*NURSING > QUESTIONS & ANSWERS > Chamberlain College of Nursing NR 509 APEA Women's Health Questions and Answers Already Passed (All)

Chamberlain College of Nursing NR 509 APEA Women's Health Questions and Answers Already Passed

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Question: When palpating the cervix during the bimanual exam, cervical motion tenderness (chandelier sign) is noted. This tenderness could be suggestive of: retroversion of the uterus.pelvic inflam... matory disease. Correctvulvar lesions. IncorrectBartholin gland infection. Explanation: Cervical motion tenderness, also known as Chandelier's sign, and/or adnexal tenderness, suggest pelvic inflammatory disease, ectopic pregnancy, or appendicitis. Question: In a female diagnosed with a first-degree uterine prolapse, the cervix: is located in its normal position. has slipped but is well within the vagina. Correctis located in the introitus.and vagina are outside the introitus. Explanation: Uterine prolapse occurs in progressive stages. The uterus becomes retroverted and descends down the vaginal canal to the exterior. In first-degree prolapse, the cervix is still well within the vagina. In seconddegree prolapse, it is at the introitus. In third-degree prolapse (procidentia), the cervix and vagina are outside the introitus. Question: Daughters of women who took Diethylstilbestrol (DES) during pregnancy are at a high risk for developing all of the following abnormalities except: columnar epithelium covering most or all of the cervix.a slit- like cervical os. Correctvaginal adenosis.a circular collar or ridge of tissue between the cervix and the vagina. Explanation: Daughters of women who took Diethylstilbestrol (DES) during pregnancy are at greatly increased risk for several abnormalities: columnar epithelium that covers most or all of the cervix vaginal adenosis, and a circular collar or ridge of tissue, of varying shapes, between the cervix and vagina. The slit-like cervical os is a normal variation. Question: A female patient presents with a profuse, yellowish, green vaginal discharge that is malodorous. This vaginal discharge is most consistent with: candidal vaginitis.bacterial vaginosis.Trichomonal vaginitis. Correctgonorrhea. Explanation: Trichomonas vaginalis causes trichomonal vaginitis. Presenting symptoms include a profuse, yellowish, green vaginal discharge that is malodorous. Candidal vaginitis produces a white and curd-like thin discharge that is rarely malodorous. With bacterial vaginosis, the discharge can be gray or white, thin, malodorous (fishy), and not usually profuse. The discharge associated with gonorrhea is usually thick and bloody. Question: The most common causes of sexual problems in females are related to: lack of sexual desire.inadequate vaginal lubrication. Incorrectpsychosocial factors. Correctpelvic disorders. Explanation: The most common problems that occur during sexual activity are related to situational or psychosocial factors. Although lack of desire, inadequate vaginal lubrication, and pelvic disorders may all contribute to sexual problems, the most common causes are situational and psychosocial in origin. Therefore, obtaining a comprehensive sexual history is of utmost importance. Question: Chronic pelvic pain refers to pain that does not respond to therapy and: lasts more than 3 months. Incorrectlasts more than 6 months. Correctlasts more than 9 months.lasts more than 12 months. Explanation: According to the International Pelvic Pain Society, chronic pelvic pain refers to pain that lasts more than 6 months without response to treatment. Question: In female patients with dyspareunia, superficial pain is most likely related to all of the following except: local inflammation.atrophic vaginitis. Incorrectpressure on a normal ovary. Correctinadequate lubrication. Explanation: In females, dyspareunia, or painful intercourse, can occur at the vaginal opening, occurring at the start of intercourse, or when the partner is pushing deeper. It is important to differentiate the pain to determine the etiology. Superficial pain suggests local inflammation, atrophic vaginitis, or inadequate lubrication. Deeper pain may be from pelvic disorders or pressure on a normal ovary. Question: If urethritis or inflammation of the paraurethral glands is suspected in a female patient, the index finger should be inserted into the vagina and: milk the urethra gently from the outside inward.milk the urethra gently from the inside outward. Correctmassage the urethral meatus with the other hand.massage the pelvic floor muscles in a clockwise fashion. Explanation: If urethritis or inflammation of the paraurethral glands is suspected, the examiner should insert the index finger into the vagina and milk the urethra gently from inside outward. Note any discharge from or about the urethral meatus. If present, it should be cultured. Question: Upon examination of the vagina, a swollen red ring is noted around the urethral opening. This finding is most consistent with a: prolapse of the urethral mucosa. Correcturethral caruncle. Incorrectcystocele.cystourethrocele. Explanation: A prolapsed urethral mucosa forms a swollen red ring around the urethral meatus. A urethral caruncle is a small, red, benign tumor visible at the posterior part of the urethral meatus. It usually occurs in postmenopausal women. A cystocele is a bulge of the upper two-thirds of the anterior vaginal wall and the bladder above it. It results from weakened supporting tissues. When the entire anterior vaginal wall, together with the bladder and urethra, is involved in the bulge, a cystourethrocele is present. Question: When performing a bimanual vaginal exam, a solid, nodular-like lesion is palpated over the right ovary. This finding is most consistent with: ovarian cancer.an ovarian tumor. Correcta right tubal pregnancy.a tubo-ovarian abscess. Explanation: Ovarian tumors appear solid and often nodular upon palpation. Ovarian cancer is relatively rare and usually presents at an advanced stage with symptoms of pelvic pain, increased abdominal size, and urinary tract symptoms. An ovarian cyst tends to be smooth and compressible and if uncomplicated, nontender. A right tubal pregnancy does not typically present with an ovarian lesion. A tubo-ovarian abscess is difficult to palpate and typically presents with severe pain and purulent vaginal discharge. Question: Indications for performing a rectovaginal exam include all of the following except to: palpate a retroverted uterus.assess pelvic pathology.assess an inguinal hernia. Correctscreen for colorectal cancer in women over 50. Explanation: The rectovaginal examination has three primary purposes: to palpate a retroverted uterus, the uterosacral ligaments, cul-de-sac, and adnexa; to screen for colorectal cancer in women 50 years or older; and to assess for pelvic pathology. It is not indicated for assessing or palpating inguinal hernias. Question: Examination of a female patient's right breast reveals a retraction of the nipple and areola. This finding is consistent with: breast cancer. Correctmastitis.Paget's disease of the breast.fibrocystic breast disease. Explanation: Retraction of the nipple and areola are suggestive of an underlying tumor. Mastitis is an inflammation of the breast tissue. Paget's disease is an uncommon form of breast cancer that starts with a scaly, eczemalike lesion that may weep, crust, or erode. Fibrocystic breast disease findings include lumps, thickening and swelling in the breast tissue, and becomes prominent immediately before onset of menses. Question: To assess pelvic floor muscle strength during the bimanual vaginal exam, have the patient squeeze around the inserted fingers for as long as possible. To consider full strength, snug compression should last for: 1 seconds.2 seconds.3 seconds. Correctat lease 5 seconds. Incorrect Explanation: To assess pelvic floor muscle strength during the bimanual vaginal exam, have the patient squeeze around the inserted fingers for as long as possible. To consider full strength, snug compression should last for 3 or more seconds. Question: Upon examination of the vagina, a tense, hot, very tender abscess with labial swelling is noted. This finding is most consistent with a: cystocele.urethral caruncle.rectocele.bartholin gland infection. Correct Explanation: A bartholin gland infection appears as a tense, hot, very tender abscess with labial swelling over the area of the bartholin gland. A cystocele is a bulge of the upper two-thirds of the anterior vaginal wall and the bladder above it. It results from weakened supporting tissues. A urethral caruncle is a small, red, benign tumor visible at the posterior part of the urethral meatus. A rectocele is a herniation of the rectum into the posterior wall of the vagina, resulting from a weakness or defect in the endopelvic fascia. Question: A female patient has a history of a retroverted uterus. This condition refers to: the normal position of the uterus and cervix.a tilting backward of the uterus and cervix. Correcta backward angulation of the uterus in relation to its cervix.the cervix being located at the introitus and the uterus in the vaginal canal. Explanation: Retroversion of the uterus refers to a tilting backward of the entire uterus, including both body and cervix. It is a common variant occurring in approximately 20% of women. A backward angulation of the uterus in relation to its cervix is referred to as a retroflexion of the uterus. When the cervix is located at the introitus, and the uterus is in the vaginal canal, this is consistent with a third-degree uterine prolapse. Question: Upon examination of the vagina, the entire anterior vaginal wall, together with the bladder and urethra create a bulge. This condition is most consistent with a: prolapse of the urethral mucosa.urethral caruncle.cystocele.cystourethrocele. Correct Explanation: When the entire anterior vaginal wall, together with the bladder and urethra, is involved in the bulge, a cystourethrocele is present. A cystocele is a bulge of the upper two-thirds of the anterior vaginal wall and the bladder above it. It results from weakened supporting tissues. A prolapsed urethral mucosa forms a swollen red ring around the urethral meatus. A urethral caruncle is a small, red, benign tumor visible at the posterior part of the urethral meatus. Question: Urethritis in a female patient may arise from all of the following organisms except: Neisseria gonorrhoeae.Herpes simplex. IncorrectChlamydia trachomatis.Campylobacter. Correct Explanation: Urethritis may arise from infection with Chlamydia trachomatis or Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Streptococcus, E. coli, and Herpes simplex virus. Campylobacter is associated with bacterial infections of the GI tract and commonly produce diarrhea. Question: To palpate the uterus during a bimanual exam, the examiner would lubricate the index and middle fingers of one hand and insert them into the vagina. The other hand would be placed on the abdomen: near the symphysis pubis while pressing downward and elevating the cervix and uterus with the other hand.about midway between the umbilicus and symphysis pubis while elevating the cervix and uterus with the other hand. Correctjust above the umbilicus while pressing downward and elevating the cervix and uterus with the other hand.just below the umbilicus while pressing downward and elevating the cervix and uterus with the other hand. Explanation: To palpate the uterus during a bimanual exam, the examiner would lubricate the index and middle fingers of one hand and insert them into the vagina. The other hand would be placed on the abdomen about midway between the umbilicus and the symphysis pubis. While elevating the cervix and uterus with the pelvic hand, press the abdominal hand in and down, trying to grasp the uterus between the two hands. Question: When do the ovaries become non-palpable after menopause? One yearTwo yearsThree to five years CorrectSix to ten years Explanation: Three to 5 years after menopause, ovaries are atrophic and usually nonpalpable. Question: When performing a rectal exam on a female, a hard nodular rectal "shelf" is palpable at the tip of the examiner's finger. This finding is suggestive of: an ovarian cyst.metastatic tissue in the rectouterine pouch. Correctrectal polyp. Incorrectcarcinoma of the rectum. Explanation: Widespread peritoneal metastases fr [Show More]

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