory, what an individual actually does when acting as a leader is in large part dependent upon characteristics of the situation in which he functions. 3. Which is the MOST common problem with the administration of policies and procedures? a. Keeping them up to date Maintaining and updating the policies and procedures manual is a nightmare for most organizations. Policies and procedures must be evaluated periodically to ensure that they are efficiently accomplishing their purpose and meeting the requirements that prompted their formulation. A complete review of all policies and procedures should be regularly scheduled, usually at least annually. Because federal regulations and processes change frequently, personnel should be assigned to the task of monitoring and reviewing changes in laws or regulations so that the timely review of the organization’s policies and procedures may take place. Substantial changes in laws or regulations should trigger a detailed review whenever they occur. Organizations frequently overlook this part of the administration of the policy and procedure manual until it is too late and a policy conflict has occurred 4. What reference information can be provided to a prospective employer about an exemployee who filed an EEOC complaint while employed with your company? a. Nothing should be disclosed concerning the EEOC complaint as all information is privileged and confidential.Disclosing information about an EEOC complain to a prospective employer may be considered a form of retaliation by the former employer and thus subject the organization to legal liabilities No information may be provided on the EEOC complaint. Anything said will violate Title VII guidelines that give every employee the legal right to file complaints and to be free from retaliatory acts by the employer, such as a negative reference. 5. Which of the following is generally considered the BEST defense against a charge of defamation? a. Proving the statement was substantially true The term defamation of character is often used to describe accusation of slander, libel or both. Slander involves verbal derogatory statements, while libel involves written ones. The primary defense against a charge of defamation is if the defendant can prove the statements were substantially true. If true, no slander or libel occurred. 6. For an HR Manager, which of the following situations is the BEST example of a possible conflict of interest? a. Hiring your qualified spouse for a key position A conflict of interest occurs when an individual or organization is involved in multiple interests, one of which could possible corrupt the motivation for the act in the other. A conflict of interest can only exist if a person or testimony is entrusted with some impartiality and ignores that duty to act in self benefiting manner. Conflicts of interest can be defined as any situation in which an individual or corporation is in a position to exploit a professional or official capacity in some way for their personal or corporate benefit. Of the examples provided in the question, hiring a spouse, even if qualified, gives the appearance of loss of impartiality. In a case like this, the HR manager should have removed herself from the process. Using the software is illegal, copyright or licensing infringement. Accepting lunch is generally accepted by accepting gifts greater than the cost of lunch may be considered a loss of impartiality. Quitting without notice may be unprofessional but is not a conflict of interest. 7. During the annual strategic planning session, the VP of HR asks for a statement of the current finances of the organization. She wishes to see both assets and liabilities represented to aid the planning processes. The BEST tool to provide her what she requires is the: a. Balance sheet The balance sheet is a statement that provides the employer a financial snapshot of the business at a given time and includes both assets and liabilities 8. The Civil Rights Act of 1991 reinstated disparate impact criteria from what famous landmark Supreme Court case ruling that said hiring practices must be related to the job in question and consistent with business necessity?a. Griggs Griggs v. Duke Power Co., was a court case argued before the Supreme Court. It concerned employment discrimination and the disparate impact theory and was decided on March 8, 1971. The Supreme Court ruled against a procedure used by the company when selecting employees for internal transfer and promotion to certain positions, namely requiring a high school education and certain scores on broad aptitude tests. African American applicants, less likely to hold a high school diploma and averaging lower scores on the aptitude tests, were selected at a much lower rate for these positions compared to white candidates. 9. This is a civil action between private parties arising from wrongful acts which amount to a breach of general obligations imposed by law and not by contract: a. Tort law Tort law covers the entire imaginable spectrum of wrongs which humans can inflict upon each other, and of course, partially overlaps with wrongs also punishable by criminal law. Legislation governing wrongful acts, other than breaches of contract by one person against another or his or her property, for which civil action can be brought. Tort law and contract law define civil liability exposures. The four areas of torts are negligence, intentional interference, absolute liability, and strict liability. The law of civil procedures governs processes in all judicial proceedings involving lawsuits between private parties. Civil law or civilian law is a legal system inspired by Roman law, the primary feature of which is that laws are written into a collection, codified, and not as in common law determined by judges. Case law is the use of citations of previous court opinions in a court case, taken from the court decisions published by the state and federal government. 10. The first step in decision making process is: a. Define the problem The common decision making process follows this model: define the problem, identify causes of the problem, identify alternatives for approaches to solve the problem, select a problem solving approach, implement the best problem solving approach, implement the best problem solving approach, monitor implementation of the plan, verify if the problem has been resolved. 11. Which Act allows trial by jury and the plaintiff may recover compensatory and punitive damages from the offender? a. Civil Rights Act of 1991 Amended The Civil Rights Act of 1991 is a U.S. statute that was passed in response to a series of Supreme Court decisions which limited the rights of employees who had sued their employers for discrimination. Civil Rights Act 1991 expanded the remedies available to victims of discrimination by amending Title VII of Civil Rights Act of 1964. Part of its directives allowed plaintiffs to seek compensatory damages and trial by jury. The other Acts listed in the answer options do not provide these same privileges.12. Which of the following is NOT considered one of the core competitive business advantage strategies? a. Customer intimacy When a firm sustains profits that exceed the average for its industry, the firm is said to possess a competitive advantage over its rivals. Michael Porter identified two competitive strategies; cost advantage and product differentiation. One example of a competitive advantage is the ability to bring products to market faster than competitors. Being intimate with customers may sound good but is not considered an advantage and may be unethical. 13. All of the following are examples of extrinsic rewards EXCEPT: a. Challenge Extrinsic motivation refers to motivation that comes from outside an individual. The motivating factors are external, or outside, rewards such as money or grades. These awards provide satisfaction and pleasure that the task itself may not provide. An extrinsically motivated person will work on a task even when they have little interest in it because of the anticipated satisfaction they will get from some reward. Intrinsic motivation refers to motivation that comes from inside an individual. Extrinsic motivation is crude, easy and often effective. However it focuses people on the reward and not the action. Stop giving the reward and they’ll stop the behavior. Extrinsically motivated individuals will not be driven to learn as much as the person who wants to learn. 14. An employer who has had an employee complaint filed against them regarding an employment issue would MOST likely be investigated by the/a: a. DOL The Department of Labor administers and enforces more than 180 federal laws. These mandates and the regulations that implement them cover many workplace activities for about 10 million employers and 125 million workers. The DOL is the single largest employment law enforcement agency in the United States. Agencies that fall under the umbrella of DOL include: Wage & Hour, OSHA, Office of Workers Compensation Programs, Employee Benefits Security Administration, Pension Benefit Guarantee Corporation, Office of Labor Management Standards, Veterans Employment and Training Service, Office of Federal Compliance Programs, etc… 15. Organizations that develop a values statement normally do NOT include input from: a. Vendors Values represent the core priorities in the organization’s culture, including what drives members’ priorities and how they truly act in the organization, etc. When constructing their values statement, most organizations would do well to consider values of customers, shareholders, employees and the community. Input from vendors is not a normal source that organizations consult with when developing their values.16. A new approach to strategic management, called the balanced scorecard approach, provides a clear prescription as to what companies should measure in order to balance their financial perspective. The balanced scorecard suggests that we view the organization from four perspectives, and to develop metrics, collect data and analyze it relative to each of these perspectives. These perspectives do NOT include: a. Leadership The balanced scorecard is a strategic planning and management system that is used extensively in business and industry, government, and nonprofit organizations worldwide to align business activities to the vision and strategy of the organization, improve internal and external communications, and monitor organization performance against strategic goals. The balanced scorecard suggest that we view the organization from four perspectives, and to develop metrics, collect data and analyze it relative to each of these perspectives: learning and growth, business process, customer, and the financial. Leadership is not one of Kaplan and Norton’s perspectives. 17. Which of the following is NOT one of the four elements that make up the marketing mix? a. People The theory of the marketing mix provides that when marketing their products, firms need to create a successful mix of: the right product, sold at the right price, in the right place, using the most suitable promotion. 18. All of the following are normal examples of ethical conflicts-of-interest for the HR Manager of an organization EXCEPT: a. Agreeing to hire the owner’s unqualified daughter for a position A conflict of interest occurs when an individual or organization is involved in multiple interests, one of which could possibly corrupt the motivation for the act in the other. A conflict of interest can only exist if a person or testimony is entrusted with some impartiality and ignores that duty to act in a self-benefiting manner. Conflicts of interest can be defined as any situation in which an individual or corruption is in a position to exploit a professional or official capacity in some way for their personal or corporate benefit. Of the examples provided in the question, hiring the daughter of the owner is not a conflict of interest as it does not personally enrich the HR Manager no is it a violation to hire the owner’s daughter since the company belongs to the owner and they can do as they wish. 19. In regards to rewards, Vroom’s Expectancy Theory postulates that employees can be motivated by all of the following EXCEPT: a. Employees are intrinsically motivated and this leads to reward Expectancy is the belief that increased effort will lead to increased performance. Increased performance will lead to increased reward. Vroom describes this as the concept of Instrumentality. Vroom postulates that workers that do not believe increased performance will lead to rewards will not be motivated. Therefore,workers are extrinsically motivated by the desire for reward rather than an intrinsic, or internal motivation to succeed for the sake of success. 20. This management style is MOST concerned with the end result, not the method by which the activity was accomplished: a. MBO Management by objectives is a systematic and organized approach that allows management to focus on achievable goals and to attain the best possible results from available resources. It aims to increase organizational performance by aligning goals and subordinate objectives throughout the organization. Ideally, employees get strong input to identify their objectives, time lines for completion, etc. MBO managers focus on the result, not the activity. 21. A statistic that measures the change in cost of roughly 400 goods and services used to measure inflation is: a. CPI The Consumer Price Indexes program produces monthly data on changes in the prices paid by urban consumers for a representative basket of goods and services 22. An individual who is extrinsically motivated in a training class versus one who is intrinsically motivated will MOST probably learn: a. Less Extrinsic motivation refers to motivation that comes from outside an individual. The motivating factors are external, or outside, rewards such as money or grades. These rewards provide satisfaction and pleasure that the task itself may not provide. An extrinsically motivated person will work on a task even when they have little interest in it because of the anticipated satisfaction they will get from some reward. Intrinsic motivation refers to motivation that comes from inside an individual. Extrinsic motivation is crude, easy and often effective. However it focuses people on the reward and not the action. Stop giving the reward and they’ll stop the behavior. Extrinsically motivated individuals will not be as driven to learn as much as the person who wants to learn. 23. The duty to preserve Electronically Stored Information does NOT cover: a. Posters, objects, and pictures Electronically stored information, for the purpose of the Federal Rules of Civil Procedures is information created, manipulated, communicated, stored, and best utilized in digital form, requiring the use of computer hardware and software. The term has become legally defined phrase as the U.S. government determined for the purpose of the FRCP rules of 2006 that promulgating procedures for maintenance and discovery for electronically stored information was necessary. 24. The Director of HR for ABC, Inc. has been asked by the Board of Directors to monitor the daily activities of Congress on some key legislation that may have an adverse impact oncompany business ventures. The HR Director has been asked to provide daily reports and updates on legislation. To satisfy this daily requirement, the BEST source of information for the HR Director to access is: a. The Congressional Record The Congressional Record is the official record of the proceedings and debates of the United States Congress. It is published by the United States Government Printing Office. The congressional record consists of four sections: the House section, the Senate section, the Extensions of Remarks, since the 1940s, the Daily Digest. At the back of each daily issue is the Daily Digest, which summarizes the day’s floor and committee activities and serves as a table of contents for each issue. The House and Senate sections contain proceedings for the separate chambers of Congress. 25. When a complaint has been filed and the EEOC administrative process has begun, the top official that my rule on this case is a: a. Administrative judge Once a case is docketed at EEOC for a hearing, an administrative judge will be assigned to the case. Administrative Judge’s Decision and Order is rendered within 30 to 60 days of completion of the hearing. Neither party can appeal the Judge’s Decision but can appeal the Final Agency Decision incorporating the judge’s decision once the matter has been decided. Sample Test 2 1. Which of the following is the best option for an employer when an employee on FMLA fails to pay their required portion of the health insurance premium a. The employer should pay the employees portion of the premium and try and collect when the FMLA period ends 2. If an employee stops paying their portion of health insurance premiums while on FMLA and the Employer cancels the coverage, which of the following offers the best provision for reinstatement once the employee returns to active duty? a. Make the employee repay their portion of the premiums but reinstate their benefits immediately 3. The fair labor standards act regulates all of the following except a. Social Security withholdings 4. When an employee’s’ pay exceeds 200% of the position compa-ration, all of the following may be safely assumed except a. Organization is in decline 5. The federal FMLA allows an employee to take leave to care for a son, daughter, parent, or spouse with a serious health condition. Which of the following is not included FMLA definition of “parent” a. Parents in law6. Advantages of Defined Contribution retirement plans may include all of the following except a. Low investment risk 7. The privacy provisions of HIPAA deal specifically with which of the following a. PHI 8. Employee medical reimbursements are typically paid from a. Employee pre-tax paid dollars 9. Which of the following would most likely to be included in calculations for overtime compensation for a non-exempt employee a. Merit increase 10. Which topic is of LEAST interest to a wage and hour representative from the US Dept of Labor when conducting an inspection a. Sexual harassment 11. XYX Corporation’s HR Manager would like to redesign the salary and classification system. She believes there are far too many job titles with too few employees per title. She wants to engage in workplace redesign to align HR practices with the current corporate strategies of “high performance workplaces,” greater employee flexibility, reduced hierarchy, multi-skilling, and employee involvement in decision making. Which of the following is: a. Broad banding 12. Examples of when LTD payments are due to ailing workers are common in all of the following except when the employee is unable to a. Report to work ready, willing, and able to perform job duties 13. Military servicemen and women, who leave their job for active service, have the right to continue their health insurance for what period per USERRA a. 24 months 14. The OWBPA requires all of the following from an employer to avoid claims of age discrimination in regards to waivers signed by departing employees who are receiving severance pay except: a. If the older worker changes their mind, the severance pay must be returned prior to filing a lawsuit alleging age discrimination 15. Bob has made a large mistake while operating his production machine. He admits his mistake to his supervisor. To fix the mistakenly run parts, he has volunteered to stay after his shift end for rework and correction of the error while working off the clock. In this case by must be paid: a. For the time spent reworking the error16. Which of the following concepts will most be disconcerting to the HR manager who learns the research engineering department has 5 female engineers who are paid less than the all mail maintenance department. a. Comparable worth 17. Per current trends, HMO’s have a. Higher deductibles 18. John is a military reservist and long term employee. He has just returned to work after 9 months of active duty and immediately applies for FMLA leave for the birth of his new daughter. Under FMLA, what rights does he have a. Full rights to all 12 weeks of unpaid time off 19. When examining the results of a local wage survey, the statistic that best accounts for the proportional relevance of each reporting company, the salary levels, and number of employees per surveyed position is: a. Weighted average 20. If FMLA leave is granted to an employee to care for a seriously ill family member and the person dies before the leave is exhausted, when does the leave end a. Immediately 21. Advantages of defined benefit retirement plans include all of the following except a. Easily understood by participants 22. Which is not true about the OWBPA a. Waivers to ADEA rights were made illegal 23. In regards to enforcement of FMLA, the EEOC has a. No responsibility 24. Which example probably does not have to be paid for on-call time a. Allowed to leave town by cell phone must be carried at all times 25. Which of the following is an example of a defined benefit plan a. Cash balance plan 1. Which Is the most preferred benefit by employees a. Medical insurance2. Judy, a nonexempt secretary works eight hours Monday, Tuesday, and Wednesday…and ten hours on Thursday. Which of the following would allow you to avoid paying her any overtime pay in accordance with the “flexible forty” provisions of the Fair Labor Standards Act? a. Six hours on Friday and no hours on Saturday or Sunday 3. The pregnancy disability amendment to the civil rights act requires that a. Pregnancy, childbirth, and related medical conditions have to be treated like other medical expenses in the benefit program 4. The CEO at ABC, Inc. implements a policy that “no overtime may be worked without prior approval. If the overtime is not pre-approved, overtime will not be paid.” In this case, this policy is: a. Illegal 5. When deciding whether jobs are substantially equal, the appropriate data to use is: a. Actual work performed 6. On what basis does the equal pay act of 1963 prohibit an employer from discriminating in employee compensation programs a. Sex 7. To qualify for the ‘administrative ‘ exemption from the minimum wage and overtime provisions of the fair labor standards act, among other things what must an employee do a. Customarily and regularly exercise discretionary powers 8. Which agency has primary enforcement responsibility for title VII of the civil rights act of 1964 a. The equal employment opportunity commission 9. How many nonexempt employees who travel on company business be paid a. Time and one-half for all hours over 40 in the workweek, and to the extent travel time puts the employee over 40, the company is responsible 10. Which is not the responsibility of the equal employment opportunity commission a. EO 11246 11. At the federal level, the fair labor standards act (FLSA) enacted minimum wage law, and is enforced by the U.S. Department of Labor’s wage and hour division. What is the current federal minimum wage rage a. $7.25/hr 12. Which of the following is appropriate when an employee is required by the employer to attend training as a condition of employmenta. Appropriate study time counts as hours worked regardless of the educational level of the training program 13. Paying on the basis of market is most different from a. Internal equity 14. To be ineligible for unemployment benefits, an unemployed worker must a. Not have earned sufficient wages during the base period 15. Which is not true for a pension plan under ERISA guidelines a. Participants will lose benefits if a defined plan is terminated due to company closing 16. Until what age does the fair labor standards act limit the number of hours of non-hazardous work a. 16 years of age or over as long as the overtime pay provisions are met 17. The most likely took used by organizations to set the annual pay level is a. Performance evaluation 18. Which of the following is not an affirmative defense under the equal pay act a. Marital status and family responsibilities 19. Federal benefits legislation requires a. Pregnancy be treated as any other medical condition 20. Which of the following forms of payments are most likely under incentive and gain-sharing plans a. Commissions 21. The fair labor standards act requires employers to pay their nonexempt employees a. Time and one-half for all hours worked over 40 in the workweek 22. Guidelines of merit pay plans a. Tie pay increases to performance levels 23. In the private sector, which of the following job evaluation methods is most frequently used? a. Point system 24. Which benefits are mandatory under federal law a. Unemployment compensation, social security, and workers’ compensation 25. Which of the following acts is for employers with construction contracts with the government a. Davis-Bacon Act1. Benefits and services usually average about a. One third of total compensation costs 2. Per the white collar amendment to the FLSA, the salary-basis test for Highly compensated workers is a. $100,000 3. Janet has a base rate of $10 per hour. She worked 45 hours in the workweek. She also was paid a $45 attendance bonus. Hat is Janet’s total pay for the week a. $522.50 4. Per section 541 of the FLSA, which would not pass the learned professional exemption test a. Certified journeyman master mechanic 5. Which of the following criteria is included in the learned professional test per the FLSA a. Knowledge was gained from prolonged study 6. When deciding whether jobs are substantially equal, the appropriate data to use is a. Actual work performed 7. To qualify for the administrative exemption from the minimum wage and overtime provisions of the fair labor standards act, among other things what must an employee do a. Customarily and regularly exercise discretionary powers 8. How must nonexempt employees who travel on company business be paid a. Travel time that occurs during the employee’s normal work hours must be counted as hours worked 9. Which exempt status test of the FLSA is directly related to managing or servicing the business a. Administrative 10. Which of the following is appropriate when an employee is required by the employer to attend training as a condition of employment a. Appropriate study time counts as hours worked regardless of the educational level of the training program 11. Which of the following is lease likely to comply with the “prevailing wage” requirement a. A plumber hired to fix a leaky faucet in the state capital building 12. Guidelines of merit pay plans a. Tie pay increases to performance levels13. Which of the following forms of payments are most likely under incentive and gain sharing plans a. Commissions 14. One of the main criticisms of competency based pay structures is a. Employees get paid more while working in a lower paid job 15. Which is not true for a pension plan under ERISA guidelines a. Participants will lose benefits if a defined plan is terminated due to company closing 16. Per the FLSA, which exempt status test is regularly employed away from the employer’s primary work site a. Outside sales 17. Judy, a nonexempt secretary works 8 hours Monday, Tuesday, and Wednesday…and 10 hours on Thursday. Which of the following would allow you to avoid paying her any overtime pay in accordance with the ‘flexible forty’ provisions of the fair labor standards act a. Six hours on Friday and no hours on Saturday or Sunday 18. When exempt status test of the FLSA now includes ‘hiring and firing’ a. Executive 19. The CEO at ABC, Inc. implements a policy that “no overtime may be worked without prior approval. If the overtime is not pre-approved, overtime will not be paid.” In this case, this policy is a. Illegal 20. Per FLSA, must an exempt employee spend 50%+ of their time performing exempt-level duties a. No 21. Which cost containment measure is least popular with employees a. Co payment 22. Which is the most preferred benefit by employees a. Medical insurance 23. The pregnancy disability amendment to the civil rights act requires that a. Pregnancy, childbirth, and related medical conditions have to be treated like other medical expenses in the benefit programs 24. Job evaluation enhances internal equity since it a. Establishes a job hierarchy based on relative value of jobs25. If an employee is paid $600 every 2 weeks, and works 44 hours the first week, how many hours can they work in the second week without being owed any additional monies a. 34 1. While they may be required to pay 102% of the premiums, individuals performing military duty of more than 30 days may elect to continue employer sponsored health care for up to months, per USERRA. a. 24 2. The ADA’s requirement that employers MUST give an employee time off to care for a spouse, son, daughter, parent or other individual with a disability is BEST characterized by: a. There is no requirement 3. The most common term for a written statement that contains information regarding participation, coverage and employee rights for any ERISA-covered benefit plan: a. SPD 4. Does an employee’s service period for FMLA eligibility include the time they were employed by a Temporary Service prior to being hired on as a full time worker a. Yes 5. Usually, LTD begins when a. STD stops 6. Which is MOST common for an employee who is Red Circle rated a. They receive no raise at their annual review 7. Employers must provide the same level of health care coverage to works over the age of 65 as to those under. This statement is MOSTLY: a. True: 65+ workers must be offered the same coverage as those under age 65 8. XYZ Corporation has a practice of providing immediate cash and noncash awards given to employees for ideas submitted or accomplishments benefiting the organization. These type awards are best known as: a. Spot rewards 9. A top employee voluntarily resigns before a bonus is paid out. She demands to be included in the payment. Which is the employer’s obligation in regards to the payout? a. Payment is at the employer’s pleasure10. Unlike the other employees, Joe received a lump-sum increase instead of an adjustment to his base rate of pay. It is most probable that Joe is: a. Receiving a red-circle base rate 11. ERISA requires employers with pension plans to file annual reports with: a. DOL, IRS, PBGC 12. Prestige, positive feedback, wages, and benefits are considered what forms or reward? a. Extrinsic 13. The best term for the complete pay package awarded to employees on an annual basis, including all forms of money, benefits, services, and in kind payments: a. Total compensation 14. The best example of outcome based pay is: a. Commissions 15. A salaried exempt employee is fired on Wednesday morning for misconduct. He performed no work that day except to attend the termination session. What MUST the employer minimally pay this employee per FLSA guidelines” a. Pay for Monday, Tuesday, and Wednesday 16. The insurance program will replace a workers income should they become physically unable to work: a. Disability insurance 17. The primary similarity between HSA’s and FSA’s is that both: a. Use pretax dollars to pay for medical costs 18. An arrangement among employees whereby they group all their tips at the end of the day and then divide them equally among the eligible employees is known as: a. Tip pooling 19. The HR manager wishes to evaluate her organization’s own current pay structure and to use this study as a benchmark for future compensation planning. To accomplish this, she should start with an: a. Wage and salary survey 20. Which organization may legally provide compensatory leave pay to non-exempt employees? a. Public agency 21. FLSA allows employers to pay youths under 20 years of age a subminimum wage for the first days of employment a. 9022. The number of defined benefit plans in the United States have been: a. Steadily declining 23. It is most important for the company’s compensation strategy to: a. Align with the company’s strategic plan 24. The MOST appropriate term for a program designed to provide financial aid to employees taking educational courses at an accredited college or university a. Tuition assistance 25. Which agency investigates any allegations of wrongdoing under FMLA a. Wage and hour 1. Which is NOT considered a form of differential pay? a. Overtime 2. Employers MUST compensate employees in which situation? a. Post-employment drug testing 3. How many days does the employer have to deposit 401k contributions withheld from the employee’s paycheck? a. No later than 15 4. During periods of economic downturn, are employers allowed to freeze their pension plan and all its assets a. Yes, if the previously earned benefits are protected 5. A temporary employee gets injured at ABC, Inc. Who is most likely to be responsible for paying the costs of workers compensation? a. Both ABC and the temp agency 6. An employee is called up to active military duty. What is the employer required by USERRA to pay him while he is deployed? a. Nothing 7. Generally, reinstatement of a key employee may be denied at the conclusion of FMLA leave if reinstatement would cause substantial and grievous economic injury to the employer. What is the best definition of key employees in relation to FMLA guidelines? a. Top 10% wage earners 8. Which separation reason will usually result in the worker being allowed to draw unemployment benefits?a. Temporary furloughs 9. Jane requests a day off from ABC, Inc. without pay for a minor surgical procedure even though she has some PTO leave remaining. She wishes to save the remaining PTO until later in the year. Her supervisor appeals to the HR Manager to deny the request to take the day as unpaid. The HR Manager should: a. Require the employee to take PTO leave 10. To increase employee participation in 401k plans, the compensation manager at ABC, Inc. should implement which technique for the BEST and most immediate results? a. Automatic enrollment 11. How long must an employer continue health care coverage benefits for employees called to active military duty a. 24 months 12. The employees at ABC, Inc. have been working compressed workweeks for several months. The holidays are coming soon and the Compensation Manager is concerned as to what level these traditionally paid holidays will need to be compensated. The manager must take which action? a. The manager may do as she wishes 13. James works for ABC, Inc. and rarely turns in his timesheet for the payroll department to process his weekly paycheck. James works in the field and is usually 2-3 days late with his timesheet. Doe ABC have any legal exposure in this case? a. Yes, ABC must pay on time 14. The Loss Prevention Administrator for ABC, Inc. asks the HR manager for permission to require all employees to provide a list of medications they are currently taking in case of emergencies. The HR Manager should? a. Categorically deny the request 15. A health insurance opt out option must be associated with: a. Cafeteria plans 16. HSA’s may only be created in association with: a. High deductible plans 17. Which organization ensures that some retirement benefits will still be paid out even if the plan goes bankrupt? a. PBGC 18. Must an employer pay accrued vacation leave at the rate of pay the employee actually earned the leave or at the employee’s current rate of pay? a. Either, as it is up to the employer19. Which reward issue normally receives less favorable treatment during collective bargaining negotiations a. Red circle rates 20. A recently terminated employee sends in his COBRA payment within the initial 45 day period. However, the check bounces. The employee does not submit an additional payment within 30 day grace period. The Benefits Manager wishes to terminate the COBRA offer. In this case, COBRA regulations provide the Manger the opportunity to: a. Deny COBRA coverage 21. A salaried exempt employee asks to be reclassified from full time to part time. In regards to FLSA, what is the best option for the compensation manger to take with the salaried exempt pay level a. Reduce pay but no lower than $455 per week 22. A new hire who fails the I-9 process is terminated after two days of work. What must the employer pay this employee for the two days of work? a. Pay him for all hours worked 23. Which is the BEST source of data for the compensation manager to access to determine the current inflation rate a. CPI from Bureau of Labor Statistics 24. Developing a total rewards strategy is commonly a four step process that usually begins with which step a. Assessment 25. Samantha’s supervisor wishes to deduct from wages the time she was absent while voting. Samantha is classified salaried exempt. In this case, the HR manager should: a. Ensure that Samantha gets paid 1. The standard that determines whether an employer MUST comply with the FMLA is: a. 50/20 rule 2. Who should have responsibility for sanctioning payroll rate changes? a. HR Manager 3. A supervisor who creates a competition between different work teams with a financial reward for the best performance is said to be using which motivational technique? a. Extrinsic rewards 4. Which reward system proposal is NOT likely to be supported by the union during the collective bargaining process?a. Merit pay 5. An escalator clause in a union contact is MOST similar to a(n): a. COLA 6. Under what conditions would a company holiday count towards the exhaustion of the 12 weeks of FMLA leave? a. Holidays do not count towards FMLA leave 7. The BEST description of modern compensation involves: a. A total rewards model 8. A first line supervisor reports to the HR Manager that an employee has just revealed to fellow coworkers the out of step wage adjustment they received. The supervisor wants to take disciplinary action on this matter. In this case, the HR manager should: a. Take no action on this matter 9. Which is true when an employee makes voluntary contributions to a company sponsored retirement plan? Voluntary contributions are: a. Instantaneously vested 10. Which law makes it illegal to charge for health care services some similarly situated employees more than others based on medical conditions, claims experience, receipt of health care services, genetic information or disability? a. HIPAA 11. In the modern day business entity, pay satisfaction is MOST impacted by a. Employee perception 12. An employer had 50 employees for more than 20 weeks in the last calendar year. Since that time, a reduction in force has reduced the headcount to 35 employees for all of this calendar year. In regards to FMLA compliance for this calendar year, this employer: a. Must comply with FMLA 13. Employers are required to make, keep, and preserve records pertaining to their obligations under FMLA in accordance with the record keeping requirements of the Fair Labor Standards Act (FLSA). How long must they be kept? a. 3 years 14. When is the earliest an employer may offer COBRA coverage to an employee on FMLA? a. After the 12 weeks of FMLA are over 15. Joe earns $13.50/hr. He worked 60 hours this week. What are his total earnings? a. $94516. FMLA entitles eligible employees of covered employers to take weeks of job protected, unpaid leave to provide care for a covered service member with a serious injury or illness if they are next of kin. a. 26 17. John, the long-time domestic partner to Calvin dies. Per the Pension Protection Act of 2006, what right does Calvin, the designated beneficiary, have to John’s pension plan? a. He may role the benefits into his own IRA tax free 18. Under normal circumstances, how frequently may an employer request a physician’s note from an employee who is taking intermittent FMLA leave? a. Every 6 months 19. Which situation meets the HIPAA guidelines for privacy protection? a. John’s illness is reported in the quarterly executive benefits statement 20. In the U.S., these hourly nonexempt workers may be paid overtime for time worked in excess of 8 hours per day or 80 hours every 2 weeks (instead of the traditional 40 hour workweek): a. Hospital employees 21. Despite being well paid, John does not find his new assignment interesting or challenging. He has notified his supervisor that either he receives an immediate transfer or he will resign his position. In this case, it is BEST to assume that John feels this way about his current job because he is: a. Intrinsically motivated 22. What is the MOST important goal of a group incentive reward system? a. Motivates staff to work together to accomplish organizational goals 23. COBRA coverage requires employers to provide eligible workers with continuation of group medical care coverage for a set period. Under COBRA guidelines, which is NOT included in the definition of medical care? a. Disability benefits 24. Incentive pay systems do NOT produce the desired result of performance improvement in a(n): a. Entitlement culture 25. A new salaried exempt employee is not eligible for holiday pay yet. In this case, the employer should: a. Pay the employee anyway 1. What is not true about social security a. It is only offered for non-exempt employees2. Which of the following is not true about the length of time COBRA may be offered a. for relocation to a foreign country, it may be lengthened indefinitely or until the employee returns to the US 3. The Davis-Bacon Act applies to federal government construction contracts over what dollar amount? a. $2000 4. What is the main focus of OWBPA? a. It prohibits employers from denying benefits to older employers 5. Who is responsible for withholding, depositing, reporting and paying employment taxes? a. The employer 6. Which one of the following acts details child labor laws? a. FLSA 7. What is the main function of ERISA? a. Requires employers to supply employees with detailed information regarding their benefits plan 8. COBRA is only required of the employer if: a. The employer offered a group health plan 9. Which of the following is NOT a type of federal tax? a. Health savings account tax 10. An eligible employee and/or his dependents are covered under COBRA under all except which of the following? a. Relocation of the employee to a foreign country 11. Under FLSA, “overtime” is defined as a. Any hours worked over 40 in one workweek 12. Which of the following is NOT a benefit plan covered under ERISA? a. Disability 13. COBRA is required if an employer employs how many people? a. More than 20 14. COBRA is paid for by: a. The employee 15. The Equal Pay Act is incorporated into which other act?a. FLSA 16. OWBPA was created to protect whom? a. Older workers 17. What is vesting? a. Process in which an employee accrues non-forfeitable rights to employer provided stocks or contributions made to the employee’s qualified retirement plan 18. Form 5500 is filed by the employer with what government agency? a. IRS 19. What does the Davis-Bacon Act regulate a. Payment of prevailing wages on public works projects 20. How are non-exempt employees compensated for overtime pay under the FLSA? a. At time and a half 21. ERISA requires what in regards to vesting employee’s pension plans? a. It is guaranteed after a specific minimum number of years 22. Under OWBPA, an employer must do all of the following except: a. Require the employee to sign a non-compete agreement as part of the severance package 23. Which of the following does the Fair Labor Standards Act not detail? a. Hours that the elderly may and may not work 24. Social security provides support in all of the following cases except which one a. Birth 25. The Davis-Bacon Act most applies to a. Laborers and mechanics 1. Which of the following points about the ACA is NOT true a. Extends dependent coverage from 18 to 22 2. What is another name for the patient protection affordable care act a. ObamaCare 3. What is not a major consideration for determining pay ranges a. Seniority 4. Which of the following is NOT one of the basic 4 steps of determining pay structurea. Deciding which studies of market rates are credible to use 5. Which of the following is NOT true about FMLA a. It can be offered after the initial 90 day probationary period ends 6. What is a green circle rate a. Pay rates that are below the minimum of the salary range 7. What is the most commonly used job content evaluation system a. Point factor 8. To ensure the selection of meaningful job factors, the employer should do all of the following except a. Utilize factors that are “tried and true” for other positions, so they can be reliably measured 9. Which of the following is NOT a job evaluation system a. Previous employment 10. A compa-ratio is defined as: a. Current salary divided by the current market rate by the company’s competitive pay policy 11. Under HIPAA, what does “portability” refer to a. Ensures the continuity of health coverage for people who are changing jobs and to add family members to an existed employee’s plan 12. What was the original purpose of HIPAA a. To impose portability requirements on group health plans 13. Which of the following points about the ACA is NOT true a. Creates a permanent re-insurance program to support coverage for early retirees 14. Of the following, which would not fall under external equity issues a. Job analysis 15. What is the major advantage of the point factor system a. The stability of the rating scales 16. Which of the following is NOT considered PHI a. Whether the employee does or does not have health insurance 17. When would a lead policy be appropriate for a company a. If you are in a very competitive market18. Which of the following best describes lag policy? a. A company establishes a structure that matches the market rates at the beginning of the plan year 19. Under the ACA, what does “rescissions” mean a. Cancellations due to health problems 20. A Compa-ratio of 1.0 best suggests that a. The employee is paid exactly what the industry average pays and are at the midpoint for the salary range 21. Who enforces HIPAA a. HHS 22. Which of the following is NOT a negative attribute of the point-factor system a. Few plans aggressively address discrimination in the workplace 23. Which of the following is not important in a job analysis a. The pay structure 24. When designing a pay structure, what is the most important thing to keep in mind a. How it supports the company’s overall business strategies 25. Under the Patient Protection Affordable Care Act, which statement about HIPAA is no longer true a. Employers may discriminate over pre-existing conditions Human Resource Development and Retention Sample Test 1 1. Which discipline has as its goal to assist the student in shaping their attitudes and approaches to make them a better person? a. Mentoring Instructing, coaching and mentoring differ. Instructors disseminate knowledge. Coaches help clients build skills. Mentors shape mentee attitudes. Alternately instructors train to immediate tasks, coaches accompany achievements, and mentors provide whole-life shaping. 2. The most widely used method of performance evaluation is a. Graphic rating scales The rating scale is a form on which the manager simply checks off the employee’s level of performance. This is the oldest level of performance appraisal. The scales may specifyfive points, so a factor such as job knowledge might be rated 1 (poorly informed about work duties) to a 5 (has complete mastery of all phases of the job). 3. This is the BEST term for teaching methodology that does not specify or require any particular style of teaching or learning. Instead, it requires that students demonstrate that they have learned the required skills and content: a. Outcome-based training Outcome-based education (OBE) is a recurring education reform model. It is a studentcentered learning philosophy that focuses on empirically measuring student performance, which are called outcomes. OBE is a model of education that rejects the traditional focus on what the school provides to students, in favor of making students demonstrate that they “know and are able to do” whatever the required outcomes are. 4. Which of Maslow’s “needs” is the highest in his pyramid? a. Self-actualization Self-actualization is the highest need a person strives for in Maslow’s model. This level of need pertains to what a person’s full potential is and realizing that potential. Maslow describes this desire as the desire to become more and more what one is, to become everything that one is capable of becoming. 5. Every training program needs to be designed individually, and the design will continually evolve as new learning needs emerge, or when feedback indicates changes are required. Which is NOT a key consideration for the modern Trainer? a. Employment branding Acquisition of skills, training location, and the techniques employed in delivering the program are all essential considerations in the training design. Employment branding has little to no relationship with this topic as it speaks to the organization’s reputation or image in the labor market for attracting qualified candidates to fill open positions 6. According to Kirkpatrick, having participants fill out a survey about a training program they have just completed would MOST LIKELY fall into which level of criteria for evaluating training effectiveness a. Reaction In the first level or step of evaluating training programs, students are asked to evaluate the training after completing the program. These are sometimes called smiles sheets or happy sheets because in their simplest form they measure how well students liked the training. However, this type of evaluation can reveal valuable data if the questions asked are more complex. This level utilizes: checklists, questionnaires, and/or interviews. 7. Formal knowledge management systems are MOST linked with a. Computerized systems Most modern versions of formalized training programs within professional development frameworks include the computer within its design and delivery system8. Which type of psychological test measures a person’s overall ability to learn a. Aptitude Aptitude tests are tests that determine whether somebody is likely to be able to develop the skills required for a specific kind of work 9. The concepts of trainee involvement, self-paced and immediate feedback are most prominent in which of the following a. Programmed instruction Programmed instruction allows students to progress through a unit of study at their own rate, checking their own answers and advancing only after answering correctly. In one simplified form of PI, after each step they are presented with a question to test their comprehension, then are immediately shown the correct answer or given additional information. However the objective of the instructional programming is to present the material in very small increments 10. The attributes gained by a worker through education and experience is BEST characterized by the term a. Human capital Human capital refers to the stock of competences, knowledge and personality attributes embodied in the ability to perform labor so as to produce economic value. It is the attributes gained by a worker through education and experience. 11. Being able to apply what was learned in training to dissimilar or unique situations is the highest order of learning and is the process known as a. Generalization Transfer of training, or generalization, refers to the degree to which a learned behavior will be repeated correctly in a new situation, or a learned skill or principle will be applied in a new situation. Transfer is sometimes referred to as gene [Show More]

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