aamc official sample test Questions and Answers 2022 with complete solutions

Document Content and Description Below

aamc official sample test Questions and Answers 2022 with complete solutions For the -NH group on 1-methylpiperazine to be deprotonated, which would best be accomplished by a strong base or a stron... g acid -Answer- best be accomplished by a strong base like NaOH. antagonist -Answer- used to refer to a drug which under some conditions behaves as a substance that binds to a receptor but does not activate and can block the activity of other agonists agonist -Answer- used to refer to a drug which under some conditions behaves a substance that fully activates the receptor that it binds to For a converging lens, the image is real, inverted, and reduced when the object is - Answer- positioned at greater than twice the focal length or radius of curvature (O > 2F) For a converging lens, the image is real, inverted, and enlarged when the object is - Answer- between the radius of curvature and the focal length (2F > O > F) For a converging lens, the image is virtual, upright, and enlarged when the object is - Answer- positioned within the focal length (O < F). For a a thin converging lens, -Answer- the image is always larger than the object within the radius of curvature of the lens. Which of the following statements best describes the image produced by a concave lens? -Answer- Virtual, upright, and reduced image For a a thin converging lens, -Answer- The image is always smaller than the object outside not the focal length but the radius of curvature of the lens. For a a thin converging lens, -Answer- The image is always virtual and upright not outside the radius of curvature but within the focal point of the lens. For a a thin converging lens, -Answer- The image is always real and inverted not within but outside the focal length of the lens. What does the magnitude of the magnification indicates and what does the signage indicate? -Answer- While the magnitude of the magnification indicates whether an image is enlarged or reduced, the signage indicates whether it is inverted or upright. The focal length for diverging lens are negative or positive -Answer- The focal length for diverging lens are negativeThe first lens is diverging or converging lens since the focal length is negative, and the second lens is converging or diverging since the focal length is positive. -Answer- The first lens is diverging lens since the focal length is negative, and the second lens is converging since the focal length is positive. The object is placed well outside the focal length for the diverging lens, but regardless of position, the image produced is virtual, upright, and reduced. The further away from the focal length, the smaller or larger the image. -Answer- The object is placed well outside the focal length for the diverging lens, but regardless of position, the image produced is virtual, upright, and reduced. The further away from the focal length, the smaller the image. Which of the following images can be formed by a concave mirror? I. real, inverted, and enlarged II. virtual, upright, and enlarged III. real, upright, and reduced IV. virtual, inverted, and enlarged Choose 1 answer: -Answer- I and II When we look into rearview mirrors, the image appears on the other side of the mirror. We can deduce that it must be a virtual or real image. -Answer- When we look into rearview mirrors, the image appears on the other side of the mirror. We can deduce that it must be a virtual image. Converging mirrors produce what type of image (real or virtual and enlarged or reduced image, while diverging mirrors produce a real or virtual and enlarged or reduced) - Answer- Converging mirrors produce a virtual and enlarged image, while diverging mirrors produce a virtual and reduced image. We have our first experience with rearview mirrors when first learning to drive. Which of the following statements most accurately describes rearview mirrors? -AnswerRearview mirrors are diverging such that the object distance is greater than the image distance. what is an example of converging mirror? -Answer- A converging mirror would be more useful for collecting light onto a smaller point or area like in telescope. For diverging mirrors, the image gets larger or smaller as the object moves towards the lens? does the image get larger than the object. -Answer- For diverging mirrors, the image gets larger and larger as the object moves towards the lens. The image never gets larger than the object. A clown is standing in front of a fun mirror. The top half of the mirror is concave, and the bottom half of the mirror is convex. What happens to his image as the clown moves towards the mirror? -Answer- His top half gets smaller down to his actual size; his bottom half gets bigger up to his actual size.what does prefix per and hypo mean -Answer- per - one more oxygren hypo - one less oxygen what is a conservative mutation? -Answer- A conservative mutation might result in conservation of the hemoglobin protein's function, therefore this is not the correct choice. A non-conservative mutation is one in which -Answer- The new amino acid has different biochemical properties than the original Which of the following represents a transition? A->T T->A G->C T->C -Answer- T->C Nitric oxide (NO) is an important cardiovascular signaling molecule. It has also been implicated in DNA mutations in bacteria and in human cells, though these mutations are not always associated with cancer formation. Therefore, NO would be an example of an: -Answer- Endogenous mutagen Intercalation of ethidium bromide into DNA results in: -Answer- Deformation of the DNA molecule Ethidium bromide's intercalation into DNA causes conformational changes that can be oncogenic. Suppose a white-furred rabbit breeds with a black-furred rabbit and all of their offspring have a phenotype of gray fur. What does the gene for fur color in rabbits appear to be an example of? -Answer- incomplete dominance A person of type-B blood could be what -Answer- A person of type-B blood could be homozygous (BB) or heterozygous (BO). In the ABO blood group system in humans, if a person of type-B blood has children with a person of type-AB blood, what blood types could their children have? -Answer- TypeAB, type-A, and type-B what is chimerism? -Answer- Chimerism is the presence of multiple distinct genomes within one organism, caused by the merging of two fertilized eggs. Although this is a possible explanation for corn with multiple colors, it is unlikely because chimerism is very rare in nature. A gene for corn has two alleles, one for yellow kernels and one for white kernels. Cross pollination of yellow corn and white corn results in ears of corn that have anapproximately even mix of yellow and white kernels. Which term best describes the relationship between the two alleles? -Answer- codomoniance Codominance refers to traits that are both expressed at the same time in heterozygotes (individuals with one copy of each allele). In this case, both the yellow kernels and the white kernels are expressed in the phenotype. Suppose that in barley plants, the allele for tall stalks is dominant over short stalks and the allele for wide leaves is dominant over thin leaves. What would be the best way to determine the genotype of a barley plant with a tall stalk and wide leaves? -AnswerPerform a testcross with a barley plant that has a short stalk and thin leaves The barley plant could be homozygous dominant or heterozygous for both traits. The goal is to find out if the recessive alleles are present in the genotype. By breeding the original barley plant with a plant that has both recessive alleles, we can determine whether or not recessive alleles are present in the original barley plant based on whether or not offspring with the recessive trait are produced. Thus, we would want to breed the original barley plant with a barley plant that had a short stalk and thin leaves. In a cross of AaBb x AaBb, what fraction of the offspring can be expected to express one of the two dominant alleles, but not both? -Answer- 3/8 This adds up to 6 out of a total of 16, which is equivalent to 3/8. As an extra note, it is useful to memorize this sequence of numbers 9:3:3:1 -- 9 out of 16 will have the dominant phenotype for both genes; 3 out of 16 will have the dominant phenotype for gene 1 and the recessive phenotype for gene 2; 3 out of 16 will have the recessive phenotype gene 1 and the dominant phenotype for gene 2; 1 out of 16 will have both recessive phenotypes. If two genes experience independent assortment, which assumption is most likely true? -Answer- The genes are located on different chromosomes or are far apart on the same chromosome. The X-linked recessive trait of color-blindness is present in 5% of males. If a mother who is a carrier and father who is unaffected plan to have 2 children, what is the probability the children will both be male and color-blind? -Answer- 6.25% how can you determine by looking at a pedigree tree if the person who has an autosomal dominant disease is heterzyogous or homozoygous -Answer- Look at their parents and determine if both parents were affected or just one. then that will tell you and you will know what to use to determine that person's child In labrador retrievers, the allele for black coat color (B) is dominant to the allele for brown coat color (b). However, if a lab has two copies of the recessive allele for a pigment-depositing gene (e), it can only have yellow coat color. In a cross of two doubly heterozygous black labs (BbEe x BbEe), what fraction of the next generation would one expect to be yellow? -Answer- 1/4What is Informational influence, Normative influence, Compliance and Ingratiation? - Answer- A. Informational influence is an influence to accept information from others as evidence about reality, and can come into play when we are uncertain about information or what might be correct. The Internet users relied on the information from the vigilantes when making a decision to conform with the group and harass the supposed subject. B: Normative influence is an influence to conform with the expectations of others to gain social approval. C: Compliance is superficial, public change in behavior in response to group pressure. D: Ingratiation is an attempt to get someone to like you in order to get them to comply with your requests. what is the elastic potential energy of the compressed spring equation? -Answer- elastic potential energy of the compressed spring, (1/2)kx2, is converted to the kinetic energy, (1/2)mv2, of the bullet. Setting (1/2)kx2 = (1/2)mv2, we find that k = mv2/x2. What are explicit, implicit attitudes, and attitude polarization? -Answer- Explicit attitudes are conscious attitudes. Student E was aware of his attitudes towards smoking and how they changed over time. He once viewed smoking as a negative habit; now he sees it as a means to an end. Implicit attitudes towards smoking are unconscious attitudes. Attitude polarization describes changes in attitudes among people in groups - tendency to go to the extreme. Intermolecular attractions increase or decrease the potential energy between molecules, decreasing or increasing their kinetic energy. -Answer- Intermolecular attractions increase the potential energy between molecules, decreasing their kinetic energy. 1-Methylcyclohexanol reacts with HBr to form 1-bromo-1-methylcyclohexane. The mechanism for this reaction is likely to be an: A. SN1 reaction. B. SN2 reaction. C. Nucleophilic addition. D. Addition-elimination. -Answer- A. SN1 reaction. Correct Answer Since no double bonds are formed or broken, this must be a substitution reaction (eliminate choices C and D). Since the hydroxyl in the starting material is on a tertiary carbon atom, the mechanism cannot occur by a bimolecular pathway (eliminate choice B.) The protonated OH group (under acidic conditions) will leave as water to yield a tertiary carbocation, which will be attacked by the bromide ion to give the product. positive deviations from ideal behavior are caused by increasing or decreasing molecular volume, while negative deviations are caused by increasing or decreasing intermolecular forces. -Answer- positive deviations from ideal behavior are caused byincreasing molecular volume, while negative deviations are caused by increasing intermolecular forces. As you go down the halogen family atomic size increases, so we'd expect a greater or lesser deviation from ideal behavior in the positive direction on the graph from F to Cl to Br. With increasing or decreasing size and number of electrons comes a greater polarizability, which increases the strength of the element's London dispersion forces, thereby enhancing the negative deviation from ideal behavior as well. -Answer- As you go down the halogen family atomic size increases, so we'd expect a greater deviation from ideal behavior in the positive direction on the graph from F to Cl to Br. With increasing size and number of electrons comes a greater polarizability, which increases the strength of the element's London dispersion forces, thereby enhancing the negative deviation from ideal behavior as well. Membrane transport is mediated by proteins or phospholipids -Answer- Membrane transport is mediated by proteins, not phospholipids Both alpha-helices and beta-sheets are stabilized by what bonds? -Answer- Both alphahelices and beta -sheets are stabilized by hydrogen bonds, not covalent bonds Which of the following inhibitors would have no effect on the slope of a Lineweaver-Burk plot? A. Competitive Inhibitor B. Uncompetitive Inhibitor C. Noncompetitive Inhibitor D. Mixed Inhibitor -Answer- B. Uncompetitive Inhibitor Correct Answer As the slope of the Lineweaver-Burk plot is Km/Vmax, the correct answer is an inhibitor that has the same effect on both Km and Vmax. An uncompetitive inhibitor leads to an equal decrease in the both the Km and Vmax, leading to a series of parallel lines on a Lineweaver-Burk plot do Catalysts lower the activation energy and affect the stability of the intermediates in a reaction. -Answer- Catalysts lower the activation energy but do not affect the stability of the intermediates in a reaction. Which of the following best describes how the brain determines the location of a sound? A. The angle of the sound wave, with respect to the eardrum, allows the brain to determine the location of the sound. B. Sound waves reach the ear closest to the source of the sound first, and this difference in timing allows the brain to determine the location of the sound. C. The angle of the sound wave, with respect to the auditory hair cells, allows the brain to determine the location of the sound.D. Sound waves closer to the source have a higher frequency, and this difference in frequency allows the brain to determine the location of the sound. -Answer- B. Sound waves reach the ear closest to the source of the sound first, and this difference in timing allows the brain to determine the location of the sound.Correct Answer The Ka for the first ionization of sulfurous acid (1.7 × 10-2) is significantly larger than the Ka for the second ionization (6.4 × 10-8). A likely explanation for this is that: A. the electronegativity of the remaining hydrogen atom increases after the first hydrogen ion has been removed. B. the second ionization can only take place if the first ionization proceeds to completion. C. neutral hydrogen is difficult to ionize in aqueous solution. D. the remaining hydrogen atom experiences greater electrostatic attraction after the loss of the first hydrogen ion. -Answer- D. After loss of the first proton, the remaining hydrogen is bound to a negatively-charged molecule. Electrostatic attraction between this remaining hydrogen and the negatively-charged molecule would disfavor loss of the second proton, resulting in a smaller K. Therefore, K2 << K1. which ionization energy of Mg is the largest - 1st, 2nd, or 3rd? -Answer- The second ionization energy of Mg is larger than the first because it always takes more energy to remove an electron from a positively charged ion than from a neutral atom. The third ionization energy of magnesium is enormous, however, because the Mg2+ ion has a filled-shell electron configuration. The first ionization energy is the energy necessary to remove the highest-energy electron from a gaseous atom or ion. X + energy -------> X + e- The second ionization energy is the energy necessary to remove the second highest-energy electron from the same atom, after the first electron has been removed. X + energy -------> X + eStearic acid (or octadecanoic acid) is a saturated fatty acid with the formula CH3(CH2)16COOH After undergoing β-oxidation, it will generate: A. 9 acetyl-CoA, 9 NADH and 9 FADH2. B. 9 acetyl-CoA, 8 NADH and 8 FADH2. C. 8 acetyl-CoA, 8 NADH and 8 FADH2. D. 8 acetyl-CoA, 7 NADH and 7 FADH2. -Answer- B. 9 acetyl-CoA, 8 NADH and 8 FADH2. Stearic acid has 18 carbons and so will undergo 8 rounds of β-oxidation. This will generate 9 molecules of acetyl-CoA, 8 molecules of NADH and 8 molecules of FADH2 Systolic blood pressure approaches 0 mm Hg when it reaches the: A. capillaries. B. arteries. C. aorta. D. right atrium -Answer- D. right atrium. Correct AnswerBlood from the systemic circulation at the end of its circuit through the body enters the heart through the right atrium, and at this point its pressure is near 0 mm Hg. Although blood pressure is relatively low in the capillaries, it is not 0 mm Hg, or it would never circulate all the way back to the heart. Blood leaves the heart through the aorta on its way to the systemic circulation and is at its highest pressure at that point; from the aorta the blood travels through many arteries, and the pressure in these vessels is still high OAA is converted into what by what in Gluconeogenesis -Answer- OAA is converted into phosphoenolpyruvate (PEP) by the enzyme phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase (or PEPCK). Gluconeogenesis can then continue to run, and will generate glucose from these non-carbohydrate precursor molecules. If the ΔH is larger for an exothermic reaction, more energy will be given off, resulting in an increase or decrease in temperature -Answer- If the ΔH is larger for an exothermic reaction, more energy will be given off, resulting in a larger increase in temperature (eliminate choice B). if less energy is given off, the temperature change should be smaller Which of the following can be inferred from information in the passage? I. Cardiomyocytes and hepatocytes are mitochondrial rich cells. II. Slow twitch fibers have higher cardiolipin content than fast twitch fibers. III. Prokaryotes pump H+ across their plasma membranes, while eukaryotes do not A. III onlyYour Answer B. I and II only C. II and III only D. I, II, and III -Answer- D. I, II, and III Correct Answer Eukaryotic cells use reciprocal regulation to make sure β-oxidation and fatty acid biosynthesis do not occur at the same time. This is accomplished by malonyl CoA, which inhibits the carnitine shuttle required to transfer activated fatty acids from the cytoplasm to the mitochondrial matrix. Each of the following is a true statement EXCEPT: A. both β-oxidation and fatty acid biosynthesis occur in four steps; fatty acid biosynthesis involves elongation, two redox reactions and a dehydration. B. β-oxidation involves the reduction of both FAD and NAD+; fatty acid biosynthesis oxidizes two NADPH (generated by the pentose phosphate pathway) to two NADP+. C. because of this reciprocal regulation, both β-oxidation and fatty acid biosynthesis occur in the mitochondrial matrix. D. β-oxidation generates acetyl CoA, while fatty acid biosynthesis uses malonyl CoA, which is made from acetyl CoA by acetyl CoA carboxylase. -Answer- C. because of this reciprocal regulation, both β-oxidation and fatty acid biosynthesis occur in the mitochondrial matrix. Correct Answer β-oxidation occurs in the mitochondrial matrix and fatty acid biosynthesis occurs in the cytoplasm.The equilibrium constant, K, depends on what? -Answer- The equilibrium constant, K, depends on the temperature only. That is, the ratio of products to reactants (with the appropriate stoichiometric coefficients as exponents on the concentrations) at equilibrium will remain the same at a given temperature. which step is an elementary step? -Answer- slow step is an elementary step All α-hydrogens to carbonyls or acid derivatives are weakly or strongly acidic. -AnswerAll α-hydrogens to carbonyls or acid derivatives are weakly acidic. Which of the following methods should be used to purify the mesylate mixture produced from Reaction 1 from any remaining starting material? A. NMR spectroscopy B. HPLC C. Thin-layer chromatography D. Size-exclusion chromatography -Answer- B. HPLC Correct Answer NMR spectroscopy is not a separation technique. Although size-exclusion chromatography is a separation technique that will allow for quantitative purification of mixtures, the differences in size of the compounds in the mesylate mixture are not significant enough for the technique to be efficient Thin-layer chromatography (TLC) is also a separation technique, but it uses very small amounts of material to determine polarity of compounds and monitor reactions. It is not a technique that will allow for quantitative purification of a reaction mixture HPLC is the best choice as this form of chromatography would easily quantitatively purify a mesylate from its parent alcohol based on the difference in polarities of these functional groups. explain the Condensation reactions - what are the results of it? -Answer- Condensation reactions result from the combination of two molecules with the removal of water (the opposite of hydrolysis) and will only lead to larger molecules not smaller ones (eliminate choice A). The 2° structures of proteins are α-helices and β-sheets. are These structures energetically favorable or unfavorable and what bonds are they held by? , -Answer- The 2° structures of proteins are α-helices and β-sheets. These structures are energetically favorable, thus stabilizing, as they are held together by hydrogen bonds (eliminate choice C). Cleavage of the disulfide bond in the 4° structure of a protein is reduction or oxidation? - Answer- Cleavage of the disulfide bond in the 4° structure of a protein can lead to smaller subunits. that process is a reductionResistivity of a current-carrying component immediately implies dissipation of what? - Answer- Resistivity of a current-carrying component immediately implies dissipation of heat What is required for thyroid hormone production, so in the absence of sufficient iodine, thyroid hormone levels will fall, and feedback inhibition will not occur. -Answer- Iodine is required for thyroid hormone production, so in the absence of sufficient iodine, thyroid hormone levels will fall, and feedback inhibition will not occur. TSH and TRH levels will increase, causing goiter In the absence of iodine, T3 and T4 cannot be made, so they will not accumulate In a normal individual, what hormone would suppress the release of TRH by the hypothalamus and TSH by the anterior pituitary. -Answer- In a normal individual, high levels of thyroid hormone would suppress the release of TRH by the hypothalamus and TSH by the anterior pituitary. T3 and T4 most likely exert their effect on target cells by: A. binding to a transmembrane protein and activating a second messenger system B. diffusing across the cell membrane and binding to a nuclear receptor C. entering the cell via facilitated transport and binding to a nuclear receptor. D. entering the cell via iodine channels and binding to a cytosolic receptor. -Answer- B. diffusing across the cell membrane and binding to a nuclear receptor.Correct Answer The passage states that T3 and T4 are lipid soluble; in fact, although they are peptide hormones, T3 and T4have the same mechanism of action as the steroid hormone, diffusing through the plasma membrane to bind to an intracellular receptor that goes into the nucleus to regulate transcription does conjugation increase genetic diversity and the size of the population -Answerwhile conjugation serves to increase genetic diversity, it does not increase the size of the population if Hardy-Weinberg is maintained, then there can be no changes in the allele frequencies in the gene pool of a population and no evolution, so would speciation be allowed to occur -Answer- Hardy-Weinberg is maintained, then there can be no changes in the allele frequencies in the gene pool of a population and no evolution, which would not allow speciation All of the following statements regarding enzymes are true EXCEPT that they: A. can be stereospecific in substrate recognition. B. alter reaction equilibria. C. are often regulated by feedback inhibition. D. reduce the activation energy of reactions. -Answer- B. alter reaction equilibria. Correct AnswerEnzymes lower the activation energy of reactions to speed them up but they do not alter the potential energy of reactants and products or the reaction equilibrium, only the rate at which equilibrium is reached. Enzymes do have great stereospecificity in the reactions they catalyze and are frequently regulated by feedback inhibition by products. E. coli is a generally harmless bacterium, often used for research purposes. Some strains of E. coli live mutualistically inside human digestive tracts. Sometimes these bacteria can cause infection outside the iinfection outside the intestinal tract, most notably in the urinary tract, the biliary tract, and the nervous system. In which of the following structures is E. coli most likely to cause infection? A. Trachea B. Bladder C. Small intestine D. Large intestine -Answer- B. Bladder Correct Answer The question states that E. coli can cause disease outside of the intestinal tract, in the urinary tract, the biliary tract, and the nervous system. The bladder is the best answer since this is part of the urinary tract, which was mentioned as a potential site of infection while the respiratory system, and thus the trachea, was not. Decreased secretion of aldosterone has all of the following effects EXCEPT: A. increased loss of Na + in urine. B. decrease in extracellular fluid volume. C. increase in arterial pressure. D. increase in urine volume. -Answer- C. increase in arterial pressure. Correct Answer Aldosterone causes increased sodium reabsorption, and because of the rise in systemic Na+, there will be decreased water loss, increased extracellular fluid volume and increased blood pressure. Decreased secretion of aldosterone would cause the opposite: increased loss of sodium, a decrease in the extracellular fluid volume, and an increase in urine volume. It will not cause an increase in blood pressure, however, since more urine is formed and extracellular fluid volume lost. A semipermeable membrane separates an aqueous solution of 0.003 MNaCl from an aqueous solution of 0.0025 MBaF2. With this apparatus, one would observe that water crosses the membrane: A. from the BaF 2 solution to dilute the NaCl solution. B. from the NaCl solution to dilute the BaF2 solution.Correct Answer C. from the BaF 2 solution to concentrate the NaCl solution. D. from the NaCl solution to concentrate the BaF2 solution. -Answer- B. from the NaCl solution to dilute the BaF2 solution.Correct Answer Osmotic pressure is a colligative property, which means it depends only on the concentration of solute particles, and not their identity. Therefore, a 0.003 Msolution of NaCl will have an effective molality of 0.006 M (since NaCl is composed of two ions)and a 0.0025 M solution of BaF2 will have an effective molality of 0.0075 M (since BaF2 is composed of three ions). Osmotic pressure will drive movement of water from the lower concentration solution (NaCl) to the higher concentration solution (BaF2). Note that this movement of water acts to dilute the BaF2solution Which of the following processes do NOT occur at the placenta? I. Diffusion of amino acids from fetal blood to maternal blood II. Mixing of maternal and fetal blood and gas exchange III. Exchange of CO2 and O2 between fetal and maternal blood A. I only B. II only C. I and II only Correct Answer D. I and III only -Answer- C. I and II only Correct Answer Item I does not occur: Amino acids are charged and cannot cross the placental and fetal capillary membranes (eliminate choice B). Item II does not occur: Fetal and maternal blood do not mix, so the only way substances can cross the placental barrier is if they are lipid soluble or if they are actively transported Item III is correct: CO2 and O2 are lipid soluble and easily cross the barrier The blood vessel that carries the most highly oxygenated blood in the fetus is the: A. pulmonary vein. B. ductus arteriosus. C. umbilical artery. D. umbilical vein. Correct Answer -Answer- D. umbilical vein. Correct Answer The most highly oxygenated blood would be the blood returning from the point of oxygenation to the systemic circulation. In the adult this would be the pulmonary vein, but the point of oxygenation in the fetus is the placenta, not the lungs. The ductus arteriosus does carry oxygenated blood but is found after the umbilical vein, so it does not carry the most highly oxygenated blood. The umbilical artery carries deoxygenated blood from the fetus to the placenta. Fetal circulation differs from adult circulation in many ways. One of the main differences is that in the former: A. fetal hemoglobin has lower O2 affinity than does maternal hemoglobin. B. a pathway exists for blood to circumvent the lungs. C. blood flows through the systemic vascular system only. D. the ductus arteriosus carries oxygenated blood, while in the adult it carries deoxygenated blood. -Answer- B. a pathway exists for blood to circumvent the lungs.Correct Answer The purpose of the ductus arteriosus is to help shunt blood past the inactive fetal lungsIn transposition of the great arteries, a congenital birth defect, the aorta of the newborn is connected to the right ventricle and the pulmonary artery is attached to the left ventricle. This would result after birth in circulation of: A. oxygenated blood through the systemic vasculature and deoxygenated blood through the pulmonary vasculature. B. deoxygenated blood through the systemic vasculature and oxygenated blood through the pulmonary vasculature C. oxygenated blood through both the systemic and pulmonary vasculature. D. deoxygenated blood through both the systemic and pulmonary vasculature. -AnswerB. deoxygenated blood through the systemic vasculature and oxygenated blood through the pulmonary vasculature.Correct Answer In the normal circulation, the right ventricle pumps blood through the pulmonary artery to the lungs. Blood returns from the lungs to the left atrium and is pumped by the left ventricle through the aorta to the rest of the body. If blood from the left ventricle passes to the pulmonary artery instead of the aorta and is then returned to the left atrium, oxygenated blood will loop around through the pulmonary system without passing to the rest of the body. At the same time, the deoxygenated blood from the systemic circulation will pass to the right atrium, then back out to the systemic circulation through the aorta rather than the pulmonary artery, causing deoxygenated blood to loop through this system which is anabolic and which is catabolic: fatty acid oxidation, lipogenesis, cholesterol synthesis triglyceride synthesis -Answer- catabolic processes - fatty acid oxidation anabolic processes - lipogenesis, cholesterol synthesis and triglyceride synthesis PDC deficiency is a rare genetic disease. Which of the following conditions would be expected in patients with the disease? A. Metabolic alkalosis B. Lactic acidosis Correct Answer C. Hyperglycemia D. Hypolipidemia -Answer- B. Lactic acidosis Correct Answer In PDC deficiency, the pyruvate cannot be converted to acetyl-CoA and therefore, the cells can only undergo glycolysis and anaerobic respiration. The end product of anaerobic respiration in humans is lactic acid. Thus, patients with PDC deficiency have lactic acidosis what is an intercalating agent? -Answer- an intercalating agent; this means it inserts itself between base pairs in DNA Which of the following would be the most effective method to determine if transcription of a gene had been silenced? A. DNA fingerprinting B. ELISAYour AnswerC. RT-PCR D. DNA sequencing -Answer- C. RT-PCR Correct Answer RT-PCR uses reverse transcriptase to make cDNA from mRNA. The cDNA can then amplified, and then tested for. This is the only method listed that can be used to test for the presence of mRNA and determine if transcription of the gene is occurring or not Both DNA Fingerprinting and DNA Sequencing are methods used to analyze DNA sequences; this does not provide information about transcription. While ELISA could be used to test for the presence of a protein product, it would not be the best test to use in this situation The absence of a protein could be due to a variety of reasons, including problems with translation, protein degradation, etc. Thus, Which of the following equilibria could be present in a buffered solution? A. HCl( aq ) <-> H + ( aq ) + Cl - ( aq ) B. H 2 CO 3 ( aq ) <-> H + ( aq ) + HCO 3 - ( aq ) C. H2O 2 ( aq ) + 2KI( aq ) <-> 2KOH( aq ) + I 2 ( aq ) D. CaCl 2 ( aq ) <-> Ca 2+ ( aq ) + 2 Cl - ( aq ) -Answer- B. H 2 CO 3 ( aq ) H + ( aq ) + HCO 3 - ( aq ) Buffered solutions are commonly made with weak acids and their conjugate bases. difference between Monounsaturated fatty acids and Polyunsaturated fatty acids - Answer- Monounsaturated fatty acids require an isomerase enzyme to move the double bond during β -oxidation Polyunsaturated fatty acids require both an isomerase and a reductase enzyme to complete β -oxidation; this also requires the reducing agent NADPH Muscle fibers are composed of small contractile units called sarcomeres. During contraction, which of the following occurs within a sarcomere? I. Myosin filaments shorten. II. Actin filaments shorten. III. Overlap between actin and myosin filaments increases. A. I only B. III only C. II and III only D. I, II, and III -Answer- B. III only Correct Answer During contraction, neither myosin nor actin filaments get shorter. The overlap between them increases to make the sarcomere shorter (eliminate choices A, C and D). Item III is true: The overlap between the fibers increases as part of contraction. The amphoteric character of amino acids best explains their ability to: A. form dipolar ions. B. form peptide bonds. C. contribute directly to a protein's secondary structure.D. dissolve in nonpolar solvents. -Answer- A. form dipolar ions. Correct Answer In other words, amino acids can act as either an acid or a base. When the amino portion of an amino acid deprotonates its own carboxylic acid, a dipolar ion (or zwitterion) forms. This is a direct result of the amphoteric character of the amino acid. The events that transpire during the fusion of the acrosomal vesicle with the sperm plasma membrane are most similar to those that occur in the: A. engulfing of a viral cell by a macrophage. B. release of neurotransmitters from synaptic terminals. C. absorption of nutrients in the intestine. D. release of steroids into the systemic circulation. -Answer- B. release of neurotransmitters from synaptic terminals.Correct Answer fusing two membranes to release the contents of a vesicle into the exterior of the cell In humans, the fusion of the plasma membranes of a sperm and an ovum is followed first by which of the following? A. Release of the second polar body from the fertilized ovum B. Implantation in the uterus C. The first cell division of the zygote D. Gastrulation -Answer- A. Release of the second polar body from the fertilized ovum Correct Answer Human ova do not complete the second meiotic cell division, including the formation of the second polar body, until after fertilization. This process occurs immediately after fertilization and is a prerequisite for the first cell division of the zygote. Implantation happens a few days later, and gastrulation occurs at a stage many cell divisions after the first cell division. The vitelline layer is analogous to what in the human ova -Answer- The vitelline layer is analogous to the zona pellucida in human ova, since both are protective acellular layers located just outside the plasma membrane Which of the following is the most likely sequence of events in the infection of E. coli by phage T1? A. Replication of viral genome, production of viral DNA polymerase, translation of viral lysozyme, assembly of infectious virus B. Production of viral DNA polymerase, replication of viral genome, translation of viral lysozyme, assembly of infectious virus C. Translation of viral lysozyme, production of viral DNA polymerase, replication of viral genome, assembly of infectious virus D. Production of viral DNA polymerase, replication of viral genome, assembly of infectious virus, translation of viral lysozyme -Answer- choice D: the expression of the viral DNA polymerase must come first to then replicate the genome. Infectious virus can then be assembled, and released by cell lysis induced by viral lysozyme.Compared to sensitive bacteria, phage-resistant bacteria are most likely to display which of the following characteristics? A. Increased sensitivity to antibiotics that disrupt the cell wall B. The presence of plasmid DNA absent in sensitive cellsYour Answer C. Alteration in the amino acid sequence of a specific protein found in sensitive cellsCorrect Answer D. Increased expression of lysosomal enzymes -Answer- C. Alteration in the amino acid sequence of a specific protein found in sensitive cells DNA from resistant bacteria in Dish 6 is extracted and placed on agar with phagesensitive E. coli. After incubation it is determined that these E. coli are now insensitive to phage T1 infection. The most likely mechanism for their acquisition of resistance is: A. transduction. B. transformation. C. sexual reproduction. D. conjugation. -Answer- B. transformation The definition of transformation is the process in which naked DNA, not a virus, is taken into a cell and changes the genetic characteristics of that cell. That is the case in this experiment, with extracted DNA making cells resistant to the virus The ability to shift from one task to another is an example of executive functioning, which is associated with which lobe? -Answer- The ability to shift from one task to another is an example of executive functioning, which is associated with the frontal lobe Self-determination theory maintains what? -Answer- Self-determination theory maintains that, throughout the lifespan and especially in older age, people seek autonomy, competence, and relatedness. Autonomy refers to viewing one's circumstances as selfendorsed, while competence refers to the expression of one's talents. Finally, relatedness refers to a sense of being cared about by other people. Which of the following is LEAST likely to lead to social loafing? A. Lack of individual evaluation B. Working in cohesive groups C. Incommensurate compensation D. Submaximal goal setting -Answer- B. Working in cohesive groups Submaximal goal setting occurs when group members decrease their efforts because they do not believe that they have to work as hard when others are working with them towards the same goal what is the same value as the difference threshold? -Answer- The just noticeable difference (JND) is the same value as the difference threshold;what behaviors can deinvididuation lead to? -Answer- Deindividuation occurs when people lose their sense of self when they are part of a large crowd and are thus made to feel more anonymous. This can lead to irrational and mob-like behaviors what is making an internal attribution like? -Answer- Making an internal attribution means that, when witnessing the behavior of another person, the observer decides that the cause of that person's behavior was internal rather than situational how are Conformity, obedience, and compliance related but distinct terms. -AnswerConformity involves changing one's behavior in order to fit in with the norms of a particular social group, most typically a group that has a certain level of social importance. Obedience involves changing one's behavior in response to the direct command or order of a person who is in authority or is of higher social status. Compliance involves changing one's behavior in response to a request from another person who is of equal or lower status (thus differing from obedience). Private acceptance is an attitude change that can occur in a person due to the social influence of others. Stereotype threat is closely related to ultimate attribution errors. A white female is teaching high school social studies to a group of students who are racially and ethnically diverse. Which of the following statements is LEAST supported by the concept of the ultimate attribution error? A. A Hispanic male who was born and reared in California does poorly on a quiz about the United States, and the teacher assumes that he is unfamiliar with the country. B. A black male gets a 100% on a quiz about emperors, and the teacher thinks that he must have cheated. C. A Hispanic female frequently uses slang terms in her essays about North American geography, and the teacher attributes this to her being too lazy to learn proper grammar. D. A black female does poorly on a quiz about capitals, and the teacher assumes that she had been unable to adequately study the night before. -Answer- D. A black female does poorly on a quiz about capitals, and the teacher assumes that she had been unable to adequately study the night before. The ultimate attribution error occurs when negative behavior by a member of an outgroup is attributed by an in-group member to the out-group member's characteristics (e.g., genetics, intelligence, personality, childhood background), while positive behavior by a member of an out-group is rationalized or explained away (e.g., good luck, special circumstances, etc.). Engagement rings are presented as betrothal gifts, often from men to their partners. These tokens would be of interest to which of the following? A. Conflict theorists B. Dramaturgical theoristsC. Functionalists D. Interactionists -Answer- D. Interactionists Correct Answer Interactionists are interested in micro-level interactions that create social meanings, thus focusing on communication through language and other important social symbols. Therefore, it is likely that interactionists would be interested in engagement rings because societies use these symbols to communicate that a person has made a formal agreement with his or her romantic partner and is now engaged to be married. Marriage has distinct purposes in modern societies, and all of the following are considered manifest functions of marriage in most developed societies EXCEPT: A. the regulation of sexual behavior.Your Answer B. the emphasis on monogamous relationships. C. the formation of lasting unions. D. the condemnation of adulterous actions. -Answer- D. the condemnation of adulterous actions. The functionalist perspective distinguishes between manifest functions (those that are conscious and intended) and latent functions (those that are unconscious and unintended). The question stem specifies interest in the manifest functions - those that are made explicit through popular interactions and structures in societies. Adultery is basically a violation of the marriage agreement to be monogamous, so it would not make logical sense for an intended purpose, or manifest function, of the institution of marriage to simply be condemnation for violating its own terms Behavioral theorists explain which personality disorder as the result of having been rewarded for loyalty and punished for acts of independence? A. Histrionic personality disorder, which is characterized by excessive emotionality and attention-seeking behaviorsYour Answer B. Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder, which is characterized by perfectionism and a need for control at the expense of flexibility and efficiency C. Avoidant personality disorder, which is characterized by the avoidance of social interactions (despite a strong desire to be close to others) and an extreme sensitivity to negative evaluation D. Dependent personality disorder, which is characterized by a strong dependence on others to meet emotional and physical needs -Answer- With dependent personality disorder, individuals demonstrate patterns of clinging and obedience and fear separation, often insisting that they need to be taken care of and protected. Behavioral theorists believe that individuals with dependent personality disorder developed their disorder because of how they were treated by their parents when growing up; they were unintentionally rewarded for being clingy ("loyal") and were punished when they acted on their ownThe self-reference effect describes what? -Answer- The self-reference effect describes how it is easier to remember that which is personally relevant or which can be linked to other memories Is internal pressure greater or less than external pressure during expiration? -AnswerDuring expiration, the lung contracts, causing a decrease in volume and therefore an increase in internal pressure. This means that internal pressure is greater than external pressure which accounts for air flow out of the lung. At high altitudes, the gas is less or more concentrated. As temperature decreases, gases become more or less denser -Answer- At high altitudes, the gas is less concentrated (due to the lower atmospheric pressure). At low altitudes, the gas is more concentrated (due to the higher atmospheric pressure). As temperature decreases, gases become denser (and thus more concentrated). This means that at a low altitude and low temperature, there will be more of all gases, oxygen included. What is the enzymatic function of a tyrosine kinase? A. Catalyzing the degradation of tyrosine B. Catalyzing the formation of tyrosine C. Phosphorylation of protein substrates D. Dephosphorylation of protein substrates -Answer- Phosphorylation of protein substrates Is Bruising and hemorrhage associated with increased or decreased hemostasis/ clotting capacity? -Answer- Bruising and hemorrhage would be associated with decreased hemostasis/ clotting capacity. Suppose there is a related kinase to Abl called Abc, coded by the gene Abc. Which of the following genetic occurrences would be the LEAST likely to result in a constitutively active Abc kinase? A. reciprocal translocation that separates two halves of an intron B. A deletion of the portion of the gene that codes for Abc's regulatory domain. C.A point mutation in the promoter region for the Abc gene D. A two nucleotide insertion at the beginning of the coding region. -Answer- A two nucleotide insertion at the beginning of the coding region. An insertion of two nucleotides at the beginning of the coding region would necessarily alter the reading frame of the ribosome, which would alter all codons downstream of the mutation and likely produce a dysfunctional protein. Which of the following is NOT a function of macrophages A. Present antigens to T cells using MHC II B. Phagocytose debris within the tissues C. Alert the body to the presence of bacteriaD. Present antigens to B cells using MHC II -Answer- Present antigens to B cells using MHC II Which of the following cells do NOT display MHC II on their surface? A. Dendritic cells B. B cells C. Macrophages D. Neutrophils -Answer- Neutrophils If the disease witnessed by the epidemiologist was caused by bacteria and not immune system dysfunction, then which of the following would you LEAST expect to proliferate in response to infection? A. B cells B. Helper T cells C. Neutrophils D. Cytotoxic T cells -Answer- D. Cytotoxic T cells Antibodies can help fight bacteria. Helper T cells can help activate B cells. Cytotoxic T cells are good for fighting virally infected cells, or cancer cells. They do not fight bacteria. The most important reason for which we are at risk for autoimmune diseases is: A. Macrophages are unable to distinguish between bacteria and human cells B. There are few regulators on neutrophil proliferation C. B cells activation is dependent on the help of T cells D. B cell receptors and T cell receptors are created at random -Answer- D. B cell receptors and T cell receptors are created at random Many autoimmune diseases are antibody-mediated. Neutrophils attack bacteria. The fact that B and T cell receptors are created at random means that some of them will attack the body. Those are usually killed by the body, but sometimes they escape detection. Which is the term for the process of white blood cells squeezing through blood vessels? A. Mitosis B. Diapedesis C. Phagocytosis D. Endocytosis -Answer- B. Diapedesis Finally,the correct term for WBCs squeezing out is diapedesis. What is the most abundant type of white blood cell? A. Neutrophils B. Erythrocytes C. LeukocytesD. Macrophages -Answer- Correct answer neutrophils. what is The opposite of precipitate is? -Answer- The opposite of precipitate is solubilize According to the laws of fluid dynamics, gas flows from a region of higher or lower pressure to a region of lower or higher pressure. -Answer- According to the laws of fluid dynamics, gas flows from a region of higher pressure to a region of lower pressure. This is true of any fluid that experiences a pressure difference across its surface. Inspiration results from internal pressure being less to more than external pressure - Answer- Inspiration results from internal pressure being less than external pressure Underwater, because of the greater external pressure, air is significantly more or less concentrated -Answer- Underwater, because of the greater external pressure, air is significantly denser (more concentrated). during a normal inspiration how does air flow rate go -Answer- This means that during a normal inspiration, air flow rate goes from zero, to some positive value, and then back to zero. Which of the following best describes the pressure inside alveoli relative to the outside air, when taking a deep breath: A. Greater when breathing in, greater when breathing out B. Lesser when breathing in, greater when breathing out C. Greater when breathing in, lesser when breathing out D.Lesser when breathing in, lesser when breathing out -Answer- Lesser when breathing in, greater when breathing out Which of the following is most accurate and complete regarding the functions of the lungs? A. To bring in oxygen and get rid of carbon dioxide B. To bring in oxygen and get rid of waste C. To bring in oxygen and get rid of water D. To bring in oxygen and water -Answer- B. To bring in oxygen and get rid of waste Which muscle is involved in the prevention of the lungs' collapse? Abdominal Diaphragm Intercostal Deltoid -Answer- IntercostalOver which of the following blood vessel types is the drop in blood pressure typically greatest? A. Arteries B. Arterioles C. Capillaries D. Venules -Answer- B. Arterioles More blood pressure is needed to force blood through arterioles than capillaries, even though one arteriole would have lower resistance than one capillary. As a result, the drop in blood pressure is greatest along the arterioles. In direct current (DC), the electric charge (current) flows in one direction or many directions. Electric charge in alternating current (AC), on the other hand, changes in one direction or many direction -Answer- In direct current (DC), the electric charge (current) only flows in one direction. Electric charge in alternating current (AC), on the other hand, changes direction periodically. The voltage in AC circuits also periodically reverses because the current changes direction. chemical bonds in the reacting molecules are broken; this takes in energy or gives out energy new chemical bonds form to make the products; this takes in energy or gives out energy -Answer- chemical bonds in the reacting molecules are broken; this takes in energy new chemical bonds form to make the products; this gives out energy When a chemical reaction takes place energy is either taken in or released. This depends on what? -Answer- This depends on the relative strengths of bonds being broken and bonds being formed. In an exergonic reaction, energy is released to the surroundings. The bonds being formed are stronger or weaker than the bonds being broken. In an endergonic reaction, energy is absorbed from the surroundings. The bonds being formed are stronger or weaker than the bonds being broken. -Answer- In an exergonic reaction, energy is released to the surroundings. The bonds being formed are stronger than the bonds being broken. In an endergonic reaction, energy is absorbed from the surroundings. The bonds being formed are weaker than the bonds being broken. Which of the following properties increases during exhalation? A. Amount of oxygen in bloodstream B. Intermolecular forces acting on individual oxygen molecules C. Solubility of oxygen in the bloodstream D. Surface area of the alveoli into which oxygen can diffuse -AnswerWhich of the following additional factors would reduce the rate at which oxygen molecules diffuse into the blood on the surface of the alveoli?A. Lower temperatures near the cells B. Gravitational effects pulling molecules towards the surface C. Turbulence disturbing flow along the surface D. Additional increase in the capillary-rich surface area exposed to air in the alveoli - Answer- C. Turbulence disturbing flow along the surface Increased surface area would increase the amount of oxygen that can be taken into blood with each breath. A thermal gradient would push molecules towards lower temperature areas, increasing the opportunities for oxygen molecules to be taken up into blood. Gravitational effects are negligible over the length and mass scales found in biological systems, but, if anything, they would increase the pull of oxygen into blood. Turbulent flow reduces the efficiency with which oxygen can be pulled into blood Which of the following tissues mechanically stores and releases potential energy during respiration? A. The alveoli B. The respiratory tract C.The lungs D. The diaphragm -Answer- The alveoli store potential mechanical energy in the form of elastic energy during inhalation,and release it when they compress again during exhalation. hyperventilation is caused by increased neural output from the peripheral chemoreceptors. In a metabolic acidosis or alkalosis, we have an overproduction of protons from some metabolic condition, like excessive exercise -Answerhyperventilation is caused by increased neural output from the peripheral chemoreceptors. In a metabolic acidosis, we have an overproduction of protons from some metabolic condition, like excessive exercise During exercise, it is clear that the cells will be using more oxygen and thus producing more or less carbon dioxide. -Answer- During exercise, it is clear that the cells will be using more oxygen and thus producing morecarbon dioxide. The swimmer's hyperventilation will result in a lowered partial pressure of carbon dioxide, because they are eliminating a good deal of gas. During the race, that lowered level of carbon dioxide will allow them to hold their breath. However, the exercise will lower or increase the level of oxygen. Recall the body is more sensitive to levels of carbon dioxide or oxygen. -Answer- The swimmer's hyperventilation will result in a lowered partial pressure of carbon dioxide, because they are eliminating a good deal of gas. During the race, that lowered level of carbon dioxide will allow them to hold their breath. However, the exercise will lower the level of oxygen. Recall the body is more sensitive to levels of carbon dioxide relative to oxygen.During times of sleep, the body is not breathing as often. The end result of this is that we are bringing in less or more amount of oxygen, and eliminating lesser amounts of carbon dioxide or oxygen. -Answer- During times of sleep, the body is not breathing as often. The end result of this is that we are bringing in less amount of oxygen, and eliminating lesser amounts of carbon dioxide. Can protons simply cross over the blood-brain barrier to have access to the central receptors? -Answer- The answer is no, because they are a charged species. different frequencies of light have different or the same indexes of refraction -Answerdifferent frequencies of light have different indexes of refraction The focal point of a lens depends on the angle of curvature of the lens and the index of refraction of the lens material. The material with the greatest index of refraction will bend the light the most and in doing so create a focal point (where the rays intersect) closer to the lens. -Answer- The focal point of a lens depends on what? For incident angles greater than the critical angle what is that called? The critical angle can be calculated from Snell's law by setting the refraction angle equal to what degree. - Answer- For incident angles greater than the critical angle there will be total internal reflection. The critical angle can be calculated from Snell's law by setting the refraction angle equal to 90°. 'Odd multiples of x correspond to destructive or constructive interference. -Answer- 'Odd multiples of x correspond to destructive interference. total internal reflection only happens when light would refract into a faster or slower material. Total internal reflection first happens when the refracted angle is what degrees -Answer- total internal reflection only happens when light would refract into a faster material. Total internal reflection first happens when the refracted angle is 90 degrees Total internal reflection could occur when a light wave traveling through: I. a vacuum encounters an air interface. II. air encounters a glass interface. III. glass encounters a plastic interface. A. I and II only B. II and III only C. I, II, and III D. None of the conditions listed above will lead to total internal reflection. -Answer- B. II and III only Intensity of light is determined by what? -Answer- Intensity of light is determined by the total number of photons and their energyformula for units of unsaturation is Units of unsaturation = -Answer- 2(#c) +1(#N) +2-\ (#H) For a 2 compound with a formula of CnH2iN02, the calculation is: Units of unsat = 2(n) +*CO*2"1 (21) =4 =2. The electronic transition from the n = 5 energy level to the n = 4 energy level is of lower or more energy than the electronic transition from the n=4energy level to the n =3 energy level. -Answer- The electronic transition from the n = 5 energy level to the n = 4 energy level is of lower energy than the electronic transition from the n=4energy level to the n =3energy level. The electronic transition from the n =4 energy level to the n =2 energy level is of higher or lower energy than the electronic transition from the n =4energy level to the n =3 energy level. -Answer- The electronic transition from the n =4 energy level to the n =2 energy level is of higher energy than the electronic transition from the n =4energy level to the n =3 energy level. can Temperature affect the intensity of the light or the frequency? -AnswerTemperature can affect the intensity of the light that is emitted, but not the frequency. The frequency of the light remains constant. To decide direction, remember that gravity points downwards, which requires the electric force to point in one direction? -Answer- To decide direction, remember that gravity points downwards, which requires the electric force to point upwards. is the magnetic and electric force affected by velocity? -Answer- Just as motion is necessary to generate a magnetic field but not an electric field, the magnetic force is affected by velocity, while the electric force is not. In order to produce a force on a moving electron, the magnetic field must be aligned perpendicular or parallel to the velocity of the particle, resulting in a force that is mutually perpendicular or parallel to both the magnetic field and the velocity. If the electron moves in the same direction as the magnetic field, it will feel or not feel a magnetic force -Answer- In order to produce a force on a moving electron, the magnetic field must be aligned perpendicular to the velocity of the particle, resulting in a force that is mutually perpendicular to both the magnetic field and the velocity. If the electron moves in the same direction as the magnetic field, it will feel no magnetic force. This means that the force exerted by the magnetic field is perpendicular to the magnetic field itself; so if the magnetic and electric fields are parallel, then the magnetic force is perpendicular to the electric force.What is an X-rays charge? Do they experience any force from either the electric or magnetic fields as they pass through them? -Answer- X-rays are electromagnetic radiation, and as such they have no charge. They will not experience any force from either the electric or magnetic fields as they pass through them. When a sample is heated, its electrons are thermally excited to a higher or lower energy state. When they relax back to their ground state, light is emitted at an exact wavelength. - Answer- When a sample is heated, its electrons are thermally excited to a higher energy state. When they relax back to their ground state, light is emitted at an exact wavelength. When no light is absorbed, what light is reflected? -Answer- Because white lead appears white in color, no light has been absorbed in the visible range. When no light is absorbed, white light (the incident light) is reflected. What is working memory a part of? -Answer- Working memory is part of information processing theory. However, it is a component of information processing whereby an individual holds and manipulates information in his or her mind before that information is encoded into long-term memory what is the primary function of the postcentral gyrus? -Answer- The postcentral gyrus is a prominent structure in the parietal lobe. The primary function of the postcentral gyrus is the processing of the sense of touch, not the senses of sound or sight, what is the primary function of the lateral geniculate nucleus -Answer- The lateral geniculate nucleus in the thalamus is involved with the visual processing pathway of the brain. It is the primary relay center for visual information received from the retina of the eye Which of these FFM traits is most strongly associated with psychopathology? A. Extraversion B. Openness to experience C. Conscientiousness D. Neuroticism (i.e., lack of emotional stability) -Answer- Neuroticism is the tendency to focus on and experience negative emotions, and can also be referred to as a lack of emotional stability (as it is for this question). People scoring high in neuroticism (or low in emotional stability) tend to be pessimistic, emotionally reactive, and vulnerable to stress; thus, it is most strongly correlated with psychopathology Which personality disorder describes someone who has a history of unstable relationships, a diffuse and unreliable sense of identity, chronic feelings of emptiness, and a history of suicidal thoughts and gestures?A. Schizotypal personality disorder B. Dependent personality disorder C. Borderline personality disorder D. Antisocial personality disorder -Answer- C. Borderline personality disorder Brain-imaging studies on deceit have shown that it leads to an alternate cognitive process when compared to truth-telling, which appears to be the default process of the human brain. In suppressing or inhibiting the truth, and often responding to the resultant stress, the brain becomes more active overall. Multiple areas are involved in the process, which are expected to include which of the following regions? I. The frontal lobes II. The limbic system III. The temporal lobes A. II only B. I and III only C. II and III only D. I, II, and III -Answer- D. I, II, and III Correct Answer what are the general functions of cerebral cortex? -Answer- general functions of the cerebral cortex include perception, skeletal muscle movement, memory, attention, thought, language, and consciousness; Which of the following is NOT true regarding somnambulism (sleepwalking), a type of parasomnia? A. Sleepwalking tends to occur during slow-wave sleep B. Typically individuals will engage in sleepwalking during the first third of the night C. Individuals will often act out the dreams they are concurrently having while sleepwalking D. While somnambulism tends to affect many children, most will grow out of it by adulthood -Answer- C. Individuals will often act out the dreams they are concurrently having while sleepwalking Somnambulism, or sleepwalking, occurs during slow-wave non-REM sleep (choice A is wrong), typically during the first third of the night (which corresponds to the fact that more slow-wave, deep sleep occurs early in the night; choice B is wrong); therefore, since it occurs during non-REM sleep, it is [Show More]

Last updated: 1 year ago

Preview 1 out of 73 pages